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(0999DMD310117006) *0999DMD310117006*
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2017 - 2018)
9. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.
10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.
11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.
12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself.
OMR
h2 h2 h1 h1 h2 h2 h1 h1
(1) h (2) (3) h (4) (1) h (2) h1 (3) h (4) h2
1 h1 2 h2 1 2
0999DMD310117006 FTS-1/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
6. The centre of mass of a system of particles does 6.
not depend on :-
(1)
(1) masses of the particles
(2)
(2) forces acting on the particles
(3) position of the particles (3)
2m 2m
2kg x 2kg x
(0, 0) 3kg (0, 0) 3kg
8 13 7 11 8 13 7 11
(1) , (2) , (1) , (2) ,
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
11 13 11 8 11 13 11 8
(3) , (4) , (3) , (4) ,
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
9. Masses of 2 kg each are placed at the conrners 9.
2
B and A of a rechangular plate ABCD as shown ABCD B A
in the figure. A mass of 8 kg has to be placed
8
on the plate so that the centre of mass of the
O
system should be at the centre O. Then the mass
should be placed at :-
(1) 1 m from O on OE (2) 2 m from O on OF (1) OE O 1 (2) OF O 2
(3) 2 m from O on OG (4) 2 m from O on OH (3) OG O 2 (4) OH O 2
FTS-2/31 0999DMD310117006
Nurture Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
10. If the system is released, then the acceleration of 10.
the centre of mass of the system is :-
g g g g
(1) (2) (3) g (4) 2g (1) (2) (3) g (4) 2g
4 2 4 2
11. Two blocks of equal mass are tied with a light 11.
string which passes over a massless pulley as
shown in figure. The magnitude of acceleration
of centre of mass of both the blocks is:
(neglect friction everywhere)
3 1
3 1
(1) g (2) ( 3 1)g (1) g (2) ( 3 1)g
4 2
4 2
g 3 1
g 3 1 (3) (4) g
(3) (4) g 2 2
2 2
12. Two particles of equal masses have velocities 12.
v1 2ˆi
v 2ˆi m/s and v 2ˆj m/s. The first particle
1 2 v 2 2ˆj
a1 (3ˆi 3ˆj)
2
has an acceleration a1 (3ˆi 3ˆj) m/s2, while the
acceleration of the other particle is zero. The
centre of mass of the two particles moves in a:-
(1) (2)
(1) circle (2) parabola
(3) straight line (4) ellipse (3) (4)
13. A mass m moves with a velocity v and collides 13. m
v
inelastically with another stationary identical
mass. After collision the 1st mass moves with
v
v
velocity in a direction perpendicular to the 3
3
initial direction of motion. Find the speed of the
2nd mass after collision :
2 v 2 v
(1) v (2) (3) v (4) 3v (1) v (2) (3) v (4) 3v
3 3 3 3
0999DMD310117006 FTS-3/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
14. When two bodies collide elastically, then : 14.
(1) K.E. of the system alone is conserved (1)
(2) only momentum is conserved (2)
(3) both K.E. and momentum are conserved (3)
(4) neither K.E. nor momentum is conserved (4)
15. A man of mass m1 is standing on a platform of 15. m1
m2
mass m2 kept on a perfectly smooth horizontal
surface. The man starts moving on the platform
vr
with a velocity vr relative to the platform. The
recoil velocity of the platform is :
(recoil velocity)
m1m 2 m1m 2
(1) vr (2) m m vr (1) vr (2) m m vr
1 2 1 2
16. Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 1 kg are moving 16. 5
1
with velocities 2iˆ 7ˆj 3kˆ and 10iˆ 35jˆ 3kˆ m/s 2iˆ 7ˆj 3kˆ
10iˆ 35jˆ 3kˆ
respectively. The velocity of the centre of mass of
the two-body system is :
(1) z- (2) xy-
(1) along z-axis (2) in the xy-plane
(3) in the xyz-space (4) in the yz-plane (3) xyz- (4) yz-
17. A ball of mass m 1 makes a head-on elastic 17. m1
collision with a ball of mass m2 which is initially m2
(head on)
at rest. The transfer of kinetic energy to the
second ball is maximum when :-
(translational)
(1) m1 >> m2 (2) m1 = m2 (1) m1 >> m2 (2) m1 = m2
(3) m1 << m2 (4) m1 m2 (3) m1 << m2 (4) m1 m2
18. A neutron moving with velocity u collides 18. u
(mass
elastically with an atom of mass number A. If number) A
the collision is head-on and the initial kinetic
energy of neutron is E, then the final kinetic
(head-on)
energy of the neutron after collision is :- E
2 2 2 2
A 1 A 1 A 1 A 1
(1) E (2) E (1) E (2) E
A 1 A 1 A 1 A 1
A 1 A 1 A 1 A 1
(3) E (4) E (3) E (4) E
A 1 A 1 A 1 A 1
19. A billiard ball moving with a speed of 5 m/s 19. 5
(billiard)
collides with an identical ball, originally at rest.
