Tugas Propulsi 2

Nama : Puja yanda
NIM : 1470550017
Tugas : Remedial Propulsi
PEFORMANCE
Question 1 of 11
1. With an increase in altitude, which of the following statements are correct for a jet
aircraft which has engines with a constant engine speed for a fixed throttle setting?
1. Ambient temperature and pressure reduce, with a resulting drop in thrust.

2. Fuel consumption will increase.
3. Fuel consumption will decrease.
4. Specific fuel comsumption will increase.
5. Specific fuel comsumption will decrease.
6. Specific fuel comsumption stays relatively the same.
7. Ambient temperature and pressure will reduce, resulting in an increase in
thrust.
a) 1, 3, 6.
b) 2, 4, 1.
c) 7, 2, 4.
d) 1, 2, 5.
REF: Gas turbine engineering handbook page 708
2. From a standing start with an increase in forward speed jet thrust will:
a) Increase.
b) Stay the same.
c) Decrease.
d) Decrease then recover but will never achieve its initial setting.
Module 15.2-9
3. In a gas turbine engine:
a) Ram pressure is maximum at the start of the take off run.

b) Ram pressure is unaffected by airspeed.
c) Thrust is unaffected by the aircraft’s forward speed.
d) Thrust is maximum and ram pressure at minimum at the start of the take off run.
Module 15.2-10
4. In a high by pass engine whose fan max rpm is 20000rpm, when turning at 5000rpm will
develop approx.
a) 25% take off thrust.
b) 50% take off thrust.
c) 5% take off thrust.
d) 15% take off thrust.
Module 15.2-11
5. On a colder than standard day, the take off thrust of a ‘part throtlle’ engiene would be
achieved:
a) Later than normal due to pressure in the compressore being low.
b) Later than normal due to the EPR being low.
c) Earlier than normal
d) Later than normal due to the EPR being high.
Module 15.2-11
6. EPR is the:-
a) Ratio between ambient pressure and exhaust pressure.
b) Ratio between ambient pressure and fan pressure
c) Ratio between intake pressure and compressor delivery pressure.
d) Ratio between exhaust pressure and intake pressure.
7. While climbing, a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial flow compressor will experience:
a) increasing S.H.P increase jet thrust increase fuel consumption
b) decreasing S.H.P decrease jet thrust decrease fuel consumption
c) decreasing S.H.P increase jet thrust decrease fuel consumption
d) decreasing S.H.P decrease jet thrust increase fuel consumption
Module 16.1-28
8.Aa temperature _ _ _ _ , air density _ _ _ _ , and the mass of air for a given engine speed _
_ _ _ , therefore thrust _ _ _ _ . To maintain the compressor speed however, _ _ _ _ fuel must
be added or the compressor will _ _ _ _ .
a) decreases decreases increases increases less slow down
b) increases decreases decreases increases more slow down
c) decreases increases increases increases more slow down
d) increases decreases increases decreases less speed up
Module 15.2-13
2. The maximum thrust that a jet engine can develop will be:
a) Take off thrust.
b) Go around thrust.
c) Max climb thrust.
d) Max Static Thrust.
Module 15.2-12
3. A turbojet is cruising at a constant Mach N˚, how does SFC vary with OAT in kelvin?
a) Proportional to Temperature.
b) Unrelated to Temperature.
c) Proportional to 1/Temperature.
d) Proportional to I/Temperature squared.
Module 15.2-9
4. While increasing forward speed, a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial flow
compressor will experience:
a) Increasing S.H.P increase jet thrust
b) Decreasing S.H.P decrease jet thrust
c) Decreasing S.H.P increase jet thrust
d) Increasing S.H.P decrease jet thrust
Module 15.2-10
IGNITION SYSTEM
1. In high energy igniter unit, the choke:
a) Protects the unit from excessive voltages.
b) Prolongs the discharge to the plug.
c) Prolongs the life of the igniter.
d) Protects the unit from excessive current.
REF: FAA-H-8083-32-AMT-Powerplant-Vol-1[1] PAGE 166
2. The power supply for the spark in the combustion chamber is

a) Low volts high current
b) Low volts low current
c) High volts low current
d) High volts high curent
REF : FAA-H-8083-32-AMT-Powerplant-Vol-1[1] 179
3. A gas turbine engine which has both high and low energy ignition systems uses the
high energy system for _ _ _ _ , and the low energy systems for _ _ _ _ :
a) Engine starting high altitude relighting
b) High altitude relighting take off from contaminated runways
c) Take off from snowy runways engine start
d) Take off from flooded runways take off from snowy runways
REF: FAA-H-8083-32-AMT-Powerplant-Vol-1[1] 180
4. A high energy ignition system works on the principle of:

a) Obtaining power from a step up transformer from the aircraft’s A.C. power
system.
b) Magneto static induction.
c) Fleming’s right hand rule.
d) Obtaining energy from the discharge of a capacitor.
REF: FAA-H-8083-32-AMT-Powerplant-Vol-1[1] 184
5. The rate of discharge of a high energy ignition unit is:

a) 60 to 100 times pe minute
b) 4 discharges per evolution.
c) 60 to 100 per second.
d) Governed by the resistance of the igniter plug.
FAA-H-8083-32-AMT-Powerplant-Vol-1[1] 190
6. In a high energy igniter unit, the discharge resistors:

a) Allow sufficient energy to be stored in the capacitor to provide relight
b) Protects the unit from excessive voltages.
c) Allow the capacitor to discharge when the unit is switched off.
d) Prolong the discharge.
7. Precautionary use of igniters may be necessary during:

a) Flight through heavy tropical rainstorm.
b) Ground running.
c) Flight through sandy conditions.
d) Flight through very dry air.
8. The low energy ignition system would be used:

a) Only for starting the engine on the ground.
b) During take off from wet runways.
c) For re-light at high altitude.
d) During a blow out (motoring over) cycle.
9. After engine start, the engine igniters are normally deactived by:
a) An electric interlock system.
b) A speed switch.
c) The time switch.
d) Centrifugal force.
10. A typical APU can provide:

a) Air for air conditioning on the ground.
b) Air for engine starting.
c) Electrical power for ground or in flight use.
d) All of the above.
ENGINE STARTING
1. A Re-light is:
a)action of re-starting a flammed out engine, usually while airborne.
b) What occurs when the engine drain valve is stuck open.

