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C. Data integration
D. Data sharing A. Data independence
Q271. Who access the database occasionally and have B. Data consistency C. Data integration D. Data sharing
different needs each time: A. Naïve users Q276. Who is requested to carry out various operation, such as
B. Casual users insert, delete, update and retrieval vwiours on the database by
C. Sophisticated user the user:
D. All of these A. DBA
Q272. Who interact with the system without writing a B. DBMS C. DBS
program: A. Naïve users D. DDL
B. Casual users Q277. is a translates into low-level instruction that a
C. Sophisticated user query processor understands: A. DBA
D. All of these B. DBMS
Q273. Who interact with the system by invoking one of the C. DBS D. DDL
permanent application program: A. Naïve users Q278. Retrieval of data is done by using a :
B. Casual users A. Stack
C. Sophisticated user B. Query
D. All of these C. Linked list
Q274. The main interface that a native user uses is a form D. All of these
interface using : A. DDL Q279. DML is a languages by which user accesses or
B. GUI manipulates the : A. Data model
C. OLAP D. DML B. Data consistency
Q275. The provision of is a major objective for
database system:
D. Data sharing Q284.Which is incorporated to create an appropriate physical
Q280. Which is the central component of the DBMS software database that is transformed by a logical data model:
that can also be termed as the database control system: A. SDL B. VDL
A. Data consistency C. Both
B. Data integration D. None
C. Data sharing Q285. SQL stands for:
D. Data manager A. System query language
Q281. Which is stored information about description of data B. Sequential query language
in the database: A. Data files C. Sets query languages
B. Data dictionary D. None of these
C. Database Q286. CSV stands for:
D. Data administrator A. Command system values
Q282. After conversion of high level queries into low level B. Comma system values
commands for file access and is C. Command separated values
called compiled : A. DDL D. Comma separated values
B. DML Q287. PDF stands for: A. Physical data format
C. SDL D. VDL B. Portable document format
Q283. Which is installs, configures, troubleshoots and C. Physical document format D. Portable data format Q288.
maintains a database system: XML stands for:
A. DBA B. DDL C. DML D. SDL A. Xtensible markup languages
B. Xtensible memory languages D. None of these
C. Both Q293. In which circumstances not variable-length record
D. None occur: A. Mixed files
Q289. BLOB stands for: B. Repeating field
A. Binary languages Objects C. Both
B. Bit large Objects D. None
C. Binary low objects Q294.The block containing the record is the unit of data
D. Binary large objects transferred between the _ : A. Main memory and The
Q290. Which is refers to the collection of related data values disk
or items called fields: B. Data and Memory
A. Record C. Data and Disk
B. Record blocking D. All of these
C. Fixed-length record Q295. Who is the unit of data transferred: A. The memory
D. Variable-length record B. The data
Q291. Every record in the same size in bytes the file is C. The user
constituted of : A. Record D. The block
B. Record blocking Q296. is a collection of all occurrences of similar types
C. Fixed-length record of records: A. Data
D. Variable-length record B. Data item
Q292. is the records in the file are of different C. File
sizes: D. All of these
A. Record blocking Q297. How many types of recodes in a file-based system:
B. Fixed-length record A. 2
C. Variable-length record B. 4
C. 6 A. File blocks
D. 8 B. File operations
Q298. Which are is not type of recodes in a file-based system: C. File headers
A. Logical records B. Physical records C. Both D. File organization
D. None Q303. New records are placed at the end of the file it is
Q299. Which contain information about a file needed by referred to as : A. Heap file
system programs for accessing file records: B. Pile file
A. File blocks C. Both
B. File operations D. None
C. File headers Q304. The field which is used to order the file is referred to as
D. None of these :
Q300. The file operations can be divided into how many A. Sorted field
categories: A. 1 B. Ordering field
B. 2 C. Both
C. 3 D. None
D. 4 Q305. Binary search accesses blocks: A. Log(b)
Q301. take into account only such records that are valid: B. Log2(b) C. 2log(b)
A. Algorithm D. Log(2b)
B. Searching algorithm Q306. Which provides precise partition between abstract
C. Flow chart characteristics of the data type and its implementation
D. All of these specifications:
Q302. file organization is vital for ensuring the most
efficient access of files and records:
A. Data A. Acquired data system line
B. Data item B. Asymmetric digital subscribe line
C. File C. Asymmetric digital subscribe languages
D. Data abstraction D. Acquired data system languages
Q307. ODBS stands for: Q311. Which services are insulated by abstraction from the
A. Off data base connection fundamental physical data:
B. Open data base connection A. DDL B. ODBC C. SOA
C. Oriented data base connection D. ADSL
D. All of these Q312. EII stand for:
Q308. DDL stands for: A. Enterprise information integration
A. Decode data languages B. End information integration C. Enterprise input information
B. Data define languages D. None of these
C. Database define languages Q313. is another name given to data integration when
D. Define data languages use in the management context:
Q309. SOA stands for: A. EII B. IEI C. GUI D. SUI
A. Services oriented abstraction Q314. LAV stands for: A. Logical as view
B. System oriented abstraction B. Local as view
C. Services oriented architecture C. Land as view
D. All of these D. Last as view
Q310. ADSL stands for: Q315. GAV stands for: A. Global as view
B. Global as verify D. Computer data information
C. Both Q320. How many structure used in ontology based on
D. None data integration application are explained:
Q316. ETL stands for: A. 1
A. End transforming and loudening B. 2
B. Extracting transforming and loading C. 3
C. Extracting transforming and languages D. 4
D. End transforming and languages Q321. is the commercial application of data
Q317. GSM stands for: integration: A. EII
A. Global source mapping B. IEI C. GUI D. SUI
B. Global system map Q322. ANSI stands for:
C. Global system master A. Analyst national system institute
D. Global system mode B. Analog national system institute
Q318. Which are the accepted ways for modeling such C. Analyst national standards institute
