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ECAT 2017

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PREFACE
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PHYSICS PORTION with Solution Manual


1) In an experiment, the length of a steel rod is to measure. For this purpose, a student finds two different
devices in the lab. Device A can measure the length with absolute uncertainty of 0.5cm while device B
can make the same measurement with absolute uncertainty of 0.05cm. For the precise measurement, a
student:
A) Use only device A to measure the length
B) Use only device B to measure the length (Correct)
C) Use the average of measurement obtained using devices A and B
D) Use the minimum of measurement obtained using devices A and B
Explanation:
Using the concept:
“A precise measurement is the one which has less absolute uncertainty”
In this case, device A which has absolute uncertainty 0.5 cm is more than device B which has absolute
uncertainty 0.05 cm. So using concept, Device B has less absolute uncertainty, so student should use
device B for precise measurement.

2) Which of the following expressions could be valid expression for velocity v of ocean waves in terms of
density of sea water (p), the depth of the ocean (h), the wavelength and the acceleration of the free fall
(g)?
A) (Correct)
B) ℎ

C)

D)

Explanation:
Short Method:
In such problems where we don’t know the exact relation among the different quantities, we use the base
unit implementation method. In this problem, we consider the SI base unit of velocity i.e. m/s and make
the same unit as that of velocity from the relations in given options
Option A: - = ( )( )=√ = which is actually the unit of velocity.
Option B: - ℎ= ( )( )( )= which is not unit of velocity.

Option C: - = = which is not unit of velocity instead it’s unit of frequency.

 Option D: - = = which is not unit of velocity.


By using this method, if you get the answer on checking units from initial options then you don’t need
to check for the further options because it will waste your time while taking any Entrance Test.

3) Two forces of the magnitudes 5N and 8 N acts on a point. Which of the following can’t be the
magnitude of the resultant force?
A) 6N
B) 10N

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C) 2N (Correct)
D) 13N For your information:
Explanation: If θ= 90˚ then
Resultant of two vectors is given by:
R= √ + +2 90 = √ +
R= √ + +2
If θ= 0˚ then Rmax= √ + +2 0= ( + ) =| + |
If θ=180˚ then Rmin=√ + +2 180 = ( − ) = | − |
So Possible resultant of vector A and B is given by the range:
≤ ≤
| − |≤ ≤| + |
In this case , A= 5N and B= 8N
|5 − 8| ≤ ≤ |5 + 8|
|−3| ≤ ≤ |13|
3≤ ≤ 13
So valid value of resultant lies in range from 3 to 13. But from the given options only R=2 N can’t be
possible resultant from the given range of resultant. So that Option C is correct answer.

4) Three uniform bricks, each of the length L, are stacked as shown in the figure below

Which of the following can be the valid value of


x if the resultant system is in the equilibrium?
A) L/8
B) L/4
C) L/2
D) Both A & B (Correct)
Explanation:
Concept:
Brick/block stacking can be done when brick/block is placed on center of mass of the brick down to the
brick one. Means to say that displacement for each brick on stacking will be half of the previous one. For
system of bricks/blocks to be in equilibrium, brick/block can’t be stacked with the displacement greater
than previous displacement of brick/block. Concept has been derived from the principle of moments
According to principle of moments:
On stacking 1st brick :
mg (L/2)- 1mg(a1)=0
mg (L/2)=mg(a1) mg L/2
a1= L/2

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On stacking 2nd brick:


mg(L/2) – 2 mg (a2)=0
mg(L/4)=mg(a2)
a2=L/4
So that maximum offset displacement for nth brick on stacking is given by:
mg(L/2)- n mg(an)=0
mg(L/2n)=mg (an)
an= L/2n (which is maximum offset displacement)
(Note, for a system to be in equilibrium, offset displacement can’t be greater than previous displacement
but can be less than respective offset displacement for a brick on stack)
By using this concept:
Maximum offset displacement for value of x is:
x= L/2(2)  x= L/4
As the system is in equilibrium, so we can say that valid value x can also be x=L/8 which is actually less
than previous offset displacement i.e. L/2.
For your information:
Maximum Overhang on each brick:
The sum of all the offset displacement on
a particular stacking the brick is given by:
Maximum Overhang= ½ + ¼ …… +1/2n
i.e. Maximum Overhang= ∑

5) An old communication satellite orbiting at a radius r1 is replaced by a new satellite at an orbit of radius
r2 . The new satellite has twice the mass of the first satellite and each of the satellites has an orbit of 24
hours. The ratio of r2/r1 is:
A) ½
B) 1 (Correct)
C) 2
D)√2
Explanation:
According to Kepler’s Planetary Law:

r=
Whereas, value of Gravitational constant and mass of a particular planet remains constant.
Hence, ∝
As geostationary satellites have the same time period as that of earth in the orbit. The satellite which
orbits around the Earth is called geostationary satellite. Radius of geostationary satellite is independent of
mass of satellites. It depends upon the mass of particular planet about which a satellite orbits around.
In this case, we got the hint from statement of problem that these are geostationary satellites as time
period of satellites to orbit is 24 hours same as that of the Earth. So that, with change in mass of satellite
the radius of satellite remains unchanged. So that

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And =

Hence r2/r1 = = 1: 1 (Answer)

6) A solar panel delivers 100 watts for one minute. How much energy does it deliver during this period?
A) 60 J
B) 6kJ (Correct)
C) 100 J
D) 3.6kJ
Explanation:
As we know that:
Power (P) = Work done/time
As the ability to do work is termed as energy so that:
P= E/t  E= Pt
Here t= 1 min= 60 seconds
P= 100 W
Hence, E= 100*60 = 6000J =6kJ (Answer)

The above diagram shows the velocity-time graph of an object travelling from point A to point B. Answer
the next two questions using the above graph.
7) The maximum acceleration of the object during the journey is:
A) 0 m/s2
B) 1 m/s2
C) 3 m/s2
D) 6 m/s2 (Correct)
Explanation:
As we know that:
The slope of the velocity-time graph is equal to average acceleration.
As slope of tangent is equal to derivative. Acceleration can be defined as derivative of velocity with
respect to time.
As v= 3t2 and t=1
So a= d(v)/d(t) = d(3t2)/dt = 6t
At t=1  a=6(1)= 6 m/s2 (Answer)

8) The total distance covered during this journey is:

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A) 2m
B) 5m
C) 7m (Correct)
D) 10m
Explanation:
As area under the velocity-time graphs represents the distance travelled by an object.
As in the given v-t graph there is some fluctuation as shown in graph. So firstly, we find out for time t=1s
and v=3 m/s so space under marked up lines showing a triangular region.
So Area of triangle = ½ (b) (h) = ½ (t) (v) = ½ (1) (3) = 3/2 =1.5m
From the t1 =1 to t2= 3  t= t2-t1 =3-1=2 s showing a rectangular region, so we find out its area now.
And v remains same as v=3 m/s.
So Area of rectangle= (l) (w) = (t) (v) = (2) (3) = 6m
 Total area occupied by the region of v-t graph = Area of triangle + Area of rectangle
Hence, area under v-t graph= 1.5+6= 7.5 m
 Possible answer could be 7m from the given option which is closest to real value.(Applying the value
approximation method)