If the first ball stops dead after collision. then the
second ball will move forward with a speed of :-
(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1 (1) 10 (2) 5
(3) 2.5 ms–1 (4) 1.0 ms–1 (3) 2.5 (4) 1.0
FTS-4/31 0999DMD310117006
Nurture Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
20. If the net external force acting on the system 20.
of particles is zero, then which of the following
may vary? (1)
(1) Momentum of the system
(2)
(2) Kinetic energy of the system
(3) Velocity of centre of mass (3)
(4) Position of centre of mass (4)
21. For particles of masses m1 = 2m, m2 = 4m, 21. m1 = 2m, m2 = 4m, m3 = m m4
m3 = m and m4 are placed at four corners of a m4
square. What should be the value of m4 so that
the centres of mass of all the four particles are
exactly at the centre of the square?
(1) the two pieces will have the same mass (1)
(2) the bottom piece will have larger mass (2)
(3) the handle piece will have larger mass (3)
(4) mass of handle piece is double the mass of (4)
bottom piece
23. A body of mass m at rest explodes into three pieces, 23. M
two of which of mass (m/6) each are thrown off
(m/6)
in perpendicular directions with velocities of 3
4
3 m/s and 4 m/s respectively. The third piece will
be thrown off with a speed of?
(1) 1.25 m/s (2) 3.5 m/s (1) 1.25 (2) 3.5
(3) 1 m/s (4) 5 m/s (3) 1 (4) 5
24. Two particles A and B of same mass, initially at rest, 24. A
B,
moves towards each other under a mutual force of
attraction. At the instant when the speed of A is v and A v
the speed of B is 2v, the speed of centre of mass is: B 2v
(1) Zero (2) v (3) 1.5 v (4) 3v (1) (2) v (3) 1.5 v (4) 3v
0999DMD310117006 FTS-5/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
25. If a force 10ˆi 15ˆj 25kˆ acts on a system and 25. 10ˆi 15ˆj 25kˆ
gives an acceleration 2ˆi 3ˆj 5kˆ to the centre of
2ˆi 3ˆj 5kˆ
mass of the system, the mass of the system is :-
(1) 5 units (1) 5
(2) 38 units (2) 38
(3) 5 38 units (3) 5 38
(4) given data is not correct (4)
26. Two solid rubber balls A and B having masses 200 26.
A B
200
and 400 gm respectively are moving in opposite 400
directions with velocity of A equal to 0.3 m/s. After
A
0.3 m/s
collision the two balls come to rest, then the velocity
B
of B is
(1) 0.15
(1) 0.15 m/sec
(2) 1.5
(2) 1.5 m/sec
(3) – 0.15 m/sec (3) – 0.15
(4) –1.5 m/sec (4) – 1.5
27. An intense stream of water of cross-sectional area 27. A
A strikes a wall at an angle with the normal to
the wall and rebounds with the same speed. If the
v
density of water is and its velocity is v, then the
force exerted in the wall will be
v
v
v
v
(1) 2Avcos
(1) 2Avcos
(2) 2Av2cos
(2) 2Av2cos
(3) 2Av2 (3) 2Av2
(4) 2Av (4) 2Av
28. In an elastic collision of two particles the following 28.
is conserved (1)
(1) Momentum of each particle
(2)
(2) Speed of each particle
(3) Kinetic energy of each particle (3)
(4) Total kinetic energy of both the particles (4)
FTS-6/31 0999DMD310117006
Nurture Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
29. A particle of mass m moving with horizontal 29. 6
m
speed of 6m/sec collides with a heavy particle
4
M
of mass M which is moving in same direction
m << M
with speed 4 m/s as shown in figure. If
m << M then for one dimensional elastic collision,
the speed of lighter particle after collision will be :-
:-
u1 = 6 m/s u2 = 4 m/s u1 = 6 m/s u2 = 4 m/s
m M m M
0999DMD310117006 FTS-7/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
34. A ball is allowed to fall from a height of 10 m. 34.
10 m
If there is 40% loss of energy due to impact,
40%
then after one impact ball will go up to
(1) 10 m (2) 8 m (1) 10 (2) 8
(3) 4 m (4) 6 m (3) 4 (4) 6
35. A big ball of mass M, moving with velocity u 35. M
u
strikes a small ball of mass m, which is at rest.
m
Finally small ball obtains velocity u and big ball u
v
v. Then what is the value of v
v
Mm m Mm m
(1) u (2) u (1) u (2) u
M Mm M Mm
2m M 2m M
(3) u (4) u (3) u (4) u
Mm Mm Mm Mm
36. Two particles P and Q of same mass initially at 36.
P
Q,
rest, moves towards each other under a mutual
force of attraction. At the instant when the speed
P 10
of P is 10 m/s and the speed of Q is 20 m/s, the
Q 20
:-
speed of centre of mass is :-
(1) 5 m/s (2) 15 m/s (1) 5 (2) 15
(3) 10 m/s (4) Zero (3) 10 (4)
37. Masses 8,2,4,2 kg are placed at the corners A, 37. 80
ABCD
A,B,C,D
B, C, D respectively of a square ABCD of 8,2,4,2 kg
A
diagonal 80 cm. The distance of centre of mass
from A will be
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 40 cm (4) 60 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 60 cm
