Restorative Dentistry Board QS

RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY BOARD QUESTIONS 1
RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY BOARD QUESTIONS
1. Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries

because it produces organic acids and it:
a) Forms a gelatinous matrix
b) Derives energy from constituents
c) Metabolizes substrate from saliva
d) Lives symbiotically with Lactobacillus acidophilus
2. The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is:
a) Actinomycesviscosus
b) Streptococcus mutans
c) Streptococcus salivarius
d) Lactobacillus acidophilus
3. What is Enameloplasty?
a) Extension of outline form
b) Adding synthetic enamel to surface
c) The procedure of reshaping grooves with rotary cutting instruments
d) Removal of the entire thickness of enamel
e) None of the above
4. Sensitivity can be felt in enamel due to the presence of:

a) Enamel lamellae
b) Enamel tufts
c) Enamel spindles
d) Enamel sheath
5. What class/ classes ofcavities is/are found on the all teeth ( anterior or posterior)
a) Class I, II
b) Class III, IV
c) Class I, V, VI
d) Class II, IV, V
6. All enamels must consists of :

a) A cluster of enamel rods protruding from cavity
b) Full length enamel rods or full-length rods supported by shorter rods
terminating on sound dentin
c) Cavity outline placed on rough curve
d) Cavity outline placed on irregular lines
7. Affected dentin differs from infected dentin in that it has:

a) Been invaded by microorganisms
b) Are precisely the same
c) Not been invaded by microorganisms
d) A soft texture
8. Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a
restorative procedure?
a) Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs.
b) Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors
c) Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface
d) Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation
9. Discoloration of the tooth under big amalgam restoration can be prevented by:
a) Using cavity varnish
b) Using correct alloy: mercury ratio
c) Using zinc phosphate cement base
d) Washing the prepared cavity with NaOCl3
10.Gingival cavosurface margin is beveled in a class II cavity for amalgam restoration

to:
a) Get a lap joint on the cavosurface angle
b) Remove the unsupported enamel rods
c) Get burnishable thickness of amalgam
d) Move the cavosurface away from the contact
11.The position of the gingival margin of a class II amalgam preparation is dictated

primarily by:
a) Aesthetics
b) The location of the gingival margin
c) The extent of carious lesion
d) The thickness of the enamel
12. A marginal ridge wall in a prepared cavity for amalgam is:

a) At right angles to the pulpal floor
b) Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
c) At an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
d) Determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove
13.A newly condensed amalgam restoration seems to chip away when being carved.
What is the likely cause of this problem?
a) A low-copper alloy was used
b) Moisture contamination occurred
c) The alloy was incompletely wetted with mercury
d) The amalgam was not condensed with the recommended pressure
e) The amalgam was condensed after its working time elapsed
14. After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a Class III
composite preparation, the preparation becomes contaminated with saliva.
In response, the dentist should do which of the following?
a) Blow away the saliva with air, then proceed
b) Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation, then proceed
c) Wipe away the saliva with a cotton pellet, rinse the preparation with water, dry it with
air, then proceed
d) Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then repeat the
etching procedure
15.Resistance forms is the ability to withstand masticatory stress and this is established
by:
a) Bulk of the restorative material
b) Strength of the restorative materials
c) Compressiveness
d) Compactness
16.Proper pulpal depth of all restoration may be considered as:

a) Convenience form
b) Outline form
c) Retention form
d) Resistance form
17.Hand cutting instrument are composed of:

a) Handle and blade
b) Handle, shank and blade
c) Shank and blade
d) Handle and shank
18.Luting cements may get rapidly dissolved due to:

a) Occlusal forces
b) Microorganisms
c) Marginal leakage
d) Casting technique
19.Guard is use for:

a) Mechanical devices
b) Unnecessary with hand cutting instruments
c) Useful only for dental students
d) Finger positions of hands opposite that using the instrument
20.The following are represent the fundamental grasps for hand instruments:
a) Pen grasp
b) Inverted pen grasp
c) Modified palm and thumb grasp
d) Palm and thumb grasp
e) All of the above
21.Capping of cusp/s should be considered for an onlay restoration when:

a) Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance from
the primary grooves to the cusp tip
b) Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 2/3 the distance from
c) Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ½ the distance
from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
d) Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the distance from
22.Finish of the enamel margin at the gingival cavosurface on a cavity prepared for
amalgam
a) Not indicated because of the poor tensile strength of amalgam
b) Accomplished by creating a steep cavosurface bevel
c) Not requires since no stress is placed on this region of the restoration
d) Accomplished by removing unsupported enamel rods and prisms
23.The axial wall of the class V cavity preparation is:

a) Flat
b) Concave
c) Convex
d) Convex only incisocervically
24.In direct veneering, labial surface preparation removes approx. 0.5 to 1 mm enamel
and margins are prepared slightly incisal to free gingival crest with a finish line as:
a) Shoulder with bevel
b) Knife edge
c) Chamfer finish line
d) Shoulder
25.The restorative material that is most anticariogenic is:

a) Composite resin
b) Dental amalgam
c) Calcium hydroxide
d) Glass ionomer cement
26.A base or liner which is contraindicated beneath filled or unfilled resins is:
a) Glass ionomer
b) Calcium hydroxide
c) Polycarboxylate cement
d) Zinc oxide eugenol
27.A notable difference in class II cavity preparation for composite and for amalgam is
in:
a) Proximal box
b) Pulpal wall
c) Axial wall depth
d) None of the above
28.Silicate Cements is:

a) Do produce an irritating effect on pulp
b) Do not produce an irritating effect on pulp
c) Are harmless
d) Are innocuous
29.Which of the listed principles of the cavity preparation is of least importance for the
reception of a silicate?
a) Extension for prevention
b) Resistance form
c) Finishing of enamel
d) Debridement
30.ZINC OXIDE AND EUGENOL SHOULD NOT BE USED UNDER:

a) Porcelain filling material
b) A resin filling material
c) Gold inlays
d) Amalgam restorations
resto board exam 2
11. Which class III lesions listed below should not be filled with composite resin?
a. mesial-lingual of canines
b. distal-lingual of laterals
c. mesial-lingual of centrals
d. distal-lingual of canines
d. distal-lingual of canines
12. High copper dental amalgam alloys involve what ranges of copper in their composition
a. 1 to 4%
b. 5 to 8%
c. 10 to 30%
d. 50 to 60%
c. 10 to 30%
13. Tarnish means a change in

a. color
b. texture
a. color
14. The second number on those instruments having a three-number formula indicates the
a. angle of the cutting edge in degrees centigrade

b. length of the blade in millimeters
c. length of the blade in tenths of a millimeter
d. width of the blade in millimeters
b. length of the blade in millimeters
15. How many line angles does a class 2 have?

a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
c. 11
16. The typical divergence of all ways of a cast metal restoration

a. Inlay taper
b. Bevelling
c. Reverse curve
d. Butt joint
a. Inlay taper
17. That form in class III cavities which helps to insure the proper line of force for
condensation of direct filling gold is:
a. outline form
b. resistance form
c. retention form
d. convenience form
d. convenience form
18. Finish of the enamel margin at the gingival cavosurface on a cavity prepared for
amalgam
a. not indicated because of the poor tensile
strength of amalgam
b. accomplished by creating a steep cavosurface bevel
c. not requires since no stress is placed on this region of the restoration
d. accomplished by removing unsupported
enamel rods and prisms
d. accomplished by removing unsupported
enamel rods and prisms
19. Stainless steel pins are principally used in conjunction with amalgam restorations to
enhance:
a. retention
b. strength
c. resistance form
d. all of the above
a. retention
20. Gold inlays have improved retention when

a. there is a large cement film thickness
b. the opposing walls diverge towards the occlusal
c. there is less surface area involved in the preparation
d. the axial length in the cavity preparation is increased
d. the axial length in the cavity preparation is increased
21. Retention form is created in a class V cavity prepared for direct filling gold at
a. the mesial and distal axial line angles
b. the occlusal and gingival axial line angles
c. the four point angles of the cavity
d. circumferentially around all walls
b. the occlusal and gingival axial line angles
22. Retention form for composite resin restorations is achieved by

a. a chemical bond with the tooth
b. adhesion to the enamel and dentin
c. mechanical undercuts
d. all of the above
b. adhesion to the enamel and dentin
23. Retention form for composite resin restorations in class III preparations is achieved by
a. sharp, well-defined line angles
b. parallel walls
c. rounded undercuts at the incisal and gingival point angles
d. sharp, cute point angles at the incisal, labioaxiogingival, and linguoaxiogingival
c. rounded undercuts at the incisal and gingival point angles
24. In class V preparations to receive composite resin, the extension is determined by the
a. position of the gingival crest