9) A stone, thrown at an angle to the horizontal in the gravitation field, follows a parabolic path PQRST
in the absence of the air resistance. These points denote the position of the stone after successive equal
time intervals. T is the highest point reached. The displaced PQ, QR, RS and ST:
A) has equal vertical components
B) increase at a constant rate
C) has equal horizontal components (Correct)
D) decrease at a constant rate
Explanation:
Projectile motion:
“Two dimensional motion of an object under the action of constant acceleration due to gravity and inertia
is termed as Projectile motion”
 The path followed by the projectile motion is parabolic.
As in the given problem. it is stated that a stone thrown which is making a parabolic path PQRST so that
it must move with projectile motion.
 During the projectile motion:
Consider the motion of an object thrown horizontally from a certain height with velocity v.
1) The body moves forward (due to inertia) as well as downward (due to gravity).
2) As no force acts along the horizontal direction, so that acceleration of the object in horizontal direction
remains zero. (i.e. ax=0)
3) Only force acting on the body is the force of gravity. So the object has vertical acceleration equal to g
(i.e. ay=g)
4) The object moves with the constant horizontal velocity (i.e. vfx=vix =vi cosθ) and constant vertical
acceleration (i.e. g=9.8 m/s2)
So that, on displacing the stone from PQ,QR,RS and ST the object has equal horizontal components
Mathematically:
Horizontal component of initial velocity of stone=vix=vi cosθ
Using 1st equation of motion: (for horizontal motion)

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vfx=vix+ ax t
vfx=vix+ ax t (i.e. ax=0)
 vfx=vix=vi cosθ (Answer)

10) When a bus is at rest, a pendulum hanging from the ceiling inside the bus is just above a certain mark
on the floor. When the bus moves in a straight line at a constant speed of 120 km/hr on the motorway, the
pendulum bob:
A) Oscillate with the simple harmonic motion about its means position
B) Stays over the mark because there is no force on the bob due to the motion (Correct)
C) Stays over the mark because there is a force due to the motion is balanced by the reaction of thread
D) is behind the mark in a position where the horizontal force exerted on the bob due the motion is equal
to horizontal component of the tension in the thread
Explanation:
Time period of a pendulum hung from the ceiling oscillating inside a moving bus/train is given by:
=2

As the bus is moving with uniform velocity i.e. 120km/hr so that time rate of change in velocity remains
zero i.e. (a=0).
T= 2

T=2
According to Newton’s 2nd law of motion:
F= ma
As a=0
So F=0
Hence, pendulum bob stays over the mark because there is no force on the bob due to the motion.

11) A tuning fork P produces 12 beats per second with another tuning fork Q. If the frequency of Q is 200
Hz, the frequency of P is:
A) 212 Hz For your information:
B) 188 Hz “If frequency difference is greater
C) 2400 Hz than 10Hz then it is difficult to
D) Both A & B (Correct) recognize them
Explanation: Therefore: 10 ≤ |fA-fB|
As we know that:
Number of beats per second is equal to the magnitude of difference between frequencies of tuning forks
i.e. fP – fQ=±n
Or n=|fP-fQ|
As n= 12 beats per second and fQ =200Hz
 fP – fQ=±n
 fp-200=±12
 fp= 200±12
Hence, fp=200+12 =212 Hz or fp= 200-12=188Hz (Both can be possible)

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12) The following graph shows the variation of force F on a body with time t.

The area under the graph represents:


A) Change in velocity
B) Change in momentum (Correct)
C) Change in acceleration
D) Change in kinetic energy
Explanation:
As we know that:
Area under the Force-time graph represents the impulse (i.e. F*t= Impulse).
As Impulse = Change in momentum.
Hence, area under F-t graph represents change in momentum.

13) A particle P moving with the kinetic energy E and momentum p makes a head-on collision with an
identical particle Q which is initially at rest. Both particles stick together. Which of the following rows
correctly represents the kinetic energy and the magnitude of momentum after the collision?

Correct Answer: Option C


Explanation:
According to given statement, the collision which is discussing in it is inelastic collision.
Inelastic collision is one in which K.E is not conserved. But the momentum is conserved in any type of
collision.
Perfectly Inelastic Collision:
An inelastic collision is any collision between two objects in which some energy is los. A special case of
this is sometimes termed as “Perfectly Inelastic Collision”. In a perfectly inelastic collision, two objects
collide and stick together. The momentum of the objects before the collision is conserved the total energy
is also conserved. The final velocity of the combined objects depends upon the masses and the velocities
of two objects that collide.

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(mass of object A) (Initial velocity of object) + (mass of object B)(Initial velocity of object) =(mass of
object A+ mass of object B) (final velocity of combined objects)
( )
 =
Here:
m1= mass of object A.
v1= initial velocity of object A
m2= mass of object B
v2=initial velocity of object B
vf= final velocity of combined objects on collision.
In this case, here the particles are identical so having same masses i.e. m1=m2=m and as particle P with
velocity (v1=v) collides with a stationary particle Q with velocity (v2=0).
After the collision, final velocity of combined particles is given by:
( )
 =
( )
 =
So, = =
As we know that:
Before the collision, Particle P has kinetic energy E and momentum p, whereas the particle Q has initial
Kinetic energy (i.e. E=0) and momentum (i.e. p=0).
After the collision, and as the both particles sticks together. Final combined velocity of particles is v/2
(i.e. vf= v/2)
So that after the collision:
K.E’= ½ mv2’= ½ (m) (v/2)2= ¼(½ mv2)  K.E’= ¼ (E) = E/4
So for each particle after collision K.E’= E/4
After the collision:
Kinetic energy of system =K.E of particle P +K.E of particle Q
K.ESystem= E/4 +E/4  K.E of system= E/2
Hence, kinetic energy is not conserved which proves that collision is perfectly inelastic collision.
After the collision:
p’= mv’= m(v/2) = ½ (mv)= ½ (p)  p’= p/2
So for each particle after collision p’= p/2
Momentum of a system = Momentum of particle P + Momentum of particle Q
psystem= p/2 + p/2  momentum of system= p
Which proves that momentum of the system always remains same in any kind of collision (i.e. elastic
collision or inelastic collision)

