Class 10th Ftre 2018 Paper

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam-2018
for students presently in
Class 10
Paper 1
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 204
Code 1000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question

Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 42 +2 0
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 43 to 54 +2 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 55 to 66 +2 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 67 to 80 +1 –0.25
SECTION – III CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 81 to 94 +1 –0.25
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 95 to 108 +1 –0.25
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 108 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
FTRE-2018-C-X (Paper-1 & 2)-AT+PCM-2
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Choose the option which is least like the other words.

(A) Pressure (B) Volt
(C) Newton (D) Watt
2. What is the largest four digit number that is divisible by each of 15, 25 and 35?
(A) 9975 (B) 9925
(C) 9875 (D) 9825
3. If 164 is divided in the ratio 32 : 9, what is the value of the smaller part?
(A) 45 (B) 36
(C) 54 (D) 27
4. The marked price of a toy was Rs. 1800. Two successive discounts of 20% and 15% were offered on
it during a sale. What was the selling price of the toy?
(A) Rs. 1202 (B) Rs. 1224
(C) Rs. 1170 (D) Rs. 1230
Space for Rough Work
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph: 49283471/73/75
Directions (Q. 5 to 7): In each of the following questions choose appropriate option from given alternatives
such that the relationship defined by ‘:’ is preserved.
5. Afghanistan : Kabul : : Bangladesh : ?

(A) Brasila (B) Berlin
(C) Manama (D) Dhaka
6. BCE : 10 : : KMQ : ?
(A) 31 (B) 41
(C) 111317 (D) 111217
7. Spider : Insect : : Crocodile : ?

(A) Cobra (B) Python
(C) Reptile (D) Mammal
8. RST is related to 181920 in the same way GHI is related to

(A) 8910 (B) 7611
(C) 789 (D) 7810
Directions (Q. 9 to 15): In each of the following questions, a number series/alphabet series is given with one
term is missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question
mark (?) in the given series.
9. KP, LO, MN, NM, ?

(A) OL (B) PQ
(C) PL (D) AZ
10. K, O, S, ?
(A) T (B) U
(C) V (D) W
11. 11, 22, 44, 55, 77, 88, ?

(A) 77 (B) 88
(C) 99 (D) 110
12. 220, 284, 356, 436, ?

(A) 500 (B) 511
(C) 524 (D) 534
13. 5, 12, 26, 54, 110, ?

(A) 222 (B) 111
(C) 224 (D) 220
14. 7, 19, 43, 91, ?, 379

(A) 180 (B) 187
(C) 182 (D) 184
15. 9, 31, 97, 295, ?, 2671

(A) 890 (B) 889
(C) 887 (D) 885
16. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, what will South become?
(A) East (B) North-East
(C) South-West (D) West
17. Atul walks 5 km towards North and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns to the right and
walks 5 km. How far away is he from his starting point?
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(C) 5 km (D) 13 km
18. Vikrant is 32nd from top in a class of 65 students. What is his rank from the bottom?
(A) 33rd (B) 34th
nd
(B) 32 (D) 30th
19. Vani is 6th from the front end of the line of girls and Swati is 9th from the back end of the line. If there
are 7 girls between Vani and Swati, then how many maximum girls are there in the line?
(A) 20 (B) 21
(C) 22 (D) 23
20. Swarna is ranked 16th from the top and 6th from the bottom of a class. How many students are there
in the class?
(A) 22 (B) 23
(C) 21 (D) 20
21. In a certain code, MASTER is written as TBNSFU. How will DANCER be written in that code?
(A) NADSFO (B) OBEREC
(C) NADREC (D) OBESFD
22. The position of how many letters in the word RAINBOW will remain unchanged when they are
arranged in alphabetical order?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
23. Each vowel in the word KILOMETER is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and
each consonant is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, then the substituted letters are
arranged in alphabetical order, which letter will be the fifth from the left end?
(A) D (B) L
(C) M (D) N
24. Pointing to a chess player, a man said to a woman, ‘His mother is the only daughter of your father’.
How is the woman related to the chess player?
(A) Grandmother (B) Maternal aunt
(C) Paternal aunt (D) Mother
Directions (Q. 25 to 26): In the following questions we are given a set of four figures, out of which all except
one are alike in some manner. We have to select the exclusively different figure in the given set.
25.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
26.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27. If RED is called YELLOW, YELLOW is called GREEN and GREEN is called RED, which of the
following colours will indicate ‘Stop’ at a traffic signal?
(A) Red (B) Blue
(C) Yellow (D) None of these
28. Neelam starts from home and walks Northward to visit a temple. Then, she turns left, walks equal
distance straight and makes some purchases from the market. She turns left again, walks the same
distance from her home to the temple to reach a library. Then, she turns left again and walks until she
reaches home. What shape is her path likely to form?
(A) Circle (B) Square
(C) Triangle (D) Oval
29. Six friends L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in a circle facing the centre. All neighbours are at an equal
distance from their neighbour. Each person is seated exactly opposite to his friend. N is sitting neither
next to O nor M. L is sitting opposite O. P is to the left of N. Immediately between which of the
following pairs of people is N sitting?
(A) Q and L (B) Q and P
(C) M and L (D) L and P
30. A train, travelling @ 66.6 km/hr passes a pole in 9 seconds and a platform in 29 seconds. What is the
length of the platform?
(A) 400 m (B) 370 m
(C) 380 m (D) 350 m
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 42. Each question has 4 choices
31. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

(A) Electric potential (B) Work
(C) Electric current (D) Magnetic field
32. What kind of energy conversion takes place in electric motors?

