GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This test has 40 questions and has to be attempted in 60 minutes.

2. There are 3 marks for every correct answer and –1 mark for every incorrect answer.

3. Try to attempt all the questions and do not indulge in wild guessing.

4. Mark your answers in the score-sheet provided to you by darkening the appropriate circles.

ALL THE BEST !!!

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 SCORE SHEET
Name Date

PIN Centre

Directions: 1] Mark your answers by darkening the appropriate oval with an HB pencil.
2] Erase clearly any answer you want to change.
3] Make no stray mark anywhere on the score sheet.
4] The correct way of shading the ovals is

SECTION I SECTION II

1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4

1 11 21 31

2 12 22 32

3 13 23 33

4 14 24 34

5 15 25 35

6 16 26 36

7 17 27 37

"
8 18 28 38

9 19 29 39

10 20 30 40

EVALUATION SHEET

Correct Incorrect Score

Section Area Questions Attempted
(A) (A) 3(A) – 1(W)
Quantitative Aptitude &
I 1-20
Data Interpretation
Verbal Ability &
II 21-40
Logical Reasoning

Overall
 Section I
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions independently of each other.

1. A, B and C can finish a project in 9, 12 and 15 days respectively. They decide to take turns
and complete the work with A alone working on Monday, B alone on Tuesday, followed by
C alone on Wednesday and so on. What fraction of the work is done by C?

2 4 1 16
1] 2] 3] 4]
9 15 3 45

2. If x 2, y2 and z 2 are in AP and x ¹ y ¹ z, then y + z, z + x, x + y are in ______.

1] AP 2] GP 3] HP 4] None of these

3. A

D O B

In the figure, O is the centre of one of the circles and Ð COA = 120 o and AB = AC.
If BC = 3 cm, then find AC.

3 3 5
1] cm 2] cm 3] 3 cm 4] 2 2 cm
2 2

4. A man is into a business where his profits at the end of the year are 20% of the capital invested.
He adds back 40% of the profits to the capital. If he starts his fourth year with a capital
of Rs.629856, what was his initial capital?
1] Rs.583200 2] Rs.590000 3] Rs.500000 4] Rs.462963

1
5. If f(x) = and f(f(x)) = f2(x), then find value of f(f(f(x))) + f5(x) + f10(x), when x = 1.
2x

3
1] 3 2] 3] 2 4] 4
2

3 IMS-36-ST-03
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 and 7: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

India is amongst the key exporter country of services. Following graph, indicate the total export
and export from service sector from India over a period of 2001-2009. It also gives an idea of
economic conditions around the globe.

60 350
Services Exports of India

50 300

Total Exports of India

250
(in USD bn)

40

(in USD bn)

200
30
150
20
` 100
10 50
0 0
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Years
Service Exports Total Exports

6. What was the average annual growth rate from exports of services for India from 2000-2003?
1] 37.5% 2] 75% 3] 50% 4] 25%

7. What is the average annual total exports of India from 2006 to 2009?
1] 262.5 bn USD 2] 242.5 bn USD
3] 252.5 bn USD 4] 272.5 bn USD

DIRECTIONS for questions 8 to 11: Answer the questions independently of each other.

8. A and B start walking simultaneously towards each other. When A covers 5 km in 3 hours,
1
he finds B at a distance that is rd the initial distance between them. When A covers that
3
1
rd distance, B reaches A’s starting point. Find B’s speed.
3
1] 2.88 kmph 2] 4 kmph 3] 1 kmph 4] 3.6 kmph

4 IMS-36-ST-03
 2
9. 2 sin q – (1 + 2 ) sin q + 1 = 0, what is the value of q ?

p p p p p p p
1] or 2] or 3] or 4] or p
2 3 4 3 4 2 2

10. A five-digit number is formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3 and 5 and repetition is allowed. What
is the probability that the number formed is divisible by 5?

2 4 25
1] 2] 3] 4 4]
5 53 25 4 ´ (5! ) 3

11. What is the remainder when (2196)2196 is divided by 13?

1] 0 2] 1 3] 12 4] 5

DIRECTIONS for question 12: The question below is followed by two statements.
Mark [1], if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but not by the
other.
Mark [2], if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark [3], if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but not by either
statement alone.
Mark [4], if the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.

