07 March Group-2 Test-05 Key & Explanation

Dr.
LAKSHMAIAH IAS STUDY CIRCLE

Ashok Nagar, Hyderabad - 500 020.
Dehradun, Uttarakhand, Amaravati, Tirupati, Vishakhapatnam
Ph no:040-27671427/8500 21 8036
___________________________________________________________________________________________
07 MARCH GROUP-2 TEST-05 KEY & EXPLANATION
1. Which of the following statements are not true about the process of
constitutional Amendment in India?
1) The Parliament can amend the Constitution with a special majority.
2) State Assemblies can propose amendment in the Constitution.
3) A Bill for Constitution Amendment can be introduced only in the Lower House
of the Parliament.
4) Deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament over a Bill for Constitution
Amendment can be removed by a joint session of the Parliament.
5) The President of India enjoys the veto power over Constitutional Amendment
Bills passed by the Parliament.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, d and 5
c) 1, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans B
Explanation:
[The constitution provided for three categories of amendments are those
contemplated in
articles 4 (2), 169 (3) – 1962, 239A (2) – 1962, 239AA (7b) – 1991, 243M (4b) –
1992, 243ZC (3) – 1992, 244A (4) – 1969, 356 (1)c, para 7(2) of schedule V and
para 21 (2) of Schedule VI. These amendments can be effect majority by
Parliament by a simple majority such as that required for the passing of any
ordinary law. The amendments under this category are specifically excluded from
the purview of article 368 which is the specific provision in the Constitution
dealing with the power and the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution.
Article 4 provide that laws made by Parliament under article 2 (relating to
admission or establishment of new States) and article 3 (relating to formation of
new States and alternation of areas, boundaries or names of existing States)
effecting amendments in the First Schedule or the Fourth Schedule and
supplemental, incidental and consequential matters shall not be deemed to be
amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of article 368. For example, the
States Reorganisation Act, 1956, Which brought about reorganisation of the
States in India, was passed by Parliament as an ordinary piece of legislation. In
Mangal Singh v.Union of India (A.I.R. 1967 S.S. 944), the Supreme Court held that
power to reduce the total number of members of Legislative Assembly below the
minimum prescribed under article 170 (1) is implicit in the authority 4. Article
169 empowers Parliament to provide by
law for the abolition or creation of the Legislative Councils in States and specifies
that though such law shall contain such provisions for the amendment of the
Constitutions as may be necessary, it shall not be deemed to be an amendment of
the Constitution for the purposes of article 368. The Legislative Councils Act,
1957, which provided for the creation of a Legislative Council in Andhra Pradesh
and for increasing the strength of the Legislative Councils in certain other States,
is an example of a law passed by Parliament in exercise of its powers under article
169. The Fifth Schedule contains provisions as to the administration and control
of the administration and control of the Schedule Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
Para 7 of the Schedule vests Parliament with plenary powers to enact laws
amending the Schedule
and lays down that no such law shall be deemed to be an amendment of the
Constitution for the purposes of article 368. Under para 21 of the Sixth Schedule,
Parliament has full power to enact laws amending the Sixth Schedule which
contains provisions for the administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. No such law, will be
deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of article 368.
2. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India held that, the
power of amendment belonged to the Parliament, and this power was an
unlimited one?
a) SankariPrasasd V. Union of India
b) Bela Banerjee and Others V. State of West Bengal
c) KesavanadaBhartiV.State of Kerala
d) RomeshThaparV.State of Madras
Ans A
Explanation:
[Article 13 of the original constitution said that the state shall not make any law
that takes away or abridges the rights given to the citizens in Part III and any such
law made in contravention of this article shall be deemed void to the extent of
contravention. Thus, it seemed that parliament cannot amend the constitution in
a way that takes away the fundamental rights of the citizens.
The logic was first tested by the Supreme Court in the case of Shankari Prasad Vs.
Union of India AIR 1951.In this case, an amendment to add Article 31 A and 31 B
to the constitution was challenged on the ground that they take away
fundamental right of the citizens and therefore not allowed by article 13].
3.Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment
is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-
half of the states?
1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in Parliament
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council of a State
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 2,3 and 4
Ans A
Explanation:
[Part XX of The Constitution of India contains only one Article 368. It deals with
the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution. It lays down two special
methods for the amendment of various parts of the constitution. Along with it the
Union Parliament has the power to change some specified features/parts of the
Constitution by passing an ordinary law.
Two Special Methods of Amendment under Art 368.
