Avionics Questions and Answers 1

1) What is the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery?

30% Sulphuric Acid, 70% water (by volume)
2) What is used to neutralise a lead-acid battery electrolyte spill?
Bicarbonate of Soda, then rinse with water
3) What is the correct sequence for tightening battery leads during installation in an aircraft?
Connect positive leads and tighten, then connect negative leads and tighten.
4) A battery is charged to 80% is charged for 20hrs with 3A. How long will the battery take to
discharge at a 2AH rate?
24hrs. 80% of 20hrs x 3A = 48AH total, therefore if it was discharged at a 2AH rate, it would
take half that time.
5) What is the substance that is lost from a nicad cell as a result of gassing?
Water, (hydrogen and oxygen)
6) How can the state of a nicad battery be determined?
Discharge the battery and recharge it at a known ampere-hour rate
7) What is the cause of gassing in a lead acid battery on charge?
Overcharging or charging at too high a rate (it will also gas at the end of the charging cycle)
8) What is the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a fully charged lead acid battery?
1.275-1.300 (nominal 1.280)
9) Under what conditions is the maximum EMF most accurately indicated for an aircraft battery?
Under intended load
10) What are the symptoms of thermal runaway in a battery?
Voltage drops, current increases, temp increases
11) What happens to the electrolyte level of a nicad battery during charging?
It increases
12) What are the comparative advantages of a nicad battery?
Long service life, short recharge time, good starting capability, reliable
13) When determining the capacity of a lead acid battery, what is the standard discharge time?
5 Hours
14) What is used to neutralise nicad battery electrolyte spills?
3% Boric acid solution
15) When recharged by a DC generator, lead acid batteries are charged by what method?
Constant voltage
16) What factor determines the rated capacity of a lead acid battery?
Total effective plate area.
17) What main feature of a nicad battery gives it better starting current?
Lower internal resistance
18) When measuring electrolyte specific gravity, when is it not necessary to make temperature
corrections?
When the electrolyte temperature is between 70 and 90°F (21-32 deg C)
19) How is a lead acid battery compartment treated to protect it from corrosion?
Paint it with asphaltic base paint or polyurethane enamel.
20) How high should the electrolyte level be in a properly serviced lead acid battery?
up to the level of the indicator in the cell
21) The EMF of a primary cell will be indicated accurately when?
When little or no current is being drawn
22) During discharge, what happens to the SG of the electrolyte in a nicad cell?
Remains constant
23) What is the electrolyte used in a nicad sintered plate battery?
30% Potassium hydroxide by weight.
24) Will the SG of electrolyte in a lead acid battery increase or decrease with temp rise?
Decrease with a rise in temperature
25) At what voltage is a cell of a lead acid battery considered satisfactory during the high
discharge rate test?
If the cell voltage does not fall below 1.8V
26) On what/which plates will lead sulphate form during when a lead acid cell is discharging?
Both positive and negative
27) The reaction at the positive plate of the lead acid battery during discharge is?
PbO2 + H2 SO4 +2H = PbSO4 + 2H2O
28) What is the difference between a primary and a secondary cell?
Secondary cell is rechargeable
Avionics Questions and Answers 2
29) Can a battery provide current flow in both directions?
No DC only
30) What is the ammeter in the charging circuit for?
To indicate the rate of current used to charge the battery.
31) Why will a fully charged lead acid battery not freeze at low temperatures?
Most of the electrolyte is acid
32) What will determine the amount of current which will flow through the battery while it is
being charged by a constant voltage source?
The state of the charge of the battery.
33) What method is used to rapidly charge a nicad battery?
Constant voltage and varying current (constant potential charge)
34) If an aircraft ammeter shows a full charging rate but the battery remains in a discharged state,
the most likely cause is?
An internally shorted battery
35) Which condition is an indication of improperly torqued cell link connections in a nicad
battery?
Heat or burn marks on the hardware
36) What does the presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nicad
battery cells that have been in service for a long time indicate?
Normal operation
37) What is the servicing and charging of nicad and lead acid batteries together in the same
service area likely to result in?
Contamination of both types of battery
38) When is the electrolyte of a nicad battery at its lowest?
When the battery is discharged
39) Why do nicad batteries that have been stored for a long period of time show low fluid levels?
The electrolyte has been absorbed into the plates
40) What may result if water is added to a nicad battery when it is not fully charged?
May result in spewing during the charging cycle.
41) What does a rise in cell temperature in a nicad battery cause?
Decrease in internal resistance
42) What is likely to cause thermal runaway in a nicad battery?
High ambient temperature
43) If a DC generator output voltage is too low, how would you adjust the voltage regulator?
Reduce the resistance of the field windings.
44) An aircraft alternator is driven through a constant speed drive at 6000rpm and has a frequency
of 400Hz, how many poles would the alternator have?
8 poles (4 pole pair)
45) While ground running, the generator online circuit breaker trips and will not reset. What’s
wrong?
The CB is of a “trip free” nature, and will not reset until the device has cooled or as a result of
an actual fault
46) When adjusting the voltage of a DC generator, what is the preferred load condition?
On full load
47) How does a voltage regulator control generator voltage?
By varying resistance in the field windings, this will vary field current strength and hence gen
output.
48) What 3 things must be synchronised before an aircraft AC generator is placed on the same bus
with another AC generator?
Voltage, frequency, and phase rotation.
49) What is meant by flashing the field of a generator?
Restoring the residual magnetism to the frame of the generator. This is done by passing battery
current through the field windings in the direction that it normally flows.
50) What is a compound wound DC generator?
A DC generator with a series field coil and a shunt field coil.
51) What type of current is produced in the armature of a DC generator?
AC current
52) What is the typical resistance of a DC shunt wound generators field windings?
