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PROBLEMS

IN
GENERAL CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following is not a physical change?


a. Condensation of steam c. Dissolving of sugar
b. Magnetizing of screwdriver d. Leaves turning in color
2. Which of the following contain the greatest mass of iron?
a. 27 g of Fe c. 266 g of FeCl3
b. 122 g of FePO4 d. 225 g of FeS2
3. Which of the following contains the greatest number of atoms?
a. 15 g of aluminum metal c. 0.10 mol of CCl4
b. 1.25 x 1023 molecules of CO d. 5 g of sulfur dioxide
4. Nicotine contains 74.9% carbon, 8.7% hydrogen, and 17.3% nitrogen. It is known that this compound
contains 2 nitrogen atoms per molecule. What is the molecular formula of nicotine?
a. C12H5N2 c. C10H14N2
b. C6H12N2 d. C14H22N2
5. What mass of [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 is produced when a solution containing 2.5 x10-3 mol of H2Cr2O7 is added
to a solution containing 7.5 x 10-3 mol of H2FeCl4? The two react according to the following equation:
H2Cr2O7 + 6H2FeCl4 + 5H2O  2[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 + 6FeCl3
a. 0.67 g c. 2.40 g
b. 1.23 g d. 0.12 g
6. Citric acid (C6H8O7), a component of jams, jellies is prepared industrially by fermentation of sucrose
by a mold. The overall reaction is : C12H22O11 + H2O + 3O2  2C6H8O7 + 4H2O. What is the amount
in kilograms of citric acid produced from I metric ton of sucrose if the reaction yield is 92.3%?
a. 870 c. 1920
b. 2160 d. 1040
7. A common oven cleaner contains a caustic metal hydroxide which we represent as MOH. Titration of
0.713 g of MOH with 1M HNO3 requires 17.85 ml to reach the end point. What is the element?
a. Li b. K c. Na d. Ca
8. A 5 ml sample of vinegar was titrated with a 0.240 M NaOH solution. If 16.96 ml was required to
reach the end point and the density of the vinegar is 1.005 g/cc, what is the mass percent of acetic
acid in the vinegar?
a. 5% b. 12% c. 15% d. 22%
9. What mass of PbSO4 is produced when 25 ml of 0.2338 M Pb(NO3)2 solution is added to 25 ml of
0.0971M aluminum sulfate?
a. 5.04 g b. 4.87 g c. 2.92 g d. 1.77 g
10. How much will the temperature of 180ml of coffee at 950C be reduced when a 45 g silver spoon
(specific heat 0.24 J/g-0C) at 250C is placed in the coffee and the two are allowed to reach the same
temperature? Assume the density and specific heat of coffee be equal to that of water.
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
11. This element consist of 14 neutrons, 14 electrons in its neutral state.
a. Al c. Si
b. P d. Cu
12. When heated, lithium atoms emit photons of red light with a wavelength of 6708A. What is the
energy in J of this light?
a. 1.7E-21 c. 5.8E-20
b. 3.0E-19 d. 4.8E-18
13. The probability of finding an electron at any point a distance r from the nucleus.
a. Planck’s constant c. Electron density
b. Atomic Orbital Theory d. Electron Configuration