38. Two spheres of masses 2M and M are initially 38.
2M M
R
at rest at a distance R appart. Due to mutual force
of attraction, they approach each other. When
R/2
they are at separation R/2, the acceleration of the
centre of mass of sphere would be
(1) 0 m/s2 (2) g m/s2 (1) 0 m/s2 (2) g m/s2
(3) 3 g m/s 2
(4) 12 g m/s2 (3) 3 g m/s2 (4) 12 g m/s2
39. Four bodies of equal mass start moving with 39.
same speed as shown in the figure. In which
of the following combination the centre of
mass will remain at origin.
Y Y
c d c
d
X' X X' X
a b a b
Y' Y'
(1) c and d (2) a and b (3) a and c (4) b and d (1) c
d (2) a
b (3) a
c (4) b
d
FTS-8/31 0999DMD310117006
Nurture Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
40. The centre of mass of a system of two particles 40.
divides the distance between them
(1) In inverse ratio of square of masses of particles (1)
(2) In direct ratio of square of masses of particles (2)
(3) In inverse ratio of masses of particles (3)
(4) In direct ratio of masses of particles (4)
41. Two point objects of masses 1.5 g and 2.5 g 41. 1.5 g
2.5 g
respectively are at a distance of 16 cm apart, the 16 cm
1.5 g
centre of gravity is at a distance x from the object
x
x
of mass 1.5 g where x is
(1) 10 cm (2) 6 cm (1) 10 cm (2) 6 cm
42. Centre of mass of 3 particles 10 kg, 20 kg and 42. 10 kg, 20 kg 30 kg
30 kg is at (0,0,0). Where should a particle of
(0,0,0)
40 kg
mass 40 kg be placed so that the combination
centre of mass will be at (3,3,3) (3,3,3)
(1) (0,0,0) (2) (7.5,7.5,7.5) (1) (0,0,0) (2) (7.5,7.5,7.5)
(3) (1,2,3) (4) (4,4,4) (3) (1,2,3) (4) (4,4,4)
43. A man weighing 80 kg is standing in a trolley 43. 80 kg
320 kg
weighing 320 kg. The trolley is resting on
1 m/s
frictionless horizontal rails. If the man starts
walking on the trolley with a speed of 1 m/s, then
4 sec
after 4 sec his displacement relative to the ground
will be
(1) 5 m (2) 4.8 m
(1) 5 m (2) 4.8 m
(3) 3.2 m (4) 3.0 m (3) 3.2 m (4) 3.0 m
0999DMD310117006 FTS-9/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
TOPIC :THERMODYNAMICS : First law of thermodynamics-internal energy and enthalpy, heat capacity
and specific heat, measurement of U and H, Hess’s law of constant heat summation, enthalpy of : bond
dissociation, combustion, formation, atomization, sublimation, phase transition, ionization, solution and dilution.
Introduction of entropy as state function, Second law of thermodynamics, Gibbs energy change for spontaneous
and non-spontaneous process, criteria for equilibrium and spontaneity.
Third law of thermodynamics- Brief introduction.
46. Which of the following is as extensive property:- 46.
:-
(1) molar entropy (2) specific volume (1) (2)
(3) Boiling point (4) None of these (3) (4)
47. A system absorbs 5 kJ of heat and it does 1 kJ work, 47. 5kJ
1 kJ
then the change in internal energy would be :-
:-
(1) 4 kJ (2) 4000 J (1) 4 kJ (2) 4000 J
(3) 6 kJ (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) 6 kJ (4) Both (1) and (2)
48. Internal energy and pressure for unit volume of gas 48.
are related by :-
:-
2 3 2 3
(1) P E (2) P E (1) P E (2) P E
3 2 3 2
FTS-10/31 0999DMD310117006
Nurture Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
53. The value of S for freezing of 10g of H2O() 53. 0°C 1
10
H2O()
(enthalpy of fusion is 80 cal/g) at 0°C and 1 atm S
80
/
is :-
:-
(1) 12.25 J/K (2) –0.244 J/K (1) 12.25 J/K (2) –0.244 J/K
(3) –2.93 J/K (4) –12.25 J/K (3) –2.93 J/K (4) –12.25 J/K
54. 10 mole of ideal gas expands isothermally and 54. 300K 10
10
reversibly from a pressure of 10 atm to 1 atm 1
at 300K. What is the largest mass which can
100
be lifted through a height of 100 meter by
energy obtained in this process :
:-
(1) 31842 Kg (2) 58.55 Kg (1) 31842 kg (2) 58.55 kg
(3) 342.58 Kg (4) 5855 Kg (3) 342.58 kg (4) 5855 Kg
55. 36 mL of pure water takes 100 s to evaporate 55.