I. Amendment by 2/3rd Majority of Parliament:
Most parts of the Constitution (with exception of some specific provisions) can be
amended by this method. Under this method, the Constitution can be amended by
the Union Parliament alone. For this Purpose an amendment bill can be passed by
each of the two Houses of Union Parliament by a majority of its total member-ship
(i.eabsolute majority) and by a two-third majority of
members present and voting in each House. It is a rigid method in so far as it
prescribes a special majority for amending the constitution but it is considered to
be a flexible method because under it the Union Parliament alone can pass any
amendment.
II. Amendment by 2/3rd Majority of the Parliament plus Ratification by at
least half of the several State Legislatures:
In respect of some specified provisions of the Constitution, a very rigid method of
amendment has been prescribed.
In respect of these the amendment-making involves two stages: First, the
amendment bill is to be passed by both the Houses of the Union Parliament by a
majority of total membership and a 2/3rd majority of members present and voting
in each House. Secondly, after this the amendment bill has to secure ratification
from at least heal of the several State Legislatures (now at least 14 state
legislatures). Only then it gets finally passed and incorporated as a part of the
Constitution when the President Puts his signatures on the
bill. The following provisions of the Constitution can be amended by this rigid
method:
(i) Election of the President . (ii) Scope of the executive power of the Union.
(iii)Scope of the executive power of a State.(iv)Provisions regarding High Courts in
Union Territories. (V) Provisions regarding Supreme Court of India. (Vi) Provisions
regarding High Court in States.(Vii) Legislative Relations between the Union and
States. (Viii) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule. (Division of powers between
the Union and states) (ix) Representation of States in the Parliament. (x) The
Provisions of Article 368.(Method of Amendment)
III. Additional Amendment making by A simple Majority in the Two Houses
of Parliament:
In respect of some provisions of the Constitution the Parliament has been given
the power to make necessary changes by passing as a law in the normal way.i.e.
by simple majority of members of both of its Houses. It is, indeed, an easy method
of amendment.
It applies to the following provisions of the Constitution:
(i) A Admission/formation of new States and alternation of areas, boundaries or
names of
existing States.(ii)Citizenship provision (iii)Provision regarding delimitation of
constituencies. (iv) Quorum of the two Houses of Parliament.(v)Privileges and
Salaries and
allowances of the MPs. (Vi)Rule of procedure in each House of the Parliament. (Vii)
English
as a language of the Parliament. (Viii)Appointment of Judges and jurisdiction of
Supreme Court.(ix)Creation or abolition of Upper Houses in any state. (x)
Legislatures for Union Territories. (xi) Elections in the country. (Xii) Official
language of India (xiii) Second, fifth and sixth Schedules of the Constitution.
These methods of amendment reflect a mixture of rigidity and flexibility in the
Indian Constitution.]
4. Consider the following statements.
1.Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed in 1957.
2.Ashok Mehta Committee was set up in 1977.
3.L.M. Singhvi Committee was set up in 1986.
4.G.V.K. Rao committee was set up in 1989.
Which of the statement given above is / are correct?
a) 1, 2 & 3 only
b) 1, 2 & 4 only
c) 1, 3 & 4 only
d) All of the above
Ans: A
Explanation: Self-Explanatory (FOLLOW CLASS ROOM DISCUSSION IN-DETAIL)
1.Panchayati Raj was constitutionalised through the 73rd constitutional
Amendment Act of 1992.
2.Tamil Nadu was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj.
3.Tamil Nadu adopted three-tier system while Rajasthan adopted two-tier system.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 3 only
c) 2 only
d) All of the above
Ans: A
6. Name of the Chairman of the Committee, on whose recommendations
Panchayati Raj system with two tiers was introduced in India:
a) Balwant Rai Mehta
b) Ashok Mehta
c) G.V. K. Rao
d) Dr. L. M. Singhvi
Ans: B
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was formed in 1957 and it recommended the 3-tier
Panchayati Raj system. Ashok Mehta Committee was was formed in 1977 and it
recommended a 2-tier system. G. V. K. Rao Committee was formed in 1985 and it
recommended that Zilla Parishad should be the principal agency to manage all
development programmes at district level. L. M. Singhvi Committe was formed in
1986 and it recommended Constitutional recognition for Panchayats.
7. Panchayati Raj in India represents:
a) Decentralisation of powers
b) Participation of the people
c) Community development
d) All of the above
Ans: D
8.Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of
a) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Block Samiti
b) Gram Panchayat, Block Samiti, Zila Parishad
c) Block Samiti, Zila Parishad, Panchayat Samiti
d) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad
Ans: D
Explanation:Self-Explanatory (FOLLOW CLASS ROOM DISCUSSION IN-DETAIL)
1.21 years to be minimum age for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2.Reservation of one-fourth seats (both members & chair persons) for women in
Panchayats at all the three levels.
