Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Chapter Reported
Chapter Title Page No.
No. by:
1 Introduction 2 Abarcar
2 Crime Scene Investigation 4 Advincula
Collection and Preservation of
3 9 Almine
Evidence for Examination
4 Forensic Evidence Examination 13 Amascual
Overview of Revised Rules of
5 17 Bandoukji
Evidence and Expert Witness
Admissibility of Scientific or
6 21 Cabalona
Technological Evidence
7 DNA as Evidence 27 Dadulla
8 Forensic Identification 30 Delfin
9 Forensic Anthropology 34 Flores
10 Forensic Odontology 37 Larios
11 Forensic Radiology 41 Mendiola
12 Fingerprinting 44 Montilla
13 Trace Evidence Examination 49 Nablo
14 Questioned Document Examination 53 Ong
15 Forensic Serology 56 Paleyan
16 Bloodstain Pattern Analysis 59 Perez, N.
Forensic Biochemistry and Molecular
17 62 Ponce
Biology
18 Forensic Botany 66 Rojas
19 Forensic Entomology 69 Ruiz
20 Forensic Engineering 73 Singzon
21 Firearms 76 Tagarino
22 Forensic Ballistics 79 Uy, D.
Gunshot Wounds and Ballistic
23 83 Uy, S.
Jurisprudence
24 Polygraph Test 87 Cadiz
25 Forensic Psychology and Psychiatry 91 Palamos
26 Personality Disorders 93 Martin
27 Mental Disorders 99 Egargo
28 Criminal Profiling 103 Mabanan
29 Forensic Toxicology 107
30 Poisoning 111
31 Forensic Drug Testing 114
32 Alcohol Abuse 116
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CHAPTER 1
INTRODUCTION
Prepared by: Abarcar, Rugie B.
1. _______ is the professional and academic discipline which concerns itself with
legal aspects of medical sciences, medical practice and other health care
delivery problems?
a) Medico-legal practitioner c) General Medicine
b) Forensic Medicine d) Legal Medicine.
5. Who devised a simple procedure for determining the blood type of a dried
bloodstain?
a) Henry Polates c) Leone Lattes
b) Eric Spoon d) Hans Gross
7. Who serves as expert witness in the court of law, testifying in a variety of civil
and criminal cases involving death or injury?
a) Medical Doctor c) Police officer
b) Forensic pathologist d) Forensic Science
8. Which process pertains to put together past events and uses physical
evidence on its analysis?
a) Criminalistics c) Forensic Science
b) Reconstruction d) Pathology
9. Which refers to a medical doctor who serves as researched and clinical
practitioners in the areas in which psychiatry is applied to legal issues?
a) Forensic Medicine c) Forensic Nursing
b) Forensic Psychology d) Forensic Psychiatry
10. Which of the terms below is defined as the application of scientific, technical
or other specialized knowledge to assist courts in resolving questions of fact
in civil and criminal trials?
a) Forensic Medicine c) Forensic Pathology
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b) Medical Jurisprudence d) Forensic Science
11.Which refers to the study of blood groups?
a) Serology c) Physics
b) Chemistry d) Botany
12. The branch of forensic which uses insects as evidence to help reconstruct
the circumstances?
a) Forensic Entomology c) Forensic Science
b) DNA typing d) Forensic Chemistry
13. Who are the computer and information scientists/technicians who may be
involved in the recovery and examination of probative information from digital
evidence?
a) Forensic Evidence c) Forensic Engineering
b) Forensic Nursing d) Forensic Odontology
16.Which branch of Forensic Science deals with determining suspects with the
process matching of bite marks, teeth structure or match a victim to his
dental xrays, resulting in an identification of an unknown individual?
a) Forensic Odontology c) Forensic Dentology
b) Forensic Entomology d) Forensic Analysis
17.Which is the function of Forensic Scientist that refers to the skilled personnel
in applying the principles and the physical and nature sciences?
a) Witness c) Collection specialist
b) Analysis of Physical Evidence d) Evidence
18.Which is the function of Forensic Scientist that possess skill that will aid the
court in determining the truth?
a) Expert Witness c) Collection Technicians
b) Specially Trained Evidence d) Analysis of Physical Evidence
20.Which causes and manner of death falls under the jurisdiction of the local
medical examiner or coroner?
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a) Suspicious deaths, sudden/expected deaths or deaths in children/infant
b) Deaths in individuals not under the care of a physician
c) Situations where illicit drugs or alcohol may have contributed to the death
d) All of the above
22._________ are dentist and oral pathologists who identify people from dental
structures and analysis/comparisons of bitemarks.
a) Forensic odontologists c) Forensic entomologists
b) Forensic toxicologists d) Forensic psychiatrists
23.These are medical doctors who serve as researches and clinical practitioners
in the many areas in which psychiatry as applied to legal issues.
a) Forensic botanists c) Forensic entomologists
b) Forensic psychiatrists d) Forensic biologists
25.He devised the first scientific system of personal identification, using body
measurements known as anthropometry.
a) Aphonse Bertillon c) Albert S. Osborn
b) Francis Galton d) Hans Gross
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a) Forensic Teachers c) Forensic Pilots
b) Forensic Nurses d) Forensic Sociologists
CHAPTER 2
CRIME SCENE INVESTIGATION
Prepared by: Advincula, Lerma A.
1. Which of the following refers to the place where the initial crime was
committed.
a) primary crime scene c) secondary crime scene
b) multiple crime scene d) none of the above
4. This refers to the focal point of the crime scene investigation and is
absolutely imperative that this person exerts positive control of the entire
crime scene operation.
a) Team leader c) Photographer
b) Recorder d) Custodian
5. Which of the following establishes a link between various facets of the crime
scene, the victim and the suspect?
a) Bermuda Triangle c) Crime Scene Triangle
b) Evidence Triangle d) none of the above
6. Who formulated the basic principle of forensic science as: "Every contact
leaves a trace"?
a) Dr. Edmond Locard c) Dr. William Bass
b) Dr. Joseph Bell d) Dr. Raymond Locard
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c) helps associate or disassociate defendants with crimes
d) helps fast track investigation
10.This is a search method usually used for covering large or open areas.
a) wheel search method c) counterclockwise method
b) strip search method d) spiral search method
12.Which of the following search method which is not very systematic, it can
be used in small confined areas.
a) point to point search method c) grid search method
b) zone or sector method d) none of the above
17.It is an analysis that subjects specimen (unknown) and a control to the same
test and examinations for the ultimate purpose of whether or not they have
common origin.
a) Comparison c) Identification
b) Differentiation d) None of the above
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19.Which of the following characteristics refers to properties of evidence that
can be associated with a common source with an extremely high degree of
certainty?
a) Individual characteristics c) Dual Characteristics
b) Group Characteristics d) Class characteristics
20.What is the first stage in crime scene investigation according to Crime Search
Study of 2003?
a) Approach the scene.
b) Initiate a preliminary survey of the scene and brief the team.
c) Preparation
d) Basic premises
21.In Documenting the crime scene what is the Golden rule to follow?
a) “Do not Change, Remove and Take pictures until Someone Document the
scene.”
b) “Do not Touch, Move, or Alter any evidentiary Item Until
Someone Document The Scene”
c) “Do not Remove, Alter or Change anything until Someone document the
scene”
d) None of the above
22.Which of the following activity allows for the development of a plan for the
coordinated identification, collection, and preparation of physical evidence
and identification of witnesses?
a) Observation c) Survey
b) Scene Assessment d) all of the above
23.Which of the following is not a function of a Team Leader?
a) Determine search patterns and make appropriate assignments.
b) Designate command post locations.
c) Ensure that sufficient supplies and equipment are available.
d) Ensure that appropriate safety measures are adhered to.
