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CHEMISTRY BOOK 1 MCQS


UNIT NO. (01) E. 10.00

7. Calculate the volume of O2 at STP for the complete


1. For a particular organic compound, which of combustion two moles of carbon disulphide which
the following pairs can represent the empirical produces CO2 and SO2.
and the molecular formula respectively? A. 130 dm³
B. 134.4 dm³
A. CH and CH4
C. 89.6 dm³
B. CH and C6H6
D. 44.8 dm³
C. CH2 and C2H2 E. 22.4 dm³
D. CH2 and C2H3
E. CH3 and C3H6 8. What is the volume in cm3 of 3.01 x 1023
molecules of O2 gas at S.Т.Р.?
2. Empirical formula mass and molecular mass A. 1000 cm3
are related as: B. 11000 cm3
A. Empirical formula mass x 2 = molecular mass C. 1120 cm3
B. Empirical formula mass x n = molecular mass D. 11200 cm3
C. Molecular mass x n = Empirical formula mass
D. Molecular mass x empirical formula mass = n 9. Which of the following pair has similar
E. Molecular mass x2 = empirical formula mass empirical formula?
A. C2H2 & C6H6
3. 2grams of H2 molecules contain ______ B. C4H8 & C2H4
molecules. С. С5H10 & C6H12
A. 12.04 x 1023 D. all have same empirical formula
B. 6.02 x 1023
C. 3.01 x 1023 10. 8 grams of O2 gas contains:
D. 1.008 A. 25mol
E. 2
B. 2.5mol
C. 0.25mol
4. Which of the following has same empirical
D. 0.025mol
and molecules formulas?
E. 0.001mol
A. CH4
B. H2O
11. Characteristic of 100 is:
C. NaCl
A. zero
D. MgO
B. one
E. All of the above
C. two
D. three
5. The number of atoms in 9.2 g of Na will be:
E. four
A. 6.2 x 1023 atoms
B. 2.408 x 1023 atoms 12. A limiting reactant is the one which:
C. 9.2 x1023 atoms A. is taken in lesser quantity in grams as
D. 23 atoms
compared to reactants
E. 9.2 atoms
B. is taken in lesser quantity in volume as
compared to other reactants
6. The significant figure for 1.41 x 3.546 is:
C. gives the maximum amount of product which
A. 15.100
is required
B. 5.00
D. gives the minimum amount of product under
C. 8.00
consideration
D. 6.50
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A. 0.5
13. If 1.0 g of the sample of butane, a B. 1.0
hydrocarbon fuel was burned in an excess of C. 2.0
oxygen to yield 3.03 g of CO2 and 1.55 g of H2O, D. 4.0
the molecular mass of the compound is 58, find
the percentage of Carbon: 19. The relative molecular mass of Carbon
A. 303 %
Dioxide is 44. What is the mass of 24dm3 of
B. 155%
C. 58% Carbon Dioxide at RTP?
D. 83% A. 44
E. 17% B. 22
C. 11
14. At standard temperature and pressure (STP), D. 12
0.5 moles of a gas occupy a volume of
A. 22.4 dm³ 20. When 0.24g of Magnesium is reacted with
B. 89.6 dm³ excess HCl, what volume of gas is liberated at
C. 11.2 dm³
RTP?
D. 44.8 dm³
E. 51.4 dm³ A. 120 cm3
B. 240 cm3
15. The mole of Ethanol and one mole of Ethane C. 360 cm3
have an equal D. 3600 cm3
A. Mass
B. Number of atoms 21. 10g of metal (relative atomic mass 40) are
C. Number of electrons liberated by the passage of 0.5 moles of
D. Number of molecule
electrons through molten chloride. What is the
16. An oxide of titanium contains 60% Ti. What is its
formula of chloride?
empirical formula for this oxide? A. M2CL
A. TiO B. MCL
B. Ti2O3 C. MCL4
C. TiO2 D. MCL2
D. Ti2O6
22. The no. of atoms nitrogen represented in the
17. The Empirical Formula of a liquid compound formula NH4NO is,
to be C2H40. What other information is needed A. 1
to work out its molecular formula? B. 2
A. The Percentage composition of the C. 3
compound D. 4
B. The Relative molecular mass of the
compound 23. The formula which indicates the relative
C. The density of the compound numbers of different kinds of the atoms in a
D. The Volume occupied by 1 mole of the molecule is called:
compound A. Structural formula
B. Empirical formula
18. If four moles of Sulphur Dioxide are oxidized C. C) Molecular formula
to Sulphur Trioxide. How many moles of oxygen D. None of the above
are required?
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A. 55 dm3
24. Characteristic of number 1000 (in log) is:- B. 20 dm3
C. 58 5dm3
A. 3
D. 22 4dm3
B. 2
C. 4
32. 1 ounce pressure of gas at STP contains:
D. 0
A. 224000 cubic meter
B. 22 4 cubic meter
25. Chemistry is the study of: C. 22 4400 cubic meter
A. Chemicals D. 0.0224 cubic meter
B. Acids
C. Base 33. The traid contain chlorine 35.5 and iodine give
D. Water the atomic mass of bromine:
E. None of the above A. 80
B. 81
26. Period three elements have: C. 72
A. Same atomic no D. 90
B. Same atomic mass
C. Principal quantum no. 34. Final zeros to the right of the decimal point are:
D. Azimuthal No A. Non-significant
B. Necessarily not significant
27. What happens when no of moles of gas are C. Significant
doubled at a fixed volume: D. b and c
A. Pressure doubles
B. Pressure is reduced to 1/2 35. Elements ware arranged in ascending order in
C. Pressure is reduced by 1/4 the periodic table by:
D. Pressure stays the same A. Mendeleev
B. Dobereiner
28. 1gm of hydrogen contains how many number of C. Newland
molecules: D. Moosely
A. 6.02 x 1023 molecules
B. 3.01 x 1023 molecules 36. The percentage of nitrogen in ammonia is given
C. 0 molecules by the expression:
D. 1.04 x 1023 molecules A. 14/17 x 100
B. 7/17 x 100
29. Noble gases have electronic configuration of: C. 4/17 x 100
A. ns2, np4 D. 17/14 x 100
B. ns1, np6
C. ns2 , np6 37. An oxide of nitrogen contains 30.4% of nitrogen,
D. ns , np what is the mole ratio of:
A. 5
30. Which of the following is/are electropositive B. 4
elements: C. 2
A. Alkali Metals D. 7
B. D) Alkaline Earth metals
C. Halogens 38. On the upper right corner of periodic table is:
D. Both 'a' and 'b' A. Non-metal
B. Metals
31. 80 gm Oxygen occupies the volume of C. Metalloids

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D. Solids 46. What would be the volume of O2 required to
produce 100 cm3 of SO2 at S.TP2
39. Elements of a same group have: 2H2S + 3O2→2H2O + 2SO2
A. Same size A. 100 cm3
B. Same reactivity B. 150 cm3
C. Same chemical properties C. 48 cm3
D. Same physical properties D. 24 cm3

40. No. of moles of CO2 which contain 8.0g of oxygen 47. What is the volume of 22 grams CO2 at S.T.P?
A. 0.25 A. 24 x 103 cm3
B. 0.5 B. 11 x 103 cm3
C. 1 C. 6 x 103 cm3
D. 1.5 D. 48 x 103 cm3
41. The second and third periods contain:
A. 18 elements each 48. Mandleev’s periodic table was based on:
B. 32 elements each A. Atomic number
C. 8 elements each B. Atomic mass
D. 14 elements each C. Atomic volume
D. Electronic configuration
42. 23g of sodium is present in
A. 1 atom of sodium 49. What volume of SO2 at s.t.p is given off on
B. 23 atoms of sodium heating 9.7 gm of Zinc Sulphide? (Zn-65, S=32, O =16)
C. 1 gram atom of sodium 2ZnS +3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
D. 1 mole of sodium A. 1.2 dm3
E. c and d B. 2.2 dm3
C. 3.6 dm3
43. How many atoms of oxygen present in 100 grams D. 4.8 dm3
of CaCO3?
A. 12.04 x 1023 atoms 50. How many moles of oxygen O2 are needed for a
B. Avogadro's number atoms complete combustion of two moles of butane C4H10?
C. 18.06 x 1023 atoms A. 2
D. 3.01x 1023 atoms B. 8
C. 10
44. What mass of ammonia (NH3) occupies 44.8 dm3 D. 13
at S.T.P?
A. 17 grams 51. The number of atoms in 3 molecules in Na,
B. 10 grams CO.20H20.
C. 34 grams A. 36
D. 100 grams B. 72
C. 108
45. What is the molecular and empirical formula of D. 198
the Ethanoic acid?
M. Formula Empirical Formula 52. An element X forms compound having formula
A. C2H4O C2H4O Na2X3, XO2 and OX3. What is X likely to be?
B. C2H4O2 CH2O A. Carbon
C. C2H4O2 C2H4O2 B. Chlorine
D. C2H6O C2H6O C. Nitrogen
D. Sulphur

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53. Which one of the following is the molecular C. 5
formula of hydrocarbon which contains 80% by mass D. 4
of carbon.
A. CH4 60. Molecular mass of Na2 S2 O3 is:
B. C2H4 A. 158 gms
C. C2H6 B. 140 gms
D. C3H6 C. 7 gms
D. 200 gms
54. Zinc reacts with O2 as:
2ZnS + 3O2 → 2 Zn O+ SO2 61. Which of the following compound contains the
What volume of O2 at S.T.P is required to react with highest % of Nitrogen?
194 g of Zns A. Ammonia
A. 3 dm3 B. NH2 CO2 NH4
B. 36 dm3 C. (NH11)2 CO3
C. 3 x 24 dm3 D. N2H4
D. 3 x 32 dm3 62. Which one of the following compound does not
have the empirical formula CH2O?
55. The elements of group IlA are called: A. CH3COOH
A. Metals B. C2H5OH
B. Non -metals C. C6H12O6
C. Alkaline earth metals D. HCHO
D. Transition metals
63. Which one of the following is molecular formula
56. In case of transition metals the last electron are of a hydrocarbon which contains 85.7% carbon and
received in: 14.3% Hydrogen by mass?
A. d-orbitals A. CH2
B. s-orbitals B. CH4
C. P-orbitals C. C2H2
D. f-orbitals D. C2H4

57. The number of atoms in 5 molecules of CUSO4. 64. Which one of the following does not exist as a
5H2O diatomic molecule?
A. 21 A. Chlorine
B. 105 B. Hydrogen
C. 6.0 x1023 C. Helium
D. 42 D. Oxygen
E. Nitrogen
58. The ratio of rates of diffusion of 2 gases A&B is
1:5. If the relative molecular mass of A is 16, find the 65. If 11 g of carbon dioxide of x molecules, how
relative molecular mass of B) many molecules are there in 7 g of nitrogen gas?
A. 11 A. 1/2 X
B. 24 B. X
C. 36 C. 2x
D. 7 D. 4x
E. 8x
59. How many significant figures are in 502.70?
A. 6 66. If 50 g water is completely decomposed into
B. 3 hydrogen and oxygen, the total mass of gas obtained
will be:
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A. 18 g 72. The formula of a metallic oxide is MO. This oxide
B. 30 g contains 60% by mass of the element M. The relative
C. 36 g atomic mass of M is calculated to be:
D. 50 g A. 8
E. 75 g B. 12
C. 24
67. 80 g of bromine gas have the same number of D. 48
molecule as: E. 84
A. 24 dm3 of carbon dioxide
B. 2 g hydrogen 73. How many moles of oxygen O2 are needed for a
C. 0.5 mole of nitrogen dioxide complete combustion of two moles of butane CaH1o?
D. 28 g of nitrogen A. 2
E. 0.2 mole of chlorine B. 8
C. 10
68. 0.2 moles of gaseous hydrocarbon Z gives 8.8gm D. 13
of carboa dioxide and 5.4 of water on complete E. 6
combustion in oxygen. The empirical formula of Z is:
A. CH 74. Zinc reacts with O2 as:
B. C2H2 2Zn S + 3O2 → 2Zn O + SO2
C. CH3 What volume of O2 at S.T.P is required to react with
D. CH4 194 g of Zns?
E. C2H6 A. 3 dm3
B. 36 dm3
69. Which of the following substances has the most C. 3 x 24 dm3
number of atoms? D. 3 x 32 dm3
A. 7g nitrogen E. 2 x 24 dm3
B. 7g magnesium
C. 7g oxygen 75. An oxide of titanium contains 60% Ti. What is its
D. 7g Sulphur dioxide empirical formula for this oxide?
E. 7g carbon dioxide A. TiO
B. Ti2O3
70. Which of the following has the highest C. TiO2
percentage of hydrogen by mass? D. Ti2O6
A. Water E. None
B. Methane
C. Ammonia 76. Forty-four grams of carbon dioxide at STP have:
D. Ethanol A. 6.02x1023 molecules
E. Ammonium hydroxide B. 12.04x1023 molecules
C. 2 gram molecular weight or 2 moles
71. How many moles of hydrogen atoms are in 2.3 g D. None of these
of ethanol?
A. 0.05 77. What would be the volume of O2 required to
B. 0.3 produce 100 cm3 of SO2 at S.T.P?
C. 0.5 2H2S + 3O2 → 2H2O + 2SO2
D. 1.15 The volume of gas at S.T.P is 24 cm3
E. 1.5 A. 100 cm3
B. 150 cm3
C. 48 cm3

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D. 24 cm3
84. How much atoms are present in 60 gm of Cu
78. How many moles of oxygen O2 are needed for a SO4.5H2O
complete combustion of two moles of butane C4H10? (Cu=63.5, S=32, O=16, H=1)?
A. 21 A. 6 x 1023 atoms
B. 8 B. 0.05 x 1023 atoms
C. 10 C. 1.9 x 1023 atoms
D. 13 D. 30 x 1023 atoms

79. Given the equation: 85. 2 grams of H2 molecule contain ________


C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (g) molecules.
At STP, How many liters of O2 (g) are needed to A. 12.04 x 1023
completely burn 5.0 liters of C3H8 (g)? B. 6.02 x 1023
A. 5.0 C. 3.01 x 1023
B. 10 D. 1.008
C. 10.5 E. 2
D. 15
E. 25 86. The unit of viscosity is
80. Given the reaction: A. Joule
C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 + 4H2O (g) B. N/m2
At STP, how many liters of O2 (g) are needed to C. dynes/cm
completely burn 5.0 liters of C3H8 (g): D. poises
A. 5 E. ergs
B. 10
С. 10.5 87. Non-stoichiometric compounds are formed by:
D. 15 A. only alkali metals
E. 25 B. only transition elements
C. only noble gases
81. Only two elements are present in: D. none of the above
A. Period -1
B. Period-2 88. In the final answer of the expression:
C. Period -3 (𝟐𝟗−𝟐𝟎.𝟐)(𝟏.𝟕𝟗 𝐗 𝟏𝟎 𝟓 )
the number of significant figures
D. Period-4 𝟏.𝟑𝟕
E. Period -5 is:
A. 1
82. By heating 25g of limestone (CaCO3) the weight B. 2
of carbon dioxide produced is C. 3
A. 14g D. 4
B. 71g
C. 11g 89. If we take 2.2 grams of CO2, 6.02 x 1021 atoms of
D. 2g nitrogen and 0.03gram atoms of Sulphur, then the
E. 10g molar ratio of C, N and O atoms will be:
A. 1:2:5
83. What is the volume of 22.4 gm CO2 at S.T.P? B. 5:1:2
A. 24 x 103 cm3 C. 2:5:3
B. 11 x 103 cm3 D. 5:1:3
C. 6 x 103 cm3
D. 48 x 103 cm3
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90. The chemical analysis of a compound having 95. A sample of gas weighs 1.25 g, at 28°C occupying
molecular mass 188 gives, C = 12.8%, H = 2.1% and Br a volume of 2.50x102 ml and its pressure is 715 torr,
= 85.1%, its molecular formula is: what is the molar mass in grams?
A CH2Br A. 131.1
B. C2H4Br2 B. 1.311
C. C2H4Br C. 1.212
D. CH2(Br)2 D. 122.1
E. C2H2 (Br)3
96. Which of the following is the chemical formula of
91. Atomic number of C is 6 and H is 1. How a compound indicating the relative number of atoms
many electrons are present in 1.6 grams of in the simplest ratio?
methane? A. Empirical formula
A. 6.02 x 1023 B. Empirical formula mass
B. 1.204 x 1023 C. Molecular formula
C. 1.806 x 1023 D. Molecular mass
D. 2.408×1023
E. 3.01 x 1023

