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Maternal and Child Nursing: Board Type Question Samples

1. On admission, the nurse on duty performs a Leopold's maneuver to determine:

a. The intensity of uterine contractions
b. If the pregnancy is multi fetal
c. The gestational age of the fetus
d. The presentation and position of the fetus

Answer: D (Rationale: Leopold's manuever is performed to identify the presentation and

position of the fetus)

2. The obstetrician performs an interval vaginal examination and determines that the fetus is
at +1 station. The finding suggests that the fetus is located:
a. 1 cm below the ischial spines
b. 1 cm above the ischial spines
c. 1 fingerbreadth below the ischial spines
d. 1 fingerbreadth above the ischial spines

Answer: A (Rationale: + 1 station means that the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial

3. The nurse instructs the client how to measure the frequency of uterine contractions which
is determined:
a. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction
b. By the number of contractions that occur within a given period of time
c. By the strength of the contraction at its peak
d. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the next contraction

Answer: B (Rationale: The frequency if uterine contractions is determine by the number

of contractions that occur within a given period of time)

4. The obstetrician administers lumbar epidural block when the cervix of the client has
dilated to 6 cm. It is important that the nurse assess the:
a. Frequency and duration of contraction
b. Level of consciousness
c. Color of the amniotic fluid
d. Fetal heart rate

Answer: D (Rationale: The fetal heart rate must be monitored frequently)

5. The nurse monitors the fetal heart rate pattern intermittently every:
a. 15 minutes during the transition phase
b. 30 minutes during the active phase of labor
c. 2 hours in the latent phase
d. hour during the active phase

Answer: A (Rationale: The nurse monitors the fetal heart rate pattern intermittently every
15 minutes during the transition phase, the FHR is monitored every 5 minutes during the
active phase of labor)

6. The hypothalamus begins the menstrual cycle with the production of which hormone:
a. FSH
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone

Answer: B (Rationale: The hypothalamus begins the menstrual cycle with the production
of GNRH)

7. A patient asks the nurse when she wills most likely feel the baby move. Quickening is a:
a. Presumptive sign
b. Probable sign
c. Positive sign
d. Possible sign

Answer: A (Rationale: Quickening is a presumptive sign of pregnancy)

8. A patient asks the nurse about breastfeeding. The recommended initial breastfeeding is:
a. 2 minutes at each nipple
b. 5 minutes at each nipple
c. 10 minutes at each nipple
d. until the child sleeps

Answer: A (Rationale: Initial breastfeeding for bonding purposes is done every 1-2
9. The nurse is discussing the medications to be administered during labor. When
administering Pitocin, the priority assessment before administration is:
a. Fundus
b. Blood pressure
c. Urine output
d. Pulse rate

Answer: B (Rationale: Pitocin may cause hypotension, so the BP must be monitored)

10. Bleeding is a danger sign of pregnancy. When there is painful dark red vaginal
discharge. This can be associated with:
a. Abruptio placenta
b. Placenta previa
c. PIH
d. Eclampsia

Answer: A (Rationale: Painful dark red vaginal bleeding is usually associated with
abruptio placenta)

11. When a patient is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse should monitor all of the
following except:
a. blood pressure
b. urine output
c. heart rate
d. deep tendon reflex

Answer: C (Rationale: The blood pressure, urine output and the deep tendon reflexes are

12. Pregnancy induced hypertension usually occurs:

a. Before the 20th week AOG
b. After the 20th week AOG
c. In the first trimester
d. Before pregnancy

Answer: B (Rationale: PIH usually occurs after the 20th weeks of gestation)
13. Oxytocin is produce by the:
a. Anterior pituitaty gland
b. Posterior pituitary gland
c. Hypothalamus
d. Testes

Answer: C (Rationale: Hypothalamus is the organ that produce oxytocin while the
posterior pituitary gland is the one that release it)

14. The recommended frequency of checking the IUD within a month after insertion is?
a. Once a week
b. Once every two weeks
c. Once within the month
d. After the three weeks of insertion

Answer: A (Rationale: The IUD should be checked once a week within the first month
after its insertion)