High resistance (many turns of wire)
53) What is the most common type of DC generator?
Shunt wound
Avionics Questions and Answers 3
54) What is the purpose of a commutator in a DC generator?
Covert generated AC voltage to a DC output voltage
55) What is armature reaction in a generator and how is it corrected?
Distortion of the field flux due to current flow in the armature-prevent by installing interpoles
in the field windings.
56) What is the cause of generator brush arcing?
Low spring tension
57) In a generator, what eliminates any sparking to the brush guides?
The brush pigtail
58) To what depth is the mica insulation between the commutator bars of a DC generator
undercut?
Equal to the width of the Mica (or 0.020”)
59) During ground operation, generator cooling is usually accomplished by?
an integral fan that is mounted on the armature shaft
60) The voltage output of an alternator may be regulated by controlling what?
The voltage output of the DC exciter
61) The overvoltage control automatically protects the generator system when excessive voltage is
present by?
Opening the shunt field circuit, or by switching a resistor into the field winding to reduce
current and therefore voltage.
62) The most common method of regulating the voltage output of a compound DC generator is to
vary the?
Current flow through the shunt field coils.
63) If any one generator shows low voltage, the most likely cause is?
An out of adjustment voltage regulator.
64) Aircraft that only have AC generators as a prime source of power normally provide current
suitable for battery charging how?
Via a step down transformer and a rectifier
65) How are the field windings in a shunt wound generator connected?
Field windings are connected in parallel across the armature
66) What is the formula for the frequency of an alternator?
f=(NP)/120. where f=frequency, N=speed in rpm, P=no of poles (or NP/60 if you use no of
pole pairs.
67) Why are poles of a generator laminated?
To reduce eddy current losses
68) Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the?
Field shoes
69) CSD (constant speed drive) generators are usually cooled how?
Oil spray
70) If a CSD has been disconnected in flight (due to a malfunction), when can it be reconnected?
Only by maintenance pers on the ground
71) How is a CSD disconnect usually accomplished?
By a switch in the cockpit, or automatically by the GCU
72) How do you rate the output of a generator and an alternator?
Generator is rated in amperes at rated voltage, and an altenator is rated in kVA
73) What type of motor is most suitable as a starter motor?
Series wound motor
74) What are the types of losses in DC motors?
Copper (power) losses, hysteresis losses and eddy current losses
75) What type of DC motor is normally used to power a linear actuator motor and why?
Series motor as it has high start torque
76) The speed of a DC series motor is dependant on what?
Load
77) What is the effect of reducing the series field current on DC motor speed?
Speed will increase due to lack of back EMF
78) What is the purpose of a relay connected in series with the speed control element of a DC
shunt wound motor?
Thermal cutout?
79) How do you reverse the direction of rotation of a DC motor?
Reverse field windings or armature windings, but not both.
Avionics Questions and Answers 4
80) What are the advantages of an AC motor over a DC motor?
Cheaper and more reliable. (no brushes)
81) What parameters are specified when rating an AC motor?
Horsepower, frequency, no of phases, operating voltage full load current, speed, duty cycle
82) Disadvantages of single phase AC motor?
Low start torque
83) How do you reverse the direction of rotation of a single phase AC motor?
Reverse phase connections (except for a shaded pole motor whose direction cannot be
reversed)
84) Purpose of a growler test?
Determines if windings are shorted in armature
85) Which motor is most likely to have an armature brake?
Landing light retraction motor
86) How does a magnetic brake stop armature rotation?
It is applied by a spring, and released by a magnet.
87) What is meant by the term paralleled generators?
Two generators fed to a common bus bar
88) If the polarity of a generator is reversed, the remedial action is to?
Flash the field (also restores generator field residual magnetism)
89) What does a reverse current relay incorporate?
A voltage coil and a current coil wound on the same soft iron core.
90) A generator installation that has been reported producing only one or two volts usually has?
An open circuit in the generator field circuit (shows only residual magnetism which is the
magnetism in the pole shoes)
91) When does the differential type of reverse current relay operate when used in a generator
system?
A difference between generator and bus voltage
92) If the points in a vibrator type voltage regulator stick closed while the generator is operating,
what will be the probable result?
An increase in the generator output voltage
93) A voltage regulator in a generator circuit regulates voltage by?
Controls the current flowing in the shunt field circuit
94) When does a voltage regulator connect a generator to an electrical bus system?
At a specified amount higher than the battery
95) When does a voltage regulator disconnect a generator from an electrical bus system?
when its voltage drops a certain amount below battery voltage (and the battery starts to motor
the generator)
96) What is the most commonly used method for controlling generator outputs for paralleling and
load sharing?
Load equalising circuit (increases the low output gen and decreases the high output gen until
they are equal)
97) Why will terminal voltage drop off in a shunt wound generator as electrical load increases?
Increase in the internal voltage drop across the resistance of the armature windings.
98) Why is a shunt wound generator started off load?
If the load is too great, field windings are short circuited.
99) Where is the current to energise the field in a shunt wound generator taken from?
Its own generator output
100) What is a major disadvantage of shunt wound generators?
An increase in load will cause a decrease in output. (not good for constant voltage
requirements)
101) (Circuit diagram question) What is the purpose of a resistor connected in parallel across a
solenoid operated on/off switch in a starter motor circuit?
Limits starting circuit
102) What is the purpose of carbon discs in a carbon pile voltage regulator?
Provide resistance (resistance is varied by compression/expansion of the carbon disk pile)
103) What dictates how long the voltage regulator points remain open for in a vibrator type
voltage regulator?
Depends on the load carried by the generator