a) The initiation of the after-burning system.
b) What must be prevented after a “wet start”
c) The air supply to operate an air starter usually comes from:
2. The air supply to operate an air starter usually comes from:
a) An external installation.
b) Storage bottles carried in the aircraft.
c) The auxiliarry power unit.
d) A cross bleed start.
FAA-H-8083-32-AMT-Powerplant-Vol-1[1]237
3. In a twin spool engine the typical idle speed are:

a) 60% N2 25% N1
b) 25% N2 60% N1
c) 40% N2 30% N1
d) 80% N2 45% N1
4. Before opening the high-pressure fuel shut of valve during the engine start:
a) The compressor must be turning in the right direction.
b) The low-Pressure compressor must be stationary.
c) The low pressure fuel cock must be shut.
d) The low pressure compressor must be rotating faster than the High-
Pressure compressor
Module 15.13-3
5. The air supply for an air start system is:
a) At a relatively low pressure, but high volume.
b) Filtered to prevent damage to the starter nozzle guide vanes.
c) Preheated to avoid icing in the starter nozzle guide vanes.
d) At a high pressure but low volume.
Module 15.13-8
6. The term “Self Sustaining Speed” means that:
a) The aircraft can roll forward with no further opening of the throttles.
b) The speed from which the engine can accelerate to full power within 5
second.
c) The engine will run indenpently of external help.
d) The speed from which the engine can accelerate to idle without the
helpnof the starter motor.
Module 15.13-8
7. A “Hung Start” occurs when:

a) The engine accelerates but does not light up.
b) The engine stabilises above self sustaning speed.
c) The engine lights up but does not accelerate to self sustaining speed.
d) There is a double iginiter failure.
Module 15.13-9
8. Failure of the engine to light up is shown by:

a) The failure of the engine to turn and no T.G.T.
b) Low R.P.M positive fuel flow indication, and no T.G.T.
c) T.G.T increasing but no R.P.M.
d) No R.P.M and no T.G.T.
Module 15.13-4
9. In a twin spool engine self sustaining speed is normally reached at

approximately:
a) 60% N2
b) 60% N1
c) 30% N2
d) 30% N1
Module 15.13-5
10. If a gas turbine engine fails to light up within the specified time:
a) It must be motored over with the H.P. fuel cock shut.
b) The fuel system must be drained.
c) No further attempt to start may be made until the fuel has evaporated.
d) It must be motored over with the H.P fuel cock shut and no igniters
selected.
Module 15.13-4
11. The advantage of an air starter system, and no fire risk.

a. It is safer in operation than other system, and no fire risk.
b. It is light, simple and economical.
c. It provides a more rapid start.
d. It is totally self contained and needs no external source of power.
Module 15.13-6
12. The starter motor is disenganged from the engine start system:
a) As soon as the engine lights up.
b) Just above self-sustaining speed.
c) At 26% H.P.R.M.
d) Just below self-sustaining speed.
Module 15-13-7
13. A “Hung Start” is indicated by:
a) high E.G.T high fuel flow low R.P.M.
b) low E.G.T idle fuel flow low R.P.M.
c) low E.G.T high fuel flow high R.P.M.
d) high E.G.T idle fuel flow low R.P.M.
Module 15-13-9
EXHAUST SYSTEM
1. A nozzle is said to be “choked” when.
a) The gas flow through it is subsonic.
b) The gas flow through it reaches its sonic value.
c) The gas temperature rises.
d) The gas flow through it is supersonic.
Module 15.7-3
2.The turbine rear support struts:
Add swirl to the gases before they travel down the jet pipe.
a) Prevent the hot gases flowing across the rear face of the rear turbine
bearing.
b) Allow entry of the by-pass air into the exhaust system.
c) Straighten out any residual whirl in the gas stream.
2. The jet pipe is insulated from the airframe by:

a) Heat insulation materials.
b) A cooling air jacket.
c) A combination of cooling air and insulating material.
d) Semi-conducting geodetic structures.
Module 15.7-7
3. The noise from a high ratio by-pass engine.

a) Is created mainly in the exhaust section.
b) Is high in the exhaust section because of the high velocity gas flow.
c) Is predominantly from the fan and the turbine.
d) Is greater than that from a turbo-jet engine of comparable power output.
Module 15.7-8
4. The shape of the volume within the jet pipe casing immediately to the rear of
the turbine:
a. Is convergent to accelerate the gases towards the propelling nozzle.
b. Is divergent to accelerate the gases away from the turbine blades.
c. Is convergent to increase the pressure of the gases in jet pipes.
d. Is divergent to reduce the velocity of the gases leaving the turbine.
Module 15.7-10
5. The exhaust cone:
a) Straightens the gas flow before it goes into the turbine assembly.
b) Prevents the hot gases flowing across the rear turbine face.
c) Increase the velocity of the gases.
d) Decrease the pressure of the gas.
Module 15.7-12
6. The propelling nozzle is designed to:
a) Increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the gas stream.
b) Decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of the gas stream.
c) To increase the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream.
d) To decrease the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream.
Module 15.7-14
7. An exhaust nozzle is said to be choked when the velocity at the throat is:
a) Mach.5.
b) Below Mach 1.
c) At Mach 1.
d) Above Mach 1.
Module 15.7-14
8. A choked nozzle:
a) Decrease thrust.
b) Gives additional pressure without the addition of heat.
c) Has no effect on thrust.
d) Implies that no further increase in velocity can be obtained without an
increase of heat.
Module 15.7-16
9. The exhaust gasses pass to atmoshpere via the propelling nozzle wich:
a) Is a convergent duct, thus is increase the gas velocity.
b) Converts kineticn energy into pressure energy.
c) Is a divergent duct, thus it increase the gas velocity.
d) Is a divergent nozzle, thus it increase the gas pressure.
Module 15.7-17
10. The velocity of the gases in the exhaust unit is held to:
a) 0.5 Mach to minimise turbulance.
b) 0.75 Mach to optimise the pressure distributionn
c) 0.85 Mach to maximise thrust.
d) Mach 1 to maximise acceleration.
Module 15.7-18
SPACE ( THURST AUGMENTATIO)

1. Upon leaving the turbine, the gas stream in an engine fitted with afterburning:
a) Increses velocity immedietely to maximise thrust

b) Is diffused to ensure the afterburning flame s stabilished
c) Goes through a convergent duct to ensure the after burining flame is
stabilished
d) Goes through a divergent duct to maximis thrust
Module 15.15-1
2. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to after-burning?
1. Fuel consumtion increase