806
from a vessel and heater connected to an
36 mL
100 second
electric source which delivers 806 watt. The
H2OH
:-
Hvapourization of H2O is :-
(1) 40.3 kJ/mol (2) 43.2 kJ/mol (1) 40.3
/ (2) 43.2 /
(3) 4.03 kJ/mol (4) None of these (3) 4.03 / (4)
56. One mole of an ideal gas at 25°C expands its 56. 25°C
1.0
volume from 1L to 4L at constant temperature. 4.0
(Pext = 0)
What work (in J) is done if gas expands against
()
?
vaccum (P ext = 0)?
(1) –4 × 102 (2) –3 × 102 (1) –4 × 102 (2) –3 × 102
(3) –1 × 10 2
(4) Zero (3) –1 × 102 (4)
57. A gaseous endothermic reaction 57.
1 1
P + Q 2R P + Q 2R
2 2
at 25°C takes place spontaneously because:- 25°C
:-
(1) H < 0 ; S < 0 (1) H < 0 ; S < 0
(2) H > 0; S > 0 (2) H > 0; S > 0
(3) H < 0 ; S > 0 (3) H < 0 ; S > 0
(4) H > 0; S < 0 (4) H > 0; S < 0
58. A 10g piece of iron (C = 0.45 J/g°C) at 100°C is 58.
(C = 0.45 /
°C) 10g
dropped into 25g of water (C = 4.2 J/g°C) at 27°C. 100°C 27°C 25
Find temperature of iron and water when system (C = 4.2 /
°C)
is at thermal equilibrium :- :-
(1) 30°C (2) 40°C (1) 30°C (2) 40°C
(3) 33°C (4) None of these (3) 33°C (4)
59. Which of the following heat of reaction expresses 59.
HCl
the bond energy of HCl :-
:-
(1) HCl(g) H(g) + Cl(g) (1) HCl(g) H(g) + Cl(g)
(2) 2HCl(g) H2(g) + Cl2(g) (2) 2HCl(g) H2(g) + Cl2(g)
1 1 1 1
(3) HCl(g) H 2 (g) Cl2 (g) (3) HCl(g) H 2 (g) Cl2 (g)
2 2 2 2
(4) HCl(g) H+(g) + Cl–(g) (4) HCl(g) H+(g) + Cl–(g)
0999DMD310117006 FTS-11/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
60. Consider the following reaction : 60.
:
15 15
C6H6() + O2 (g) 6CO2(g)+3H2O(g) C6H6() + O2 (g) 6CO2(g)+3H2O(g)
2 2
Sign of H, S & G for the reaction would be? H, S G
?
(1) +, – , + (2) +, +, – (1) +, – , + (2) +, +, –
(3) – , + , – (4) –, +, + (3) – , + , – (4) –, +, +
61. One mol of methanol when burnt in excess of O2 61. O2
1 mol
gives out 723 kJ mol–1 Heat. If 1 mol of O2 is used, 723 kJ mol–1
O2
what will be the amount of heat evolved :-
1mol
:-
(1) 723 kJ (2) 924 kJ (1) 723 kJ (2) 924 kJ
(3) 482 kJ (4) 241 kJ (3) 482 kJ (4) 241 kJ
62. 4g H2 gas at STP is expanded against 1 atm to 62. 4g H2 gas STP
1atm
twice its volume. Find the work done :-
:-
(1) 22.4 L-atm (2) 44.8 L-atm (1) 22.4 L-atm (2) 44.8 L-atm
(3) –44.8 L-atm (4) –22.4 L-atm (3) –44.8 L-atm (4) –22.4 L-atm
63. Which is incorrect in reversible process :- 63.
:-
(1) Work on expansion is maximum
(1)
(2) Driving force is slightly greater than opposing
force (2)
(3) System and surrounding are always in thermal (3)
equilibrium with each other
(4) Total entropy change is positive (4)