104) For each revolution of a motor, how many cycles of AC voltage will be produced if there is
a six pole alternator?
3
Avionics Questions and Answers 5
105) How does a CSD unit drive a generator?
Via hydraulic pump and hydraulic motor
106) What is the component that makes up the field assembly?
Pole pieces or shoes
107) What phase and rectification method will provide the smoothest output?
3 phase full wave rectification
108) Why is a double field winding (split field) used in some DC electrical motors?
Allows the motor to operate in both directions
109) What is the limiting resistor in a turbine engine starter motor circuit used for?
Reduces the surge current as the starting cycle is initiated
110)What is the primary use for shunt wound DC motors?
Constant speed, low torque
111)What is the purpose of the selection of de-rated switches for known continuous load
applications?
To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service life.
112)Purpose of a fuse?
Protect electrical circuit from overheating
113)Fuses are rated in?
Amperes
114)What is the difference between a 2.5A ‘normal’ fuse and a 2.5A slow blow fuse?
A slow blow fuse will handle surge currents for a short period of time.
115)A CB is installed in an aircraft primarily to protect the?
Circuit, and should be located as close as possible to the power source
116)What is a current limiter?
Slow blow fuse that is designed t be used in heavy power circuits where it will accept a surge
of current
117)Three types of circuit protection devices that are used in aircraft?
Fuses, circuit breakers and current limiters
118)Advantages of a CB over a fuse?
It is re-settable and re-useable
119)Can automatic reset CB’s be used in aircraft?
No, must be manual reset CB’s
120) What is the throw of a switch? What is a pole?
Throw is the number of circuits a switch is able to complete (not at the same time). A pole is a
contactor in a switch
121) What kind of switch would you use in a single wire circuit that required the switch to be
held in the manually ON position?
SPST, two position NO (normally open)
122) What is the minimum bend radius for a wire bundle?
10 times the outside dia of the unsupported bundle. 3 times the OD when the bundle is
supported. E.g into a terminal board. Coax should always be 10 times OD
123) When is a grommet used regarding aircraft wiring?
When wiring is less than ¼” from the edge of the hole
124) What is the spacing of wiring identification?
3” from terminations and max 15” apart.
125) What does the ratcheting of the crimpers indicate?
That the correct pressure has been applied to the crimped connector
126) Other guidelines regarding wiring installation (5)?
a. Wiring should be 1/2” from plumbing lines
b. Wiring should be > 3” from control cables unless control cables have a guard
c. No wiring bundle should be supported by plumbing containing oxygen or a
flammable fluid.
d. Bundles should follow ribs and stringers if possible but coax should be directly
routed.
e. Bundles should be kept to 2” max OD or max 75 wires.
127) Recommended minimum resistance when testing a bonding point?
0.003 ohms
128) Classes of AN connectors (5)?
a. General purpose one piece
b. General purpose two piece
c. Pressurised
Avionics Questions and Answers 6
d. Moisture and vibration resistant
e. Fireproof
129) Al wire must be stripped carefully because?
Individual strands will break easily if nicked
130) Which factors are considered when determining wire size for aircraft installation?
Allowable power loss, permissible voltage drop, current carrying capability, type of load
(continuous or intermittent)
131) When selecting hardware for attaching bonding connections to aircraft structure, which
factors are considered?
Mechanical strength, ease of installation, amount of current to be carried
132) Max number of splices between two connectors is?
One
133) The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on?
The ground (earth) side of the circuit, leaving the “powered” side in a socket
134) One purpose of grounding?
Allows a return current path (also prevent development of radio frequency potentials)
135) During inspection of terminal strips of an aircraft electrical system, it should be determined
that?
The terminal studs are anchored against rotation, no more than 4 per stud
136) If a wire is installed so that it may come into contact with a moving part, what protection
should be given to the wire?
Installed in a conduit
137) The strength of a terminal-to-cable connection should be?
At least equal to the tensile strength of the cable itself.
138) What is normally used to bond stainless steel components?
Copper jumpers
139) When replacing copper wire with aluminium wire, what gauge of wire should be selected?
You should drop one gauge, e.g a 16 gauge copper wire should be replaced with a 14 gauge ali
one
140) How are aluminium terminal lugs protected against oxidation?
They are filled with petrolatum-zinc dust compound
141) What are two types of fuse holder normally mounted in aircraft?
Clip type, and plug in.
142) Calculate: AWG 18 wire has the following characteristics. Max current 16A when in free
air or 10 when bundled. Resistance of 6.44 / 1000ft at 20C and an area of 1779 cubic mm.
The voltage drop for this piece of cable if it was 100ft long and carrying 10A is?
6.44V. (V=IR = 10 x (6.44 x 1/10 for 100ft) = 10 x .644 = 6.44V
143) Why are junction boxes usually installed so that when the cover is removed, the open face is
downward or vertical?
So that if loose items fall into the cover, they won’t short across terminals
144) How would you best describe an ignition cable?
Single core stranded type, suitably insulated and screened by metal braided sheathing to
prevent interference
145) What causes an out of balance in a wheatstone bridge circuit?
A change in the temperature bulbs resistance
146) What is the purpose of a metallic braided sheath?
Prevent interference from spurious radiation
147) Why are soldered joints not preferred?
Solder penetrates wire in the vicinity of the terminal, it becomes less resistant to vibration and
fatigue failure. Also the flux used, if not cleaned up correctly can be corrosive
148) What is used to check insulation?
Meggar for insulation resistance
149) What do you do to test an insulation tester before using it?
Short circuit the terminals and it should read zero
150) What sort of results should be achieved with good insulation?
M readings
151) Why are static port surrounds left unpainted?
Could cause turbulent air which would give inaccurate readings
152) What is the alternate switch used for in a pitot/static system?
Switches the normal source of static air to the cockpit air
153) What does a VSI sense?
Avionics Questions and Answers 7
Differential static pressure