2. Fuel consumtion decrease
3. Pressure thrust decrease
4. Thrust increase
5. Pressure thrust increases
6. EGT increases
7. Thrust decreses
a) 1,3,4,6
b) 2,4,5,6
c) 8,1,5,7
d) 6,5,4,1
Module 15.15-6
3. When after burnijg the jet pipe will
a) Close to allow for the decreased volume of gas

b) Open to allow for the increased volume of gas
c) Remain the same
d) Reamin the same until the tempreature reaches 1-700C then open
Module 15.15-7
4. In an aircraft powered with turprop engines which have water methanol injected
into the combustion chambers, which of the following statements would be
correct?
a) SHP can be re-established up to 100% only, when operating in warmer

climates
b) SHP can be increased beyond 100% by maintaining the RPM and increasing
the blade angle.
c) SHP can be increased beyond 100% by increasing RPM and decreasing the
blade angle.
d) SHP can be increased beyond 100% by maintaining RPM and decreasing the
blade angle.
Module 15.15-8
5. When methanol is added to awater injection system :
a) It is an important source of fuel

b) It is an anti-freeze
c) It is an important source of fuel and an anti-freeze
d) The temprature of combustion remains the same.
Module 15.15-12
6. Water methanol injected into an engine so that the combustion chamber inlet
temprature is reduced and there is:
a) A substantial power decrease
b) A subtantial power increase witj no increase in fuel flow
c) A substantial power increase which is due solely to the combustion of
methanol
d) An increase in power output solely due to the incresed ful flow, since
methanol does not burn.
Module 15.15-12
7. The variable nozzle, on an engine fitted with an aferburner opens.
a) When te temprature of the gase in the exhaust reaches 1700C

b) Automatically when afterburning is selected
c) Automatically on take off
d) Automaticaly when approaching Mach 1.
Module 15.15-8
8. In a turbojet engine which of the following statements would be correct if water

was injected into the combustion chamber ?
a) Power can only be restored uo to yhe engine’s flat rated 100% power level, the
engine is prevented fom exceeding its limitations due to a pressure sensor at
the high pressure compressor outlet
b) Power can only be restored up to the engines flat rated 100% power flat, due
to a pressure sensor fitted ayt the outlet of the combustion chamber
c) Power ca only be restored up to engine flat rated 100%, due t a pressure sensor
whichis fitted in the exhaust system.
d) Power can be augmented above 100%, due to the denser mixture impiniging
on the turbine, which consequently drives the compressor more quikly.
Module 15.15-1
SPACE (ENGINE FUEL SYSTEM)

1. Fuel booster pumps are situated in :
a) The fuel tanks

b) In the lie between the main fuel tanks an the engine
c) Low pressure side of the engine
d) High-pressure side of the engine
Module 15.11-5
2. Fuel is heated by-
a) Air conditioning air

b) Air from the compressor
c) Air from the bootstarp
d) Air from the turbine
Module 15.15-5
3. With an increse in the altitude the boiling poin of fuel will
a) Stay the same

b) Increase
c) Decrease
d) Increase up to FL80 then the same
Module 15.11-8
4. Modern jet aircraft fuel tanks are pressurised
a) By air from the engine turbine to prevent cavitation

b) By air from the air conditioning system to prevent cavitation
c) By ram air and compressor air, to prevent cavitation
d) By ram air to stabilise th boiling point.
Module 15.11-9
5. The fuel cooled oil cooler :
a) Heats the oil an cools the fuel

b) Heats the fuel only
c) Cools the oil only
d) Heats the fuel and cools the oil
Module 15.11-10
6. Fuel heaters are fitted
a) In the wing fuel tanks

b) On the fuselage
c) In the engine fuel system maounted on the engine
d) All of the above
Module 15.11-10
7. In a high by pass engine high pressure fuel pumps are driven by:
a) High pressure
b) High pressure compressor
c) Low pressure compressor
d) Intermediate compressor
Module 15.11-11
8. If the booster pumps supplying an engine on an aircraft flying at FL 420 cease

to work :
a) The engine wil shut down immediately

b) The low pressure fuel pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be
a possibly of cavitation due to the low pressure,and the lowered boiling
point of the fuel.
c) The lo pressure fuel pump will draw fuel from the tank, there may be a
possibility of cavitation due to the flow pressure, and the increased boiling
point of the fuel
d) The flow pressure fuel pump will draw fue from the tank, but there may be
a possibility of cavitation deu to the higher pressure and the increased
boiling point of the fuel.
Module 15.11-13
9. An overheat in the turbine will result ini :
a) An electrical signal from the thermocouple being sent directly to the FCU
and fuel flow subsequently being reduced
b) An electrical signal from the thermocouple which is amplified and then
sent to the fuel control unit and fuel flow subsequently throttling back the
engine , therefore reducing the fuel flow
c) The pilot observing the temprature rise on the gauge and subsequently
incresing engine RPM ton increse airflow, which will increase the
amountof cooling air, which decreses the turbine temprature.
Module 15.11-14
10. The high pressure fuel shut off valve closes-
a) After a booster pump failure

b) When the engine fuel switch is selected during engine start
c) When flight idle is selected
d) When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during shut down.
Module 15.11-14
11. The effect of the high pressure compressor outlet pressure exceeding its
maximum value would be :
a) Pressure sensor input is sent to fuel control unti (FCU) reduces fuel, RPM
b) Pressure sensor input is sent to fuel control unit (FCU), FCU increses fuel,
RPM increases
c) Pressure sensor input is sent to fuel control unit (FCU), bleed valve opens
to bleed off excess volume air
d) Pressure sensor input is sent to fuel control unit (FCU), bleed valve closes
to prevent compressor pressure being lost
Module 15.11-16
12. In a fuel cooled oil coolerthe ______ is maintained ____ than the ___
a) Fuel pressure higher oil pressure

b) Oil pressure lower fuel
c) Fuel pressure same oil pressure
d) Oil pressure higher fuel pressure
Module 15.11-18
13. Fuel is heated to :
a) Prevent waxing
b) Ensure vapour losses are minimised
c) Make it more viscous
d) Make it easier to flow under all conditions
Module 15.11-19
14. The devices normally used to stop a gas turbine is
a) The flow pressure fuel shut off valve

b) Selecting the fuel tank booster pumps ‘OFF’
c) The high pressure fuel shut off valve
d) The engine ‘electrics isolation’ switch
Module 15.11-20
15. Which of the folllowing is acorrect statement?
a) When an engine is running, the combustion chamber drain is closed by a