64. Which is correct for adiabatic process :- 64.
:-
(1) E = 0 (2) T = 0 (1) E = 0 (2) T = 0
(3) q = 0 (4) H = 0 (3) q = 0 (4) H = 0
65. The Heat of neutralization is maximum from the 65.
following in :- :-
(1) H2SO4 and KOH (1) H2SO4 KOH
(2) NH4OH and HCl (2) NH4OH HCl
(3) CH3 COOH and NH4OH (3) CH3 COOH NH4OH
(4) Same in all cases (4)
66. Calculate the heat produced in kJ when 280 g CaO 66. 280 g CaO
is completely converted to CaCO3 by reaction with 27°C
CO2
CO2 at 27°C at constant volume :-
CaCO3
kJ kJ
(Given) Hf°(CaCO3,s) = –1207 (Given) Hf°(CaCO3,s) = –1207
mol mol
Hf°(CaO,S) = –635 kJ/mol
Hf°(CaO,S) = –635 kJ/mol
Hf° (CO2.g) = –394 kJ/mol Hf° (CO2.g) = –394 kJ/mol
(1) 800J/mol (2) 877.55 kJ/mol (1) 800J/mol (2) 877.55 kJ/mol
(3) 500 kJ/mol (4) None of these (3) 500 kJ/mol (4)
FTS-12/31 0999DMD310117006
Nurture Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/17-09-2017
67. XeF2(g) + H2(g) 2HF(g) + Xe(g) H° = –430 kJ 67. XeF2(g) + H2(g) 2HF(g) + Xe(g) H° = –430 kJ
Column I Column II
Column I Column II
(A) Sb(s) (P) H°f = + ve,
(A) Sb(s) (P) H°f = + ve, S°f = + ve
S°f = + ve
(B) O3(g) (Q) H°f = 0,
(B) O3(g) (Q) H°f = 0, S°f = 0
S°f = 0
(C) I2(g) (R) H°f = + ve,
(C) I2(g) (R) H°f = + ve, S°f = – ve
S°f = – ve
(D) CO(g) (S) H°f = – ve,
(D) CO(g) (S) H°f = – ve, S°f = + ve
S°f = + ve
(1) AP, BQ, CR, DS
(1) AP, BQ, CR, DS (2) AQ, BP, CS, DR
(2) AQ, BP, CS, DR (3) AQ, BR, CP, DS
(3) AQ, BR, CP, DS
(4)
(4) None of these
74. If Hvaporisation (X) = 300 J/g. and B.P. = 300 K. 74. Hvaporisation (X) = 300 J/g.
B.P. = 300 K.
Find S for Condensation process. S
(Molar mass of X = 30 g/mol) :- (X = 30 g/mol) :-
(1) 30 J/mol-K (2) –300 J/mol-K (1) 30 J/mol-K (2) –300 J/mol-K
(3) –30 J/mol-K (4) None of these (3) –30 J/mol-K (4)
75. The enthalpy of combustion of glucose is 75. 25°C
–2808 kJ/mol
–2808 kJ/mol at 25°C.How many grams of glucose
3 m
is to be consumed to climb stairs rising through 3m ?
?(
=62.5 kg ):-
(Assume body weight = 62.5 kg):-
(1) 0.94 gm (2) 1.47 gm (1) 0.94 gm (2) 1.47 gm
(3) 0.12 gm (4) 0.47 kg (3) 0.12 gm (4) 0.47 kg
76. The gas is cooled such that it loses 65 J of heat. 76.
65 J
The gas contracts as it cools and work done on
the system equal to 20J is exchanged with
20J
surroundings. What is value of U ?
U
(1) 85 J (2) –85 J (3) –45 J (4) +45 J
(1) 85 J (2) –85 J (3) –45 J (4) +45 J
77. Which of the following do not have zero entropy 77.
at zero kelvin ?
?
(1) Na (2) Ne (3) He (4) Br (1) Na (2) Ne (3) He (4) Br
78. Calculate H (kJ/mole) for the reaction :- 78. H (kJ/mole) :-
1 1
2FeO(s) + O 2 (g) Fe 2 O3(s) 2FeO(s) + O 2 (g) Fe 2 O3(s)
2 2
Given H H
(i) Fe2O3(s)+C(graphite)2Fe(s) + 3CO(g) 492 kJ/mol (i) Fe2O3(s)+C(graphite)2Fe(s) + 3CO(g) 492 kJ/mol
(ii) FeO(s)+C(graphite)Fe(s)+CO(g) 156 kJ/mol (ii) FeO(s)+C(graphite)Fe(s)+CO(g) 156 kJ/mol
(iii) C(graphite) + O2(g)CO2(g) –393 kJ/mol (iii) C(graphite) + O2(g)CO2(g) –393 kJ/mol
1 1
(iv) CO(g) + O2 (g) CO 2(g) –283 kJ/mol (iv) CO(g) + O2 (g) CO 2(g) –283 kJ/mol
2 2
(1) 290 (2) –290 (3) 580 (4) –580 (1) 290 (2) –290 (3) 580 (4) –580
FTS-14/31 0999DMD310117006
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79. If 1 mole of aqueous nitric acid is formed, 79.
1
calculate heat released :-
H(kJ) H(kJ)
4NH 3(g) 5O 2(g) 4NO(g) 6H 2 O( ) 904 4NH 3(g) 5O 2(g) 4NO (g) 6H 2 O ( ) 904
2NO (g ) O2(g ) 2NO 2(g ) 112 2NO (g ) O 2(g ) 2NO 2(g ) 112
3NO 2(g) H 2 O( ) 2H NO3(aq ) NO (g ) 140 3NO 2(g) H 2 O ( ) 2H NO3(aq ) NO (g ) 140
3 3
84. S(s) + O 2 SO3(g) +2x kcal 84. S(s) + O 2 SO3(g) +2x kcal
2 (g) 2 (g)
1 1
SO2(g) + O 2(g) SO3(g) +y kcal SO2(g) + O 2(g) SO3(g) +y kcal
2 2
Find out Hf of SO2(g) :- SO2(g) Hf
:-
(1) y–2x (2) 2x+y (3) x + y (4) 2x/y (1) y–2x (2) 2x+y (3) x + y (4) 2x/y
1 1
85. When graph is plotted with log(Keq) v/s
T
then 85. log(Keq) v/s
T
intercept will be :-
:-
H H H H
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2.303R 2.303RT 2.303R 2.303RT
S S S S
(3) (4) (3) (4)
R 2.303R R 2.303R
0999DMD310117006 FTS-15/31
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86. Correct matching of column-I with column-II is : 86.