154) What does QFE, QNH and QNE mean?

QFE – setting on baroscale of altimeter that will make the altimeter read altitude above the
local airfield. QNH – means setting on baroscale that will make the altimeter read altitude
above sea level, at a given airfield. QNE – setting on the baroscale to ISA (1013.25mb) which
will make the altimeter read ‘pressure altitude’ or ‘flight level altitude’
155) Why are static vents on either side of the fuselage?
Compensate for changes in aircraft attitude (banks)
156) What are the compensation factors used by a true airspeed indicator to provide TAS?
Barometric pressure, impact pressure and free air temperature
157) What are ICAO standard atmosphere parameters?
Pressure = 1013.25 or 29.92”Hg, temp = 15C
158) What are the markings on an airspeed indicator (red, yellow, blue, white)?
Red – never exceed velocity
Yellow – cautionary range
White – permissible limits of flap operation
Blue - best rate of climb speed, one engine
159) Which flight instruments require pitot and static pressure?
Altimeter – static, VSI – static (metered), ASI – pitot and static
160) What is mach number?
Ratio of aircraft speed to the speed of sound at a particular altitude and temp
161) If a pitot system is tested on the ground “S” but gives erroneous readings in flight, what
could be the fault?
Angle of attack of the pitot tube is out
162) What is used to measure pitot tube angle of incidence?
Inclinometer
163) What would a steady rate of vacuum applied to a static system indicate?
ASI – constant speed, VSI – nil climb or descent, ALT – constant height
164) If while on the ground, an altimeter is set to 1013.25mb and the ambient pressure is
1013.25, what will the altimeter read?
Zero
165) What will happen to the reading of the ASI if while descending, the static port becomes
blocked?
It will read high
166) What will a partially blocked calibrated leak in a VSI cause?
Over-reading during both climb and descent
167) Why do rate of climb indicators have an airtight case?
To maintain a pressure chamber
168) What would happen to the reading of an altimeter if one of the capsules were punctured?
It would read high
169) How is optimum accuracy obtained from a radio altimeter between 0 –50,000ft?
Using a pulse modulated type
170) An ASI that is corrected for instrument error and position error will read?
Calibrated airspeed
171) What is the basic principle of operation of a VSI or ROC indicator?
Controls and measures the rate of air leakage between static line and instrument case interior
172) What is the difference in shape of the pitot head between high and low speed aircraft?
High speed aircraft pitot tubes will have a sharper end to them
173) Why do IFR aircraft have a heater?
For de-icing
174) Why is the scale of a ASI indicator expanded at higher speeds?
It is then in the critical mach range
175) Why do some altimeters have a vibrator?
To help overcome friction of the needle
176) What is the purpose of temperature compensation in an instrument?
Prevents errors normally encountered due to rods and linkages expanding and contracting for
various temperatures
177) How does a radar altimeter indicate height?
Avionics Questions and Answers 8
Transmits a signal and receives a reflected signal back
178) What does a radar altimeter indicate?
Altitude above ground level