correspondence: A. LAV D. American national standards institute
B. GAV Q323. SPARC stands for:
C. Both A. System planning and requirements
D. None B. Standards planning and requirements
Q319. CDI stands for: C. Both
A. Computer data input D. None
B. Code data input Q324. Which can choose from several approaches to
C. Computer data integration manage data: A. DBMS
B. DDL C. SDL D. CDL B. 2
Q325. Which provides mechanisms to structure data in the C. 3
data base being modeled: A. DBMS D. 4
B. DDL Q330. Which are the types of record based logical models: A.
C. SDL D. CDL Relational
Q326. E-R stands for: B. Network
A. Entry relationship B. Entity relationship C. Both C. Hierarchical
D. None D. All of these
Q327. Which models a collection of various concepts that are Q331. E-R model entities and their relationship are
use to describe the structure of a data base: corresponded as dimensional tables:
A. Data base A. 2
B. Data model B. 4
C. Data C. 5
D. Recorded D. 6
Q328. Data at the conceptual level and view level can be Q332. Which are the not properties of a relation are: A. Row
describe with the help of _: A. Data model order are insignificant
B. Relation model B. Column order are insignificant
C. Record based logical model C. The values are atomic
D. All of these D. None of these
Q329. How many types of record based logical models: Q333. Which is the various key: A. Super key
A. 1
B. Primary key C. 3
C. Secondary key D. Alternate key E. Candidate key F. D. 4
Foreign key Q338. Which components are use in make up the
G. Concatenated key relational model: A. Structural
H. All of these B. Manipulative
I. None of these C. Integrity
Q334. Which is a primary domain: D. All of these
A. Domain Q339. Who is represent a data base as a collection of
B. Data relation value: A. Data model
C. Register B. Relation model
D. Models C. Record based logical model
Q335. In which year the relational model introduced: A. D. All of these
1969 Q340. The heading of a relation is also referred to as
B. 1970 : A. Relation schema
C. 1971 B. Intension
D. 1972 C. Both
Q336. In which person introduced the relational model: D. None
A. E.F. codd B. F.F. codd C. E.E. codd Q341. In relational model the body of the relation is
D. None of these referred to as :
Q337. How many components in relational model: A. 1 A. Extension
B. 2 B. Criterion
C. Relation B. 3
D. None of these C. 4
Q342. Which is the set of defined atomic values for an D. 5
attribute: Q348. In a SQL schema may be defined as which types:
A. Domain A. VIEWS
B. Data B. BASE RELATION C. BOTH
C. Register D. NONE
D. Models Q349. CAD stands for:
Q343. Which is the name of role played by a domain in the A. Computer aided design
relation: A. Relational schema B. Computer aided data
B. Domain C. Attribute D. Relation C. Computer aided database
Q345. Which is made up of relation name and a list of D. None of these
attributes: Q350. Which is refers to knowledge about the meaning of
A. Relational schema data:
B. Domain C. Attribute D. Relation A. Data types
Q346. A is defined as the subset of the subset of the B. Base relation
Cartesian product of domains: A. Extension C. Semantic knowledge
B. Criterion D. All of these
C. Relation Q351. In which is do not fully support the domain concept:
D. None of these A. DBMS
Q347. SQL schema is how many types of relation schema B. DBS
may be defined: A. 2 C. RDBMS
D. All of these A. DATA
Q352. Which is used for searching and retrieving records from B. RELTION C. PCR
the database: A. DBS D. All of these
B. DBMS C. DDL Q357. Which is a database model used to represent objects and
D. DML the relationship among these objects:
Q353. How many types of data structures used in hierarchical A. Data model
model: A. 2 B. Relation model
B. 3 C. Hierarchical model
C. 4 D. Network model
D. 5 Q358. RDBMS stands for:
Q354. PCR stands for: A. Relational database management system
A. Primary child relationship B. Relational database management structured
B. Parent child relationship C. Relational database management search
C. Both D. Relational database management sum
D. None Q359. Which algebra is widely used in computer science:
Q355. Which types of data structures used in Hierarchical A. Arithmetic algebra B. Relational algebra C. Both
model: A. PCR D. None
B. Records Q360. algebra has similar power of expression as
C. Both relational calculus and first order logic:
D. None A. Arithmetic algebra
Q356. it is an1:N relationship between two different B. Relational algebra
record types:
C. Both H. None of these
D. None Q364. Which is a unary operation:
Q361. In relation algebra a new term was defined by A. Selection operation B. Primitive operation C.