pressure operated NRV
b) When an engine is running, the combustion chamber drain is opened by a
pressure operated
c) When the engine is shut down the drains tank closes to minimise fuel
losses
d) When the engine is shut down, residual fuel is syphoned directly back to
the fuel tanks to minimise fuel losses
Module 15.11-22
16. The fuel flow=meter may be situated
a) Between the flow pressure fuel pump and he FCOC

b) Between the low pressure fuel pump and the fuel heater
c) Before the flow pressure fuel pump
d) Between the high pressure fuel shut off valve and the fuel nozzles
Module 15.11-23
SPACE LUBRICATING
1. Magnetic chip detectors are fitted in the engine
a) To facilities Early detection of cracks in the compressor

b) To facilities early warning of cracks in the turbine blades
c) To provide a warning of warning of impending failure in the engine
bearings
d) To prevent a build uop of starch in the scavenge oil filter
Module 15.10-18
2. An inter-stage air seal is used where
a) Engine sections are operating at different pressure

b) Engine sections are subjected to pressure of the same value
c) It is convenient
d) It is difficult to abtain acces during routine servicing
Module 15.10-18
3. The bearing chambers of a gas turbine engine are vented
a) Via the auxiliary gear box drive

b) Via the centrifugal breather
c) Via the air seals into the gas stream
d) To prevent oil loss
Module 15.10-19
4. In a gas turbine engine, oil pressure is measured:
a) In the engine
b) In the return line
c) After the pressure pump
d) In the fuel cooled oil coller, to ensure oil pressure is always above
fuel pressure.
Module 15.10-21
5. The type off oil used to lubricate gas turbine engines is
a) Mineral, with addtives (compound)

b) Staright mineral
c) Multi-grade 20/50
d) Synthetic
Module 15.10-21
6. Centrifugal breather is used on a gas turbine engine :
a) To circulate teh oil smoothy

b) To minimis oil loss
c) To emulsify the oil and air mixture for greater viscosity
d) To allow axidisation of the oil
Module 15.10-21
7. Select the statement that applies to apressure relief lubricating system :
a) The flow and pressure change with engine speed

b) The pressue relief valve is fitted in series with the pump
c) The pessure remains the same for all engine operating parameters
d) The relief valve opens when pressure has reached the required
pressure, any excess flow is returned by adedicated line to the base of
the engine for scavenging
Module 15.10-19
8. In a Gas Turbine engine oil temprature is measured
a) As it leaves the oil cooler

b) Before entering the engie
c) Immediately after leaving the engine
d) In the engine
Module 15.10-21
9. If engine run down time is short, coupled with high oil consumption, the
most probablecause is :
a) Compressor blade rub

b) Incorret relief valve setting
c) Excessive sealing air pressure
d) Bearing chamber labyrinth seal rubbing??
Module 15.10-19
10. An internal engine overheat warning would necessitate
a) The oil temperature to be closely monitored

b) The EGT to be closely monitored
c) The engine power to be reduced to idle
d) The engine to be shut down
Module 15.10-21
11. Oil seals are pressurised :
a) To ensure oil is forced into the bearings housing

b) To ensure minimum oil loss
c) To ensure that the oil prevented from leaving the bearing housing
d) To minimize heat loss in in the bearing housing
Module 15.10-21
12. If the engine oil pump ceases to function the engine :
a) Will continue to operate at a lower RPM because the engine will be

able to suck the oil from the reservoir an be sufficienty lubricated
b) Should be shutt down
c) Will be unaffected because the scavenge pumps have a larger
operating capacity than the pressure pumps and will ensure the engine
is lubricated sufficienty
d) Shoul be monitored for aperiod of time to record oil temprature
Module 15.10-12
13. In the event that damage occurs to the matrix of the fuel cooled oil cooler
:
a) A pressure-maintaining valve ensures that the oil pressure is always

higher than the fuel pressure
b) The fuel pressure is always higher than the oil pressure to the ensure
that the fuel will leak into the oil system
c) A differential pressure switch will illuminate a light in the cockpit
d) The oil by-pass valve will prevent a complete loss of oil pressure
Module 15.10-14
14. The magnetic chip detectors are fitted in
a) The pressure line between the pressure pump and the engine
b) Suction line between the reservoir and the pressure pump
c) Return line between he engine and he scavenge pump
d) Return line after the FCOC
Module 15.10-18
15. Gas turbine have :
a) Wet sump oil system and use minera oil

b) Dry sump oil system and use synthetic
c) Wet sump oil system and use sysnthetic oil
d) Dry sump oil system and use mineral oil
Module 15.10-20
16. The main bearings in an axial flow gas turbine engine are normally
pressurised by :
a) Compressor by-pass air

b) Air intake pressure
c) Air fom an intermediate stage of the compressor
d) Gas from the second stage turbine section
Module 15.10-21
SPACE (APU)
1. In the event of the APU of amodern jet transport aircaraft catching fire on
the ground, the APU :
a) Will need to be shut down immediately

b) Will shut down immediately
c) Will shut down immediately and if the fire persists the fire bottles will
automically be fired
d) Will ned to be shut down immediately and the fire bottles will be fired
immeddiately
Module 15.18-19
2. The power to start an APU comes from :

a) Ground power inut
b) Aircraft main DC battery
c) Aircraft main engine generator
d) Aircraft main AC battery
Module 15.18-34
Engine Instrument.
1. A vibration meter input is:

a) Only proportional to engine RPM.
b) Inversely proportional to engine RPM.
c) Filtered to remove unwanted frequencies.
d) Couple directly to the meter.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-24
2. A volumetric fuel flow meter is different to a mass flow meter because the mass flow
meter compensates for:
a) Dieletric.
b) Pressure.
c) Volume.
d) Density
MODULE 15 B1, 14-18
3. Cylinder head temperatur measurement works on the principle of:

a) Differential expansion.
b) Wheatstone bridge.
c) A rationer.
d) A thermocouple.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-13

4. If one probe of a multi-sensor EGT system bacame disconnected, the reading would:
a) Increase by between 200°C to 300°C.
b) Decrease by between 200°C to 300°C.
c) Fall to zero
d) Be largely unaffected.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-17
5. Take off EPR:

a) Must be set before V1
b) Must be set before 60 knots.
c) Is available when reverse thrust is selected.
d) Must be set before brake release.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-7
6. In transport aircraft, the temperatures are generally measured with :

