Chapter 09: An Introduction to Microbial Genetics

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include A. Chromosomes B. Plasmids

C. Mitochondrial DNA D. Chloroplast DNA E. All of the choices are correct

2. Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes

have A. Histone proteins B. Chromosomes in a nucleus C. Several to many chromosomes
D. Elongated, not circular, chromosomes E. All of the choices are correct
3. Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype? A. Is inherited B. Are
structural genes coding for proteins C. Are genes coding for RNA D. Are regulatory genes
controlling gene expression E. Are the expressed traits governed by the genes
4. The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell. A. Chromosome B. Plasmid C.
Prophage D. Genome E. Proteome
5. A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the A. Nuclear membrane B. rRNA
C. mRNA D. Histone E. Nucleolus
6. Each _____ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one
functional product. A. Intron B. Exon C. Gene D. Operator E. Triplet
7. The expression of genetic traits is the A. Genome B. Genotype C. Proteome D.
Phenotype E. Proteotype
8. The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called A. Histones B. Amino acids
C. Nucleotides D. mRNA E. Polymerases
9. Which is incorrect about purines? A. Only found in DNA, not in RNA B. Are
nitrogenous bases C. Always paired with a specific pyrimidine D. Include adenine and
guanine E. Found within nucleotides
10. The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to A. Each base bonding at
the 1' position of the sugar B. A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine C. One helix strand
that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction D. An
original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA
molecule E. None of the choices are correct
11. All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except A. Form pairs by hydrogen
bonding B. Guanine pairs with uracil C. Adenine pairs with thymine D. Cytosine and
thymine are pyrimidines E. Allows variation from one nucleotide to another which creates
the encoded information

12. Each nucleotide is composed of A. One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar B.
One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars C. Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base,
one sugar D. Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars E. One phosphate, two
nitrogenous bases, one sugar
13. Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds. A. Peptide B. Non polar covalent
C. Polar covalent D. Hydrogen E. Sulfhydryl
14. The duplication of a cell's DNA is called A. Mitosis B. Replication C. Transcription
D. Translation E. Mutation
15. Structural genes code for A. Ribosomal RNA molecules B. Transfer RNA molecules
C. Cellular proteins D. Gene expression elements E. All of the choices are correct
16. During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA
strands. A. Copy point B. Template C. Comparison molecule D. Scaffold E. Reservoir
17. Semiconservative replication refers to A. Each base bonding at the 1' position of the
sugar B. A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine C. One helix strand that runs from the 5'
to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction D. An original parent DNA
strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule E. None of
the choices are correct
18. DNA polymerase III A. Is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis B.
Synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction C. Cannot add nucleotides to the lagging
strand D. Synthesizes an RNA primer E. All of the choices are correct

19. Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by A. DNA
ligase B. DNA polymerase C. DNA helicase D. DNA gyrase E. Primase
20. The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is:
A. DNA ligaseB. DNA polymeraseC. DNA helicaseD. DNA gyraseE. Primase
21. The enzyme that can proofreads replicating DNA, detects incorrect bases, excises them,
and correctly replaces them is A. DNA ligaseB. DNA polymeraseC. DNA helicaseD. DNA
gyraseE. Primase
22. The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is
called the A. Primer B. Okazaki fragment C. Template D. Rolling circle E. Replication
fork
23. DNA gyrase A. Unwinds DNA B. Supercoils DNA C. Cleaves DNA D. Joins free
DNA ends E. None of the choices are correct
24. Helicase A. Unwinds DNA B. Supercoils DNA C. Unwinds RNA D. Winds RNA E.
None of the choices are correct

25. DNA Polymerase I A. Removes primers B. Adds bases to new DNA chain C. Seals
DNA gaps D. Proofreads DNA chain E. All of the choices are correct

26. DNA Polymerase III A. Synthesizes primer B. Removes primer C. Joins Okazaki
fragments D. Unzips the DNA helix E. Proofreads new DNA
27. A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n) A. Translation
B. Transcription C. Mutation D. Alteration E. Regeneration
28. Replication of DNA begins at a(n) A. Guanine-cytosine rich area B. Uracil-adenine
rich area C. Adenine-thymine rich area D. Adenine-cytosine rich area E. Guanine-adenine
rich area
29. A primer of ____ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition. A. Polymerase III
B. Polymerase IC. HelicaseD. RNAE. DNA
30. Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one A.
Protein B. Nucleotide C. Amino acid D. Purine E. None of the choices are correct

31. The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a(n) A. Codon
B. ExonC. AnticodonD. IntronE. Triplet
32. The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are
called A. Ribosomal RNA B. Messenger RNA C. Transfer RNA D. Primer RNA E.
Ribozymes
33. This molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene on the DNA template strand A.
Ribosomal RNA B. Messenger RNA C. Transfer RNA D. Primer RNA E. Ribozymes
34. RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA A. Has ribose B. Has
uracil C. Is typically one strand of nucleotides D. Does not have thymine E. All of the
choices are correct
35. All of the following pertain to transcription except A. Occurs on a ribosome in the
cytoplasm B. Occurs before translation C. Requires RNA polymerase D. Requires a
template DNA strand E. Is a process of protein synthesis

36. The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to nitiate
transcription is called the A. Promoter B. Operator C. Operon D. Exon E. Intron

37. RNA polymerase binds to the A. Start codon B. Termination sequence C. Regulation
sequence D. Promoter sequence E. None of the choices are correct

38. Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA? A. Has a bottom hairpin loop
with an anticodon B. An anticodon is complementary to a codon C. Contains a binding site
for an amino acid D. The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC E.
Initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan
39. If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is A. GCA B. CGT C. ACG D.
CGU E. UGC
40. The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except A. Contain codons
within their rRNA moleculesB. Participate only in translationC. Bind to the 5' end of mRNA
by their small subunitD. Use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding
E. Shift toward the 3'end of the mRNA strand from one codon to the next
41. Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons? A. Are also called
nonsense codonsB. Where the bond between the final tRNA and the growing polypeptide is
brokenC. Include AUGD. Include UAA, UAG, UGAE. Do not have corresponding tRNA
42. Which of the following is not associated with a prokaryotic ribosome? A. Is a 70s B.
Has a peptide (P) site C. Has an exit site D. Small unit provides the enzymes for making
peptide bonds E. Has an amino acid (A) site
43. A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an A. Promoter
B. Operator C. Operon D. Exon E. Intron
44. Split genes A. Are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes B. Only have exons initially
transcribed to mRNA C. Have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding
region D. Use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons E. All of the choices are
correct
45. Which is incorrect about inducible operons? A. Have genes turned off by a buildup of
end product B. Are often for catabolic pathways C. Are normally turned off D. Are turned
on by the substrate of the enzyme E. Include the lac operon
46. The gene of an operon that codes for a protein repressor is called the A. Operator
B. Structural locusC. RegulatorD. PromoterE. None of the choices are correct
47. Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires A. Repressor alone bound to operator B.
Substrate bound to repressor C. Substrate bound to promoter D. Co repressor and repressor
binding to operator E. None of the choices are correct
48. Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by A. Repressor alone bound to operator
B. Substrate bound to repressor C. Substrate bound to promoter D. Corepressor and
repressor binding to operator E. None of the choices are correct
49. Full induction of the lactose operon requires A. Lactose present B. Lactose and glucose
present C. Lactose present without glucose D. Lactose and arabinose present E. All of the
choices induce the lactose operon
50. The lactose repressor A. Is transcribed with the structural lac genes B. Is activated by
binding lactose C. Is inactivated by binding lactose D. Requires lactose for its transcription
E. None of the choices are correct
51. Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating
transcription. A. DNA polymerase I B. DNA polymerase III C. RNA polymerase D.
mRNA E. rRNA
52. Repressible operons require that _____ bind to the repressor protein before it can bind to
the operator. A. The product B. A cofactor C. A coenzyme D. The substrate E. The
reactant
53. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a A. Point mutation
B. Silent mutation C. Back mutation D. Missense mutation E. Nonsense mutation
54. The most serious type of mutation is a A. Point mutation B. Silent mutation C.
Frameshift mutation D. Back mutation E. All the choices are equally serious

55. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of
mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T? A. Missense B.
Nonsense C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent
56. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of
mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT? A. Missense B.
Nonsense C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent
57. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of
mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)? A. Missense B. Nonsense
C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent
58. A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations? A. Missense and insertion B. Missense
and nonsense C. Nonsense and deletion D. Deletion and insertion E. Insertion and nonsense
59. What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for? A. Silent
B. Back C. Point D. Nonsense E. Missense
60. A screening system called the _____ test is used for detecting chemicals with
carcinogenic potential. A. Koch B. Ames C. Mutation D. Cancer E. Iowa

61. The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called A.
Transduction B. Excision repair C. Frameshift D. Back-mutation E. Transformation

62. Bacterial conjugation involves A. Bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient
cell B. A donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus C. Naked DNA fragments from a
lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell D. New progeny cells with genes from two
parent bacterial cells E. None of the choices are correct
63. Which cell can transfer the most DNA? A. F+ cell B. F- cell C. Hfr cell D. R cell E. B
cell
64. Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination? A.
Transformation B. Conjugation C. Mitosis D. Transduction E. None of the above
65. Which of the following is not true of conjugation? A. Involves direct contact between
cells B. Transfers genes for drug resistance C. Transfers genes for enzymes and adherence
molecules D. Transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule E. The donor retains a copy of
the transferred genes
66. Hfr transfer involves all of the following except A. Gene integration into the bacterial
chromosome B. Plasmid gene transfer C. F factor is part of the F+ donor chromosome D.
High frequency transfer E. A pilus connection between F+ and F- cells

67. The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that
results in a changed recipient cell is A. Transduction B. Conjugation C. Transformation D.
Transmission E. Mitosis
68. The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a
temperate phage can occur in A. Bacterial conjugation B. Transformation C. Generalized
transduction D. Specialized transduction E. All of the choices are correct
69. A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an
example of A. Conjugation B. Generalized transduction C. Specialized transduction D.
Creation of an Hfr cell E. None of the choices are correct
70. The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by A. Conjugation B.
Transposons C. Transformation D. Transduction E. Transmission
71. Which of the following is not true of transposons? A. Can change pigmentation B. Can
replace damaged DNA C. Can transfer drug resistance D. Can change the genome E. Are
always part of plasmids
72. Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of
biology? A. DNA information cannot be converted into RNA information B. Protein
information can be converted into DNA information C. RNA can be used to regulate gene
function D. DNA codes for proteins E. All of these

73. In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough non-encapsulated

Streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated Streptococci in the presence of the
heat- killed smooth encapsulated Streptococci. What is the term that describes this process?
A. transduction B. conjugation C. transformation D. cloning

74. Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis? A. penicillin
B. tetracyclineC. chloramphenicolD. ciprofloxacinE. Both B and C

True / False Questions

75. The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome. FALSE
76. DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the old 3' DNA end. TRUE
77. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. FALSE
78. Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid. TRUE
79. In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine. TRUE
80. Introns have no detectable functions. FALSE
81. Excised introns form structures called lariats. TRUE
82. Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon. FALSE
83. Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell. TRUE
84. Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication. FALSE
85. DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to
ultraviolet radiation. TRUE
86. All mutations are harmful to the cell. FALSE