92. When 20cm3 of a gaseous hydrocarbon were


UNIT NO. (02)
completely burnt in an excess of oxygen, 60cm3 of
carbon dioxide and 40cm3 of water vapours were 1. The rate of diffusion of a gas having molecular
formed, all volumes being measured at same weight just double of N2 gas is 56 mL s-1. The
temperature and pressure. What is the formula of rate of diffusion of N2 will be:
the hydrocarbon?
A. 79.19 mL s-1
А. С2H6
B. 56 mL s-1
В. С3Н4
C. C3H6
C. 112.0 mL s-1
D. С3Н8 D. 90.0 mL s-1
E. C4H10 E. 210 m s-1

93. The molecular formula express: 2. The basic structure of crystalline substances is
A. Relative number of Atoms and Electrons called:
B. Actual number of Atoms A. unit cell
B. molecule
C. Both relative and actual number of atoms
C. lattice
D. None of the above
D. geode
E. matrix
94. What volume in dm3 of KCI is obtained in the
following equation? 3. Relative rates of diffusions of two gases X and Y
2KClO3 ---> 2KCI + 3O2 are found to be 3:2. If the density of Y is 27 the
A. 2 dm3 density of X is.
B. 74.5 dm3 A. 27
C. 50 dm3 B. 54
C. 4
D. 40 dm3
D. 12
E. 20 dm3
4. Which pair of gases have same rate of
diffusion at STP
A. H2 and Ne
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B. O2 and CO D. Boyle's Law, Dalton's Law and Avogadro's Law
C. CO2 and C3H8 E. All of the above
D. CO2 and SO2
11. In the Boyle's Law, if the volume of a gas is
5. Viscosity of liquids depends upon plotted versus the reciprocal of the pressure, the
A. Temperature curve obtained is:
B. Size of molecule A. parabolic curve
C. Shape of molecule B. hyperbole curve
E. All of the above C. straight line
D. symbolic
6. According to the Ideal Gas Law, what is the E. all of the above
approximate volume that Will be occupied by
0.6 moles of an ideal gas at 30°C and 3 atm 12. "The rate at which a substance reacts is
pressure (gas constant R = 0.0821 L -atm/mol- proportional to its active mass and the rate of a
K)? chemical reaction is proportional to the product
A. Less than 1 L of the active masses of reactants" is.
B. 5 L A. Boyle's Law
C. 10 L B. Law of Mass Action
D. 15 L C. Charle's Law
E. More than 20 L D. Avogadro's Law
E. Dalton's Law
7. The rate of diffusion of a gas is
A. Directly proportional to its density 13. Which phenomenon of physical chemistry
B. Directly proportional to its molecular weight occurs when you tissue paper on a wet surface?
C. Inversely proportional to square root of the A. evaporation
molecular density B. capillary action
D. Inversely proportional to square root of the C. boiling
formula D. condensation
E. Inversely proportional to its molecular weight.
14. According to the ideal gas law, what is the
8. Comparative rates of diffusion of He and SO2 approximate volume that will be occupied by 0.5
will be ______. moles of an ideal gas at 30°C and 3 atm pressure
A. 8 (gas constant R=0.0821 L-atm/mol-K)?
B. 2 A. Less than 1 L
C. 4 B. 4.14 L
D.16 C. 10.14 L
E. 64 D. 15.14 L
E. more than 20 L
9. The unit of viscosity is ________.
A. Joule 15. PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2, the number of moles of Cl2
B. N/m² produced will be _______? If one mole of PCl5 is
C. dynes/cm heated = 250°C in a vessel having a capacity of
D. poises 10 dm3. At 250°C Kc = 0.041.
E. ergs A. 0.041mole
B. 0.465mole
10. Ideal Gas Equation is obtained by combining. C. 4.65mole
A. Boyle's Law, Dalton's Law and Charle's Law D. 4.1mole
B. Boyle's Law, Charle's Law and Avogadro's Law E. 45.5mole
C. Dalton's Law, Charle's Law and Avogadro's Law

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16. PV=K represents: A CO2 and N2O
A. Boyle's law B. CO2 and CO
B. Avogadro's law C, NO2 and CO2
C. Charles's law D. CO2 and N2O4
D. Graham's law
E. Dalton's law 23. Which substance has diffused melting point?
A. Crystalline solids
17. What volume does 400 cm³ sample of a gas B. Amorphous solids
at 700 torr occupy when the pressure is changed C. Metallic solids
to 2 atm? D. Covalent solids
A. 1.40000 cm³ E. Ionic solids
B. 184 cm³
C. 0.0184 cm³ 24. Hydrogen diffuses six times faster than gas
D. 140 cm³ A. The molar mass of gas A is:
E. 0.00184 cm³ A. 16
B. 36
18. If the volume of a gas is plotted against the C. 6
total pressure, the curve obtained would be: D. 24
A. Straight line E. 72
C. Parabolic curve
C. Hyperbolic curve 25. What is the correct order of the boiling
D. Exponential curve points of the following compounds?
E. None of the above I. n-hexane
II. 2-methylpentane
19. 300mL of a gas at 27°C is cooled to 3°C at III. 2, 2-dimethylbutane
constant pressure. Its final volume is: IV. n-heptane
A. 135 mL A. I > IV > II > III
B. 540 mL B. IV > III > II > I
C. 300 mL C. I > II > III > IV
D. 350 mL E. II > I > III > IV
E. 276 mL
26. Viscosity of Acetone 0°c is ______ and at
20. Surface tension of benzene at 20°C is:
A. 72.583 20°C its viscosity is ______.
B. 22.03 A. 0.332… 0.395
C. 28.88 B. 0.395... 0.332
D. 471.6 C. 1.78… 1.19
E. 23.7 D. 22.3… 0.7
E. 121000... 1499
21. 1 liter of a gas weighs 2 g at 300 K and 1 atm
pressure. If the pressure is made 75 atm, at 27. "The total pressure of mixture of gases is the
which of the following temperatures will 1 L of sum of partial pressures of the gases in the
the same gas weigh 1 g? mixture" is the statement of:
A. 450 K A. Boyle's law
B. 800 K B. Graham's law of diffusion
C. 600 K C. Avogadro's law
D. 900 K D. Charles's law
E. Dalton's law of partial pressure
22. Which of the following pairs of gases has
same rate of diffusion?

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28. The existence of an element in more than 33. If absolute temperature of a gas is doubled
one form is known as: and the pressure is reduced to one half, the
A. Isotropy volume of the gas will
B. Allotropy A. Remain unchanged
C. Enthalpy B. Increases four times
D. Geotropy C. Reduce to 1/4
E. Both isotropy and allotropy D. Be doubled
E. Decrease four times
29. A sample of argon occupies 50L at standard
temperature. Assuming constant pressure, what 34. For two substance to be separated by paper
volume will the gas occupy if the temperature is chromatography it is necessary that:
doubled? A. They are both liquids
A. 25 L
B. They are both soluble in the same solvent
B. 50 L
C. 10O L C. They have different densities
D. 200 L D. They have different colors
E. 2500 L
35. Which one of the following is a pure
30. All of the following statements undefined compound?
the kinetic molecular theory of gasses EXCEPT: A. Dry air
A. Gas molecules have no intermolecular forces
B. Ethanol
B. Gas particles are in random motion
C. The collision between gas particles are elastic C. Steel
D. Gas particles have no volume D. Tap water
E. The average kinetic energy is proportional to
the temperature of the gas 36. Which statement provides the best
information to confirm that two substances are
31. Four containers of equal volume are filled as allotropic forms of carbon?
follows:
A. They have different crystalline structure
I. 2.0g H2 at 0°C
II. 1.0g H2 at 273°C B. They both reduce heated lead (II) Oxide to
III. 24g O2 at 0°C lead
IV. 16g CH4 at 273°C C. Equal masses of both substances require
Which container is at the greatest pressure? equal masses of carbon Dioxide and no other
A. I only product when completely burnt in oxygen
B. II only
D. Equal masses of both substances give equal
C. III only
D. IV only masses of carbon dioxide and no other
E. I and II product when completely burnt in oxygen

32. Which of the following factors has no effect 37. Which of the following element is the most
on boiling point? abundant element in the universe?
A. pressure A. Oxygen
B. Intermolecular force
B. Silicon
C. Amount of liquid
D. Impurities in the liquid C. Hydrogen
E. None of the above D. Methane

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38. The process in which a solid is directly 45. Two substances having same crystal
converted to a gaseous state is called: structure are said to be:-
A. Boiling A. Polymorphous
B. Evaporation B. Isomorphous
C. Sublimation C. Homomorphous
D. Freezing D. Synmorphous

39. Which of the following techniques could be 46. Gas constant "R" is independent of:
used to separate the colored dyes from the A. Pressure of gas.
black ink? B. Volume of gas.
A. Chromatography C. Nature of gas.
B. Filtration D. Temperature
C. Fractional distillation
D. Precipitation 47. ZnSO4 and NiSO4, are _____ crystals.
A. Cubic
B. Trigonal
40. The crystalline form of allotropes is: C. Orthorhombic
A. Chemically same D. Hexagonal
B. Chemically different
C. Some tome same and sometime different 48. The molecular mass of SO2, is 64 and molecular
mass of He is 4 than Ho diffuses how many times
D. Depend upon substance greater than SO2.
A. 2 times
41. The heat requires changing 1 mole of iodine B. 4 times
(solid) to iodine (gas) is called: C. 16 times
D. 12 times
A. Heat of vaporization
B. Heat of sublimation 49. For Boyle's law to be true, which of the following
C. Heat of fusion must be fixed?
D. Melting point A. isothermal
B. Isochoric
42. The formula for general gas equation is: C. Adiabatic
A. P1V1 = P2V2 D. Isobaric

B. V1/T1=V2/T2
50. Gases are good conductors at:
C. E=mc2
A. High pressure
D. P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2 B. Low temperature
C. Low pressure
43. Ay unit of viscosity is:- D. None of the above
A. NSm-1
B. Nsm-2 51. Capillary action is due to:
C. NS-1m2 A. Surface tension
44. 1poise can be fined as:- B. Cohesion
A. 1 gm/m C. Adhesion
B. 1 gm/cm D. Viscosity
52. Which of the following has highest BP?
C. 1gm/ mm
A. Ethylalcohol

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B. Diethyl ether 59. Product of Specific Heat and Molecular Formula
C. H2O is?
D. Acetone A. Molar Specific Heat
B. Molar Heat
53. Which of the following is not a chemical change? C. Heat capacity
A. Rusting of iron D. Specific Heat Capacity
B. Refractive index
C. Boiling of water 60. Total pressure is equal to the sum of partial
D. Electrolysis of Cu++ pressure of all the individual gases due to following
reason:
54. The correct sequence of high power vapour A. Collisions with the walls of the container
pressure is: B. Effective collision of all individual gases
A. Water > Ethanol> Acetone>Ether C. Collision with the bottom of the container
B. Ether> Acetone> Ethanol>Water D. None of the above
C. Ether> Ethanol> Acetone> Water
D. Water> Ethanol> Acetone> Ether 61. Compound having different forms this statement
is related to:
55. At constant temperature the volume of gas is 95 A. Allotropy
cm3 at a pressure of 9.961 x 104 N/m2. What would B. Isomerism
be its volume at 10.13 x 104 N/m2? C. Polymorphism
A. 1cm3 D. Isomorphism.
B. 94cm3
C. 93cm3 62. By standard temperature we mean:
D. 10cm3 A. 0°C
B. 293°C
56. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of two gases is C. 35°C
1:3, and then ratio of their molecular wt is: D. -0℃
A. 13
B. 31 63. Which solid is called dry ice?
C. 1.9 A. CO2
D. 91 B. H2+ CO
C. H2
57. What will be the product of Specific Heat and D. None
molecular formula?
A. Molar specific heat 64. Hexagonal system has axes:
B. Molar mass A. a = b = c
C. Heat capacity B. a ≠b = c
D. Molar heat C. a ≠ b ≠ c
D. a = b ≠ c
58. Unit of Specific Rate Constant for zero order
reaction is: 65. Three dimensional array of points is called:
A. S-1 A. Unit cell
B. Mol dm-3 s-2 B. Crystal
C. Dm6 C. Crystal lattice
D. Mol2 dm-6 s-1 D. a and b.

66. Standard pressure:


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A. 760 torr D. Condensation
B. 1atom of Hg
C. 760 mmHg 73. The change of enthalpy when one gram mole of
D. All of the above the substance is formed from its element at S.T.P is
called ______.
67. "A substance under different condition can from A. Heat of formation
more than one type of crystal". This is called B. Standard heat of formation
_______. C. Heat of vaporization
A. Isomorphism D. Bond energy
B. Polymorphism
C. Anisotropy 74. The average speed and average kinetic energy of
D. Isotropy gas molecules are directly proportional to the _____.
A. °C (Centigrade temp)
68. "Equal volume of gases at the same temperature B. F (Fahrenheit)
and pressure contains same number of molecule" C. K (Kelvin temp)
This law can be represented as______. D. None of the above.
A. V ∝ T
B. V ∝ 1 75. Volumes of given mass of a gas varies ______
C. V ∝ n with the increase of pressure at constant
D. V ∝ m temperature.
A. Inversely
69. The temperature 273 k corresponds to: B. Directly
A. 0°C C. Three times
B. 273°C D. None of the above
C. 100°C
D. None of the above 76. Which one of the following substance is an
element and also forms crystals composed of small
70. Volume of given mass of gas varies ______ with molecules.
inverse of the temperature at constant pressure. A. Carbon dioxide
A. Inversely B. Copper
B. Directly C. Graphite
C. Three times D. Iodine
D. None of the above
77. Solids which have regular geometrical shape are
3
71. What volume does 400 cm of sample of gas at called:
700 torr occupy when the pressure in changed to 2 A. Symmetric Solids
atm. (assume temperature is constant) B. Crystalline Solids
A. 368 cm3 C. Viterous solids
B. 184 cm3 D. Amorphous Solids
C. 170 cm3
D. 870 cm3 79. A solid substance which shows variable intensity
of a property in different directions is called:
72. Same solid when heated not melt but directly A. Cleavage
change into gashouse state B. Asymmetric
A. Evaporation C. Anisotropy
B. Crystallization D. Polymorphism
C. Sublimation
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80. H2 reacts with O2 as, still able to move freely. We say the substance has
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) -----> 2H2O (g) undergone.
How much gas will remain if 2dm3 of hydrogen are A. Diffusion
reacted with 1 dm3 of O2 at s.t.p? B. Freezing
A. O dm3 C. Sublimation
B. 1 dm3 D. Condensation
C. 2 dm3 e) Evaporation
D. 3 dm3 87. Which of the following substances P to T is a
volatile liquid at room temperature?
81. The spontaneous mixing of particles is called: Substance Melting point °c Boiling point °c
A. Evaporation A. P -90 350
B. Diffusion B. Q -7 48
C. Sublimation C. R -10 300
D. S 20 250
D. Boiling
E. T 300 1500

82. In which of the following are the particles the


89. One characteristic feature of a solid is that:
most disordered?
A. The particles move rapidly
A. Water at 100°c
B. It has a lattice structure
B. Steam at 100°c
C. The particles are loosely packed
C. Impure water at 102°c
D. It has no definite volume
D. Water at 0°c
E. It has no definite shape

83. Which of these statements best supports the


90. "Gases react in the ratio of small whole number
idea that matter is made up of particles?
by volume under similar conditions of temperature
A. Liquids always fill the space available to them.
and pressure". This statement belongs to:
B. Gases are compressible
A. Dalton s law for combining volume
C. 1 cm3 of water produces nearly 1700 cm3 of
B. Gay-Lussac’s law for combining volume
steam.
C. Charlee’s law for combining volume
D. If a bottle of perfume is opened, the smell
D. Behr’s law for combining volume
spreads quickly