1) Resistance thermometers.
2) Termocouple thermometers.
3) Reactance thermomemeters.
4) Capasitance thermometers.
5) Mercury thermomoters.
The correct combination of these statements is:
a) 1,3,4,5
b) 2,3
c) 1,2
d) 1,2,5
MODULE 15 B1, 14-13
7. Use of reverse thrust below the recommended speed may cause:

a) Over stressing of the gear oleos.
b) Ingestion of the exhaust gases and foreign objects.
c) More fuel to be provided to the burners.
d) The T.G.T. limit to be exceeded, inn which case thr reverse thrust lever will
return to the forward thurst position.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-13
8. Once the blocker doors are fully deployed, with an increase in RPM, which of the
following statements would be incorect?
a) Forward thrust from the hot gases would increase.
b) Forward thrust from the hot gases would decrease.
c) Reverse thrust from the blocked air would increase.
d) TGT will increase.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-3
9. EPR is the ratio of:

a) Turbine pressure to comustion chamber inlet pressure.
b) High pressure compressor inlet pressure to exhaust pressure.
c) Low pressure compressor inlet pressure to high pressure compressor outlet
pressure.
d) Exhaust pressure to low pressure compressor inlet pressure.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-7
10. The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by capacitor type contents gauges. The
working pripciple of these sensors is to measure the:
a) Height of the fuel.
b) Volume of the fuel.
c) Charge of condensers.
d) Di-electric resistivity of the fuel.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-6
11. The total air temperature (TAT) is always:

a) Lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.
b) Higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.
c) Lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air
Speed (CAS).
d) Higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air
Speed (CAS).
12. EPR is the ratio:

a) The compressor outlet pressure to the compressore inlet pressure
b) Jet pipe pressure to compressor inleet pressure inlet pressure on a turbo-prop
engine only.
c) Jet pipe pressure to the compressor inlet pressure on a gas turbine engine.
d) Jet pipe pressure to the compressor outlet pressure on a gas turbine engine.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-7
13. An aircraft uses clamshell doors for thrust reversal to:

a) Direct the gas flow rearwards.
b) Block the flow of exhaust gas.
c) Absorb any change in thrust.
d) Change the direction of the exhaust.
14. The “Bourdon tube” is used to measure:

a) Temperature.
b) Pressure.
c) A flow rate.
d) Quantity.
15. A warning message on the EICAS system screen would be:

a) Displayed in amber on the lower screen with associated caution lights and
aural tones.
b) Displayed in amber, normally on the upper screen with aural warnings.
c) Displayed in red, normally on the upper screen, and requiring immediate
corrective action.
d) Displayed in amber, normally on the upper screen, indented one space to the
right.
16. The electronic display system that has three automatic modes plus one manual is the :
a) Electronic management and control section.
b) Electronic indication and fail safe system.
c) Electronic indication and crew alert system.
d) Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system.
17. The electronic engine display system will comprise :

a) One primari and one secondary display unit for an EICAS and a chane over
selector to change to the ECAM mode if necessary.
b) Two display units for ECAM and three display units for EICAS.
c) Either an EICAS system or an ECAM system but not both.
d) An emergency interconnect to the EFIS symbol generators.
18. If a fuel tank with a capacitive contents gauging system is empty of fuel, but has a
quantity of water in it:
a) The gauge will read full scale high.
b) The gauge will show the mass of the water.
c) The gauge will show empty.
d) The needle will freeze.
19. An engine electronic system which in normal conditions of flight shows only the
primary engine instruments is:
a) An EICAS system with EPR, EGT and N2 shown on the primary instrument.
b) An EICAM system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the
lower screen.
c) An EICAS system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the
primary screen, the secondary screen remaining blank unless secondary
information has beeen selected to be displayed.
d) An ECAM system with the primary engine instrument displayed on the
primary screen, the left screen being blank.
20. The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc
within the arc normally used (green arc). In the RPM range corresponding to this
small re arc the :
a) Propeller generartes vibration, continous running at this rating is forbidden.
b) Rating is the maximum possible in continous mode.
c) Propeller efficiency is minimum at this rating.
d) Rating is the minimum usable in cruise.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-3
21. In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature gauge utilizes a :
a) Thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.
b) Ratiometer circuit.
c) Wheatstone bridge circuit.
d) Bourdon tube.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-13
22. The engine indicating and crew alerting system alert massages are shown on the upper
display unit in three forms :
a) Level ‘C’ are that require immediate corrective action.
b) Level ‘A’ are cautions that require immediate crew awareness and possible
action.
c) Level ‘B’ are advisories requiring crew awareness.
d) And these messages appear on the top left of the upper display.
23. Vibration levels are indicated on the flight deck by gauge calibrated in:
a) Engine torque.
b) Relative amplitude.
c) Decibels.
d) Phons.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-24
24. A massages which is ‘boxed’, on an electronic engine display system is one that:
a) Affects other sub-system and is used in the engine indicating and crew alerting
system.
b) Does not effect any other system.
c) Does not affect any other system and is used i the engine indicating and
aircraft monitor system.
d) Affects other sub-system and is used in the electonic centralised aircraft
monitor type of system.
25. In an aircraft with an electronic centralised Aircraft Monitoring system:

a) The display units have two control panels and with any system failure the
control will be from the port control box only.
b) The left display unit shows warnings and corrective actions in a check list
format.
c) The two display units are only fitted side by side.
d) The left display unit shows the synoptic format and the right or lower unit
shows the corrective format.
26. With a compensatated capasitance fuel gauging system, if the volume of an indicated
8,000lb of fuel increases by 5%, the indication will:
a) Decrease by 5%.
b) Increase by 5%.
c) Remain the same.
d) Increase by 5% for every degree rise temperature.
27. With a lower display unit failure on the engine indicating and crew alerting system:
a) A compact message will only appear on the upper display unit.
b) A compact message will only appear on the central dispaly unit.
c) A compact message will appear both on the upper display unit and the
captains electronic flight instrument system.
d) A compact message will appear on the upper display unit when the status is
pressed onn the control panel.
28. Which of the following types of pressure gauge would be best suited to a high
pressure input ?
a) Aneroid capsule.
b) Bourdoun tube.
c) Bellows.
d) Dynamic probe.
29. An aircaraft eguipped with digital avionics includes an ECAM system. This
centralised system, if a failure in one of the monitored system is displayed, the crew
must:
a) Cancel the warning.
b) Analyse initially the failure and only respond to a level 1 warning.
c) Reset the warning display after noting the failure on the left screen.
d) Apply the immediate actions as directed by the checklist on the left of the two
screens.
30. The electrical tacho generator system uses:

