JECRC UNIVERSITY, JAIPUR

B.TECH III SEMESTER (END Semester examination-2017)

Mechanical Engineering

Subject Name: PS-III Subject Code: - BHS003A

Total Marks: 100 Duration: 3hours

Q. 1 The Grubler’s criterion for determining the degrees of freedom (n) of a mechanism having
plane motion is
(a) n = (l – 1) – j (b) n = 2 (l – 1) – 2j (c) n = 3 (l – 1) – 2j (d) n = 4 (l – 1) – 3j
where l = Number of links, and j = Number of binary joints.
Q.2 Which of the following is an inversion of double slider crank chain ?
(a) Coupling rod of a locomotive (b) Pendulum pump
(c) Elliptical trammels (d) Oscillating cylinder engine
Q.3 In a 4 – bar linkage, if the lengths of shortest, longest and the other two links are denoted by
s, l, p and q, then it would result in Grashof’s linkage provided that
(a) l + p < s + q (b) l + s < p + q (c) l + p = s + q (d) none of these
Q.4 In a reciprocating steam engine, which of the following forms a kinematic link ?
(a) cylinder and piston (b) piston rod and connecting rod
(c) crank shaft and flywheel (d) flywheel and engine frame
Q.5 A ball and a socket joint forms a
(a) turning pair (b) rolling pair (c) sliding pair (d) spherical pair
Q.6 . A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relative motion between the
links is completely constrained, is called a
(a) structure (b) mechanism (c) kinematic chain (d) inversion
Q.7 When a slider moves on a fixed link having curved surface, their instantaneous centre lies
(a) on their point of contact (b) at the centre of curvature
(c) at the centre of circle (d) at the pin joint
Q.8 In a mechanism, the fixed instantaneous centres are those centres which
(a) remain in the same place for all configurations of the mechanism
(b) vary with the configuration of the mechanism
(c) moves as the mechanism moves, but joints are of permanent nature
(d) none of the above
Q.9 The direction of linear velocity of any point on a link with respect to another point on the
same link is
(a) parallel to the link joining the points (b) perpendicular to the link joining the points
(c) at 45° to the link joining the points (d) none of these
Q.10 The component of the acceleration, parallel to the velocity of the particle, at the given
instant is
called
(a) radial component (b) tangential component (c) coriolis component (d) none of these
Q.11. Mitre gears are used for
(a) great speed reduction (b) equal speed (c) minimum axial thrust (d) minimum backlash