91. According to Charlee’s law "For every degree rise


84. The particles of gas can be described as:
or fall in temperature given mass of the gas increases
A. Only moving outwards in direction
or decreases by the amount of _______ times of the
B. Vibrating about fixed position
original volume keeping the pressure constant”.
C. Rising upwards
A. 273 times
D. Moving randomly in all directions.
B. 1/273 times
C. 240 times
85. Which of these processes involves a weakening
D. Can't be estimated
of the attraction between particles?
A. Condensation
92. A real gas is close to an ideal gas at conditions
B. Freezing
A. Low pressure and high temperature
C. Crystallization
B. High pressure and low temperature
D. Evaporation
C. At all temperature and low pressure
D. Low temperature and low pressure
86. A substance changes from the state in which its
particles are widely spaced and able to move freely
to the state in which the particles are in contact, but
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93. "The rate of diffusion of two gases is inversely C. 4 atm
proportional to the square roots of their densities or D. 8 atm
molecular weight at the same pressure and E. 9 atm
temperature" is
A. Graham's law 99. When a gas is collected over water, the pressure
B. Dalton's law is corrected by
C. Avogadro's law A. Adding the vapour pressure of water
D. None of the above B. Multiplying by the vapour Pressure of water
C. Subtracting the vapour pressure of water at that
94. Which of the following will raise the boiling point temperature
of a sample of water? D. Subtracting the temperature of the water from
A. Heat and Water the vapour pressure
B. Mix gasoline into the water E. All of the above
C. Bring the water sample to a higher altitude
D. Place the water sample on a magnetic stirrer 100. The London forces are also called;
E. Dissolve table sugar into the water A. Vander Waals
B. Dipole-dipole
95. An ideal gas in a closed inflexible container has a C. Induced dipole
pressure of 6 atmospheres and a temperature' or D. None of the above
27°c) What will be the new pressure of the gas if the
temperature is decreased to -73°C? 101. Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than
A. 2 atm lithium because it:
B. 3 atm A. Has higher atomic weight
C. 4 atm B. Is more electronegative
D. 8 atm C. Is more electropositive
E. 9 atm D. Is a metal
E. Has high melting point
96. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of two gases is
1:3, then ratio of their molecular wt. is: 102. The rain drop acquires spherical shape and ink
A. 1:3 spreads over blotting paper due to:
B. 3:1 A. Surface tension
C. 1:9 B. Adhesive forces
D. 9:1 C. Viscosity
D. Polarity
97. Diver at the depth of 40 meters breathes air at a E. Latent heat of vaporization
pressure _______:
A. 4 times 103. 950 torr corresponds to:
B. 101 times A. 35 atm
C. Less than 5 times B. 1 atm
D. 5 times C. 3 atm
D. 125 atm
98. An ideal gas in a closed inflexible container has a E. 225 atm
pressure of 6 atmospheres and a temperature of
27°C. What will be the new pressure of the gas if the 104. When an element exists in more than one
temperature is decreased to -73°C? crystalline form, the phenomenon is termed as:
A. 2 atm A. Isomorphism
B. 3 atm B. Allotropy
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C. Isomerism A. Surface tension
D. Anisotropy B. Adhesive forces
E. Enthalpy C. Viscosity
D. Polarity
105. During condensation of polymerization, two E. Latent heat of vaporization.
monomers may be joined by the removal of a
molecule of: 111. 950 torr corresponds to:
A. carbon dioxide A. 3.5 atm
B. hydrogen B. 1 atm
C. oxygen C. 3 atm
D. water D. 1.25 atm
E. none of the above E. 2.25 atm

106. Which gas is likely to deviate most from ideal 112. Which of the following statements is true of
gas behavior? amorphous solids?
A. HC A. They possess symmetry
B. Hе B. They are isotropic
C. CH C. They are anisotropic
D. N2 D. They cleave along particular direction
E. O2 E. They have definite shape

107.. The crystals formed as a result of Vander 113. A child's balloon has a volume 3.80 dm3, when
Waal’s interactions are: temperature is 35°C. If the balloon is put in
A. molecular crystals refrigerator and cooled to 5°C, the approximate
B. covalent crystals volume of the balloon is (assume pressure inside the
C. metallic crystals balloon is equal to atmospheric pressure):
D. ionic crystals A. 3.00 dm3
E. none of the above B. 3.43 dm3
C. 3.08 dm3
108. When an element exists in more than one D. 3.25 dm3
crystalline form, the phenomenon is termed as: E. 0.54 dm3
A. isomorphism
B. allotropy 114. Which one is pure compound?
C. isomerism A. Dry Air
D. anisotropy B. Ethanol
E. enthalpy C. Steel
D. Tap Water
109. When an element exists in more than one
crystalline form, the phenomenon is termed as: 115. Comparative rates of diffusion of He and SO2
A. CuSO4.5H20 will be ____.
B. 2CaSO4.2H20 A. 8
C. (CaSO4)2.H20 B. 2
D. MgSO4.7H20 C. 4
E. NaSO4.H20 D. 16
E. 64
110. The rain drop acquires spherical shape and ink
spreads over blotting paper due to:
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116. From a mixture of CO2 and H2 gases, CO2 can be 122. For a given mass of gas, if the pressure is
separated by passing the mixture through: reduced to half and its temperature is doubled, then
A. water at high temperature volume V will become:
B. water under high pressure A. 4V
C. cold water B. 2V2
D. acidified water C. V/4
D. 8V
117. The stability of ionic crystal depends principally
on: 123. Silver oxide decomposes when heated to give
A. High electron affinity of anion forming species silver and oxygen: If 0.5 moles of lunar caustic is
B. Lattice energy of crystal heated up to 450°C, giving out nitrogen dioxide and
C. Low ionization energy of cation forming species oxygen leaving silver as metal, what is the mass of
D. Low heat of sublimation of cation forming solid the residue?
A. 108 grams
118. The unit cell with crystallographic B. 54 grams
dimensions a = b =/= c, a = b = y = 90° is: C. 216 grams
A. Cubic D. 27 grams
B. Tetragonal E. 92 grams
C. Monoclinic
D. Hexagonal 124. What assumptions are made in the kinetic
theory about an ideal gas?
119. A bottle of cold drink contains 200 ml liquid I. There are no forces of attraction between
in which CO2 is 0.1 molar. Suppose CO2 behaves molecules
like an ideal gas, the volume of dissolved CO2 at
II. The molecules are in a state of continual, random
S.T.P is:
motion
A. 0.224 liter
III. The size of the molecule is negligible
B. 0.448 liter
A. I Only
C. 22.4 liter
D. 2.24 liter B. II Only
E. 25.5 liter C. I & II Only
D. II & III Only
120. Surface tension in a liquid is caused by: E. I, II, III
A. a lack of horizontal intermolecular forces
B. greater rate of evaporation at the surface than 125. What is the temperature at which the volume of
from the interior gas is said to be zero?
C. reduced rate of intermolecular collisions at the A. 0°C
surface B. 4°C
D. greater fluidity C. -273.16°С
D. -173.16°C
121. A solid melts sharply just above 100°C. It does
not conduct electricity even when molten. It has 126. Which of the following liquid has the highest
weak Vander Waal's forces. What is the structure of viscosity at 20°c?
the solid most likely to be? A. Water
A. An atomic crystal B. Ethyl alcohol
B. An ionic crystal C. Glycerin
C. A molecular crystal D. Acetone
D. Metallic

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127. 22.4 dm3 of volume of each H2 and O2 are
sparked to produce water vapours (consider as ideal 2. Which of the following series in H atom give
gas) on completion of reaction what is decrease in spect Å?
the volume of vessel? A. Lyman
A. 44 dm3 B. Paschen
B. 22.4 dm3 C. Balmer
C. 33.6 dm3 D. Bracket
D. 11.2 dm3 E. None of the above

128. Which pair has species with different shapes? 3. A reactant in a chemical reaction is non-
A. BeCI2 and CO2
conductor to electricity, colorless and non-
responsive towards plane-polarized light but can
B. NH3 and BF3
absorb ultra-violet rays. Then the best technique
C. SCI2 and H2O
for the determination of initial rate of such a
D. CH4 and NH4+
reaction is:
A. Polarimetry
129. 1dm3 of methyl alcohol is heated over Cu at B. Refractometry
300°C; we get: C. Spectroscopy
Cu D. Color
CH3OH НСНО+H2
300°C 4. Rutherford's model of atom is considered
weak because.
The volume in dm3 of hydrogen gas obtained is:
A. a positively charged nucleus cannot remain
A. 0.5 dm3 separated from negative charged electrons
B. 1 dm3 B. an accelerated electron would continuously
C. 1.5 dm3 lose energy in the form of radiation.
D. 2 dm3 C. nuclear mass is not sufficiently heavy to keep
E. 2.5 dm3 the light electron In Its orbit.
D. the center of the gravity of the system would
be, within the volume of the nucleus
130. A sample of ideal gas has a volume of 128
mi at -27 °C to what temperature must the gas 5. 1f n = 4, and I = 3, it represents.
be heated at constant pressure if final volume is A. s orbits
to be 214 ml? B. p orbits
A. 120°c C. d orbits
B. 130°C D. f orbits
C. 138°C
6. Two isotopes of the same element will always
D. 140°C differ in
E. 150°C A. mass number but never in atomic number
B. atomic number but never in mass number
C. charge outside but never inside their nuclei
UNIT NO. (03) D. nuclear charge but never in overall charge
E. the number of electrons outside their nuclei
1. The radius of second Bohr orbit is but never in the number of neutrons inside their
A. 0.529 Å nuclei
B. 0.529/4 Å
7. The alkali metals possess one electron in their
C. 0.529 x 22 Å
outermost:
D. 0.529 x 2 Å
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A. s-orbital C. Cl
B. p-orbital D. I
C. d-orbital E. S
D. f-orbital
E. none of the above 14. "In an atom no two electrons can have the
same set of four quantum numbers." This
8. The maximum possible number of electrons a statement is commonly known as:
shell 'n' can accommodate is given by. A. Heisenberg's Principle
A. n B. Pauli's Exclusion principle
B. n² C. Aufbau Principle
C. 2n² D. Hund's Rule
D. n³ E. (n+l) Rule
E. 3n²
15. In going from
9. Which light color has longest wave length? 1s² 2p² 2p6 3s² 3p6 4s¹ to
A. Violet 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p5 4s² an electron would:
B. blue A. Absorb energy
C. red B. Emit energy
D. green C. Relax to the ground state
E. yellow D. Bind to another atom
E. Undergo no change in energy
10. The shape of the orbital indicated by the
symbol ''𝓵" called: 16. Bohr model of atom is contradicted by:
A. Principle Quantum number A. Planck's quantum theory
B. Magnetic Quantum number B. Pauli's exclusion principle
C. Azimuthal Quantum number C. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
D. Spin Quantum number D. All of the above
E. none of the above
17. Rutherford's model of atom failed because:
11. Which of the following statement is not A. The atom did not have a nucleus and electrons
correct regarding rays? B. It did not account for the attraction between
A. The rays carry negative charge protons and neutrons
B. The rays produce mechanical effect C. It did not account for the stability of the atom
C. The charge/mass ratio is dependent of the gas D. There is actually no space between the nucleus
taken the discharge tube and the electrons
D. All of the above
18. Which of the following principle rules is not
12. Complete the following equation: so important in assigning the electronic
9 4 1
4Be + 2He ⟶ ? + on configuration of atom?
A. 6C¹² A. Hund's rule
B. 6C¹⁴ B. Heisenberg principle
C. 7N¹⁴ C. Pauli's exclusion principle
D. 8O16 D. Aufbau principle
E. 11Na23 E. (n+ l) rule

13. 1s², 2s², 2p6, 3s², 3p5 is an electronic 19. When B-particles are sent through a thin
Configuration of. metal foil, most of them go straight through the
A. Na foil as:
B. K A. β-particles are much heavier than electrons

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B. ß-particles are positively charged
C. Most part of the atom is empty space 25. All of the following are true regarding
D. β-particles move with high velocity Cathode Rays EXCEPT:
A. These rays carry a negative charge.
20. Electronic Configuration of M2+ ion is 2, 8, 14 B. These rays can also be easily deflected by an
and its atomic weight is 56 amu. The number of electrostatic field
neutrons in its nucleus is: C. These rays emerge normally from Cathode and
A. 30 can be focused by using a concave Cathode
B. 32 D. These rays consist of particles now called
С. 42 Protons carrying a fixed unit of charge and a fixed
D. 52 mass.
E. The Cathode rays are easily deflected by a
21. The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 for the magnetic field
electron spin represent:
A. Rotation of the electron in clockwise and 26. The maximum number of electrons in a shell
anticlockwise direction respectively with the principal quantum number equal to 4
B. Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and is:
clockwise direction respectively A. 2
C. Magnetic movement of the electron pointing B. 10
up and down respectively C. 16
D. Two quantum mechanical spin states which D. 32
have no classical analogue E. 14

22. A reactant in a chemical reaction is non- 27. Elements in a given Period have the same:
conductor to electricity colorless and non- A. Atomic weight
responsive towards plane-polarized light but can B. Maximum azimuthal quantum number
absorb ultra-violet rays. Then the best technique C. Maximum principle quantum number
for the determination of initial rate of such a D. Valence electron structure
reaction: E. Atomic number
A. Polarimetry
B. Refractometry 28. The violet region of visible spectra has the
C. Spectroscopy shortest wavelength of about
D. Cotourtmetry A. 7000 Å
E. None of the above B. 1000 Å
C. 4000 Å
23. Which of the following will have the largest D. 2000 Å
ionic radius? E. 8000 Å
A. CS+
B. Li+ 29. The stable electronic configuration of Cu-29
C. Na+ is
D. Mg2+ A. [Ar] 4s1 3d10
B. [Ar] 4s2 3d9
24. Which of the following principles limits the C. [Ar] 4s0 3d10
maximum number of electrons in an orbital? D. [Ar] 4s2 d8
A. Aufbau principle E. [Ar] 4s1 3d0
B. Pauli exclusion principle
C. Hund's rule 30. Ruther ford discovered that the nucleus of
D. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
an atom has ______ charge.
E. None of the above
A. No
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B. Negative electrons through molten chloride. What is the
C. Positive formula of chloride?
D. Very less A. M2CL
B. MCL
31. The wavelength of radiation emits in Ballmer C. MCL4
series is: D. MCL2
A. b/w 4000 A° to 8000 A°
B. 10,000<d<18000 A° 37. Alpha rays are:
C. d<8000 A° A. Single negatively charged particles
D. None of the above B. Single positively charged particles
C. Double negatively charged particles
32. Electrolysis of dil.H2SO4 gives: D. Double positively charged particles

Cathode Anode 38. Which is the lightest among following;


A. H2 SO2 A. An atom of hydrogen
B. H2 O2 B. An electron
C. O2 H2 C. A neutron
D. SO2 H2 D. A proton

33. Whose e/m ratio resembles with that of 39. Faraday's experiment leads to the discovery
electrons? of
A. Alpha Rays A. Electron.
B. Beta Rays B. Positron
C. Gamma Rays C. Nucleus.
D. X rays D. Proton

34. What particles are present in solid lead (II) 40. Which one is not correct:-
Bromide and in molten lead (III) Bromide? A. Alpha particles are negatively charged)
Solid Lead Bromide Molten Lead Bromide B. Alpha particles are helium nuclei.
A. Molecules Atom C. Alpha particles are positively charged)
B. Molecules lons D. Alpha particles move towards anode
C. lons Atoms
D. Ions lons 41. Which one shows alpha- decay:-
A. 2XA→2-2X A+4 + 2He4
35. The ions X+ contain 23 particles in the B. 2XA --> 2-2 X A-4 + 2He4
nucleus and 10 electrons outside the nucleus. C. 2XA --> 2+2 X A-4 + 2He4
What does the nucleus of the ion X+ contain? D. 2XA --> 2+2 X A-4 + 2He4
Protons. Neutrons
A. 9 14 42. Who observed radioactivity first?
B. 10 13 A. Henery Backwerll
C. 11 12 B. Rutherford
D. 12 11 C. Newton
D. Bohr
36. 10g of metal (relative atomic mass 40) are
liberated by the passage of 0.5 moles of
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43. An electron can use Excitation Energy in the C. Zn
form of all of the following except: D. Na
A. Photochemistry
B. Florence 50. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1 which rule is violated in
C. Heat this electronic configuration
D. Radiation A. Hund s rule
B. (n + 1) rule
44. Cathode does not depend upon: C. Pauli exclusion principle
A. Neither on gas nor the material of the D. Aufbau principle
cathode
B. Neither on H2SO4 nor on the liquid used 51. Element P has an electronic configuration of
C. All of the above 2, 8, 6 element R has an electronic configuration
D. None of the above of 2,8,8,1. What is likely to form if P and R
45. Rutherford discovered that the nucleus of an combine?
atom has charge A. A compound RP
A. No B. A compound R6P6
B. Negative C. A compound RP2
C. Positive D. A compound R2P
D. Very less
52. The amount of energy required to remove an
46. Rutherford's atomic model failed b/c: electron from an atom is called?
A. It did not account for the stability of atom. A. lonization potential
B. It did not account for the attraction b/w B. lonization ability
protons and neutrons. C. Electron affinity
C. The atom did not have neutrons D. Electron affinity
D. None of these
53. The lowest I.P is found in:
47. Cathode rays travel in discharge tube from: A. Inert gas
A. Anode to cathode B. Alkali metals
B. Cathode to anode C. Halogens
C. Glass tube to vacuum pump D. Transition metals
D. Cathode through air
54. In which one of the following sets do all
48. What rays are emitted from cathode and three particles have same total number of
move in straight line towards anode. electrons?
A. Cathode rays A. Cl- Br- I-
B. Anode rays B. F- Ne Na+
C. X-rays C. H- H H+
D. Sun rays D. Li- Na+ H