b. extent of caries involvement
c. contour of the tooth
d. caries susceptibility of the patient
b. extent of caries involvement
25. A commonly used acid solution for etching enamel in conjunction with composite resin
restorations is
a. 50% phosphoric acid
b. 50% sulfuric acid
c. 75% phosphoric acid
d. 50% silicophosphoric acid
a. 50% phosphoric acid
26. Most amalgam alloys are comprised approximately of what percentage of silver
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 80%
c. 70%
27. Delayed expansion of amalgam restorations is associated with which two factors listed
below
a. insufficient trituration and condensation
b. high residual mercury
c. the contamination of the amalgam by moisture during trituration and
condensation
d. the failure to use cavity varnish
a. insufficient trituration and condensation
c. the contamination of the amalgam by moisture during trituration and
condensation
28. Cavity liners are used to:
a. help retain the restorative material

b. protect the pulp
c. add strength to the restorative material
d. decrease the setting expansion of amalgam
b. protect the pulp
29. When mixing zinc phosphate cement, a cool glass slab is used to:
a. accelerate the setting time
b. create more free zinc oxide in the set cement
c. increase the powder-liquid ratio
d. increase expansion of the set cement
c. increase the powder-liquid ratio
30. All of the following statements are true regarding glass ionomer restorations except
a. GI is often the ideal material of choice for restoring root surface caries in
patients with high caries activity
b. the best surface finish for a GI restoration is that obtained against a surface
matrix
c. GI adheres to mineralized tooth tissue
d. GI are somewhat esthetic and polish much better than composite
d. GI are somewhat esthetic and polish much better than composite
31. Zone II of carious dentin is also referred to as:

a. normal dentin
b. sub-transparent dentin
c. transparent dentin
d. turbid dentin
b. sub-transparent dentin
32. Pit and fissure caries does not spread laterally to a great extent until the:
a. pulp is reached
b. dentinoenamel junction is reached
c. cementoenamel junction is reached
d. marginal ridge is reached
b. dentinoenamel junction is reached
33. When comparing the physical properties of filled resins, all of the following are true
except:
a. filled resins are harder
b. unfilled resins have a lower coefficient of thermal expansion
c. filled resins have a higher compressive strength
d. unfilled resins have a lower modulus of elasticity
b. unfilled resins have a lower coefficient of thermal expansion
34. Small size filler in composite resins results in a composite resin that has:
a. better finishing characteristics but a lesser resistance to wear
b. a greater resistance to wear but doesn’t finish well
c. better finishing characteristics and a greater resistance to wear
d. a lesser resistance and also doesn’t finish well
c. better finishing characteristics and a greater resistance to wear
35. A properly acid-etched enamel surface appears

a. somewhat yellow in color
b. identical to unetched enamel
c. dull white and chalky
d. slightly gray with a shine
c. dull white and chalky
36. Which component of a dentin bonding system below functions primarily to remove the
smear layer of dentin
a. etchant
b. conditioner
c. primer
d. adhesive
b. conditioner
37. The outline form of a class V composite preparation resembles that of a class V
amalgam preparation except for what important feature listed below?
a. no retentive grooves are necessary
b. the internal line angles are much more rounded
c. pulp protection is not required
d. none of the above
b. the internal line angles are much more rounded
38. The matrix for a class II amalgam has occlusal extensions to:
a. Prevents escape of amalgam during condensation
b. Serve as a guide to determine the completed restoration
c. Allow overfilling of the material
d. Produce a smoother amalgam restoration
c. Allow overfilling of the material
39. Solubility in oral fluids is one of the basic disadvantages of:

a. Compomers
b. Glass ionomer filling materials
c. Composite resins
d. Silicate cements
d. Silicate cements
40. Which of the following instruments is designed to most effectively plane the enamel of
the facial and lingual walls of a class II amalgam preparation
a. a gingival margin trimmer
b. a straight chisel
c. an enamel hatchet
d. a spoon excavator
c. an enamel hatchet
41. Class II lesions usually start as an area of
a. discoloration at the marginal ridge

b. undermining
c. opacity
d. softness
c. opacity
42. The dentin primer

a. creates microporosities in the dentin surface
b. removes the smear layer and smear plugs
c. enhances bonding of the composite and dentin
d. better esthetics
c. enhances bonding of the composite and dentin
43. The use of a eugenol-containing material under resin will

a. inhibit polymerization of the resin
b. hasten polymerization of the resin
c. not affect the polymerization of the resin
d. enhance the polymerization of the resin
a. inhibit polymerization of the resin
44. As amalgam ages, the degree of microleakage:

a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. does not occur
b. decreases
45. Alloy-Hg ratio by weight

a. 1:1
b. 5:7
c. 1:3
d. 7:5
b. 5:7
46. Deciduous teeth are etched longer than the permanent teeth because
a. enamel rods are regularly arranged
b. enamel rods are irregularly arranged
c. enamel of primary teeth are harder
d. enamel rods of primary teeth are denser
b. enamel rods are irregularly arranged
47. Are reasons why the pulpal/axial walls of cavity preparation should be at the correct
level in dentin, except
a. to avoid seating the restoration on the DEJ
b. to take advantage of elasticity of dentin
c. to allow enough bulk of the material
d. to avoid too much loss of enamel tissues
a. to avoid seating the restoration on the DEJ
48. The instrument grasp wherein the instrument is held by the palm and directed by the
palm and fingers is
a. modified palm and thumb grasp
b. modified pen grasp
c. pen grasp
d. palm grasp
a. modified palm and thumb grasp
49. Creep of amalgam means

a. movement of amalgam away from the cavity margins
b. movement of the amalgam towards the cavity margins
c. movement of amalgam away from the cavity
d. movement of the amalgam towards the cavity
b. movement of the amalgam towards the cavity margins
50. Luting GIC

a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV
a. type I
Restorative Dentistry Board Questions 3
Restorative Dentistry Board Questions
1. Why is a matrix for a Class II dental amalgam restoration extended occlusally to

the cavity preparation?
A. It serves as a guide to determine the completed restoration.
B. It allows for overfilling the amalgam.
C. It prevents escape of the amalgam during condensation

2. The reduction of which of the following represents the most significant
advantage of acid-etch technique?
A. Microleakage
B. Pulpal irritation
C. Setting shrinkage of the matrix
D. Coefficient of thermal expansion
3. After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a Class III composite
preparation, the preparation becomes contaminated with saliva. In response,
the dentist should do which of the following?
A. Blow away the saliva with air, then proceed.
B. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation, then proceed
C. Wipe away the saliva with a cotton pellet, rinse the preparation with
water, dry it with air, then proceed
D. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then
repeat the etching procedure.
4. Streptococcus murtans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries

because it produces organic acids and it:
A. forms a gelatinous matrix C. metabolizes substrate from saliva
B. derives energy from constituents D. lives symbiotically with

Lactobacillus acidophilus
5. In a Class III composite preparation, retention should be placed:
A. in the axial wall C. entirely in dentin

B. at the DEJ D. at the expense of facial and lingual walls, but not
the axial wall
6. The position of mesial and distal cavity margins in a Ferrier Class V direct filling
gold restoration should be:
A. in an easily cleansable area D. perpendicular to the gingival

margins
B. parallel to the long axis of the tooth E. just past the extent of the carious
lesions
C. at the respective line angles of the tooth
7. Reasons for incorporating an enamel cavosurface bevel in preparations for

bonded, direct, composite restorations:
1, provides more surface area for bonding

2, allows for the more preferred end-on etching of the enamel rods.
3, increase retention
4, reduce leakage
5, provide greater potential for strengthening the remaining tooth structure
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5 D. 1,2,4,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5
8. Basic preparation designs most frequently used for tooth-colored restorations of

Class II cavities:
A. conventional cavity design C. modified design

B. beveled conventional design D. both A & B E. both B & C
9. The gingival-to-occlusal divergence per wall from the line draw of an inlay/onlay tooth
preparation is:
A. 2 to 3 degrees C. 2 to 5 degrees
B. 2 to 4 degrees D. 3 to 5 degrees E. none of these.
10. Shallow retention grooves on facioaxial and linguoaxial line angles are usually
indicated if tooth is short for inlay/onlay restoration, this can be achieved by using:
A. # 33 ½ B. # 253 C. # 169L D. flame shaped diamond bur E. # 271.
11. Used in preparing occlusal and gingival bevels:
A. # 33 ½ B. # 253 C. # 169L D. flame shaped diamond bur E. #

271.
12. The amount of occlusal marginal metal bevel for inlay is:
A. less than 30 degrees C. more than 40 degrees
B. 30 to 40 degree D. 140 to 150 degrees
13. Capping of cusp/s should be considered for an onlay restoration when:
A. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance
from the
primary grooves to the cusp tip
B. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 2/3 the
distance from
C. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ½ the

distance
from the primary grooves to the cusp tip

D. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the
distance from
14.Primarily indicated for the initial restoration of smaller, cavitated, carious

lesions usually surrounded by enamel and for correcting enamel defects.
A. conventional preparation design D. beveled conventional preparation design

B. modified preparation E. box-only preparation
C. facial / lingual slot preparation
15. Primarily indicated on preparations located on root surfaces.
A. conventional preparation design

B. beveled conventional preparation design
C. modified preparation
D. box-only preparation
E. facial / lingual slot preparation
16. In pin-retained amalgam restoration, the direction of retention pin holes should
be:
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth

B. parallel to the nearest external surface
C. at right angles to the dentinal tubules
D. perpendicular to the occlusal or the gingival floor of the preparation
E. at a 15 degree angle to the long axis of the tooth.
17.The initial procedure in preparing the outline form of the proximal box of a
Class II cavity preparations for amalgam is the isolation of the proximal enamel
by the proximal ditch cut. The ideal bur to used is:
A. #33 ½ B. # 2 C. #245 D. #169L E. # ¼
18.Ideally, in a MO Class II cavity preparation for amalgam, the mesiofacial and

mesiolingual margins of a conservative preparation should clear the adjacent
tooth by only:
A. 0.1 to 0.2mm B. 0.2 to 0.3mm C. 0.3 to 0.4mm D. 0.4 to 0.5mm
19.Indicated when deep gingival extension of proximal box is anticipated:
A. round wedge B. triangular wedge C. both A & B D. none of these
20.Used to cleaved away the remaining undermined proximal enamel to establish

properly the direction of the mesiolingual and mesiofacial walls:
A. enamel hatchet C. angle former

B. binangle chisel D. both A & B E. all of them
21.The following characteristics are true for both inlay and onlay cavity
preparation, except:
A. presence of primary and secondary flare D. beveled cavosurface margins
B. lightly beveled axiopulpal line angle E. reduction of cusp/s for

capping
C. converging proximal walls.
22.Involves the occlusal and proximal surface/s of a posterior tooth and may cap
one or more but not all the cusps.
A. amalgam restorations C. cast inlay restoration

B. pin-retained restorations D. cast onlay restoration
23.Most commonly used modification in an onlay preparation for teeth that exhibit
the split-tooth syndrome:
A. collar preparation C. slot preparation
B. skirt preparation D. facial and lingual surface groove extension
24.This phenomenon proposes that flexure of the tooth at the cervical margin
while under load is responsible for the progressive breakdown of the brittle
dental tissues..
A. Erosion C. attrition
B. Abrasion D. abfraction E. both B & D
25.In a class 2 prepared cavity for dental amalgam, the facial and lingual proximal
walls should be formed:
A. approximately parallel with each other

B. at right angles to the gingival floor
C. slightly diverging as the walls approach the proximal surface
D. slightly diverging as the walls approach the occlusal surface.
26.Indirect composites is superior to porcelain for intracoronal posterior esthetic

restorations for the following reasons, except:
A. decrease polymerization shrinkage D. less wear on opposing tooth

structures
B. easier to polish if adjusted E. lower bulk fracture rates
C. better marginal adaptation
27.Butt joint margins are recommended in an indirect composite inlay preparation

for the following reasons, except:
A. beveled margins remove less tooth structures
B. thin beveled margins can break off during sealing
C. beveled margins are more likely to fracture under occlusal force

D. beveled margins are more difficult to prepare in the mouth.
E. Beveled margins are more difficult to finish in the lab.
28.During the preparation of a Class II cavity, which of the following permanent

teeth pulp horns will be the most subject to accidental exposure?
A Distofacial of a maxillary first molar. C. Distofacial of a mandibular first

molar.
B Facial of a mandibular first premolar. D. Lingual of a mandibular

first premolar.
29.Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp
during a restorative procedure?
A. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs.
B. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors
C. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface.
D. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation.
30.In Class II cavity preparation for amalgam, the primary retention form is
provided by:
A. occlusal convergence of facial and lingual walls
B. dovetail design
C. coving the internal line angles
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY BOARD QUESTIONS 4
RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY BOARD QUESTIONS
1. Which cavities below can involve any teeth, anterior or posterior.

a. Class I, II
b. Class III, IV
c. Class I, V, IV
d. Class II, IV, V
2. The following are contraindications of an amalgam restoration except:

a. Moderate to large restoration
b. Esthetically prominent areas of posterior teeth
c. Restoration that are not heavy occlusal contacts
d. Restoration that extends onto root surfaces
3. The most ductile and malleable metal is:

a. Silver
b. Gold
c. Copper
d. Platinum
4. It is a wedge shaped loss of tooth structure limited to the cervical areas

a. Attrition
b. Abfraction
c. Fracture
d. Abrasion
5. It is the separation and or loss of tooth structure as a result of trauma

a. Attrition
b. Abfraction
c. Fracture
d. Abrasion
6. It is the loss of tooth structure resulting from directing friction forces between
contacting teeth
a. Attrition
b. Abfraction
c. Fracture
d. Abrasion
7. It is the loss of tooth structure resulting from direct frictional forces between teeth
and an external object
a. Attrition
b. Abfraction
c. Fracture
d. Abrasion
8. The following are indications of a cast metal restoration except:

a. Large restoration
b. Endodontically treated teeth
c. High caries rate
d. Teeth
9. According to Elli’s Classification of fracture, an extensive fracture of the tooth

crown involving considerable dentin but no pulp is:
a. Class 4 Elli’s Classification of fracture
b. Class 6 Elli’s Classification of fracture
c. Class 2 Elli’s Classification of fracture
d. Class 5 Elli’s Classification of fracture
10. The following are the etiology of attrition except:

a. Chewing of fibrous food
b. Bruxism
c. Pipe smoking
d. Loss of posterior teeth
11. Class 3 Elli’s Classification of fracture is:

a. Tooth loss as a result of trauma
b. Extensive fracture of the tooth crown involving considerable dentin and involving
the pulp
c. Fracture of tooth root with or without loss of crown structure
d. Simple fracture of the tooth crown involving little or no dentin
12. According to Elli’s Classification of fracture, incomplete fracture of the tooth or

cracked tooth is:
a. Class 9 Elli’s Classification of fracture
b. Class 7 Elli’s Classification of fracture
c. Class 10 Elli’s Classification of fracture
d. Class 5 Elli’s Classification of fracture
13. It is a cast metal restoration that involves the occlusal and proximal surfaces of the
posterior tooth and may cap one or more but not all of the cusps
a. Class I inlay cast metal restoration
b. Class II inlay cast metal restoration
c. Class I onlay cast metal restoration
d. Class II onlay cast metal restoration
14. The following are the presently used distinct group of alloy except:
a. Traditional gold
b. Titanium
c. Palladium silver
d. Low gold
15. It is a cast metal restoration that only involves the proximal surfaces of the
posterior tooth and may caps all of the cusps
a. Class I inlay cast metal restoration
b. Class II inlay cast metal restoration
c. Class I onlay cast metal restoration
d. Class II onlay cast metal restoration
16. The following are the advantages of pins except:

a. Crazing enamel and pulp
b. One appointment
c. More conservative of tooth structure
d. More economical
17. Onlayshas the iniatial pulpal florr depth of:

a. 1.0 mm
b. 1.5 mm
c. 2.0 mm
d. 2.5 mm
18. It is a process of forming an object by pouring a molten metal into a mold
a. Investing
b. Casting
c. A and B
d. None of the above
19. States that a smile when viewed from the front is considered to be esthetically
pleasing if each tooth in that smile (starting from the midline) is approximately 60%
of the size of the tooth immediately mesial to it.
a. Shape and form

b. Position and alignment
c. Golden proportion
d. Symmetry and proportionality
20. In conservative esthetic procedure, the shape and form of a female’s dentition
apprearance should be:
a. Incisal embrasure with more closed and prominent incisal angles (less rounded)
b. Rounded open embrasures and softened facial angles
c. A and B
Resto board 5
Restorative Dentistry Seminar II
1. ENAMELOPLASTY IS:
A. Extension of outline form
B. Adding synthetic enamel to surface
C. The procedure of reshaping grooves with rotary cutting instruments
D. removal of the entire thickness of enamel
E. none of the above
2. PROPHYLACTIC ODONTOMY IS:
a. Preparation and restoration after caries ha begun
b. A routine procedure on all patients
c. Enlargement of small defects which are filled with amalgam as preventive measure
d. Reshaping of grooves
e. None of the above
3. RESISTANCE FORM:
a. Is that shape and placement of cavity walls that enables tooth to withstand stress
b. Does not utilize the box shape and flat floor
c. Does not take into consideration resistance of tooth to fracture
d. Utilizes a rounded pulpal floor
4. ADDITONAL RETENTION IN THE PROXIMAL PORTION OF THE PREPARATIONS IS

AFFORDED BY:
a. The convenience form
b. Finishing the enamel walls

c. Finishing the margins
d. Enhancing the axiofacial and axiolingual line angles
5. IN TEETH WITH CONSIDERABLE OCCLUSAL ABRASION, THE PREPARATION:
a. Must be carried to the same depth into dentin as average preparation
b. Must be carried deeper into the dentin
c. Must not be carried to the same depth into dentin as average preparation
d. Should not be carried into dentin
6. PROPER PULPAL DEPTH OF ALL RESTORATIONS MAYBE CONSIDERED AS:
a. Convenience form
b. Outline form
c. Retention form
d. Resistance form
7. AMALGAM FRACTURE IN CLAS II PREPARATIONS CAN BE PREVENTED BY:
a. Adequate beveling of axiopulpal line angles
b. The retention form
c. A rounded pulpal floor
d. Enameloplasty
8. BASIC RETENTION FORM IN CLASS IICAVITY PREPARATIONS FOR AMALGAM