12. Is – q(1 + p) + p 2 a negative number, if p and q are real numbers?

I. p2q3 < 0.
II. pq is negative.

DIRECTIONS for questions 13 and 14: Answer the questions independently of each other.

log x log y log z

13. If = = (x ¹ y ¹ z), then the value of xyz is:
y - z z - x x - y

1] –1 2] 1 3] 0 4] 2

14. Four types of tea costing Rs.83 per kg, Rs.88 per kg, Rs.92 per kg and Rs.97 per kg are
blended together to make a 20 kg new blend in which there are 10 kg, 3 kg, 5 kg and 2
kg of the respective types of tea. What will be the price per kg of the new tea to the nearest
rupee?
1] Rs.84 2] Rs.87 3] Rs.97 4] Rs.93

5 IMS-36-ST-03
DIRECTIONS for questions 15 and 16: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
The table provides the percentage of total revenues accounted for by the top 2 firms, top 4 firms
and the top 10 firms in various industries. However, one of the data points in one of the industries
is incorrect which is then corrected by adding or subtracting 4 percentage points from the incorrect data.

Top 2 Firms Top 4 Firms Top 10 Firms

Industry
(% of total industry) (% of total industry) (% of total industry)
Steel 60 75 100
Oil & Gas 50 80 100
Shipping 40 50 75
Leather 4 6 10
Textiles 8 18 30
Chemicals 3 5 7
Elevators 100 100 100
Refrigerators 25 40 60
15. Which is the incorrect data point and what is the correct data?
1] Top 4 firms for Oil & Gas, 76% 2] Top 4 firms for Leather, 5%
3] Top 4 firms for Textiles, 14% 4] Top 4 firms for Refrigerators, 36%

16. How many industries definitely have at least 20 firms in all?

1] 4 2] 3 3] 5 4] 6

DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions independently of each other.
17. If 3x + 2p = 7b and 5x + 6p = 13b, then which of the following is true?
1] 2x 4 + 7b 4 = 523p 4 2] 2x 4 + 7b 4 = 222p 4
3] 2x 4 + 7b 4 = 712p 4 4] 2x 4 + 7b 4 = 624p 4

18. The parallel sides of a trapezium are 3 and 9 units. The non-parallel sides are 4 and 6 units.
A line parallel to the base divides the trapezium into two trapezia of equal perimeters. The
ratio in which each of the non-parallel sides is divided is:
1] 4 : 3 2] 3 : 2 3] 4 : 1 4] 3 : 1

19. A school has 63 students. 33 study Physics, 25 Chemistry and 26 Biology. 10 study Physics
and Chemistry, 9 Biology and Chemistry, while 8 study both Physics and Biology. An equal
number of students study all three subjects as those who study none of the three.
How many students study all the three subjects?
1] 2 2] 5 3] 3 4] 7

20. If |a – 2| < 4; |b + 4| < 8; |2c – 3| < 11, then find the difference between the maximum
and minimum possible values of (a + b + c)2.
1] 35 2] 324 3] 289 4] None of these

6 IMS-36-ST-03
 Section II
DIRECTIONS for questions 21 and 22: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that
follow.

Each of the seven objects – T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z is placed either on the lower, middle or
top shelf of a three-shelf bookcase that contains no other objects.
i. At least two objects are on the top shelf.
ii. No more than four objects are on any shelf.
iii. T and U are on different shelves.
iv. V is either one shelf or two shelves above the shelf where X is placed.
v. W is either one shelf or two shelves above the shelf where X is placed.

21. If V and T are the only objects on one of the shelves, which of the following must be true?
1] W is on the top shelf.
2] X is on the bottom shelf.
3] U is on either the middle or top shelf.
4] If U and Y are on different shelves, Z is on the top shelf.

22. If T, V, Y and Z are on the same shelf, which of the following must be true?
1] U is not on the middle shelf.
2] W is not on the middle shelf.
3] X is alone on a shelf.
4] If U is on the top shelf then W is also on the top shelf.