179) What is the max altitude loss during an instrument static system check?
100ft in one minute
180) What will a leak in the manifold pressure gauge line on a turbo charged engine show up as?
High at idle and low at takeoff power
181) What type of pressure does the manifold pressure gauge measure when the engine is
operating?
Absolute pressure in the intake manifold
182) What is done to make bellows able to read higher pressure?
Bellows diameter decreased and/or material thickness increased
183) Define differential, absolute and gauge pressures?
Differential = difference between two pressures. Absolute is referenced to a vacuum (aneroid
diaphragm. Gauge is referenced to the ambient air.
184) What sort of pressure does a bourdon tube measure?
Gauge pressure (high pressure)
185) What is the purpose of a restrictor in a manifold pressure gauge capillary tube?
Damping to stop damage/fluctuations (backfires)
186) What is the operating mechanism in most hydraulic pressure gauges?
Bourdon tube
187) What will happen to the reading produced by a thermocouple cylinder head temp gauge
when there is a malfunction in the electrical system?
Nothing
188) Power for EGT gauges comes from?
Thermocouples in parallel
189) What determines the amount of current flow in a thermocouple circuit?
The different amounts that the temperature affects the two different metals
190) What is the international standard colour code for thermocouple wires?
Chromel/Alumel is White/Green. Copper/Constantan is Red/Yellow. Iron/Constantan is
Black/Yellow.
191) Why are thermocouples connected in parallel?
To get an average reading and enures that operation will continue if one fails
192) What radius should the bends in a flexible drive shaft from an engine to a mechanical type
tachometer or generator be?
As great as possible
193) What type of motor is used for rotational speed measurement?
Synchronous motor
194) What are drag cup tachometer indicators operated by?
Spinning PMG providing flux (applies rotational torque to the drag cup/disk)
195) What are the two adjustable contacts for in a simple liquidometer fuel quantity gauge?
Provide calibration of empty and full after installation
196) A DC powered fuel contents measuring system operates on what principle?
A variable resistance, the value of which is proportional to fuel level
197) What is the basis of operation of a capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system?
A capacitor with fuel and air as the dielectric
198) What type of remote reading fuel quantity indicating system has several probes installed in
each tank?
Electronic (capacitance)
199) Why is a capacitance type quantity indicating system more accurate than a float type one?
It measures weight (mass) not volume
200) What is one advantage of the capacitive (electronic) fuel quantity indicating system?
Several tanks can come off one indicator
201) What are the four general types of fuel quantity gauges?
Sightglass, mechanical, electrical and electronic (electrical is a DC float and resistance,
electronic is the capacitance method)
202) What is an advantage of electrical and electronic type fuel quantity indicators?
Can be located away from the tank
203) What is the rotor in the indicator of a DC synchro instrument system?
A permanent magnet
Avionics Questions and Answers 9
204) How would you check a manifold pressure gauge for accuracy?
With the aircraft on the ground and the engine not running, the manifold pressure gauge
should read ambient pressure. Compare it with a barometer or a zeroed altimeter