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14. What type of orbital is occupied by an electron with the quantum number n = 3, l = 2?
a. s c. p
b. d d. f
15. Which of the following has an electronic configuration of 1s22s2s22p63s23p6?
a. S- c. Al3+
b. Ca d. Sc3+
16. All of the following are electronic configuration in ground state except:
a. [He]2s1 c. [Kr]6s26p1
2 10 4
b. [Ar]4s 3d 4p d. [Xe]6s24f145d106p2
17. Which of the following is arranged in a decreasing radius?
a. Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ c. Mg2+ > Na+ > Al3+
+ 3+ 2+
b. Na > Al > Mg d. Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+
18. Which of the following is arranged in an increasing radius?
a. N3-, O2-, F- c. N3-, F-, O2-
- 2- 3-
b. F , O , N d. O2-, N3-, F-
19. The following are all polar compounds except
a. CO c. BF3
b. SO2 d. NH3
20. The oxidation number of S in SO2Cl2 is
a. -2 c. +2
b. +4 d. +6
21. The oxidation number of Mn in K5Mn(CN)6 is
a. +1 c. +2
b. +3 d. +7
22. The structure of PCl5 is
a. octahedral c. square planar
b. trigonal pyramidal d. trigonal by-pyramidal
23. Which 2 pairs have the same structure?
a. CO2 & BeH2 c. PH3 & BH3
b. SiH4 & SeF4 d. XeF4 & ClF4
24. The hybridization of S in SF4 is
a. sp c. sp2
b. sp3 d. sp3d
25. Which of the following compounds when dissolved in water gives a solution of a weak electrolyte?
a. Ba(OH)2 c. CaO
b. Cl2O7 d. H3PO4
26. Which of the following when dissolved in water gives a basic solution?
a. NH4Cl c. SO3
b. NO2 d. Li2S
27. In the reaction : 3Cu + 8HNO3  3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O. The oxidizing agent is
a. Cu c. H2O
b. HNO3 d. NO
28. Which of the following element will reduce S8.
a. Mg c. Cu
b. Zn d. Cl
29. Assume that you have an unlabeled bottle containing a colorless gas. The gas reacts with oxygen and
with water to give an acid solution. What could this gaseous compound be?
a. Na2SO4 c. SO2
b. N2 d. SO3
30. A sample of an element that conducts electricity is broken into small pieces by cracking it with a
hammer. These pieces react with chlorine to form volatile liquid chloride. What is this element?

2
a. oxygen c. iodine
b. silicon d. aluminum
31. An element is oxidized by fluorine but not by chlorine.
a. sodium c. sulfur
b. aluminum d. oxygen
32. Which of the following reaction will not take place?
a. Mg + Co2+  Mg2+ + Co
b. 2Au + Fe2+  2Au+ + Fe
c. Ni + 2H+  Ni2+ + H2
d. PtO2 + heat  Pt + O2
33. What is the hydroxide ion concentration in a solution formed by dissolution of 1.00g of calcium
metal in enough water to form 250 ml of solution?
a. 0.1M c. 0.3M
b. 0.2M d. 0.4M
34. A gas occupies a volume of 12 L at 685.4 torr and 85.60C. What is its volume at 98.7 kPa and 64.80C?
a. 10 L c. 30 L
b. 20 L d. 40 L
35. What is the ratio of the kinetic energy of SO2 and O2 molecule in a mixture at 250C and 1 atm?
a. 0.33 c. 0.707
b. 0.50 d. 1.0
36. In problem #35, what is the ratio of the root mean square speeds of the two gases?
a. 0.33 c. 0.707
b. 0.50 d. 1.0
37. A gas of unknown identity diffuses at the rate of 16 m/s in a diffusion apparatus in which nitrogen
gas diffuses at the rate 24.3 m/s. the molecular weight of the unknown gas is
a. 12 c. 64
b. 36 d. 72
38. A sample prepared by pumping 15 L of air at STP and 2 L of CO at STP into a 3 L closed flask was
heated until all the CO had been converted to CO2. What is the partial pressure of O2 after the
reaction?
a. 0.67 atm c. 1 atm
b. 0.7 atm d. 4 atm
39. The most important forces responsible for forming the solids of Xe is
a. dipole-dipole attraction c. attraction between ions
b. covalent bonds d. dispersion force
40. Which of the following has the strongest attractive forces?
a. 1-chloroethane c. ethanol
b. methanol d. methane
41. Barium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic unit cell with an edge length of 5.025A. Calculate the
density of barium.
a. 3.6 g/ml c. 7.7 g/ml
b. 5.4 g/ml d. 9.2 g/ml
42. The atomic radius of barium in #41 is
a. 1.543A c. 2.176A
b. 0.974A d. 3.21A
43. Aluminum crystallizes in a face centered cubic unit cell with an aluminum atom on each lattice point
with the edge length of the unit cell equal to 4.050A. The atomic radius of Al is
a. 0.587A c. 2.769A
b. 1.432A d. 3.306A