24.In approaching the crime scene what should be the first priority?
a) officer safety c. legal issue
b) evidence d. supplies and equipment
26.Which of the following survey is a critical review of all aspects of the search?
a) Initial Survey c) Final Survey
b) Final Search d) none of the above
27.The following legal search may also be done based on a plane view
doctrine, except for:
a) If a resident call s for help at his own dwelling
b) if the evidence is in plain view
c) in an emergency condition in dwelling or in a place of business.
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d) none of the above
28.Which of the following is not true when releasing a crime scene test?
a) Release is accomplished only after completion of the final survey.
b) Only the person-in-charge should have the authority to release the scene.
c) Consider the need to have certain specialties observe the scene before it
is released.
d) Ensure all equipment used in the search is gathered.
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CHAPTER 3
COLLECTION AND PRESERVATION OF EVIDENCE FOR EXAMINATION
Prepared by: Almine, Shareen Donna A.
2. The collection process will usually start with the collection of the
____________ evidence.
a) most fragile c) most valuable
b) most recent d) most precise
3. The following are the individuals that should be present at typical death
scene, except
a) crime scene examiners c) coroner or medical examiners
b) the officer d) prosecuting attorneys
8. The following are practical tips in the packaging and shipping of evidence,
except
a) Take precautions to prefer the evidence.
b) Wrap and seal each item of evidence separately to avoid contamination
c) Place the evidence in a clean, dry, and previously unused inner container
d) Seal the inner container with tamper-evident or filament tape
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10.The following the protocols to maintain scene security throughout processing
and until the scene is released, except
a) Ensure that the date of collection is documented.
b) Identify essential and nonessential personnel
c) Remove nonessential personnel from the scene
d) Continue to document entry/exit of persons at the scene
13.The following are the ways on how to collect items identified as evidence,
except
a) Impression evidence collection
b) Latent print evidence collection
c) Biological evidence collection
d) Biohazard evidence collection
14.The following are the protocols on how to document the description and
condition of firearms/weapons prior to rendering them safe, except
a) Use additional documentation of any evidence.
b) Record the physical condition of the weapon
c) Determine and record the best method for rendering the weapon safe
d) Identify the weapon
16. The following are the techniques for Impression Evidence Collection, except
a) Vacate by using visual observation techniques.
b) Consider collection of elimination samples
c) Collect by using photography, physical lifters
d) Ensure proper packaging of individual items of evidence
17.The following are the ways to maintain the chain of custody, except
a) Store the items in a secured vault or special room with limited access
b) Limit the number of personnel who are involved in the movement of the
evidence
c) The longer the chain the more potential there will be for a weak link to
exist
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d) Mark each item for identification purpose in such a manner as to
destroy any evidentiary value of the item.
18. According to Baldwin and May the potential for evidence contamination has
been a concern of ________ and _________, in general, ever since evidence
was first analyzed.
a) law enforcement; forensic practitioners.
b) criminal investigation; current scientific analyses
c) practitioners; economists
d) investigator; evaluator
21. The following are the individuals that should be present at the burglary
scene
a) the victim c) all of the above.
b) the officer taking the report d) none of the above
22. Any items which may cross contaminate each other must be packaged
___________.
a) Separately c) Altogether
b) Jointly d) Continually
25.Statement 1: Some items that have been recovered as evidence at the crime
scene should be considered significant and handled properly.
Statement 2: Cases are never lost because too much evidence had been
gathered and preserved.
a) Both statements are true
b) Both statements are false
c) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false
d) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true.
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26.Statement 1: Keep the number of persons involved in the handling of
evidence to a maximum.
Statement 2: The finder must identify some evidence.
a) Both statements are false.
b) Both statements are true
c) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false
d) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true
27.Statement 1: After one has collected the evidence, package each item of
evidence separately.
Statement 2: Keep accurate and complete notes.
a) Both statements are false
b) Both statements are true
c) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false
d) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true
28. Statement 1: It may not be necessary for all those who handled the evidence
to testify.
Statement 2: Handle the evidence in a manner that will avoid contaminating
it.
a) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true.
b) Both statements are false
c) Both statements are true
d) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false
29.Statement 1: Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and the
locations of the evidence noted, then the collection and preservation
processes can begin.
Statement 2: Photographs should also continue to be taken if the investigator
is revealing layers of evidence which were not previously documented
because they were hidden from sight.
a) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false
b) Statement 1 is false; Statement 1 is true
c) Both statements are false
d) Both statements are true.
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CHAPTER 4
FORENSIC EVIDENCE EXAMINATION
Prepared by: Amascual, Annalou T.
2. What type of forensic examination that determines the origin on the bones
sent to the laboratory for DNA analysis or for facial reproductions?
a) DNA examinations
b) Anthropological examinations
c) Nuclear DNA
d) Mitochondrial DNA
4. The type of forensic examination that can determine the presence of ignitable
liquids introduced to a fire scene.
a) Arson examinations
b) Electronic devices examinations
c) Explosive examinations
d) Paint examinations
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9. This type of forensic examinations involve the analysis of encoded and
enciphered documents used by terrorists, foreign intelligence agents, violent
criminals, street and prison gangs, and organized crime groups.
a) Computer examinations
b) Cryptanalysis and racketeering records examination.
c) Electronic devices examination
d) Feather examination
10.The type of forensic examination that determines bird species and can
compare feathers found on clothing, vehicles, and other objects with feathers
from the crime scene.
a) Feather examination. c) Audio examination
b) Glass examination d) Electronic devices examination
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17.This includes examinations of Commercial Electronic Devices, Interception of
Communication Devices, and other Electronic Devices and/or Circuits.
a) Explosive residue examination
b) Electronic devices examination.
c) Computer examination
d) Audio examination
19.This type of examination determines the direction and type of the breaking
force and the sequencing of shots.
a) Crime scene surveys, documentation, and reconstruction
b) Glass examination.
c) Explosive residue examination
d) Electronic devices examination
21.The analysis of this forensic examination may be helpful when there are
multiple shooters and types of jacketed ammunition.
a) Bullet jacket alloy examination.
b) Abrasive examinations
c) Building materials examinations
d) Weapon of mass destruction examinations
22.The forensic examination that often results in the positive identification of the
suspect shoes or tires from the suspect vehicles.
a) Shoeprint and Tire Tread Examinations.
b) Serial Number Examinations
c) General Crime Scene Photograph
d) Tape examinations
23.This can be used to lift impressions from porous and nonporous surfaces.
a) Gelatin lifters. c) Adhesive lifters
b) White adhesive lifters d) Transparent tapes
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25.This can be used to lift impressions from smooth nonporous surfaces.
a) Gelatin lifters c) Adhesive lifters
b) White adhesive lifters d) Transparent tapes
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CHAPTER 5
OVERVIEW OF REVISED RULES OF EVIDENCE AND EXPERT WITNESS
Prepared by: Samar Mohamed B. Bandoukji
3. Evidence that tends to make a material fact more or less probable than it
would be without the evidence.
a) Relevant Evidence. c) Direct Evidence
b) Hearsay Evidence d) Circumstantial Evidence
8. Which of the following statement is not true about the rule on the opinion of
an expert witness?
a) The expert witness may not testify to a reasonable degree of
certainty regarding his opinion, inference, or conclusion.
b) He needs to have a special skill, knowledge or experience, which has been
known to possess, may be perceived as evidence.
c) An expert witness need not to be present during the accident.
d) None of the above.
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9. In criminal cases, the degree of evidence needed is:
a) Preponderance of evidence.
b) Circumstantial of evidence.
c) Substantial evidence.
d) Proof beyond reasonable doubt.
10.Which of the following courts does not belong to Municipal and City Courts?
a) Municipal Circuit Trial Courts.
b) Municipal Trial Courts in Cities.
c) Metropolitan Trial Courts.
d) None of the above.