(A) Electrical → chemical (B) Chemical → mechanical
(C) Mechanical → electrical (D) Electrical → mechanical
33. A wire of resistance 12 Ω is cut into three identical parts. Each part is now stretched to double its
length. New resistance of each part will be
(A) 12 Ω (B) 16 Ω
(C) 20 Ω (D) 24 Ω
34. Equivalent resistance between A and B is A

2Ω 2Ω
(A) 2 Ω (B) 3 Ω
(C) 4 Ω (D) 5 Ω 3Ω 4Ω
35. Two wires A and B carries current of 12 amp and 10 amp respectively. If RA and RB are their
resistances, then choose the correct option
(A) RA = RB (B) RA < RB
(C) RA > RB (D) Information is insufficient
36. Two concentric circular loops having radius in the ratio 1 : 2 and current in the ratio 4 : 3, then the
ratio of magnetic field at their center will be
(A) 3 : 7 (B) 7 : 5
(C) 8 : 3 (D) 5 : 7
37. Choose the correct option from the following :–

(i) An ideal ammeter has infinite resistance (ii) An ideal ammeter has zero resistance
(iii) An ideal voltmeter has zero resistance (iv) An ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iv) (D) (i), (iv)
38. If two wires of same dimension but resistivites 1 and 2 are connected in series, then their
equivalent resistivity will be
12
(A) (B) 12
1   2
1  2
(C) (D) 1  2
2
39. In the given circuit the value of i1 will be i1 4Ω

(A) 2 A (B) 4 A 6A 3Ω
(C) 1.5 A (D) 3 A
i2 2Ω
40. For a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm, magnification of a real image is 3. The image distance is
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm (D) 40 cm
41. Image produced by a concave mirror lies on its center of curvature. Where should the object lie?
(A) At focus (B) Between pole and focus
(C) At centre of curvature (D) Beyond centre of curvature
42. A person cannot focus on both horizontal and vertical lines simultaneously. This defect is known as
(A) Presbyopia (B) Astigmatism
(C) Myopia (D) Hypermetropia
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
43. The soap molecule has a

(A) Hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail (B) Hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail
(C) Hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail (D) Hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic tail
44. Which of the following on heating gives two colourless gases?

(A) Lead nitrate (B) Calcium carbonate
(C) Ferrous sulphate (D) Lead nitrate and calcium carbonate both
45. Aluminium is diagonally related to

(A) Li (B) Si
(C) Be (D) B
46. Match the chemical substances given in Column (A) with their appropriate application given in
Column (B)
Column  A Column  B
(A) Bleaching powder (i) Preparation of sodalime glass
(B) Baking soda (ii) Production of H2 and Cl2
(C) Washing soda (iii) Decolourization
(D) Sodium chloride (iv) Antacid
(A) A → (ii), B → (i), C → (iv), D → (iii) (B) A → (iii), B → (ii), C → (iv), D → (i)
(C) A → (iii), B → (iv), C → (i), D → (ii) (D) A → (ii), B → (iv), C → (i), D → (iii)
47. Which of the following statements is incorrect? About periodic table.

(A) Among all the elements, fluorine has the highest electron gain enthalpy
(B) Among all the elements, helium has the highest ionization enthalpy
(C) Elements of groups 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16 and 17 are called representative elements
(D) All the d-block elements are called transition elements.
48. A student takes four test tubes marked P, Q, R and S containing NaCl, Na2CO3, NaHCO3 and NaOH
respectively. He adds acetic acid to the test tubes one by one and every time he immediately brings a
lighted matchstick near the mouth of the test tube. He observes that the matchstick extinguishes in
the case of
(A) P and Q (B) Q and R
(C) R and S (D) S and P
49. On adding a clean aluminium strip to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate, it is observed that the
colour of the solution changes from
(A) Blue to colourless (B) Colourless to blue
(C) Blue to green (D) Green to blue
50. Ethanol reacts with sodium to evolve

(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Oxygen (D) Carbon monoxide
51. Which one of the following is true in electrolytic refining?

(A) Impure metal is made cathode
(B) Impure metal is made anode
(C) Impure metal is made cathode and pure metal as anode
(D) Both electrodes must be of pure metal
52. Butane with molecular formula C4H10 has

(A) 9 covalent bonds (B) 13 covalent bonds
(C) 10 covalent bonds (D) 15 covalent bonds
53. For the redox reaction,

MnO 4  C2O24  H   Mn2  CO 2  H2O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are
MnO 4 C 2O 42 H+
(A) 2 5 16
(B) 16 3 12
(C) 15 16 12
(D) 2 16 5
54. Solid calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide accompanied by liberation of
heat. This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolved in water to form its
solution called lime water. Which among the following is (are) true about slaking of lime and the
solution formed?
(i) It is an endothermic reaction
(ii) It is an exothermic reaction
(iii) The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven
(iv) The pH of the resulting solution will be less then seven
Among the given statements which of the options are correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
55. The number 313 – 310 is divisible by primes_____

(A) 2 and 3 only (B) 3 and 10 only
(C) 2, 3 and 10 only (D) 2, 3 and 13 only
56. If p and q are primes, then HCF (p, q) will be

(A) p (B) q
(C) 1 (D) pq
5
57. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial 2x 2 – 8x – m is , then the other zero is
2
2 2
(A) (B) –
3 3
3 15
(C) (D) –
2 2
58. The value of K, such that the quadratic polynomial x2 – (K + 6)x + 2(2K + 1) has sum of the zeroes
equal to half of their product, is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) – 5 (D) 5
59. If 3, 4 + p2, 6 – p are in A.P., then p must be equal to