3
44. A river 20 ft wide has an average depth of 5 ft and a current of 3 mi/h. A power plant dissipates
2.1E5 kJ of waste heat into the river every second. What is the temperature difference between
upstream and downstream from the plant?
a. 200C c. 70C
b. 130C d. 40C
45. If the heat dissipated by the power plant in #44 is to be removed by evaporating water at 25 0C, how
many gallons of water per day would be needed?
a. 790 c. 1947
b. 1643 d. 2185
46. The commercial name of Na2SO410H2O is
a. Borax c. Epsom salt
b. Gypsum d. Glauber’s salt
47. Received the Physics Noble prize for the discovery of the photoelectric effect.
a. Nierls Bohr c. Rutherford
b. J.J. Thompson d. Einstein
48. An electron is a
a. Wave c. Photon
b. Particle d. Particle and Wave
49. Which is not a statement of the Kinetic Theory of gas:
a. The volume of the gases itself are negligible.
b. The collisions between gases are elastic.
c. The average velocity increases as temperature increases.
d. The average kinetic energy of different gases are the same at the ame temperature.
e. None of the above.
50. The density of fluorine gas at 200C and 188 Torr is
a. 3.9E-4 g/cc c. 1.6E-5 lb/ft3
b. 4.6E-7 kg/m3 d. 7.7E-6 g/L
51. After 1.6 mol of ammonia gas is placed in a 1600 cm 3 box at 250C, the box is heated to 500 K. At this
temperature, the ammonia is partially decomposed to N2 and H2, and the pressure measurement
gives 4.85 MPa. The number of moles of each component present at 500 K are
a. 0.133 mol N2; 0.4 mol H2; 1.33 mol NH3
b. 0.55 mol N2; 0.4 mol H2; 0.65 mol NH3
c. 0.133 mol N2; 0.6 mol H2; 0.33 mol NH3
d. 0.25 mol N2; 0.52 mol H2; 1.33 mol NH3
52. Two evacuated bulbs of equal volume are connected by a tube of negligible volume. One bulb is
placed in a 200 K bath and the other in a 300 K bath, and then 1.00 mol of an ideal gas is injected
into the system. The final number of moles of gas in each bulb is
a. 0.333 and 0.667 c. 0.2 and 0.8
b. 0.5 and 0.5 d. 0.4 and 0.6
53. The vapor pressure of benzene is 74.7 Torr at 200C, and the vapor pressure of toluene is 22.3 Torr at
200C. A certain solution of benzene and toluene at 200C has a vapor pressure of 46 Torr. The mole
fraction of benzene in this solution is
a. 0.324 c. 0.537
b. 0.797 d. 0.735
54. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid or solid is called
a. sol c. foam
b. emulsion d. suspension
55. By using the flame test a certain metal emits a golden yellow color. That metal is
a. Li c. P
b. Na d. Cu

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56. A solution containing dissolved solute in equilibrium with excess undissolved solute.
a. weak electrolyte c. unsaturated
b. saturated d. supersaturated
57. The solubility of a gas increases with:
a. Increase in gas pressure above the solvent
b. Decrease in the temperature of the solution
c. Reaction of gas with solvent to produce stable compounds
d. All of the above
58. At 00C, 3.36 g of CO2 at 1 atm will dissolve in exactly 1 L of water. How many grams will dissolve at
the temperature if the pressure is 4 atm?
a. 9.3 g c. 5.6 g
b. 13.4 g d. 15.9 g
59. The following spontaneous processes occurs with an increase in entropy except
a. evaporation of methanol c. precipitation of PbSO4 from solution
b. mixing of nitrogen and oxygen gas d. dissolution of NH4NO3
60. The molality of 46.85 g codeine, C18H21NO3, in 125.5 g of ethanol is
a. 0.6 m c. 1.25 m
b. 0.87 m d. 2.1 m
61. A 1.577M solution of AgNO3 has a density of 1.220 g/cc. The molality of the solution is
a. 1.66 m c. 0.89 m
b. 2.33 m d. 0.5 m
62. Concentrated hydrochloric acid is 37% HCl by mass with S.G.= 1.19 at 25 0C. Calculate the mole
fraction of water.
a. 0.225 c. 0.667
b. 0.333 d. 0.775
63. Which of the following is the most effective per pound in lowering the freezing point of water? K f =
1.86.
a. Urea c. NaCl
b. Sucrose d. CaCl2
64. A solution of 5 g of an organic compound in 25 g of CCl4 (bp = 76.80C; kb = 5.02 0C/m) boils at 81.5 0C
at 1 atm. The molecular weight of the is
a. 95 c. 210
b. 127 d. 350
65. A solution contains 15 g of urea per 0.2 kg of water. What is the vapor pressure of the solution at
250C?
a. 21.0 torr c. 23.2 torr
b. 22.4 torr d. 24.1 torr
66. The osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.6 atm at 370C. What mass of glucose is required to make
1 L of aqueous solution for intravenous feeding if the solution must have the same osmotic pressure
as blood at body temperature of 370C?
a. 54 g c. 82 g
b. 67 g d. 109 g
67. The process of producing sodium carbonate is called
a. Contact process c. Frasch process
b. Solvay process d. King process
68. Which is the least soluble in water?
a. LiF c. LiBr
b. LiCl d. LiI
69. Which of the following has the least metallic property?
a. Be c. Mg
b. Na d. Ca