Q.12. The condition of correct gearing is

(a) pitch line velocities of teeth be same
(b) radius of curvature of two profiles be same
(c) common normal to the pitch surface cuts the line of centres at a fixed point
(d) none of the above
Q.13 Law of gearing is satisfied if
(a) two surfaces slide smoothly
(b) common normal at the point of contact passes through the pitch point on the line joining the
centres of rotation
(c) number of teeth = P.C.D. / module
(d) addendum is greater than dedendum
Q.14 Involute profile is preferred to cyloidal because
(a) the profile is easy to cut
(b) only one curve is required to cut
(c) the rack has straight line profile and hence can be cut accurately
(d) none of the above
Q.15 The type of gears used to connect two non-parallel non-intersecting shafts are
(a) spur gears (b) helical gears (c) spiral gears (d) none of these
Q.16 The train value of a gear train is
(a) equal to velocity ratio of a gear train (b) reciprocal of velocity ratio of a gear train
(c) always greater than unity (d) always less than unity
Q.17 In a clock mechanism, the gear train used to connect minute hand to hour hand, is
(a) epicyclic gear train (b) reverted gear train
(c) compound gear train (d) simple gear train
Q.18 The velocity ratio of two pulleys connected by an open belt or crossed belt is
(a) directly proportional to their diameters
(b) inversely proportional to their diameters
(c) directly proportional to the square of their diameters
(d) inversely proportional to the square of their diameters
Q.19 The centrifugal tension in belts
(a) increases power transmitted
(b) decreases power transmitted
(c) have no effect on the power transmitted
(d) increases power transmitted upto a certain speed and then decreases
Q.20 The size of a cam depends upon
(a) base circle (b) pitch circle (c) prime circle (d) pitch curve
21. In solidification of metal during casting ,compensation during soild contraction is
(a) Provided by the oversize pattern
(b) Achieved by properly places risers
(c) Obtained by promoting directions solidifications
(d) Made by providing chills
22. In which of the following are metal moulds used?
(a) Green sand mould (b) Dry sand mould (c) Die casting process (d) Loam
moulding
23 .Plastic bottles are made using
(a) Blow moulding b. Injection moulding c. Perform moulding d. Slush casting
24. Directional solidification in casting can be improved by using
(a) Chills and chaplets (b) Chills and padding
(c) Chaplets and padding (d) Chills, Chaplets and padding
25. An expendable pattern is used in
(a) Slush casting (b) squeeze casting c. centrifugal casting (d) investment casting
26. Which one of the following is the correct statement in a centrifugal method?
(a) no core is used (b) core may be made of any metal
(c) core is made of sand (d) core is made ferrous metal
27. Draft on pattern for casting is
(a) shrinkage allowance (b) taper to facilitate its removal from mould
(c) increase in size of cavity due to shaking of pattern
(d) for machining allowance
28. Freezing ratio or relative freezing time according to Caine`s equation is
Ac AR Vc Vc
⁄V ⁄V ⁄A ⁄A
R R R R
(a) AR (b) AC (c) VR (d) VC
⁄V ⁄V ⁄A ⁄A
C C R C
29. Investment casting is used for
(a) shapes which are made by difficulty using complex patterns in sand casting .
(b) mass production
(c) shapes which are very complex and intricate and can`t be cast by any other method
(d) there is nothing like investment casting
30 Cold shuts are casting defects
(a)Which occur due to some sand shearing from the cope surfaces
(b) which take the from of internal voids or surface depression due to excessive gaseous material
not able to escape
(c) which occur due to discontinuity in metal casting resulting from hindered contraction
(d) caused by two streams of metals that are too cold to fuse properly
31In Rolling process roil separating force can be decreased by
(a) Reducing roll diameter
(b) Increasing roll diameter
(c) Providing back up rolls
(d) Increasing the fraction between rolls and metal
32 Which of the following assumptions are correct for rolling
1. The material is plastic
2. The arc of contact is circular with radius greater than radius of roll
3. Coefficient of friction is constant over the arc of contact and acts in one direction
throughout the arc of contact
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and3
(d) 1,2and 3
33.In one setting of roll in a 3 high rolling mil one gets
(a) one reduction in thickness
(b) two reductions in thickness
(c) three reductions in thickness
(d) two or three reductions in thickness in thickness depending upon setting
34. In a rolling operation the maximum draft is given by (r = radius of coil ,µ is coefficient of
friction)
(a) µR (b) µ√R (c) μ2 R2 (d) μ2 R
35 The process of removing the burs or flash from a forged component in drop forging
component in drop forging is called
(a) Swaging b. Perforating c.Trimming d. Fetting
36Extrusion force does not depend upon the
(a) Extrusion ratio
(b) Type of extrusion process
(c) Material of the die
(d) Working temperature
37 what does hydrostatic pressure in extrusion process improve
(a) Ductility
(b) Type of extrusion process
(c) Brittleness
(d) Tensile strength
38 which of the following materials cant be forged
(a) Wrought iron b. Cast iron c.Mild steel d. High carbon steel
39 The increase in hardness due to cold working is called
(a) Cold hardening b. Hot hardening c.Work hardening d.Age –hardening
40 Spinning operation is carried out on
(a) hydraulic press b. mechanical press c. lathe d. milling machine