1 2
(A) (B)
2 3
1
(C) 1 (D)
3
60. If the sum of the first ‘p’ terms of an A.P. is same as the sum of its first ‘q’ terms (where p  q), then
sum of its first (p + q) term is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) none of these
61. In ABC, a line XY parallel to BC cuts AB at X and AC at Y. If BY A

bisects XYC, then
(A) BC = CY (B) BC = BY X Y
(C) BC  CY (D) BC = XY
B C
62. ABC is an isosceles triangle with AC = BC. If AB2 = 2AC2, then ABC is right angled at
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) none of these
BC
63. If A, B, C are interior angles of a triangle ABC, then tan   is equal to
 2 
B A
(A) tan (B) tan
2 2
A BC
(C) cot (D) cot  
2  2 
pa qb
64. If psin + qcos = a and pcos – qsin = b then  is equal to
qb pa
(A) 1 (B) 2
65. Two concentric circle of radii a and b where a > b, are given, the length of a chord of the larger circle
which touches the smaller circle is
(A) a2  b2 (B) 2 a2  b2
(C) a2  b2 (D) 2 a2  b2
66. In the given figure, sides of ABC are touching the circle externally A
at P, Q, R. If AP = 4cm, BP = 6 cm AC = 12cm, then the radius of
circle is P R
4 6 O
(A) cm (B) 4 6 cm
3
3 6
(C) 3 6 cm (D) cm
2 B Q C
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
67. Total internal reflection may take place when a ray of light
(A) travels from rarer to denser medium (B) travels from denser to rarer medium
(C) incident normally at interface (D) does not depend on the medium
68. In carrying a point charge of 5 coulomb from infinity to a given point 15 Joule of work is done.
Potential at the given point will be
(A) 3 V (B) 75 V
(C) 1/3 V (D) 1/75 V
69. In the following circuit all the bulbs shown are identical. V
Which bulb glows most brightly?
(A) P (B) Q
(C) R (D) S Q R
P
70. Two charge particles having charges q and 2q are moving perpendicular to uniform magnetic field. If
the ratio of their masses is 2 : 3, the ratio of time periods T1 : T2 will be
(A) 3 : 4 (B) 3 : 2
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 4 : 3
71. Equivalent resistance between points P and Q for the 6Ω

given circuit is
(A) 3 Ω (B) 6 Ω 6Ω
(C) 9 Ω (D) zero P Q
3Ω 6Ω
72. Magnitude of magnetic field due to a circular loop carrying current at its center is B0. If radius and
current flowing through the loop are doubled, then new magnitude of magnetic field at the centre will
be
(A) B0/2 (B) 2 B0
(C) B0 (D) 4 B0
73. A charge q of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity v enters perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B.
Which of the following quantity will not change?
(A) momentum (B) velocity
(C) kinetic energy (D) none of these
74. Mirror formula is applicable for

(A) Plane mirror (B) Convex mirror
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
75. A light ray travels from medium 1 to medium 2 as shown in figure. 1

The value of 1 (refractive index of medium –1) will be 60°
Medium 1
(A) 3 (B) 3 3
4 8 Medium 2
(C) (D)
3 3 3 30°
4
2 
3
76. What will be the distance of an object from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm so that its image
size is 4 times the size of object?
(A) 7.5 cm (B) 12.5 cm
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
77. An object PQ is placed in front of a plane mirror as shown in

figure. The image distance of object from plane mirror is
(A) 20 cm behind the mirror Q
(B) 30 cm behind the mirror
(C) 20 cm in front of the mirror P
(D) None of these 20 cm
78. A bird in air looks at a fish directly below it inside a transparent liquid in a tank. If the distance of fish
as estimated by bird is h1 and that of bird as estimated by fish is h2 , than refractive index of the liquid
is
h h
(A) 2 (B) 1
h1 h2
h12
(C) (D) Information is insufficient
h22
79. Seven component colours of white light are properly arranged in increasing order of wavelength as
(A) VIBYGOR (B) VIBGYOR
(C) VIBYGRO (D) Depends on the medium
4 3
80. Absolute refractive index of water and glass are and respectively. The refractive index of glass
3 2
with respect to water will be :–
8 2
(A) (B)
9 9
9
(C) (D) 2
8
pace for Rough Work
81. The compound whose aqueous solution has highest pH, is

(A) NaCl (B) NH4Cl
(C) CH3COONH4 (D) Na2CO3
82. Select the correct statement

(A) Dolomite is the ore of zinc (B) Galena is the ore of mercury
(C) Pyrolusite is the ore of iron (D) Cassiterite is the ore of tin
83. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is
(A) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ (B) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
+ 2+ 3+ 2– –
(C) Na > Mg > Al > O > F (D) Na+ > F– > Mg2+ > O2– > Al3+
84. Which of the following process is accompanied by absorption of energy?

(A) Fg  e   Fg (B) Cl g  e   Clg
(C) O g  e   Og (D) Og  e   O2g
85. Which of the following represents saponification reaction?