12.It is a legal system that has drawn its inspiration largely from the Roma Law
heritage and which, by giving precedence to written law, has resolutely opted
for a systematic codification of its general law.
a) Criminal Law c) Common Law System
b) Civil Law. d) All of the above
16.Proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the existence of the particular
fact in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence.
a) Direct Evidence. c) Testimonial Evidence.
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b) Indirect Evidence. d) Circumstantial Evidence.
17.Evidence which suffices for the proof of a particular fact until contradicted
and overcome by other evidence.
a) Direct Evidence. c) Circumstantial Evidence
b) Prima Facie Evidence. d) None of the above.
18.A witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of his personal
knowledge; that is, which are derived from his own perception, except as
otherwise provided in the Rules.
a) Testimonial Knowledge or Hearsay Rule.
b) Character Evidence
c) Direct Evidence
d) Circumstantial Evidence
19.When a witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a) Denial Evidence. c) Excluding Evidence.
b) Negative Evidence. d) None of the above.
24.A witness may be impeached by the party against whom he was called by
way of __________.
a) Negative Evidence. c) Opposing Evidence
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b) Contradictory Evidence. d) Destruction Evidence
30.As regards with the testimony of the witness, the offer must be made at:
a) The moment the case is filed.
b) The period the respondent is called.
c) The time the witness is called to testify.
d) None of the above.
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CHAPTER 6
ADMISSIBILITY OF SCIENTIFIC OR TECHNOLOGICAL EVIDENCE
Prepared by: Cabalona, Ruby Theresa E.
3. As provided by the Court (U.S.) in the Daubert Case, which of the following
statements is TRUE on the role of Judges as Gatekeepers?
a) The trial judge must determine at the outset whether the expert is
proposing to testify to technological knowledge that will assist the trier of
fact to understand or determine a fact in issue.
b) The appellate court must determine whether the expert is proposing to
testify to scientific knowledge that will assist the trier of fact to
understand or determine a face in issue.
c) The trial judge must determine at the outset whether the expert is
proposing to testify to scientific knowledge that will assist the trier of fact
to understand or determine a fact in issue.
d) None of the above
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6. Generally in American Jurisdictions, which of the statements below is TRUE
relative to the application of Daubert Standards to Hair Analysis?
a) Daubert has been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods for
detecting the past use of drugs.
b) Daubert has not been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods for
detecting the past use of drugs.
c) Daubert has not been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods due to
controversy over the qualifications required for a forensic scientist or lab
technician as a microanalyst.
d) Daubert has not been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods to
determine filial relationship
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a) Psychiatric Evidence has widely gains acceptance under Daubert.
b) Psychological or sociopsychological profiling results are valid for its logical
foundation and strong methodology.
c) Testimony regarding mental disorders that go to the matter of mens rea
fails the Daubert test
d) None of the above
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b) When it is not excluded by the Rules of Court.
c) When it is not gathered from illegal search or seizure.
d) All of the above
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a) Polygraph generally satisfied the Daubert standard in some jurisdiction but
failed in most.
b) Polygraph has not yet met the Daubert test but the study of certain
features from the bones remains reliable.
c) Polygraph is beginning to be found reliable in Daubert hearings but still
does not enjoy widespread acceptance.
d) Polygraph has been ruled valid and is considered beyond scientific dispute
by many judges.
26.Which of the following is NOT one of the two ways in which appellate courts
on appeal have reviewed a lower court’s decision to exclude or include expert
testimony?
a) Whether there was an abuse of discretion by the judge in his application
of the Daubert factors to determine reliability.
b) Whether the expert testimony had an adequate factual basis so as to be
deemed reliable.
c) Whether the evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the fact in issue
and is not otherwise excluded by statute or Rules of Court.
d) All of the above.
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d) Because misuse of such is not a serious problem.
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CHAPTER 7
DNA AS EVIDENCE
Prepared by: Dadulla, Mark Joed
7. The following are the bases of the chemical structure of DNA, except:
a) Adenine c) Guanine
b) Cytosine d) Biotine.
10.A molecular biologist could analyze extracted DNA in several ways. One of
which is through RFLP which stands for:
a) Restriction Fragment Loci Polymorphism
b) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism.
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c) Re-arrangement Fragment Locus Polyamorous
d) Restriction Fraction Length Polymorphism
11.A molecular biologist could analyze extracted DNA in several ways. One of
which is through HLA which is also known as:
a) Reverse Blot. c) Gram Staining
b) Blank Slate d) Filter Blot
12.A molecular biologist could analyze extracted DNA in several ways. One of
which is through VNTR which stands for:
a) Variable Neurons Tandem Reconstitution
b) Variable Number Tandem Repeats
c) Variable Number Tandem Reconstitution
d) Variable Nuerons Tenacity Repeats
14.A person’s possesses _____ genetic types of human DNA regions called,
“allele”, one inherited from each parent.
a) 2 c) 4
b) 3 d) 5
16.If the man’s DNA types do not match the child, he is excluded as the father.
If DNA types matches, then he is still excluded as the father.
a) True c) Neither true or false
b) False d) True for second sentence only
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scientific basis of identification of “semen samples to compare with those
taken from the vagina of the victim” are thus unnecessary or are forgotten
evidence too late to consider now.
a) True
b) False
c) True for the first sentence only
d) True for the second sentence only
20.Section _______, Article 3 of the Constitution, provides that “no person shall
be compelled to be a witness against himself.”
a) 15 c) 17
b) 16 d) 18
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deduction is made must be sufficiently established to have gained general
acceptance in the particular field in which it belongs.
a) Kohl v. Amundson c) Rafferty v. Perkins
b) State v. Schwartz d) Frye V. US
26.While the court agree with the trial court forensic DNA typing has gained
acceptance in the scientific community, the admissibility of specific test
results in a particular case hinges on the laboratory’s compliance with
appropriate standards and controls, and the availability of their testing data
and results.
a) Kohl v. Amundson c) Rafferty v. Perkins
b) State v. Schwartz d) Frye V. US
29.Rule 702 of the Federal Rules of Evidence governing expert witness provides;
if scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge will assist the trier of
the fact to understand the evidence or to determine a fact in issue, a witness
qualified as an expert by knowledge, skill, experience, training, or education,
may testify thereto in the form of an opinion or otherwise. If (1) the
testimony is based upon sufficient facts or data, (2) the testimony is the
product of reliable principles and methods, and (3) the witness has applied
the principles and methods reliably to the facts of the case.
a) True c) True for the first sentence only
b) False d) True for the second sentence only
30.The following are the bases of the chemical structure of DNA, except:
a) Adenine c) Guanine
b) Cytosine d) None of the above
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CHAPTER 8
FORENSIC IDENTIFICATION
Prepared by: Delfin, Dick Guiller G.
2. A Latin term which was introduced in English in the early 19th century
literally means “the body of offense”.
a) Bertillon classification c) Corpus delicti.
b) Quetelet classification d) Anthropometry
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11. It is the first rigorously scientific method of identification that was adopted
by the Frenchman Alphonse Bertillion in the year 1853 to 1914.
a) Quetelet Classification c) Portrait Parle
b) Corpus delicti d) Handwriting
12.Who is the Belgian statistician that put forward his theory that there was one
to four chances of any two adult persons having the same height?
a) Alphonse Bertillion c) Adolph Quetelet
b) Dr. Anil Aggrawal d) Dr. Juzef Wojcikiewics
17.What technology scan a fingertip and turns the unique pattern therein into an
individual number?
a) Artificial nose c) Biocrypt
b) Biometrics d) Finger scanning
19.What is one the most touted means of biometric identification during the last
several years?
a) Fingerprints c) DNA Matching
b) Eye Scan d) Facial Recognition
20.What type of scan reads the outline of the shape of a shadow not the
handprint?
a) Facial recognition c) Hand Geometry
b) Eye Scan d) Voice recognition
21.It is refers to the same purpose but by looking at semantics, spelling, word
choice, syntax, and phraseology.
a) Hand Geometry c) Forensic Stylistic
b) Voice recognition d) Handwriting Analyst
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a) Permanence c) Universality
b) Uniqueness d) Measurability
28.What friction skin of the palms and soles that have a ridge pattern?
a) Handwriting c) Fingerprints (Dactylography)
b) Photography d) Forensic Identification
30.What secondary physical characteristics that very resistant and bear much
useful information?
a) Deformities c) Teeth
b) Jewelry d) Scars
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CHAPTER 9
FORENSIC ANTHROPOLOGY
Prepared by: Flores, Ryan Isavelino B.