3.Panchayati-Raj election is conducted by State Election Commission.
4.Direct elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate
and district level.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct.
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 1 & 3 only
c) 1 & 4 only
d) All of the above
Ans: B
10. Which one of the following scholars described the party system prevailing
in India in the early years of independence as one-party-dominant system?
A) Bhikhu Parekh
B) Paul Brass
C) Granville Austin
D) Rajni Kothari
Ans: D
11. Which of the following currency indicates the features of regional
political parties in India?
1. Regional political parties identify with region's culture.
2. Regional political parties use regional language for their electoral gains.
3. Regional political parties enter into electoral alliance with national parties.
4. Regional political parties are a post-independence political phenomenon.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 and 2
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1, 3 and 4
D) 2 only
Ans: B
12. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A) Communist Party of India was formed in 1925
B) Bharatiya Janata Party was formed in 1978
C) Shiromani Akali Dal was formed in 1920
D) AIADMK was formed in 1972
Ans: B
Self-Explanatory (FOLLOW CLASS ROOM DISCUSSION IN-DETAIL)
13. Growth of regional political parties in India is attributed to which of the
following?
1. Diversified nature of Indian Society
2. Inability to accommodate demands of various sections of society
3. Regional imbalances in the development
4. Factional fight within the larger parties
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B) 1, 3 and 4
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: A
14. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as
18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
a) 60th Amendment /act 1988
b) 61st Amendment Act 1989
c) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
d) None of the above
Ans B
15. Match List I with List II
List I
(Amendments to the Constitution):
A. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment)Act, 1991.
B.The Constitution(Seventy-fifth Amendment)Act, 1994
C.The Constitution (Eighteenth Amendment)Act, 2000
D.The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment)Act,2000
List II:
1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals
2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
3. Constituion of Panchayats in villages or at other local level
4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission
5. According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi
a) A-5,B-1,C-4,D-2
b) A-1,B-5,C-3,D-4
c) A-5,B-1,C-3,D-4
d) A-1,B-5,C-4,D-2
Ans A
16. The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved
the continuation of Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)
beyond 12th Five Year Plan for a period 2017-18 to ____ with a cost of Rs.
14,832 crores?
a) 2020-21
b) 2019-20
c) 2022-23
d) 2018-19
Ans: B
Explanation:
Union Health Minister J P Nadda, said that PMSSY aims to correct regional
imbalances in the availability of affordable tertiary healthcare services and to
expand facilities for quality medical education in India. He said that, the same
number of posts will be created for a 960 bedded hospital for the new AIIMS that
are set up through PMSSY. He added that each new AIIMS will add 100 UG
(MBBS) and 60 B.Sc (Nursing) seats, 15-20 Super Specialty Departments and 750
hospital beds.
17. Which rank does India occupy in the world level list of military spending
as per a report released by Stockholm International Peace Research Institute
(SIPRI) on 2nd May 2018?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1
Ans: A
Explanation:
As per the SIPRI report, New Delhi’s defence spending increased by 5.5 percent to
$63.9 billion in 2017. Now it has surpassed France. Worldwide military spending
increased to $1.73 trillion in 2017, which is nearly 2.2 percent of global gross
domestic product. The list of the world’s biggest military spenders is dominated by
the US and China, which spent $610 billion and $228 billion respectively.
18. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) chaired by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi approved, for the Umbrella Scheme, _____ in
agriculture sector beyond 12th Five Year Plan for the period from 2017-18 to
2019-20?
a) Green Revolution – Krishonnati Yojana
b) Green Revolution – Krishna Rejuvenation
c) Blue Revolution – Krishonnati Yojana
d) White Revolution – Krishonnati Yojana
Ans: A
Explanation:
CCEA has given its approval for the Umbrella Scheme, “Green Revolution –
Krishonnati Yojana” in agriculture sector beyond 12th Five Year Plan for the
period from 2017-18 to 2019-20. “Green Revolution – Krishonnati Yojana” is
geared towards developing the agriculture and allied sector in a holistic and
scientific manner to increase the income of farmers by enhancing production,
productivity and helping them to get better returns on produce. CCEA has
approved its continuation for three financial years, i.e., 2017-18, 2018-19 and
2019-20 at expenditure of Rs.33269.976 crore.