CaO
(A) CH3COONa  NaOH   CH4  Na 2CO3
H2SO4
(B) CH3 COOH  C2H5OH  CH3 COOC2H5  H2O
(C) 2CH3COOH  2Na  2CH3 COONa  H2
(D) CH3 COOC2H5  NaOH  CH3 COONa  C2H5OH
86. The incorrect statement is

(A) Calamine and siderite are carbonates
(B) Argentite and cuprite are oxides
(C) Zinc blende and iron pyrites are sulphides
(D) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper
87. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

H2C C CH2 CH3
HC CH3
CH3
(A) 2-Ethyl-3-methylbut-1-ene (B) 2-Isopropylbut-1-ene
(C) 2-Methyl-3-ethylbut-3-ene (D) Ethyl isopropyl ethene
88. Consider the following reaction:

6FeSO4 + K2Cr2O7 + 7H2SO4  3Fe2(SO4)3 + Cr2(SO4)3 + K2SO4 + 7H2O
How many electrons are involved in the above redox reaction?
(A) 9 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 2
89. The solution of which salt in water is acidic?

(A) Na2SO4 (B) NaHCO3
(C) KCl (D) FeCl3
90. Among the following, the element which is not liquid at room temperature (30°C) is
(A) Ga (B) Ge
(C) Cs (D) Br
91. The aqueous solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that the salt is made from
(A) A weak acid and a weak base (B) A weak acid and a strong base
(C) A strong acid and a strong base (D) A strong acid and a weak base
92. What will be the pH value of 0.05 M Ba(OH)2 solution?

(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 1 (D) 12.96
93. An element has successive ionization energies as 940, 2080, 3090, 4140, 7030, 7870, 16000 and
19500 kJ mol–1. To which group of the periodic table does this element belong?
(A) 16 (B) 15
(C) 14 (D) 17
94. Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of palladium or nickel catalyst form fats. This is an
example of
(A) Addition reaction (B) Substitution reaction
(C) Displacement reaction (D) Oxidation reaction
95. Find the least number which when divided by 12, leaves a remainder of 7, when divided by 15, leaves
a remainder of 10 and when divided by 16, leaves a remainder of 11.
(A) 115 (B) 235
(C) 247 (D) 475
96. Two numbers are in the ratio of 15 : 11. If their HCF is 13, then the numbers will be
(A) 195 and 143 (B) 190 and 140
(C) 185 and 163 (D) 185 and 143
97. The polynomials (ax3 + 3x2 – 3) and (2x3 – 5x + a) when divided by (x – 4) leaves the same
remainder, then the value of ‘a’ is
(A) 1 (B) – 1
(C) 2 (D) – 2
98. If the polynomial 6x4 + 8x3 + 17x2 + 21x + 7 is divided by another polynomial 3x 2 + 4x + 1, then
remainder comes out to be ax + b, then
(A) a = 2 (B) a = 1
(C) b = 1 (D) b = 3
99. The value of ‘n’ for which the nth terms of the two A.P.’s 2, 10, 18, …. and 38, 40, 42, ….. are equal is
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 7 (D) 14
100. Sn denotes the sum of the first n terms of an A.P. If S2n = 3Sn, then S3n : Sn is equal to
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 6 : 1
(C) 8 : 3 (D) 10 : 7
101. ABC is a triangle. If the perpendicular distance from particular point(s) lying in the same plane to the
three sides of the triangle are all equal, then there exist(s)
(A) one such point only (B) three such points only
(C) four such points (D) two such points only
102. PSR is a triangle, right angled at S. D is the mid-point of SR. If the bisector of PSR and
perpendicular bisector of SR meet at O, then OSD is
(A) scalene (B) equilateral
(C) isosceles right angled (D) acute angled
103. If acos + bsin = 4 and asin – bcos = 3 then a2 + b2 = _____

(A) 7 (B) 12
x sin  y sin  x
104. If tan = and tan = then =
1  x cos  1  y cos  y
sin  sin 
(A) (B)
sin  sin 
sin  sin 
(C) (D)
1  cos  1  cos 
1  sinC
105. In ABC right angled at B, BC = 5cm and AC – AB = 1 cm, then =
cosC
(A) 5 (B) 4
1 1
(C) (D)
5 4
106. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 200m above a lake is 30° and the angle of depression
of its reflection in the lake is 60°, then the height of the cloud above the lake is
(A) 200 m (B) 500 m
(C) 300 m (D) 400 m
107. If tangents QR, PR, PQ are drawn respectively at A, B and C to the circle circumscribing an acute
angled ABC so as to form another PQR, then RPQ is equal to
1
(A) BAC (B) 180° – BAC
2
1
(C)
2

180o  BAC  (D) 180° – 2BAC
108. Three wires of length 1,  2 ,  3 form a triangle which is circumscribed by another circular wire, if  3 is
the diameter and  3 = 2  1, then the angle between  1 and  3 will be
(A) 30° (B) 60°
(C) 45° (D) 90°
(FTRE – 2018)
CLASS - X
ANSWERS
PAPER-1
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B
5. D 6. B 7. C 8. C
9. A 10. D 11. D 12. C
13. A 14. B 15. B 16. B
17. A 18. B 19. C 20. C
21. D 22. C 23. C 24. D
25. D 26. C 27. C 28. B
29. D 30. B 31. D 32. D
33. B 34. C 35. D 36. C
37. C 38. C 39. A 40. D
41. C 42. B 43. A 44. C
45. C 46. C 47. A 48. B
49. A 50. A 51. B 52. B
53. A 54. B 55. D 56. C
57. C 58. D 59. A 60. A
61. A 62. C 63. C 64. C
65. B 66. A 67. B 68. A
69. A 70. D 71. D 72. C
73. C 74. C 75. C 76. C
77. A 78. A 79. B 80. C
81. D 82. D 83. A 84. D
85. D 86. B 87. A 88. B
89. D 90. B 91. B 92. B
93. A 94. A 95. B 96. A
97. A 98. B 99. C 100. B
101. C 102. C 103. C 104. B
105. A 106. D 107. D 108. B
FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam-2018

for students presently in
Class 10
Paper 2
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) Maximum Marks: 246
Code 1010
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 20 Minutes on Section-I, 40 Minutes on Section-II, 60