7. Physical Anthropology is the study of the primate order, past and present.
a) True. c) All of the above
b) False d) None of the above
8. Archeology is the study of past cultures via material remains and artifacts.
a) True. c) All of the above
b) False d) None of the above
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12.A forensic anthropologist can tell a lot about a person from bones.
a) True. c) All of the above
b) False d) None of the above
14.A forensic anthropologist can determine the age of the person from its bones.
a) True. c) All of the above
b) False d) None of the above
21.Forensic anthropologist may guess what the occupation the person had.
a) True. c) All of the above
b) False d) None of the above
22.Forensic anthropologist can determine if the person was left handed or not.
a) True. c) All of the above
b) False d) None of the above
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24.Forensic anthropologist can determine if the person was strangled or not.
a) True. c) All of the above
b) False d) None of the above
25.Forensic anthropologist can determine if the person had fallen from a high
area.
a) True. c) All of the above
b) False d) None of the above
26.Forensic anthropologist can determine the age of the person when he/she
died.
a) True. c) All of the above
b) False d) None of the above
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CHAPTER 10
FORENSIC ODONTOLOGY
Prepared by: Larios, Roldan
1. What is the branch of forensic medicine that deals with the proper
examination, handling and presentation of dental evidence in a court of law?
a) Forensic Sicrenfo c) Forensic Odontology
b) Forensic Foreigner d) Forensic Taxation
8. The following are some of the physical characteristics of both the bite mark
wound and the suspect’s teeth: choose the wrong answer.
a) The shape of the mouth arch c) Kiss mark
b) The curves of biting edges d) Missing teeth
10.The physical characteristics of both the bite mark wound and the suspect’s
teeth include: (choose the wrong answer)
a) The distance from cuspid to cuspid
b) The shape of the mouth arch
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c) The color of the teeth
d) The evidence of a tooth out of alignment
12.Bit mark in human tissue must be photographed before ___ days or the
tissue will begun to swell.
a) 30 c) 7
b) 60 d) 1
14.Teeth are harder than bone and are the last part of the body to be broken
down or destroyed. Which component of the teeth is the hardest substance in
the human body?
a) Gum c) Enamel
b) Pulp d) Dentin
17.This method of jaw resection includes the use of small pruning shears placed
within the nares and forced back into the maxillary sinus.
a) Facial Disection c) Pruning Shears Method
b) Mallet and Chisel Method d) Stryker Autopsy Saw Method
18.This method is characterized by the use of a mallet and chisel to induce a “Le
Fort” Type I fracture of the maxilla.
a) Facial Disection c) Pruning Shears Method
b) Mallet and Chisel Method d) Stryker Autopsy Saw Method
19.The soft tissue and muscle attachments on the lateral aspect of the mandible
are dissected away by incisions which extend through the mucobuccal fold to
the lower border of the mandible. What type of method is this?
a) Facial Disection c) Pruning Shears Method
b) Mallet and Chisel Method d) Stryker Autopsy Saw Method
20.This system is the most commonly used during dental examination in the
country which reflects any missing dental structure.
a) FDI Numbering System c) Universal Numbering System
b) Dental Impressions d) Dental Radiology
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21.This system of dental nomenclature is more widely used in developed
countries where quadrants are numbered 1 to 4 and the teeth are numbered
from midline to posterior.
a) Universal Numbering System c) FDI Numbering System
b) Dental Radiology d) Dental Impressions
22.These should be collected and considered when bite marks, rugae patterns or
other evidence warrant the procedure.
a) Dental Nomenclature c) Dental Radiology
b) Dental Impressions d) Dental Resection
27.This term signifies that the antemortem and postmortem data match in
sufficient detail to establish that they are from the same individual.
a) Sufficient Evidence c) Positive Identification
b) Exclusion d) Possible Identification
28.This term is used when the antemortem and postmortem data are clearly
inconsistent.
a) Exclusion c) Possible Identification
b) Insufficient Evidence d) Negative identification
29.This term signifies that the antemortem and postmortem data have
consistent features, but due to the quality of either the postmortem remains
or the antemortem data, it is not possible to positively establish dental
identification.
a) Positive Identification c) Insufficient Evidence
b) Possible Identification d) Exclusion
30.This term is used when the available information is insufficient to form the
basis for a conclusion.
a) Positive Identification c) Insufficient Evidence
b) Possible Identification d) Exclusion
39
40
CHAPTER 11
FORENSIC ODONTOLOGY
Prepared by: Mendiol, Ivy Y.
4. What is Virtopsy?
a) It is a virtual autopsy which uses computed tomography CT and
magnetic resonance imaging MRI that can provide general
pathology and provide details about specific areas of the body
and determines the time of death which aids in giving forensic
evidences
b) It is the method of identification using the impressions made by the
minute ridge information or patterns found on the Fingertips.
c) It is the application of allied sciences and analytical techniques to
questions concerning documents.
d) It is the examination of the shapes, locations, and distribution patterns of
bloodstains, in order to provide an interpretation of the physical events
which gave rise to their origin.
41
b) Switzerland d) Mexico
42
a) Only I is correct c) Both statements are incorrect
26.Statement I: Along with the dental and DNA analysis, radiographic images
can be used in the indentification of uknown victims. Statement II:This does
not require the securing of pre morterm examinations e.g CT scan or
radiographs from a suspected individual and the matching of specific
anatomical details with similar post mortem studies.
a) Only I is correct
b) Both statements are correct.
c) Both statements are incorrect
d) Only II is correct
43
b) Both statements are correct. d) Only II is correct.
30.Statement I: The virtual autopsy does not destroy key forensic evidence-
which may be damaged during a classic autopsy said Wilhelm Roentgen
Statement II: It can also be used in cultures and situations where autopsy is
not tolerated by religion, such as in the traditional Jewish faith, or is rejected
by family members.
a) Only I is correct c. Both statements are incorrect
b) Both statements are correct. d) Only II is correct.
44
CHAPTER 12
FINGERPRINT IDENTIFICATION
Prepared by: Montilla, Giovanni G.
3. A child has 24 teeth all of them are permanent, the age of this child is:
a) 9 years c) 11 years
b) 10 years d) 13 years
7. In the examination of the ridges of the hands and fingers, this means of
identification is applied when only a part of the fingerprint is available.
a) Fingerprinting c) Plain Method
b) Dactyloscopy d) Poroscopy
10. The study of handwriting for the purpose of determining the writer’s
personality, character and aptitude.
a) Bibliotics c) Idiosyncracies
b) Graphology d) Poroscopy
45
11.The following are the characteristic of the handwriting of an illiterate, except:
a) The handwriting will not usually show fine lines continuously but
the strokes are mostly rough and made with considerable
pressure.
b) The writing is not rhythmic but made up of disconnected unskilled
movement.
c) Tremor or involuntary trembling is seen.
d) Same speed is utilized from beginning to end and seldom is the pen raised
to get a new adjustment.