205) What pressure is measured by a manifold pressure gauge during engine operation?
Sum of air pressure created by supercharger. Pressure reading depends on engine RPM, dial is
calibrated in inHg
206) What is the pressure sensing element in a manifold pressure gauge?
Uses an aneroid diaphragm.
207) Oil pressure, fuel pressure, vacuum suction, hydraulic pressure, de-icing pressure, manifold
pressure. Which of these gauges is most likely to use a Bourdon tube?
Oil pressure, hydraulic pressure and de-icing pressure
208) A bourdon tube instrument may be used to measure?
Pressure and temperature
209) Can thermocouple leads be altered or repaired?
No they have a specific resistance and are designed for specific installation
210) What type of thermocouple materials are used for – turbine engine?
Turbine uses Chromel/Alumel and a specially shaped probe
Radial engine?
Radial/piston uses Iron/Constantan and a washer under the head stud
211)When are resistance thermometers or ratiometers used instead of thermocouples?
For temperatures below 300F eg OAT, oil temp, cabin air temp
212) What would likely cause the needle of an electrical oil temp gauge to peg on the high side
of the instrument dial?
An open circuit in the bulb circuit, causing the instrument to see infinite resistance
213) When removing a thermocouple type meter from the aircraft, what precaution should you
take?
Connect shorting strip between terminals to dampen the movement
214) How will gauge indicate if an open circuit occurred in the thermocouple of a CHT (cylinder
head temperature) gauge which uses a bimetallic compensator?
Gauge will read ambient temperature
215) A thermal resistance bulb system employs what type of electrical circuit?
Wheatstone bridge
216) What is the advantage of a ratiometer indicating system?
It is not susceptible to fluctuations in voltage
217) A typical electric tachometer indicating system would be made up of what components?
3phase generator, synchronous motor and indicator unit
218) In what units is the tachometer used on a turbine engine calibrated?
percentage of takeoff RPM
219) Why is a dual tachometer used on a single engine helicopter?
One needle indicates engine speed and the other indicates main rotor speed, when the needles
agree, slippage is minimal
220) State the elements of a mechanical tachometer system?
Flexible drive, indicator incorporating gearing and flyweights
221) In a mechanical tacho system, what could cause a) erratic indication b) under-reading?
a) “whipping” of flexi-drive due to it being inadequately secured and b) excessive bending of
flexidrive
222) Flexidrive normally rotates at what fraction of engine RPM?
Not a quarter, Probably ½.
223) What type of wire is used in a capacitive fuel gauge system?
Shielded (coax)
224) What is the comparative capacitance of fuel probes immersed in avgas, jet fuel and air?
Jet fuel will be 2.1 times the capacitance of the same probe in air. Avgas will be 1.95 times.
Air is given the value of 1.
225) What is the purpose of the compensator probe in capacitive fuel quantity system?
Compensate for fuel temperature and density variations
226) What is a “direct reading” fuel gauge?
Float and lever type quantity gauge
227) Elements of a DC selsyn indicating system?
Avionics Questions and Answers 10

Transmitter (circular resistance winding tapped at 3 points, 120 apart and rotatable contact
arm), magnetic indicator and DC power supply
228) Power requirements for a) selsyn b) magnesyn c) synchro indicating system?
a) DC b) AC c) AC