14) A stone of mass m is thrown vertically upwards with the velocity v. Neglecting air resistance, which
of the following statement is correct?
A) The stone travels equal distance during equal interval of time during both ascent and descent
B) The total energy of the stone is constant throughout the ascent and descent in accordance with law of
conservation of Energy (Correct)
C) The total momentum of the stone is constant throughout the ascent and descent in accordance with the
law of conservation of momentum
D) The potential energy of the stone increases uniformly with time during ascent

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Explanation:
Just solve this problem with logical contradiction method, because in this problem each option responds
to some logical fact. So just discussing each option to get the correct answer out.
Option A:
When a stone is thrown upward then there are two kinds of forces act on the stone i.e. gravitational force
and resistance force. Due to both of these forces, the time of flight and distance covered in ascent and
descent may vary so that it is incorrect as given in option A.
Option B:
According to Law of Conservation of energy:
“Energy can’t be destroyed nor created. But can be transformed from one form into another so that total
energy remains constant”
Total Energy of the system= K.E of the system + P.E of the system
As in the ascent of the stone, the height is increasing so that (P.E= mgh) increases. Whereas on ascending
the stone, (K.E= ½ mv2) decreases as with increase in height the velocity decreases. On the descent of the
stone, as the stone moves with greater velocity so that K.E will increase and with decrease in the height,
the Potential energy of stone will decrease. But the total energy of the stone will remains same as
according to Law of conservation of Energy in both ascent and descent.
Option C:
According to Law of Conservation of Momentum:
“Total linear momentum of an isolated system remains same”.
As the air resistance is negligible so that let it to be vacuumed condition. But as on moving upward, the
velocity of the stone decreases and on moving downward, the velocity of stone increases. So that law of
conservation of momentum is not obeyed, this contradicts condition as given in Option C.
Option D:
The potential energy will not uniformly increase in the ascent of the stone because it may vary point to
point , this contradicts the condition as given in Option D.

15) A steel ball held a short distance h above the surface of liquid, in a deep tank is released. Which of the
following does not affect the terminal velocity of the ball in the liquid?
A) Distance h (Correct)
B) Viscosity of liquid
C) Diameter of the sphere
D) Density of the liquid
Explanation:
Terminal Velocity:
“The maximum and constant velocity of an object falling vertically downward is called terminal
velocity”.
Terminal velocity can be defined as;
:. =
This means that terminal velocity depends upon the viscosity of the liquid.
And terminal velocity can also be defined as:

=
It implies that terminal velocity also depends upon the diameter of sphere and density of liquid. But it’s

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independent of the distance i.e. height of tank (h)

16) Two stackers of equal mass, facing each other and holding hands with arms outstretched a spinning at
angular velocity w about vertical axis midway between them. If they move close together so that they
halve their separation, the new angular velocity is:
A) w/2
B) w
C) 2w
D) 4w (Correct)
Explanation:
As we know that:
Stackers are machines to lift to cars or luggage from one place to another.
I1 w1=I2 w2
( mR2) (w1) = (m (R/2)2 w2
(mR2) (w1)= ( (R2/4)w2
w1= ¼ w2
w2= 4w1
which implies w2= 4w (Answer)

17) A person standing on a weighing scale in a lift going upwards with constant velocity. If the weight of
the person under the normal circumstances is W. The weight shown by the weighing scale in the lift will
be?
A) less than W
B) greater than W
C) equal to W (Correct)
D) May be less than or greater than W depending upon the speed of the lift
Explanation:
Concept:
“When the lift is at rest or moving with uniform velocity, then apparent weight of an object is equal to
real weight for observer in the lift”.
Reason: When the lift is at rest. Newton’s 2nd law tells us that the acceleration of object becomes zero. So
the net force becomes zero. If “W” be the gravitational force acting on the object and T be the tension in
string.
Then T-W=ma
as a=0
 T-W= m(0)
 T-W =0
 T=W (Answer)

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18) A pendulum is oscillating in simple harmonic motion. Which of the following graphs correctly shows
the variation of its acceleration a with respect to the displacement x from the center of its path?

Correct Answer : Option B


Explanation:
As the acceleration is directed towards the means position in SHM. So, we get the direction of a is
opposite to x.
According to equation:
⃗=− ⃗
The graph shown in the option B also satisfying this equation.

19) A simple pendulum with the length l is known to oscillate with a period T in seconds. If the length of
the pendulum is increasing to 2l and the maximum displacement of the pendulum remains same, the total
energy of the system will:
A) Decrease
B) Increase
C) Remain same (Correct)
D) decrease or increase depending upon the mass of the pendulum bob.
Explanation:
As simple harmonic motion obeys the law of conservation of energy. So, that motion of simple pendulum
also obeys the laws as it is executing SHM. Hence, the total energy always remains same in the simple
pendulum.

20) Two copper wires of lengths l and 2l are stretched by a force F. If the cross section area of the wire of
length l is A. What is the cross section area of the wire of the length 2l, if the extension in the both wires
is same?
A) A/2
B) A
C) 2A (Correct)
D) 4A
Explanation:
Strain: Strain is defined as extension of wire per unit original (un stretched) length of wire.
Stress: Stress is the force per unit cross-sectional area of wire.
According to Young’s Modulus:

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Young’s Modulus = Stress/Strain


Y = (F/A) / (x/l)
Here, we have given the two lengths having same extension acting the same quantity of force on it.
so that x1=x2= x and F1=F2=F
Now According to young’s Modulus:
Y1=Y2
(F/A1)/(x/l1)= (F/A2)/(x/l2)
(1/A1)/(1/l1)= (1/A2)/(1/l2)
(1/l2)/(1/l1)= (1/A2)/(1/A1)
l1/l2=A1/A2
As l1=l having cross section area A and l2=2l
l/2l = A/A2
½= A/A2
A2=2A (Answer)

21) The frequency of the fundamental mode of the transverse vibration of a stretched wire is 1000 mm
long is 250 Hz. When the wire is shortened to 500 mm at the same tension. What is the fundamental
frequency?
A) 125 Hz
B) 250 Hz
C) 500 Hz (Correct)
D) 1000 Hz
Explanation:
Fundamental frequency of the stretched wire/string is given by:
f=v/2l

Or f= = ( )

f1=1/2L1 ( )

f2=1/2L2
As the tension in both wire is same:
F1= F2
f12*m4L12 = f22m4L22
(250)2L12=f22L22
f22= L12/L22(250)2
Square rooting both sides
f2= L1/L2 (250)
f2= 1000mm/(500mm) (250)
f2= 1/(0.5) (250)
f2= 1/( ½) (250)
f2= 2 (250) =500 Hz (Answer)

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22) Coherent monochromatic light illuminates two narrow parallel slits and interference pattern which
results is observed on a screen some distance beyond the slits. Which of the following modification will
increase the separation between the dark lines of the interference pattern?
A) Using the monochromatic light of higher frequency
B) Using the monochromatic light of higher wavelength (Correct)
C) Decreasing the distance between screen and slits
D) Increasing the distance between slits
Explanation:
As we know that:
y= (m+1/2)ƛL/d (for destructive interference i.e. dark lines pattern)
y= m ƛL/d (for instructive interference i.e. bright lines pattern)
Whereas
m= order of fringe
ƛ= wavelength of light
L= distance between screen and slits
d= distance between two slits
y=separation between fringes.
For Dark Lines pattern:
y= (m+1/2)ƛL/d
It’s required to increase separation b/w dark lines, wavelength of monochromatic light must increase.
Because Y is directly proportional to wavelength of light and inversely proportional to distance b/w slits.

