1) Which of the following statements regarding hypothesis testing are correct?

A) The null hypothesis, H0’ represents a theory that has been put forward either
because it is believed to be true or because it is to be used as a basis for
argument, but has not been proved.
B) The final conclusion once the test has been carried out is “reject H0 in favor
of H1” or ‘do not reject H0’.
C) Rejecting null hypothesis then suggests that the alternative hypothesis may
be true.
D) ‘do not reject H0’ necessarily means that null hypothesis is true.
E) The final conclusion once test has been carried out is ‘rejectH1’ or ‘accept H1’.

2) Which of the following statements regarding to cross-sectional studies are

correct?

A) These are primarily used to determine prevalence.

B) Prevalence equals number of new cases in a population a given point in time.
C) All the measurements on each person are made at two points in time.
D) Only one group is used.
E) Data are collected only once & multiple outcomes can be studied.

3) Which of the following statements regarding exclusion criteria are correct?

A) A high probability of not fully participating in the study cannot be used as

exclusion criteria.
B) Ethical considerations cannot be used as exclusion criteria.
C) Exclusion criteria are applied to subjects who generally meet the
inclusion criteria but must be excluded because they possess unique
characteristics that may confound the results.
D) Exclusion criteria are applied to subjects who generally meet inclusion
criteria but must be excluded because they cannot complete the study
E) a high probability of not providing data that are not valid cannot be used as
exclusion criteria.

4) Which of the following statements regarding meta analysis are correct?

A) Meta analysis refers to analysis of analysis.

B) meta analysis is the statistical analysis of a large collection of analysis
results from individual studies for the purpose of integrating the findings.
 C) a good meta analysis of badly designed studies will still result in good
statistics.
D) Meta analysis connotes a rigorous alternative to the casual narrative
discussions of research studies which typify our attempts to make
sense of the rapidly expanding research literature.
E) A weakness of the method is that sources of bias are not controlled by
the method.

5) Which of the following statements regarding study validity are correct?

A)Random selection and random allocation are keys to avoid selection

bias.
B)The best defense against unknown confounders is using large samples.
C)The best way to avoid bias is to ensure your sample data is adequate.
. D) Analysis bias can be reduced by maximizing follow up and carrying
out an intension to treat analysis.
E)Confounding involves error in the interpretation of what may be an
accurate measurement

6) Which of the following statements regarding estimation and confidence

intervals are correct?
A) A confidence interval gives an estimated range of values which is likely
to include an unknown population parameter.
B) An estimator is any quantity calculated from the sample data which is
used to give information about an unknown quantity in the population.
C) A very narrow interval may indicate that more data should be collected
very definite can be said about the parameter.
D) Confidence interval are more informative that simple results of
hypothesis tests.
E) The estimated range of a confidence interval is calculated from a given
set of sample data.

7) Bibliographic documentation consists in scientific literature research

which:
a) Has a first step consisting in consulting large international data bases such
as Index Medica, Pascal,Excerpta, Medica.
B) Includes consulting ‘secondary literature’ ie, reference works such as
dictionaries, encyclopedia, and guides.
C) Has a second step consisting in consulting ‘secondary literature’.
D) Must include both historic and contemporary articles.
8) Which of the following statements regarding diagnostic studies are correct?
A) FN (false negative): number of subjects who test negative with disease.
B) TN (true negative): number of subjects who test negative and who are
healthy.
C) A good diagnostic test will maximize the number of false negative and
false positive results.
D) TP (true positive): number of subjects who test positive and who have
disease.
E) FP (false positive): number of subjects who test positive and who are
healthy.

9) Which of the following statements regarding randomized controlled trials are

correct?
A)randomized controlled trial is the ideal study design in that when
properly conducted all potential sources of bias are eliminated for
comparison of interest.
B) The weakness of randomized controlled trial resides in the use of a
concurrent controlled group that is followed and managed exactly in the same
way as experimental group.
C) Randomization has no use in ensuring balance between experimental and
control group.
D) Randomization is used to maintain lack of knowledge of the patient,
the assessor or the physician of which group the subject belongs to.??
E) To avoid bias is enough to use patient blinding to administered treatment.