15. The only contraindication to the use of condoms is:

a. Pregnancy
b. Latex allergy
c. Decreased sexual performance
d. Color preference

Answer: B (Latex allergy is the only contraindication to the use of condom)

16. Breast milk can be frozen for up to:

a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months

Answer: C (Rationale: Breast milk can be frozen up to 6 months)

17. Which of the following statements is not appropriate in breastfeeding?

a. Thaw frozen breast milk for use in tepid water
b. Use the microwave oven to warm the milk
c. Motherhood illness decreases the milk supply
d. Breastfeeding provides psychological and emotional satisfaction for the infant and
the mother

Answer: B (Rationale: The use of microwave oven may destroy the vitamins and
nutritional properties of the breast milk)

18. The nurse instruct the young mother on breast care. The instructions include the
following: (1) Avoid using soap on the nipples; (2) Change frequently breast pads; (3)
Expose nipples to air intermittently. These measures are specific to the prevention of:
a. Newborn colic
b. Breast engorgement
c. Mastitis
d. "Let-down" reflex

Answer: C (Rationale: The aforementioned interventions will help prevent mastitis)

19. The type of milk that is present in the breasts after 2 weeks post partum is called:
a. Transitional milk
b. Hind milk
c. Mature milk
d. Colostrum

Answer: C (Rationale: In the first 2-3 days postpartum colostrum is present, on her 3rd-
4th day, hind milk and on the 4th day onwards, mature milk)

20. Engorgement for a breastfeeding patient last about?

a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

Answer: B (Rationale: Engorgement with breastfeeding patients last about 24 hours.

21. The nurse understands that a baby is sucking adequate amounts of milk when there is:
a. Adequate sleep
b. Frequent feedings
c. Weight gain
d. Maternal diet high in vitamin C
Answer: C (Rationale: Weight gain and voiding for at least 6-8 times a day indicate
adequate nutrition for the baby)

22. The young mother complains of engorged breast. Which of the following interventions
would be most helpful?
a. Teach the client to express her breast while in a warm shower
b. Apply a breast binder
c. Administer a lactation suppressant
d. Apply ice on the affected breasts

Answer: A (Rationale: Keeping the breasts emptied of milk may prevent bacterial

23. The nurse observes 15 month old Rebecca at play in the clinic. She realizes that at this
age, Rebecca could be expected to exhibit which of the following?
a. Build houses with blocks
b. Is extremely possessive of toys
c. Attempts to stay within the line when coloring
d. Amuses herself with a picture book of 15 minutes

Answer: B (Rationale: Toddlers extremely possessive to toys)

24. When observing Rebecca, the nurse would expect her to engage in which type of play?
a. Parallel play
b. Solitary play
c. Competitive play
d. Tumbling play

Answer: A (Parallel play is typical of toddlers)

25. Rebecca's mother asks the nurse when it would be appropriate to take her to the dentist
for dental prophylaxis. What is the nurse most appropriate response?
a. Before starting school
b. Between 2 and 3 years of age
c. When Rebecca begins to lose deciduous teeth
d. The next time another family member goes to the dental
Answer: B (Rationale the age of 2-3, the patients full set of primary teeth should have

26. Rebecca's mother says that Rebecca consistently says "no" every time she is offered
fluids. Considering Rebecca's development, how could the nurse assist the mother to
increase Rebecca's fluid intake?
a. Distract her some food
b. Be firm and hand her the glass
c. Offer her a choice of two things to drink
d. Let Rebecca see that she is making her mother angry

Answer: C (Rationale: Offering the child a choice provides them a sense of control and
will facilitate cooperation)

27. Rebecca is well and is to be discharged. Her mother ask the nurse why Rebecca persist in
saying "no" to everything. The nurse explains to Rebecca's mother that this negativism is
helping Rebecca to meet a 2-year olds need for which of the following?
a. trust
b. attention
c. discipline
d. independence

Answer: D (Rationale: The child's negativism attitude is their way of asserting


28. On assessment an infant, the nurse knows that a pincer grasp normally appears:
a. At the same time as the palmar grasp
b. Between 9 - 12 month of age
c. Between 5 - 7 month of age
d. Along with the ability to "rake" objects toward themselves