DIRECTIONS for questions 23 and 24: Answer the following questions on the basis of the information
given below.
A social networking site has an application which compares friends on the level of compatibility.
Every person is asked to rank the qualities in an order that he thinks is essential in a friend.
These qualities are intelligence (I), politeness (P), skills (S), caring nature (C) and helping nature
(H). Five friends A, B, C, D and E used this application. The value of the level of compatibility
between two friends is the minimum of the difference in ranks allotted by the two friends to
each of the five qualities. Lower the numerical value of the level of compatibility, higher is the
compatibility. The table below indicates the rank order of the five qualities by each friend.

Friends
Rank A B C D E
1 C S H I P
2 H I P S S
3 P C I C I
4 S H C H C
5 I P S P H

23. Which of the following pairs of friends are most compatible?

1] A and B 2] B and C 3] C and D 4] D and E

7 IMS-36-ST-03
24. Which of the following pair does not have the same value of level of compatibility as the
other three?
1] D and E 2] C and E 3] B and D 4] C and D

DIRECTIONS for questions 25 and 26: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that
follow.

Mr. Singh is a salesman. He is planning to visit six companies L, M, N, O, P and Q. He has

to visit each company once. He is following some of the conditions as given below.

i. P has to be visited before M and N.

ii. O is the third company to be visited.
iii. L cannot be visited either immediately before or after N.

25. If P is not the first company to be visited, then in how many ways can Mr.Singh visit the
six companies?
1] 12 2] 18 3] 27 4] 28

26. If the fifth company visited by Mr. Singh is L, then which of the following is definitely true?
1] P is the first company visited 2] M is the last company visited
3] Q is the second company visited 4] Q is the last company visited

DIRECTIONS for questions 27 and 28: In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences
that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms
of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

27. A. Experiments announced in July this year to the Brookhaven National Laboratory in New
York
B. measured properties of subatomic particles known as muons,
C. finding that they behave as though influenced by other particles that seem to have
materialized from nothingness.
D. But no object large than the tiniest subatomic particle
E. has been observed to behave like this.
1] A, B & E 2] B, C & D
3] B, C & E 4] A, B, C & E

28. A. Metafiction is a term given to fictional writing which self-consciously and systematical draws
attention
B. to its status as an artefact in order to pose questions about the relationship between
fiction or reality.
C. In providing a critic of their own methods of construction,
D. such writings not only examine the fundamental structures of narrative fiction, they
explore the possible fictionality of the world
E. outside from the literary fictional text.
1] A, B & D 2] C, D & E
3] Only B 4] None of these

8 IMS-36-ST-03
DIRECTIONS for questions 29 and 30: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from
which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes
the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

29. The thought of an after-life frightened and fatigued me. I had never been able to adapt myself
to the world in which I was now living. Of what use would another like world be to me?
I felt that these worlds had not been made for me but for a tribe of brazen, money-grubbing,
blustering louts, sellers of conscience, hungry of eye and heart.
1] What comforted me was the prospect of oblivion after death.
2] I had no desire to see all these loathsome worlds peopled with their repulsive faces.
3] If I had to go through another life, then I hoped that my mind and senses would be numb.
4] I would not be able to fit in with this other world of people with no conscience or heart.

30. He was an old man, and sick, and he knew time was running out. He had always prided himself
on being a pragmatic man, a realistic man, within the framework of strict Marxist orthodoxy.
But even pragmatic men have their dreams, and old men have their vanities.
1] He wanted to be remembered as the man who increased food production.
2] Just how much he wanted this, he alone knew.
3] He had not been permitted the luxury of waiting for reality.
4] He knew this was his last chance and he did not mean to lose it.

DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 34: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

PASSAGE - 1
Suppose you are a manufacturer of buttons: however excellent your buttons may be, you do not
want more than a few for your own use. All the rest you wish to exchange for food and shelter,
a motor car and your children’s education, and so on. These various things share nothing with
the buttons except money value. And it is not even the money value of the buttons that is important
to you; what is important is profit, i.e., the excess of their selling value above the cost of production,
which may be increased by diminishing their intrinsic excellence. Indeed a loss of intrinsic excellence
usually results when mass production is substituted for more primitive methods.
There is another important consequence of modern organization, in addition to those already mentioned,
that tends to diminish the producer’s interest in the product: the divorce between the management
and the worker.
It has two aspects, one of which is the familiar conflict of capital and labour, while the other
is a more general trouble afflicting all large organizations. I do not propose to say anything about
the conflict of labour and capital, but the remoteness of government, whether in a political or
an economic organization, whether under capitalism or under socialism, is a somewhat less trite
theme, and deserves to be considered.
However society may be organized, there is inevitably a large area of conflict between the general
interest and the interest of this or that section. A rise in the price of coal may be advantageous
to the coal industry and facilitate an increase in miners’ wages, but is disadvantageous to everybody
else. When prices and wages are fixed by the government, every decision must disappoint somebody.
The considerations which should weigh with the government are so general, and so apparently
removed from the everyday life of the workers, that it is very difficult to make them appear cogent.
A concentrated advantage is always more readily appreciated than a diffused disadvantage. It is
for this sort of reason that governments find it difficult to resist inflation, and that, when they