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70. Quicklime is the common term for
a. CaCO3 c. Ca(OH)2
b. CaO d. CaCl2
71. What mass of magnesium is produced when 100000A is passed through a MgCl2 melt for 1 hour if
the yield of magnesium is 85%?
a. 53 kg c. 39 kg
b. 45 kg d. 28 kg
72. Which of the following factor affects the least on the rate of reaction?
a. temperature c. concentration
b. pressure d. use of catalyst
73. What is the effect on the rate of many reactions by an increase in temperature of 100C?
a. increase be a factor of 2 c. increase exponentially
b. increase by a factor of 4 d. cannot be determined
74. The rate constant at 325 C for the reaction C4H8  2C2H4 is 6.1E-8/sec, and then activation energy
0

is 261kJ per mole of C4H8. Determine the frequency factor of the reaction.
a. 1.2E12 c. 2.9E14
b. 3.05E13 d. 3.8E15
75. An elevated level of the enzyme alkaline phophatase (ALP) in the serum is an indication of possible
liver or bone disorder. ALP catalyzes a number of reactions and its relative concentration can be
determined by measuring the rate of one of these reactions under controlled conditions. One such
reaction is the conversion of p-nitrophenyl phosphate (PNPP) to p-nitophenoxide ion (PNP) and
phosphate ion. Control of temperature during the test is very important; the rate increases 1.47
times if the temperature changes from 30 to 370C. What is the activation energy of this reaction?
a. 43 kJ c. 63 kJ
b. 53 kJ d. 73 kJ
76. A solution prepared by dissolving 0.20 mol of N2O4 in 400 ml chloroform. For the reaction N2O4 
2NO2 in chloroform, k = 1.07E-5. What will be the percent decomposition of the original N2O4?
a. 2.7% c. 0.86%
b. 1.4% d. 0.23%
77. For the reaction H2(g) + F2(g)  2HF(g), H = 541 kJ. Which condition will favor an increase in HF?
a. increase in pressure c. addition of HF
b. decrease in pressure d. increase in temperature
78. Which of the following is not an amphiprotic substance?
a. H2O c. HSO4-
b. H2PO4 d. H2CO3
79. Which of the following is the weakest acid?
a. BH3 c. PH3
b. NH3 d. H3PO4
80. Which of the following is the strongest acid?
a. HseO4- c. HSO3-
b. HSO4- d. HseO3-
81. Rank the compounds in an increasing acidity.
a. HI < HBr < HCl c. HCl < HBr < HI
b. HBr < HCl < HI d. HCl < HI < HBr
82. Rank the compounds in an increasing acidity.
a. HOI < HOBr <HOCl c. HOBr < HOI < HOCl
b. HOCl < HOBr < HOI d. HOCl < HOI < HOBr
83. Rank the compounds in an increasing base strength.
a. HS- < NH2 < PH2 c. HS- < PH2 < NH2
-
b. PH2 < NH2 < HS d. NH2 < HS- < PH2