Answer: B (Rationale: Pincer grasp normally appears between the ages of 9-12 months)

29. In a child development, the period of negativism begins when the child:
a. Can manipulate his or her parents
b. Copies negative behavior of sibling
c. Is struggling between dependence and independence
d. Is learning manual skills
Answer: C (Rationale: The periods of negativism begins when the child is struggling
between dependence and independence)

30. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized toddler who was toilet trained home. He wet his
pants. The best response to his situation is to say:
a. "It's okay, try not to wet your pants next time."
b. That's okay. Now let's get you cleaned up."
c. I know you understand how to use the toilet, what happened?"
d. Your mom told you don't wet anymore, what's wrong?"

Answer: B (Rationale: When a toddler wet his pants it is better to replace it at once and
make no issue about it)

31. Which of the following behavior would a normal 18-months-old be likely to exhibit
during the first few hours of hospitalization?
a. Crying loudly when parents leave
b. Readily accepting the nurse caring for him
c. Showing considerable interest in new toy
d. Sitting quietly in the corner of the cab, showing little or no interest in his

Answer: A (Rationale: Crying is a sign of protest, the initial reaction to separation)

32. During the oedipal stage of growth and development, the child:
a. Loves and hates (ambivalence) both parents
b. Love the parents of the same sex and the parents of the opposite sex
c. Love the parent of the opposite sex and hates the parent of the same sex
d. Loves the parent of the same sex and hates the parent of the opposite sex

Answer: C (Rationale: During the oedipal stage the child loves the parent of the opposite
sex and hates the parents of the same sex)

33. Resolution of the oedipal complex takes place when the child overcomes the castration
complex and:
a. Rejects the parent of the same sex
b. Introjects behavior of both parents
c. Identifies with the parent of the same sex
d. Identifies with the parent of the opposite sex
Answer: C (Rationale: Resolution of the oedipal complex takes place when the child
identifies with the parent of the same sex)

34. A pregnant woman is given a home-based maternal record (HBMR) the first time she has
her prenatal visit at the health center. The HBMR contains the following information:
I. obstetrical history and present health problems
II. information about the present pregnancy
III. risk factors
IV. danger signs of pregnancy
a. all
b. I and II
c. III and IV
d. I,II and III

Answer: A (Rationale: The HBMR was introduced to improve prenatal, natal, and
postpartum care and to help health workers detect woman at risk)

35. A woman with his condition or history is recommended to deliver in the hospital:
a. stillbirth
b. 3 consecutive miscarriages
c. goiter
d. diabetes

Answer: D (Rationale: Other conditions that warrant hospital delivery are: previous
caesarian section, heart disease and bronchial asthma. A history of stillbirth and 3
consecutive miscarriages and presence of goiter just means that the pregnant woman
should be referred to a physician)

36. The nurse should inform the pregnant woman of the danger signs that she should watch
out for:
I. any type of vaginal bleeding
II. headache, dizziness and blurred vision
III. puffiness in the face and hands
IV. depression
a. I and II
b. I,II and III
c. I,III and IV
d. all
Answer: B (Rationale: Aside from I, II and III, the other danger sign during pregnancy is
anemia or pallor)

37. The pregnant woman with goiter should be told to avoid the following foods:
I. cabbage
II. cauliflower
III. cassava
IV. seaweed
a. I and III
b. I, II and III
c. I, II and IV
d. all

Answer: B (Rationale: The nurse should advise the woman to avoid foods such as
cabbage, cauliflower, turnips, cassava, maize, bamboo shoots and sweet potatoes.
Seaweeds and shellfish are rich in iodine)

38. A pregnant woman is considered to be anemic if the hemoglobin is ___ g/dl:

a. <10
b. <11
c. <12
d. <13

Answer: B (Rationale: A pregnant woman is considered anemic, if the Hgb is less than
11g/dl. It is less than 12g/dl for non-pregnant woman)

39. In computing for the iron tablet requirements of pregnant women in the community, the
nurse should:
a. first have a total count of all pregnant women
b. get the average crude birth rate in the past 5 years
c. compute for the 3.5% of the total population
d. all of the above