13. When can a person hardly recognized another at a distance farther than one
hundred yards for persons who has never been seen before?
a) When there is a flash of firearm.
b) When it is broad daylight.
c) When there is a flash of lightning.
d) When there is an artificial light.
14. The following statement are correct in relation to Portrait Parle, except:
a) It is a spoken picture.
b) It is a verbal, accurate and pictures-que description of the person
identified.
c) The only way to have an idea of the prominent physical features is for the
witnesses to tell the investigator.
d) It is impossible for find two human beings having bones exactly
like.
46
18.Under ordinary methods of identification, which of the following
characteristics may not easily be changed?
a) growth of hair, beard or mustache
b) body ornamentations
c) speech
d) grade of profession
21. The genuineness of any disputed writing may be proven by any of the
following ways.
i) Acknowledgment of the alleged writer
ii) Statement of the witness who saw the writing
iii) Opinion of persons who are familiar with the handwriting of the
alleged writer
iv) Opinion of an expert
47
25.Which of the following characteristics of a person is not easily changed:
a) Hair pattern c) Gait and mannerisms
b) Places frequented d) Grade or profession
26.Dactylography is...
a) The study of the pores on the papillary or friction ridges of the skin for the
purpose of identification
b) Art of changing fingerprints
c) Art and study of recording fingerprints as a means of
identification
d) Art of comparing fingerprints for identification
28.In the identification of both the living and the dead before onset of
decomposition, which statement is NOT correct?
a) birth marks like spots naevi may be remove by carbon dioxide snow,
eletrocautery or excision
b) moles are permanent and cannot be removed except by surgery
c) certain occupations may result in some characteristic marks or identifying
guide
d) blood type examination may be utilized to distinguish one person from
another
30. This is not a good point of identification for it is easily changed from time
to time.
a) Stature c) weight
b) deformities d) scar
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CHAPTER 13
TRACE EVIDENCE EXAMINATION
Prepared by: Nablo, Jheanniver C.
3. The principle that explains how material is left at a crime scene is called?
a) Lonan’s Exchange Principle
b) Howard’s Excahnge Principle
c) Locard’s Exchange Principle
d) None of the above
4. All are evidence that is found at a crime scene in small but measurable
amounts except?
a) Hair c) water
b) Gunshot d) None of the above
7. Another form of DNA that may be found in a hair sample and may be useful
in eliminating some of the suspects is:
a) Cellular DNA c) Nuclear DNA
b) Paternal DNA d) Y-Chromosome DNA
49
b) Most animal hair have continuous or interrupted medulla.
c) Scale structure is not used to determine species.
d) The Root of the hair contains DNA.
12. The body area from which a hair originated can be determined
by____________________________?
a) Microscopy c) General morphology
b) X-Ray d) None of the above
15. This part of hair can tell whether the hair in question has been pulled out or
shed naturally.
a) Shaft c) Root
b) Tip d) None of the above
16. This part of hair can tell whether the hair in question has been pulled out or
shed naturally.
a) Shaft c) Root
b) Tip d) None of the above
18. A _____ occurs when a fiber is transferred from a fabric directly onto a
victim’s clothing.
a) Secondary Transfer c) Primary transfer
b) Fiber Transfer d) None of the above
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d) Hair is best used to back up other forms of evidence
21. This hair are shorter in length, are-like in shaped and often abraded or
tapered at the tips;
a) Fringe Hairs c) Limb Hairs
b) Axillary d) Animal Hair
25. A _____ occurs when already transferred fibers on the clothing of a suspect
transfer to the clothing of a victim.
a) Primary Transfer c) Secondary transfer
b) Fiber Transfer d) None of the above
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29. All are true EXCEPT;
a) Use in toxicology as hair remains after the flesh has disintegrated.
b) Napolion Bonaparte -One of the Most famous cases of poisoning may
have been solved by modern technology and hair.
c) Hair can be used as solid evidence in its own.
d) The validity and acceptable forensic hair comparison are supported but
guidelines for hair comparison methodology.
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CHAPTER 14
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION
Prepared by: Ong, Gellian
9. What is steganography?
a) Art of dancing
b) Art of painting
c) Art of written instrument
d) Art of covered or hidden writing
53
d) Distance travelled.
54
20. Kind of typewriter which typeface elements are permanently fastened into
the machine?
a) Nokia c) Xylophone
b) Abacus d) Typebar
22. It is the instrument that converts sound into a visual graphic presentation?
a) Spectrum c) Spectographs
b) Spectacle d) None of the above
27. It is the measurement across the tread from one edge of the read design to
the other
a) Thread c) Tread Development
b) Tread Color d) Tread Design Width
28. It is how the T’s are crossed and I’s are dotted..
a) Line quality c) Placement of diacritics
b) Slant d) None of the above
29. Who deals with items that form part of a case which may or may not come
before a court of law.
a) Forensic Document Examiner c) Investigator
b) Teacher d) All of the above.
30.Who deals with items that form part of a case which may or may not come
before a court of law.
a) Forensic Document Examiner c) Investigator
b) Teacher d) All of the above.
55
CHAPTER 15
FORENSIC SEROLOGY
By Mary May P. Paleyan
7. The word serology comes from the ancient Sanskrit, Sara which means?
a) Blood c) To Flow
b) Fluid d)To protect
56
10. What test/technique is used to determine if a sample is blood?
a) Color crystalline test c) Keratin test
b) Luminol test d) Gluten test
14. What test/technique is used to determine the blood type of a dried blood
sample?
a) Absorption elution technique c) Keratin test
b) Color crystalline test d) Gluten test
20. Use _________ across all surface when doing visual inspection in the
crime scene specially n dark areas.
a) Powerful sense of smell c) Powerful third eye
b) Powerful light d) Powerful electricity
21. What is the next step if nothing is found but there is a high suspicion of
blood in the crime scene?
a) Spray water c) Go back to the office
57
b) Leave the area d) Spray luminol
23. The generic term for any way of determining if something is blood or not
is called?
a) Keratin test c) Color crystalline test
b) Gluten test d) Presumptive test
25. Wet blood has more value than dry blood because?
a) It is fresh
b) It is easier to extract
c) It is color red
d) More test can be done on wet blood
26. Blood in the crime scene can be in different form except?
a) Pools c) Smears
b) Drops d) Squares
27. For how many minutes the blood begins to dry after exposure to the air?
a) 30-45 minutes c) 10-15 minutes
b) 15-20 minutes d) 3-5 minutes
30. What substance is found in the blood that produces antibodies to fight
infection?
a) Antigen c) Water
b) Plasma d) Cells
58
CHAPTER 16
BLOODSTAIN PATTERN ANALYSIS
Prepared by: Noel L. Perez
3. _________________ is the evidence that liquid blood has come into contact
with a surface.
a) Bloodletting c) Spotting
b) Menstruation d) Bloodstain
10. _________________ is the blood which travels in the same direction as the
source of energy or force which caused the spatter.
59
a) Forward Spatter c) Swipe
b) Downward movement d) Transfer
18. When blood falls from a height or at a high velocity, it can overcome its
natural cohesiveness and form _______________.
a) Bubbles c) Leaflets
b) Balloon d) Satellite Droplets
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21. _______ is a bloodstain pattern which results from blood dripping into blood.
a) Relative Pattern c) Drip Pattern
b) Parent Pattern d) Raindrop Pattern
22. _______ is a change in the shape and direction of a bloodstain due to the
influence of gravity or movement of the object.
a) Relative Pattern c) Zigzag Pattern
b) Parent Pattern d) Drip Pattern
24. _______ is a bloodstain pattern created when a volume of blood has been
absorbed by an object.
a) Saturation c) Regulation
b) Menstruation d) Castration
29. _______ is caused by the beating of the heart and typically found on walls or
ceilings.
a) Bubbles c) Pools
b) Balloon d) Gushes
30. _______ is an elastic characteristic along the outer edge of a liquid caused
by the attraction of like molecules
a) Flow Path c) Gushes
b) Surface tension d) Angular Point
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CHAPTER 17
FORENSIC BIOCHEMISTRY AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY
Prepared by: Ponce, Lica Marie S.
