Biol 101 exam 4 practice questions f18

1.Where is the pituitary gland?

A. In the liver
B. In the brain
C. In the knee
D. In the lungs
E. In the testes

2. What hormone is released by the pancreas when blood sugar is high?

A. Growth hormone
B. Insulin
C. Glucagon
D. cortisol
E. epinephrine

3. How do cells of the endocrine system communicate?

A. Using axons
B. Using Morse code
C. Using hormones
D. Using synapses

4. Which hormone is involved in short term stress?

A. Growth hormone
B. Insulin
C. Glucagon
D. cortisol
E. epinephrine

5. Which of the following is not something stimulated by growth hormone?

A. Protein synthesis
B. Muscle growth
C. Bone growth
D. Cell division
E. Oxytocin release

6. Which of the following is not a macronutrient?

A. protein
B. calcium
C. carbohydrate
D. lipid
7. Why are vitamins and minerals called MICROnutrients?
A. Your body needs much smaller quantities of vitamins and mineral than of
macronutrients
B. Vitamins and minerals are small molecules, compared to the large glucose, lipid, or
protein molecules of macronutrient
C. Vitamins and minerals remain in the body for a much shorter period of time than
macronutrients
D. Vitamins and minerals are used only in specific, small areas of the body, compared to
macronutrients which are used throughout the body

8. Proteins are made of chains of what?

A. Lipids
B. glucose
C. Vitamins
D. Amino acids
E. Minerals

9. About how many ATP molecules can 1 gram of carbohydrate generate?

A. 1
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1,000
E. over 100 sextillion

10. If energy input exceeds demand what kind of molecule is produced in the human body? If
this continues for a long time what will result?
A. Starch, obesity
B. Protein, malnutrition
C. Triglyceride, obesity
D. Triglyceride, malnutrition
E. Starch, malnutrition

11. What is one reason why vitamin A is important?

A. It carries O2 around the body
B. It is required for starch synthesis
C. It is the building block of protein
D. It is a key molecule in light sensing
12. Which is the pancreas?

A
B
D
13. All of the following are processes involved
in the digestive system except one, which is it?
C E
A. ingestion
B. Mixing
C. Digestion
D. Absorption
E. Implantation

14. Where in the GI tract is the first place chemical digestion of food occurs?
A. The mouth
B. The esophagus
C. The stomach
D. The liver

15. Which of the following is a process that moves food through the gastrointestinal tract?
A. Amylase
B. Trypsin
C. Spitase
D. Lysozyme
E. Peristalsis

16. What does bile do?

A. Helps make fat molecules accessible to enzymes
B. Switch off the liver
C. Aids with uptake of water in the large intestine
D. Breaks down carbohydrate in the oral cavity

17. What is the function of the villi and microvilli in the small intestine?
A. Move chyme down through the intestines
B. Increase the surface area for nutrient absorption
C. Break apart large chunks of food into small chunks
D. Start the chemical digestion of food in the GI tract
18. Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?
A. Maintaining water /salt balance
B. Removing excess nitrogen
C. Sensing the environment
D. Removing toxins

19. What is this molecule

A. ammonia
B. urea
C. an amino acid
D. glucose
E. carbon dioxide

20. What is the job of the urethra?

A. To deliver blood to the kidneys
B. To take blood from the kidneys to the bladder
C. To expel urine outside the body
D. To take up water from the blood
A

21. Which is the glomerulus?

B
C
D

22. What does anti-diuretic hormone do?

A. Causes more water re-uptake in the kidneys, resulting in more concentrated urine
B. Causes less water re-uptake in the kidneys, resulting in less concentrated urine
C. Lowers blood sugar levels
D. Increases blood sugar levels

23. What is dialysis?

A. A kind of chemotherapy
B. A treatment for someone whose kidneys are not functioning
C. The breaking up of kidney stones
D. A type of brain surgery
24. What process is this diagram showing?
A. Asexual reproduction
B. Haploid number
C. Diploid number
D. Sexual reproduction

25. What does haploid number mean?

A. The total number of chromosomes in an organism
B. The number of limbs an organism has
C. The number of offspring an organism has
D. The number of chromosome copies an organism has
E. The number of different kinds of chromosomes an organism has