-I
-II
:
Column 2 Column 2
Column I Column I
(S°) J/mol-K (S°) J/mol-K
(P) C(diamond) A 5.7 (P) C(diamond) A 5.7
(Q) C(graphite) B 2.37 (Q) C(graphite) B 2.37
(R) H2(g) C 117.6 (R) H2(g) C 117.6
(S) H(g) D 130.5 (S) H(g) D 130.5
(1) PB (2) QB (3) RA (4) SD (1) PB (2) QB (3) RA (4) SD
87. Correct matching of column-I with column-II is : 87. -I
-II
:
Column I Column II
Column I Column II
Reversible adiabatic
A
compression
P Ssystem > O A P Ssystem > O
C
Free expansion of ideal gas in
R Ssurrounding > O C
R Ssurrounding > O
vacuum
CaCO 3(s) CaO(s) +CO 2(g)
dissociation of D S Ssurrounding = O
D S Ssurrounding = O
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) +CO2(g)
(1) AS (2) BQ (3) CR (4) DQ (1) AS (2) BQ (3) CR (4) DQ
88. G°f for Gaseous Hg is 31kJ/mol What is the total 88. Hg G°f 31kJ/mol
external pressure when Hg start boiling at 25°C?
25°C Hg
?
(1) 10–5.44 (2) 10–12.5 (3) 10–6.52 (4) 10–3.12 (1) 10–5.44 (2) 10–12.5 (3) 10–6.52 (4) 10–3.12
1 3 1 3
89. X 2 Y2 XY3 H° = –30 kJ 89. X 2 Y2 XY3 H° = –30 kJ
2 2 2 2
S° X2 Y 2 XY3 S° X2 Y 2 XY3
J/Kmol 60 40 50 J/Kmol 60 40 50
at equilibrium, what is the temperature ?
(1) 1250K (2) 500K (3) 750K (4) 1000K (1) 1250K (2) 500K (3) 750K (4) 1000K
G G
(KJ/mol) (KJ/mol)
+100 +100
90. +50 90. +50
0 0
–50 –50
–100 –100
T(K) T(K)
100 200 300 400 100 200 300 400
From graph, what can be concluded ?
:-
(1) H > 0, S > 0 (2) H > 0, S < 0 (1) H > 0, S > 0 (2) H > 0, S < 0
(3) H < 0, S > 0 (4) H < 0, S < 0 (3) H < 0, S > 0 (4) H < 0, S < 0
FTS-16/31 0999DMD310117006
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TOPIC : CELL STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION : Cell theory and cell as the basic unit of life; Structure
of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell; Plant cell and animal cell; Cell envelope, cell membrane, cell wall; Cell
organelles-structure and function; Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, lysosomes,
vacuoles; mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids, micro bodies; Cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultra structure
and function); Nucleusnuclear membrane, chromatin, nucleolus. Biomolecules : Structure and function of proteins,
carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids Cell division: Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their significance.
0999DMD310117006 FTS-17/31
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100. The main function of Golgi complex is :- 100.
:-
(1) Fermentation (1)
(2) Phosphyrylation (2)
(3) Translocation (3)
(4) Formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids (4)
101. In which phase of cell cycle DNA replication 101.
DNA
occur ? :-
(1) In G1 phase (2) In G2 phase (1) G1 (2) G2
(3) In S- phase (4) In all the above (3) S- (4)
102. What is the latest model that is proposed to explain 102.
the structure of plasma membrane :-
(1) Molecular model (1)
(2) Fluid mosaic model (2)
(3) Unit membrane model (3)
(4) Artificial model (4)
103. Circular DNA found in :- 103.
DNA
:-
(1) Only Bacteria (1)
(2) Only Bacteria & Chloroplast (2)
(3) Chloroplast, Mitochondria & Bacteria (3)
(4) All viruses (4)
104. Besides nucleus DNA is also present in :- 104. DNA
(1) Ribosome (2) Lysosome (1) (2)
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Mitochondria (3) (4)
105. Cell wall is :- 105.
:-
(1) Semi premeable (1)
(2) Impermeable (2)
(3) Permeable (3)
(4) Differentially permeable (4)
106. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed 106.