INCLUDE:
a. Parallel proximal and occlusal walls
b. Reduced cusps
c. Rounded pulpal floor
d. Proximal and occlusal walls converging occlusally

9. BASIC RETENTIONFORM IN CLAS II CAVITY PREPARATION FOR INLAYS INCLUDE:
a. Parallel proximal and occlusal walls
b. Proximal and occlusal walls converge
c. Reduced cusps
d. Rounded pulpal floor
10. THE OCCLUSAL DIVERGENCE OF THE VERTICAL WALLS IN PREPARATIONS FOR

INLAYS MAYBE CONSIDERED AS:
a. Retention form
b. Convenience form
c. Outline form
d. Finishing the enamel walls
11. AFFECTED DENTIN DIFFERS FROM INFECTED DENTIN IN THAT IT HAS:
a. Been invaded by microorganisms
b. Are precisely the same
c. Not been invaded by microorganisms
d. A soft texture
12. CONSIDERATIONS TO BE UNDERTAKEN IN TE FINISHING OF ENAMEL WALLS AND

MARGINS INCLUDE:
a. Directions of enamel rods
b. Support of enamel rods
c. Type of restorative material to be placed in preparation
d. Location of margin and degree of smoothness desired
e. All of the above

13. ALL ENAMELS MUST CONSISTS OF:
a. A cluster of enamel rods protruding from cavity
b. Full length enamel rods or full-length rods supported by shorter rods terminating
on sound dentin
c. Cavity outline placed on rough curve
d. Cavity outline placed on irregular lines
14. THE ADVENT OF ULTRA HIGH SPEED REQUIRES CONSIDERATION OF THE

FOLLOWING FACTORS IN FINISHING ENAMEL WALLS:
a. Margin seal
b. Sealing gingival margin
c. Lessening of tactile sense and rapid removal of tooth structure
d. Marginal metal that is easily burnished
15. BEVELLING FOR INLAY PREPARATIONS SERVES THE FOLLOWING UEFUL PURPOSES:
a. Produces a stronger enamel wall
b. Permits a marginal seal in slightly undersized castings
c. Provides marginal metal more easily burnished and adapted
d. Assists in sealing gingival margins of inlay
e. All of the above
16. BEVELLING IS CONTRAIONDICATED WHEN:
a. The cavity preparation is large
b. Silicate cement, resin material, porcelain inlays and amalgam are used
c. The cavity preparation is deep
d. When a pulp capping is present
17. THE BEVEL IS GENERALLY:

a. One-half the thickness of the enamel wall
b. One-third the thickness of the enamel wall
c. The entire thickness of the enamel wall
d. One-fourth the thickness of the enamel wall
18. THE BASIC CONSIDERATIONS IN PERFORMING CAVITY STERILIZATION ARE:
a. Effectiveness of the agent
b. Production of sterile field
c. Harmful to odontoblasts
d. Harmful to pulpal cells
e. All of the above
19. IN SELECTING AN INTERMEDIATE BASE THE FOLLOWING CRITERIA SHOULD BE

CONSIDERED:
a. Ability of material to protect the pulp
b. Ability of material to eliminate postoperative discomfort
c. Ability of material to prevent postoperative discomfort
d. Effect of material on clinical success of restoration
e. Effect of material on clinical success of restoration
f. All of the above
20. SILICATE CEMENTS:
a. Do produce an irritating effect on pulp
b. Do not produce an irritating effect on pulp
c. Are harmless
d. Are innocuous
21. ZINC OXIDE AND EUGENOL SHOULD NOT BE USED UNDER:
a. Porcelain filling material

b. A resin filling material
c. Gold inlays
d. Amalgam restorations
22. AN IMPORTANT JUSTIFICATION FOR QUADRANT PREPARATION IS:
a. Permits only class II preparations
b. The opportunity for restoring proper contours, contacts, margins and occlusal form
c. Permit only class I preparations
d. Permits only class II preparations
23. DARKENING OF TOOTH STRUCTURE ADJACENT TO AN AMALGAM RESTORATION MAY

BE DUE TO:
a. Reflected light
b. Indirect lighting
c. Gradual diffusion of metallic ions into the dentin
d. Hemorrhage into dentin
24. ADVANTAGES OF PERFORMING MULTIPLE PREPARATIONS AT ONE APPOINTMENT

ARE:
a. Fatigued is lessened for operator
b. Reduces number of visits for patients
c. Reduces overall time for complete treatment
d. Has a good psychologic effect on apprehensive patient
e. All of the above
25. HAND CUTTING INSTRUMENTS ARE COMPOSED OF:
a. Handle and blade
b. Handle, shank and blade

c. Shank and blade
d. Handle and shank
26. THE BOLEY GAUGE:
a. Should not be free from moisture
b. Has many applications in dentistry
c. May be placed under stress and dropped
d. Will not rust
27. ENAMEL HATCHETS, CHISELS, GINGIVAL MARGINAL TRIMMERS AND SPOON

EXCAVATORS HAVE:
a. Bibevels
b. Multiple bevels
c. No bevels
d. Single bevels
28. THE EFFECTIVE USE OF ANY INSTRUMENT IS DICTATED BY THE:
a. Ability and preference of operator
b. Metals used in manufacture
c. Heat treatment and tempering
d. Instrument design
29. THE FOLLOWING REPRESENT THE FUNDAMENTAL GRASPS FOR HAND

INSTRUMENTS:
a. Pen grasp
b. Inverted pen grasp
c. Modified palm and thumb grasp

d. Palm and thumb grasp
e. All of the above
30. GUARD ARE:
a. Mechanical devices
b. Unnecessary with hand cutting instruments
c. Useful only for dental students
d. Finger positions of hands opposite that using the instrument
ANSWER KEY:
1) C
2) C
3) A
4) D
5) B
6) C
7) A
8) D
9) A
10) B
11) C
12) E
13) B
14) C
15) E
16) B
17) D
18) E
19) E
20) A
21) B
22) B
23) C
24) E
25) B
26) B
27) D
28) A
29) E
30) D
RESTO REVIEW QUESTIONS 6
RESTO REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Periodontal objectives prior to restorative

dentistry procedures are
A. elimination of all diseased gingival
attachments with the resultant crevt-
cular depth as close to zero as possible
B. elimination of all diseased root
structure utilizing resection techniques 5
C. elimination of all etiological factors
responsible for periodontal disease
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. none of the above
2. A modified ridge lap pontic

A. is a sanitary pontic
B. causes chronic inflammation
C. is an all convex pontic except the
occlusal surface
D. should contact the ridge with pressure
E. is difficult to maintain ^.
3. The two most critical areas in full coverage

preparations for veneer crowns that are
contributory to poor esthetics and perio-
dontal inflammation are the
A. labial axioincisal and the proximal
finish line
B. labial axiogingival and the linguo- 1
gingival finish line
C. labial gingival bevel and the proximal
finish line
D. labial axioincisal and labial axiogingi-
val thirds
E. none of the above
4. A pontic should be what part of the facia,

lingual width of the tooth it replaces?
A. four-fifths
B. seven-eighths
C. one-fifth
D. the same
E. five-eighths
F. none of the above
5. Ridge lap pontics cause pressure atrophy

of the residual ridge resulting in
A. chronic inflammation of the ridge and
papillae
B. ulceration of the ridge tissue
C. destruction of support of the abutment
teeth
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. all of the above
6 Restorative procedures following Vestibular

surgery should be delayed
A. three weeks
B. one month
C three months
D. five months
7 The primary reason for the delay is

because of
A. the kinetic theory
B. hypersensitivity
C. creeping reattachment
D. the bleeding problems associated with
performing restorative procedures
8 The controlling factor to preserve adequate

embrasure spaces in full coverage restoration
A contacts placed at the occlusal third

B tooth preparation
C. surgical removal of the papillary tissue
D the elimination of veneering material
on the proximal surfaces
9 To prevent marginal inflammation, the

most critical area in restoring contours on a
tooth is the
A. occlusal third
B. occlusal surface
C. middle third
D. gingival third
E. lingual margin
10. The tissue on the infrapontic surface of a

pressure ridge lap pontic is usually
A. normal
B. painful
C. chronically inflamed
D. plaque free
E. highly keratinized
11 The treatment of choice for tilted teeth is