19. National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) has involved which entity to
strengthen the Ganga rejuvenation task by using Geographic Information
System (GIS) technology?
a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
b) Survey of India
c) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
d) Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL)
Ans: B
Explanation:
Survey of India is the oldest scientific department in India. It was established in
1767. Four new projects worth Rs. 531.24 crore were approved recently in the
11th Executive Committee meeting of National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG)
chaired by Rajeev Ranjan Mishra, Director General, NMCG. National Mission for
Clean Ganga (NMCG) works to strengthen planning and implementation at
national/state/local level through the project that has been approved at a cost of
Rs. 86.84 crore. The project involves use of Digital Elevation Model (DEM)
technology for accurate data collection. DEM technology also helps to identify
Critical hotspots. GIS technology will ensure decentralization for Namami Gange
programme. The collected data and actions taken by government can be shared
with public through geo portals and mobile apps.
20. Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister Chandrababu Naidu launched the official
____ App in the Collector’s conference held at Amaravati?
a) ’NCBN’ (Nara Chandrababu Naidu) App
b) ’NCBN’ (New Chandrababu Naidu) App
c) MCBN’ (Mass Chandrababu Naidu) App
d) ’ICBN’ (Interact with Chandrababu Naidu) App
Ans: A
Explanation:
The ‘NCBN’ (Nara Chandrababu Naidu) App has been launched to implement
effective governance in Andhra Pradesh. The app will notify people in real-time
with news updates. It will be a direct platform for the common people to interact
with the government. The NCBN app is available at present on Android and Apple
app stores for download.
21. Where is the 71st Cannes Festival held from 8th to 19th May 2018?
a) Germany
b) Australia
c) United States
d) France
Ans: D
Explanation:
Australian actress Cate Blanchett is the President of the Jury for the Main
competition. The Official festival poster features Jean-Paul Belmondo and Anna
Karina from Jean-Luc Godard’s 1965 film Pierrot le Fou. Out of the 21 films in
contention, only 3 films have female directors. The 2018 Cannes Film festival will
open with ‘Everybody Knows’, a psychological thriller movie.
22. India launched auction for 9th city gas distribution (CGD) licensing round
offering permits for selling compressed (CNG) and PNG. Expand PNG?
a) Petroleum Natural Gas
b) Piped Natural Gas
c) Petroleum Neutral Gas
d) Piped Neutral Gas
Ans: B
Explanation:
This auction is being considered as the biggest so far as it will offer permits for
CGD in 86 geographical areas. 9th CGD licensing round will be different from
previous rounds as certain changes have been made to the bidding conditions in
order to generate greater return from the exercise. One such change is granting
utilities status to CGD networks by the Union Labour Ministry. Weightage to
number of piped gas connections proposed in eight years from the date of
authorisation has been increased from 30% to 50%. In addition to this, a floor
tariff of Rs 30 for city gas and Rs 2 per kg for CNG has been set to prevent bidders
from quoting unviably low tariffs.
23. Pawan Kalyan, actor and Jana Sena Party founder, unfurled the flag,
claimed to be the world’s largest Indian national flag in which state?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Telangana
d) Kerala
Ans: C
Explanation:
Pawan Kalyan unfurled the flag to commemorate the first war of the India’s
independence that took place in 1857. The flag was 122 feet in length and 183 feet
in width. The flag was prepared by an organisation called ‘Vibrants of Kalam’. This
flag is claimed to be world’s largest Indian National Flag. Pawan Kalyan
administered a national integration pledge to youth who attended the event.
24. Astronomers have discovered an unusual, first of its kind, carbon-rich
asteroid in the Kuiper Belt. It has been named as ____?
a) 2004 EW95
b) 2018 WS54
c) 1254 ED45
d) HS 345RT A 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
Kuiper belt is a circum-stellar disc in the outer Solar System, extending from the
orbit of Neptune to approximately 50 astronomical unit (AU) from the Sun. As per
the study, 2004 EW95 seems to have formed in the asteroid belt between Mars
and Jupiter and then would have been flung billions of kms to its current
locations. Researchers have found that 2004 EW95’s reflectance spectrum
(specific pattern of wavelengths of light reflected from an object) is different from
similar small Kuiper Belt Objects.
25. India’s longest road and railway bridge “Bogibeel bridge” is expected to
be inaugurated in 2018 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. It links Dibrugarh
in Assam to Pasighat in which state?
a) Bihar
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Meghalaya
Ans: C
Explanation:
Civil work related to the Bogibeel bridge will be finished by July 2018. Two more
months will be taken to complete electrical and signalling work. The bridge is 4.94
km long. This is said to be the second longest bridge of this kind in Asia. It has
three lane roads on top and double line rail below. The bridge is 32 metres above
the water level of the Brahamaputra River. This bridge will solve logistical issues
for armed forces stationed at the China border to receive supplies from Tezpur.
26. Who makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by
the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts?