49. Give the name of the element whose 55. Which particle cannot be accelerated in a
electronic configuration is given below, magnetic field?
1s2, 2s2, 2p6 3s2 3p1 A. Alpha particle
A. Al B. Beta particle
B. CO
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C. Neutron 61. The ionization energy ______ in a group
D. Proton from top to bottom with the increase in atomic
size)
56. In the reaction 4Be9 + X → 6C12 + 0n1, the X A. Increases
represents: B. Decreases
A. An Alpha particle C. Remains same
B. A Beta particle D. Increases then decreases
C. An electron E. None of the above
D. A Proton
62. Elements have almost zero electron affinity
57. Elements have almost zero electron affinity if they have:
if they have: A. Inert gas configuration
A. Inert gas configuration B. Full filled configuration
B. Full filled configuration C. Half-filled configuration
C. Half tilled configuration D. All of the above
D. All of the above E. None of the above

58. What is the number of protons and neutrons 63. The radius of 4th orbit of an atom, if Bohr's
in an atom with mass number 89 and atomic radius is 0.529° A, will be
number 39? A. 5.2 A
A. 50 protons and 50 neutrons B. 8.4°A
B. 50 protons and 39 neutrons C. 6.4°A
C. 39 protons and 89 neutrons D. 35°A
D. 39 protons and 50 neutrons E. None
E. 39 protons and 39 neutrons
64. What is the number of protons and neutrons
59. Which of the following is closest in mass to a in an atom with mass number 89 and atomic
proton? number 39?
A. Alpha particle A. 60 protons and 50 neutrons
B. Positron B. 50 protons and 39 neutrons
C. Neutron C. 39 protons and 89 neutrons
D. Electron D. 39 protons and 50 neutrons
E. Hydrogen molecule
65. Which of the following molecules has the
60. The value of which of the following strongest carbon-to-carbon bond?
parameters can be used to determine the A. C2H2
percent of ionic character in a covalent bond: B. C2H4
A. Metallic Character C. C2H6
B. Ionization Potential D. C2H8
C. Electronegativity
D. Electron affinity 66. A radioactive material is undergoing nuclear
decay. After 40 minutes, 25% of the sample
remains. What is the half-life of the sample?
A. 27 minutes

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B. 20 minutes B. Aufbau Principle
C. 40 minutes C. Pauli's Exclusion principle
D. 80 minutes D. Hund's Rule
E. (n+1) Rule
67. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, which rule is violated in this
electronic configuration. 72. The electronic configuration of iron is:
A. Hund's rule A. 1S2, 2S2 2P6, 3S2, 3P6, 3d5, 4S2
B. (n + I) rule B. 1S2, 2S2, 2P6, 3S2, 3P6, 3d5, 4S1
C. Pauli exclusion principle C. 1S2, 2S2, 2P6, 3S2, 3P6, 3d6, 4S2
D. None of the above D. 1S2, 2S2, 2P6 3S2, 3P6, 3d3, 4S2
E. 1S2, 2S2, 2P6 3S2, 3P6, 3d2, 4S2
68. The maximum number of electrons that an
orbital can accommodate are: 73. Which rule is violated in this 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,
A. 0 3p6, 3p6, 4s2
B. 1 A. Aufbaus's Principle
C. 2 B. Hund's Rule
D. 3 C. n+L rule
E. 4 D. Pauli's Exclusion Principle.

69. The maximum number of electrons that an 74. What is the P.E of an electron of mass "m"
orbital can accommodate isolate moving with a velocity “v” in radius of "r”?
−mv
A. 0 A.
𝑟
B. 1 −ze
B. 2𝑟
C. 2 mv
C.
D. 3 𝑟2
mZe2
E. 4 D. 𝑟

70. Which of the following statements is 75. ________ is called the le Broglie Relation.

correct? A. λ= 𝑚𝑣
A. Faradays experiment indicates the existence B. h = λmv
of electrons C. m = 𝜆𝑣

B. Crooke's tube experiment shows the


D. all of these
presence of electrons and protons in the
atoms.
76. Which of the following shows alpha-decay?
C. Radioactivity confirms the presence of A A+4 + He4
A. zX → z-2X 2
electrons and protons A A-4
B. zX → zX + 2He4 + 2He4
D. Chadwick experiment shows the presence A A+4 + He4
C. zX → z-2X 2
of neutrons A A4 4
D. zX → z+2X + 2He
E. All of the above

77. The maximum possible number of electrons


71. "In an atom no two electrons can have the
a shell 'n' can accommodate is given by
same set of four Quantum numbers" is stated
A. n
by:
B. n2
A. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
C. 2n2
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D. n3 83. Which of the following best describes the
E. 3n2 emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen?
A. a discrete series of lines of equal intensity and
equally spaced with respect to wavelength
78. The series limit for the Balmer series of
B. a series of only four lines
hydrogen spectrum occurs at 3664 A. Calculate C. a continuous emission of radiation of all
Ionization energy of hydrogen atom. frequencies
A. 21.7x 10-19 J D. several discrete series of lines with both
B. 6.626x10-34 J intensity and spacing between lines decreasing as
c. 5.425x10-19 J the wavenumber increases with each series
D. 3664 x10-10 J
84. The series limit for the Balmer series of
E. 3x108J
hydrogen spectrum occurs at 3664 Å. Calculate
Ionization energy of hydrogen atom.
79. The radii of the second orbit of the hydrogen A. 21.7x10-19 J
atom calculated from Bohr's model is: B. 6.626x10-34 J
A. 0.529 Å C. 5.425x10-19 J
B. 4.8 Å D. 3664x10-10 J
С. 2.41 Å E. 3x108 J
D. 3.4 Å
85. How many electrons can have the values n
E. 1 Å =2, I=1 and s = + 1/2 in the configuration 1s2, 2s2,
2p3?
80. The amount of energy released by absorbing A. 1
an electron in the valence shell is: B. 3
A. Ionization energy C. 5
D. 7
B. Electron Affinity
E. 9
C. Electronegativity
D. Atomic Radius 86. If uncertainty in the position of an electron is
E. Atomization Energy zero, the uncertainty in its momentum is:
A. 1
81. Among the following electrons, which has B. zero
highest energy? C. 2πr
D. 2h/4π
A. n= 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = + 1/2
E. infinite
B. n= 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = - 1/2
C. n= 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = - 1/2 87. Pierrie Curie and Marie Curie isolated which
D. n= 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = - ½ radioactive element?
A. Lithium
82. Nitrogen and phosphorus have 3 of their B. Radium
valence electrons unpaired because of: C. Boron
A. Aufbau principle D. Uranium
B. Heisenberg's principle
C. Hund's rule 88. Which of the following is the correct order of
D. Planck's statement electronegativity (from highest to lowest)?
E. None of the above A. F, O, N, C
B. N, F, O, C
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C. C, F, N, O B. Azimuthal quantum number
D. C, F, O, N C. Spin quantum number
D. Magnetic quantum number
89. J.J Thomson determined the:
A. charge of an electron 95. An element has configuration 2, 8, 1. It
B. mass of an electron belongs to, ________.
C. e/m value of an electron A. IA group and 3rd period
D. charge of a proton B. IIIA group and 1st period
E. mass of a proton C. IA group and 8th period
D. VIIA group and 3rd period
90. The number of electrons present in n=2, I=1
and m = -1, 0, +1 are: 96. Electrical conductivity depends upon ____.
A. 2 A. Temperature
B. 6 B. Degree of dilution
C. 8 C. Nature of electrolyte
D. 10 D. Speed of ions
E. 18
97. Which of the following shows maximum
91. If the difference between electronegativity penetration?
values between two atoms is less than 1.7, the A. Electrons
bond is necessarily: B. Protons
A. ionic C. Alpha particles
B. covalent D. Neutrons
C. electrovalent
D. polar 98. Cathode rays:
E. non-polar A. are heavy in the case of bigger atoms
B. is light in the case of smaller atoms
92. The radius of third Bohr orbit is: C. is more intense in the case of radioactive
A. 0.529 Å atoms
B. 0.529/4 Å D. depend on the nature of the gas
С. 0.529 x2 Å E. is independent of the nature of the gas
D. 0.529 x 32 Å
99. Pauli Exclusion Principle states that no two
93. The ground state of an atom corresponds to electrons can have the entire four quantum
a state of: numbers same. According to this principle which
A. Maximum energy of the following pairs of atoms shows difference
B. Minimum energy in their Principle Quantum Number?
C. Negative energy A. H & He
D. Positive energy B. Li & Be
C. Na & K
94. Shape of the orbital occupied by an electron D. Na & Mg
is defined by E. K & Ca
A. Principal quantum number
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2. In a compound X, all the bond angles are
100. For a 51% ionic molecule, the difference in exactly 109°28', X is:
EN is: A. Chloroform
B. Iodoform
A. 1.5
C. Chloromethane
B. 1.7 D. Carbon tetrachloride.
С. 1.9
D. 2.1 3. Which one has the highest degree of polarity
in its molecule?
101. Balmer series is important as: A. H-Br
A. it is the first series B. H-I
C. H-Cl
B. it gives sharp lines
D. H-F
C. it lies in visible region
D. it was first discovered 4. The bond energy for H2 molecule is:
E. it has minimum energy A. 98 K cal mol-1
B. 110 K cal mol-1
102. Which of the following compounds is C. 104 K cal mol-1
expected to be colored? D. 36 K cal mal-1
A. Ag2SO4
5. How many single bonds are in a molecule of
B. CuCl carbon dioxide (CO2)?
C. MgF2 A. none
D. CuF2 B. one
C. two
103. The principle quantum number is related to D. Three
E. Four
the:
A. Orbital angular momentum 6. All of the following have covalent bonds
B. Size of the orbital EXCEPT:
C. Orientation of the orbital A. HCl
D. Spin of orbital B. CCl4
C. H2O
D. NaCl
E. CO2
UNIT NO. (04)
7. sp3 hybridization in CH4 gives it ______
1. Which of the following is a false statement
geometry.
concerning an ionic compound?
A. Linear
A. Greater the lattice energy, the greater is the
B. Co planner
solubility.
C. Tetra hedral
B. Higher the dielectric constant of the solvent,
D. Trigonal pyramid
the greater is the solubility.
E. Octahedral
C. Higher the dipole moment of the solvent, the
greater is the solubility.
8. The C-C bond distance is _______.
D. Increase of temperature generally increases
A. 1.10 Å
solubility.
E. Have greater boiling and melting point. B. 1.20 Å
C. 1.30 Å
D. 1.54 Å
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E. 1.34 Å C. No free valence electron on carbon atom
D. None of the above
9. Covalent compounds
A. Crystals are made up of ions 16. H-bonding is exhibited by:
B. are non-electrolytes A. All the molecules containing H-atom
C. are soluble in water B. Molecules in which two H-atoms are present
E. are electrolytes C. Molecules in which H atom is covalently
bonded to F, O or N
10. Which of the following is a planar Trigonal D. Molecules in which H is bonded to atoms with
molecule? electronegativity more than 2.1
A. HCl
B. BeCl2 17. Ionic covalent and co-ordinate covalent
C. BF3 bonds are simultaneously present in the
D. CO2 molecular geometry of
E. CS2 A. Ammonia
B. Ammonium hydroxide
11. The bond angle in NH3 is: C. Hydrochloric acid
A. 109°28" D. Water
B. 107° E. Methane
C. 104.5°
D. 90° 18. A compound was found to contain nitrogen
and oxygen in the ratio 28 g: 80 g. The formula
12. Which of the following halogens does not of the compound is:
exhibit positive oxidation state in its A. NO
compounds? B. N2O3
A. I C. N2O4
B. Br D. N2O5
C. CI
D. F 19. Which one of the following has the highest
electronegativity?
13. The geometry of BF3 molecule is: A. Cl
A. tetrahedral B. Fr
B. Linear C. F
C. Octahedral D. K
D. planar trigonal E. Rb
E. square planar
20. Ionic radius of CI is
14. The bond angle of Linear, Trigonal and A. 151 Å
Tetrahedral shapes respectively are: B. 0.99 Å
A. 180°, 120°, 109° C. 1.71 Å
B. 180°, 109°, 129° D. 1.57Å
C. 130°, 180°, 129° E. 1.81 Å
D. 129°, 180°, 160°
E. 107°, 175°, 130° 21. Covalent compounds are:
A. Non-electrostatic
15. Hardness of diamond is attributed to the: B. Generally insoluble n water
A. Strength of ionic bond C. Soluble in organic solvent
B. close packing of atoms and large number of D. Both A and B
covalent bonds E. All of the above

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B. Two unpaired electrons
22. According to _________ theory lies, a C. Three unpaired electrons
covalent bond is formed by the fusion of the D. One paired electron
atomic orbitals. E. None of the above
A. Valence Bond Theory (VBT)
B. Molecular Orbital Theory. (MOT)
С. VESPER Theory 29. What is the number of paired shared
D. Both A and B electrons in methane molecule?
E. All of the above A. 1
B. 2
23. All of the following are non-polar covalent
C. 3
bonds except:
D. 4
A. Cl2
B. O2
C. N2 30. "In an atom no two electrons can have same
D. HF set of quantum numbers", this statement was
E. H2 given by:
A. Uncertainty principle
24. Greater the tendency of an atom to give out
B. Pauli's exclusion principle
electrons, more in the:
A. Electronegativity C. Hund's rule
B. Metallic character D. Aufbau's principle
C. Melting point
D Boiling point 31. The bond formed by the electrostatic
E. Ionization potential attraction between negative end of one
molecule and positive end of other is called:
25. Example of Trigonal system is:
A. Covalent bond
A. BaSO4
B. AgNO3 B. Hydrogen bond
C. ZnSO4 C. Ionic bond
D. SiO2 D. Co-Ordinate covalent bond
E. SnO2
32. The bond angle in a molecule having Sp3
26. Bond energy of a molecule depends upon
hybridization with no lone pair is:
A. Bond distance and bond polarity
A. 120 Angle
B. Ionization energy
C. Internal energy B. 180 Angle
D. Lattice energy C. 109 Angle
E. Kinetic energy D. 90 Angle

27. Which orbital has lowest energy? 33. The electronic configurations of the noble
A. 3d
gases are:
B. 4s
C. 3p A. ns2, np5
D. 4f B. ns2, np6
E. 5f C. ns2, np4, nd8
D. ns2, np6, nd10
28. Molecular orbital picture of O2 indicates
A. One unpaired electron

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34. Excited state of C atom can be represented C. N+L rule
as:- D. Aufbau principle
A. 1s" 2s" 2 px' 2 py' 2px°
41. The tabular arrangement of ______ principle
B. 1s1 2s' 2 px' 2 py' 2pz'
is called long term of the periodic table.
C. 1 s" 2s' 2 px' 2py' 2pz'
A. (n+l) rule
B. Pauli's Exclusion principle
35. "The electrons are filled to the orbitals of
C. Aufbau principle
lowest energy in sequence, two to each orbital",
D. Hund's rule
this is statement of:
A. Pauli's exclusion principle
42. Which is not an allotrope of carbon?
B. Aufbau Principle
A. Diamond
C. (n+l) Rule.
B. Coke
D. Hund's Rule.
C. Methane
D. Graphite
36. Which has shortest C-C bond length:-
A. C2H2
43. Which one of the following bond has the
B. C2H4
most polar character?
C. CCL4
A. C-O
D. C2H5 OH
B. C-F
C. C-Br
37 Electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1, is of
D. C-S
A. Sodium
B. Magnesium
44. Which rule is violated in this 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,
C. Neon
3p6, 4s2?
D. Calcium
A. Aufbaus's Principle
B. Hund's Rule
38. In M-shell maximum number of electrons:
A. 16 C. n+I rule
B. 13 D. Pauli's Exclusion Principle
C. 12
D. 14 45. Atoms of Sulphur and 6 oxygen atoms are
held in a thionate molecule by?
39. In which compound co-ordinate covalent
A. Ionic Bond
bond is present:
A. CH3OH B. Covalent Bond
B. POCl3 C. Dative Bond
C. H2O D. Polar Bond
D. CHCl3
46. How many lone pairs are present in H20?
40. Maximum number of electrons try to occupy A. 2
orbitals singly only when all the orbitals are
B. 4
singly occupied only then pairing of electrons
commences is: C. 1
A. Hund's rule D. 3
B. Pauli’s exclusion principle