in cells which synthesize :-
:-
(1) Steroids (2) Carbohydrates (1) (2)
(3) Proteins (4) All of above (3) (4)
107. Plasma membrane is composed of :- 107.
:-
(1) Lipids and protein (1)
(2) Protein, carbohydrates and lipids (2)
,
(3) Protein only (3)
(4) Protein, some bit of nucleic acid and lipid (4)
,
108. Glyoxysomes are involved in the metabolism of :- 108.
(1) Proteins (1)
(2) Fats (2)
(3) Carbohydrates (3)
(4) Nucleic Acid (4)
109. Ribosomes of bacteria, mitochondria and 109.
chloroplast is of :-
:-
(1) 50 s type (2) 70 s type (1) 50 s (2) 70 s
(3) 80 s type (4) 30 s type (3) 80 s (4) 30 s
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110. The smallest organelles in a cell are :- 110. :-
(1) Lysosomes (2) Peroxysomes (1) (2)
(3) Spherosomes (4) Ribosomes (3) (4)
111. DNA duplication occurs in :- 111. DNA :-
(1) Mitosis only (1)
(2) Meiosis only (2)
(3) Meiosis I and mitosis (3)
I
(4) Meiosis II and mitosis (4)
II
112. RNA is absent in :- 112. RNA :-
(1) Plasmalemma (1)
(2) Cytoplasm (2)
(3) Chromosomes (3)
(4) Ribosomes (4)
113. Cell wall of plants is made up of :- 113. :-
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin, lignin (1)
, , ,
(2) Cellulose, hemicellulose, tubulin, lignin (2)
, , ,
(3) Lipid, hemicellulose, pectin, lignin (3) ,
, ,
(4) Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin, protein (4)
, , ,
114. Function of centriole is :- 114.
:-
(1) Formation of nucleus (1)
(2) Formation of spindle fibres and cilia (2)
(3) Initiation of cell development (3)
(4) Formation of cell plate (4)
115. Which of the following statements are releted with 115.
-
the first phase of Karyokinonsis (prophase) in
mitosis ? (A)
(A) Morphology of chromosomes can be most
easily studied (B)
S
(B) Centrioles, which had undergone duplication
during S phase, begin to move towards
opposite poles of the cell
(C) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform (C)
,
ER
(D) The initiation of condensation of
chromosomal material (D)
(1) C,D (2) B,D (1) C,D (2) B,D
(3) A,B (4) B,C (3) A,B (4) B,C
116. Initiation of the assembly of mitosis spindle 116.
occurs in :-
(1) G2- phase (2) Prophase (1) G2 (2)
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase (3) (4)
117. Which one of the following structures found in 117.
prokaryotes but lock in eukaryotes ?
(1) Ribosome and photosynthetic pigments (1)
(2) Cell wall and cytoplasm (2)
(3) Mesosome and plasmid (3)
(4) Flagella and cell wall (4)
0999DMD310117006 FTS-19/31
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118. An elaborate network of filamentous 118.
proteinaceous structure present in cytoplasm
which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is :-
called :-
(1)
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2)
(2) Plasmalemma
(3) Cytoskeleton (3)
(4) Thylakoid (4)
119. In which transport ATP is utilised :- 119.
ATP
:-
(1) Simple diffusion (1)
(2) Facilitate diffusion (2)
(3) Active transport (3)
(4) Osmosis (4)
120. What is tonoplast ? 120.
(1) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant (1)
(2) Outer membrane of mitochondria (2)
(3) Inner membrane of chloroplast (3)
(4) Cell membrane of plant cell (4)
121. In the cell cycle, mitosis occurs between :- 121.
?
(1) G1 and S phase (1) G1 S
(2) S and G1 phase (2) S G1
(3) S and G2 phase (3) S G2
(4) G2 and G1 phase (4) G2 G1
122. Which sub-stage of prophase I is characterized by 122.
-I
appearance of recombination nodule?
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene (1) (2)
(3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene (3) (4)
123. The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope 123.
marks the :- (1)
(1) Early prophase
(2)
(2) Start of second phase of mitosis
(3)
(3) First phase of mitosis
(4) End of second phase of mitosis (4)
124. Restorage of nueleocytoplasmic ratio is performed 124.
in :-
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase (1) G1 (2) S
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase (3) G2 (4) M
125. Non- membrane bound cell organells is :- 125.
:-
(1) Ribosome (1)
(2) Centrioles (2)
(3) Nucleolus (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
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126. Read the following statement :- 126.
:-
(A) Nucleolus is spherical structure found in (A)
cytoplasm near nucleus
(B) Fluid mosaic model was proposed by singer (B)
and Nicolson
(C) The ribosomes of mitochondria are smaller
(C)
than the cytoplasmic ribosomes
(D) Ribosomes are composed of m RNA, protein
(D)
, m RNA,
and lipid
(1) A,B,C are correct but IV is wrong (1) A,B,C IV
(2) A and B are correct but C and D are wrong (2) A B C D
(3) A and D are wrong but B and C are correct (3) A D B C
(4) A is wrong but B,C and D are correct (4) A B,C D
127. Identify the given diagram :- 127.
:-
0999DMD310117006 FTS-21/31
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129. Match the column I with II and find out correct 129. I II
options :-
:-
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134. Which of the following statement is not ture for 134.