codd as _: Projection operation D. Generalized selection
A. Relation Q365. Relational calculus can be divided into how many
B. Relation completeness calculi: A. 2
C. Relation operation B. 3
D. Relation selection C. 4
Q362. How many primitive operators of relation algebra D. 5
as proposed by codd: A. 2 Q366. Which is relation calculus: A. Tuple relation
B. 3 calculus
C. 4 B. Domain relational calculus
D. 6 C. Both
Q363. Which are the primitive operators of relation D. None
algebra as proposed by codd: Q367. Which calculus is based on specifying a number
A. Selection of tuple variables: A. Tuple relation calculus
B. Projection B. Domain relational calculus
C. Cartesian product C. Both
D. Set union D. None
E. Set difference Q368. SQL is used for interacting with : A. DBMS
F. Rename B. RDBMS
G. All of these C. DDL D. SDL
Q369. SQL is a languages: A. Database languages B. Column
B. Declarative languages C. Tablespace
C. Both D. Result set
D. None Q374. How many forms of SQL: A. 2
Q370. ISO stands for: B. 4
A. Input standards organization C. 6
B. Interrupt standard organization D. None of these
C. International standards organization Q375. Which are form of SQL: A. Interactive
D. None of these B. Embedded
Q371. Which is a collection of a defined group of database C. Both
object like tables, indexes, tablespace: D. None
A. Database Q376. In SQL which operators on a data base to produce
B. Record output for user demand: A. Interactive
C. Memory B. Embedded
D. All of these C. Both
Q372. A is a single non-decomposable data element in a D. None
table: A. View Q377. In SQL which command can be put inside a program
B. Column written in some other languages like C,C++:
C. Tablespace A. Interactive
D. None of these B. Embedded
Q373. SQL outputs a single table known as the : C. Both
A. View
D. None C. Data control
Q378. Data is passed to a program environment through D. All of these
: A. DBMS Q383. How many interfaces provided by oracle:
B. SQL C. DDL A. 1
D. SDL B. 2
Q379. DQL stands for: A. Data query line C. 3
B. Data query languages D. 4
C. Data query land Q384. In which are interface provided by oracle: A. SQL
D. Direct query languages *PLUS
Q380. TCL stands for: B. SQL*PLUS command line interface
A. Transaction control languages C. SQL Plus Worksheet(introduced in ORACLE8i) D. SQL
B. Transaction command languages *PLUS(introduced in ORACLE9i)
C. Transaction connect languages E. All of these
D. None of these F. None of these
Q381. Which is that part of SQL that allows a database user Q385. SQL has how many main commands for DDL: A. 1
to create and restructure data base objects: B. 2
A. DBMS C. 3
B. SQL C. DDL D. SDL D. 4
Q382. _ commands in SQL allow controlling access to Q386. Which are main commands for DDL in SQL: A.