3. How many DNA regions that forensic scientists can scan in every individuals?
a) 10 c) 12
b) 11 d) 13
4. Which of the following is NOT a sample of DNA uses for forensic identification
a) Obtain biological specimen
b) Identify crime and catastrophe victims
c) Exonerate persons wrongly accused of crimes
d) Establish paternity and other family relationships
9. A technique for analysing the variable lengths of DNA fragments that result
from digesting a DNA sample with a special kind of enzyme.
a) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
b) Variable Number Tandem Repeats
c) Polymerase Chain Reaction
d) Combined DNA Index System
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b) Variable Number Tandem Repeats
c) Polymerase Chain Reaction
d) COmbined DNA Index System
12. These are short sequences of non-coding DNA which are repeated over and
over.
a) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
b) Variable Number Tandem Repeats
c) Polymerase Chain Reaction
d) Combined DNA Index System
14. Useful for tracing relationships among males or for analysing biological
evidence multiple male contributors.
a) Y-Chromosome Analysis c) Mitochondrial DNA Analysis
b) STR Analysis d) DNA Analysis
15.Can be used to examine the DNA from samples that cannot be analyzed by
other types of analysis.
a) Y-Chromosome Analysis c) Mitochondrial DNA Analysis
b) STR Analysis d) DNA Analysis
17.DNA can provide insights into many intimate aspects of a person and their
families including
a) susceptibility to particular diseases
b) legitimacy of birth
c) predispositions to certain behaviours
d) all of the above
19.The National Institute of Justice wrote the following historical use of DNA
analysis in the US. What was the name of the perpetrator that was linked to
the DNA samples?
a) Gerald Parker c) Maja Parker
b) Kim Parker d) Xian Parker
63
21.Where is the possible location of DNA of a baseball bat as evidence?
a) handle c) surface area
b) tips d) inside
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b) All mothers do not have the same mitochondrial DNA as their
daughters
c) Investigators would be able to compare other cases against arrested
person’s DNA profile
d) DNA profiles are different from fingerprints, which are useful only for
identification.
65
Chapter 18
FORENSIC BOTANY
Prepared by: Jayson L. Rojas
8. These are pollen grains and spores that fall on a particular site.
a) Pollen rain. c) Fallen Pollen
b) Sporain d) Falling grain
66
11. These plants are also called wind-pollinated plants.
a) Autogamous c) Anemophilous.
b) Aerogamous d) Zoogamous
12. It is the study of fossil and modern pollen, grains, spores, and other acid-
resistant microorganisms such as dinoflagellates, acritarchs, and
chitinozoans.
a) Limnology c) Palynology.
b) Ecology d) Dendrochronology
14. All are correct uses of plant evidence in forensic botany, except:
a) Destroys an alibi
b) Help determine time since death
c) Help determine when was the suspect born.
d) Tells where someone or something has been
15. Toxicology is the branch of science which deals with the nature, effects and
detection of poisons.
a) True. c) Neither true nor false
b) False
19. Contact Traces Principle is a principle which states that criminal always
leaves something at the crime scene or takes something away.
a) True. c) Neither true nor false
b) False
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22. Hair, dirt and mud can be source of pollen evidence.
a) True. c) Neither true nor false
b) False
23. Knowledge on plant succession can help investigators identify hidden graves.
a) True. c) Neither true nor false
b) False
25. The following are sub disciplines of plant science which Forensic Botany
encompasses, except:
a) Palynology c. Dendrochronology
b) Astronomy. d. Limnology
26. Ways in which the roots can be used to date the remains or otherwise
characterize the burial site.
a) Examine root development after it has been damaged
b) Examine roots in direct contact with the remains
c) Examine branch growth
d) All of the above.
27. Why is it that algal community is an excellent way to assess post mortem
interval?
a) Diatoms are ubiquitous in both lotic and lentic systems
b) Algal populations, though variable, persist through the year
c) Most diatoms can be identified to species with only a light microscope
d) All of the above.
28. Characteristic cell types from plants can be used to identify victim’s last meal;
knowledge about which can be used to identify the victim’s last whereabouts
or actions prior to death. These cell types do not include:
a) Sclereids c) Silica bodies
b) Raphide crystals d) Diatoms.
30. All are correct uses of plant evidence in forensic botany, except:
a) Destroys an alibi
b) Help determine time since death
c) Help determine when was the suspect born.
d) Tells where someone or something has been
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CHAPTER 19
FORENSIC ENTOMOLOGY
Prepared by: Richael Ruiz
2. Which of the following are not part of the Areas of Forensic Entomology?
a) Medicocriminal Entomology c) Stored Product Insects
b) Urban Entomology d) Mediocriminal Entomology.
3. When Forensic Entomology was first reported to have been used in China?
a) 19th Century c) 15th Century
b) 13th Century. d) 2nd Century
4. This is commonly found in foodstuffs and the forensic entomologist may serve as
an expert witness during both criminal and civil proceedings involving food
contamination?
a) Stored Product Insects. c) Forensic Entomology
b) Urban Entomology d) Diverse Entomology
5. The most commonly called upon to determine the postmortem interval or ‘’time
since death’’ in homicide investigation.
a) Death Scene Investigation. c) Forensic Entomology
b) Stored Product Insects d) Diverse Entomology
6. This section focuses on the criminal component of the legal system and deals
with the necrophagous or carrion feeding insects that typically infest human
remains
a) Forensic Entomology c) Urban Entomology
b) Medicocriminal Entomology. d) Diverse Entomology
7. The branch of forensic entomology that deals with legal proceedings involving
insects and related animals that affect manmade structures and other aspects of
the human environment
a) Forensic Entomology c) Urban Entomology.
b) Medicocriminal Entomology d) Diverse Entomology
8. The way of using insects to determine elapsed time since death used when the
corpse has been dead for between a month up to a year or more.
a) Using successional waves of insects. c) Using adult insect
b) Using maggot age and development d) Using worms
9. It can give a date of death accurate to a day or less, or a range of days, and
used in the first few weeks after death.
a) Using successional waves of insects c) Using adult insect
b) Using maggot age and development. d) Using worms
69
10. One of the application of Forensic Entomology in death scene
investigation in which some flies prefer specific habitats such as distinct
preference for laying their eggs in an outdoor or indoor environment.
a) Entomological Evidence can show Attempt to Conceal or Moving the Body .
b) Entomological Evidence can show the Environmental Temperature or
Environmental Condition
c) Entomological Evidence can show if Victim was poisoned before Death
d) Death Scene Investigation
13. In Collection of Insects from the Body at the Scene, what are the insects
should be collected first?
a) Eggs of insect c) Adult flies and beetles.
b) Bug d) Worms
14. It is a case where the insects can be used to place a suspects at the scene
of a crime.
a) Sexual Assault and Rape. c) Abuse of the Elderly
b) Child Abuse or Neglect d) Abuse and Neglect
15. It is a crime where some insects will colonize wounds or unclean areas on
a living person.
a) Sexual Assault and Rape c) Abuse of the Elderly.
b) Child Abuse or Neglect d) Abuse and Neglect
16. Who is the doctor wrote this article “on the skin surface under the diaper,
third instar larvae of the false stable fly Muscina stabulans FALLEN, and the
lesser house fly Fannia canicularis L were found. F. canicularis adults are
attracted to both feces and urine.”
a) Dr. Mark Bernicke. c) Dr. Brickle
b) Dr. Ben d) Dr. Chukie
17. Who is the forensic entomologist, suggest the collection, preservation, and
packaging protocols of entomological evidence?
a) Dr. Mark Bernicke. c) Dr. Brickle
b) Dr Gail Anderson d) Dr. Chukie
70
18. What is the range size of larvae or maggots?
a) from 1-2mm to 17 mm c) from 1-4mm to 19 mm.
b) from 1-3mm to 18mm d) from 1-4 mm to 20 mm
19. A very tiny, but are usually laid in clumps or masses, and are usually
found in a wound or natural orifice, but may be found on clothing.
a) Larvae c) Egg
b) Pulpa. d) Maggots.