A) Finance Commission of the concern State
B) Legislature of the State
C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
D) District Collector
Ans: B
27. Consider the following statements:
In the post 73nd Amendment era, there has to be decentralisation of:
1. Decision-making powers
2. System as a whole
3. Judicial powers
4. Administrative powers
Which of these statements are correct?
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 1, 2 and 4
C) 2, 3 and 4
D) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: B
Explanation:
28. Which one of the following about Article 243 (G) is correct?
A) Panchayats should be enabled by law to function as agents of the State
Government.
B) Panchayats should be enabled by law to function as institutions of self-
government.
C) Panchayats will act as the implementing agencies for centrally sponsored
schemes.
D) Gram Panchayats will be answerable to District Panchayats.
Ans: B
29. Assertion (A): The Constitution of India now provides a mechanism for
regular flow of funds to Panchayati Raj institutions.
Reason (R): The Panchayati Raj institutions have been greatly handicapped
in the performance of their assigned duties by paucity of funds.
Codes:
A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
Ans: B
Explanation:
1. A Panchayat elected in the place of a dissolved one, does not enjoy the full
period but remains in office for the remaining period after the dissolution.
2. In Panchayats, seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes
and women but not for Backward Classes of citizens.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
31.Consider the following statements:
1. Courts have no jurisdiction to examine the validity of a law relating to
delimitation of constituencies or allotment of seats in respect of Panchayats.
2. An election to a Panchayat can be called in question only by an election
petition, which should be presented to such authority and in such manner as may
be prescribed by the State Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
1. According to Article 243D, one-third of the seats are reserved for the Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat.
2. Not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved for the SCs and
STs in every Panchayat are reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled
Castes, or as the case may be, the Scheduled Tribes.
3. Not less than one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in
Panchayats at each level are reserved for women.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c)1 and 3 only
d)1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation:
33.On which of the following subjects, does the Finance Commission of a
State constituted under the Part IX of the Constitution of India make
recommendations to the Governor?
1. Distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the
taxes by the State.
2. Determination of the taxes which may be assigned to or appropriated by the
Panchayats.
3. Grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: A
34. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) Part IX of the Constitution of India pertaining to the Panchayats provided for
setting up of a Finance Commission.
b) Part IX of the Constitution of India pertaining to the Panchayats provided for
vesting all elections to the Panchayats in a State Election Commission.
c) Part IX of the Constitution of India pertaining to the Panchayats provided for
reservation of posts of chairpersons at the village level or any other level for the
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women.
d) Organisation of Village Panchayats is not included in the Directive Principles of
State Policy.
Ans: D
Explanation:
35.Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairperson of a Panchayat at district level is elected in such manner as
the Legislature of the State may provide.
2. Legislature of a State may provide for representation of members of the
Legislative Assembly of the State representing constituencies which comprise
wholly or partly a Panchayat area at a level other than the village level, in such
Panchayat.
3. The Lok Sabha may provide for the representation of its members representing
constituencies which comprise wholly or partly a Panchayat area at a level other
than the village level, in such Panchayat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 2
c) Only 3
d) 2 and 3
Ans: B
36.Consider the following statements with respect to the 73rd Constitutional
Amendment:
1. It envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj System.
2. It provides that Panchayat bodies will have a duration of five years.
3. It stipulates that the Chairperson of a Panchayat shall be elected by and from
amongst the elected members thereof.
4. It has reserved 33 per cent of the seats to Other Backward Classes in
Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2
Ans: D
37.Which of the following provisions can be made by law by a State
Legislature?
1. Representation of the members of the House of People in Panchayats subject to
fulfilling certain conditions
2. Reservation of seats in any Panchayat in favour of backward class of citizens
3. Authorising a Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate taxes
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2, only
c) 2 and 3, only
d) 1 and 3, only
Ans: A
38. What is the minimum population below which Panchayats at the
intermediate level are not constituted as per provision of the Constitution
(Seventy-third Amendment) Act?
a) 20 lakhs
b) 25 lakhs
c) 30 lakhs
d) 35 lakhs
Ans: A
39. Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act that provided for the
establishment of Panchayats also made which of the following provisions?
1. Addition of a new Schedule (XI) to the Constitution listing 29 subjects which are
to be handled by the Panchayats.
2. Addition of a new Schedule (XI) to the Constitution listing 18 subjects which are
to be handled by the Panchayats.
3. Bar on the courts to question the validity of laws relating to delimitation of
constituencies.
4. Reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats in
Panchayats for women (excluding the number of seats reserved for women
belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes).