data within database: A. Database CREATE
B. Data
B. ALTER C. DROP B. Oracle 8i
D. All of these C. Pre-oracle 9i
Q387. How many data types in oracle: A. 2 D. Pre-oracle 8i
B. 3 Q392. Oracle-9i is supported by the syntax:
C. 4 A. ANSI SQL-96
D. 5 B. ANSI SQL-97
Q388. In which are the data types in oracle: C. ANSI SQL-98
A. ANSI standard data types B. Oracle defined data D. ANSI SQL-99
types C. Both Q393. How many join types in join condition: A. 2
D. None B. 3
Q389. A is a query that retrieves rows from more C. 4
than one table or view: A. Start D. 5
B. End Q394. Which are the join types in join condition: A.
C. Join Cross join
D. All of these B. Natural join
Q390. A condition is referred to as : C. Join with USING clause
A. Join in SQL D. Outer join
B. Join condition E. Join with ON clause
C. Both F. All of these
D. None Q395. How many tables in a join query have no join
Q391. Which oracle is the join condition is specified condition:
using the WHERE clause: A. Oracle 9i
A. 2 C. Write key
B. 3 D. None of these
C. 4 Q400. Which constraint that requires that the column contain a
D. None of these value when it is initially inserted into the table:
Q396. Which product is returned in a join query have no join A. IS NULL
condition: A. Equijoins B. NOT NULL C. UNIQUE
B. Cartesian D. None
C. Both Q401. Which constraint that identifies a column or
D. None combination of columns as a unique key: A. IS NULL
Q397. Which is a join condition contains an equality operator: B. NOT NULL C. UNIQUE
A. Equijoins D. None
B. Cartesian Q402. Which command is use for removing a table and all its
C. Both data from the database: A. Create command
D. None B. Drop table command
Q398. Which command defines its columns, integrity C. Alter table command
constraint in create table: A. Create command D. All of these
B. Drop table command Q403. Which command that allows the removal of all rows
C. Alter table command from a table but flushes a table more efficiently since no
D. All of these rollback information is retained:
Q399. It refers to set of one or more columns that designates A. TRUNCATE command
the key in a referential integrity constraint: B. Create command
A. Select key C. Drop table command
B. Foreign key
D. Alter table command B. 2
Q404. Which join refers to join records from the write table C. 3
that have no matching key in the left table are include in the D. 4
result set: Q409. In precedence of set operators the expression is
A. Left outer join evaluated from : A. Left to Left
B. Right outer join C. Full outer join D. Half outer join B. Right to Right
Q405. How many set operations supports the oracle SQL: A. 2 C. Left to Right
B. 3 D. Right to Left
C. 4 Q410. View in SQL a view may be defined as a : A. Stored
D. 5 query
Q406. Which are the set operations supports the oracle SQL: B. Virtual table
A. UNION C. Both
B. UNION ALL C. INTERSECT D. MINUS D. None
E. All of these Q411. Which views is using in several advantages: A.
Q407. _ operator merges the result sets of two component Simplicity
queries: B. Security
A. UNION C. User reports D. Data integrity E. All of these
B. UNION ALL C. INTERSECT D. MINUS Q412. How many types of views in SQL: A. 1
Q408. How many component queries are combined using the
set operators: A. 1
B. 2 D. None of these
C. 3 Q417. Which view that contains more than one table in the top-
D. 4 level FROM clause of the
Q413. Which are the types of views in SQL: A. Inline view SELECT statement: A. Join view
B. Database view B. Datable join view
C. Materialized view C. Updatable join view
D. All of these D. All of these
Q414. Which operation are allowed in a join view: Q418. Which option is used to create a view as a constrained
A. UPDATE B. INSERT C. DELETE view and prohibit specific insert
D. All of these and update operations with the view: A. DATABASE
Q415. The materialized view was introduced by: A. Oracle 6 B. WITH CHECK OPTION C. WITH WRITE OPTION D.
B. Oracle 7 WITH OPTION
C. Oracle 8 Q419. Which command is used to add the views to the
D. Oracle 9 database: A. DATABASE VIEW
Q416. We can delete from join view provided there is B. CREATE VIEW
key preserved table in the C. CREATE OPTION D. None of these
join: Q420. Which option is used with the WHERE clause: A.
A. One and Only One DATABASE
B. One and Two B. WITH CHECK OPTION
C. Two and One C. WITH WRITE OPTION D. WITH OPTION
Q421. Which option may be used to create the inline view as published by: A. Codds
a constrained view: A. DATABASE B. F.F. codd
B. WITH CHECK OPTION C. E.E. codd
C. WITH WRITE OPTION D. WITH OPTION D. None of these
Q422. In which year ORACLE, an SQL product was Q426. Which is an ANSI standard and has many different
released: versions:
A. 1976 A. IBM B. SQL
B. 1977 C. RDBMS
C. 1978 D. ORACLE
D. 1979 Q427. Which is used for interfacing with RDBMS: A. IBM
Q423. The prototype for SQL was originally developed by: B. SQL
A. INTEL C. ANSI
B. APPLE D. ORACLE
C. IBM Q428. Which is the basis for SQL and also for all other
D. All of these contemporary database system like
Q424. In which year relational algebra became prominent MS SQL Server, IBM DB2, Oracle, My SQL and