10. Which of the following statements regarding the Discussion section of a scientific
article is correct?
A) the fundamental question to answer in the Discussion section include,’Do your
new findings agree with what other have shown?’
B) The function of Discussion section is to interpret your results in light of what was
already known about the subjects of the investigation.
C) The fundamental question to answer in the Discussion section include, ‘Do your
results provide answers to your testable hypotheses?’
D) Wrong answer.
E) Function of Discussion section is to explain our new understanding of the
problem after taking your results into consideration.
11.
12.

13. Which of the following statements regarding probability value of a statistical

hypothesis test are correct?

A) the smaller p value is, the more convincing is the rejection of null
hypothesis
B) Smaller p value, indication of the strength of evidence for say,
rejecting null hypothesis H0.
C) Small p value suggests that null hypothesis is unlikely to be true.
D) P value is probability of getting a value of test statistic as extreme or
more extreme than that observed by chance alone, if null hypothesis
H0 is true.
E) P value is probability of wrongly rejecting null hypothesis if it is in fact
true.

14) Which of the following statements regarding sampling are correct?

A) In the non probability sampling, the sampling technique is not random.
B) With non probability sampling, it is unlikely that the population selected
will have correct proportions because all members of population do not have
an equal chance of being selected.
C) In the convenience sampling, subjects are selected because of their
convenient accessibility to the researcher.
D) With non-probability sampling any statement generalizing the results
beyond the actual sample tested must be stated with qualification.
E) Cluster sampling is a non probability sampling.

15) Which of the following statements regarding randomized controlled trials (RCT)
are correct?
A) Blinding means that all patients allocated to each arm of treatment regimen are
analyzed together as representing that treatment arm whether or not they received or
completed the prescribed regimen.
B) The higher NNT (Number Needed to Treat), the more effective the new therapy is.
C) Randomization ensures that the base line characteristics of test and control
groups are more or less similar in order to provide a valid basis for comparison.
D) Intension-to-treat principle means that neither the person nor the physician responsible
for treatment is informed of treatment assigned.
E) The aim of blinding is to ensure that outcome ascertainment is done without any
bias
Answers: c………not sure about ‘e’

16) –
17)-

18) Which of the following statements regarding hypothesis testing are correct?
A) In a hypothesis test, a type II error occurs when null hypothesis H0 is not
rejected, when it is in fact false.
B) In a hypothesis test, a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected,
when in fact it is true.
C) Type I error is often considered to be more serious and therefore more important
to avoid that a type II error.
D) a type II error is frequently due to sample sizes being too small.
E) in a hypothesis test, a type I error occurs when the alternative hypothesis is rejected
when in fact it is true.

Answers: a, b, c, d

19) Which of the following statements regarding types of study design are correct?
A) The term experimental study is used for analytical study which entails an
intervention.
B) Examples of observational study are cohort, case control and cross sectional.
C) Studies where the primary objective is to evaluate the relationship between a cause
and an effect, an exposure (risk factor or a protective factor) and a disease are called
descriptive studies.
D) The term observational study is used for analytical study which investigates
natural course of events.
E) Studies which seek to delineate the magnitude of the problem in different segments of
population ,say, in terms of prevalence and incidence , are called analytical studies.

Answers: a, b, d

20) which of the following method are relevant in explore association between
variables?
A) For categorical variables – Chi-square test.
B) For interval variables normally distributed - Chi-square test
C) For categorical variable - Pearson correlation
D) For ordinal variable – Spearman rank correlation
E) For interval variable normally distributed – Pearson’s correlation.

Answers: a,d,e

21) Which of the statement regarding the method in method and material section of
the scientific article are correct..
A) the method section should establish the content of the work being reported
B) The method section should provide the protocol for collecting data
C) the method section should explain how data were analyzed
D) the method section should provide the description of study site
E) the method section should explain the subject used in the study
Answer b, c, d, e

22) Which of the following statement regarding to the introduction of scientific

article are correct?
A) The function of the introduction is to show how much do we know on the subject
B) The function of the introduction is to briefly explain your rationale and
approach
C) The function of the introduction is to state the purpose of the work in the form
of hypothesis, question or problem u investigated
D) The function of the introduction is to establish the context of the work being
reported
E) The function of the introduction is to briefly explain the possible outcomes your
study reveals

Answer b,c,d, page- 91

23) Which of the following statements regarding study validity are correct?
A) Bias can be a threat to validity.
B) Confounding can be a threat to validity.
C) Chance can be a threat to validity.
D) Bias is caused by random variation.
E) Selective bias maybe due to inaccurate measurement of outcomes.
Answer a, b, c.