229) With reference to torque synchro type indicating systems, what is meant by electrical zero?
Standardised reference angle for synchros at which a given set of stator voltages will be
produced. This enables replacement synchros to be matched to each other
230) Applications of synchro-type remote indicating instruments?
Landing gear position, flap position, door position, oil and fuel pressure indication
231) Two common types of fuel flow transmitter?
Vane type (independent fuel flow) impeller/turbine type (integrated fuel flow)
232) Why is rotor speed control important in a rate gyro?
Precession rate is proportional to rotor speed, therefore it ensures the same output for the same
angle turns
233) Normal erection rate for a light aircraft air driven gyro?
8 / min ?
234) What is an earth gyro referenced to?
Earth
235) Function of pressure relief valve in a vacuum system?
protect lines from rupture in the event of reverse flow of air from pump – the pressure relief
valve vents positive pressure to atmosphere
236) Function of suction relief valve in a vacuum system?
Can be adjusted to desired suction level, excess suction is reduced when valve opens to
atmospheric pressure
237) Source of venturi vacuum? Limitations of venturi system? Vacuum requirements for flight
instruments?
Venturi vacuum is derived from forward airflow through a specially shaped tube. The major
limitation is that minimum forward airspeed of 100mph is required to generate enough suck.
Turn and bank indicators require 2”Hg venturi and heading and attitude indicators require
8”Hg venturi.
238) In the vacuum system of a light aircraft, you would expect to find the vacuum air filter and
air/oil separator arranged how?
The air filter before the instruments on the suction side of the pump. The air/oil separator on
the pump outlet
239) The Definition of precession?
If a force is applied in the horizontal axis, it causes the gyro to move in the vertical axis
240) What could most likely cause excessive vacuum in a vacuum pump?
Vacuum relief valve improperly adjusted
241) Precaution with dry type vacuum pumps with carbon vanes?
Susceptible to damage from airborne particles and must use filtered air only
242) What type of gyro has an attitude sensing limitation?
Gyro horizon (ADI) has a pitch limitation of 85 to prevent gimbal lock
243) What is the purpose of precession with regard to artificial horizon indicator?
Provide self erection of gyro
244) What is the power supply for “standby” instruments in a commercial air transport aircraft?
28VDC battery provides power to static inverter generating 115VAC 3phase
245) What is the difference between a turn and slip indicator and a turn co-ordinator?
Turn and slip indicator is sensitive about the yaw axis only. A turn coordinator uses a canted
gyro making it sensitive about both the roll and yaw axes
246) What does the gyro in a slaved magnetic compass do?
Provides long term accuracy as a heading reference
247) Why are non-return valves incorporated in the pump lines of a dual pump vacuum system?
To prevent loss of vacuum pressure in the event of an engine failure, it will allow only the
good pump to provide vacuum
248) What principle does the venturi tube operate on?
Bournelli’s Theorum
249) What effect does an increase in gyro RPM have on precession when torque is applied?
Precession decreases
250) What principle do the altitude and rate instruments operate on?
Avionics Questions and Answers 11
Rigidity for altitude and heading, Precession for rate instruments.
251) What effect will a low gyro RPM have?
Instability
252) What is the lubber line on a gyro used to indicate?
The nose of the aircraft

253) What instruments are controlled by gyroscopes?

Attitude indicator (ADI), heading indicator, turn needle of the turn and bank indicator
254) What is the main purpose of a Directional Gyro (DG)?
Provide a stable directional reference to enable the pilot to maintain a heading or carry out an
accurate turn onto a new heading. Used in conjunction with a DR compass
255) What are ILS frequencies, ranges and channel spacing?
ILS comprises glideslope and localiser. Glideslope freq range is 329.3 – 335.0 MHz (UHF).
Localiser freq range is 108.1 – 111.9 MHz, on odd tenths (VHF). Therefore channel spacing
is 200kHz
256) VHF comms has what freq band and channel spacing?
108 – 135.975MHz at 25kHZ intervals
257) VOR uses what band?
VHF (108 – 117.95 MHz on the even tenths)
258) What is the marker Beacon frequency?
75 MHz
259) What is the freq band for HF comms?
3 – 30 MHz
260) What parameters verify correct matching of an antenna to a transmitter?
VSWR, output power
261) What is the purpose of antenna matching unit?
Ensures max power reaches antenna by electrically varying antenna length by adding
capacitance or inductance in series with the antenna
262) What is the relationship between V and I in a resonant halfwave antenna?
V is a max at both ends and a min in centre. I is a min at both ends and a max at the centre
263) What is the impedance of RG58A/U coax cable?
50 ohms
264) What component matches unbalanced coax cable to balanced antenna?
Balun
265) What is one frequency in the VHF band that you would not use for normal radio
transmissions?
121.5MHz (civilian emergency channel)
266) What will a capacitor in series with a radio aerial do (occurs in the coupler)?
Quarter-wave vertically polarised (Marconi) antenna
267) What type of antenna uses a ground plane to produce an image antenna?
Quarter-wave vertically polarised (Marconi) antenna
268) What are the characteristics of an antenna which is of correct length and proper feed?
VSWR is a minimum (~ 1) and output power is a maximum
269) If the voltage of an unbalanced transmission is 75V and the balanced antenna accepts 70V,
what is the VSWR?
1.07 (VSWR = power out/power in therefore = 75/70)
270) What is the preferred location of a DME antenna?
On the centreline of the belly of the aircraft, as far as practical from other antennae
271) On light aircraft, the VOR antenna should be located where?
On top of the cabin with the apex of the V facing forward
272) What characteristics of the installation of a rigid antenna on a vertical stabiliser should be
evaluated?
Flutter and vibration
273) What type of antenna is used for VHF, ADF, ATC?
VHF – vertically polarised whip, ADF – directional loop and non-directional sense antenna,
ATC – UHF stub antenna
274) What is the main purpose of an aircraft bonding system?
Prevent development of RF potentials (build up of static charge)
275) What is the main reason for dischargers being located at extremity points on the wing and
fin?
Ensure there is no coupling of the static into the radio antenna
Avionics Questions and Answers 12
276) What is the meaning of pick-up with regards to radio interference?
Susceptibility of circuts to picking up noise energy and feeding it into radio receiver –
eliminated by shielding or filters
277) Regarding engine ignition systems, where shielding proves inadequate, how may noise be
reduced in audio receivers?
Installation of capacitors (filtering)