after the relational model of MICROSOFT Access: A. DDL
database was published: A. 1969 B. SDL
B. 1970 C. RDBMS
C. 1971 D. None of these
D. 1972 Q429. FD stands for:
Q425. Relational algebra became prominent after the A. Functional dependency
relational model of database was B. Facilitate dependency
C. Functional data Q434. Which is very essential as no single set has a specific sot
D. Facilitate data order for its elements: A. Rows
Q430. In which model of database data is stored in tables: B. Columns
A. Network model C. Tables
B. Relational model D. All of these
C. Hierarchical model Q435. How many types of keys in relation database design: A.
D. None of these Primary key
Q431. The relational database model and after that by a B. Candidate key
researcher at : A. IBM C. Foreign key
B. Apple D. All of these
C. Intel Q436. Which keys are used that are a column in the table: A.
D. All of these Primary key
Q432. The database containing tables related to each other that B. Candidate key
help in the smooth processing C. Foreign key
of data is called : A. Service database D. All of these
B. Relation database Q437. Which key is referencing a primary key in a table: A.
C. Related database Primary key
D. None of these B. Candidate key
Q433. A table can be defined as a set of : C. Foreign key
A. Rows D. All of these
B. Columns Q438. Which key is used to fined the customer from the table:
C. Both A. Primary key
D. None B. Candidate key
C. Foreign key Q443. In relationships how many different ways in which
D. All of these two tables may be related: A. 1
Q439. Which key have a common meaning: B. 2
A. Foreign key B. Primary key C. Both C. 3
D. None D. 4
Q440. A domain is a collection of values from where the Q444. In which ways two tables may be related:
columns are : A. Deleted A. One-one
B. Created B. One-many C. Many-many D. All of these
C. Maintained Q445. Which rules are defined in relational models they
D. All of these from as an essential part of any relation database:
Q441. Which access provides a partial support to domains: A. Integrity rules
A. Microsoft B. Database C. Record D. Memory
B. Microprocessor C. Microcomputer D. Memory Q446. How many types of integrity rules: A. 1
Q442. Which database relationship is considered only B. 2
between pairs of tables: A. Service database C. 3
B. Relational database D. 4
C. Related database Q447. Which are the types of integrity rule:
D. None of these A. General
B. Database specific
C. Both B. Referential integrity rule
D. None C. General integrity rule
Q448. How many general rules in a relational model and D. Database specific integrity rule
being general rules these are Q452. Which has support for specification of global rule
applicable to all database: A. 2 applicable to the whole table:
B. 3 A. Microsoft access1.0
C. 4 B. Microsoft access1.5
D. 5 C. Microsoft access2.0
Q449. Which rules are know as ’entity integrity’ and D. Microsoft access2.5
‘referential integrity’: Q453. In creating a table a row contains: A. Memory
A. General B. Record
B. Database specific C. Field
C. Both D. None
D. None Q454. In creating a table a column contains:
Q450. _ states that primary keys should not be null: A. Memory B. Record C. Field
A. Entity integrity D. None
B. Referential integrity Q455. Which have not have client/server architecture: A.
C. Both DBS
D. None B. DBMS C. RDBMS
Q451. Integrity constraints that do not fall under the D. All of these
preceding two integrity rules are Q456. Which command creates database objects like
referred to as : A. Entity integrity rule tables views and indexes: A. Create command
B. Update command Q460. Which relationship model provides a starting point
C. Both for identifying schemas and integrity constraints:
D. None A. Entity
Q457. Which command enables alteration the data stored in B. Referential
existing records: A. Create command C. Both
B. Update command D. None
C. Deletion command Q461. FD stands for: A. Formal dependency
D. All of these B. Functional dependency
Q458. Which query joins many dimension of tables to a fact C. Fact dependency
table which contains large D. Superset dependency
amount of rows and uses aggregate: A. IBM Q462. Which is derived from mathematical theory:
B. SQL C. ANSI A. IBM B. SQL C. ANSI D. FD
D. ORACLE Q463. Which are dependent on the information of what can
Q459. Which valued facts formalize the concept of be stored in the relation and serve as integrity constraints:
functional dependency: A. Single-valued A. IBM
B. Double-valued B. SQL C. ANSI D. FD
C. Both Q464. A relation state r of R that satisfies the functional
D. None dependency constraints is
called of R:
A. Legal relation state C. FD
B. Unlegal relation state
D. All of these B. Database
Q465. How many various types of dependencies: A. 1 C. Database design
B. 2 D. All of these
C. 3 Q470. Which is primarily the result of a thorough
D. 4 understanding of information about an enterprise:
Q466. Which are the dependencies types: A. Full functional A. Data
dependency B. Database
B. Partial dependency C. Database design
C. Trivial functional dependency D. Data modeling
D. All of these Q471. McFadden has defined normalization in his which
Q467. FDs are the types of constraints that are based on book : A. Database modern management
_: A. Key B. Management database of modern
B. Key revisited C. Modern database management
C. Superset key D. Database management
D. None of these Q472. The database design prevents some data from being
Q468. What is a super key: A. Key represented due to :
B. Key revisited A. Deletion anomalies B. Insertion anomalies C. Update
C. Superset key anomaly
D. None of these D. None of these
Q469. Which s essential a business problem not a data Q473. How many types of insertion anomalies: A. 1
problem: B. 2
A. Data C. 3
D. 4 A. Functional dependency
Q474. Who developed the normalization process: A. E.F. codd B. Database modeling
B. F.F. codd C. Normalization
C. E.E. codd D. Decomposition
D. None of these Q479. In decomposition technique of splitting a relation into
Q475. E.F.Codd developed the normalization process in the relation: A. ONE or MORE
which early: A. 1969 B. TWO or MORE
B. 1970 C .THREE or MORE D. FOUR or MORE
C. 1971 Q480. Codd suggested how many forms in normalization
D. 1972 process:
Q476. Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that A. 1
design by examining the relationship between attributes: B. 2
A. Functional dependency C. 3
B. Database modeling D. 4
C. Normalization Q481. Consequently R.Boyce-Codd jointly launched powerful
D. Decomposition definition for the thired normal form called :
Q477. Which is the process of breaking a relation into A. Boyce-Codd normal form
multiple relations: A. Functional dependency B. First normal form
B. Database modeling C. Second normal form
C. Normalization D. All of these
D. Decomposition Q482. BCNF stands for:
Q478. Which formal method that locates and analyses relation
schemas on the basis of their primary, candidate keys, and the
FD’s that are present among the attributes of these schemas:
A. Basic -Codd normal form B. Build -Codd normal form C. Q487. PJNF stands form:
Boyce-Codd normal form D. None of these A. Practically –join normal form
Q483. Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is B. Project –join normal form
minimal data aggregates and repetitive groups: C. Pages –join normal form
A. 1NF B. 2NF D. Programming –join normal form
C. 3NF Q488. Which forms are based on the concept of functional
D. All of these dependency: A. 1NF
Q484. Which forms every non-prime attribute is fully B. 2NF C. 3NF D. 4NF
dependent functionally on the candidate key of a relational Q489. Which one is based on multi-valued dependency: A.