Minutes on Section-III and 60 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no. correct answer wrong answer
PHYSICS (PART-A) 1 to 5 +2 –0.5
SECTION – I CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 6 to 10 +2 –0.5
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 11 to 15 +2 –0.5
PHYSICS (PART-A) 16 to 23 +3 –1
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 24 to 31 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 32 to 39 +3 –1
PHYSICS (PART-A) 40 to 45 +3 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 46 to 51 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 52 to 57 +3 –1
SECTION – III PHYSICS (PART-D) 58 to 59 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 60 to 61 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 62 to 63 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 64 to 68 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 69 to 73 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 74 to 78 +3 0
SECTION – IV
PHYSICS (PART-D) 79 to 81 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 82 to 84 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 85 to 87 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 58 to 63 and 79 to 87.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 87 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________
For questions 58 to 63 and 79 to 87

Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9
Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Recommended Time: 20 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 5. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If a mirror has a focal length of – 15 cm, then it is a

(A) convex mirror (B) concave mirror
(C) plane mirror (D) none of these
2. In the given network, the net resistance between A and B

is
(A) 2  (B) 4  1Ω 1Ω
3 2
(C)  (D)  2Ω
2 3 A B
2Ω
3. Screen behind the eye lens is called the

(A) iris (B) ciliary muscle
(C) retina (D) pupil
4. An electric charge q moving with a constant velocity v enters perpendicularly in a region of a uniform
magnetic field B. The magnitude of magnetic force experienced by the charge is
(A) qvB (B) qv/B
(C) zero (D) Bv/q
5. When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air

(A) its wavelength decreases
(B) its wavelength increases
(C) its frequency increases
(D) neither its wavelength nor its frequency changes
6. Froth floatation process is based on

(A) Electrical properties of the ore particles (B) Magnetic properties of the ore particles
(C) Wetting properties of the ore particles (D) None of these
7. Match the column :

Column – A Column – B
(1) Calcination (M) 2Cu2S + 3O2  2Cu2O + 2SO2
(2) Roasting (N) Fe2O3.nH2O  Fe2O3 + nH2O
(3) Flux (O) Cr2O3 + 2Al  2Cr + Al2O3
(4) Thermite (P) SiO2 + FeO  FeSiO3
(A) (1) → (M), (2) → (N), (3) → (O), (4) → (P) (B) (1) → (P), (2) → (O), (3) → (N), (4) → (M)
(C) (1) → (N), (2) → (M), (3) → (P), (4) → (O) (D) (1) → (O), (2) → (P), (3) → (M), (4) → (N)
8. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?

(A) Burning of candle (B) Rusting of iron
(C) Dissolving a salt in water (D) Dissolving Zn in dil. H2SO4
9. Which of the following substance will not give carbon dioxide on treatment with dilute hydrochloric
acid?
(A) Ammonium carbonate (B) Limestone
(C) Baking soda (D) Lime
10. Identify the unsaturated compounds from the following

(i) Propane (ii) Propene
(iii) Propyne (iv) Chloropropane
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
11. If ‘n’ is a natural number, then 4n – 3n ends with a digit x. The number of possible values of x is
(A) 3 (B) 8
(C) 5 (D) 6
12. The multiplicative inverse of the product of the additive inverse of x2 – 1 and the multiplicative inverse
of x + 1 is
1
(A) x – 1 (B)
1 x
1
(C) x2 – 1 (D)
1  x2
A
13. In the given figure, XY || BC and AX : XB = 1 : 4. If BC = 20 cm
then XY is of length
(A) 2 cm (B) 3 cm X Y
(C) 4 cm (D) 5 cm
B C
5 sin A  cos A
14. If tanA = and A > 90°, then ?
12 sin A  cos A
12 15
(A) – (B) –
5 7
12 17
(C) (D) –
5 7
15. If the sum of the first ‘n’ terms of a sequence is 4n2 + 5n, then the general term of the sequence is
(A) 8n + 1 (B) 4n – 1
(C) 4n2 + 5n (D) 6n + 3
Recommended Time: 40 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
16. When a light ray travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium
(A) it bends away from the normal (B) total internal reflection occurs
(C) its frequency changes (D) it bends towards the normal
17. Which of the following wires of the same material will have higher resistance?
(A) Radius is 1 mm and the length is 40 m
(B) Radius is 2 mm and the length is 40 m
(C) Radius is 1 mm and the length is 80 m
(D) Radius is 2 mm and the length is 80 m
18. A concave mirror of focal length f in air is used in a medium of refractive index 2. What will be the
focal length of the mirror in the medium?
(A) 4 f (B) 2 f
(C) f/2 (D) None of these
19. Two resistors of 6 ohm and 9 ohm are connected in series to a 120 V source. The power dissipated
by the 6 ohm resistor is
(A) 384 W (B) 576 W
(C) 1500 W (D) 1800 W
20. The current flowing through 3 ohm resistor is 0.8 amperes, 3Ω

the potential drop across the 4 ohm resistor is
(A) 1.6 V 4Ω
(B) 2.4 V 6Ω
(C) 4.8 V
(D) 9.6 V
21. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having combination of convex lens of focal length 40 cm in
contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of this lens combination in dioptres is
(A) + 1.5 (B) – 1.5
(C) + 6.67 (D) – 6.67
22. In the network shown, the equivalent resistance 3 

4 2  6 
between P and Q is Ω. Hence the value of r is
3 P 8 
4  Q
(A) 3 Ω
(B) 4 Ω r
(C) 5 Ω
(D) 6 Ω
23. The current supplied by the battery in the circuit shown in 12
figure is 3V
(A) 1 A (B) 2 A 12 12 12
(C) 3 A (D) 4 A
24. Which one of the following ions in paramagnetic?