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 only
Ans: B
40.As per Article 243-H of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the
Legislature of a State, may by law, provide for making grants-in-aid to the
Panchayats from:
a) Contingency Fund of the President
b) Contingency Fund of the Governor
c) Consolidated Fund of the State
d) Consolidated Fund of India
Ans: C
Explanation:
41. Who was appointed as congress president on maximum occassions?
a) Mukhtar Ahmed Ansari
b) Motilal Nehru
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans: C
Explanation:
As the country moved towards independence Nehru and the Congress dominated
Indian politics during the 1930s. Under Nehru's leadership, the Congress
dominated national and state-level politics and won consecutive elections in 1951,
1957, and 1962.
42. Which is the principal opposition party in the Lok Sabha after the
elections of 2004?
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Bhartiya Janta Party
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party
(d) Communist Party of India
Ans: B
43. When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose
of contesting elections and winning power, it is called….
(a) Alliance
(b) Uni-party system
(c) Group
(d) None of these
Ans: A
44. Which of these is the challenge faced by political party?
(a) Lack of internal democracy
(b) Dynastic succession
(c) Growing role of money and muscle power
(d) All of these
Ans: D
45. What is an 'Affidavit'?
(a) Over-regulation of political parties
(b) Decision-making body of the party
(c) Details of a contesting candidate
(d) None of these
Ans: C
46. With reference to the power of parliament to admit into union or
establish new states. Which of the following is true?
1. There is no need of any law by parliament to acquire new territory.
2. There is need of legislation by parliament to establish new state.
Codes
a) Only1
b) Only2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: According to article 2 of constitution of India parliament may by law
admit into the union, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions, as it
thinks fit. According to article 3 of constitution of India parliament may by law
allow formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of
existing states.
47. With reference to the procedure for changing name of the state. Which of
the following is true?
1. Bill for such purpose as to be introduced in loksabha only on the
recommendation of president.
2. Bill for such purpose is constitution amendment bill.
Codes
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation: Bill for such purpose as to be introduced in either of the parliament
only on the recommendation of president. Article 4 of the constitution says that
laws made under article 2 and 3 are not to be deemed to be an amendment of
constitution. Parliament needs to pass the bill only by a simple majority.
48. Which of the following is not valid reason for the demand of statehood?
a) Developmental deficit
b) Cultural identities
c) Population explosion
d) Checking centralising tendency
Answer: d
Explanation: Development deficit, population explosion, cultural identities and
vested interest of political parties are valid reason for demand of statehood.
Demand of statehood weakens centralising tendency
49. What are 'National parties'?
(a) Parties which have units in various states
(b) Parties which have no units
(c) Parties which have units in two states
(d) Parties which have units in all states
Ans: A
50. Which expert committee has recently submitted its report on
Institutionalization of arbitration mechanism in India?
a. B.N. SriKrishna Committee
b. A C Shah Committee
c. Y H Malegam committee
d. BD Thakkar committee
Ans: A
51. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill, after passing by each
House of Parliament, the President:
A) Shall give his assent
B) May give his assent
C) May withhold his assent
D) May return the Bill for reconsideration
Ans: A
52. Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution?
1. Multiple procedures for amendment
2. States are not empowered to initiate amendment
3. Joint-sittings of Parliament to resolve disputes regarding constitutional
amendments.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
53. Which bank has finally agreed to provide a grant to Bangladesh for
meeting the basic needs of around one million Rohingyas who fled their
homeland Myanmar?
a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
b) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
c) World Bank
d) Asian Infrastructure Development Bank (AIIB)
Ans: C
Explanation:
Bangladesh had asked World Bank’s assistance for this cause in October 2017. At
that time, WB offered to provide a mix of soft loans and grant. However,
Bangladesh refused to take loans. World Bank has now agreed to extend the grant
as considering the case of Rohingyas as “exceptional”. WB, which has dealt with
similar refugee crisis in Venezuela, Turkey and some other African countries has
stated that grant provided to Bangladesh should be entirely spent for Rohingyas
only.
54. Name the person who received the DRDO Lifetime Achievement Award –
2016 on May 2018?
a) Dr Hitendra Singh
b) Dr Vasudev Kalkunte Aatre
c) Giridharan S P
d) Pawan Amirtharaj
Answer – B
Explanation:
Former Secretary, Department of Defence R&D, Scientific Advisor to Defence
Minister and Director General, DRDO Dr V K Saraswat was presented DRDO
Lifetime Achievement Award – 2017, while former Secretary, Department of
Defence R&D, Scientific Advisor to Defence Minister and Director General, DRDO
Dr Vasudev Kalkunte Aatre was presented DRDO Lifetime Achievement Award –
2016. Other awardees included distinguished Scientist & Director General
(Missiles & Strategic Systems) Dr G Satheesh Reddy for Technology Leadership
Award – 2016. During the award function, Chairman of DRDO Dr S Christopher e-
launched the ‘Navrachna’ (innovation) implementation programme.