A. extraction
B. telescopic crowns
C. full crowns
D. orthodontics
E. endodontics and full coverage 17.
12. One primary advantage of polycarboxylate

cements is that they
A. are insoluble in oral fluids
B. have very high compressive strength
C. cause minimal pulp irritation
D. have a long setting time jg
E. are reliable inhibitors of secondary
caries
13. A patient complains of a toothache

triggered by heat and relieved by cold. The
involved tooth is best treated by which of
the following?
A. cold application
B. root canal therapy
C. pulpotomy
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
14. The earliest apical radiographic change
seen in a pulpally involved tooth is
A. apical resorption
B. thinning of the lamina dura
C. thickening of the periodontal ligament
space
D. loss of lamina dura
E. hypercementosis
15. The radiographic procedure of choice for
use in periodontal examination is the
A. paralleling technique
B. bisecting technique
C. bite-wing
D. pantograph
E. laminograph
16. What is the role of pins in restoring a large

amount of lost tooth structure in a molar
tooth? They are
A. used to reinforce the restorative
material
B. used to reduce the setting expansion
of the amalgam
C. used to retain the amalgam in the
cavity preparation
D. used only in teeth to be crowned
E. to be used only as temporary
restoration
17. Which of the following types of base

materials must not be placed in contact
with polymethyl methacrylate?
A. zinc phosphate cement
B. calcium hydroxide
C. zinc oxide eugenol cements
D. germicidal cements
18. A patient returns to the office two days

after a dentist has placed an MOD inlay in
a maxillary premolar. The patient com-
plains that the tooth is hypersensitive
especially under chewing pressure. This
indicates
A. chemical irritation
B. periodontal ligament involvement
C. pulpal hyperemia
D. high coefficients of thermal conducti-
vity
19. Cement bases should have which of the

following characteristics?
A high edge strength
B. low coefficient of thermal expansion
C. low coefficient of thermal conductivity
D. high ductility
E. adhesiveness
20. Which of the following does not aid in

retention of a two surface inlay?
A. cavosurface bevel
B. reverse bevel
C. dovetail
D. parallel walls
E. sharp line angles
21. Of the following, the greatest disadvantage

of precision intracoronal attachments when
they are used in partial denture construc-
tion is that they
A. present esthetic problems
B. are unstable
C. are costly-
D. require extensive preparation of the
abutment teeth
22. Resistance to proximal displacement of a

two surface inlay depends on which of the
following?
A. mechanical retention of cement with
the casting
B occlusal dovetail
C. cement adhesion
D. proximal contact
23. Pulpal sedation and protection is most

frequently attained by using
A. calcium hydroxide -
B. cyanoacrylate
C. zinc oxide eugenol
D. zinc phosphate cement
24. Cavity varnish is a useful material in restor-
ing teeth with amalgam because it
A. reduces marginal leakage
B. eliminates sensitivity
C. eliminates galvanic shock
D. reduces plaque formation
25. The convergence of the proximal

walls of a crown preparation
A. is determined by the pulp
B. should be no more than 2 to 5 de
from vertical gre*
C. should be 8 to 12 degrees from
vertical
D. is determined by the position of the
soft tissue
26. A wide labial or buccal shoulder for fun

crown preparations
A. is desirable in lateral incisors
B. should only be used on molars
C. is obtainable only with burs
D. may jeopardize the pulp
27. In specific instances, there are advantages

in using nonvital teeth, for full coverage
preparations. Which of the following is
such an advantage?
A.usually limits the design of the
preparation
B 0f!ers a better crown-root ratio
C.enhances mechanical and esthetic
factors
28. In restoring periodontally involved tee

is desirable to use tlh it
A. full coverage wherever possible
B. a splint on all remaining teeth
C. partial coverage wherever necessa
and possible
D. porcelain fused to gold
29. Electrosurgery can be used safely in
connection with
A. nitrous oxide and oxygen analgesia
B. ether anesthesia
C. pacemaker
D- ethyl chloride
30. Use of electrosurgery for recontouring

gingival tissues results in
A- a good firm scar tissue
B- a clear field with minimal bleeding
c- delayed healing
31 Most cutting procedures with electrosurgery

the oral cavity are best accomplished by
A., fully rectified current^
B. coagulation current
C. fully rectified current
D. partially rectified current
32 In the use of electrosurgery in the oral

cavity, profound anesthesia is
A. usually needed
B. never needed
C almost always needed
D. not needed for endodontically involved
teeth
33 Electrosurgery is
A. the same as electrocautery
B. accomplished with a cold electrode
and an electronic arc
C. performed by a heated electrode
D. accomplished with a hot electrode and
an electronic arc
34 A factor determining the setting for the

cutting current is
A room temperature
B amount of anesthesia
C. size of the machine being used
D. tissue thickness
35. Electrosurgical preparation of the sulcus

for impression taking
A. requires healthy gingival tissue
B. requires the use of coagulation current
C. eliminates the need for retraction cord
D. requires the need of retraction cord
36. A too low setting of the control dial for

cutting results in
A. fulguration
B dessication
C. more damage to tissue
D- less damage to tissue
37 The indifferent plate is used

A. primarily for fulguration
B. because it permits the use of higher
currents
C. primarily for electrodessication
D. because it allows the use of lower
currents
38 The foot control should be

A. activated before cutting the tissue
B. activated upon touching the tissue for
cutting
C. activated intermittently while cutting
the tissue
D. activated only for fulguration
39 The crown-root ratio

A. can easily be decreased in periodon-
tally involved posterior teeth
B. should never be decreased in perio-
dontally involved anterior teeth
C. can be decreased in periodontally
involved anterior teeth
D. none of the above
40 Decreasing the crown-root ratio in the

posterior segment will
A. result in an increased vertical dimension
B. have no effect on facial height
C. decrease vertical dimension
D. none of the above
Resto Exam 7
1-the main purpose in finishing the enamel walls of a cavity preparation is to?
(a) Allow the restoration to properly polished
(b) Remove the loose enamel rods
(c) Insure the prevention of recurrent caries
(d) Smooth the walls to allow better adaptation of the restorative material
2-which of the following are characteristic features of proximal cerise on premolars and molars;
1. Spreading –cone shaped into the enamel the base of the cone being the deepest part.
2. Spreading –cone shaped into the enamel the apex of the cone being the deepest part.
3. Spreading into the dentin in conical form the apex pointing toward the pulp
4. Spreading into the dentin in conical form base pointing toward the pulp
(a) 1&3
(b) 1&3
(c) 2&3
(d) 2&4
3-proximal caries usually starts:
(a) Between the contact and the marginal ridge
(b) At the contact areas

(c) Gingival to the free margin of the gingival tissue
(d) Gingival to the contact area and occlusal to the free margin of the gingival tissue
4-a carious lesion involving the buccal developmental groove of a mandibular molar is a:
(a) Class I lesion
(b) Class II lesion
(c) Class III lesion
(d) Class IV lesion
(e) Class v lesion
(f) Class VI lesion
5-the only methods of detecting caries now available to the practitioner are bay means of radiographs
and clinical examination.
(a) True
(b) False
6-perventive measures to preclude cracked teeth include:
(a) Early diagnosis of susceptible teeth
(b) On laying cusps with reverse bevels
(c) Placing pins horizontally in to the dentin of the buccal and lingal internal walls and restoring with
amalgam
(d) Full coverage
(e) All of the above are correct
7-caries prevention can be successful if routine periodic regimen of topical application of fluorides is
maintained.
(a) True
(b) False
8-in mo preparation there are how many point angles
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
9-dental hand cutting ins instrument are angled in order to :
(a) Provide better manipulative control

(b) Produce a better distribution of force
(c) Increase efficiency
(d) Provide proper access
(e) Bring the cutting edge of the instrument within 3 mm of the central axis of the handle
(f) Only (a) and (c) are correct
(g) Only (b) and (d) are correct
(h) All of the above are correct
10-cutting instruments should be thoroughly sharpened :
(a) To reduce pain
(b) To effectively control the instrument
(c) To create smooth surfaced walls
(d) To avoid injury to the tooth
(e) All above are correct
11-control of pain during dental procedures is limited to general, local, and anesthetics.
(a) True
(b) False
12-match the following list
(a) # 1556
(b) # 331
(c) # 169
(d) # 156
(e) # 15
13-the term high speed is designated for rotary instrumentation speeds of revolutions per
minute?
(a) 400.000 rpm
(b) 300.000 rpm
(c) 200.000 rpm
(d) 20.000_100.000 rpm
14-an important advantage of using rotary instrument speeds above 100_000rpm in cavity preparation
is that :
(a) There is reduction in vibration perceptible to the patient
(b) Heat is not generated when the bur or diamond instrument contacts the tooth
(c) Pulpal damage cannot result from this rotational speed
(d) It is safer for the operator
15-the ADA specifications (1970) in percentage by weight of constituents of a conventional amalgam

are:
(a) Silver 65%,minimum
(b) Tin 29% maximum
(c) Copper 6%,maximum
(d) Zinc 2%, maximum
(e) Mercury 3% maximum
(f) All of above correct
16-the amalgam exhibiting the least degree of creep is:
(a) Lathe cut
(b) Spherical combinations of spheres and filings
(c) Micro fine
(d) Dispersed phase high- copper
17-marginal breakdown is greater in the dental amalgam:
(a) Containing zinc vs zinc free alloys
(b) Exhibiting high creep characteristics
(c) Known as dispersion alloys
(d) With a high gamma I phase vs high gamma II phase
18-the principal purpose of trituration is to:
(a) Coat the alloy particles with mercury
(b) Dissolve the alloy particles in the mercury
(c) Reduce the amount of gamma II in the set amalgam
(d) Reduce the size of the original alloy particles as much as possible
19-the mercury –alloy ratio in amalgam after condensation should be approximately
(a) 3 to 2
(b) 5 to 3
(c) 8 to 5
(d) 1 to 1
20 contaminating amalgam with moisture during condensation results in:
(a) Pitting and blistering
(b) Internal corrosion
(c) The amalgam s loss in strength
(d) Postoperative pain
21-proximal cavosurface wall in class II preparation for the reception of an amalgam should be finished
at angle to the external surface .
(a) An acute
(b) An obtuse
(c) A right
22-for a class II amalgam preparation the axiopulpal line angle should be finished by:
(a) Beveling
(b) Rounding
(c) Extending it pulpally
(d) Finishing as a sharp line angle
23-the function of matrix is?
(a) Act as a retaining wall
(b) Assist in contouring and shaping the restoration
(c) Prevent rubber dam from being the restoration into the restoration
(d) Prevent saliva or blood from seeping into the restoration