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84. Which of the following reactions will not form a basic solution?
a. Electrolysis of certain salt solution.
b. Reaction of reactive metal with water.
c. Reaction of oxides of active metal with water.
d. Reaction of water with certain nonmetal halides.
85. The pH of 0.0071M Ba(OH)2 is
a. 2.15 c. 1.85
b. 11.85 d. 12.5
86. A 0.366N solution of KOH is titrated with H2SO4. If a 32 ml sample of the KOH solution is used, what
volume of 0.366M H2SO4 is required to reach the end point?
a. 8 ml c. 16 ml
b. 12 ml d. 32 ml
87. A 0.1832g sample of an acid is titrated with 0.3090N NaOH and 9.256 ml is required to reach the end
point. Which acid was used in the titration?
a. HCl c. H2SO4
b. HNO3 d. H3PO4
88. Which of the following has the highest % ionization?
a. 0.19M HNO2, pH = 2.04 c. 0.407M HC2O4-, pH = 2.29
b. 1.4E-2M HCNO, pH = 2.69 d. 0.0407M HC2O4-, pH = 2.79
89. The equilibrium constant of a solution of 0.08M HCN with pH = 5.24 is:
a. 1.8E-5 c. 6.4E-5
b. 4E-10 d. 3.5E-8
90. The pOH of 1.13M BrO- (kb = 5E-6) is
a. 11.38 c. 2.7
b. 11.3 d. 2.62
91. Ionization of acetic acid in a solution may be depressed by
a. Addition of acetic acid c. Increase in temperature
b. Addition of hydrogen chloride d. Decrease in pressure
92. Calculate the pH of solution resulting from mixing 0.10 L of 0.l0M NaOH with 0.40L of 0.021M HF (ka
= 7.2E-4).
a. 6.5085 c. 7.72
b. 6.28 d. 7.4915
93. Calculate the pH of a buffer solution consisting of equal volumes of 0.30M CH3CO2H and 0.30M
sodium acetate (ka = 1.8E-5)
a. 4.74 c. 1.90
b. 9.26 d. 5.08
94. How many moles of NH4Cl must be added to 1.0L of 1.0M NH3 solution to prepare a buffer solution
with a pH of 9.00? (kb = 1.8E-5)
a. 3 c. 0.57
b. 1.8 d. 0.28
95. Nicotine, C10H14N2 is a base that will accept 2 protons (k1 = 7E-7, k2 = 1.4E-11). What is the pOH of a
0.050M solution of nicotine?
a. 10.3 c. 4.5
b. 3.7 d. 2.8
96. The solubility product of CaSO42H2O is 2.4E-5. What mass of this salt will dissolve in 1.0L of 0.10M
K2SO4?
a. 0.05g c. 0.34g
b. 0.114g d. 1.2g
97. A solution of 0.060M MnBr2 is saturated with H2S (0.1M). What is the minimum pH at which MnS (Ksp
= 4.3E-22) will precipitate? (ka = 1E-26)
a. 2.3 c. 4.5

7
b. 3.4 d. 5.6
98. Which of the compounds, when dissolved in a 0.01M solution of HClO4, will have a greater solubility
than in pure water?
a. CaCL2 c. PbBr2
b. PbCl2 d. CaF2
99. Which of the halogen group has the lowest first ionization energy?
a. Oxygen c. Bromine
b. Fluorine d. Iodine
100. Which of the following compound will react with water to give a basic solution?
a. H2S c. Na3P
b. PCl3 d. N2O5
101. For the reaction PbO2 + Cl-  Pb2+ + Cl2 (in acidic solution), how many moles of H2O are
produced for each mole of chlorine ion reacted?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
102. For the reaction CN- + MnO4-  CNO- + MnO2 ( basic solution), for every mole of cyanide
ion reacted how many moles of water are needed to balance the reaction?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
103. A total of 69500 C of electricity was required to reduce 37.7g of M 3+ to the metal M. What is
M?
a. Ga c. Al
b. Gd d. Y
104. The standard reduction potential for Ag+ + e-  Ag, and AgCl + e-  Ag + Cl- are
+0.7991 and 0.222 V respectively. The solubility product constant of AgCl is
a. 2.3E-9 c. 5.68E-8
b. 1.76E-10 d. 6.44E-11
105. It is an ion or molecule attach to the central metal atom that can donate an electron pair.
a. Lewis acid c. Ligand
b. Bronsted base d. Complex ion

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