55. Union Environment Minister launched ____ aimed to train over 5.5 lakh
workers in environment and forest sectors through 30 courses by 2021?
a) National Skill Development Programme (NSDP)
b) Green Skill Development Programme (GSDP)
c) Eco Skill Development Programme (ESDP)
d) Digitlal Skill Development Programme (DSDP)
Answer – B
Explanation:
Under this programme 5.5 lakh individuals across India will be provided training
in environment and forest sectors through 30 courses by 2021. Objective of GSDP
is skilling the youth of India, especially dropouts and increasing the availability of
skilled workforce. GSDP was launched last year as a pilot project in 10 districts of
India. In the pilot project, 154 youths (mainly school dropouts) were trained as
parataxonomists and biodiversity conservationists.
56. Which ministry will set up a dedicated web portal for spreading
information on filming locations and production facilities available in India?
a) Ministry of Tourism
b) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
c) Ministry of Science and Technology
d) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer – B
Explanation:
The portal will be of great help to production companies looking to shoot in India
to obtain permissions and explore locations in India. It will aid in acceptance of
the application for shooting feature films, TV and web reality shows, along with
the online payments. It will offer information on locations and link to all state
portals. It will capture detailed information related to a particular location,
resources or facilities available in a standard format.
57. Name the NASA programme which cost $10 million per year to track
carbon and methane that was cancelled on May 2018?
a) Carbon Monitoring System
b) Carbon & Methane Control System
c) Green House Control System
d) Green House Emission Control
Answer – A
Explanation:
The Carbon Monitoring System (CMS) programme tracked sources and sinks for
carbon and developed high-resolution models of earth’s flows of carbon. NASA
said that, United States has cancelled the CMS project due to budget constraints
and higher priorities within the science budget.
58. 58. As per the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, Legislatures of States
have not been conferred the power to empower municipalities with the
responsibility of:
A) Preparation of plans for economic development and social justice
B) Management of law and order
C) Implementation of schemes as may be entrusted to them
D) Levy, collection and appropriation of taxes, duties, tolls, etc.
Ans: B
Explanation:
59. Which one of the following is not correct? Part IX-A of the Constitution
of India pertaining to the Municipalities provides
A) That grants-in-aid be made to the Municipalities from the Consolidated Fund
of the State
B) For setting up a separate Finance Commission for the Municipalities
C) For setting up Committee for District Planning
D) For setting up Committee for Metropolitan Planning
Ans: B
60. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List-I (Items) List-II (Articles)
A. Constitution of Municipalities 1. Article 243Q
B. Reservation of seats in Municipal bodies 2. Article 243T
C. State Finance commission 3. Article 243Y
D. Duration of municipalities 4. Article 243U
Codes:
A) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
B) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
C) A-3 B-1 C-1 D-4
D) A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2
Ans: B
61. With reference to regionalism, consider the following statements:
1. Regionalism is a disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying
force.
2. Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
1. The Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries of any existing State of
India.
2. A Bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of
India can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and only on the recommendation
of the President of India.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
63. The Parliament of India passed the States Reorganisation Act in 1956 to
create;
A) 16 States and 3 Union Territories
B) 15 States and 5 Union Territories
C) 14 States and 6 Union Territories
D) 24 States and 9 Union Territories
Ans: C
64. What is the correct chronological order in which the following States of
the Indian Union were created or granted full statehood?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Nagaland
3. Maharashtra
4. Haryana
A) 1-3-4-2
B) 3-1-2-4
C) 1-3-2-4
D) 3-1-4-2
Ans: C
65. Consider the following statements with reference to the linguistic
reorganisation of states in independent
India:
1. The separate state of Andhra for the Telugu people came into existence in
1953.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in favour of the movement for linguistic
reorganisation of states that came in the wake of the success of the Andhra
movement.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
66. Who, among the following, was not a member of the States
Reorganisation Commission (SRC) appointed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru?
A) Justice Fazi Ali
B) Potti Sriramulu
C) K.M. Panikkar
D) Hridayanath Kunzru
Ans: B
67. Which of the following sentences is/are true?
1) Since formation of new states under Article 3 involves changing the First and
Fourth Schedule, it needs special majority in both houses of Parliament.
2) The 10th Constitutional Amendment Act (1960) was enacted to transfer the
Berubari Union to Pakistan.