24) Which of the following statements regarding pie diagram are correct?
A) Pie is circular diagram divided into segment
B) Pie diagram are the best way to describing quantitative data.
C) The comparability in groups of unequal size is not very well achieved in pie
diagrams.
D) The categories should preferably be on nominal or ordinal scale.
E) Each segment representing frequency in a category.
Answer a, b, d, e page-80

25) Which of the following regarding survival analysis are correct?

A) Survival time of treatment for the population with certain disease is measured
from the time to treatment initiation until initiation of death
B) Survival curves plot percent survival as a function of time
C) If a subject survived to a certain time but have no useful information about what
happened after that we can say that the information about these patient is censored.
D) The time of interest may be time to something ‘good’ happening.
E) On the survival curve each patient’s death is clearly visible as an upward jump in the
curve.
Answer a, b,c,d page 64

26) Which of the following statements regarding the title of the scientific articles are
correct..
A) The title should be long
B) The title should be artistic that poorly associated with the content of the paper
C) The title should not contain the key word describing the work presented
D) The title does not describe the content of the paper
E) The title should be unambiguous

Answer: e.

27. Which of the following regarding the diagnosis study are correct?
A) The positive predictive value of a test is the probability that the patient has the
disease when restricted to those patients with test positive.
B) The negative predictive value of a test is the probability that the patient will not
have the disease when restricted to all the patients who are test negative.
C) A large sensitivity means that a negative test can rule in the disease.
D) The specificity of a test is the probability that the test will be negative among
patients who do not have the disease.
E) the sensitivity of a test is the probability that the test is positive when given to a
group of patients with disease.

Answer: a,b,d,e. Page 55 & 57.

28. Which of the following statements regarding sampling are correct?

A) in stratified sampling subgroups of interest can be defined and equal numbers of
subjects sampled for each group.
B) Disproportional sampling is a method that facilitates the difficulty encountered
with stratified samples of unequal size.
C) Cluster sampling can be accomplished using only an array of random numbers and
nothing else.
D) Systematic random sampling by which subjects are grouped according to strata such
as age, gender or diagnosis.
E) Stratified sampling could be carried out by selecting first subject randomly and then
selecting every second or third who comes to the office and meets the inclusion
/exclusion criteria.

Answers: a, b.
29. Which of the following statements regarding presenting data in graphical format
are correct?
A) A histogram is drawn by joining mid points of the bars in the polygon including those
with zero frequency at the two ends.
B) In a histogram the bars are drawn for each interval of values such that the area is
proportional to the frequency in that group.
C) Visual display is considered a powerful medium of communication.
D) A polygon is drawn by joining mid points of the bars in the histogram including
those with zero frequency at the two ends.
E) The impression received from figures seems to be more vivid and lasts longer
than the impression from numeric data.
Answers: b,c,d,e page 77.

30) Which of the following statements regarding case control studies are correct?
A) Case control studies are usually prospective.
B) Where outcome is rare, case control studies are not a feasible approach.
C) Case control studies cannot be used to calculate relative risks.
D) Case control studies cannot be used to calculate odds ratios.
E) case control studies determine the relative importance of a predictor in relation
to presence or absence of the disease.

Answers: c,e

31) Which of the following statements regarding variables are correct?

A) A quantitative variable is naturally measured as a number for which meaningful
arithmetic makes sense
B) Categorical variables have no numerical meaning.
C) An ordinal variable is a special type of categorical variable for which levels can
be naturally ordered.
D) An ordinal variable is a special type of quantitative variable for which levels can be
naturally ordered.
E) The survival variable is time to a certain event.

Answers: a,b,c,e

32) Which of the following statements regarding diagnosis studies are correct?