plasma membrane :- :-
(1) Lipid components of the membrane mainly (1)
consist of phosphoglycerides
(2) Integral protein lie on the surface of membrane
(2)
(3) Polar head of phospholipid are toward the outer
(3)
sides and the hydrophobic tail are toward the
inner part
(4) Carbohydrate of plasma membrane are (4)
involves in cell recognition mechanism
135. Select the incorrect pair :- 135. :-
(1) Cell wall - Structural support (1)
-
(2) Central vacuole - Storage (2) -
(3) Amyloplast - Starch Storage (3) -
(4) Plasmodesmata - Protection (4)
-
136. As they release hydrolase that digest old and 136.
damaged cells, the term sucide bags is used by cell
biologists for :-
:-
(1) Gologi bodies (2) Lysosomes (1) (2)
(3) Glyoxysomes (4) Peroxisomes (3) (4)
137. According to unit membrane structure. The 137.
thickness of plasma membrane is about :-
:-
(1) 35Å (2) 20Å (3) 75Å (4) 100Å (1) 35Å (2) 20Å (3) 75Å (4) 100Å
138. Which one of the following structures is an 138.
"
"organelle with in an organelle? "
(1) ER (2) Mesosome (1) ER (2)
(3) Ribosome (4) Peroxisome (3) (4)
139. Which of the following organelle in the figure 139.
correctly matches with its functions ?
?
Cisternae Cisternae
0999DMD310117006 FTS-23/31
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140. The figure below shows the structure of 140.
mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A, B,
(A, B, C
D)
C and D). Select the part correctly matched with
its function :-
:-
(D) (D)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(A) (A)
(1) Part (A) : Matrix = Major site for enzymes of (1)
(A) :
=
photosynthetis
(2) Part (D) : Outer membrane = gives rise to inner (2)
(D) :
=
membrane by splitting
(3) Part (B) : Inner membrane = forms infoldings (3)
(B) : =
called cristae
(4) Part (C) : Cristae = Passes single, circular DNA (4) (C) : =
,
DNA
molecule and ribosomes
141. Which one of the following cellular parts is 141.
correctly diseribed?
(1) Ribosome :- Those on chloroplasts are (1) :-
larger (80s) while those in (80s)
(70s)
cytoplasm are smaller (70s)
(2) :- pH
(2) Lysosomes :- Optimum active at alkaline pH
(3) :-
(3) Thylakoids :- Flatend membranous sacs
forming the grana of chloroplasts (4) :- RNA
(4) Centrioles :- Sister for active RNA synthesis
142. At which stage of meiosis, to these events 142.
occur?
Bivalents Formation of Terminalisation
more clearly synaptonemal of chiasmata
visible complex
0999DMD310117006 FTS-27/31
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164. Which one of the following is not include in 164.
trophoplasm?
(1) Mitochondria (1)
(2) Cell wall (2)
(3) Golgi body (3)
(4) Reserve product in cell (4)
165. Which one is true for smallest cell :- 165.
(1) Cytoplasm absent (1)
(2) Cell wall present (2)
(3) Nuclear membrane absent (3)
(4) Ribosome absent (4)
166. As the plant cell mature, the secondary wall is 166.
formed on the :-
(1) Outside the primary wall (1)
(2) Inner side of primary wall (2)
(3) Secondary wall is never found in plant cell (3)
(4) Inner side of the cell membrane (4)
167. Which category of organic compounds is most 167.
abundent in cells?
(1) Carbohydrates (1)
(2) Protein (2)
(3) Water (3)
(4) Nucleic Acids (4)
168. Amount of carbon 'C' elements in human body is :- 168.
:-
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171. Which of the following is not an example of 171.
macro-molecules :- (1)
(1) Polysacchrides
(2)
(2) Proteins
(3)
(3) Nucleic Acids
(4) Lipids (4)
172. Which of the following monosacchrides is 172.
optically inactive?
(1) Glyceraldehyde (1)
(2) Dihydroxyacetone (2)
(3) Glucose (3)
(4) Galactose (4)
173. Choose the odd one :- 173.
:-
(1) Deoxyribose (1)
(2) Ribose (2)
(3) Xylulose (3)
(4) Ribulose (4)
174. Dextrose is another name for :- 174. :-
(1) Galoctose (2) Mannose (1) (2)
(3) Glucose (4) All of above (3) (4)
175. Sweetest sugar is :- 175.
:-
(1) Sucrose (1)
(2) Glucose (2)
(3) Fructose (3)
(4) Lactose (4)
176. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 176.
sugars? (1)
(1) Sweet taste
(2)
(2) Solubility in water
(3)
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) High molecular weight (4)
177. Choose the non reducing sugar from the 177.
:-
following :-
(1) (2)
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose
0999DMD310117006 FTS-29/31
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179. Which of the following sugars gives negative 179.
Benedict's test?
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (1) (2)
(3) Sucrose (4) Maltose (3) (4)
180. Sugar found in haemolymph of insects is :- 180.
:-
(1) Maltose (2) Lactose (1) (2)
(3) Trehalose (4) Galactose (3) (4)
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code
and Your Form No.
Correction
Paper code Form No.
dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in
mail
FTS-30/31 0999DMD310117006
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0999DMD310117006 FTS-31/31