23) A ray of light is incident on glass-air boundary for which the critical angle is C. If the speed of the
speed of the light in the glass is known to be half of the speed of light in vacuum, the critical angle is:
A) 30˚ (Correct)
B) 60˚
C) 45˚
D) 90˚
Explanation:
Critical angle: The angle of incidence in denser medium for which it s corresponding angle of refraction
is 90˚ is called critical angle.
According to Snell’s Law:
n1sinθ1=n2sinθ2
Let = = 90°
sinθC= n2/n1
As we know that:
Refractive index (n)= Speed of light in vacuum/ speed of light in medium
nglass = vvacuum/vglass
As it’s given that: Speed of light in glass = ½ (speed of light in vacuum)
So that: vglass = ½ (vvacuum)
 nglass = vvacuum/( ½ vvacuum)
 nglass= 2
As we know that speed of light in air and vacuum is almost equal so that vvacuum =vair

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nair = vvacuum/vair
nair= vvacuum/vvacuum
 nair=1
As the light is incident on the glass-air boundary so that critical angle is given by:
And here n1=nglass and n2=nair
sinθC= n2/n1
sinθC=1/2
θC=arc sin (1/2)
θC= 30˚ (Answer)

24) The temperature of 1 kg of hydrogen gas is the same as that of 1 kg of Helium gas if:
A) The gases have same the internal energy
B) The gas occupies the equal volume.
C) The gas have the same means square speed.
D) The gas molecules have the same means translational kinetic energy (Correct)
Explanation:
“Absolute temperature of an ideal gas is directly proportional to the average translational kinetic energy
of the gas molecules”
Mathematically:
T= 2/3k <1/2 mv2>

25) A wire loop is placed in between the poles of magnet as shown in the figure below:

If the wire loop is rotated in the clockwise direction around the axis. Which of the following statement
regarding the instantenous current in PQ segment is correct?
A) The direction of the current will be from P to Q.
B) The direction of the current will be from Q to P. (Correct)
C) There is no current
D) The direction of the current in PQ segment will depend upon the the resistance of the load.
Explanation:
According to Right hand rule:
“As the field lines are directed from North to South pole, the rotation of wire loop is in clockwise
direction as the curling of fingers of right hand. Then the erect thumb will indicate the direction of current
which is from Q to P in this case”.

26) In the direction indicated by an electric field line is


A) The electric field strength must increase
B) The electric field strength must decrease

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C) The potential must increase


D) The potential must decrease (Correct)
Explanation:
As we know that:
E= -∆V/∆r
∆V= -E∆r
Which means that with increase in electric field the with displacement the potential must be decreased in
the direction indicated by electric field line.

27) A source initially contains No nuclei of a radioactive nuclide. How many of these nuclei have
decayed after a time interval of three half lives?
A) No/8
B) 7No/8 (Correct)
C) No/2 For your information:
D) 15No/16 Number of half life (n) is termed as:
Explanation: n= (Total time) /t1/2
Half Life:
“It is the time taken for the number of the radioactive nuclei to increase by the factor of 2”
 “The time duration in which half of the atom of a radioactive sample decays by the transmutation is
called ‘half life’.
Factor Affecting the Half life:
Half life of a radioactive substance depends upon the quantity of sample of substance.
 Radioactivity is independent of the external parameter like temperature, volume or pressure etc.
 Complete decay of a radioactive sample requires an infinite time.
 Radioactivity is highly random, unsymmetrical and unpredictable phenomenon.
Let No= Initial no. of atoms
No. of un decayed atoms= No/2n
 No. of decayed atoms = No – (No/2n)
whereas n= no. of half life.
In this case:
n= 3
No. of decayed atoms =No – (No/23)= 7No/8 (Answer)

28) The electrons in a cathode-ray tube are accelerated from the cathode to anode by a potential
difference of 2000 V. If the potential difference is increased to 8000V. the electrons will arrive at the
anode with:
A) Twice the kinetic energy and four times the velocity
B) Four times the kinetic energy and sixteen times the velocity
C) Four times the kinetic energy and twice the velocity (Correct)
D) Sixteen times the kinetic energy and four times the velocity
Explanation:
As we know that:
Velocity of electron is given by:
. . = ∆

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. = ∆

 =
which implies that for an electron:

v1/v2=


v1/v2= ∆

As ∆ = ∆ =

v1/v2=

v1/v2=
v1/v2= ½
 v2= 2v1 (velocity is increased twice)
Now Kinetic energy of electron is given by:
 . = ∆
 . = ∆
K.E1/K.E2 = ∆V1/∆V2
K.E1/K.E2= 2000/8000
K.E1/K.E2=1/4
K.E2=4 K.E1 (So that K.E is increased four times)

29) Three similar light bulbs are connected to a constant DC supply as shown in the diagram. Each bulb
operates at normal brightness and an ammeter of a negligible resistance registers a steady current.

One more similar bulb is connected in parallel to the three bulbs. What happens to the ammeter reading
and the brightness of the four bulbs?
A) Ammeter reading increases and brightness also increases
B) Ammeter reading increases and brightness remains unchanged. (Correct)
C) Ammeter reading remains unchanged; bulb brightness remains unchanged
D) Ammeter reading decreases and brightness remains unchanged
Explanation:
As we know that:
Power dissipation of bulb =V2/R (For Parallel)
Power dissipation of bulb = I2R (For series)
As we know that:
Ammeter is a device used to measure the current through a circuit.

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For your information:
As Resistance of bulbs when connected in parallel is given by: When two bulbs with different
1/Req= 1/R1+1/R2 +….+1/Rn powers are connected in series
For n-identical resistor (bulbs) in parallel. then the bulb with lower power
Req= R/n will glow more.
Here initially n=3 When two bulbs with different
Req= R/3 powers are connected in parallel
And according to the Ohm’s Law: then the bulb with greater power
I= V/R will glow more.
I= V/(R/3)
I = 3(V/R)
So that when the bulbs are connected in parallel then current is increased because resistance decreases.
As we know that in parallel:
 Current divides across each resistor (bulb)
 Voltage remains same across resistor (bulb)
So when forth bulb is connected in the same parallel combination so that resistance will decrease more
and current will increase, thus ammeter reading will increase.
Brightness of bulb depends upon the power dissipation of the bulb.
As 3 identical bulbs are connected in the parallel combination so that voltage across each bulb remains
constant which means Power dissipation ( P= V2/R) across each bulb remain same. In general, the bulb
with the greater power glows more in the parallel but in this case as the bulbs are identical so that they
dissipate equal amount of power and hence glows equally. As it is stated that a forth bulb is connected in
parallel to these 3 bulbs as the initial brightness is not affecting so on introducing forth bulb, the
brightness of the bulbs remains unchanged as well.