schema: First
A. 1NF B. Second
B. 2NF C. 3NF D. 5NF C. Third
Q485. Which forms is required when although NF is present D. Fourth
more normalization is required: A. 1NF Q490. Which is one of the major important components of the
B. 2NF relational database: A. Query execution
C. 3NF D. 4NF B. Query process
Q486. Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an C. Query optimizer
individual entity: D. Query transaction
A. 2NF B. 3NF C. 4NF D. 5NF
Q491. Which is refers to the process of restoring the data that B. Index intersection
has been stored in a compter: A. Retrieve C. Index joins
B. Backup D. Parallel queries
C. Recovery Q496. Which Microsoft SQL server makes selection of the
D. Deadlock most appropriate index every table even if there are many
Q492. Query processing refers to technique of maintaining predicates in the query:
managing and manipulating data A. Microsoft SQL server6.0
stored with in the computer system by using queries: A. B. Microsoft SQL server6.5
DBMS C. Microsoft SQL server7.0
B. RDBMS D. Microsoft SQL server7.5
C. SQL Q497. Which is implement it to the index intersection in index
D. None of these joins: A. SQL server6.0
Q493. How many major stages of query processing: A. 1 B. SQL server6.5
B. 2 C. SQL server7.0
C. 3 D. SQL server7.5
D. 4 Q498. Which server can joins the indexes when only multiple
Q494. Which are the major stages of query processing: A. indexes combined can cover the
Query execution query: A. SQL
B. Query optimizer B. DBMS
C. Both C. RDBMS
D. None D. All of these
Q495. In query processor which ordering is related to hash joins Q499. How many types of disk I/O:
by SQL server 7.0: A. 1
A. Interesting ordering B. 2
C. 3 D. Query transaction
D. 4 Q504. Which can be defined as the method in which the
Q500. In which is types of I/O disk: selected plan is executed at the query
A. Random I/O optimization stages: A. Query execution B. Query process
B. Sequential I/O C. Both C. Query optimizer
D. None D. Query transaction
Q501. Choosing for large and non-indexed tables, specifically Q505. Which refers to technique of maintaining, managing and
for intermediate results can be termed as : manipulating data store
A. Hashing within the computer system by using SQL queries: A. Query
B. Parallelism execution
C. Disk B. Query processing C. Query optimizer D. Query transaction
D. Deadlock Q506. Which is the method of processing the plan selected
Q502. SMP stands for: throughout query optimization: A. Query execution
A. System multi-processing B. Query process
B. Server multi-processing C. Query optimizer
C. Symmetric multi-processing D. Query transaction
D. Securing multi-processing Q507. Which refers to a property of computer to run several
Q503. Which in the database which is a software component in operation simultaneously and possible as computers await
the RDBMS that carries out response of each other:
analysis of SQL statement for finding the best way for its A. Concurrency
execution: A. Query execution B. Deadlock
B. Query process C. Backup
C. Query optimizer
D. Recovery Q512. Optimization basically related to the Rewrite module is
Q508. Which is refers to a stalemate situation due to which no termed as :
further progress is possible as computer await response of each A. Semantic query optimization
other: B. Global query optimization
A. Concurrency C. Both
B. Deadlock C. Backup D. Recovery D. None
Q509. Which is a duplicate copy of a file program that is Q513. Database security helps organizations to protect data
stored on a different storage media than the original location: from : A. Internal users
A. Concurrency B. External users
B. Deadlock C. Backup D. Recovery C. Non-external users
Q510. Which is duplication of computer operations and D. Non internal users
routine backups to combat any unforeseen problems: Q514. Copying files to secondary or specific devices is known
A. Concurrency as :
B. Deadlock C. Backup D. Recovery A. Retrieve B. Backup C. Recovery D. Deadlock
Q511. Optimization that is basically related to the rewriter Q515. How many types of recovery control techniques: A. 2