(A) Al3+ (B) Fe2+
+
(C) K (D) Mg2+
25. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct?
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g)  Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
(i) Iron metal is getting oxidized (ii) Water is getting reduced
(iii) Water is acting as reducing agent (iv) Water is acting as oxidized agent
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)
26. In which of the following compounds the carbon atom chain has been correctly numbered?
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
H3C CH2 CH CH CH2 CH2 CH3
(A)
C2H5 CH3
1 2 3
H3C CH2 C CH CH3
(B) 5
4
H2C CH3
5 4 3 2 1
H3C CH2 CH C CH
(C)
H2C CH2 CH3
CH3
H3C C CH CH CHO
(D) 4 3 2 1
5 CH2 CH3
6
27. An element, which never has a positive oxidation state in any of its compounds, is
(A) Boron (B) Oxygen
(C) Chlorine (D) Fluorine
28. The conjugate acid of NH2 is

(A) NH4 (B) NH3
(C) NH2OH (D) N2H4
29. An element having electronic configuration [Ar]3d2, 4s2 belongs to

(A) d-block (B) f-block
(C) s-block (D) p-block
30. Acetone and propanal are

(A) Position isomers (B) Functional isomers
(C) Geometrical isomers (D) Optical isomers
31. Match the reaction given in Column (A) with the name given in Column (B)
Column  A Column  B
(P) CH 3 OH  CH 3 COOH H
 CH 3 COOCH 3  H 2 O (i) Addition reaction
Ni
(Q) CH2  CH2  H2  CH3  CH3 (ii) Substitution reaction
(R)
Sunlight
CH4  Cl2   CH3Cl  HCl (iii) Neutralization reaction
(S) CH3 COOH  NaOH  CH3 COONa  H2O (iv) Esterification reaction
(A) (P) → (iv), (Q) → (i), (R) → (ii), (S) → (iii) (B) (P) → (i), (Q) → (iv), (R) → (ii), (S) → (iii)
(C) (P) → (ii), (Q) → (iii), (R) → (i), (S) → (iv) (D) (P) → (iv), (Q) → (iii), (R) → (ii), (S) → (i)
32. Incircle of ABC touches the sides AB at P, BC at Q and CA at R. If AB = 10 cm and CR = 6 cm then

the semi perimeter of ABC (in cm) is
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 12 (D) 4
33. Three bells in a temple toll at every 10 minutes, 18 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If they toll
together at 7 : 00 am, then the time among the following at which they will toll together again is
(A) 1 : 30 PM (B) 2 : 30 PM
(C) 3 : 30 PM (D) 3 : 00 PM
A
34. In the given figure, AD bisects A. If AB = 18 cm, AC = 24 cm and
BC = 28 cm, then length of CD is
(A) 12 cm (B) 8 cm
(C) 20 cm (D) 16 cm
B D C
35. If 5cot2A = sin260° + sec230°, then cosec2A = ?

17 25
(A) (B)
12 12
7 5
(C) (D)
12 12
36. The sum of the series 1 + (1 + 3) + (1 + 3 + 5) + ……. + (1 + 3 + …… + 15 + 17) is

(A) 215 (B) 225
(C) 285 (D) 240
A
37. In the given figure, C(O, r) and C(O, r) are two circles B
C
touching externally with r = 9 cm and r = 4cm. Then length of
C
AB is O r
(A) 12 cm (B) 10 cm O
r
(C) 18 cm (D) 11 cm
38. Let n = 6406207607, then the remainder, when n2 is divided by 8, is

(A) 7 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 1
39. Hari and Aman walk on a circular track and they take 120 seconds and 150 seconds respectively to
complete one revolution. If they start together at 6 : 00 AM from the starting point, then how many
times will they meet between 6 : 05 am and 7 : 35 am?
(A) 6 (B) 9
(C) 12 (D) 4
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
40. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W, 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of 1
kW. The voltage of the electric mains is 220 V. The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building
will be
(A) 8 A (B) 10 A
(C) 12 A (D) 14 A
41. Two parallel infinitely long wires carry currents of 20 A and 40 A in opposite direction. Another
infinitely long wire carrying a current anti parallel to 20 A is placed midway between the two wires, the
direction of net magnetic force on it will be
(A) towards the wire carrying 20 A
(B) towards the wire carrying 40 A
(C) along the direction of current in the wire carrying 20 A
(D) perpendicular to the plane of the wires
42. The magnetic force per unit length existing between two infinitely long parallel current carrying
conductors is F. If the current in each conductor is made thrice and separation between them remains
same then the value of magnetic force per unit length will become
(A) 2 F (B) 9 F
(C) 3 F (D) F/2
43. In the following circuit equivalent resistance between the points A 3Ω 6Ω

and B is.
13 30 100 Ω
(A) Ω (B) Ω A B
19 13
10 Ω 20 Ω
90 13
(C) Ω (D) Ω.
13 90
44. What is the frequency that corresponds to a light ray of wavelength 450 nm, when travelling through a
glass of refractive index 3/2?
(A) 4.4 × 1014 Hz (B) 3.2 × 1016 Hz
8
(C) 1.2 × 10 Hz (D) 6.8 × 107 Hz
45. Two infinitely long wires A and B are placed parallel to each A B
other as shown in figure.
Determine the ratio of the magnetic field due to A and B at the
10 cm 10 cm
point P.
P
1 1
(A) (B) 5A 20 A
5 2
1 1
(C) (D)
3 4
46. The ore having two different metal atoms is