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47. The s-s bond is weaker than s-p or p-p D. f
because:
A. Radius of s orbits is short 54. Elements which have completely filled
B. Radial distribution of charge in s orbital outermost shell and do not combine other
C. Distribution of charge at the Axis elements are called
D. Distribution of charge at Nodal Planes A. Metal elements
B. Reactive elements
48. NH3 dissolved in water will act as: C. Unstable elements
A. Proton acceptor D. Rare earth elements
B. Proton donor
C. Electron donor 55. Dipole moment of CO2 is _____
D. Both proton acceptor and electron donor A. Zero
B. 1.9 debye
49. Zn has only one oxidation state because? C. 1.4 debye
A. Completely filled 4d-orbital D. 0.5 debye
B. Half filed 4s orbital
C. Completely filled 3d orbital 56. Which statement indicates that diamond and
D. Half-filled 3s orbital graphite are allotropic from of carbon?
A. Both have same molecular structure
50. Bond - energy is needed to know: B. Graphite conducts electricity whereas
A. Nature of compound diamond does not C
B. Nature of ionic compound C. Under suitable conditions graphite can be
C. Nature of Reaction converted into diamond)
D. Nature of Bonding D. Complete combustion of equal mass of each
produces equal mass of CO2 only
51. Azimuthal quantum number shows:
A. Orientation if in space 57. To prepare the m--Nitro Benzoic acid from
B. Size of the orbital Toluene
C. Shape of orbital FIRST 2ND
D. None of the above A. Hydrogenation Nitration
B. Acylation. Alkylation
52. The electronic configuration of noble gases C. Nitration. Oxidation
is: D. Oxidation. Nitration
A. ns2, np58
B. ns2, np8 58. When one s and thee p orbital combine
C. ns2, np6,nd8 together, this is called hybridization.
D. None of the above A. sp2
B. sp3
53. The subshell which has only one orbital is C. sp
identified by the letter: D. s-s
A. s
B. d 59. Which one of the following atoms A, B, C or
C. p D would readily form an ion with a charge + 2?
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Atomic mass. Atomic No B. C2H4
A. 12 6 C. C2H6
B. 16 8 D. C2H8
C. 24 12 E. C2H10
D. 31 15
65. One liter of solution contains 30g acetic acid,
60. Which one of the following atoms A, B, C, D the active mass of acetic acid is ________.
or E would readily form an ion with a charge of A. 0.5 mol/L
+2? B. 1.5 mol/L
Mass No. Atomic Neo C. 10 mol/L
A. 12 6 D. 2 mol/L
B. 15 8
C. 24 12 66. Which one of the following bond has the
D. 31 15 most polar character?
A. C-O
61. Which one of the following ions is not B. C-F
monovalent? C. C-Br
A. Ammonium D. C-S
B. Sulphite
C. Nitrate 67. The structure of BeCl2 can best be described
D. Chloride as:
E. Sodium A. Linear
B. Bent
62. The formula of a metallic oxide is MO. This C. Trigonal
oxide contains 60% by mass of the element M. D. Tetrahedral
The relative atomic mass of M is calculated to E. Square
be:
A. 8 68. H2C =CH2 the molecule contains:
B. 12 A. 4 sigma -2 pi Bonds
C. 24 B. 2 sigma -4 pi Bonds
D. 48 C. 5 sigma 1 pi Bonds
E. 84 D. 6 sigma Bonds
E. 6 pi bonds
63. A change which involves breaking of making
of now bonds is called) 69. The structure of BeCl2 can best be described
A. Chemical change as:
B. Permanent change A. Linear
C. Ordinary change B. Bent
D. Physical change C. Trigonal
D. Tetrahedral
64. Which of the following molecules has the
strongest carbon-to-carbon bond? 70. Catenation is a process in which carbon
A. C2H2 shows the properties of:
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A. Making single bond E. All of the above
B. Hybridization
C. Making long chains or rings of carbon 76. Bond energy:
atoms l. Is energy required to break a bond between
D. Isomerism two atoms in a diatomic molecule.
E. Breaking of bonds II. Is taken as the energy released in forming a
bond form free atoms
71. Sigma bond is formed by: Ill. Is the measure of the strength of bond.
A. Transferring the electrons A. I only
B. head on overlapping of atomic orbital B. I and II only
C. Mutual but unequal sharing of electrons C. I and IIl only
D. Parallel overlapping of atomic orbital D. III only
E. All of the above. E. I, ll and lll

72. Linear combination of atomic orbitals (LCAO) 77. How many lone pairs are present in H2O?
results in the formation of: A. 2
A. Sigma bond B. 4
B. Pi bond C. 1
C. Bonding molecular orbitals only D. 3
D. Bonding and binding molecular orbitals
E. All of the above 78. Dipole moment of CO2 is
A. Zero
73. Linear combination of atomic (LCAO) results B. 1.4 debye
in the formation of: C. 1.9 debye
A. Sigma bond D. 0.5 debye
B. Pi Bond
C. bonding molecular orbital's only 79. The C-C bond distance is ______.
D. bonding and anti-bonding molecular orbitals A. 1.10 Å
E. all of the above B. 1.20 Å
C. 1.30 Å
74. Sigma bond is formed by: D. 1.54 Å
A. transferring the electrons E. 1.34 Å
B. head on overlapping of atomic orbitals
C. mutual but unequal sharing of electrons 80. SP3 hybridization in CH4 gives it _______
D. parallel overlapping of atomic orbitals geometry.
E. all of the above A. Linear
B. Co planner
75. Which of the following molecule have zero C. Tetra hedral
Dipole moments? D. Trigonal pyramid
A. CCl4 E. Octahedral
B. CO2
C. Cl2 81. In a double-bonded carbon atom (C=C):
D. C6H6
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A. hybridization occurs between the s-orbital A. BF3> NF3> NH 3
and one p- orbital B. NF3> BF 3> NH 3
B. hybridization occurs between the s-orbital C. NH 3> NF 3> BF3]
D. NH3> BF3> NF3
and two p- orbitals
E. NH3 = BF3 = NF3
C. hybridization occurs between the s-orbital
and three p-orbitals 86. H2O has a higher boiling point than HF
D. no hybridization occurs between the s-and p- because:
orbitals A. H2O is more polar than HF
E. hybridization occurs between two s-orbitals B. H2O can form more hydrogen bonds
and one p- orbital C. H2O has a higher molecular weight
D. H2O has more atoms
E. H2O does not have a higher boiling point that
82. Which is not characteristic of pi bond? HF
A. Pi bond is formed when sigma bond already
exists 87. Bond energy between nitrogen atoms in N2
B. Pi bond results from lateral overlap of atomic molecule is:
orbitals A. 242 KJ mol-1
C. Pi bonds are formed from hybrid orbitals B. 820 KJ mol-1
C. 498 KJ mol-1
D. Pi bonds may be formed by the overlap of p
D. 347 KJ mol-1
orbitals E. 946 KJ mol-1
E. All of the above
88. The order of force of repulsion between lone
83. The table shown below gives the bond pairs and bond pairs is:
dissociation energies of single covalent bonds of A. Lone pair-Bond pair repulsion > Lone pair-
carbon atom with elements A, B and C Lone pair repulsion> Bond pair-Bond pair
BOND E dissociation (Kj.mole-1)
repulsion
B. Bond pair- Bond pair repulsion > Lone pair-
C-A 240
Lone pair repulsion >Lone pair-Bond pair
С-В 328
repulsion
C-C 276
C. Lone pair-Lone pair repulsion > Bond pair-
C-D 485 Bond pair repulsion > Lone pair-Bond pair
Which of the following is the smallest atom? repulsion
A. A
D. Lone pair-Lone pair repulsion> Lone pair-
В. В
Bond pair repulsion> Bond pair-Bond pair
С. С
D. D repulsion

84. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of N is 89. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment
N2, NO3 and NH4 are, respectively: are:
A. sp, sp2, sp3 A. angular and non-zero
B. sp, sp3, sp2
B. angular and zero
C. SO2, sp, sp3
D. sp2, sp3, sp C. linear and zero
D. linear and non-zero
85. The dipole moments of the given molecules
(BF3, NF3, and NH3) are such that: 90. In HF the covalent bond is due to
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A. s-s overlapping A. Heat of formation
B. p-pz overlapping B. Heat of neutralization
C. S-Px overlapping C. Heat of oxidation
D. Heat of sublimation
D. Pz -Pz overlapping
E. Heat of reduction

91. Four words are shown below: 3. In a reaction with higher energy barrier the
Similar polar solvents electrostatic reactant molecules require.
solvation lattice energy A. higher energy of activation to pass the energy
barrier
Ionic compounds are soluble in water and B. lower energy of activation to pass the energy
___P__because of the strong _Q_ attractions barrier
between the ions and polar molecules solvent. C. higher kinetic energy
The surrounding of the ions by the solvent D. lower kinetic energy
molecules ___R__ releases the energy which is
4. 1 calorie= ________ Joules.
known as the energy of solvation. This energy A. 200 Joules
usually overcomes the high __S__ of the ionic B. 2000 Joules
compound. C. 4.184 Joules
D. 4180 Joules
E. 3630 Joules

5. The amount of heat provided to a system at


constant pressure (qp) is equal to _______.
A. Change in internal energy (∆E)
B. Change in enthalpy (∆H)
Lattice similar electrostatic solvation C. Change in free energy (∆G)
energy polar D. Change in temperature only (∆T)
solvents E. Change in pressure only (∆P)
A. S Q R P
B. P Q S R 6. For a chemical reaction:
c. S P Q R A⟶B
D. R S P Q The threshold energy of reaction is 50 K.J/mole.
E. P Q R S The average internal energy of A is 25 K.J/mole.
The activation energy of A is:
A. 25 K.J/mole
B. 50 K.J/mole
UNIT NO. (05) C. 100 K.J/mole
D. 125 K.J/mole
1. Which of the following statement is wrong? E. O K.J/mole
A. An endothermic reaction must absorb
energy before it occurs. 7. Change in the property of a system (in
B. During exothermic reaction heat is evolved thermodynamics) is equal to.
C. After an endothermic reaction, there is no A. Value of a property in the final states - value
change in the temperature of the reaction of the same property in the initial state.
mixture B. Value of a property in the initial state - value
D. None of the above of the same property in the final state.
C. Value of a property in the initial state + Value
2. In the reaction: H2 (g) + I2 (g) → 2HI (g) of a property in the final states.
Δ H= + 12.40 Kj/mole represents:

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D. Value of a property in the final state x value A. The Heat energy required to change 1mg of a
of the same property in the initial state. solid into liquid at its melting point
E. Does not depend upon the initial and final B. The Heat energy required to change 1Kg of a
value of the property solid into liquid at its melting point
C. The Heat energy required to change 18g of a
8. Which of the following intensive property is solid into liquid at its melting point
obtained from extensive properties? D. The Heat energy required to change 1g of a
A. melting point solid into liquid at its melting point
B. density E. None of the above
C. vapor pressure
D. boiling point 14. The property of being able to add enthalpies
is based on the:
9. The pressure of heat (qp) at contact volume is A. Law of Conservation of Heat
equal to: B. First Law of Thermodynamics
A. change in internal energy (∆E) C. Law of Constants
B. change in enthalpy (∆H) D. Law of E = mc²
C. Heat gas constant (R) E. Hess's Law
D. P∆V
E. Pressure (P) 15. If ∆H of a reaction is -100 K Cal/mole, it
indicates the reaction is:
10. For a chemical reaction A ⟶ B, the threshold A. Endothermic
energy of reaction is 51 K.J/mole. The average B. Unstable
internal energy of A is 27 K.J/mole. Calculate C. In need of a catalyst.
activation energy of A? D. Exothermic
A. 19 K.J/mole E. None of the above
B. 24 K.J/mole
C. 30 K.J/mole 16. In case of slow reaction, if the temperature is
D. 34 K.J/mole increased by 10 K, then point out the false
E. 37 K.J/mole statement:
A. Average K.E decreases
E. Velocity of molecule increases
11. Absolute Zero is equal to:
C. Number of collisions is doubled
A. -237.16°C
D. Threshold energy becomes double
B. -273.16K
C. -273.16°C 17. According to Hess's Law, the thermal effects of a
D. -272° C reaction depends on:
E. 0°c A. Initial concentration of reactant
B. Initial and final states of the system
12. The heat evolved or absorbed during a C. Final concentration of the reaction
chemical reaction depends upon the: D. Particular manner in which reaction takes place
A. The amount of chemical substance involved E. None of the above
B. The temperature
C. The physical states of the substance involved 18. Which of the following values of heat of
constant volume formation indicates that the product is least
D. Whether the reaction occurs at constant stable?
pressure or A. -94 k cal
E. All of the above C. -231 k cal
C. +21.4 k cal
13. The Latent Heat of fusion is defined as: D. +64.8 k cal

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19. The enthalpy of certain reaction at 273 K is - D. Hess's Law
20.75 kJ. The enthalpy of same reaction at 373 K
(if heat capacities of reactants and products are 25. At what temperature standard enthalpy changes
same will be: are measured?
A. -20.75 kJ A. 293K
B. -2075 kJ B. 273 K
C. Zero C. 293°C
373 D. 298°F
D. -20.75 x KJ
273
26. Thermodynamics is the study of heat energy and
20. Which of the following values of heat of
______ energy relationship.
formation indicates that the product is least
A. Energy of activation
stable?
B. Kinetic energy
A. -94K.Cals/mol
C. Chemical
B. -231.6K.Cals/mol
D. Lionization
C. +21.4K.Cals/mol
D. +64.8K.Cals/mol
27. The law of conservation of energy is also called)
21. A property of a system that depends only on A. Second law of Thermodynamics
the state of a system is called a: B. 3rd law of Thermodynamics
C. First law of Thermodynamics
A. state action
D. None of the above
B. state reaction
C state function
D. state of system 28. Which statement concerning energy change is
E. none of the above false?
A. Electrical energy is produced by the reaction in a
22. In the reaction: H2 (g) + I2 (g) → 2HI (g). battery
B. Light energy is absorbed during photosynthesis
∆H = + 12.40
C. Light energy is produced when Methane burns in
KJ/mole represents:
Oxygen
A. Heat of formation
B. Heat of neutralization D. Heat energy is absorbed when Sodium reacts
with water
C. Heat of oxidation
D. Heat of sublimation 29. Which Statement concerning energy change
E. reduction is false?
A. Electrical Energy is produced by the reaction
23. The heat evolved or absorbed during
in a battery
chemical reaction depends upon:
A. Amount of chemical substance B. Light energy is absorbed during
B. Physical state substance photosynthesis
C. temperature C. Light energy is produced when methane is
D. Whether reaction occurs at constant pressure burned in Oxygen
or volume D. Heat energy is absorbed when Sodium reacts
E. All of the above with water

24. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but 30. Properties of system which depend upon the
can be transferred and transformed this known as:
amount of substance present in the system are
A. Law of conservation of energy
called:
B. Low of conservation of mass
C. Law of conservation of Momentum A. Chemical properties
B. Intensive properties
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C. Extensive properties 38. Which has highest K.E. amongst following?
D. Physical properties A. H2
B. O2
31. Enthalpy is the expression for the: C. CH4
D. All of these
A. Reaction rate
B. Heat content
39. Hess's Law is specially applied in the process?
C. Energy state
A. To find out the heat of formation.
D. Activation state B. To find out the specific heat of format
C. To find the total heat involved in the process
32. Which of the following is an example of where it cannot be directly be calculated
decrease in entropy:- D. To determine the rate of reaction
A. Evaporation of H2O
B. Sublimation of ice 40. The energy that the reactants should gain in
order to enter into reacting phase is called?
33. The heat absorbed or evolved in a given reaction A. Minimum Energy
must be independent of particular manner in which B. Activation Energy
reaction takes place. C. Threshold Frequency
A. Hess law D. Kinetic Energy
B. Law of conservation of energy
C. Law of thermodynamics 41. The heat absorbed at constant volume is equal
D. Law of mass action to:
A. External pressure
34. The change of enthalpy when 1gm mol of
B. Energy change
substance is formed from its elements is:
C. Internal pressure
A. Heat of reaction
B. Heat of combustion D. All of the above
C. Heat of formation
D. Heat of condensation 42. Products of exothermic reaction are:
A. Unstabled
35. In there action SO2 + O2 → 2SO ∆H = 45 K.CAL is: B. Sometimes stable and sometimes unstable
A. Endothermic reaction C. Stable
B. Exothermic reaction D. None of the above
C. Constitutional reaction
D. Both A and B
43. The property of matter that is independent of its
36. The K.E. of molecules is: surrounding conditions and position is:
A. Linearly proportional to Temperature A. Volume
B. Inversely proportional to temperature B. Density
C. Linearly proportional to square root of C. Mass
temperature. D. Weight
D. Inversely proportional to square root of
temperature 44. Elastic collision involves:
A. Loss of energy
37. The K.E. of molecular theory does not state: B. Gain of energy
A. There are intermolecular forces w/n gases C. NO gain, no loss of energy
B. There is no volume in gases D. None of the above
C. Collision course is elastic
D. Ail of the above 45. Mostly loss of electron is a ________ reaction.
While gain of electron is a _________ reaction
Exothermic, Endothermic
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A. Endothermic, Endothermic C. Electron affinity
B. Endothermic, Exothermic D. Lattice energy
C. Exothermic, Exothermic E. Potential energy