30) The truth table as shown in the figure below if implemented by:

A B Output
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
A) NOR Gate
B) AND Gate
C) OR Gate
D) XOR Gate (Correct)
Explanation:
Using Contradiction statement method:
Option A: As A and B are 0 so that out put zero but for NOR gate output must be 1 when both inputs are
zero. (i.e. X= + → 0 + 0 = 0 = 1), So this contradicts the given truth table.
Option B: As when A and B are different or both A and B are zero, the output must be 0 for AND gate
and when both A and B inputs are 1 then its output must be 1. But in this case the table contradicts the
condition of AND gate so it is not true for AND gate. (i.e. X= A.B  X= 1.1=1 )
Option C: As both A and B are zero then its output must be zero. Otherwise the output must be 1 for
each case. As the given table contradicts this condition. So it is not valid for OR Gate.
Option D: For XOR gate, the given truth table satisfies (i.e. A + ̅ → 0. 1 + 0. 1 = 0.0 + 1.1 = 1).

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MATHEMATICS PORTION with Solution Manual


31) Asim is now three times as old as Irfan. After 10 years, Asim will be twice as old as Irfan. Asim’s age
at this time is:
A) 10 yrs
B) 20 yrs
C) 30 yrs (Correct)
D) 40 yrs

Solution:
In ECAT, there is less chances to appear such kind of questions. In 2017, it was first time that this type
was induced. Let me share you some basics and key facts regarding it.
Aging Questions:
Key Facts:
Let Mr.Asim’s Age is x year; then
Present Age= x
(After refers to increment in present age (i.e. addition operates here))
Age after 2 years = x+2
Age after 4 years = x+4
(Ago/Before refers to decrement in present age (i.e. subtraction operates here))
Asim’s age 4 year ago= x-4
Asim’s age 10 years before = x-10
If ‘A’ is 4 years older than B, then A= B+4
 If ‘A’ is 4 years younger than B then A= B-4
 If ratio of age of two persons at present is a:b then it will not remain same for any other period.
Let start solving it with these key facts.
In this case,
Let age of Irfan =x
According to given condition,
Age of Asim is 3 times age of Irfan i.e. Asim’s age= 3x – (A’)
Now after the 10 years, it is instructed that Asim will be twice as old as Irfan. According to it,
Age of Asim = 3x+10 - (1)
Age of Irfan = 2(x+10) - (2)
Now equate as per condition,
Age of Asim= Age of Irfan
3x+10 = 2(x+10)
3x+10= 2x+20
3x-2x= 20-10
x=10
So that Present age of Irfan is 10
Present age of Asim = 3x
Present age of Asim = 3(10) = 30 years (Answer)

32) The solution of the equation xdy + (y-1) dx =0 is :


A) ln(x+(y-1))=c

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B) x(y-1)=c (Correct)
C) x e(y-1)=c
D) xy+x(y-1)=c

Solution:
As differential equation is xdy+(y-1)dx=0
Let start individualizing the x and y terms
xdy= -(y-1)dx
 1/(y-1) dy = -(1/x)dx
Take indefinite integral on both sides.
∫ = −∫
Solving it.
 ln(y-1)= - ln(x)+lnc
 ln(y-1) = ln (x-1)+lnc :.(Applying logarithmic property, i.e. nln(a)= lnan)
 ln(y-1) = ln(1/x) +lnc
 ln(y-1)= ln (1/x . c) :. (As ln(x) +lny =ln(xy)
 (y-1) = (1/x) .c :. (Taking anti-ln on both sides)
 x(y-1)=c (Answer)

33) The maximum value of function f(x,y)= -x+3y subject to contraints -x≤ 2 , x≤ 3 and y ≤ 1 is:
A) (-100,100)
B) (-2,1) (Correct)
C) (-100,0)
D) (3,1)

Solution:
Applying the solution steps,
Step#1:
-x≤ 2  x≥-2 (Associated eq. is x= -2) – (1)
x≤ 3 (Associated eq. is x=3) – (2)
y ≤ 1 (Associated eq. is y=1) – (3)
Step#2:
Finding coordinated by intercept method:
(1) has coordinate A(-2,0)
(2) has coordinate B(3,0)
(3) has coordinate C (0,1)
Step#3:
Applying origin test (0,0) on 1,2 and 3. If (0,0) satisfies equation which means it is directed towards the
origin and if it doesn’t satisfy which implies that it is directed away from the orgin.
On applying origin test (0,0) , 1,2 and 3 are true (Satisfying).
So points are:
(-2,0) , (3,0) and (0,1)
On intersecting A and C or B and C, we get (-2,1) and (3,1) respectively
Now checking for maximum value, f(x,y)= -x+3y

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f(-2,1) = -(-2) + 3(1) = 5 (Max)


f(3,1)= -(3) +3(1)=0 (Mini)
So maximum value for f(x,y) is (-2,1) and minimum value of it is (3,1) (Answer)

34) Two vectors u= ai-j+k and v=i-2j+bk are collinear if:


A) a=1, b=1
B) a= ½ . b=2 (Correct)
C) a=2 , b= ½
D) a=-1, b=-1

Solution:
Conditions for two lines/vectors to be parallel, perpendicular or coincident:
Let two lines/vectors i.e. a1x+b1y+c1=0 and a2x+b2y+c2=0 are said to be:
a) Parallel if a1b2-a2b1=0
b) Perpendicular if a1a2+b1b2=0
c) Coincident/Collinear if = =
d) Intersected if a1b2-a2b1≠0
In this case as vectors are collinear,
= =
u= ai-j+k
v=i-2j+bk
 = =
 a=1/2 (i.e. a=b=c  a=b and b=c)
1/2=1/b b=2 (Answer)

35) Two vecors u=ai-j+k and v=i-2j+bk are perpendicular if:


A) a=3,b=-1
B) a=2, b=-1
C) a=1, b=-3 (Correct)
D) a= ½ , b=2

Solution:
We can use the above condition to solve it but that might take some time, so we apply here the
perpendicular vector condition here as ⃗. ⃗=0
In this case as;
u=ai-j+k and v=i-2j+bk
⃗. ⃗=0
(ai-j+k).(i-2j+bk)=0
a+2 +b=0
a+b=-2
Now taking the options in account and solve for a and b
For option C , value of a and b satisfying a+b=-2  1-3=-2  -2=-2 (Answer)