module is termed as : A. Semantic query B. 3
optimization C. 4
B. Global query optimization D. 5
C. Both Q516. Which are types of recovery control techniques: A.
D. None Deferred update
B. Immediate update D. Data analysis
C. Both Q521. A conceptual data model defines the structure of the data
D. None and method or processes that use:
Q517. Analysis of an existing system starts when a customer A. File
request either for computerizing B. Data
his : C. Operation
A. Non-computerized operations D. Testing
B. Computerized operations Q522. CDA stands for:
C. Relational operation A. Confirmatory data analysis
D. Database operation Q523. EDA stands for:
Q518. Which is done by developers is centered on input and A. Exploratory data analysis
output expected by the customer: A. Requires interaction Q524. WWW stands for: A. World wide web
B. Analysis of starting C. Analysis of existing D. None of these Q525. Which is the forerunner of data analysis having close
Q519. What dose a system design include: A. I/O devices link with data visualization and
B. CPU data dissemination:
C. Storage unit A. Data analysis model
D. All of these B. Data structure
Q520. Which are used by developers to extrapolate C. Data analysis
complexities of real world into a computer based model: D. Data integration
A. Data analysis techniques Q526. In preliminary and final designs the design of physical
B. Data analysis model database focuses the way data is
C. Data structure physically : A. Delete
B. Start C. Stored D. Read D. Testing
Q527. Primary steps for converting a logical data model to Q532. Which refers to the process of executing new and
preliminary physical data model are: revised programs to check whether the process and running
A. Converting entities into file properly:
B. Converting relationship for accessing paths using keys A. Maintenance
C. Adding B. Analysis of starting
D. De-normalization C. Implementation
E. Tuning D. Testing
F. Converting Q533. Which refers to the proper upkeep of data, hardware,
G. Reduction of chain length software and in general of the entire system:
H. All of these A. Tuning
I. None of these B. Analysis of starting
Q528. JPEG stands for: C. Implementation
A. Joint photographic experts group D. Maintenance
Q529. MPEG stands for: Q534. Which refers to the use of various techniques for the
A. Moving pictures experts group adjustments and change made to help the system work
Q530 . DVI stands for: efficiently:
A. Digital video interactive A. Tuning
Q531. Which refers to the process of installing B. Analysis of starting
programs/software in a system of information system: C. Implementation
A. Requires interaction D. All of these
B. Analysis of starting Q535. Files that require immediate access, must be stored on
C. Implementation : A. Slow devices
B. Faster devices D. 4
C. Medium devices Q540. Which are the not a type of maintenance:
D. All of these A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Perfective
Q536. The batch accesses may be stored on slow devices such D. None of these
as : A. Optical disk Q541. Which is conducted for assessing the quality of the
B. Tape system produced by developer for customer:
C. Both A. Maintenance
D. None B. Analysis of starting
Q537. How many types of changeover methods: C. Implementation
A. 1 D. Testing
B. 2 Q542. Which is basically an RDBMS in which object oriented
C. 3 features are implemented: A. Java
D. 4 B. C++
Q538 .Which the types of changeover methods: A. Direct C. Oracle
B. Parallel D. DBMS
C. Pilot Q543. Which was the first commercial RDBMS:
D. Staged or phased A. MS SQL B. DB2
E. All of these C. MY SQL
Q539. How many types of maintenance: A. 1 D. ORACLE
B. 2 Q544. In which year RSI introduced oracle V2:
C. 3
A. 44 row, backup and recovery: A. Oracle V6
B. 1979 B. Oracle V5
C. 1980 C. Oracle V3
D. 1981 D. Oracle V4
Q545. Which version of oracle, released in 1983: A. V1 Q550. Oracle 8 is an object relational database that was