46. Heat evolved or absorbed in a given reaction 52. The heat of a reaction can be calculated by using:
must be independent of particular manner. This law A. Joule's law
is called ________. B. Ohm's law
A. First law of thermodynamics C. Hess's law
B. Law of heat exchange D. Faraday's law
C. Hess's law E. Boyle's law
D. 2nd law of thermodynamics
53. The enthalpy change accompanying the gain of
47. Heat provided to a system at constant pressure
an electron by a neutral gaseous atom form negative
will be equal to
ion is called:
A. E
A. ionization potential
B. P X V
B. electro-negativity
C. H
C. electron affinity
D. None of the above
D. lattice energy
48. The enthalpy changes of formation of gaseous E. potential energy
ethene and gaseous ethane are 52 KJmole-1 and -85
KJ mole-1 respectively at 298K. What is the enthalpy 54. The heat of a reaction can be calculated by using:
change of reaction at 298 for the following process? A. Joule's law
A. -137 KJ mole-1 B. Ohm's law
B. -33 KJ mole-1 C. Hess's law
C. +33 KJ mole-1 D. Faraday's law
D. 137 KJ mole-1 E. Boyle's law

49- At what temperature standard enthalpy changes 55. If the matter in a given system at a given
are measured? condition is divided into two equal parts, then the
A. 293K value of the extensive properties will become:
B. 273 K A. Double of the original value
C. 293°C B. Half of the original value
D. 298° F C. Remain same as the original value
E. 298° C D. One-fourth of the original value
E. Heat of formation
50. The formula for Sandhur is:
A. Pb3 (OH2) (CO3)2 56. The measurement of heat absorbed or given out
B. PbO4 in a chemical reaction is referred to as:
C. PbO A. Enthalpy
D. Pb3O4 B. Endothermic reaction
E. None of the above C. Exothermic reaction
D. Thermochemistry
51. The enthalpy change accompanying the gain of E. Heat of formation
an electron by a neutral gaseous atom to form
negative ion is called: 57. The formula of Sandhur" is _____.
A. Ionization potential A. Pb3 (OH2) (CO3)2
B. Electro negativity B. PbO
C. PbO4
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D. Pb3O4

Temperature
58. Cl + e- → Сl- ∆H = -348kJ / mol the value -
348KJ/mol in this case will be: ROOM
A. Ionization energy
B. Electronegativity TEMPERATURE
C. Electron affinity
TIME
D. Entropy B.
E. Free energy

59. 1 calorie= ______ Joules.


A. 200 Joules
B. 2000 Joules

Temperature
C. 4.184 Joules ROOM
D. 4180 Joules
E. 3630 Joules TEMPERATURE

60. The amount of heat provided to a system at TIME


C.
constant pressure (qp ) is equal to ______.
A. Change in internal energy (∆E)
B. Change in enthalpy (∆H)
Temperature

C. Change in free energy (∆G)


D. Change in temperature only (∆T) ROOM
E. Change in pressure only (∆P)
TEMPERATURE
61. EDTA ion is a ______ legand. TIME
A. Monodentate D.
B. Bidentate
63. Which of the following statements is NOT true
C. Tridentate
D. Polydentate for the first law of thermodynamics?
E. None of the above A. total energy of the system and surrounding is
conserved
62. Dissolution of ammonium nitrate in water is an B. energy can neither be created nor destroyed
C. it is the same as law of conservation of energy
endothermic process. Which of the following graph
D. total energy of the system is increasing
shows how the temperature alters as the ammonium
nitrate is added to water and then the solution is left
64. Which of the following statements is/are true
at room temperature
with regard to the reaction?
2SO3 (g) ⇋ 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)
In which the forward reaction is exothermic?
Temperature

A. The forward reaction is favored at higher pressure


ROOM and higher temperature
B. The forward reaction is favored at lower pressure
TEMPERATURE and higher temperature
C. At constant temperature, more SO2 is formed at
TIME equilibrium if the total pressure is increased
A.
D. At constant total pressure, more O2 is formed at
equilibrium if the temperature is increased.

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E. Both B & D C. 19 K.J/Mole

65. The chemical reactions in which reactants require


high amount of activation energy are generally: UNIT NO. (06)
A. Slow
B. First fast then slow 1. In which of the following reactions kp and Kc
C. First slow then fast will have the same numerical value?
D. Spontaneous A. 2SO2 + O2 ⇌2SO3
B. N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3
66. In those reactions where determination of C. PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2
enthalpy value is difficult by experiments, in such
D. N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO
cases enthalpy value can be calculated by:
E. Both C and D
A. Hess's law
B. Henry's law 2. Consider the following system, PCl5 = PCI3 +
C. Kirchhoff’s law Cl2.The unit of Kc for this reaction is:
D. Clapeyron equation A. mole² / L²
E. Boyle's law C. L²/mole²
D. mole/L
E. mole/L²
67. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends upon
its: 3. Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature
A. Molecular size because.
B. Pressure only A. the equilibrium is attained rapidly
C. Volume only B. concentration of reactants and products become
D. Temperature only equal at equilibrium
C. concentration of reactants and products does
not become equal at equilibrium
68. Heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction D. both forward and backward reaction occur at all
does not depend upon? times with the same speed
A. Amount of reactants
B. Pressure of reaction 4. Chemical equilibrium is dynamic nature
C. Physical state of reactants and products because.
D. Temperature A. the equilibrium is attained slowly
B. concentration of reactants is always greater
69. For a reaction given below than products
C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 394kJ/mol C. Concentration of reactants does not become
The enthalpy of reaction is
equal at equilibrium.
D. It is one sided reaction.
A. 394 kJ/mol
E. both forward and backward reactions occur
B. -394 kJ/mol
at all times with the same speed
C. 197 kJ/mol
D. -197 kJ/mol
5. AgCl ⇌ Ag+ + Cl-
70. For a chemical reaction A → B, the threshold The ksp for the reaction will be:
[𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙]
energy of reaction is 31K.J/mole. The average A. Ksp =
[𝐴𝑔+ ][𝐶𝑙 − ]
internal energy of A is 12K.J/Mole. What will be the [𝐴𝑔+ ][𝐶𝑙 − ]
activation energy of A? B. Ksp =
[𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙]
A. 43 К.J/Mole C. Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl-]
B. 37 К.J/Mole D. Ksp = [AgCl]
A. С. 25 К.J / Mole
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[𝐴𝑔+ ] E. Concentration of the product is raised
E. Ksp =
[𝐶𝑙 − ]
10. The equilibrium for the formation of HI from H2
6. Nitrogen dioxide decomposes on heating and I2 can be represented by either of the
according to the following equation stoichiometric equation:
2NO2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g) + O2 (g) k1
When 4 mole of nitrogen dioxide were put into a (i) H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI
1 dm3 container and heated to a constant k2
𝟏 𝟏
temperature, the equilibrium mixture contained (ii) 𝟐 H2 + 𝟐 I2 ⇌ HI
0.8 mole of oxygen.
What is the numerical value of the equilibrium The equilibrium constants k1 and k2 are related as:
constant Kc, at the temperature of the A. k2 = (k1)1/3
experiment? B. k2 = (k1)-1/2
0.82 𝑥 0.8 1
A. C. k2 = k1
42 2
1.6 𝑥 0.8 D. k2 = 2 k1
B.
2.4 2
1.62 𝑥 0.8 11. For the equilibrium reaction 2NO2 ↔ N2O4 (g)
C.
42 + 61 kJ, increase of temperature would:
2
1.6 𝑥 0.8
D. A. Favour the formation of N2O4
2.4 2
B. Favour the decomposition of N2O4
E. None of the above
C. No effect on equilibrium
D. Stop the reaction
7. In a reaction:
𝑴𝒏𝑶𝟐
2H2O2 (aq) → 2H2O (l) + O2 (g) 12. When 0.20 mole of hydrogen gas and 0.15
MnO2 is a: mole of iodine gas are heated at 723 K until
A. positive catalyst equilibrium is established, the equilibrium
B. negative catalyst mixture is found to contain 0.26 mole of
C. auto catalyst hydrogen iodide. The equation for the reaction
D. bio catalyst is as follows.
E. none of the above H2 (g) + I2 (g) → 2HI (g)
What is the correct expression for the
8. The average rate of chemical reaction can be equilibrium constant Kc?
expressed is the. 2 x 0.26
A.
A. concentration of reactants more the 0.20 x 0.15
concentration of products
B. concentration of products or reactants divided (2 x O.26)2
B.
by the time required for the reaction 0.20 x 0.15
C. change in concentration of products or
reactants divided by the change in time (O.26)2
C.
D. change in time divided by change in 0.07 x 0.02
concentration of products or reactants
(O.26)2
9. For a reaction D.
0.13 x 0.13
H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI, there will be no effect on
equilibrium, if: E. none of the above
A. Temperature is lowered
B. Concentration of the reactants is raised 13. How will the equilibrium of the following
C. Pressure is lowered reaction be affected if more nitrogen is added?
D. Temperature is raised
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N2 (g) 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) E. Reactants
A. It will be shifted to the right
B. It will be shifted to the left. 17. In equilibrium Ks.p is expressed as:
C. It will be unaffected BaSO4 ===== Ba+2 + SO42
D. The effect on the equilibrium cannot be A. Ks.p = [BaSO4]
[Ba+2 ][𝑆𝑂4−2 ]
determined without more information. B. Ks.p = [baSO4 ]
E. More NH3 will be produced. C. Ks.p = [Ba+2][SO4-2]
D. None of the above
14. For the reaction
A+B⇌C+D 18. Ks.p is called
The equilibrium constant can be expressed as: A. Solubility product
[A][B] B. Concentration
A. Kc = C. Equilibrium
[C][D]
[C][D] D. Constant concentration
B. Kc = 19. Factors affecting the balance of a chemical
[A][D]
[C][D] equilibrium are following except:
C. Kc =
[A][B] A. Concentration
C.D B. Temperature
D. Kc =
A.B C. Enthalpy
A.B
E. Kc = D. Pressure
C.D
20. In a reactor:
15. The energy profile diagrams for the reaction NO + O2 → NO3 + heat
in presence and absence of a catalyst are shown Le Chattlier's principle can be favoured by:
below. In these profile A represents:
A. High pressure - High temperature
B. High pressure - Low temperature
C. Low pressure - Low temperature
D. Low pressure - High temperature
ENERGY

21. Point the incorrect statement in case of


REACTANT PRODUCT equilibrium state:
A. It is dynamic in nature
Progress of reaction B. It readjusts itself in the changing conditions
C. It can be attained from the side of reactants only
A. Threshold energy
D. It can be attained from either side of the reaction
B. Energy of activation in absence of catalyst
C. Average internal energy of reactants
22. N2+ O2 → 2NO; Heat= + ve, the yield of N2 can be
D. Energy of activation in presence of catalyst
E. None of the above increased in this reaction by:
A. Increasing the pressure
16. The reaction. B. Increasing the temperature
C. Decreasing the temperature
H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI
D. Decreasing the pressure
is independent of.
A. Temperature
23. NaNO3 + heat--> NaNO2 + O2 in his reaction:
B. Concentration
A. Kp = Kc
C. catalyst
B. Kp > Kc
D. pressure
C. Kp < Kc
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D. Kp Ksc
29. In which reaction will the point of equilibrium
24. When the reaction is in equilibrium: shift to the left when the pressure on the system is
A. Production is equal to reaction increased?
B. Rate of forward reaction is equal to backward A. C (S) + 02 (g) ↔CO2 (g)
reaction B. CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO (s) + CO2(g)
C. Product is not equal to reaction C. 2Mg (s) + O2 (g) ↔ 2MgO (s)
D. All of the above D. 2H2 (g) +O2 (g) ↔ 2H2O (g)

25. 66 Nylon is a polymer of: 30. Point the incorrect statement in case of
A. Vinyl chloride equilibrium state:
B. Aldehyde A. It is dynamic in nature
C. Adiphic acid + hexamethylene Diamine B. It readjusts itself on the changing conditions only
D. Both a & b C. It can be attained from the side of reactants only
D. It can be attained from either side of the reaction
25- Equilibrium is established when:
A. Rate of forward reaction = rate backward reaction 31. A catalyst can't initiate the reaction but speeds
B. Rate of forward reaction > rate backward reaction up a reaction which is possible:
C. Rate of forward reaction < rate of backward A. Physically
reaction
B. Thermodynamically
D. Rate of forward reaction rate of backward
C. Chemically
reaction
D. In laboratory
26. MgCl2 _____ +2 CI + Mg+2
32. Given the reaction at equilibrium:
This reaction represents the equilibrium between
2CO (g) + O2 (g) ←→ 2CO2 (g)
MgCl2 and Cl, Mg++ ions. Ks p for this reaction can be
When the reaction is subjected to stress, a change
calculated as
will occur in the concentration of:
A. ks.p = [Mg++] [a]
[𝑀𝑔++ ] [a]
A. Reactants, only
B. ks.p =
[MgCl] B. Products, only
[𝑀𝑔++ ] [ 𝐶𝑙]2 C. Both reactants and products
C. ks.p = [MgCl]
D. Neither reactants nor products
D. ks.p = [Mg++] [Cl]2
33. According to law of mass action, "The rate of
27. Given the equilibrium system at 25°c)
chemical reaction is proportional to:
NH4CI(s) → NH4+ (aq) + C - (aq) (H= +3.5 kcal/mol)
A. Products
What change will shift the equilibrium to the right?
B. Product of molar concentration of reactants
A. Dec the temp to 15°C
C. Initial concentrations of reactants
B. Inc the temp to 35°c
D. Catalyst
C. Dissolving NaCl crystals
E. Pressure
D. Dissolving NH4NONH3 crystals
34. For, the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
28. Given the reaction at equilibrium: 2CO (g) + 02 (g)
The production of NH3 will be favored at
→ 2CO2 (g) when the reaction is subjected to stress,
A. High pressure and catalyst
a change will occur in the concentration of:
B. Low pressure only
A. Reactants only
C. Low pressure and catalyst
B. Products only
D. High pressure only
C. Both reactants and products
E. Catalyst only
D. Neither reactants nor products
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C. 3.25
35. The sum of exponents of the molar concentration D. 2.75
of the reactants is equal to E. 3.75
A. Molecular
B. Polarity 40. If the ratio of initial concentration of the reagents
C. Activation energy is greater than the Kc then
D. Rate of reaction A. The reaction will shift towards the reserve
E. Order of reaction direction
B. More quantity of products is obtained
C. The ratio increases to the value of Kc
36. When 18x10-3 moles/dm3 of acetic acid react with
D. Equilibrium has been attained
22x10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl alcohol to form 40x10-3
E. There is no shifting of reaction
moles/dm3 of ethyl acetate and 40x10-3 moles/dm3
of water. Find the value of equilibrium constant (kc)
41. If the reaction
A. 4.04
P + Q ---> R + S
B. 3.14
is described as being of zero order with respect to P,
C. 3.04
it means that:
D. 2.02
A. P is a catalyst in this reaction
E. 1.04
B. No P molecules possesses sufficient energy to
react
37. When 18 x 10-3 moles/dm3 of acetic acid react C. The concentration of P does not change during
with 22x10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl alcohol to form 40 x the reaction.
10-3 moles/dm3 of ethyl acetate and 40 x 103 D. The rate of reaction is independent of the
moles/dm3 of water. Find the value of equilibrium concentration of P
constant (kc): E. The rate of reaction is proportional to the
A. 4.04 concentration of Q
B. 3.14
C. 3.04 42. Nitrogen dioxide decomposes on heating
D. 2.02 according to the following equation
E. 1.04 2NO2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g) + O2 (g)
When 4 mole of nitrogen dioxide were put into a 1
38. According to law of mass action, "The rate of dm3 container and heated to a constant
chemical reaction is proportional to: temperature, the equilibrium mixture contained 0.8
A. products mole of oxygen.
B. product of molar concentration of reactants What is the numerical value of the equilibrium
C. initial concentration of reactants constant, Kc, at the temperature of the experiment?
D. catalyst A. 0.82 ×0.8/42
E. pressure B. 1.6 x 0.8/ 2.42
C. 1.62 x 0.8/42
39. In a reaction D. 1.62 x 0.8/2.42
A + B ↔ 2C E. None of the above
When equilibrium was attained, the concentration
was 43. AgCl ⇌ Ag+ + CI-
[A] = [B] = 4 moles/ dm3 The ksp for the reaction will be:
[𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙]
[C] = 6 moles/dm3 A. ksp = [𝐴𝑔+][
𝐶𝑙− ]
The equilibrium constant K c of this reaction is: [𝐴𝑔+ ][ 𝐶𝑙 − ]
A. 1.25 B. ksp = [𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙]
B. 2.25 C. ksp = [Ag+] [Cl-]
PAGE N0: 46
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D. ksp = [AgCl] When a pure ___P__ is heated, a temperature is
[𝐴𝑔+ ] reached where it changes sharply into liquid. This is
E. ksp = [𝐶𝑙 − ]
__Q__ of solid. It is defined as that __R__ at which
there is __S__ between solid and liquid phases.
44. A system at equilibrium can be disturbed by:
Temperatur melting equilibriu crystalline
A. Concentration change e point m solid
B. Pressure change A. S Q R P
C. Temperature B. P Q S R
D. All of the above C. S P Q R
D. R S P Q
45. Catalyst used in reaction E. P Q R S
𝟏
CHCl3 + O2 → COCl2 + HCI is
𝟐 A. SQRP
________ and its nature is ___________
B. PQSR
A. 5% methyl alcohol ... Negative
C. SPQR
B. 2% Ethyl alcohol ... Negative
D. RSPQ
C. V2O5 … Positive
E. PQRS
D. AL2O3...Negative