9 IMS-36-ST-03
do, they are apt to become unpopular. A government which acts genuinely in the interests of
the general public runs a risk of being thought by each section to be perversely ignoring the interests
of that section. This is a difficulty which, in a democracy, tends to be increased by every increase
in the degree of governmental control.
Moreover, it would be unduly optimistic to expect that governments, even if democratic, will always
do what is best in the public interest. I have spoken before of some evils connected with bureaucracy;
I wish now to consider those involved in the relation of the official to the public. In a highly
organized community, those who exercise governmental functions, from Ministers down to the most
junior employees in local offices, have their own private interests, which by no means coincide
with those of the community. Of these, love of power and dislike of work are the chief. A civil
servant who says ‘no’ to a project satisfies, at once, his pleasure in exercising authority and his
disinclination for effort. And so he comes to seem, and to a certain extent to be, the enemy of
those whom he is supposed to serve.

31. According to the author, the profit motive is:

1] intrinsically unethical. 2] liable to lead to unnecessary greed.
3] hardly conducive to better quality. 4] efficient in theory but not in practice.

32. It is difficult for the government to make cogent decisions because:

1] governments appreciate a concentrated advantage more than a diffused disadvantage.
2] they are based on general concerns and are unconnected with the daily life of the workers.
3] they are so different from the considerations of ordinary people.
4] they fix prices and wages, which always disappoints somebody.

33. Which of the following is not implied in the passage?

1] Individual biases and prejudices affect governmental decision-making.
2] A price rise normally has opposite reactions from the various sections of the population.
3] Absence of immediate gains or losses in the modern organization seriously undermines its
ability to function.
4] Bureaucrats prioritize their interests over those of the community.

34. The government finds it difficult to resist inflation because:

1] it is normally caused by structural imbalances which are almost impossible to control.
2] its effect is spread out and not as palpable as the particular concerns of a section.
3] there is little advantage in this to the trading community.
4] governmental control is opposed in most economies.

DIRECTIONS for questions 35 and 36: Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced,
form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order
of sentences, from among the four given choices, to construct a coherent paragraph.

35. A. Malthus saw only three ways of keeping down the population: moral restraint, vice and
misery.
B. Vice i.e., birth control, he as a clergyman, viewed with abhorrence; there remained only
misery.
C. (For some reason we are not allowed to say that celibacy is against nature; the only reason
I can think of is that it is not new.)
D. Moral restraint, he admitted, was not likely to be practised on a large scale.
E. The commonest objection to birth control is that it is against ‘nature’.
1] ECADB 2] ECBDA 3] ECDAB 4] ECABD

10 IMS-36-ST-03
36. A. In Greek times, and down to the time of Newton, planetary theory belonged to ‘philosophy’
because it was uncertain and speculative, but Newton took the subject out of the realm
of the free play of hypothesis, and made it one requiring a different type of skill from
that which it had required when it was still open to fundamental doubts.
B. It is often said that philosophy is unprogressive, but this is largely a verbal matter: as soon
as a way is found of arriving at definite knowledge on some ancient question, the new
knowledge is counted as belonging to science, and philosophy is deprived of the credit.
C. Until the eighteenth century, science was included in what was commonly called ‘philosophy’.
But since that time, the word ‘philosophy’ has been confined, on its theoretical side, to
what is more speculative and general in topics with which science deals.
D. Let us first consider the relation to science.
E. Philosophy has been closely related to science on the one hand and to religion on the other.
1] EDBAC 2] BEDCA 3] DEBAC 4] EDCBA

DIRECTIONS for questions 37 to 40: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.