a) Three phase a.c. whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine
delivered to a three phase synchronous motor (squirrel cage) and drag cup.
b) Single phase a.c. whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine
delivered to a single phase synchronud=s motor and drag cup.
c) A tacho probe and phonic wheel measuring speed and sending information to
a squirrel cage motor and drag cup.
d) Single phase d.c whose frequency varies with speed of the engine converted to
a square wave pulse delivered to a servo driven instrument.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-3
31. The disadvantages of a float type fuel contents gauging system are:
1) Simple design.
2) Subject to attitude error.
3) Subject to accelaration errors.
4) Subject to temperature errors.
5) Requires an alternating current supply.
a) 1,2,3.
b) 2,3,4.
c) 2,3,4,5.
d) 1,2,3,4.
32. Before reverse thrust can be selected, the forwrd thrust lever must be:
a) Pulled back to idle power.
b) Positioned to reverser minimum power.
c) Put back to the reverser deploy position.
d) Positioned to reverse maximum power.
33. The electronic centralised aircraft monitor (ECAM) type of system shows:
a) A checklist format ion the left display panel and schematic format which is
always shown automatically on the right display unit.
b) A checklist format on the left display unit, and right, or lower dispaly
unit,whichever is fifted, a diagrammatic or synoptic format.
c) A synoptic format on the left display unit and a warning and corrective action
display on the right or lower display unit, whichever is fitted.
d) A continous primary engine parameters display o the primary display unit.
34. A capacitive type gauging system may measure mass due to:
a) The fuel dielectric constant being equal to that of air and proportional to
density.
b) The fuel dielectric constant equal to that of air and proportional to density.
c) The fuel dilectric constant being twice that of air and proportional to density.
d) The fuel dielectric constant being twice that of air and proportional to
1/density.
35. The principle of the fuel-monitoring device giving an indication of the total fuel burnt
is:
a) Multiplying flight time by fuel consumption.
b) Capacitance variation of a capacitor.
c) Difference of indication according to departure value.
d) Intergration of instantaneous flow.
36. The electronic engine display system which has three automatic modes is:
a) The electronic centralised aircraft monitor, it also has a fourth mode which is
manually selected.
b) The electronic centralised aircraft monitor, with the fourth mode flight phase
related or manually selected.
c) The engine indicating and crew alerting system, with the fourth mode
manually selected.
d) The engine indicating and crew alerting system, with the fourt mode a manual
cross over from the electronic centralised aircraft monitor system.
37. A big fan engine gets reverse thrust by:

a) Revering the directon of rotation of rotation of the compressor.
b) Deflecting the exhaust gases.
c) Blocking the by-pass air.
d) Reversing the hot stream gases.
38. A reverse thrust warning light illumanates:
a) Only when the reverser doors are fully deployed in the reverse thrust position.
b) When the reverser doors are stowed in the forward thrust position.
c) When the reverser doors doors are not stowed in the forward thrust position.
d) Whenever reverse thrust is selected.
39. The red arc in the middle of the green band of a piston engine RPM indicator
signifies:
a) Maximum RPM.
b) Minimum RPM.
c) RPM at which a greater level of vibration is encountered.
d) RPM that must never be exceeded in the cruise.
40. During the take-off run, the effect of increasing airspeed is to cause the EPR
indication to:
a) Remain constant.
b) Decrease.
c) Increase
d) Increase and subsequently.
41. The display modes for the engine indicating and crew alerting system are:
a) Operational, status, and maintenance of which status and maintenance are
automatic.
b) Flight phase related, advisory and failure related.
c) Operational, status , maintenance.
d) Operational, flight phase related and status.
42. An engine fire indication on an electronic engine display system is shown:

a) On the primary display panel is red.
b) On the secondary display panel in amber.
c) On both the electronic flight intrument system and engune indicating and crew
alerting system secondary panels.
d) Only on the flight management computer primary panel.
MODULE 15 B1, 20-8
43. The indication of fuel float gauge varies with:

1) Aircraft altitude
2) Accelarations
3) Atmospheric
4) Temperature
The correct combination of these statements is:
a) 1,2,3,4.
b) 1,2,4.
c) 1,2.
d) 4.
44. An aircraft has a compensated capacitance fuel contents gauging system and is
refeulled so that the total contents are 76000kg at a temperature of 18 degrees C and
an S.G. of 0.81. whilst the aircraft is parked the temperature increases to 26 degrees C
and the S.G. becomes 0.80. the indicated fuel contents have:
a) Increased by 10%.
b) Remained the same.
c) Increased by 5%.
d) Decreased by 5%.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-19
45. When it is coupled to a temperature gauge, a thermocouple requires:
a) Battery power.
b) 115v alternating current.
c) 28v direct current.
d) No power.
MODULE 15 B1, 14-14
46. A vibration indicator receuves a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It
indicates the:
a) Vibration amplitude at a given frequency.
b) Vibration frequency expressed in Hz.
c) Vibration period expressed in second.
d) Acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in ‘G’.
47. If both displays of an engine indicating and crew alerting system fail, then the
following information is displayed onn the standby engine in dicator:
a) N1, EGT, N2.
b) N1, EGT, EPR.
c) N2, EGT EPR.
d) N4, EGT, EPR.
48. If an aircraft has an engine indicating and crew alerting system:

a) The secondary display will continuosly show the engine primary instrument.
b) The primary display unit will continuosly show the engine primary instrument
such as N1,N2,N3, and may show oil pressure.
c) The primary engine display can continuosly show the engine primary
instrument such as N1,EGT, and EPR.
d) The primary engine instrument are N1, EGT , and EPR and are shown on the
primary and secondary display units.
49. The upper display unir for an EICAS system shows electronic display of:
a) Engine primary and secondary information, level 1,2 and 3 alerts and auto-
throttle engaged mode.
b) Memo and checklist informatio, caution and warning messages and immediate
action checklist.
c) Engine primary information, level 1,2 and 3 alerts and thrust mode limit
annunciation.
d) Engine primary information, level 1,2 and 3 alerts snd pre flight checklist
AIR INTAKES
1. The purpose of an air inlet is to provide a relatively_______________ supply
of air to the ______________of the compressor.
A. Turbulence free front face low pressure
B. Turbulent front face low pressure
C. Turbulence free rear face low pressure
D. Turbulence free front face high pressure
Answer : (A) Turbulence free front face low pressure