26. What is the haploid number and ploidy of this cell?

Haploid number Ploidy
A. 1 3N
B. 3 1N
C. 2 2N
D. 3 3N
E. 1 1N

27. What process is this diagram showing?

A. Haploidy
B. Ploidy
C. Meiosis
D. Mitosis
E. Asexual reproduction

28. What do humans use MITOSIS for?

A. Growth of the body
B. Dividing the body into two offspring
C. Producing propagules for asexual reproduction
D. Producing gametes for sexual reproduction
29. Which of these is NOT a function of the male reproductive system?
A. Produce gametes
B. Stimulate secondary sex characteristics
C. Provide energy and nutrients to offspring
D. Transfer gametes into the female body
E. ALL of these are functions of the male system

30. What is the function of the Vas deferens?

A. transport of sperm from testes to urethra
B. to store seminal fluid
C. to force sperm through the penis
D. to make and store the male gametes

31. What is NOT TRUE about the biology shown in this diagram?
A. Testosterone inhibits release of Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone by the hypothalamus
B. The hypothalamus and pituitary are in the brain
C. FSH stands for Follicle Stimulating Hormone
D. Testosterone is produced by the Leydig cells
E. Luteinizing hormone activates sperm generation in the pituitary

32. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of semen?

A. Slightly alkaline pH
B. Contains sugar to provide energy to the sperm
C. The volume is 90% sperm
D. 1 ejaculation contains around 300,000,000 sperm
E. Contains chemicals that affect the female’s immune system

33. What is X?
A. the ovary
B. the fallopian tube
C. the endometrium
D. the cervix X
E. the vagina
34. What is the role of the fallopian tube?
A. Produces sperm
B. Nourish developing baby
C. Moves the ovum from the ovary to uterus
D. Separates the uterus from the vagina

35. How does the developing embryo obtain oxygen?

A. Blood carrying oxygen flows from the mother, through the placenta, and into the
embryo
B. Hemoglobin from the maternal blood is transported into the fetal blood
C. Oxygen is more abundant in fetal blood, so oxygen flows down its concentration
gradient
D. The oxygen binding ability of fetal hemoglobin is higher than maternal hemoglobin’s

36. At an oxygen concentration of 40 PO2 (mm Hg) approximately what percentage of

hemoglobin in an embryo will have O2 bound?
A. 40%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
E. 100%

37. What process enables glucose to get into the embryo?

A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Endocytosis
D. Diffusion

38. During development of a human what is the name of the stage in which the organs are
formed but still growing?
A. Gamete
B. Zygote
C. Embryo
D. Fetus
39. Which hormone is critically involved in labor?
A. Estrogen
B. Oxytocin
C. Testosterone
D. Gonadotrophin releasing hormone
E. Follicle stimulating hormone

40. About what time in development does differentiation of sexual anatomy start?
A. A few days after fertilization
B. Week 2
C. Week 7
D. A month before birth

41. Which of the following is NOT a method of birth control?

A. hormone treatment
B. physical barriers
C. spermicidal chemicals
D. surgical cutting of vas Deferens
E. these are all types of birth control

42. What is the haploid number and ploidy number in almost all the cells in your body?
A. 23:2
B. 23:1
C. 46:1
D. 46:2

43. What does genotype mean?

A. The alleles an organism has for a particular trait
B. The appearance of an organism that depend on the combination of alleles
C. The number of difference genes an organism has
D. The number of copies of each chromosome an organism has

44. This diagram shows alleles for eye color in a cross

between two brown-eyed parents.
What are the chances a child will have blue eyes?
A. 1 in 2
B. 1 in 3
C. 1 in 4
D. It is not possible since both parents have brown eyes
45. If large dogs cannot access food, but small dogs can, what do you expect will happen
through time to the relative proportion of s alleles and S alleles in this population of dogs?
A. s should increase, S should decrease
B. s should decrease, S should increase
C. Both should increase
D. Both should decrease
E. Something else should happen

46. Which of the following is NOT a critical component of evolution by natural selection?
A. Genotypic variation must exist within a population
B. Genotypic variation causes phenotypic variation (differences in appearance / behavior)
C. Different phenotypes have different survival and reproductive success (=fitness)
D. Change in an organism that happens when a niche opens up

47. Who thought that species changed over an individual’s life and those changes were passed
on to the offspring?
A. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
B. Charles Darwin
C. James Schultz
D. Emmanuel Macron

48. Why do infants produce lactase?

A. To digest the lactose in their diet
B. Because their mothers tell them to
C. Because it is found in cow’s milk
D. Because they cannot digest glucose

49. Approximately when did humans first evolve lactase persistence?

A. 1,000 ya
B. 10,000 ya
C. 100,000 ya
D. 1,000,000 ya

50. Where is it advantageous for the SCA allele to persist in the population?
A. In the blood
B. In children
C. In places where malaria is common
D. Wherever there are mosquitos