(A) Haematite (B) Galena
(C) Magnetite (D) Copper pyrites
47. Ethyl alcohol is heated with large amount of conc. H2SO4 at 170°C. the product formed is
(A) CH3COOCH3 (B) C2H6
(C) C2H4 (D) C2H2
48. Maximum number of structural isomers for an alkene with molecular formula, C4H8 is
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 2
49. Which of the following sets is of coinage metals?

(A) Cu, Ag, Au (B) Zn, Cd, Hg
(C) Au, Ag, Zn (D) Li, Na, K
50. In the periodic table which one of the following trends is not correct across the period?
(A) Electronegative to electropositive (B) Metallic to non-metallic
(C) Reducing to oxidizing (D) Base to acid forming
51. Which of the following reactions occur during calcinations?

(i) CaCO3  CaO + CO2
(ii) 4FeS2 + 11O2  2Fe2O3 + 8SO2
(iii) 2Al(OH)3  Al2O3 + 3H2O
(iv) Cu2S + 2CuO  4Cu + SO2
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)
1
52. If x2 – 4x + 1 = 0, then x3 + =?
x3
(A) 26 (B) 52
(C) 32 (D) 64
P
53. In the figure (not to scale), AP is tangent and AC is a secant. PD
bisects CPB, then,
(A) AP = AD
(B) AP = AC
A
(C) AP = AB
D B
(D) none of these C
54. If sin + sin2 = 1, then cos12 + 3cos10 + 3cos8 + cos6 + 1 = ?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) – 1 (D) 0
55. If the sum of first 8 and 19 terms of an AP are 64 and 361 respectively, then its first term and
common difference respectively are
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4 (D) 2, 1
1
56. The points X and Y are taken on the sides PQ and PR respectively of PQR such that PX = PQ
4
1
and PY = PR. If QR = 20 cm, then XY = ?
4
(A) 20 cm (B) 15 cm
(C) 10 cm (D) 5 cm
m 1
57. If tan = , tan = , then  +  = ?
m 1 2m 1
 
(A) (B)
2 3
 
(C) (D)
4 6
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
This part contains 2 Numerical Based Questions number 58 to 59. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.
R1 = 6Ω
58. In the given figure, the ratio of power generated in R1 and R2 is
found to be N : 1, then what is the value of N?
R2 = 36Ω
+ –
59. A point source of light is kept at a distance of  D  10  cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of
curvature 40 cm. The image is formed at 10 cm behind the mirror. What is the value of D?
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
60. The pH of a solution obtained by mixing 10 ml of 0.45 M HCl and 40 ml of 0.1 M NaOH is _____.
61. Identify the metalloids out of the following elements:

Silicon, Arsenic, Indium, Antimony, Cadmium, Tellurium, Astatine, Polonium.
MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
62. The number of zeroes at the end of N = 18! + 19! is
63. In a trapezium ABCD, AB || CD and DC = 2AB, EF || AB where E and F lie on sides BC and AD
AB
respectively, such that BE : EC = 4 : 3. Diagonal DB intersects EF at G, the value of 11 is
EF
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – IV

Section – IV
64. White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as

shown in the figure. If green light is just totally internally
reflected then the emerging ray in air contains
(A) yellow, orange, red Air Green
(B) violet, indigo, blue
(C) all colours
(D) all colours except green Glass
White
65. Each resistance in the given figure is of 3 Ω. The

A C
equivalent resistance between A and B will be
(A) 1 Ω (B) 2 Ω
(C) 3 Ω (D) 4 Ω D
E B
66. A converging lens is placed in between an object and a screen (to obtain image on it). The
magnification produced due to the lens is “– 2”. If the distance between the object and the screen is
45 cm, then calculate its focal length (in cm).
(A) 20 (B) 40
(C) 30 (D) 10
67. A glass slab of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed on a paper. A person looks at it from
a distance of 5 cm above the paper. At what distance (in cm) from the person does the paper appear
to be?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
68. Determine the amount of current flowing through a circular coil if the strength of magnetic field at the
centre of the coil is 4  10 5 T and its radius is 4 cm. 0  4  107 T-m / A
1 2
(A) A (B) A
 
8 4
(C) A (D) A
 
69. Action of heat on a mixture of sodium propionate and sodalime produces

(A) Methane (B) Ethane
(C) Propane (D) Ethylene
70. Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of

(A) Cu and Hg (B) Zn and Hg
(C) Cu and Al (D) Fe and Pb
71. Which has highest second ionization energy?

(A) N (B) C
(C) O (D) F
72. Which of the following experiments is not for double displacement and precipitation reaction?
(A) Mixing of aqueous solution of BaCl2 and dilute H2SO4
(B) Mixing of aqueous solutions of Pb(NO3)2 and KI
(C) Mixing of KI solution and Cl2 gas
(D) Mixing of aqueous solutions of AlCl3 and NH4OH
73. Which among the following is not diprotic?