Referensi : module 15.3 hal.3-1
2. In a pitot intake the term “Ram Pressure Recovery” refers to the time when :
A. EPR has attained the take off setting
B. The HP Compressor has reached its maximum
C. The EPR has recovered to its optimum figure
D. Intake pressure has been re-established to ambient pressure
Answer : (D) Intake pressure has been re-established to ambient

pressure
Referensi : module 15.3 hal. 3-2
3. It would be classed as prudent, when carrying out Engine Ground Runs, to :

A. Only Carry out engine runs with a tail wind
B. Fit debris guards when ground running
C. Only do grounds runs on tarmac
D. Only do ground runs on concrete
Answer : (B) Fit debris guards when ground running

4. A pitot intakes forms a _____ duct _______ the fan to ensure that the airflow
_______ to _______ and achieves a _______
A. Convergent before speeds up subsonic pressure
rise
B. Divergent after slow down subsonic pressure
rise
C. Divergent before speeds up sonic pressure
drop
D. Divergent before slow down sonic pressure
rise
Answer : (D) Divergent before slow down sonic

pressure rise
5. The purpose of the supersonic diffuser in the variable throat intake is to give :
A. A final reduction in the velocity of the air prior to the compressor face
B. An interim reduction in the velocity of the air to below Mach 1 prior to a
further reduction in the subsonic diffuser
C. An interim reduction in the velocity of the air to below Mach .5 prior to a
further reduction in the subsonic diffuser
D. An increase in the velocity of the air prior to the compressor face
E. Answer : (A) A final reduction in the velocity of the air prior to the
compressor face
6. With an ‘S’ type intake, if the pilot selects max RPM while standing still, there
is a strong possibility that :
A. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades,
will become too small, which will cause the engine to stall and surge
B. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades,
will become too small, which will cause the engine to stall and surge then
stall
C. The angle which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades,
will become too large, which will cause the engine to stall and surge
D. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades,
will become too large, which will cause the engine to surge then stall
Answer : (C) The angle which the relative airflow forms with the
compressor blades, will become too large, which will cause the engine
to stall and surge
7. Secondary air inlets doors are utilised :

A. When an aircraft is in the cruise
B. When the aircraft is near its maximum IAS
C. When the rpm of the engines is low while stationary
D. When the rpm of the engine is high when stationary
Answer : (D) When the rpm of the engine is high when stationary
Referensi :
8. In high by-pass engine with a ‘pitot’ intake, with the engine running and the
brakes on, P1 be in relation to P0 what will?
A. Same
B. Greater
C. Less
D. 14,7 psi
Answer : (C) Less
Combustion Chamber
1. The combustion chamber drain valve is closed :
A. By combustion chamber gas pressure
B. By a return spring
C. By 12th stage compressor air stage
D. During a blow out cycle
Answer : (A) By combustion chamber gas pressure

2. The ratio of air to kerosene to give the greatest heat release during combustion is :
A. 45 : 1
B. 130: 1
C. 12.5 : 1
D. 15 : 1
Answer : (D) 15 : 1
3. One advantage of an annular combustion chamber system is that :

A. The diameter of the engine is reduced
B. There is unrestricted airflow at maximum rpm
C. There are no flame propagation problems
D. The air casing area is greater
Answer : (C) There are no flame propagation problems

Referensi : module 15.5 hal 5-6
4. A re-light envelope :
A. Shows the flame stability limits
B. Shows airspeed and altitude limitations for an in-flight restart
C. Shows fuel / air mixture limitations for an in-flight restart
D. Contains the in flight re-start igniter plugs
Answer : (B) Shows airspeed and altitude limitations for an in-flight restart
5. Of the total airflow entering the combustion chamber , the percentage that is mixed
with the fuel and burnt is :
A. 10%
B. 40%
C. 20%
D. 60%
Answer : (C) 20%

6. it is necessary to have a combustion drain system :

A. To prevent pressure build up in the combustion chamber
B. To allow moisture content in the fuel to drain away
C. To allow any unburnt fuel to drain after shut down or a wet start
D. To prevent the igniters becoming wetted by excess fuel
Answer : (C) To allow any unburnt fuel to drain after shut down or a wet
start
7. The purpose of the tertiary airflow created in the combustion chamber is to :

A. Reduce the gas temperature and cool the flame tube
B. Form a toroidal vortex, which anchors and stabilises the flame
C. Reduce the gas temperature and cool the burner head
D. Ensure complete combustion of the fuel
Answer : (A) Reduce the gas temperature and cool the flame tube
Referensi : module 15.5 hal 5-10
8. A cannular combustion system is :

A. A set of flame tubes, each of which is mounted in a separate air casing
B. A set of flame tubes enclosed in a common air casing
C. One common flame tube enclosed in a common air casing
D. Superior to the annular system because it only requires one igniter
Answer : (B) A set of flame tubes enclosed in a common air casing

9. The air entering the combustion chamber is divided; a small percentage is used in
combustion, the rest :
A. Is syphoned off for airframe anti-icing purposes
B. Is used only for cooling the gasses before they exit the combustion chamber
C. Is used to reduced the oil temperature and cool the turbine blades
D. Is used to cool both the gases exiting the chamber and the walls of the air casing
Answer : (D) Is used to cool both the gases exiting the chamber and the walls
of the air casing
10. Swirl vanes in the combustion chamber :

A. Increase the velocity of the airflow
B. Reduce the velocity of the airflow
C. Prevent compressor stall
D. Help to stabilize combustion
Amswer : (B) Reduce the velocity of the airflow

Reverse Thrust
1. Use of reverse thrust below the recommended speed may cause:
A. Over stressing of the gear oleos
B. Ingestion of the exhaust gases and foreign objects
C. More fuel to be provided to the burners
D. The TGT limit to br exceeded, in which case the reverse thrust lever will return to
the forward thrust position
Answer : (B) Ingestion of the exhaust gases and foreign objects

Referensi : modul 15.7 hal.7-17
2. A reverse thrust warning light illuminates :