50. A catalyst:
46. If products of a reaction act as catalyst, such
process is called: A. increases the rate of forward reaction
B. increases the rate of both forward and reverse
A. Positive catalyst
reaction
B. Negative catalyst
C. changes equilibrium position
C. Auto catalyst
D. increases the rate of reverse reaction
D. Both A and B
47. In which of the following gaseous equilibrium, 51. 1 mole of N2O4 (g) was placed in an empty 1 dm3
more yield of the product is formed by decreasing container and allowed to reach equilibrium
pressure? according to the following equation:
A. N2 + O2 ⇋ 2NO N2O4 (g) ↔ 2NO2 (g)
в. PCl5 ⇋ PCl3 + Cl2 At equilibrium, x mole of N2O4 (g) had dissociated.
C. 2NO2 ⇋ N2O4 What is the value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, at
D. 2NH3 ⇋ N2 + 3H2 the temperature of the experiment?
2𝑥
48. How will the equilibrium of the following A.
(1−𝑥)
reaction be affected if additional nitrogen is 4𝑥 2
added? B.
(1−𝑥)2
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇆ 2NH3 (g) 2𝑥
C.
A. It will be shifted to the right (1−𝑥)2
B. It will be shifted to the left 4𝑥 2
D.
C. It will be unaffected (1−𝑥)
D. The effect on the equilibrium cannot be
determined without more information 52. If 4.6 gm of ethyl alcohol and 6.0 gm of acetic
E. More NH3 will be produced. acid kept at constant temperature until equilibrium
was established 2.0gm of unused acetic acid were
49. Four words are shown below:
present. What is the Kc?
Equilibrium crystalline solid melting point
A. 2.0
temperature
B. 3.0
These words can be used in the spaces P, Q, R, and s
C. 4.0
to complete the sentences below.
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D. 5.0 4. In the electrolysis of fused salt, the amount of
the substance deposited on electrode will not
53. At 100°C, 0.1mole of N2O4 is heated in a one depend on:
dm3 flask. At equilibrium concentration of NO2 A. current Intensity
B. time of electrolysis
was found to be 0.12 moles. Calculate Kc for the
C. temperature
reaction.
D. electrochemical equivalent of ions
A. 0.12
B. 0.36 5. Water is non-electrolyte but conducts
C. 0.21 electricity on dissolving a small amount of
D. 0.012 A. NaCl
E. 0.02 B. sugar
C. acetone
D. oxygen
55. In which of the following reactions Kp > Kc
A. 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3 6. Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 has pH
B. N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 A. Greater than 7
C. PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2 B. Less than 7
D. N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO C. 7
E. Both C and D D. 0
E. Inadequate information

7. The electrode potential measure:


UNIT NO. (07) A. the tendency of the electrode to gain or lose
electron
1. For the reaction 2HCl (g) ⇌ H2 (g) +Cl2 (g) the B. the tendency of the cell reaction to occur
Kc is 1.0 x10-5. If the equilibrium concentrations C. current carried by an electrode
of H2 and Cl2 are 1.2 x 10-3 M and 1.2 x 10-4 M D. difference in the ionization potential
respectively, the concentration of HCl is: E. the atomic weight of an element
A. 12 x 10-2 M
B. 12 x 104 M 8. The number of moles of solute dissolved per
C. 12 x 10-3 M liter of solution is called:
D. 12 x 10-5 M A. Normality
E. 10 x10-2 M B. Molality
C. Molarity
2. A 5°% NaCl solution by weight means: D. Percentage composition
A. 5g of NaCl/95g of water E. Mole fraction
B. 5g of NaCl/95g of solution
C. 5g of NaCI/100g of water 9. The oxidation number of all the elements in
D. 5g of NaCI/100g of solution Free State is ______.
E. 95g of NaCI/100ml of water A. 1
B. 3
3. Increasing the temperature, of an aqueous C. 0
solution will cause, D. -1
A. decrease in molality E. -3
D. decrease in molarity
C. decrease in mole fraction 10. Indicators are complex molecules those
D. decrease in % w/w themselves are:
A. strong acids

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B. strong bases C. pH paper
C. weak acids D. litmus paper
D. weak bases E. indicator
E. both C and D
17. To what volume must 10.0 ml of 5.00 M HCL
11. When the product of the ionic be diluted to make a 0.500 M HCL solution?
concentrations is equal to the solubility product, A. 1 mL
the solution is said to exist in: B. 50 mL
A. Unsaturated form C. 100 mL
B. Saturated form D. 500 mL
C. super-saturated form E. 1000 mL
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above 18. The amount of solute present in the given
amount of solvent is called:
12. The conductance of electric current through A. Molarity
solutions: B. Molality
A. increases with dilution. C. Concentration
B. increases with increase in concentration D. Solubility
C. increases with the decrease of absolute
velocities of ions in a solution 19. In the reaction 2Fe + Cl2 ↔ 2FeCl3
D. increases by decreasing the temperature by A. Fe is reduced
1°C B. Fe is oxidized
E. increases by large increase in pressure, C. Cl2 is oxidized
D. None of the above
13. What is the pH of 1.0 M HNO3 (aq)?
A. 7 20. The process in which electric current is used
B. 14 to carry out a non-spontaneous redox reaction is
C. 5 called:
D. 0 A. Electrolyte
B. Electrolysis
14. If 10 g of NaOH are dissolved in 500 g of C. Metallic conductor
water, what is the molality of the solution? D. None of the above
A. 1.5 m
B. 2.5 m 21. A correct formula must:
C. 0.50 m A. be balanced with proper coefficients
D. 3.5 m B. always has subscripts
C. always conform to the valency rules
15. Which of the following solutions is most D. always conforms to the law of multiple
acidic? proportions
A. A solution of phosphoric acid at pH 4.
B. A solution of sodium hydroxide at pH 11. 22. The value K for H2 (g) + CO2 (g) ↔ H2O (g) +
C. A solution of hydrochloric acid at pH 5. CO (g) is 1.80 at 1000°C. If 1.0 mole of each H2
D. A solution of acetic acid at pH 6. and CO2 are place in 1 liter flask, the final
E. A solution of aqueous ammonia at pH 9. equilibrium concentration of CO at 1000°C will
be:
16. The end point of an acid-base titration is A. 0.295 M
often detected by means of __________. B. 0.385 M
A. catalyst C. 0.531 M
B. flame D. 0.473 M

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B. Positive
23. Oxidation number of S in [SO3]-2 is: C. zero
A. 4+ D. -1
B. 6+ E. -2
C. 2+
D. 2- 30. If pH of solution is 7.00, it represents:
E. 0+ A. Acidic solution
B. Basic solution
24. Hydrolysis does not occur in case of NaCI C. Point of neutrality
because: D. Molar solution
A. It does not change pH of water E. None of the above
B. it changes the pH of water
C. It is acidic 31. How many grams of NaCl are required to
D. It is alkaline completely neutralize 100 ml of 1M of H2SO4?
E. Both B & C A. 80 grams
B. 40 grams
25. Which of the following will be the most
C. 24 grams
electrically conductive?
D. 8 grams
A. Sugar dissolved in water
B. Salt water
C. Salt dissolved in an organic solvent 32. During the electrolysis of H2O, H2 is
D. An oil and water mixture liberated at
E. Oil A. Anode
B. Cathode
26. Phenolphthalein is an indicator used for: C. Diode
A. Strong acid and weak base. D. None of the above
B. Strong base and weak acid
C. Strong acid and strong base
33. The pH of a solution contains 10-4 M [H+].
D. Weak acid and weak base
E. Strong base and weak base A. 4
B. 3
27. H3PO4 dissolves in Water and ionizes as C. -3
follows ________. D. 0
A. H3PO4 = 3H+ + PO4-3
B. H3PO4 = 4H+ + PO4-3 34. A sample of air was bubbled into pure water.
C. H3PO4 = 5H+ + PO4-3 The pH of water slowly changes from 7 to 6.
D. H3PO4 = H+ + PO4-3
Which gas in the sample caused this change?
E. H3PO4 = 8H+ + PO4-3
A. Aragon
28. Buffer solution is used to B. Carbon Dioxide
A. increase the acidity C. Carbon Monoxide
B. Decrease the acidity D. Oxygen
C. Maintain the pH
D. Increase the basicity
E. Add color to the solution 35. In which of the following instances is there
no change in the concentration of the solution
29. The oxidation number of all the elements in during electrolysis?
Free State is: A. Concentrated HCI between Carbon
A. Negative Electrodes
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B. Copper (ii) sulphate solution between 41. Which indicator has green color in neutral
platinum electrodes solution?
C. Copper (ii) sulphate solution between A. Phenolphthalein
copper electrodes B. Universal indicator
D. Dilute Sulphuric Acid between Platinum C. Methyl orange
electrodes D. Acid-base indicator

36. Which one of the following compounds in a 1 42. What will make an electrolyte?
mol/dm3 solution has the lowest pH value? A. Salt dissolved in water
A. Ammonia B. Sugar dissolved in water
B. Hydrochloric Acid C. Salt dissolves inorganic solvent
C. Ethanoic Acid D. All of the above
D. Sodium Hydroxide
43. What is the property of oxidizing agent?
37. Which one of the following correctly A. Electron gainer
describes the process occurring at the electrodes B. Electron donor
when molten sodium chloride is electrolyzed? C. Negative charge
Anode Cathode D. Loose hydrogen
A. Oxidation. Oxidation
B. Reduction. Reduction 44. 18 gm of glucose in 1000 gm of solution of
C. Oxidation. Reduction glucose .The molar concentration of Glucose is:
D. Reduction. Oxidation A. 1M
B. 0.1M
38. In the electrolysis of CuCl2 (Copper Chloride) C. 0.02M
the substance liberated at the anode D. 2M
A. Copper
B. Chloride 45. The density of a substance is 1.5g/ml. what
C. Hydrogen will 100ml of its weight be?
D. Copper Chloride A. 150 g
B. 100 g
39. Molarity of 10g of NaOH dissolved in 1 dm3 C. 200 g
of solution is:- D. 300 g
A. 2 M
B. 0.25 M 46. Super oxides are expressed as:
C. 10 M A. O2-
D. 20 M B. O22-
C. O2-1
40. A solution which tends to resist change in pH D. O1-
is:-
A. Boric solution. 47. SiO2 is known as:
B. Basic solution. A. c and d
C. Buffer solution. B. rust
D. Neutral solution C. Silicon dioxide
D. Sand or silica