Codes:
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer Explanation
Ans: D
Explanation:
Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to :
(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or
more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,
(b) increase the area of any state;
(c) diminish the area of any state;
(d) alter the boundaries of any state; and
(e) alter the name of any state.
However, a bill regarding the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament
only with the prior recommendation of the President.
Also, before recommending the bill, the President must refer the same to the state
legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and
may either acceptor reject them, even if the views are received in time.
Further, it is not required to make a fresh reference to the state legislature every
time an amendment to the bill is moved and accepted in Parliament. In case of a
union territory, no reference need be made to the concerned legislature.
Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit.
Also, the Parliament can form new states or union territory by uniting a part of
any state or union territory to any other state or union territory (By 18th
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1966).
Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will without the
state consent.
Thus, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed
by the Constitution.
Therefore, India is rightly described as 'an indestructible union of destructible
states’.
The Union government can destroy the states whereas the state governments
cannot destroy the Union.
In USA, the territorial integrity of a state is guaranteed by the Constitution.
The American Federal government cannot form new states or alter the borders of
existing states without the consent of the states concerned. Hence USA is
described as ‘an indestructible union of indestructible states.’
Article 4 declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states
(under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries
or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as
amendments of the Constitution under Article 368.
This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the
ordinary legislative process.
The decision of the Central government to cede part of a territory known as
Berubari Union (West Bengal) to Pakistan led to controversy and necessitated the
Presidential reference in 1960 to the Supreme Court.
The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a
state (under Article 3) does not cover cession of Indian territory to a foreign
country.
Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution
under Article 368.
The 9th Constitutional Amendment Act (1960) was enacted to transfer the said
territory to Pakistan.
Supreme Court in 1969 also ruled that, settlement of a boundary dispute between
India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment.
It can be done by executive action as it does not involve cession of Indian territory
to a foreign country.
68. I STEM currently in news is a
A. Portal for collaboration in Stem cell research.
B. Portal for child abuse complaints
C. Portal for reforestation resource sharing.
D. Portal for sharing of research facilities
Answer: D
Explanation:
The portal — Indian Science, Technology and Engineering Facilities Map (I-STEM)
It will soon become operational. The government green signalled the project last
month.
The institutions and organisations that have the equipment and facilities will
provide access to researchers for both academic and non-academic work through
an online reservation system.
Benefits of I - STEM
“This initiative will have many benefits.
It will provide access to researchers to any equipment or facility that has been
procured using public funds,
the equipment will be better utilised
it will avoid duplication of expensive equipment as much as possible,
Sharing expensive equipment can bring down the cost of doing research in India.”
69. Which of the organizations given below does not have India as their
member
1.BIMSTEC
2.Arctic Council
3.ASIAN
4.NAFTA
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
A. 2,3 and 4
B. 3,4 and 1
C. 4,1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
India is a member of BIMSTEC only.
70. Which of the following is/are true about Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala yojna ?
1.It aims to distribute free LPG gas cylinder
2.To be entitled for this scheme a person should be subscriber under PAHAL
scheme
3.Beneficiaries of PMAY(Prdhan Mantri Aawas Yojna)Gramin are entitled for this
scheme
choose the correct codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Under this scheme women from BPL category entitled for free LPG connection.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=13764
71. Consider the following statements in regard to Saubhgya Scheme :
1.It aims to achieve universal household electrification in the country.
2.It also provides free connections to urban poor.
3.Identification of the beneficiaries under it should be made on the basis of Socio
Economic Caste Survey 2011.
Which of the above statements is correct ?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
The objective of the ‘Saubhagya’ is to provide energy access to all by last mile
connectivity and electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households
in rural as well as urban areas to achieve universal household electrification in
the country.
72. To whom does the Chairperson of every Metropolitan Planning
Committee forward the development plan, as recommended by such a
Committee?
A) The Planning Commission
B) The Finance Minister, Government of India
C) The Urban Development Minister, Government of India
D) The Government of the State
Ans: D
73. Which of the following is correct in respect of financial powers of local
governments in India?
A) Local Governments have constitutionally earmarked taxation powers.
B) Local Governments are empowered to levy such taxes as are permitted under
the law.
C) Local Governments are empowered to levy charges on all items within their
sphere of activities.
D) Local Governments are empowered to levy taxes with the permission of the
department concerned.
Ans: B
74. Which of the following units of urban local self-government does not have
a constitutional foundation?
A) Cantonment Boards
B) Municipal Councils
C) Municipal Corporations
D) Nagar Panchayats
Ans: A
75. In India, the Community Development Programme was started on?
A. 2nd October 1965
B. 2nd October 1952
C. 2nd October 1975
D. 2nd October 1985
Answer: B

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