A. Only when the reverser doors are fully deployed in the reverse thrust position
B. When the reverser doors are stowed in the forward thrust position
C. When the reverser doors are not stowed in the forward thrust position
D. Whenever reverse thrust is selected
Answer : (C) When the reverser doors are not stowed in the forward thrust
position
3. Before reverse thrust can be selected, the forward thrust lever must be :
A. Pulled back to idle power
B. Positioned to reverse minimum power
C. Put back to the reverser deploy position
D. Postioned to reverse maximum power
Answer : (A) Pulled back to idle power

4. An aircraft uses clamshell door for thrust reversal to :

A. Direct the gas flow rearwards
B. Block the flow of exhaust gas
C. Absorb any change in thrust
D. Change the direction of the exhaust gas
Answer : (D) Change the direction of the exhaust gas

5. Once the blocker doors are fully deployed, with an increase in RPM, which of the
following statements would be incorrect ?
A. Forward thrust from the hot gases would increases
B. Forward thrust from the hot gases would decreases
C. Reverse thrust from the blocked air would increases
D. TGT will increase
Answer : (B) Forward thrust from the hot gases would decreases
6. A big fan engines gets reverse thrust by :

A. Reversing the direction of rotation of the compressor
B. Deflecting the exhaust gases
C. Blocking the by-pass air
D. Reversing the hot stream gases
Answer : (C) Blocking the by-pass air

Bleed Air
1. the effect of selecting a bleed air anti-icing system while maintaining thrust will:
A. Decrease fuel consumption
B. Decrease specific fuel consumption
C. Increase specific fuel consumption
D. Specific fuel consumption will remains the same
Answer : (C) Increase specific fuel consumption

Referensi : Module 15.3-4
2. An inter-stage air sealis used where :

A. Engine sections are operating at different pressures
B. Engine sections are subjected to pressure of the same value
C. It is more convenient
D. It is difficult to obtain accessduring routine servicing
Answer : (A) Engine sections are operating at different pressures

3. Bleed air for engine anti-icing is provided by

A. The blade valves
B. The turbine stages
C. The compressor
D. The combustion chambers
Answer : (C) The compressor

4. The efficiency of a bearing chamber oil seal depends on its mechanical design and :
A. The fuel pressure
B. Compressor bleed air pressure
C. The engine compression ratio
D. The engine oil pressure
Answer : (B) Compressor bleed air pressure

5. An internal engine overheat warning would neccesisate :

A. The oil temperature to be closely monitored
B. The EGT to be closely monitored
C. The egine power to be reduced to idle
D. The engine to be shut down
Answer : (D) The engine to be shut down

6. Turbine blades are cooled by:

A. HP compressor air internally ducted through the blades
B. HP air tapped from the combustion chamber
C. Air ducted from just before the intake guide vanes
D. Intermediate pressure air taken from the bleed valves
Answer : (A) HP compressor air intesrnally ducted through the blades

7. The air obtained from the engine for air conditioning is essentially :
A. High Pressure low volume
B. High Pressure high volume
C. Low Pressure low volume
D. Low Pressure high volume
Answer: (D) Low Pressure high volume

8. To remove ice from the airframe and the engines intakes, modern jet aircraft normally
utilise :
A. Hot air
B. Rubber boots
C. Electrical thermal blankets
D. FPD freezing point depressant fluid
Answer : (A) Hot air

9. The effect of the selecting bleed air anti-icing system will cause :
A. EGT to decrease
B. EGT to increase
C. EGT to remain the same
D. The ratio between exhaust pressure and intake pressure to increase
Answer : (B) EGT to increase


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Nama : Puja yanda

1. Ambient temperature and pressure reduce, with a resulting drop in thrust.

a) Ram pressure is maximum at the start of the take off run.

2. The power supply for the spark in the combustion chamber is

4. A high energy ignition system works on the principle of:

5. The rate of discharge of a high energy ignition unit is:

6. In a high energy igniter unit, the discharge resistors:

7. Precautionary use of igniters may be necessary during:

8. The low energy ignition system would be used:

10. A typical APU can provide:

a)action of re-starting a flammed out engine, usually while airborne.

b) What occurs when the engine drain valve is stuck open.

3. In a twin spool engine the typical idle speed are:

7. A “Hung Start” occurs when:

8. Failure of the engine to light up is shown by:

9. In a twin spool engine self sustaining speed is normally reached at

11. The advantage of an air starter system, and no fire risk.

2.The turbine rear support struts:

2. The jet pipe is insulated from the airframe by:

3. The noise from a high ratio by-pass engine.

SPACE ( THURST AUGMENTATIO)

a) Increses velocity immedietely to maximise thrust

1. Fuel consumtion increase

3. When after burnijg the jet pipe will

a) Close to allow for the decreased volume of gas

a) SHP can be re-established up to 100% only, when operating in warmer

5. When methanol is added to awater injection system :

a) It is an important source of fuel

7. The variable nozzle, on an engine fitted with an aferburner opens.

a) When te temprature of the gase in the exhaust reaches 1700C

8. In a turbojet engine which of the following statements would be correct if water

SPACE (ENGINE FUEL SYSTEM)

a) The fuel tanks

2. Fuel is heated by-

a) Air conditioning air

3. With an increse in the altitude the boiling poin of fuel will

a) Stay the same

4. Modern jet aircraft fuel tanks are pressurised

a) By air from the engine turbine to prevent cavitation

5. The fuel cooled oil cooler :

a) Heats the oil an cools the fuel

6. Fuel heaters are fitted

a) In the wing fuel tanks

8. If the booster pumps supplying an engine on an aircraft flying at FL 420 cease

a) The engine wil shut down immediately

9. An overheat in the turbine will result ini :

10. The high pressure fuel shut off valve closes-

a) After a booster pump failure

a) Fuel pressure higher oil pressure

14. The devices normally used to stop a gas turbine is

a) The flow pressure fuel shut off valve

15. Which of the folllowing is acorrect statement?

a) When an engine is running, the combustion chamber drain is closed by a

16. The fuel flow=meter may be situated

a) Between the flow pressure fuel pump and he FCOC

1. Magnetic chip detectors are fitted in the engine

a) To facilities Early detection of cracks in the compressor

2. An inter-stage air seal is used where

a) Engine sections are operating at different pressure

3. The bearing chambers of a gas turbine engine are vented

a) Via the auxiliary gear box drive

4. In a gas turbine engine, oil pressure is measured:

5. The type off oil used to lubricate gas turbine engines is

a) Mineral, with addtives (compound)

6. Centrifugal breather is used on a gas turbine engine :

a) To circulate teh oil smoothy