B. V2 released in:
C. V3 A. 1977
D. V4 B. 1979
Q546. Which version of oracle supported multi-version read C. 1983
consistency: A. V1 D. 1985
B. V2 Q551. V6 of oracle also included the first version for : A.
C. V3 PL
D. V4 B. SQL
Q547. In which year oracle v5 was released: A. 1977 C. Both
B. 1979 D. None
C. 1983 Q552. Which was introduced stored procedures and triggers
D. 1985 in PL/SQL:
Q548. Which version of oracle entered the market with more A. Oracle V6
features: A. V2 B. Oracle V5
B. V3 C. Oracle V3
C. V5 D. Oracle V7
D. V6 Q553. Version 8i entered the market in :
Q549. Which has enhancements in the input/output operation
of disk, scalability, locking of
A. 45 called : A. SGA
B. 1989 B. PGA
C. 1999 C. Both
D. None of these D. None
Q554. RAC stands for: Q560. Tables and indexes that are data of logical database
A. Real application cluster structure that are stored
Q555. Which version included RAC that enable multiple physically in the form of : A. Data files
instances for accessing a database simultaneously: B. Control files
A. V2i C. Online redo log files
B. V4i C. V6i D. V9i D. All of these
Q556. Oracle 9i was introduced in: Q561. Which files has metadata that specifies database
A. 1999 structure that includes database name along with database files
B. 2000 names and locations:
C. 2001 A. Data files
D. 2002 B. Control files
Q557. ASM stands for: C. Online redo log files
A. Automatic storage management D. All of these
Q558. Oracle database 11g was released in : A. 2001 Q562. Which is also known as redo records, recording
B. 2002 whatever changes are made to data: A. Data files
C. 2006 B. Control files
D. 2007 C. Online redo log files
Q559. The server process contains memory for a private session
which is its own and is
D. All of these Q567. SOA stands for:
Q563. The data in oracle database is stored in blocks known as A. Service- oriented architecture
: A. Data blocks Q568. SOAP stands for:
B. Extents A. Simple object access protocol
C. Segments Q569. WSDL stands for:
D. Tablespaces A. Web services description language
Q564. Which contains many extents: A. Data blocks Q570. ONS stands for: A. Oracle net services Q571. OLTP
B. Extents stands for:
C. Segments A. Online transaction processing
D. Tablespaces Q572. OLAP stands for:
Q565. _ shows a specified number of data blocks that are A. Online analytical processing
logically contiguous and keeps a particular type of information Q573. Which refers to a software that can be executed on two
in its storage: or more kinds of computer containing two or more kinds of
A. Data blocks operating system:
B. Extents A. Data blocks
C. Segments B. Extents
D. Tablespaces C. Segments
Q566. Which are logical storage units contained in a database D. Portable
and a logical container for some segment: Q574. Which refers to independent events of the main program
A. Data blocks flow of the systems that lacks concurrency:
B. Extents A. RDBMS
C. Segments B. Portable
D. Tablespaces C. Asynchronously
D. None of these C. Memory
Q575. Which is a method provided by an operating system, D. None of these
running in a sequence of steps: A. Storage Q580. MIS stands for:
B. Process A. Management Information Server B. Management
C. Computing Information Service C. Management Information System D.
D. None of these Master Information System
Q576. How many interfaces provided by oracle: A. 1 Q581. Which is the false statement:
B. 2 A. A database is ordered collection of data.
C. 3 B. A database is systematic compilation of records in a
D. 4 computer.
Q577. Which interface provided by oracle: A. SQL*PLUS C. DBMS manages the database
B. SQL*PLUS command line interface D. Data helps in making decisions. Q582. Which is the data
C. SQLPlus Worksheet model
D. iSQL*PLUS A. Relational
E. All of these B. Object-Relational
Q578. refers to the basic facts and entities, such as C. Network
names and numbers. A. Data D. All of these
B. Information Q583. Which is not the feature of database: A. Data
C. Input redundancy
D. Output B. Independence
Q579. Information is processed from A. Output C. Flexibility
B. Data
D. Data Integrity Q588. Which person is responsible for overall activities
Q584. Which is the type of data independence: A. for database: A. Database designer
Physical data independence B. Database analyst
B. Logical data independence C. Database Administrator
C. Both D. Database manager
D. None of these Q589. Which level of database is viewed by user: A.
Q585. Which is the feature of database: A. Query Internal level
Language B. External Level
B. Multi user access C. Conceptual Level
C. Data Dictionary D. All of these
D. All of these Q590. Internal level has:
Q586. Which is the advantage of database: A. Prevents A. Individual Users View of the database
Data redundancy B. Community view of the database
B. Restricts unauthorized access C. Physical Representation of the database
C. Persistent storage D. All of these
D. Backup and recovery Q591. Which is the component of database management
E. Integrity Constraints system: A. Query Language
F. All of these B. Database Manager
Q587. Which is the database language: C. File manager
A. C D. All of these
B. C++ C. SQL Q592. is the structure of the database.
D. None of these A. Table
B. Relation
C. Schema B. Relational Model
D. None of these C. Hierarchical Model
Q593. Schema is usually stored in . D. Object Oriented
A. Tables Q598. Which is the schema object:
B. Data Dictionary A. Database links and clusters
C. Both B. Packages and Indexes
D. None of these C. Procedures and functions
Q594. Schema is defined by: A. DML D. All of these
B. DDL C. DCL D. DQL Q599. In database records are called: A. Attributes
Q595. DML language is used to: B. Entity
A. Define schema C. Tuples
B. Define internal level D. Relations
C. Access Data Q600. An entity has a set of that describe
D. All of these it.
Q596. DBMS is the bridge between operating system A. Attributes
and . A. User B. Entity
B. Database administrator C. Tuples
C. Application program D. Relations
D. None of these Q601. In ER model rectangle represents: A. Attributes
Q597. Which is the most popular database model: A. B. Entity set
Network Model C. Relationships
D. None of these
Q602. Date is the type of attribute: A. Simple
B. Composite
C. Single values
D. Multi valued
Q603. is the attribute or group of attributes that
uniquely identify occurrence of each entity.
A. Foreign key
B. Super Key
C. Primary Key
D. All of these
Q604. _ is the real world object, such as a person,
place etc.
A. Attribute
B. Entity
C. Records
D. All of these
Q605. Grant and revoke is the type of command: A. DDL
B. DML C. DCL
D. DQL
Q606. A user that manages the files of application in DBMS is
called: A. Administrator
B. Database analyst
C. File Manager
D. None of these
Q607. is the information about data.
A. Data
B. Meta-Data
C. Entity
D. Relations