41.Assigning the basic dimensions to mass, length, time and temperature respectively as M, L, T
and θ (Temperature), what are the dimensions of entropy?
(a) M LT-2 θ (b) M L2 T-1 θ-1(c) M L2 T-2θ-1(d) M L3T-2 θ -1
42. The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed by the gas is
(a) positive (b) negative (c) positive or negative (d) none
43. The main cause for the irreversibility is
(a) mechanical and fluid friction (b) unrestricted expansion
(c) heat transfer with a finite temperature difference (d) all of the above.
44. An isentropic process is always
(a) irreversible and adiabatic (b) reversible and isothermal
(c) frictionless and irreversible (d) reversible and adiabatic
45.Which of the following is not a property of the system ?
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Specific volume (d) Heat
46.Which of the following is the correct statement ?
(a) All the reversible engines have the same efficiency
(b) All the reversible and irreversible engines have the same efficiency
(c) Irreversible engines have maximum efficiency
(d) All engines are designed as reversible in order to obtain maximum efficiency
47. In isothermal process
(a) temperature increases gradually (b) volume remains constant
(c) pressure remains constant (d) change in internal energy is zero.
48. For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is
(a) zero(b) negative (c) positive (d) infinite.
4 9. An engine working on Carnot cycle rejects 40% of absorbed heat from the source, while the
sink temperature is maintained at 27°C, then what is the source temperature?
(a) 750°C (b) 477°C (c) 203°C (d) 67.5°C
50. A heat engine is supplied with 250 kJ/s of heat at a constant fixed temperature of 227°C; the
heat is rejected at 27°C, the cycle is reversible, then what amount ofheat is rejected?
(a) 250 kJ/s (b) 200 kJ/s (c) 180 kJ/s (d) 150 kJ/s
51. The correct sequence of the decreasing order of the value of characteristic gas constants of the
given gases is:
(a) Hydrogen, nitrogen, air,carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon dioxide, hydrogen, nitrogen, air
(c) Air, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, hydrogen
(d) Nitrogen, air, hydrogen, carbon dioxide
52. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to the heat transferred, if the
reversible process takes place at
(a) Temperature (b) Internal energy (c) Pressure (d) Entropy
53. An ideal gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume becomes three
times What would be then the temperature of gas?
(a) 81° C (b) 627° C (c) 543° C (d) 327° C
54. Which one of the following thermodynamic processes approximates the steaming of
food in a Pressure cooker?
(a) Isenthalpic (b) Isobaric (c) Isochoric (d) Isothermal
55. A positive value to Joule-Thomson coefficient of a fluid means
(a) Temperature drops during throttling
(b) Temperature remains constant during throttling
(c) Temperature rises during throttling
(d) None of these
56. Consider the following thermodynamic relations:
1. Tds= du +pdv 2. Tds=du – pdv3. Tds=dh+vdp 4. Tds=dh -vdp
Which of these thermodynamic relations are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
57.Availability function for a closed system is expressed as:
(a) φ = u + pov−ToS(b) φ = du + po dv −To ds
(c) φ= du + podv+To ds (d) φ = u + pov+ToS
58. For a reversible power cycle, the operating temperature limits are 800 K and 300 K. It
takes 400 kJ ofheat. The unavailable work will be:
(a) 250 kJ (b) 150 kJ (c) 120 kJ (d) 100 kJ
59. A system executes a cycle during which there are four heat transfers: Q12= 220 kJ,
Q23 = -25kJ, Q34 = -180 kJ, Q41 = 50 kJ. The work during three of the processes is
W12 = 15kJ, W23 = -10 kJ, W34 = 60kJ. The work during the process 4 -1 is:
(a) - 230 kJ (b) 0 kJ (c) 230 kJ (d) 130 kJ
60. If a heat engine gives an output of 3 kW when the input is 10,000 J/s, then the thermal
efficiency ofthe engine will be:
(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 70% (d) 76.7%
61. Cast iron is an alloy of iron and carbon with
(a) more than 2 % carbon (b) less than 2 % carbon
(c) less than 0.8 % carbon (d) more than 6.67 % carbon
62. The degree of freedom at triple point in unary diagram for water is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
63. Not a Hume-Ruthery condition:
(a) Crystal structure of each element of solid solution must be the same.
(b) Size of atoms of each two elements must not differ by more than 15%.
(c) Elements should form compounds with each other.
(d) Elements should have the same valence.
64. Weight % of carbon in mild steels
(a) <0.008 (b) 0.008-0.3 (c) 03-0.8 (d) 0.8-2.11
65. Eutectoid product in Fe-C system is called
(a) Pearlite (b) Bainite (c) Ledeburite (d) Spheroidite
66. Engineering stress-strain curve and True stress-strain curve are equal up to
(a) Proportional limit (b) Elastic limit (c) Yeild point (d) Tensile strength point
67. Toughness of a material is equal to area under ____________ part of the stress-strain curve.
(a) Elastic (b) Plastic (c) Both (d) None
68. Family of crystallographic planes is represented by
(a) (h k l) (b) < u v w > (c) {h k l} (d) [u v w]
69. Which one of the following is not a strong bond?
(a) van der Waals bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Metallic bond (d) Ionic bond
70. Repeatable entity of a crystal structure is known as
(a) Crystal (b) Lattice (c) Unit cell (d) Miller indices
71. Composites are made to achieve
(a) High strength (b) Low ductility (c) Combination of Properties (d) None
72. Crystal structures can be determined by
(a) X-ray diffraction (b) Optical microscope (c) Both (d) None of these