24-wedges may be used to:
(a) Protect the gingiva during hand or rotary instrumentation
(b) Act as a quick separating agent
(c) Stabilize band material placed between teeth to prevent abrading the proximal surface adjacent to
the one being treated
(d) All of the above correct
25failure to finish and polish an amalgam restoration:
(a) Leaves a rough surface subject to corrosion
(b) Leaves a surface conducive to plaque accumulation
(c) Encourages galvanic action
(d) Leaves a surface difficult to keep clean
26-in proper placement of amalgam restoration burnishing is contraindicated:
(a) True
(b) False
27- Overheating an amalgam restoration when finishing polishing will:
(a) Bring mercury to the surface
(b) Cause eventual corrosion
(c) Result in early fracturing at the margins
(d) Result in surface pitting
28-the cohesive gold used only as bulk filler is :
(a) Mat gold
(b) Electroloy
(c) Spherical (powdered)
(d) Gold foil
29-bases compatible with cohesive gold restoration are:
(a) Zinc and eugenol preparations hardened with zinc acetate crystals
(b) Proprietary calcium hydroxide preparations
(c) IRM (intermediate restorative materials)
(d) Zinc phosphate cement
30-annealing by passing cohesive gold through a pure alcohol flame is the preferred method for:
(a) Spherical (powdered )gold
(b) Mat gold
(c) Electroloy
(d) Gold soil
resto board exam 8

1-“bridging “in cohesive gold restoration refers to:
(a) The layering or lapping of gold foil over that which has previously been condensed
(b) The moving of the condenser point systematically over the cylinder of gold foil so that each apply
overlaps the previous compaction
(c) The failure to completely compact each cylinder of gold
2-the gold alloys used for casting contain at least per cent of precious
(a) 55%
(b) 65%
(c) 75%
(d) 85%
3-if a gold alloy has a fineness of 75o,it has how many carts?
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 20
4-in a class II MO inlay preparation the gingival bevel should be placed at:
(a) 49_60 degrees
(b) 60_75 degrees

(c) 30_45 degrees
(d) 15_30 degrees
5-when subjected displacement forces a cast gold restoration is retained in position in position in the
tooth primarily by:
(a) Retention and resistance form of the preparation
(b) The cement or luting media
(c) Sharp line angles or point angles
(d) All of the above correct
6-direct wax patterns should be constructed with:
(a) Type A inlay casting wax
(b) Type B inlay casting wax
(c) Type C inlay casting wax
7-the proper zone of a gas-air blowpipe flame used for melting casting gold alloys is:
(a) The oxidizing zone
(b) The reducing zone
(c) The zone closest to the nozzle
(d) Combination of the oxidizing and reducing zone
8-gold is cast into a hot mold to:
(a) Hasten solidification of the gold
(b) Maintain thermal expansion of investment
(c) Eliminate oxides on the gold casting
(d) Maintain molecular tension
9- The advantages exhibited by fused porcelain inlays are:
(A) Good marginal integrity
(B) Insoluble in the oral fluids
(C) High degree of edge strength
(D) Color harmony with tooth structure
10-which of the following elastic impression materials my be put aside for up to hour before pouring a
model?
(a) Agar hydrocolloids

(b) Alginate
(c) Mercaptan rubber (polysulfide’s)
(d) Silicone rubber
11-which of the following materials exhibit adhesive qualities?
(a) Zinc phosphate cement
(b) Polycarboxylate cement
(c) ASPA (alumminosilivatepolycrylatecement )
(d) BIS-GMA resins (composites)
12-setting time of zinc phosphate cement may be increased by:
(a) Using slab cooled to just above the dew point
(b) Using a lower ratio of liquid to powder
(c) Using a longer mixing time
(d) Adding the increments of powder slowly
(e) (a) ,(b) ,(c)
(f) (a) ,(c) ,(d)
(g) (b) ,(c) ,(d)
(h) All of the are above correct
13-which of the following are disadvantages of a silicate restoration?
(a) High acidity initially
(b) High alkalinity on setting
(c) It does not take a smooth finish
(d) It will desiccate if not kept moist
(e) (a) ,(c) ,(d)
(f) (a) ,(b) ,(d)
(g) All of the are above correct
14-mixing of silicate powder and liquid should:
(a) Be down on a glass slab at room temperature
(b) Be down with an agate spatula
(c) Be bone slowly

15-As it hardens a properly placed silicate cement restoration may be expected to:
(a) Expand
(b) Expand and later contract
(c) Contract
(d) Contract and later expand
16-a composite is a:
(a) Pure resin
(b) Fileted silicophosphate
(c) Filled methyl methacrylate
(d) None of the above correct
17-the filled resin composites differ from the silicates because:
(a) They are not ant cariogenic
(b) They are less brittle
(c) They less affected by abrasion
(d) They are not affected by mouth –breathing
(e) They are not soluble in the oral fluids
(f) All of the above correct
18-the term “autopolymerizing” as applied to acrylic restoration, would indicate that:
(a) They are self –curing
(b) Heat is required to induce polymerization
(c) They are self-curing without formation
19-the advantage of a methyl methacrylate unfilled restorative is:
(a) That it can be finished smoothly
(b) That it has a low degree of flow
(c) That it is nonirritating to the pulp
(d) That its wear resistance is high
20-beses compatible with resins are:

(a) Zinc oxide and eugenol preparations
(b) Zinc phosphate cements
(c) Calcium hydroxide preparations
(d) Varnishes
21-thephysical properties of the following materials are weakened by the inclusion of pins in the
restoration?
(a) Amalgam
(b) Methyl methacrylate
(c) Composite resins
(d) Cast restoratives
22-pins are used with amalgam to:
(a) Strengthen the amalgam
(b) Provide retention
(c) Resist fracture of amalgam
(d) Decrease the stress on weak teeth
23-twist (spiral) drills are:
(a) Designed to be used clockwise or counter-clockwise
(b) Designed to cut channels in dentin or enamel with equal efficiency
(c) End and side cutting tools
(d) Made of high quality tool steel
24-which of the following factors affect enamel boning?
(a) A clean tooth surface
(b) A dry tooth surface
(c) A chemical union resin and enamel apatite
(d) An acid –conditioned enamel surface
(e) (a) ,(b) ,(c)
(f) (a) ,(b),(d)

(g) All of the are correct
25-aplplication of a BIG-GMA sealant makes it unnecessary to replace a no carious defective margin

between a metallic restorative and the enamel.
(a) True
(b) false
26-the material of choice in pulp capping is:
(a) zinc oxide and eugenol
(b) steroids in combination with antibiotics
(c) polycarboxylate cements
(d) calcium hydroxide
27-30atch the following in the corresponding number:
(27) chemicomechanical
(28) Mastication
(29) tooth brushing
(30) Exanthematous
(a) Attrition
(b) Erosion
(c) Abrasion
(d) hypoplasia
resto board exam 9

Board Questions: Restorative Dentistry
1. Cavity preparation for Class 1 amalgam restoration should have this final occlusal
outline:
a. Multicurved with no sharp angles

b. Multicurved with rounded point angles
c. Multicurved with grooves
d. Multicurved with sharp angles
2. Fractured incisors and large Class IV cavities is resorted using this type of matrix:
a. Celluloid strips
b. Banding strips
c. Clear plastic crown forms
d. Copper bands
3. Glass ionomersfor non-caious gingival lesions requires:
a. Definite line angles in the cavity

b. Slight cavity preparation
c. Definite angles in the cavity
d. Precise cavity preparation
4. Resistance forms is the ability t withstand masticatory stress and this is

estab;ished by:
a. Bulk of the restorative material

b. Strength of the restorative materials
c. Compressiveness
d. Compactness
5. Burnishing is the last step in the manipulation of this filling in a prepared cavity:
a. Silicate
b. Resins
c. Glass ionomer
d. Amalgam
6. What is the measurement used in periodontal health and treatment requirements
in a community?
a. CPTIN
b. OHIS
c. PMA
d. OHI
7. What do you call when the design of the burs have the face infront of the radial
lines which is associated with its strength?
a. Positive rake angles

b. Negative rake angles
c. Few rake angles
d. Many rake angles
8. Large Class two cavities with cusps involvement are best restored with:
a. Gold foil
b. Amalgam with pins
c. Gold overlays
d. Gold casting
9. Where is the retention accomplished in cavity preparation for resin Class III & Class
V?
a. All of these options depending on the size of cavity