(A) H2SO4 (B) H3PO2
(C) H2CO3 (D) None of these
74. If a + b + c = 22 and ab + bc + ca = 91abc, then the value of

    
a b2  c 2  b c 2  a2  c a2  b2  is
abc
(A) 2002 (B) 484
(C) 1999 (D) 968
75. The 2006th digit in the sequence 12345678910111213……… is

(A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 0 (D) 5
76. The number of terms of an AP is even; sum of all terms at odd places and even places are 24 and 30
respectively. Last term exceeds the first term by 10.5. Then the number of terms in the series is
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 16 (D) 20
77. If A, B, C and D are the successive angles of a cyclic quadrilateral, then cosA + cosB + cosC + cosD
=?
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0
A
78. In the given figure, AD is angle bisector and BAD = 60°. Then
length of AD is
bc bc b
(A) (B) c 60°
bc bc
2
2 2 b  c 
(C) b c (D)
bc B D C
a
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
79. In the given figure, what is the potential difference in volts 6Ω

between the points P and Q?
1A P Q 1A
3Ω
80. An incident ray of light ‘I’ is reflected by two plane mirrors I
N1
M1 and M2 as shown in figure. The value of angle ‘’ is
M1
found to be 10 x  in degree  , then what is the value of x? 30°
N2
120°

M2
81. A farsighted person’s least distance of distinct vision is 0.5 m. The power of the lens that should be
prescribed to enable him to read a book held at 0.25m is + x diopter. Find the value of x.
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
82. How many cyclic isomers of C5H10 are possible?
83. How many ores of Iron are there?

Limonite, Borax, Siderite, Iron pyrite, Pyrolusite, Corundum.
84. The minimum number of carbon atoms which a ketone may contain is
MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
85. If x2 + xy + xz = 135, y2 + yz + xy = 351 and z2 + zx + zy = 243. Then the value of x is, (x, y, z > 0)
C
86. In the given figure, AP : PB = 4 : 3. PQ || AC and QD
6AP
|| CP. Find the value of 5 .
PD Q
A P D B
87. Let  and  be the roots of equation x2 – 6x – 2 = 0. If an = n – n, for n  1, then the value of
a10  2a8
is
2a9
(FTRE – 2018)
CLASS - X
ANSWERS
PAPER-2
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A
5. A 6. C 7. C 8. C
9. D 10. D 11. C 12. B
13. C 14. D 15. A 16. D
17. C 18. D 19. A 20. C
21. B 22. D 23. A 24. B
25. C 26. D 27. D 28. B
29. A 30. B 31. A 32. B
33. B 34. D 35. A 36. C
37. A 38. D 39. B 40. C
41. B 42. B 43. C 44. A
45. D 46. D 47. C 48. A
49. A 50. A 51. A 52. B
53. A 54. B 55. A 56. D
57. C 58. 6 59. 2 60. 2
61. 5 62. 4 63. 7 64. A
65. B 66. D 67. D 68. C
69. B 70. A 71. C 72. C
73. B 74. C 75. C 76. A
77. D 78. B 79. 2 80. 3
81. 2 82. 4 83. 3 84. 3
85. 5 86. 9 87. 3

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FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam-2018

for students presently in

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Marking Scheme for each question

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

1. Choose the option which is least like the other words.

5. Afghanistan : Kabul : : Bangladesh : ?

7. Spider : Insect : : Crocodile : ?

8. RST is related to 181920 in the same way GHI is related to

9. KP, LO, MN, NM, ?

11. 11, 22, 44, 55, 77, 88, ?

12. 220, 284, 356, 436, ?

13. 5, 12, 26, 54, 110, ?

14. 7, 19, 43, 91, ?, 379

15. 9, 31, 97, 295, ?, 2671

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

31. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

32. What kind of energy conversion takes place in electric motors?

34. Equivalent resistance between A and B is A

37. Choose the correct option from the following :–

39. In the given circuit the value of i1 will be i1 4Ω

43. The soap molecule has a

44. Which of the following on heating gives two colourless gases?

45. Aluminium is diagonally related to

47. Which of the following statements is incorrect? About periodic table.

50. Ethanol reacts with sodium to evolve

51. Which one of the following is true in electrolytic refining?

52. Butane with molecular formula C4H10 has

53. For the redox reaction,

55. The number 313 – 310 is divisible by primes_____

56. If p and q are primes, then HCF (p, q) will be

59. If 3, 4 + p2, 6 – p are in A.P., then p must be equal to

61. In ABC, a line XY parallel to BC cuts AB at X and AC at Y. If BY A

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

71. Equivalent resistance between points P and Q for the 6Ω

74. Mirror formula is applicable for

75. A light ray travels from medium 1 to medium 2 as shown in figure. 1

77. An object PQ is placed in front of a plane mirror as shown in

81. The compound whose aqueous solution has highest pH, is

82. Select the correct statement

84. Which of the following process is accompanied by absorption of energy?

85. Which of the following represents saponification reaction?

86. The incorrect statement is

87. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

88. Consider the following reaction:

89. The solution of which salt in water is acidic?

92. What will be the pH value of 0.05 M Ba(OH)2 solution?

103. If acos + bsin = 4 and asin – bcos = 3 then a2 + b2 = _____

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam-2018

1. You are advised to devote 20 Minutes on Section-I, 40 Minutes on Section-II, 60

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

For questions 58 to 63 and 79 to 87

Recommended Time: 20 Minutes for Section – I

1. If a mirror has a focal length of – 15 cm, then it is a