73. Which one among the following is a polymorphic material

(a) Al (b) Na (c) Cl (d) Fe
74. Frankel and Schottky imperfections are
(a) Dislocations in ionic crystals.
(b) Grain boundaries in covalent crystals.
(c) Vacancies in ionic crystals.
(d) Vacancies in covalent crystals.
75. Coarse grain sizes are obtained by
(a) Slow cooling (b) Increasing nucleation rate (c) Decreasing growth rate (d) Fast cooling
76. Coordination number in simple cubic crystal structure
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
77. Slow and permanent plastic deformation of metals under a constant load is known as
(a) Fatigue (b) Malleability (c) Creep (d) All
78. Internal resisting force developed inside the material when subjected to externally
applied load, is known as
(a) Stress (b) Strain (c) Strength (d) Pressure
79. Which property is highly required in sheet metal forming operation
 (a) Strength (b) Ductility (c) Toughness (d) Malleability
80. Miller indices of the diagonal plane of a cube are
(a) (200) (b) (111) (c) (010) (d) (110)
81-A beam is a structural member which is subjected to
a. Axial tension or compression
b. Transverse loads and couples
c. Twisting moment
d. No load, but its axis should be horizontal and x-section rectangular or circular
82. In a simple supported beam having length = l and subjected to a concentrated load (W) at
mid-point.
a. Maximum Bending moment = Wl/4 at the mid-point
b. Maximum Bending moment = Wl/4 at the end
c. Maximum Bending moment = Wl/8 at the mid-point
d. Maximum Bending moment = Wl/8 at the end
83. Point of contra-flexure is a
a. Point where Shear force is maximum
b. Point where Bending moment is maximum
c. Point where Bending moment is zero
d. Point where Bending moment=0 but also changes sign from positive to negative
84 The slope of shear force line at any section of the beam is also called
a. Bending moment at that section
b. Rate of loading at that section
c. Maximum Shear force
d. Maximum bending moment

85. In cantilever beam, slope and deflection at free end is _____

a. zero b. maximum c. minimum d. none of the above
86 Which of the following statements is/are true for a simply supported beam?
a. Deflection at supports in a simply supported beam is maximum
b. Deflection is maximum at a point where slope is zero
c. Slope is minimum at supports in a simply supported beam
d. All of the above
87. The design of a beam is based on strength criteria, if the beam is sufficiently strong to resist
__
a. shear force b. deflection c. both a. and b. d.none of the above
88. Macaulay's method is used to determine ______
a. deflection b. strength c.toughness d. all of the above
89.Poisson’s ratio is
(a) Linear strain/longitude strain b. Linear strain/ lateral strain c. Lateral strain/linear strain d.
None
90. The value of Poisson’s ratio for any material is always
(a) < 1 b. > 1 c. = 1 d. None
91. If a force acts on a body, it sets up some resistance to deformation. This resistance is known
a) stress b) strain c) elasticity d) modulus of elasticity
92. The term ‘Young’s Modulus’ is used
 a) only for young persons b) only for old persons
c) young and old persons d) none of these.
93. A composite section, contains 4 different materials. The stresses in all different material will
a) zero b) equal c) different d) in the ratio of their areas.
94. Thermal stress is caused, when the temperature of a body
a) is increased b) is decreased c) remains constant d) either a or b
95. If the ends of a body yield, the magnitude of thermal stress will
a) increase b) decrease c) remain the same d) none of these
2
96. 1 MPa is ------------- N/mm
97. Calculate the strain of a bar of length L m extends by l mm under load W.
98. Temperature stress developed in bar depends upon which of the following?
a) co-efficient of linear expansion b) change of temperature
c) Young’s Modulus d) All of the above
99. The unit of stress in S.I. unit is
a) MN/m2 b) kN/mm2c) N/mm2d) All of the above
100. Robert Hooke discovered experimentally that within elastic limit
a) σ = ε b) σ/ ε = constantc) σ × ε =1 d) None of the above

ANSWER PS-III

1 C 51 A
2 C 52 C
3 B 53 B
4 C 54 C
5 D 55 A
6 C 56 B
7 B 57 A
8 A 58 B
9 B 59 B
10 B 60 B
11 B 61 A
12 C 62 B
13 B 63 C
14 B 64 B
15 C 65 A
16 B 66 C
17 B 67 C
18 B 68 C
19 C 69 A
20 A 70 C
21 A 71 C
22 C 72 A
23 A 73 D
24 D 74 C
25 D 75 A
26 A 76 A
27 B 77 C
28 D 78 A
29 C 79 D
30 D 80 B
31 A 81 B
32 B 82 A
33 B 83 C
34 D 84 B
35 C 85 B
36 C 86 B
37 A 87 A
38 B 88 A
39 C 89 C
40 C 90 A
41 C 91 B
42 A 92 D
43 D 93 D
44 D 94 D
45 D 95
46 A 96 1
47 D 97
48 A 98 D
49 B 99 D
50 D 100 B