A) In general, when the prevalence of the disease you are testing is rare, it becomes
harder to positively diagnose that disease.
B) The pre-test odds is the likelihood that the patient would have a specific disease after
testing.
C) The likelihood ratio for a negative result (LR-) tells you how much the odds of
the disease decrease when a test is negative.
D) The likelihood ratio for a positive result (LR+) tells you how much the odds of
the disease increase when a test is positive.
E) Prevalence play a large role in determining how effective a diagnostic test is.

Answer: b, c, d, e

33) Which of the following statements regarding abstract of a scientific article are
correct?
A) The abstract contains the question(s) you investigate (or purpose)
B) Abstract contains the major findings.
C) Abstract contains the method used.
D) The abstract length usually should be about 3000 words.
E) The abstract contains a brief summary of your interpretation and conclusion.

Answer: a,b,c,e

34) Some of the components of a research protocol are:

a) Study methodology
B) Literature review
C) Ethical considerations.
D) Introduction and Background
E) Results of the study

Answers: a,b,c,d

35) Which of the following tests is appropriate for comparing two survival curves?

A) Log rank test

B) Student t-test for independent samples
C) Fisher test
D) Student t-test for paired samples
E) Chi-square test.

Answers: a
36) Which of the following can be found in most journal-style scientific papers?

A) Introduction
B) Results
C) Discussion
D) Methods
E) Abstract

Answers: a, b,c,d,

37) Which of the following statements regarding case reports are correct?

A) Are very reliable sources of unbiased scientific results.

B) Their findings must be further investigated by formal observational or
experimental studies.
C) Are isolated reports of rare or unexpected conditions occurring among a
small number of patients or subjects.
D) Make it possible to estimate the incidence with which the event is occurring.
E) Form an important first warning system that there may be dangers or
unexpected events associated with use of a drug or compound.

Answers: b,c,e

38) Which of the following statements regarding scientific format are correct?

A) Scientific format is thought to be very complex so few scientists can understand it.
B) News papers are written in scientific format.
C) Scientific format has an identical structure to novels.
D) Scientific format has a rigid structure which is different from writing in the
humanities.
E) Scientific format is a mean of efficiently communicating scientific findings to
a broad community of scientists in a uniform manner.

Answers: d,e

39) Which of the following statements regarding cohort studies are correct?

A) a disadvantage of cohort studies is that a single study can examine only one
outcome variable.
B) In retrospective cohort studies over a period of time the people in the sample are
observed whether they develop the outcome of interest.
C) The studies may be only retrospective
D) Prospective cohort studies use data already collected for other purposes.
 E) These are the best method for determining the incidence and natural history
of a condition.

Answers: e

40) Which of the following statements regarding the Results section of a scientific
article are correct?

A) The function of the Results section is to present your key results in an illogical order.
B) Past tense should be used in this section.
C) Important negative results should be reported.
D) The function of the Results section is to objectively present the key results.
E) The function of the Results section is to objectively present the interpretation of the
key results.

Answers: c, b, d,

50) Data collection for clinical research is done:

a. Randomly
b. According to the access to data
c. According to the established objectives
d. According to the available time period
e. According to the financial and human resources

51) A clinical trial with parallel groups:

a. The evaluation will be done as the result from each pair of subjects are received
b. Requires the administration of a short-term therapy followed by an intermediary
wash out period between the two treatments in order for any residual effects
c. Patients are assigned by radom drawing in two (or several) groups, each group
being administereda single therapeutic scheme along the whole research
d. Allows the simplest statistical processing method
e. Has the advantage that by intra-individual comparison, the power of the applied
test increases
52) In a study, it was observed that from total of 115 pipe smokers 90 developed lung
cancer and in a group of 85 non-smokers 50 people developd the same disease. If the
critical value of the chi-square parameter is 3.84 which of the following sentences is true?
a) There is a link between smoking and lung cancer since the chi-square calculated
parameter is lower than the theoretical one
b) There is no link between smoking and lung cancer since the chi-square calculated
parameter is lower than the theoretical one
c) We don’t have necessary data to answer
d) There is no link between smoking and lung cancer since the chi-square calculated
parameter is lower than the theoretical one
e) There is a link between smoking and lung cancer since the chi-square calculated
parameter is greater than the theoretical one

53) According to the time limit, data collection may be:

a) longitudinal, meaning it allows the study of a group of subjects at a given time
b) transversal, allowing the study at a given time for a group of subjects
c) prospective, starting in the present time and going on for a certain amount of time
d) transversal, meaining it allows repeated data collection at established time intervalls
for a certain group of subjects
e) retrospective, from medical files

Cross-sectional studies/transversal or prevalent studies: data collected at a given moment!