20. It found crawling on or near the remains and may be in maggot masses.
a) Larvae c) Egg
b) Pulpa. d) Maggots
21. This are often found in clothing, hair or soil near the body.
a) Larvae c) Egg
b) Pupae d) Maggots
22. They are only use in indicating which species of insect are likely to
develop from the corpse, as one cannot determine whether an adult has
developed on the corpse.
a) Pupae c) Maggots
b) Egg d) Flies.
23. It is the process of collecting the insect from the body in which the insects
collected from one part of the body should be kept separate from those from
another.
a) Handling c) Packaging
b) Labeling. d) Transporting
24. It is the process of collecting the insect from the body in which the most
specimens are fairly fragile and are probably best picked up with gloved fingers
which are often gentler than forceps if one is not used to them.
a) Handling. c) Packaging
b) Labeling d) Transporting
26. Which of the following equipment are not included in the Entomological
Collection?
a) Nets. c) Forceps
b) Vials d) Fishnets
27. This can be found as adults, larvae or grubs, pupae and also as cast skins.
a) Egg c) Flies
b) Maggots d) Beetles.
28. What is the state that the Forensic Entomology is now a board specialty
a) United States. c) Chicago
b) United Arab d) Las Vegas
71
29. Forensically significant conclusions often can be drawn by what?
a) By noting the state of successive colonization of a corpse.
b) By digging the corpse
c) By freezing the corpse
d) By nothing
30. In what century the Forensic entomology play a part in some very major
cases?
a) 2th Century. c) 12th Century
b) 19th Century d) 1st Century
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Chapter 20
FORENSIC Engineering
Prepared by: Genevieve Singzon
2. All except one is TRUE about Forensic Engineering. Which statement is it?
a) It only involves preparation of engineering reports and testimony at
hearings
b) It is the application of the art and science of engineering in the
Jurisprudence system.
c) Its main purpose is the determination of persons liable for a crime
d) Any legally qualified professional can be a Forensic Engineer
6. Which is NOT true about the correlation that exist between forensic engineering
and forensic investigation?
7. Upon the other hand, which statement effectively distinguishes the two
disciplines?
a) Forensic Engineering makes use of infrared, ultraviolet and nuclear
magnetic resonance; Forensic Investigation, simple hand lens suffices
73
b) Forensic Engineering is associated with civil courts; Forensic
Investigation, criminal courts
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B.
12. Which of the following are among the common areas of Forensic Science?
a) Crash Investigation and Reconstruction
b) Emissions, Air Transport and Chemistry Medical Services
c) Both A and B.
d) Neither A nor B
14. What method pertains to analysis of loads applied to bodies containing cracks?
a) Biomechanics c) Injury Causation
74
b) Fracture Mechanics. d) Human Factors Engineering
75
a) Finite Element Analysis. c) Scanning Electron Microscopes
b) Fracture Mechanics d) Forensic Engineering
24. Which method depends on dividing up of a body into discrete elements which
may be triangles, squares or other defined shapes?
a) Finite Element Analysis. c) Scanning Electron Microscopes
c) Fracture Mechanics d) Forensic Engineering
26. What method implies the use of numerical mathematics to determine effects of
fluids on components or structures?
a) Finite Element Analysis
b) Fracture Mechanics
c) Scanning Electron Microscopes
d) Computational Fluid Dynamics.
28. Which method pertains to the use of numerical and analytical codes and models
to determine the behavior of structures when hit by fast-moving projectiles?
a) Finite Element Analysis c) Impact Dynamics.
b) Accident Reconstruction d) Scanning Electron Microscopes
30. Which of the following are considered vital since experimental work in these
areas can tend to be difficult, expensive, or in some cases, illegal?
a) Modelling of Impact Events. c) Scanning Electron Microscopes
b) Accident Reconstruction d) Impact Dynamics
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Chapter 21
FIREARMS
Prepared by: Tagarino, Juniel
1. A type of firearm which has a cylindrical magazine situated at the rear of the
barrel, capable or revolving motion and which can accommodate five or six
cartridges; each of which is housed in a separate chamber. After a shot, the
circular magazine rotates by the cocking of the hammer in a way that the next
cartridge is brought in the proper position for firing. The usual muzzle velocity of
a revolver is 600 feet per second.
a. Revolver c) Rifle
b. Pistol d) Shotgun
2. This is a firing weapon in which the empty shell is ejected when the cartridge is
fired and a new cartridge is slipped into the breech automatically as a result of
the recoil. The cartridge is contained in a vertical magazine which holds six to
seven cartridges. It is not automatic in action in the sense that a continuous
pressure on the trigger will not make the firearm fire continuously. It is more
correct to call it a "self-loading firearm." It has a usual muzzle velocity of 1,200
feet or more per second.
a. Revolver c) Rifle
b. Pistol d) Shotgun
3. A firearm with a long barrel and butt. Has a magazine and volt action of various
types. This is a single self-loading weapon. It usually has a muzzle velocity of
2,500 feet per second and a range of 3,000 feet.
a. Revolver c) Rifle
b. Pistol d) Shotgun
5. A cylindrical structure with a base which houses the powder, the primer at the
base and with the bullet attached at the tip.
a. The cartridge case or shell c) Powder or propellant
b. Primer d) Bullet or projectile
6. The main function of this part is the transformation of mechanical energy by the
hit of the firing pin on the percussion cap to chemical energy by its rapid
combustion
a. The cartridge case or shell c) Powder or propellant
b. Primer d) Bullet or projectile
7. Is the primary propulsive force in a cartridge which when exploded will cause the
bullet to be driven forward towards the gun muzzle.
a. The cartridge case or shell c) Powder or propellant
b. Primer d) Bullet or projectile
8. Is the metallic object attached to the free end of the cylindrical tip of the
cartridge case, propelled by the expansive force of the propellant, and
responsible in the production of damages in the target.
77
a. The cartridge case or shell c) Powder or propellant
b. Primer d) Bullet or projectile
9. The portion of the firearm used for handling it. It may house the magazine.
a. Handle or butt c) Breechblock
b. Firing chamber d) Trigger
10. The place where the cartridge is held in position before the fire mechanism
starts. The portion of the firearm used for handling it. It may house the
magazine.
a. Handle or butt c) Breechblock
b. Firing chamber d) Trigger
11. The steel block which closes the rear of the bore against the force of the charge.
The face of this block which comes in contact with the base of the cartridge is
known as the breech face.
a. Handle or butt c) Breechblock
b. Firing chamber d) Trigger
12. This is a part of the firearm which causes firing mechanism. Except in a single
action firearm, pressure on the trigger is the commencement of the whole
firearm mechanism.
a. Trigger c) Breechblock
b. Firing chamber d) Handle or butt
13. The mechanism by which the spent shell or ammunition is withdrawn from the
firing chamber.
a. Trigger c) Extractor
b. Firing chamber d) Ejector
14. The mechanism by which the empty shell or ammunition is thrown from the
firearm.
a. Trigger c) Extractor
b. Firing chamber d) Ejector
15. It is the amount of force (pressure) on the trigger necessary to fire a gun. Its
determination is necessary in the assessment of whether the firing can possibly
be accidental.
a. Trigger pressure c) Extractor
b. Firing chamber d) Ejector
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Chapter 22
FORENSIC BALLISTICS
Prepared by: Dexter M. Uy
1. Refer to the science of the travel of a projectile in flight; and the flight path of a
bullet includes the travel down the barrel, the path through the air, and the path
through the target. It is the science or art of designing and hurling projectiles so
as to achieve a desired performance.
a) Paraffin wax test c) Ballistics.
b) Paraffin examination d) Forensics Science
2. Ballistics is the science that deals with the motion, behavior, and effects of
projectile, especially to:
a) Bullets c) Rockets
b) Gravity bombs d) All of the above.