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48. How many moles are present in 20 cm3 54. Chloride ion reacts with silver ions according
solution of 0.05 M HCI to following.
A. 1 mol Ag+ + Cl- -----> AgCl
B. 10-3 mol It is found 10 cm3 of 0.05 M solution of chloride
C. 1 x 103 mol of a metal X needed 10 cm3 of a 0.1M Silver
D. None of the above nitrate solution for complete reaction which is
the formula of the chloride?
49. In the electrolysis of aqueous NaCI with inert A. X2Cl
electrode what product will form on electrode B. XCl
Cathode Anode C. XCl2
A. Sodium Oxygen D. XCl3
B. Sodium Chlorine
C. Chlorine Sodium 55. A metal M forms a carbonate, M2 (CO3)3
D. Hydrogen Chlorine which of the following is the Correct formula for
the corresponding hydroxide of M?
50. Fe° ---- Fe++ + 2e A. M (OH)3
This is an _______ process B. M3(OH)
A. Oxidation C. M2(OH)3
B. Reduction D. M(OH)3
C. Redox E. M(OH)2
D. None of the above
56. If the valences of a metal M are 2 and +3,
51. What is the pH of 0.001M HCI? and it combined with a radical X of Valency -1,
A. 2 the possible formulae of the compounds formed
B. 1 would be:
C. 3 A. M2X, M3X
D. 1.5 B. M2X, MX3
C. MX2, M3X
52. Which of the following is most likely to be D. MX2, MX3
the meeting point of an ionic solid? E. MX, MX2
A. -182℃
B. -78°C 57. Which of the following will balance the given
C. 114°C equation?
D. 943°C xFe + yCl2 → zFeCl3
x y z
53. What is the conc) of I2 molecule in a solution A. 1 2 3
containing 2.54g of iodine in 250 cm3 of B. 2 2 2
solution? C. 2 3 2
A. 0.01 M D. 3 3 2
B. 0.02 M E. 3 3 3
C. 0.04 M
58 How many moles of ions are there in 0.5
D. 0.08 M
mole of aqueous sulphuric acid solution?
A. 0.5 mole
B. 1 mole
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C. 1.5 mole 63. What is the morality of a KF (aq) solution
D. 2 moles containing 116 grams of KF in 1.00 liter of
E. 5 moles solution?
A. 1.00 M
59. What is the pH of a 0.00001 molar HCI B. 2.00 M
solution? C. 3.00 M
A. 1 D. 4.00 M
B. 9
C. 5 64. Which procedure will increase the solubility
D. 4 of KCI in water?
A. Stirring the solute and solvent mixture
60. When HCI (aq) is exactly neutralized by B. Increasing the surface area of the solute.
NaOH (aq), the hydrogen ion concentration in C. Raising the temperature of the solvent
the resulting mixture is: D. Increasing the pressure on the surface of the
A. Always less than the concentration of the solvent
hydroxide ions.
B. Always greater than the concentration of the 65. A battery consists of which type of cells?
hydroxide ions. A. Electrolytic
C. Always equal than the concentration of the B. Electrochemical
hydroxide ions. C. Electroplating
D. Sometimes greater and sometimes less than D. Electromagnetic
the concentration of the hydroxide ions.
66. Given the reaction ZnO + X +heat → Zn + XO
61. A student wishes to prepare approximately Which element, represented by X, is used
100 millimeters of an aqueous solution of 6M industrially to reduce the ZnO to Zn?
HCI using 12 M HCI. Which procedure is correct? A. Cu
A. Adding 50 ml of 12 M HCl to 50 ml of water B. C
while stirring the mixture steadily. C. SN
B. Adding 50 ml of 12 M HCI to 50 ml of water D. Pb
and then stirring the mixture steadily.
C. Adding 50 ml of water to 50 ml of 12 M HCl 67. Given the lead-acid battery reaction:
while stirring the mixture steadily. 𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐜𝐡𝐚𝐫𝐠𝐞
Pb + PbO2 + H2SO4 𝐜𝐡𝐚𝐫𝐠𝐞−− > 2PbSO4 + 2H2O
D. Adding 50 ml of water to 50 ml of 12 M HCl
and then stirring the mixture steadily. Which species is oxidized during battery
discharge?
62. Which solution is the most concentrated? A. Pb
A. 1 mole of solute dissolved in 1 liter of B. PbO2
solution? C. SO42-
B. 2 moles of solute dissolved in 3 liters of D. 2H2O
solution?
C. 6 moles of solute dissolved in 4 liters of 68. Which substance functions as the electrolyte
solution? in an automobile battery?
D. 4 moles of solute dissolved in 8 liters of A. PbO2
solution? B. PbSO4
C. H2SO4
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D. H2O C. The oxidation half-reaction occurs after the
reduction-half reaction.
69. Given the reaction for the nickel-cadmium D. The oxidation half-reaction occurs
battery: spontaneously but the reduction half-
2NiOH + Cd + 2H2O →2Ni (OH)2 + Cd(OH)2 reaction does not
What species is oxidized during the discharge of
the battery? 74. Which quantities are conserved in all
A. PbO2 oxidation-reduction reactions?
B. PbSO4 A. Charge only
C. Cd B. Mass only
D. Cd C. Both charge and mass
D. Neither charge or mass
70. Given the redox reaction:
75. Given the balanced equation:
2I- (aq) + Br2 (I)→2Br (aq) + I2 (s)
2Al(s) + 6H+ (aq) ----> 2Al3+ (aq) +3H2
What occurs during this reaction? When 2 moles of AI(S) completely react, what is
A. The I ion is oxidized, and its oxidation the total number of moles of electrons
number increases
transferred from Al(s) to H+ (aq)?
B. The l ion is oxidized, and its oxidation
A. 5
number decreases.
B. 6
C. The l ion is reduced, and its oxidation
C. 3
number increases
D. 4
D. The l' ion is reduced, and its oxidation
number decreases.
76. Which statement best describes how a salt
bridge maintains electrical neutrality in the half
71. Which half-reaction correctly represents
cells of an electrochemical cell?
reduction?
A. It prevents the migration of electrons
A. Cr3 + 3e- → Cr (s)
B. It permits the migration of ions
B. Cr3 → Cr (s) + 3e-
C. It permits the two solutions to mix
C. Cr (s) → Cr3+ + 3e-
completely
D. Cr (s) + 3e- →Cr3+
D. It prevents the reaction from occurring
spontaneously
72. What is the oxidation number of carbon in
NaHCO3?
77. In what kind of cell are the redox reactions
A. +5
made to occur by an externally applied electrical
B. +2
current?
C. -4
A. Galvanic cell
D. +4
B. Chemical cell
C. Electrochemical cell
73. Which statement correctly describes a redox
D. Electrolytic cell
reaction?
A. The oxidation half-reaction and the
78. Buffer action can be explained by:
reduction-half reaction occur simultaneously
A. Common ion effect
B. The oxidation half-reaction occurs before the
B. Law of mass action
reduction-half reaction
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C. Le-Chatliers Principle B. 3.0 moles
D. All of the above C. 3.5 moles
D. 40 moles
79. Ionization of weak acid is expressed in term E. 1.5 moles
of following constant:
A. Kw 86. The weight of solute present in 100 parts by
B. Kn weight of solution is called:
C. Ka A. Weight percentage
D. Kb B. Percentage Solution
C. Percentage Solute
80. Unit of Kw are: D. Percentage Solvent
A. mole/dm3 E. None of the above
B. mole2/dm3
C. mole2 /dm6 87. Which of the following acids is not strong?
D. mole/dm6 A. HC
B. HBr
81. A buffer solution can be prepared by mixing: C. HNO3
A. Weak acid and its salt with strong base D. H3PO4
B. Strong acid and its salt with weak base
C. Weak base and its salt with strong acid 89. Which of the following can be considered as
D. Strong base and its salt with weak acid a colligative property?
A. Elevation of boiling point
82. Which of the following is a pair of partially B. Depression in freezing point
miscible liquids? C. Both of them
A. Ethyl Alcohol-water D. None of the above
B. CCl4- water
C. Phenol-water 90. What is the pH of 0.001 M HCI?
D. Methyl alcohol-benzene A. 2
B. 1
83. 5 mole of H2O contain _____ no. of OH- ions. C. 3
A. 6.02 x 1023 ions D. 0
B. 3.10 x 1023 ions
C. 6.02 x 1024 ions 91. Which solution is the most concentrated?
D. 3.10 x 1024 ions A. 1 mole of solute dissolved in 1 liter of
solution
84. Which one of the following compounds in a 1 B. 2 moles of solute dissolved in 3 liters of
mol/dm3 solution has the lowest ph value? solution
A. Ammonia C. 6moles or solute dissolved in 4 liters of
B. Hydrochloric Acid solution
C. Ethanoic Acid D. 4 moles of solute dissolved in 8 liters of
D. Sodium Hydroxide solution
E. Acetic acid
92. What is the oxidation number of carbon in
85. Five liters of 0.5 M HNO3 solution contains NaHCO3?
A. 2.5 moles A. +6
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B. +2 O
C. - 4 ∥
D. +4 B. H-C-OH

93. If the NaCI produced in the equation: C. HCL


FeCl3 + NaOH → Fe(OH)3 + NaCl D. Ether
Was dissolved in water to make a liter of
solution, the molarity would be: 98. What is the PH of 0.001 MHCL?
A. 0.1M A. 2
B. 3M B. 1
C. 8M C. 3
D. 0.5M D. 1.5
E. 1.5M
99. In voltaic cell _____ reaction occurs.
94- The range of pH below ____ and above ____ A. Spontaneous
of soil represents its sterility. B. Both "a" and "b"
A. 5... 10 C. None. Spontaneous
B. 10... 5 D. None of above
C. 3... 10
D. 10...3 100. Given 5.00 ml of 14.8 M NH3. What will be
E. 5... 3 the final volume diluted with water to give 1.00
M NH3.
95. If NaCI produced in the equation: A. 74.0 ml
FeCl3 + NaOH → Fe(OH)3 + NaCl B. 80 ml
Was dissolved in water to make a liter of C. 79.23 ml
solution, the molarity would be D. 90 ml
A. 0.1M
B. 3MM 101. Molarity of 10 gm of NaOH dissolved in 1
C. 8M dm3 of solution.
D. 0.5M A. 2M
E. 1.5M B. 0.25M
C. 10M
96. Oxidation number of Nitrogen in HNO3 is: D. 20M
A. +4
B. +2 102. Which of the following pair of partially
C. +6 miscible liquid?
D. +5 A. C2 Hs OH ------ Water
E. +7 B. Phenol ------ water
C. CCl4 ------ Water
97. Which one of the following dissociate more D. CH3 ------- OH and CH
readily?
O 103. The number of moles of solute dissolved
∥ per liter of solution is called:
A. CH2Cl-C-OH A. Normality

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B. Molality D. Pink
C. Molarity
D. Percentage composition 110. G.N. Lewis described which one of the
E. Mole fraction following bonds?
A. Ionic bond
104. The oxidation number of all the elements in B. Covalent bond
Free State is C. Co-ordinate covalent bond
A. 1 D. All of the above
B. 3
C. 0 111. Common ion effect is useful application in:
D. -1 A. Qualitative salt analysis
E. -3 B. Quantitative salt analysis
C. Both A and B
105. In the following reaction: D. None of the above
3Br2 + 6CO3-2 + 3H2O → 5Br-1 + BrO3-1 + 6HCO3-1
A. bromine is educed and water is oxidized 112. Which one of the following has the lowest
B. bromine is both reduced and oxidized % ionic character?
C. bromine is oxidized and carbonate is reduced A. CCI4
D. bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized B. BCI3
С. ВеCl2
106. Which is most basic in character? D. LiCl
A. RbOH E. HCI
B. KOH
C. LiOH
113. Consider the following reaction
D. NaOH
N2 (g) + O2 (g) <--> 2NO (g) Kc =0.1 at 2000°C
107. The solubility product for BaSO4 at 18-25°c if original concentrations of N2 and O2 were
is: 0.1M each. Calculate the concentrations of NO
A. 1.0x10-10 mole2 dm-6 at equilibrium.
B. 8.7x10-36 mole2 dm-6 A. 0.028 M
C. 1.8x10-21 mole2 dm-6 B. 0.0012 M
D. 8.4 x10-28 mole2 dm-6
C. 0.18 M
E. 3.5x10-52 mole2 dm-6
D. 0.0018 M
108. CH3Cl + CI2 → CH2Cl2 + HCI is an example of: E. 0.002 M
A. Oxidation reaction
B. Addition reaction 114. Which of the following has maximum
C. Substitution reaction number of unpaired d electrons?
D. Auto-Oxidation reaction A. Mg2+
E. Reduction reaction B. Ti3+
C. V3+
109. The color of methyl orange in base is: D. Fe2+
A. Red
B. Yellow 115. Which of the following ion will show
C. Orange maximum hydration?
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A. Mg+2 4. In general rate of reactions can be increased by all
B. Na+1 the factors except
A. Increasing the temperature
C. AI+3 B. Increasing the concentration of reactants
D. Ca 2+ C. Increasing the activation energy
D. using catalyst
116. Aqua regia can dissolve noble metal due to
5. When a reaction proceeds in a sequence of steps,
the formation of the overall rate is determined by
A. Nitrous acid A. slowest step
B. Nitric oxide B. fastest step
C. Nitrosyl chloride C. order of different steps
D. molecularity of the steps
D. Nascent nitrogen
6. Which of the following can give order of a
117. 1.8 x 105 is the dissociation constant of: reaction?
A. Formic acid A. balanced chemical equation
B. experimental into law
B. Acetic acid C. magnitude of specific reaction rate
C. Chloroacetic acid D. nature of reactants
D. Hydrocyanic acid
7. for the reaction
2NO + O2→2NO2
The order of the reaction is.
UNIT NO. (08) A. Fractional order
B. First order
𝒅𝒙 C. Second order
1. The term - in the rate expression refers to
𝒅𝒕 D. Third order
the: E. zero order
A. Decrease in concentration of the reactant
B. Instantaneous rate of the reaction 8. If the reaction
C. Increase in concentration of the reactant P+Q→R+S
D. Increase in solubility of the reactants is described as being of zero order with respect
to P, it means that:
2. The rate law expression for the reaction A. P is a catalyst in this reaction
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 B. No P molecules possesses sufficient energy to
[𝑁𝐻3 ]2 react
A. can be represented by rate =
[𝑁2 ][𝐻2 ]3 C. the concentration of P does not change during
B. can be represented by rate =k[NH3] the reaction.
𝑘[𝑁𝐻3 ]2
C. can be represented by rate = D. The rata of reaction is independent of the
[𝑁2 ][𝐻2 ]3 concentration of P
𝑘[𝑁𝐻3 ]2
D. can be represented by rate = E. The rate of reaction is proportional to the
[𝑁2 ]
concentration of Q
E. cannot be determined from the information
given
9. Sum of all the exponents of molar
concentration of the reactant present in the rate
3. Radioactive decay is reaction of
A. Zero order equation is known as _______.
B. First order A. molecularity
C. Second order B. order of reaction
D. Third order C. rate of reactions
D. gradient
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E. slope 15. A substance which does not lower energy of
activation but combines with reactant molecule
10. Which of the following is an element? is called:-
A. Tap water
A. Catalyst
B. Graphite
C. Sea water B. Negative catalyst.
D. Brass C. Positive catalyst
E. Sulphuric acid D. None

11. Which of the following is most likely to 16. The rate at unity 1mol/1dm3. 1sec than K is
increase the rate of a reaction? known as:
A. Decreasing the temperature A. Rate of reaction
B. Decreasing the surface area of reactant B. Specific rate constant
C. Reducing the activation energy C. Rate constant
D. Decreasing the concentration of the reactant D. Velocity of reaction
in the reaction' vessel
17. 2NO + O2→ 2NO2 whereas dx/dt = k[NO]2[O2]
E. Negative catalysts
than reaction is:
A. 1st order reaction
12. Which of the following reaction is the third order B. 2nd order reaction
reaction? C. 3rd order reaction
1
A. N2O5 --> 2NO2 + O2 D. 0 order reaction
2
B. 2NO + O2 ---> 2NO2
C. 2CH3CHO ----> 2CH4 + 2CO 18. Which of the following will increase the rate of a
D. 2NH3 ---> N2 + 3H2 reaction:
E. Both B and D A. Lowering the temp
B. Increasing volume
13. The rate equation for a reaction is given: rate C. Reducing activation energy
=k [A] [B]. If concentration units are mol dm-3, D. Increasing activation energy
what are the possible units of the rate constant,
k? 19. H2 + Br → 2HBr
A. mol dm-3 s-1 The rate expression is : Rate =K [H2] [Br]1/2, the order
B. mol dm3 s-1 of the reaction is:
C. mol s-2 dm3 s-1 A. 2
D. mol-1 s-1 B. 1.5
E. s-1 C. 1
D. Zero
14. What will be the effect on the rate of
reaction of chemical reaction? 20. A catalyst can't initiate the reaction but speeds
2NO (g) + O2 (g) →2NO2, if concentration of NO up a reaction which is possible:
is halved? a) Physically
A. 4 times b) Thermodynamically
B. 1/4 times c) Chemically
C. 2 times d) In laboratory
D. 1/2 times
E. No effect 21. Rate of reaction depends upon all of the
following except:
a) Concentration
b) Pressure
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c) Temperature C. Mole (dm3)-2 sec-1
d) Molecularity D. Mole (dm3)-2 sec -2
E. Mole (dm3)-1 sec-2
22. How much atoms are present in 60 grams of
CuS04-5H2O. (Cu63.5, S=32, O = 16, H=1) 28. Sum of all the exponents of molar concentration
a) 6 x 1023 atoms of the reactant present in the rate equation is known
b) 0.05 x 1023 atoms as _____
c) 1.9 x 1023 atoms A. molecularity
d) 30 x 1023 atoms B. order of reaction
C. rate of reaction
23. The effect of temperature on the rate of reaction D. gradient
is given by: E. slope
a) Arrhenius equation
b) Newton's equation 29. Rate = K [N2O5] has _____ of reaction.
c) Change in degree of hydration A. First order
d) All of the above B. Pseudo first order
e) Both A and B C. Second order
D. Third order
24. The effect of temperature on the rate of reaction E. Pseudo order
is given by:
a) Arrhenius equation 30. For a reaction 2A + B ⇌ C + D the active mass of B
b) Newton's equation is kept constant and that of A is tripled. It is observed
c) Change in degree of hydration that the rate of
d) All of the above A. decreases three times
e) Both A and B B. decreases nine times
C. increases six times
25. The sum of exponents of the molar concentration D. increases nine times
of the reactants, is equal to
A. molecularity 31. Ketone reacts with Grignard's reagent to form
B. polarity ______ in Acidic media.
C. activation energy A. Tertiary Alcohol
D. rate of reaction B. Isopropyl Alcohol
E. order of reaction C. Primary Alcohol
D. Carboxylic Acid
26. A certain chemical reaction follows the following
rate law: 2NO (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g)
Rate K [A] [B]2 Rate K[NO]2 [O2]
The order of reaction is: 32. What will be the effect on Rate constant, if
A. 1 concentration of NO is halved?
B. 2 A. 1/4 times
C. 3 B. Doubled
D. 4 C. Unchanged
E. 5 D. Increase 4 times

27. The unit of rate of reaction is: 33. In the end of periodic table ______ are found.
A. Mole (dm3) sec A. s block element
B. Mole (dm3)-1 sec-1 B. p block element
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C. d block element
D. Noble gases

34. The change in concentration of reactant or


product per unit time is called:
A. Rate constant
B. Rate of reaction
C. Rate equation
D. Rate law
E. Both A & D

𝒅𝒙
35. The term + 𝒅𝒕 in the rate expression refers to
the:
A. Decrease in concentration of the reactant x
B. Instantaneous rate of the reaction
C. Increase in concentration of the reactant x
D. Increase in solubility of the reactants

UNIT NO. (09)

1. Except sucrose all oligosaccharides are :-


A. Reducing
B. Non reducing
C. None

UNIT NO. (10)

1. Which one is correct:-


A. Glass is not a true solid b/c molecules are not
arranged in definite manner
B. Glass is a true solid b/c molecules are not
arranged in a definite manner

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