54) In a study, the computed value of a correlation coefficient between weight and height
of some patient was r=0.87, with an associated test of significance p=0.045, how do you
interpret the obtained result?
A) between the two variables there is a relationship of inverse proportionality
B) there is not a good correlation between the two variables since r is close to 1
C) between the two variables there is a relationship of direct proportionality
D) there is a good correlation between the two variables since r is close to 1
E) there was an error in the study

55) Quantitative variables may be:

a) indiscrete
b) continous
c) nominal
d) discrete
e) dichotomial
56) In an evaluation study of a diagnostic test on a representative sample, among the 70
ill patients 52 have been detected by the new test and among the 130 healthy patients 82
were correctly classified as unaffected by the new test. The PPV and NPV are:
a) 0.52; 0.58
b) 0.1; 0.8
c) cannot be computed
d) 0.52; 0.82
e) 0.2; 0.8

57) A cross over clinical trial

a) random drawing decides the order of treatment administration
b) assigns to each patient under study both therapeutic schemes under comparison
c) each subject is its own control
d) is the simplest method to perform a clinical trial
e) requires a time stable pathology

58) Combined analysis of data from mutliple studies in order to produce a unique
estimation is known as:
a) interferential statistic
b) systematic review
c) power of a study
d) effect size
e) meta-analysis

59) The following constitute medical tests that can be published in a specialized journal:
a) summary of a doctorate
b) original article
c) summary of licence thesis
d) didactic article
e) clinical cases or clinical observation

60) According to the vancourver system of citations, references are inserted in the text:
a) between citations marks
b) only at the end of the sentence of phrase
c) immediately after the referred statement
d) only at the end of the paragraph that debates the referred statement
e) just before the referred statement
61) The chapter material and methods of a scientific paper must:
a) stimulate the interest of the reader
b) be reproducible
c) be concise
d) present in the history of the presented subject
e) be complete and explicit

62) Statistical analysis methodology in a therapeutic study includes:

a) assessment of confusion factor as alternative explanations for the recorded results
b) uses the principle: the subjects lost from follow up are omitted from the analysis
c) usses the principle: no subject included in a study group is omitted from the analysis
d) assess the role of chance
e) assseissing the systematic errros

63) The case- control data collection type:

a) it is found in a pure prospective study
b) the disease is the controlled factor and the exposure is the random factor
c) the principal criterion for inclusion and exclusion criteria in one group or another is the
exposure to a risk factor
d) data collection is performed when the disease is already known
e) the collection is ideal for the study of rare diseases

64) In a study evaluating a diagnostic test using a case control data collection type, of the
70 patients with disease 52 were correctly detected by the new test, and from 130 healthy
subjects 82 werde correctly classified as unaffected. Compute Sensitivity and Specifitiy
a) 0.74; 0.63
b) 0.74; 0.53
c) 0.64; 0.63
d) 0.4;0.3
e) cannot be computed

65) Pie charts are used to:

a) Represent simultanously the absolute and relative frequency of qualitativ
variables
b) Represent the relative frequency of qualitative variables
c) Represent the relative frequency of continous quantitative variables
d) Represent the absolute frequency of continous quantitative variables
e) Represent the absolute frequency of continous qualitative variables
66) A study was carried out to compare the level of alpha-glucuronidase in two groups of
subjects, some treated with a new enzyme replacement and others treated with placebo.
the variances of the two groups was computed with Bartet test that gave the probability of
0,015. the T-test probability was 0,054. What is the correct pair: test name interpretation?

a) Student test for pairs, there were statistical significant differences between the groups
b) student test for equality of variances, there were statistically differences between
groups
c) student test for unequal variances, no statistical significant difference between the
groups
d) student test for equality variances, no statistical significant difference between the
groups
e) student test for unequal variances, there were statistical significant difference between
the groups