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36) Equation of circle with the center at (4,3) and radius=2 is given by;
A) (x+4)2+(y+3)2
B) 4x2+3y2=4
C) (x2/16) + (y2/9) =4
D) x2+y2-8x-6y+21=0 (Correct)

Solution:
Stardard equation of circle at center C(h,k) with radius r is given by:
(x-h)2+(y-k)2=r2
At (4,3) and r= 2
(x-4)2+(y-3)2=22
(x2-8x+16)+(y2-6y+9)=4
x2+y2-8x-6y+25=4
x2+y2-8x-6y+21=0 (Answer)

( )
37) The equation of + = 1 represents :
A) A circle with center at (0,1) and radius=2
B) A parabola with parameter a=4
C) An ellipse with center at (0,1) and minor axis is 1. (Correct)
D) A hyperbola with parameter a=4

Solution:
As we know that:
The equation of ellipse at center (h,k) is given by:
( ) ( )
+ =1
In this case:
( ) ( )
+ =1
In this case a=1 and b=2 whereas center is (0,1) .
( ) ( )
As we know that major axis and minor axis of + =1 are given by x=0 and y=0 respectively.
As the minor axis as per option is concerned so that y=0 as it is at translated center so that y-1=0 y=1
Hence, it is an equation of ellipse whose center is (0,1) and minor axis is y=1 (Answer)

38) Let = ∫(4 cos + − 2) , then y equals to:


A) 4 cos + −2 +
B) 4 sin + −2 +
C) sin(2x+2π/3)+c (Correct)
D) None of these

Solution:
= ∫(4 cos + − 2) :.(As we know that; cos2A= 2cos2A-1)

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y= ∫ 2(2cos ( + ) − 1)
= ∫2 2 +
=∫ 2 + .2
Hence; = sin 2 + + (Answer)

39) ( + ) = ( ) + ( ), therefore approximation value of sin(9π/10) is:


A) (Correct)
B) 0
C) -π/10
D) 9π/10

Solution:
Let negate the ( + ) = ( ) + ( ), and solve this problem quite logical because through this
given expression, a lot of time will be wasted. To save your time, follow the conceptual trick.
As sin(9π/10)
Let firstly convert it into degrees, as 1rad = 180/π
So sin (9π/10 *180/π) = sin(9*180/10)  sin(162˚)
Now start taking the graph of sine into account.
As sin180= 0
And sin 150=0.5
whereas value of sin162 must be in between 0 to 0.5
Let examine the options as given,
OptionA: /10=3.14/10= 0.314 (Accepted)
OptionB: 0 (Unaccepted)
OptionC: -π/10=-3.14/10=-0.314 (Unaccepted)
OptionD: 9(3.14)/10 = 2.8 (Unaccepted)
Hence, Option A is only one which could lie in between the range of 0 to 0.5 i.e. 0.314 which’d be our
correct answer pactorically.

40) The hypoteneus of right triangle is 5cm. To obtain a triangle with maximum area, the other side must
be:
A) 4 cm and √39
B) Both 2 √5 cm
C) Both √5 cm
D) Both 5/√2 cm. (Correct)

Solution:
This question is quite simple but confusing you just to crack. In right angled triangle, we always apply
pythagoras’ theorem (i.e. H2=B2+P2) to solve all the sides.
In this case, as we have given hypoteneus is 5 cm. Just apply the pythagoras’ theorem on given options
OptionA: H2=B2+P2 H2= (4)2+(√39)2 H=√55 (Unaccepted as given hypoteneus is 5cm)
OptionB: H2=B2+P2H2=(2√5)2+(2√5)2 H=√40 (Unaccepted as given hypoteneus is 5cm)
OptionC: H2=B2+P2H2=(√5)2+(√5)2 H= √10 (Unaccepted as given hypoteneus is 5cm)
OptionD: H2=B2+P2 = + → = + → = → = 25 → = 5
√ √
(which is true as given hypoteneus is also 5cm)
As in this case the area of right angled triangled= ½ (b) (h)  A= ½ (5/√2)(5/√2)A= ½ (5/√2)2
Hence, Area of triangle= ½ (25/4) = 25/8 =3.125 sqrt units. (Answer)

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.
41) = ℎ :
.
A) . .
.
B) . cos2x (Correct)
.
C) . sin2x
D) None of these

Solution:
As we know that:
If y= eax then dy/dx= eax. d/dx (ax)  dy/dx= eax.a
As in this case:
y= esinx.cosx (As we know that sin2x= 2sinx.cosx)
Applying the formula by completing its condition by dividing and multiplying 2 in power to e)
y= e1/2 (2sinxcosx)
y= e1/2(sin2x)
Now differentiate w.r.t “x”
dy/dx= e1/2(sin2x).1/2 cos2x.2
dy/dx= e1/2 (sin2x).cos2x
As ½ sin2x= sinx.cosx
Hence, dy/dx= esinx.cosx.cos2x (Answer)

42) The function ( ) = − + 5, has:


A) an inflexion at x=1
B) a relative minimum at x=1 (Correct)
C) an inflexion at x=1
D) A relative minimum at x=0
Solution:

Note: Detailed notes regarding this topic has been uploaded on our page “Ecat/Net Aspirants”

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43) The line that passes through the point of intersection of x+y-1=0 and x=0 and is parallel to the line
x-y=0 is given by:
A) y=x-1
B) y=-x-1
C) y=x+1 (Correct)
D) y=-x+1

Solution:
As x+y-1=0 and x=0
 0+y-1=0  y=1
And x-y=0  slope of this line = -(1/-1)  m=1
Analyzing the options, on point (0,1) and for the slope of options. As slope of parallel lines are always
equal.
OptionA: 1=0-1=  1 not equals to -1 and m=- (1/-1) m=1 slope is equal but coordinates don’t satisfy
OptionB: 1=-0-1 1 not equals to -1 and m= -(-1/-1)  m=-1 slope and coordinates both don’t satisfy
OptionC: 1=0+1 1 =1 and m= -(1/-1)  m=1 slope and coordinates both satisfy.
OptionD: 1=-0+1 1=1 and m=-(-1/-1)  m=-1 slope is not equal but coodinates satisfy here.
So the best conditional satisfactory option is C which is our correct Answer.
Note: In exams, if you get the answer by back solving initially, then there is no need to check for the
remaining options, because on checking you’ll waste your time and nothing else.