Pieces of clipped silver, punched with simple motifs circulated as coinage as early as the 7th
century B.C. The disadvantages of barter, coupled with the facility of using metal as a medium
of exchange, gradually led to the issue of punch-marked silver coins in ancient India. And as
the economy became increasingly monetized, copper and gold coins were minted in the centuries
that followed.

Though foreign invaders issued the first gold coins, the reverence and value placed on the yellow
metal ensured their easy acceptance. At the mint, gold’s malleability allowed maximum economy
in crafting coins. Further, its use as coinage reflected the prosperity of the treasury from trade,
military campaigns or revenue; and thus directly spoke of the ruler’s power. Gold coins often
bore inscriptions of the ruler’s name with his idealized image, thus conveying his authority, at
times with flowery titles; and occasionally with subtle allusions to his semi-divine role. Gold was
much coveted and regarded as “the” sacred metal by Indians, symbolic of the Sun God. Besides,
its durability represented immortality and its value a security in adverse times. And thus, though
silver and copper coins formed the bulk of currency in circulation, striking gold coins were frequently
issued by Indian rulers as a visual statement of their perfect royal virtues, presenting the king
as the ideal ruler of his subjects. The Indo-Bactrian invaders who settled in the north-west regions
of India, after the break up of the empire that Alexander had briefly annexed in 326 B.C., are
credited with the issue of the first gold coins on Indian soil. They issued coins marked with the
die-striking technique, with portraits of the king on the obverse and Greek gods and goddesses
or symbols of worship on the reverse of the coins. With the arrival of the Kusanas, who belonged
to the Yueh-chi tribe of Central Asia, around the 1 st century B.C. there was a substantial issue
of gold coins. Their coins reflect cultural influences of western empires in their depiction of images
drawn from a pantheon of Iranian, Hellenistic and Brahmanical deities.

Finds of gold Roman coins in South India, dated to the period between the beginning of the Christian
era to 3 rd century A.D., indicate a balance of trade between ancient Rome and the kingdoms of
South India, heavily in favour of the latter.

Meanwhile in north India, with the cementing of the Gupta rule, the period between the 4th and
6th centuries A.D. witnessed an extravagant increase in the variety and volume of gold coins, so
much so that a contemporary poet referred to it as “a rain of gold”. The obverse of most Gupta
coins represents a king, while the reverse bears the image of a deity.

A new chapter in India’s numismatic history was opened as Islamic rulers — Arabs, Turks and
Mongols — ascended to power in territories across the country. Though the Arabs had conquered

11 IMS-36-ST-03
Sind in A.D. 712, it was only in A.D. 1007 that Mahmud of Ghazni issued gold coins bearing the
Kalima and the name of the Abbasid Khalifa. Since then, Islamic rulers generally issued coins bearing
inscriptions in Arabic or Persian script, as the representation of figures is forbidden in Islam.

37. According to the passage, the circulation of coins in the Indian market system can be attributed to:
1] the reverence and value placed on gold.
2] the disadvantages of the barter system.
3] the easy availability of precious metals.
4] numerous invasions by foreign rulers.

38. Which of the following does not correspond to the author’s contentions of the numerous attributes
and viability of gold coins?
1] The malleability of gold made crafting the metal into coins easier and more efficient.
2] They retained their static value in changing business environments, and even during shifting
circumstances of the monarchs who issued them.
3] They were visual statements of royal virtues and presented idealized versions of the monarch.
4] Their immense durability implied immortality.

39. The discovery of Roman gold coins in India is a testimony to the fact that:
1] the balance of trade between Rome and South India was heavily tilted in India’s favour.
2] the balance of trade between Rome and South India was heavily tilted in Rome’s favour.
3] it was the accepted currency in India, along with coins issued by local rulers.
4] the purity of the Roman gold was higher and therefore these coins had greater value in
India.

40. The paragraph following the last paragraph of this passage could go on to:
1] discuss the implications of the inability of provincial rulers to sustain the flow of minting
gold coins.
2] talk about how India was rightly called ‘the Golden Sparrow’ of the world.
3] talk about the travails of numismatists in India.
4] narrate the history of gold coins in the following historical era.

12 IMS-36-ST-03