Answer: C (Rationale: Option (a) is impractical. Option (b) is not correct either because
not all pregnancies result in live births. 3.5% is the official figure used by the
Department of Health)
40. In far-flung barangays, these essential drugs for use in maternal health care should be
made available at the barangays health stations:
I. methyl ergometrine
II. oxytocin
III. diazepam
IV. choloroquin phosphate
V. hydralazine
a. I, II and III
b. I, II, III and IV
c. all
d. II, III, IV and V

Answer: C (Rationale: In addition to these, the BHS should also have hydralazine,
plasma expanders, Lactate Ringer's solution and 5% Dextrose in 0.9 sodium chloride,
iodine and iron/folate tablets)

41. When toddler is hospitalized, age appropriate toys would include:

a. Wind-up toys, music boxes, and electric trains
b. Toys requiring pushing, pulling and too big to be swallowed
c. Marble tracks and small blocks encouraging fine-motor coordination
d. Color mobiles, wind-up toys and marble tracks

Answer: B (Rationale: Push and pull toys are appropriate for toddlers)

42. Which of the following would be the most important factor in preparing Josh for his
a. Gratification of Josh wishes
b. Josh's previous hospitalization
c. Never leaving Josh with strangers
d. Assurance of affection and security

Answer: B (Rationale: The child's previous hospital experience may influence his coping.

43. Which of the following nursing actions would have been included for Josh following his
cleft lip repair?
a. Using a spoon to administer oral feedings
b. Cleansing the suture line to prevent infection
c. Allowing Josh to suck on a pacifier to prevent crying
d. Positioning Josh on the abdomen to avoid aspiration

Answer: B (Rationale: Prevention of infection is the priority after surgery)

44. Why will Josh be unable to use toothbrush postoperatively?

a. The suture line might be injured
b. Josh would probably have no teeth
c. The toothbrush might be frightened to Josh
d. Josh would not be accustomed to a brush at home

Answer: A (Rationale: The use of toothbrush may injure the suture line)

45. In the event of a precipitous labor, which of the following is the most important action?
a. Call the physician
b. Remain with patient and coach her
c. Push the fetal head back until equipment are assembled
d. Ask the patient to do shallow, rapid breathing

Answer: B (Rationale: The safety of the patient is paramount in precipitous labor)

46. You discover a protruding cord in the vaginal canal. The fetal heart rate is above normal.
What will you do?
I. Knee chest position
II. Push cord back to vagina
III. Moisten cord with NSS
IV. Sim's position
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. I and III

Answer: A (Rationale: Knee chest will relieve the pressure from the cord. NSS will
prevent drying of the protruding cord)

47. A client carrying twins was scheduled for caesarian section. Postoperative teachings
a. Expect to be discharged between 5-7 days postpartum
b. Need an enema for effective bowel movement
c. Be ambulatory whenever desired the day after surgery
d. Take sponge bath until incision healed

Answer: C (Rationale: Ambulation is vital for the recovery of the post CS patient)

48. After CS operation, the foley catheter was removed. The client verbalizes difficult in
urinating the nurse can best evaluate whether she has emptied her bladder by:
a. Catheterizing for residual urine
b. Gently palpating bladder for distention
c. Asking if she still feels the surge of void
d. Measuring the amount of urine of the client

Answer: B (Rationale: Gentle palpation will determine the presence of distention. With
the effects of anesthesia, the woman may not be able to feel the urge to void)

49. There is always a great risk for fetal hypoxia in prolonged pregnancy. This is due to:
a. placental aging
b. increase in the volume of amniotic fluid
c. increase fetal activity
d. difficult in cervical ripening

Answer: A (Rationale: With placental aging, there results a problem in oxygen transport)

50. One of the problems in prolonged pregnancy is the Anxiety of the fetal outcome. Which
of the following is a critical expected outcome of care?
a. Fetal heart rate is within normal limits
b. The results of the fetal well-being test: NST is reactive
c. Fetal movement count is 10
d. Parents able to verbalize perceived uncertainties on the fetal outcome

Answer: D (Rationale: In the nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to fetal outcome, the
most critical expectation is for the parents to be able to say what they fear about the baby)