b. Gingivally and incisally in enamel
c. Gingivally and incisally in cementation
d. Gingivally and incisally in dentin
10. How do you increase the setting time of zinc oxide eugenol paste?
a. Heating the spatula and slab and adding alcohol
b. Cooling the spatula and slab and mix with boroglycerine
c. Heating spatula and slab before mixing
d. Heating the spatula and slab and adding salt
11. Extension for prevention is directly related to:
a. Removal of unsupported enamel on the proximal surface of a Class III cavity

preparation
b. Depth of the axial wall of a Class III cavity preparation
c. Elimination of all carious dentin beyond the average depth of the pulpal wall of a
Class I cavity preparation
d. The outline form of the cavity preparation
12. Which of the listed principles of the cavity preparation is of least importance for the
reception of a silicate?
a. Extension for prevention

b. Resistance form
c. Finishing of enamel
d. Debridement
13. Caries prevention can be successful if a routine periodic regimen of topical

application of fluorides is maintained.
a. True
b. False
14. In a MO preparation, there are how many point angles?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
15. Cutting instruments should be thoroughly sharpened:
a. To reduce pain
b. To effectively control the instrument
c. To create smooth surfaced walls
d. To avoid injury to the tooth
e. All of the above are correct
16. The ADA specifications (1970) in percentage by weight of the constituents of a

conventional dental amalgam are:
a. Silver 65% min.

b. Tin 29% max.
c. Copper 6% max.
d. Zinc 2% max.
e. Mercury 3% max.
f. All of the above are correct
17. Contaminating amalgam with moisture during condensation results in:
a. Pitting and blistering

b. Internal corrosion
c. The amalgam’s loss in strength
d. Postoperative sensitivity
18. Overheating an amalgam restoration when finishing and polishing will:
a. Bring mercury to the surface

b. Cause eventual corrosion
c. Result in early fracturing at the margins
d. Results in surface pitting
19. The cohesive gold used only as a bulk filler is:

a. Mat gold
b. Electroloy
c. Spherical (powdered)
d. Gold foil
20. Bases compatible with cohesive gold restorations are:
a. Zinc oxide and eugenol preparations hardened with zinc acetate crystals
b. Proprietary calcium hydroxide preparations
c. IRM
d. Zinc phosphate cement
21. When subjecte to displacement forces, a cast gold restoration is retained in

position in the tooth primarilyby:
a. Retention and resistance form of the preparation

b. The cement or luting media
c. Sharp line angles or point angles
d. All of the above are correct
22. The proper zone of a gas-air blowpipe flame used for melting casting gold alloy is:
a. The oxidizing zone

b. The reducing zone
c. The zone closest to the nozzle
d. Combination of the oxidizing and reducing zone
23. The term “autopolymerizing” as applied to acrylic restorations, would indicate that:
a. They are self-curing

b. Heat is required to induce polymerization
c. They are self-curing without heat formation
d. Polymerization shrinkage occurs toward the cavity walls
e. Polymerization shrinkage is compensated for the proper technique of application
24. The advantage of methyl metacrylate unfilled restorative is:
a. That it can be finished smoothly

b. That it has a low degree of flow
c. That it is non irritating to the pulp
d. That its wear resistance is high
25. One week after insertion of a Class II restoration the patient presents with a
complaint of tenderness on mastication and bleeding from the gingiva. The dentist
should initially:
a. Check the occlusion

b. Check the contact area
c. Consider the probability of a hyperaemia
d. Explain to the patient that the retainer irritated the surrounding soft tissues and
prescribe an analgesic and warm oral rinse
26. The filled resin composites differ from the silicates because:
a. They are not anti-cariogenic

b. They are less brittle
c. They are less affected by abrasion
d. They are not affected by mouth-breathing
e. They are not soluble in the oral fluids
f. All of the above are correct
27. Twist drills are:
a. Designed to be used clockwise or counter clockwise

b. Designed to cut channels in dentin or enamel with equal efficiency
c. End and side cutting tools
d. Made of high quality tool steel
28. Pin failure may occur for any one of thefollowing five reasons. Which of these
failures occurs most frequently with a cemented pin?
a. Fracture of the dentin
b. At the cement dentin interface
c. Fracture of the pin
d. At the pin restorative material interface
e. Restorative material fracture
29. Pulpal irritation is reduced by:
a. Allowing the cavity preparation to dehydrate by evaporation through air drying

b. Desiccating the preparation with a gentle intermittent stream of warm air
c. Keeping the heat within the tooth at no more than 20◦F above normal
body temperature
d. Extending the excavation at least 1-2 mm beyond the carious lesion to ensure
removal of all pathology
30. A composite is a:
a. Pure resin
b. Filled silicophosphate
c. Filled methyl methacrylate
d. None of the above are correct
resto board exam 10

Resto Board questions
1. The ideal enamel-amalgam interface
a) butt-joint
b) lap-joint
c) sliding lap-joint
d) sliding butt-joint
2. Sensitivity can be felt in enamel due to the presence of

a. enamel lamellae
b. enamel tufts
c. enamel spindles
d. enamel sheath
3. Restorative pins for amalgam restoration should be placed:
a. As close to the DEJ as possible
b. In multiple numbers for retention
c. In line with the long axis of the tooth
d. Parallel to the external surface of the tooth
4. Alloy-Hg ratio volumetrically

a. 1:1
b. 5:7
c. 1:3
d. 7:5
5. The pulp protection agent contraindicated under composites
a. Calcium hydroxide
b. cavity varnish
c. glass ionomer cement
d. zinc oxide eugenol
6. The mesial and distal walls of a class I amalgam preparation should diverge slightly
towards the occlusal surface to:
a. provide convenience form
b. provide resistance form
c. afford support for the mesial and distal marginal ridges
d. make condensing of the amalgam easier
7. The position of the gingival margin of a class II amalgam preparation is dictated primarily by:
a. aesthetics
b. the location of the gingival margin
c. the extent of carious lesion
d. the thickness of the enamel
8. Which line angle below is rounded when preparing a class II amalgam preparation
a. axiobuccal
b. axiolingual
c. axiopulpal
9. The outline form of the classical class V amalgam preparation is

a. square
b. deformed trapezoid
c. triangle
d. rectangle
10. When is the matrix band removed from the tooth
a. prior to the final carving of the restoration
b. as soon as the amalgam has been condensed into the prep
c. after the final carving of the restoration
11. Butt joint margins are recommended in an indirect composite inlay preparation for the following
reasons, except:
A. beveled margins remove less tooth structures
B. thin beveled margins can break off during sealing
C. beveled margins are more likely to fracture under occlusal force
D. beveled margins are more difficult to prepare in the mouth.
E. Beveled margins are more difficult to finish in the lab.
12. During the preparation of a Class II cavity, which of the following permanent teeth pulp horns
will be the most subject to accidental exposure?
a. Distofacial of a maxillary first molar. C. Distofacial of a mandibular first molar.
b. Facial of a mandibular first premolar. D. Lingual of a mandibular first

premolar.
13. Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a
restorative procedure?
a. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs.
b. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors
c. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface.
d. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation.
14. In Class II cavity preparation for amalgam, the primary retention form is provided by:
a. occlusal convergence of facial and lingual walls
b. dovetail design
c. coving the internal line angles
d. both A & B
e. both B & C
15. Used to prepare a retentive lock in the axiolingual line angle to enhance retention form
of the proximal box.
1. #33 ½ 2. #245 3. #169L 4. # ¼
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4 C. 1,4 D. 3,4 E. 3 only.
16. Cutting through the oblique of maxillary first molar is indicated only if:
a. ridge is undermined by caries
b. ridge is crossed by a deep fissure
c. a separate MO and DO outline forms leave less than 0.5mm tooth structure
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 1,2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 3 only.
17. Viewed from the occlusal, the directions of the mesiofacial enamel wall is parallel to the
________, usually creating a reverse curve in the outline.
A. long axis of the tooth C. facial cusp ridge
B. enamel rod directions D. all of these E. none of these.
18. Wedging technique indicated for patient with recession of interproximal tissue level:
A. single-wedging B. “piggy-back” wedging C. double-wedging D. wedge-wedging
19. 12. Cast metal restorations are indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. when extension of the mesiodistal dimension of the tooth is necessary to form
a contact with an adjacent tooth.
B. presence of fracture lines in enamel and dentin
C. large proximo-occlusal caries but the facial and facial tooth surfaces are relatively non-
carious.
D. presence of facial and lingual smooth surface caries in addition to the carious occlusal
and proximal surfaces.
E. a molar that is treated endodontically.
20. Beveling the gingival cavosurface margins for an inlay/onlay restoration will:
A. help improve the fit of the casting in the gingival margins
B. removed unsupported enamel
C. extend preparation to the gingival embrasure making the area self-cleansing
D. create a metal that is burnishable.
E. none of the above.
21. Advantages of bonded, direct, composite restoration versus dental amalgam.
a. Esthetics
b. conservation of tooth structure
c. low thermal conductivity
d. low modulus of elasticity
e. no corrosion
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5 D. 1,2,4,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5
22. Final impression material for onlay restoration should have the following
qualities, except:
a. free of toxic or irritating components.
b. Have adequate strength to resist breaking or tearing
c. Non-elastic
d. Have adequate dimensional accuracy, stability and reproduction of details
e. Must be able to be disinfected without distortion
23. The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is:
a.Actinomycesviscosus C. Streptococcus salivarius
b.Streptococcusmutans D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
24. Initial carious lesion is limited to the enamel and is characterized by intact
surface, but a porous subsurface, usually tooth preparation is not indicated.
a. arrested caries C. recurrent caries
b. primary caries D. rampant caries E. incipient caries
25. In a Class 2 preparation, this wall joins the facial wall where retention groove is
placed.
a.occlusal wall C. facial/lingual wall
b.axial wall D. pulpal wall E. mesial/distal wall
26. A marginal ridge wall in a prepared cavity for amalgam is:
a. at right angles to the pulpal floor

b. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
c. at an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
d. determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove
e. none of the above.
27. The distal wall in an MO cavity on a mandibular second premolar is:
a. at right angles to the pulpal floor
b. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
c. at an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
d. determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove
e. none of the above.
28. A newly condensed amalgam restoration seems to chip away when being
carved. What is the likely cause of this problem?
a. A low-copper alloy was used.
b. Moisture contamination occurred.
c. The alloy was incompletely wetted with mercury.
d. The amalgam was not condensed with the recommended pressure.
e. The amalgam was condensed after its working time elapsed.
29. The dentist bevels the gingival margins of a gold onlay preparation. This process
serves each of the following, except:
a. to remove loose enamel rods C. to facilitate finishing
b. to minimize marginal opening D. to minimize the need for gingival

extension
30. The dentist adjusts the shade of a restoration using a complementary color. This
procedure will result in
a. increased value C. decreased value
b. intensified color D. increased translucency
resto board exam 11

1. Discoloration of the tooth under big amalgam restoration can be prevented by:
a. Using cavity varnish *

b. Using correct alloy: mercury ratio
c. Using zinc phosphate cement base
d. Washing the prepared cavity with NaOCl3
2. The intercuspal width of an ideal class I cavity (occlusal) preparation for amalgam
should be:
a. ½
b. 1/3
c. ¼ *
d. ¾
3. The amalgam restoration should be burnished after:
a. 2 to 3 minutes *
b. 10 to 15 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 24 hours
4. Delayed expansion of amalgam starts:
a. After 2 years
b. After 24 hours
c. After 3-5 months
d. After 3-5 days *
5. The presence of zinc in amalgam alloy:
a. Causes delayed expansion of the restoration

b. Minimizes the formation of oxides
c. Both A and B *
6. Amalgam which exhibits least creep and marginal breakdown is:
a. High copper admixed alloy

b. High copper spherical alloy *
c. Conventional lathe cur alloy
d. Conventional admixed alloy
7. The metal in dental amalgam alloy in which mercury would dissolve maximum is:
a. Silver
b. Tin *
c. Copper
d. Zinc
8. Gingival cavosurface margin is beveled in a class II cavity for amalgam restoration

to:
a. Get a lap joint on the cavosurface angle

b. Remove the unsupported enamel rods *
c. Get burnishable thickness of amalgam
d. Move the cavosurface away from the contact
9. The number of line angles in class II amalgam cavity are:
a. 6
b. 12
c. 11 *
d. 7
10. Most frequently used pin type is:
a. Friction-locked pin
b. Cemented pin
c. Self-threading pin *
11. The least traumatic and most versatile pin system is:
a. Cemented wire pin *

b. Self-threading pin
c. Friction-locked pin
12. Depth hole of cemented pins should be:
a. 1 to 2 mm
b. 3 to 4 mm *
c. 2 to 3 mm
d. Similar to that self-threaded pins
13. Luting cements may get rapidly dissolved due to:

a. Occlusal forces
b. Microorganisms *
c. Marginal leakage
d. Casting technique
14. Following methods prevent microleakage around porcelain inlay:
a. Closer fit
b. Use of dual cure resin cement *
c. Both the above
15. The axial wall of the class V cavity preparation is:
a. Flat
b. Concave
c. Convex *
d. Convex only incisocervically
16. A base or liner which is contraindicated beneath filled or unfilled resins is:
a. Glass ionomer
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Polycarboxylate cement
d. Zinc oxide eugenol *
17. A notable difference in class II cavity preparation for composite and for amalgam is
in:
a. Proximal box
b. Pulpal wall
c. Axial wall depth *
18. The setting reaction of glass ionomer cement is basically:
a. An acid base reaction 8

b. Polymerization reaction
c. Combination of acid base and polymerization reaction
d. Chelation
19. The restorative material that is most anticariogenic is:
a. Composite resin
b. Dental amalgam
c. Calcium hydroxide
d. Glass ionomer cement *
20. Major disadvantage of CAD/CAM system is:
a. Need for extended training

b. High cost
c. Both of the above *
d. Designing of restoration takes more time
21. Composite restoration may not be fabricated:
a. Directly on prepared tooth

b. In dies and models
c. By heat polymerization
d. By casting using lost wax technique *
22. In direct veneering, labial surface preparation removes approx. 0.5 to 1 mm

enamel and margins are prepared slightly incisal to free gingival crest with a finish
line as:
a. Shoulder with bevel

b. Knife edge
c. Chamfer finish line *
d. Shoulder
23. Which of the following materials is most popular for indirect veneering technique?
a. Processed composite
b. Cast ceramic
c. Fieldspathic porcelain *
d. Microfill composite
24. A silane perimeter is used to condition the internal surface of the which of the
following indirect veneer?
a. A composite veneer
b. Porcelain veneer *
c. Both of the above
25. It has been found that direct veneer restorations have more limited prognosis and
tendency to discolor within:
a. 1 to 2years
b. 3 to 5 years *
c. 5 to 7 years

Restorative Dentistry Board QS

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RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY BOARD QUESTIONS 1

RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY BOARD QUESTIONS

1. Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries

4. Sensitivity can be felt in enamel due to the presence of:

6. All enamels must consists of :

7. Affected dentin differs from infected dentin in that it has:

10.Gingival cavosurface margin is beveled in a class II cavity for amalgam restoration

11.The position of the gingival margin of a class II amalgam preparation is dictated

12. A marginal ridge wall in a prepared cavity for amalgam is:

16.Proper pulpal depth of all restoration may be considered as:

17.Hand cutting instrument are composed of:

18.Luting cements may get rapidly dissolved due to:

19.Guard is use for:

21.Capping of cusp/s should be considered for an onlay restoration when:

23.The axial wall of the class V cavity preparation is:

25.The restorative material that is most anticariogenic is:

28.Silicate Cements is:

30.ZINC OXIDE AND EUGENOL SHOULD NOT BE USED UNDER:

13. Tarnish means a change in

a. angle of the cutting edge in degrees centigrade

15. How many line angles does a class 2 have?

16. The typical divergence of all ways of a cast metal restoration

20. Gold inlays have improved retention when

22. Retention form for composite resin restorations is achieved by

a. position of the gingival crest

28. Cavity liners are used to:

a. help retain the restorative material

31. Zone II of carious dentin is also referred to as:

35. A properly acid-etched enamel surface appears

39. Solubility in oral fluids is one of the basic disadvantages of:

a. discoloration at the marginal ridge

42. The dentin primer

43. The use of a eugenol-containing material under resin will

44. As amalgam ages, the degree of microleakage:

45. Alloy-Hg ratio by weight

49. Creep of amalgam means

50. Luting GIC

Restorative Dentistry Board Questions 3

Restorative Dentistry Board Questions

1. Why is a matrix for a Class II dental amalgam restoration extended occlusally to

A. It serves as a guide to determine the completed restoration.

B. It allows for overfilling the amalgam.

C. It prevents escape of the amalgam during condensation

C. Setting shrinkage of the matrix

D. Coefficient of thermal expansion

A. Blow away the saliva with air, then proceed.

4. Streptococcus murtans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries

A. forms a gelatinous matrix C. metabolizes substrate from saliva

B. derives energy from constituents D. lives symbiotically with

5. In a Class III composite preparation, retention should be placed:

A. in the axial wall C. entirely in dentin

A. in an easily cleansable area D. perpendicular to the gingival

C. at the respective line angles of the tooth

7. Reasons for incorporating an enamel cavosurface bevel in preparations for

1, provides more surface area for bonding

5, provide greater potential for strengthening the remaining tooth structure

A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5 D. 1,2,4,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5

8. Basic preparation designs most frequently used for tooth-colored restorations of

A. conventional cavity design C. modified design

B. 2 to 4 degrees D. 3 to 5 degrees E. none of these.

A. # 33 ½ B. # 253 C. # 169L D. flame shaped diamond bur E. # 271.

11. Used in preparing occlusal and gingival bevels:

A. # 33 ½ B. # 253 C. # 169L D. flame shaped diamond bur E. #

A. less than 30 degrees C. more than 40 degrees