6. These are the actions of the projectile within a gun. It is the study of the
processes originally accelerating the projectile, for example the passage of the
bullet through the barrel of a rifle:
a) Temporary ballistics c) Transition ballistics
b) External ballistics d) Initial or internal ballistics.
7. These are the actions of the projectile in the air. It is the study of the passage of
the projectile through space or the air:
a) Temporary ballistics c. Transition Ballistics
b) External ballistics. d. Initial or internal
ballistics
8. It is the force behind the bullet which accelerates it forward, and the quantity
and type of this affects the initial energy of the projectile.
a) Pellets c) Gunpowder.
b) Bullets d) Gun residue
9. These are typically low-energy weapons with muzzle velocities less than 1,400
feet per second:
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a) Handguns. c) Semiautomatic
b) Shotguns d) None of the above
10. The most frequent used handguns (firearms) in gunshot injuries, except one,
are of three basic types as follows:
a) Single-shot pistols c) Semiautomatics
b) Revolvers d) Rifles.
11. These weapons fire a missile which consists of a fuse of hundreds of pellets
with muzzle velocities of 1,000 to 1,500 per second:
a) Handguns c) Rifles
b) Shotguns. d) None of the Above
15. The Detection of Primer Residues which is presently the most common
method used to test for residue on the suspect by swabbing the individual’s
hand, has the following methods, except:
a) Neutron activation analysis (NAA)
b) Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS)
c) Scanning electron microscopy with energy dispersive analysis (SEM_EDA)
d) None of the above.
16. This has become an excellent method for detection of gunshot residue from
among the three methods of the Detection of Primer Residues:
a) Neutron activation analysis (NAA)
b) Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS)
c) Scanning electron microscopy with energy dispersive analysis
(SEM_EDA).
d) None of the above
17. When a rifled weapon is discharged, the rifling produces marks on the bullet
as it passes down the barrel. Some markings have the so called “class
characteristics” indicative of the make and model of the firearm. Which of the
following is not a class characteristic?
a) Diameter of land and grooves
b) Imperfections of lands (most pronounced in jacketed bullets).
c) Number of land and grooves
d) Depth of grooves
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18. When a rifled weapon is discharged, the rifling produces marks on the bullet
as it passes down the barrel. Some markings have the so-called “individual
characteristics” which reflect imperfections peculiar to a particular firearm and
may allow its specific identification. Which of the following is not an individual
characteristic?
a) Diameter of land and grooves.
b) Imperfections of lands (most pronounced in jacketed bullets)
c) Number of land and grooves
d) Depth of grooves
19. This is another type of examination used to identify gun oils in targets, ad is
very sensitive with stored specimens:
a) Ferrozine spray c) Latent fingerprints
b) Gas chromatography. d) Laboratory examination
20. Which among the list below is not among the twelve (12) parameters used
by a system that has also been described for identification of jacketed sporting
rifle bullets?
a) Identification number c) Cartridge
b) Manufacturer d) Bullet base.
22. Markings having class and individual characteristics are also found on the
cartridge case primer. These characteristics include the following:
I. Type of breech block marking.
II. Size, shape and location of extractor marks.
III. Size, shape and location of ejector marks.
IV. Size, shape and location of firing pin marks (the most important identifying
marks in rim fire cartridge cases).
a) The 1st & 2nd statement are true, 3rd & 4th statement are false
b) The 1st & 2nd statement are false, 3rd & 4th statement are true
c) All statements are true.
d) All statements are false
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2. Spent bullets should be packed in such a way as to reduce any jostling or
friction that might damage the striations.
a) 1st sentence is true, 2nd sentence is false
b) 1st sentence is false, 2nd sentence is true
c) Both statements are true.
d) Both statements are false
27. Refers to the test that is used to determine if lead residues are present in the
exhibits.
a) Sulphur c) Sodium Rhodizorate.
b) Calcium d) Silicon
29. GSR travels out typically ______ feet from the barrel of most firearm.
a) 6-8 c) 9-11
b) 3-5. d) 1-2
30. One modern methods of collection is through the use of “non-woven cotton
cloth swabs prewetted with a mixture of isopropanol and water”.
2. A very common collection method use today is through pre-packed kits used
to collect samples mainly from the hands of the suspects.
a) 1st sentence is true, 2nd sentence is false
b) 1st sentence is false, 2nd sentence is true
c) Both statements are true.
d) Both statements are false
Chapter 23
Polygraph Test
Prepared by: Cadiz, Reymond A.
1. Which is not part of the newly discovered pieces of evidence that were not
available during the 2nd trial in the double murder case of late Sen. Aquino
and Rolando Galman?
82
a) Independent forensic evidence uncovering the false forensic claims
b) Key defense eye witness to the actual killing
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
2. In the same case, all are grave violations of the due process, except:
a) insufficient legal assistance of counsel
b) lack of evidence from forensic examination
c) right to counsel of choice
5. The court has repeatedly held that before a new trial may be granted on he
ground of newly discovered evidence it must show, except:
a) Evidence was discovered after trial
b) Such evidence could not have been discovered or produced at the trial
even with the exercise of reasonable diligence
c) That it is immaterial, commulative and corroborative
d) Evidence of such weight it could probably change the judgement if
admitted
6. Courts are generally reluctant in granting motions for new trial on the ground
of newly discovered evidence because
a) It is presumed that the moving party has had ample opportunity
to prepare his caseand secure all necessary evidence
b) It is time consuming and requires much effort and resources
c) The judgement is already final and executory
8. What was the motion filed by the petitioners in the double murder case of
Sen. Aquino and Galman?
a) Motion to quash
b) Motion to reopen case with leave of court
c) None of the above
9. The threshold question in resolving a motion for new trial based on newly
discovered evidence is whether:
a) The evidence is acceptable and recognized by the court
83
b) Newly discovered evidence which could not have been
discovered by due diligence
c) Newly discovered evidence follows the terms and condition set forth by
the court
10. The question of whether the evidence is newly discovered has two
aspects, except:
a) Temporal one
b) Predictive one
c) Elective one
13. In the double murder case of Aquino and Galman, the report of the
forensic group may not be considered as newly discovered evidence:
a) Petitioners failed to show that it was impossible for them to
secure an independent forensic study
b) Petitioners failed to present the new evidence in a timely manner
c) Petitioners failed to carefully differentiate the newly discovered evidence
from the evidence of the previous trials
14. – 15. Below are the materials and methods used in the double murder
case if Aquino and Galman except:
a) Court records of the case
b) Gun and live ammunitions
c) Statement of the media
d) Results of forensic experiment
e) Review of forensic exhibit
f) X-ray of the skull of Kris Aquino
16. What caused the fracture of the occipital bone, temporal and parietal
bone of the late Sen. Benigno Aquino Jr. when he was shot?
a) Gravitational Force c) Kinetic Force
b) Frictional Force d) Potential Force
17. According to Dr. Solis what was the bullet trajectory that caused Sen.
Benigno Aquino Jr.’s death?
a) Downward c) Horizontal
b) Upward d) Vertical Midline
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b) Caliber of a Bullet d) Trajectory
22. This moves only under the influence of gravity and possibly atmospheric
friction.
a) Ballistic Missile c) Ballistic Testing
b) Ballistic Resistance d) