IMPORTANT - 100 MCQs For OJS Preliminary Exam

IMPORTANT: 100 MCQs for OJS Preliminary Exam http://www.judicialservicesindia.com/odisha-judicial-services-ex...
IMPORTANT:
100 MCQs for
OJS
Preliminary
Exam
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100 Important Multiple

Choice Questions (MCQs) for
Odisha Judicial Service (OJS)
preliminary exam!
1. On which date the

statue of the
International Criminal
Court has come into
force:
(a) 10 December, 2003
(b) 24 October, 2002
(c) 01 July, 2002
(d) 01 January, 2003.
Ans. (c)
2. Under which Article of

the U.N. Charter the
Security Council has the
power to use force
against a State:
(a) Article 41
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(a) Article 41
(b) Article 42
(c) Article 2(4)
(d) Article 24.
Ans. (d)
3. Who can request the

International Court of
Justice to give an
advisory opinion on any
legal question:
(a) Any member of the United

Nations
(b) The highest court of

Justice of any nation
(c) The General Assembly of

the United Nations
(d) Any permanent member

of the Security Council.
Ans. (c)
4. Which one of the

following organs of the
United Nations Performs
legislative functions:
(a) The General Assembly

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(a) The General Assembly
(b) The Economic and Social

Council
(c) The Trusteeship
(d) The Security Council.
Ans. (a)
5. Which one of the

following is correctly
matched:
(a) Information in cognizable

offence Sec. 154
(b) Police Officer’s power to

require attendance of
witnesses Sec. 161
(c) Search by Police Officer

Sec. 166
(d) Cases to be sent to

Magistrate when evidence is
sufficient Sec. 171.
Ans. (a)
6. Which one of the

following combinations
are not correctly
matched:
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A. Anticipatory bail 1. Sec.
matched:
A. Anticipatory bail 1. Sec.

437, Cr.P.C.
B. Summary Dismissal 2. Sec.

384, of appeal Cr.P.C.
C. Appeal in case of 3. Sec.

376, acquittal Cr.P.C.
D. Reference to 4. Sec. 397,

High Court Cr.P.C.
Select correct answer

using the codes given
below: Codes:
(a) A-1; B-2 and D-4
(b) A-1; C-3 and D-4
(c) A-1; B-2 and C-3
(d) B-2; C-3 and D-4.
Ans. (b)
7. Who of the following

cannot claim
maintenance under
Section 125(4) of the
Cr.P.C.:
(a) Wife living in adultery
(b) Wife living separately by

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mutual consent
(b) Wife living separately by

mutual consent
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b).
Ans. (c)
8. Save in exceptional
circumstances, no
woman shall be arrested
after Sunset and before
Sunrise, and where such
exceptional
circumstances to arrest
exist, the woman police
officer shall obtain the
prior permission of the
following:
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Superintendent of Police
(c) Judicial Magistrate of the

First Class
(d) Sessions Judge.
Ans. (c)
9. Who said that

“Ownership is a plenary
control over an object”:
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(a) Hibbert
control over an object”:
(a) Hibbert
(b) Austin
(c) Holland
(d) Salmond.
Ans. (c)
10. The concept of

“Living Law” was
expounded by which
jurist:
(a) Austin
(b) Ehrlich
(c) Pound
(d) Holland.
Ans. (b)
11. Who presides over the

Lok Sabha in the absence
of the Speaker and
Deputy Speaker:
(a) Leader of the opposition
(b) Senior most member of

the House
6 of 52 (c) A member of the six 1/10/2019 4:53 PM

the House
(c) A member of the six

members panel determined
by the Speaker.
(d) Secretary General of the

Lok Sabha.
Ans. (c)
12. The Finance

Commission, as laid
down in Article 280 of
the Constitution, is
constituted by:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President of India
(c) Chief Justice of the

Supreme Court of India
(d) Parliament
Ans. (b)
13. The Right of Children

to Free and Compulsory
Education Act came into
force from:
(a) 1st April, 2008
(b) 1st January, 2009
7 of 52 (c) 1st April, 2010 1/10/2019 4:53 PM

(b) 1st January, 2009
(c) 1st April, 2010
(d) 1st July, 2011
Ans. (c)
14. A proposal is revoked:
(a) Only by the death or

insanity of the proposer itself
(b) By the death or insanity if

the fact of the death or
insanity comes to the
knowledge of the acceptor
(c) By the death or insanity of

the proposer if the fact of his
death or insanity comes to the
knowledge of the acceptor
before acceptance
(d) None of the above is

correct.
Ans. (c)
15. Which one of the

following combinations is
correctly matched:
(1) Responsibility of finder

Sec. 71 of goods
(2) Surety’s liability Sec. 128

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(2) Surety’s liability Sec. 128
(3) Sub-agent Sec. 191
(4) Bailee’s particular lien

Sec.
Select the correct answer

below:
(a) (1), (2), and (4)
(b) (1), (2), and (3)
(c) (2), (3), and (4)
(d) (3), (4), and (1)
Ans. (b)
16. Who among the

following is not entitled
to claim maintenance
under Section 125,
Cr.P.C.:
(a) Divorced wife so long as

she does not marry
(b) Unmarried sister
(c) Adoptive mother
(d) Illegitimate minor child.
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Ans. (b)
17. When the High Court

or any Sessions Judge
calls for to examine the
record of any proceeding
before any inferior
criminal court, it is
known as:
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (c)
18. A report of person

arrested without warrant
shall be given by the
officer-in-charge of police
station to:
(a) Only District Magistrate
(b) Only Sub-divisional

Magistrate
(c) Judicial Magistrate of First

Class
(d) Either to the District

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(d) Either to the District

Magistrate or Sub- divisional
magistrate.
Ans. (d)
19. When a search is

required to be conducted
outside India, a criminal
court may under Section
166A of the Cr.P.C. issue
a:
(a) Search warrant
(b) Letter of requisition
(c) Letter of request
(d) Written order.
Ans. (c)
20. Analytical positivism

does not mean that:
(a) Laws are in the nature of

commands
(b) Law as it is and as it ought

to be have to be separated
(c) Certain inherent moral

quality is an essential feature
of law
11 of 52 (d) Analysis of legal concepts 1/10/2019 4:53 PM

(d) Analysis of legal concepts

is distinct from critical
evaluation.
Ans. (c)
21. “Nature has placed

man under the empire of
pleasure and pain”. It has
been said by:
(a) Bentham
(b) Austin
(c) Pound
(d) Hobbes.
Ans. (a)
22. Application for

anticipatory bail may be
made before:
(a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) High Court
(c) Sessions Court
(d) Both (b) and (c).
Ans. (d)
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23. Point out the 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
incorrect statement:
23. Point out the

incorrect statement:
(a) In cognizable offence any

police officer may without an
order from a Magistrate and
without a warrant arrest any
person
(b) A private person may

arrest or cause to be arrested
any person committing a
cognizable offence
(c) An Executive Magistrate

may arrest the offender when
any offence is committed in
his presence and within his
jurisdiction
(d) None of these.
Ans. (b)
24. The power of the

Supreme Court to
transfer cases and
appeals from one High
Court to another High
Court can be exercised on
an application by which
one of the following:
(a) Registrar of the High

Court concerned
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(a) Registrar of the High

Court concerned
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Chairperson of the Bar

Council of India
(d) Solicitor-General of India.
Ans. (b)
25. Which section of the

Cr.P.C. provides for
confirmation by the High
Court of an order of
death sentence passed by
the Sessions Court prior
to its execution:
(a) Section 366
(b) Section 368
(c) Section 369
(d) Section 371.
Ans. (a)

following statements is
wrong: It a person
forcibly resists the
endeavour to arrest him,
the Police Officer may:
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(a) Use all the means
the Police Officer may:
(a) Use all the means

necessary to effect the arrest
(b) Cause the death of such

person irrespective of the
offence he has committed
(c) Cause the death of such

person accused of murder
(d) Cause the death of such

person accused of culpable
homicide not amounting to
murder.
Ans. (b)
27. Point out incorrect

response:
The period of limitation

for taking cognizance of
an offence shall be:
(a) Six months if offence is

punishable with fine only
(b) One year, if the offence is

punishable with
imprisonment for a term not
exceeding one year
(c) Three years, if the offence

is punishable with
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is punishable with
imprisonment for a term not
exceeding one years but not
exceeding three years
(d) Five years, if the offence is

punishable with death
sentence.
Ans. (d)
28. In which case has the

Supreme Court held that
Section 125, Cr.P.C. was
applicable to all
irrespective of their
religion:
(a) Mohd. Umar Khan v.

Gulshan Begum
(b) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v.

Shah Bano Begum
(c) Mst. Zohara Khatoon v.

Mohd. Ibrahim
(d) Noor Saba Khatoon v.

Mohd. Quasim.
Ans. (b)
29. Which of the

following offences is not
compoundable:
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(a) Offence under section
compoundable:
(a) Offence under section

323, I.P.C.
(b) Offence under section

334, I.P.C
(c) Offence under section

448, I.P.C.
(d) Offence under section

307, I.P.C.
Ans. (d)
30. “The choosing

between two rights where
there is a clear intention
that both were not
intended to be enjoyed”,
is known as:
(a) Doctrine of lis pendens
(b) Doctrine of election
(c) Doctrine of part

performance
(d) Doctrine of estoppel.
Ans. (b)
31. Which section of the

Criminal Procedure Code
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provides that, the Public 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
Criminal Procedure Code

provides that, the Public
Prosecutor in charge of a
case may, with the
consent of the court at
any time before the
judgment is pronounced,
withdraw from the
prosecution of any
person in respect of any
offence for which he is
tried:
(a) Section 304
(b) Section 306
(c) Section 321
(d) Section 313.
Ans. (c)

following sections of the
Indian Evidence Act has
been substituted for the
old section by the
Information Technology
Act, 2000:
(a) Section 39
(b) Section 22
(c) Section 47
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(c) Section 47
(d) Section 65.
Ans. (a)

following is not included
in the expression ‘Court’
under the Indian
Evidence Act:
(a) All judges
(b) All persons legally

authorized to take evidence
(c) All Magistrates
(d) Arbitrator.
Ans. (d)
34. The case of Sawal Das

v. State of Bihar is related
to:
(a) Plea of Alibi
(b) Rule of Res gestae
(c) Rule of Estoppel
(d) Rule of Res judicata.
Ans. (b)
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35. Which Section of the
Ans. (b)
35. Which Section of the

Indian Evidence Act
makes the provision that
there shall be no new
trial on the ground of
improper admission or
rejection of evidence:
(a) Section 166
(b) Section 165
(c) Section 167
(d) Section 161.
Ans. (c)
36. Who has written the

following words: “Law
grows with the growth of
people, strengthens with
the strength of people
and finally it dies away as
the nation loses its
nationality”:
(a) Hart
(b) Savigny
(c) Bentham
(d) Spencer.
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(d) Spencer.
Ans. (b)
37. Who defined law as

the “de psychologised
command”:
(a) Kelsen
(b) Bentham
(c) Austin
(d) Salmond.
Ans. (a)
38. The principal jurist of

the Philosophical School
was:
(a) Herbert Spencer
(b) Sir Henry Maine
(c) Max Waber
(d) Hegel.
Ans. (d)
39. Name the jurist who

is called as “Darwinian
before Darwin” and
“Sociologist before
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Sociologists”: 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
“Sociologist before
Sociologists”:
(a) Kelsen
(b) Savigny
(c) Pound
(d) Gray.
Ans. (b)
40. “Law should continue

to support minimum
morality” has been
pleaded by:
(a) Lord Devlin
(b) Hart
(c) Lon Fuller
(d) Dwarkin.
Ans. (a)
41. Which among the

following statements is
true:
(a) The Resolution of United

Nations Organisation (UNO)
is not binding on the member
countries
22 of 52
(b) The Resolution of United 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
countries
(b) The Resolution of United

Nations Organisation is
binding on the member
countries
(c) The Resolution of United

binding upon a country if it is
sanctioned by other country
(d) The Resolution of United

binding if White House
approves it.
Ans. (a)
42. Arrange the following

engines in descending
order of their efficiency:
(I) Diesel
(II) Petrol
(III) Steam
(a) I, II, III
(b) III, II, I
(c) II, I, HI
(d) II, III, I.
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Ans. (b) 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
(d) II, III, I.
Ans. (b)
43. Which of the

following is true about s.
15, Specific Relief Act,
1963?
A. It enumerates the persons,

besides the actual
contractors, who are entitled
to sue on a contract
B. It involves no principle
peculiar to the remedy of
specific performance
C. This section corresponds

with s. 23 of the Repealed Act
D. All of these
Ans. D
44. Heart beats…………. in

fever:
(a) Faster
(b) Slower
(c) Unevenly
Ans. (a)
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Ans. (a)
45. Deficiency of proteins

causes:
(a) Kwashiorkar
(b) Xerophthalmia
(c) Goitre
(d) Tuberculosis.
Ans. (a)
46. Which of the

following transponders
are very crucial for the
VSAT services for
business operations
corporate networks etc.:
(a) S – band
(b) XC-band
(c) C – band
(d) Ku-band.
Ans. (b)
47. Which of the

following is a condition
for valid acknowl-
edgement of paternity by
25 of 52 a Mahomedan? 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
edgement of paternity by
a Mahomedan?
A. The person acknowledged

must not be known to be the
child of another man
B. The person acknowledged

must not have repudiated the
acknowledgement
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: C
48. F a Mahomedan
father of 25 years of age,
acknowledges S of 17
years of age as a son.
Which of the following
statements will apply?
A. The acknowledgement is
valid in case of Shia law
B. Acknowledgement is
invalid in case of Sunni law
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans: B
26 of 52 49. Which of the 1/10/2019 4:53 PM

49. Which of the

following property will be
considered as
self-acquired property of
a Hindu?
I. Property granted by
government to a member of a
joint family is normally
self-acquired property of
done
II. All acquisitions made by

means of learning are
self-acquired property
III. Ancestral property lost to

a family, and recovered by a
member without assistance of
joint family property
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. Ill and I
D. I, II and III
Ans: D
50. Indian Remote

Sensing (IRS) system was
commissioned with the
launch of IRS – 1A in the
27 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
year:
commissioned with the

launch of IRS – 1A in the
year:
(a) 1985
(b) 1987
(c) 1989
(d) 1988.
Ans. (d)
51. Where the Remote

Sensing satellite are
usually deployed in:
(a) Sunsynchronous Polar

Orbit at a height of 800-1000
km
(b) Sunsynchronous Polar

Orbit at a height of 800-1000
km
(c) Sunsynchronous Polar

Orbit at a height of 36,000 km
(d) Sunsynchronous
Equatorial Orbit at a height of
36,000 km.
Ans. (a)
52. Which of the

following is true about
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removing the strong
52. Which of the

following is true about
removing the strong
presumption under s. 10,
Specific Relief Act, 1963?
A. Mere specification in the

agreement of the amount to
be paid in the event of breach
of contract
B. Sufficiency or insufficiency
of such a specification is a
matter of evidence
C. either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans. B
53. Which of the

following is the usual
form of the decree in a
suit of specific
performance?
A. The agreement is ordered

to be specifically performed
B. The agreement is ordered

to be carried into execution
with a further provision about
the details of the steps to be
taken by the parties
29 of 52 C. both (A) and (B) 1/10/2019 4:53 PM

C. both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C
54. The satellite passes

over the same spot on
Earth every
_____________:
(a) week
(b) 10-13 days
(c) 16-22 days
(d) month.
Ans. (c)
55. Austin was the first

Professor of
Jurisprudence in the:
(a) University of Chicago
(b) University of London
(c) University of Warwick
Ans. (b)
56. The maximum

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percentage in the
56. The maximum

percentage in the
atmosphere is of:
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Helium.
Ans. (b)
57. Rickets is a disease

caused due to deficiency
of:
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D.
Ans. (d)
58. Towards the end of

the Nineteenth century,
changing human affairs
had brought about an
ever-increasing
preoccupation with
………….. and troubled
social conditions:
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………….. and troubled

social conditions:
(a) Conflicting ideologies
(b) Similar ideologies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Ans. (a)
59. ……………. were the

founders of British
positivism:
(a) Bentham and his disciple

Austin
(b) H.L.A. Hart and Kelsen
(c) Savigny and Roscoe Pound
Ans. (a)
60. In India who is

supreme:
(a) Constitution
(b) President of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Prime Minister.

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(d) Prime Minister.
Ans. (a)
61. The failure to pay rent

is an act of the firm
within the meaning of
which of the following
sections of the Indian
Partnership Act, 1932?
A. Section 22
B. Section 23
C. Section 24
D. Section 25
Ans: D
62. Explanation to which

of the following sections
of the Indian Partnership
Act, 1932 lays down that
participation in profits is
not conclusive, and
cannot of itself constitute
a partnership?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
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D. Section 6
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Ans: D
63. Gandhiji started

Dandi March in 1930:
(a) Against atrocities

committed on Harijans
(b) Against imposition of Salt

Tax Laws
(c) Against the

commencement of communal
awards
(d) All the above.
Ans. (b)
64. Gandhiji’s
“Champaran Movement”
was for:
(a) Civil Disobedience

Movement
(b) The security of rights of

Harijans
(c) Solving the problem of

Indigo workers
(d) Maintaining the unity of

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Hindu society.
(d) Maintaining the unity of

Hindu society.
Ans. (c)
65. During the Sultanate

period in ancient India,
the accession of a king
was traditionally done
by:
(a) Battle between probable

candidates
(b) Succession
(c) Nomination
(d) Election.
Ans. (a)

following does not find a
place in the Preamble of
the Constitution of India:
(a) Integrity
(b) Sovereignty
(c) Morality
(d) Justice
Ans. (c)
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Ans. (c)
67. In which case did the

Supreme Court give
ruling that the Preamble
was not a Part of the
Constitution:
(a) Berubari’s case, AIR 1960

SC 845
(b) Keshavananda Bharati’s

case, AIR 1973 SC 1461
(c) Golak Nath’s case, AIR

1967 SC 1643
(d) D.K. Basu’s case, AIR 1997

SC 610.
Ans. (a)
68. Preamble to the

Constitution is the Part of
the Constitution itself.
This observation of
Supreme Court was held
in case of:
(a) Keshavananda Bharati v.

State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC
1461
(b) Vishakha v. State of

Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011
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Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 3011
(c) D.K. Basu v. State of West

Bengal, AIR 1997 SC 610
(d) R.S. Nayak v. A.R.

Antulay, AIR 1986 SC 2045.
Ans. (a)
69. The Preamble to the

Indian Constitution is:
(a) Not a part of the

Constitution
(b) A part of the Constitution

but it neither confers any
power nor imposes any duties
nor can it be of any use in
interpreting other provisions
of the Constitution
(c) A part of the Constitution

and can be of use in
interpreting other provisions
of the Constitution in cases of
ambiguity
(d) A part of the Constitution

and it confers powers and
imposes duties as any other
provisions of the
Constitution.
Ans. (c)
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Ans. (c)
70. The concept of

Secular State is that the
State will not make any
discrimination on the
ground of religion, caste
or community against
any person professing
any particular form of
religious faith. The
Secularism is embodied
in:
(a) Preamble of Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of

State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Judicial Independence.
Ans. (a)
71. The Great Bath is the

most famous structure of:
(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Harappa
(c) Lothal
(d) Kalibangan.
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Ans. (a)
(d) Kalibangan.
Ans. (a)

following is not suspected
to be a cause of decline of
Indus Valley civilization:
(a) Migration
(b) Aryan Invasion
(c) Floods
(d) Earthquake.
Ans. (a)
73. Which of the

following Acts does not
impose disability upon
members of a Hindu
undivided family in the
matter of entering into a
contract inter se with a
stranger?
A. Indian Contract Act
B. Indian Penal Code
C. Code of Criminal
Procedure
D. None of these
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Ans: A
D. None of these
Ans: A
74. The plaintiff-landlord

could elect to proceed
against the contracting
alone by virtue of the
following sections of the
Indian Partnership Act,
1932?
A. Section 20
B. Section 22
C. Section 25
D. Section 27
Ans: C
75. Which of the

following is an alias for
the partners?
A. Firm
B. Partnership
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: B
76. Rig Veda is a

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collection of………….. 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
76. Rig Veda is a

collection of…………..
hymns:
(a) 1028
(b) 1000
(c) 1038
(d) 786.
Ans. (a)
77. There are 108

Upanishads in India
which contain:
(a) Philosophical knowledge
(b) Rituals
(c) Ceremonies
Ans. (a)
78. One Nautical mile is

equal to:
(a) 12 kms
(b) 2 kms
(c) 1.852 kms
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(d) 1.1 kms.
(c) 1.852 kms
(d) 1.1 kms.
Ans. (c)
79. Centre for

e-Governance is set up in:
(a) The premises of Electronic

Niketan, New Delhi
(b) The premises of Vigyan

Bhawan, New Delhi
(c) In the premises of

Parliament, New Delhi
Ans. (a)
80. National Highway

No.1 links Delhi and:
(a) Amritsar
(b) Allahabad
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai.
Ans. (a)
81. Which of the

following can claim
42 of 52 specific performance? 1/10/2019 4:53 PM
following can claim

specific performance?
I. An assignee of an option of
repurchase where the option
has been exercised by the
assignor in due conformity
with the terms of the contract
II. Assignees and successor’s

in interest of parties to a
partition deed containing a
pre-emption clause
III. Co-purchaser who has got

assigned the rights from the
other co-purchaser
IV. A stranger having an

assignment of the right of
reconveyance from one heir
of the party to the sale deed
designated in the sale deed as
beneficiary to the exclusion of
the other heirs
A. II, III, IV
B. II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. All of these
Ans: D
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82. Which of the
Ans: D
82. Which of the

following are true about
the word ‘possession’
used in s. 5 of the Specific
Relief Act, 1963?
A. It is prima facie proof of

property
B. It is good title against all

who cannot show better title
C. It constitutes by itself, a
limited title to the property
D. All of these
Ans: D
83. Which of the

following are principles
of mutuality admitted of
exceptions?
A. Conditional contracts
B. Unilateral contracts
C. Contracts in the nature of

undertakings
D. All of these
Ans: D
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84. Which of the
Ans: D
84. Which of the

following is a riverine
port:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Chennai
(c) Cochin
(d) Mumbai.
Ans. (a)
85. The highest Indian

peak is:
(a) Everest
(b) Godwin Austin
(c) Kanchenjunga
(d) Nanga Parbat.
Ans. (c)
86. Two National

Highways-Kanya Kumari
to Srinagar and
Porbandar to Silcher,
which are being
constructed under
National Highway
Development Project,
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shall meet together at:
Development Project,
shall meet together at:
(a) Bhopal
(b) Gwalior
(c) Jhansi
(d) Nagpur.
Ans. (c)
87. “Rejection of Plaint”

is mentioned under:
(a) Order VII, Rule 11
(b) Order VI, Rule 13
(c) Order VII, Rule 12
(d) Order VIII, Rule 4.
Ans. (a)
88. Which of the

following combinations
are not correctly
matched:
1. Execution of decree Sec. 77,

C.P.C.
2. Letter of request Sec. 82,

C.P.C.
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3. Legal representative Sec.
C.P.C.
3. Legal representative Sec.

50, C.P.C.
4. Institution of suit Sec. 28,

C.P.C.
Select the correct answer

below:
Codes:
(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (1), (2) and (4)
(c) (1), (3) and (4)
(d) (2), (3) and (4).
Ans. (b)

following cases is on
second appeal:
(a) Madan Lai v. Bai Krishna
(b) Sudhir G. Angur v. M.

Sanjeev
(c) Sheodan Singh v. Daryao

Kunwar
(d) Harshad Chiman Lai Modi

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v. D.L.F. Universal Ltd.
(d) Harshad Chiman Lai Modi

v. D.L.F. Universal Ltd.
Ans. (a)
90. Dasti summons for

service on the defendant
can be given to the
plaintiff under:
(a) Order V, Rule 9A, C.P.C.
(b) Order V, Rule 9, C.P.C.
(c) Order IV, Rule 7, C.P.C. ,
(d) Order VI, Rule 6, C.P.C.
Ans. (a)
91. Section 115 of the Civil

Procedure Code provides
for the following:
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
(d) Appeal to the Supreme

Court.
Ans. (c)
92. Order XXIII of the

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92. Order XXIII of the

Civil Procedure Code
applies to the following:
(a) Withdrawal of suits
(b) Appeals
(c) Execution proceeding
(d) All the above.
Ans. (a)
93. What is the term of

office of the judges of
Justice:
(a) 5 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 9 years
(d) 15 years
Ans. (c)
94. The first Indian

appointed as a judge of
Justice was:
(a) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(b) Justice Nagendra Singh

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(b) Justice Nagendra Singh
(c) Justice Krishna Iyyer
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)
95. Where is the

headquarters of
Justice situated:
(a) Geneva
(b) New York
(c) Hague
(d) London
Ans. (c)
96. In which one of the

following Articles of
U.N.O. the ‘principle of
Self determination’ has
been provided:
(a) Article 1
(b) Article 2
(c) Article 3
(d) Article 4
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(d) Article 4
Ans. (a)
97. How many members

are there in Security
Council of U.N.O.:
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
Ans. (c)
98. What is the term of

non-permanent members
of Security Council of
U.N.O.:
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
Ans. (a)
99. Which country has

conducted Nuclear Test
in February, 2013:
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(a) Iran
in February, 2013:
(a) Iran
(b) Israel
(c) South Korea
(d) North Korea
Ans. (d)

following is not a
principal organ of the
United Nations:
(a) International Court of

Justice
(b) Economic and Social

Council
(c) Trusteeship Council
(d) International Labour

Organization
Ans. (d)
52 of 52 1/10/2019 4:53 PM

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IMPORTANT: 100 MCQs for OJS Preliminary Exam http://www.judicialservicesindia.com/odisha-judicial-services-ex...

100 Important Multiple

1. On which date the

(a) 10 December, 2003

(b) 24 October, 2002

(c) 01 July, 2002

(d) 01 January, 2003.

2. Under which Article of

(c) Article 2(4)

(d) Article 24.

3. Who can request the

(a) Any member of the United

(b) The highest court of

(c) The General Assembly of

(d) Any permanent member

4. Which one of the

(a) The General Assembly

(a) The General Assembly

(b) The Economic and Social

(c) The Trusteeship

(d) The Security Council.

5. Which one of the

(a) Information in cognizable

(b) Police Officer’s power to

(c) Search by Police Officer

(d) Cases to be sent to

6. Which one of the

A. Anticipatory bail 1. Sec.

B. Summary Dismissal 2. Sec.

C. Appeal in case of 3. Sec.

D. Reference to 4. Sec. 397,

Select correct answer

(a) A-1; B-2 and D-4

(b) A-1; C-3 and D-4

(c) A-1; B-2 and C-3

(d) B-2; C-3 and D-4.

7. Who of the following

(a) Wife living in adultery

(b) Wife living separately by

(b) Wife living separately by

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Either (a) or (b).

(a) District Magistrate

(b) Superintendent of Police

(c) Judicial Magistrate of the

(d) Sessions Judge.

9. Who said that

control over an object”:

10. The concept of

11. Who presides over the

(a) Leader of the opposition

(b) Senior most member of

6 of 52 (c) A member of the six 1/10/2019 4:53 PM

(c) A member of the six

(d) Secretary General of the

12. The Finance

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President of India

(c) Chief Justice of the

13. The Right of Children

(a) 1st April, 2008

(b) 1st January, 2009