278) What are the scale graduations and applied voltage requirements of a bonding tester?
0 – 0.1 ohms, 2V
279) Impedance of a typical aircraft headset?
600 ohms
280) What are the different types of aircraft microphones and what are their characteristics?
Carbon, piezoelectric, dynamic, electret (don’t know the characteristics)
281) Approval of an aircraft radio station in NZ is normally done how?
The issue of a radio station license by the director general post and telegraph department
282) What is the difference between an aircrafts transmit and receive polar diagrams?
Nothing
283) HF aerials on a light aircraft are usually?
Wire strung up between the vertical fin tip and fuselage
284) What type of wire is used between the output of an aircraft VHF transmitter and antenna?
50 coax
285) What is the space above an electromagnetic radiator known as?
Cone of silence
286) Why should the swinging of RF loop aerials not be made at night?
The ionosphere moves closer to the earth at night
287) What are some of the factors affecting the VSWR between a UHF antenna, its feeder and
the transmitter aerial circuit?
The length of the aerial rod or blade, the impedance of the coax feeder and the design of the
matching stub
288) How is installed radio equipment prevented from damage due to jolts or vibration?
Shock mounting
289) What must be displayed on aircraft equipped with a two way radio?
Radio station license
290) Symbols for AC/DC generator/motor
?
291) Purpose of electrical schematic diagrams?
For troubleshooting, not to locate specific items.
292) Symbol for CB’s etc.
?
293) A bundle of unsupported wire 1cm in diameter is bent around some structure with a bend
radius of 10 cm. You would?
Release the aircraft to service as the wire is correctly installed
294) At what distance should coax cable be secured between securing devices?
2 feet
295) When making bonding tests on aircraft of metallic construction, the resistance between
extremities of fixed portions of the aircraft should not exceed?
0.05
296) The effectiveness of bonding between an engine and the main aircraft structure can only be
checked accurately by?
A low range reading ohm-meter
297) Aircraft static wick dischargers provide a known controlled discharge path for the high
potentials generated due to static charges acquired in flight because?
All components of the aircraft are electrically bonded
298) What does a UJT do in a circuit and what sort of circuts is it used in?
Used to switch triacs etc and used in relaxation oscillators
299) What is another name for an SCR?
Thyrister
300) Is a photodiode forward or reverse biased when installed in a circuit?
Reverse
301) If an ESDS item is exposed to an ESD, will it continue to operate for a normal lifespan?
No, it will have degraded performance and fail early
Avionics Questions and Answers 13

Extra questions and notes after exam 03/10/07

How are ESDS components packaged prior to installation?

How is the static charge on an irregularly shaped conductor arranged? (with reference to
ESDS components

How would an aneroid capsule in an altimeter react as temperature decreases (non

compensated altimeter) assuming that atmospheric pressure remains constant?
2 parts to the answer. Elasticity of bellows as temp decreases, and how the alt reacts (high or
low reading)

A photo diode is installed in a lighting circuit, and is used to turn off light circuit during
daylight. Which way would the diode be biased to turn the circuit off?

Things to note:
Mostly applied knowledge questions. Rote learning the test bank would not have got you a
pass for this exam.
Only two calculations were required. One was VSWR and the other was battery efficiency. No
OHMS law questions.
A reasonable amount of questions on solid state devices and ESDS. Not that many “gimmies”
like battery and generator questions.

Nick D