44) log327 – log525 equals to:


A) loga2
B) 2
C) 1 (Correct)
D) None of these

Solution:
In ECAT, according to past paper analysis, there must be 2 logarithmic problems included as per paper.
So, I suggest you to go through this topic with rigid grip.
Properties of Logarithm:
x= loga(y)  ax=y
1) loga(xy)= loga(x)+loga(y)
2) log(x/y)= loga(x)-loga(y)
3) loga(1/x)= -loga(x)
4) logx ab= blogxa
5) loga(a)=1
6) aloga(x) =x
7) eloge(x) =x
8) lne=1
9) loga(1)=0
10) ln1=0
11) loga(b) × logb(a)=1
12) loga(b)= 1/logb(a)
13) logy(x)= loga(x)/loga(y)
Note:
Log10(x) is written as logx (Common Log)
Loge(x) is written as ln(x) (Natural log)
In this case:

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= log327 – log525
= log333 – log552
= 3log33 – 2 log55
=3 (1) – 2(1)
= 3-2 =1 (Answer)

45) If y=2x then dy/dx equals to:


A) 2x
B) 2x.ln2 (Correct)
C) x.2x
D) log2x

Solution:
dy/dx= 2x ln(2) d/dx(x)
dy/dx= 2xln(2) .1
dy/dx= 2xln(2) (Answer)

46) The trajectory of a particle is given by x=8t-2t2, y=12t-t3 and z=4 then particle is at rest at point:
A) (0,0,0)
B) (0,0,4)
C) (8,16,4) (Correct)
D) None of these

Solution:
As the particle position is concerned, let first of all find the value of time for body before getting at rest.
Let x= 8t-2t2
Differentiate w.r.t “t”
dx/dt = 8-4t
 Now find the critical value (i.e. it comes to rest at this point) of t.
At Rest, f’(t) =0  8-4t=0  t=2
So at the t=2
x= 8(2) – 2(2)2 x= 16-8 x=8
y= 12(2)- (2)3  y= 24-8 y=16
z=4
So that particle becomes at rest (8,16,4) when t=2. (Answer)

47) If f(x)= 3x-1 , g(x)=x(x-1), then gf-1(x) equals to:


A) x/3 (x+1)
B) x/3 (x-1)
C) 3x(3x-1)
D) x/3(x/3+1)
E) None of these (Correct)

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Solution:
f(x)= 3x-1
g(x)= x(x-1)
Inverse of function, f-1(x)= ((x+1)/3)
Applying the rule fg(x)= f(g(x))
g(f-1(x))= −1
g(f-1(x))=
g(f-1(x))= (Answer)

48) The period of the function f(x)=3 sin(x/8) is:


A) 24 π
B) 24
C) 8 π
D) 16 π (Correct)

Solution:

Period of Af(Bx+C) is given by


Period of Generated function= Period of trign.fn/|B|
Quick Guessing Points for the Period of any function

 Constant Function is a function with no fundamental period.


e.g; 1 has no period.
 If f(x) is periodic with period T, then 1/f(x) and ( ) are also periodic with the same period.
e.g; √2 2 + 3 has π as period.
 sinx, cosx, secx, and cosecx are periodic functions with period 2π.
 tanx and cotx are periodic functions with period π.
 |sinx|,|cosx|,|secx|,|cscx|,|cotx| and |tanx| are periodic functions with period π.
 Sinnx, cosnx, secnx and csecnx are periodic function with period 2π when n is odd and π when n is
even.
 tannx and cotnx are periodic functions with period π.

f(x)=3 sin(x/8)
In this case, Generated period= Period of sine/|1/8| = 2π/(1/8)= 16π (Answer)

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49) A wire of length L can be shaped into a circle or a square. The ratio of the square divided by area of
circle is:
A) π /4 (Correct)
B) πL/4
C) π2/L2
D) None of these

Solution:
A wire is firstly bent into a circle, Along the
diameter, its value becomes half i.e. (L/2)
Using the equation
l= rθ
As half circle so that angle with +ive x-axis is 180*
L/2= r π  r= L/2π
Then wire is bent into a square.
As the perimeter of square=4x
So L= 4x  x= L/4
Each side of square = L/4
 Area of circle = πr2 A= π(L/2π)2 A= L2/4π
 Area of square= x2  A= (L/4)2 A= L2/16
Hence, Area of square/ Area of circle= (L2/16)/ (L2/4π) = π/4 (Answer)

50) If sin(x+ π/2)=cos(x+π) and – π ≤ x ≤ 2 π then x equals to:


A) π/2
B) 7π/4
C) -3π/4
D) 3π/2 (Correct)

Solution:
Using the back solving technique in this problem,
OptionA: sin(π/2+π/2) = cos(π/2+ π)  sin(π)= sin(3π/2) 0 not equals to -1 (Unaccepted)
OptionB: Not accepted on checking
OptionC: Not accepted on checking
OptionD: sin(3π/2+ π/2) = cos(π/2+π)  sin(2π)= cos(3π/2)  0 = 0 (Accepted)
Hence, x= 3π/2 is correct Answer as it satisfies the given equation in given interval.

51) If log28x=18 then x is equals to:


A) 215 (Correct)
B) 28
C) 1/3 * 218
D) 245

Solution:
Using logarithmic properties:
log 2(8x)= 18 :. (loga(xy))= loga(x) +loga(y))
log28 + log2(x) =18
log223+log2(x)=18
3(log22) + log2(x)=18
3(1) + log2(x)=18 :.logaa=1
log2(x)= 18-3
log2(x)=15 :. loga(y)=x  ax=y

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 x= 215 (Answer)

52) Using binomial theorem, √40 approximates to:


A) 2.0
B) 2.5
C) 2.1 (Correct)
D) 2.4

Solution:
As √40 = (40)
 (32+8)1/5
Taking 32 common from inside,
321/5 (1+ (8/32))1/5
 (25)1/5 (1+ (1/4))1/5
~Biomial theorem for any index:
If n is a rational number and x is real number such that |x| < 1 then;
1 ( − 1) ( − 1)( − 2)
(1 + ) = + + + +⋯
0! 1! 2! 3!
a) There are infinite numbers of terms in the expansion of (1+x)n when n is a negative or in fraction
b) If x is so small that its square and higher power may be neglected then approximation value of
(1+x)n=1+nx
c) It has no last term. When n is negative or in fraction
As in this case the n= ¼ which is also so small so that we use this property of binomial series.
 2 (1+1/5 (1/4))
 2 (1+ 1/20)
 2(20+1/20)
 2(21/20)
 21/10 = ~2.1 approx. (Answer)

53) A box contains 15 red, 10 green, and 5 yellow toffees. Asim picks 2 green, toffees and 1 red toffees
out of the box and eat them. What is the probability that Irfan will now pick a green toffee is:
A) 10/30
B) 8/27 (Correct)
C) 8/30
D) 8/27

Solution:
As 15 red+10 green +5 yellow = 30 toffees
Total sample space= 30
Then 2 green toffees and 1 red toffee are taken out of the box and ate.
Now sample sample = 30- (2+1)  30-327
As the two green toffees are taken out so that present strength of green..= 10-2=8
As we know that:
P(E)= n(E)/n(S)
P(Green)= 8/27 (Answer)

54) If the kth term of series is given by 2k:3k. Then sum of the first 100 terms is approximately:
A) 2 (Correct)
B) 1.5
C) 1

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D) (2/3)100
Solution:
As kth term= 2k.3k
Let k=1  1st term= 21:31=2/3
Let k=22nd term = 22:32=(2/3)2
Let k=33rd term= 23:33= (2/3)3
so that r= 2/3
which implies that this is a geometric sequence.
As, (2/3),(2/3)2,(2/3)3……..
-Sum of first n Terms of a G.P
The Sum of first n terms of a G.P with first term and common ratio r is given by:
( )
= ,| | > 1
Or = + + + ⋯…..+
Note:
( )
1) = ,| | < 1
( )
2) = ,| | < 1
3) = ,| | > 1
( )
4) = ,| | > 1
As in this case |r| < 1

:. =

:. =
:. S100= 2(1 − (0.67) )
:. S100= 2 approx (Answer)

55) Let f(x)= 6x3-x2-4x-1, then


A) (x+2) is factor of f(x)
B) x=-1 is root of f(x)=0
C) (x-1) is factor of f(x) (Correct)
D) x=2 is factor of f(x)=0

Solution:
Using factor theorem;
The polynomial x-1 is a factor of polynomial f(x) if and only if f(a)=0 (As x=a is a root of f(x)=0)
On applying it, only Option C will satisfy the condition f(a)=0
As it is illustrated down here.
x-1=0x=1
f(1) =0
6(1)3-(1)2-4(1)-1=0
6-1-4-1=0
6-6=0
0=0 (condition Satisfied)
Hence, Option C is correct Answer.

56) If the set S={-1,0,1}, then

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A) Division in binary operation on S


B) Addition in not binary operations
C) S is closed with respect to division
D) S is closed with respect to multiplication (Correct)

Solution:
Use negation conditional technique in this condition for guessing the correct option.
OptionA: As in there is no such condition as given so we can’t say that binary operation can be division
or not. So negate and skip it
OptionB: As in there is no such condition as given so we can’t say that binary operation can be addition
or not. So negate and skip it.
OptionC: As in this option , it is instructed that the given set is enclosed with division
But we check for (1/0=infinity) it gives an undefined as well which negate the condition as infinity is not
from set enclosed.
OptionD: As in this option, each entry after operating multiplication belongs to given set so that set is
enclosed w.r.t multiplication.

57) The additive inverse of 10/(3-i) whereas i=√-1 is:


A) -3+i
B) 3-i
C) -3-i (Correct)
D) 3+i

Solution:
z= 10/3-i
After rationalization:
z= 10 (3+i)/ (3)2-(i)2
z= 10(3+i)/10
z=3+i
Additive inverse of z=a+bi is z=-a-bi
In this case, z= -3-i (Answer)

58) A body moves in a straight line from a point X with speed v=50sin πt km/h. How much far is from X
after 30 minutes?
A) 50/ π km
B) 50 π km
C) 0 km (Correct)
D) -50/ π km

Solution:
As we know that:
Displacement is the derivative of velocity w.r.t time.
In this case, v= 50sin πt km/h
and t= 30 min  t= ½ hr
Differentiate “v” w.r.t “t”
dv/dt = 50 cos πt. π
at t=1/2
dv/dt |(t= ½) = 50 cos π(½)π
dv/dt | (t= ½)= 50 cos (π/2). π
As dv/dt= Displacement
so S=50(0) π S=0 km (Answer)

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59) The reduced low echelon form of linear system is given by:
1 0 0 ⋮ 0
0 2 −1 ⋮ 3
0 0 0 ⋮ 1
A) has no solution (Correct)
B) has exactly one solution
C) has two solutions
D) has infinitely many solution
Solution:
Criterion of consistency:
Let AX=B be a system of m linear equations in n variables.
i) If |A|≠0, then the system of equation is consistent and has a unique solution given by X=A-1B.
ii) If |A|=0 and (adj(A))B=O then the system of equation is consistent and has infinitely many solutions.
iii) If |A|=0 and (adj(A))B≠O then the system of equation is inconsistent and has no solution.
In this case:
The matrix which is given in the reduced low echelon form is actually an augumented matrix i.e. [A:B]
1 0 0 ⋮ 0 1 0 0 0
As [A:B]= 0 2 −1 ⋮ 3  A= 0 2 −1 and B= 3
0 0 0 ⋮ 1 0 0 0 1
As |A|=0 (i.e by using determinant property, determinant of triangular matrix is the product of main
diagonals)
So we more forward as (ii) or (iii) condition might be answer.
0 0 0 0
Now check for Adj(A) which would be equal to 0 0 1 And (adj(A))B= 3 ≠O
0 0 −2 1
Hence, condition for no solution has been satisfied as |A|=0 and (adj(A))B≠O, so that given matrix has no
solution. (Answer) (Notes related to it has been included in “Tricks for Mathematics (2nd Edition)”

60) The rank of matrix A is:

1 1 1 3
A= 2 0 0 2
0 2 0 2
0 0 2 2
A) One
B) Two
C) Three (Correct)
D) Four
Solution:
Rank: Number of non-zero rows is called rank in echelon form.
 Max Rank = Least index of matrix order – Total no.of relation formed
In this case
1 1 1 3
A= 2 0 0 2
0 2 0 2
0 0 2 2 ×
Least index of matrix order is 4.
 Total no.of relation=1 as only one relation by elementary operation formed :. (C1+C2+C3= C4)
So that Max rank= 4-1
Hence, Max Rank of A= 3 (Answer)

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English Portion with Answer key & Passage Cracking Technique

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Answer Key:

61 B 66 B
62 C 67 C
63 C 68 D
64 A 69 A
65 D 70 B

 Passage cracking Technique:

1) First of all, read out all question statement and try to remember those words as asked.
2) Now read the passage keenly and try to underline the main character,central view and idea.
3) Try to grasp what the writer wants to pronounce you.
4) After summarizing the passage by underlining the core view.
5) Move towards the MCQs as given and solve with best of your understanding.

Note: This technique will hardly take 5-8 minutes but this really sounds effectively. (In Sha ALLAH).

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“CHEMISTRY PORTION WITH ANSWER KEY”

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“Answer Key”

71 A 79 D 87 A 95 A
72 A 80 D 88 A 96 C
73 B 81 A 89 B 97 D
74 C 82 B 90 B 98 A
75 B 83 D 91 D 99 D
76 B 84 B 92 C 100 D
77 A 85 D 93 C

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Jaza KALLAH Bil Khaer
Best Of luck for your luminous future.
Administrators
(Ecat/Net Aspirants)

Solved by: In case of any confusion, feel free to


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related to this solution manual.

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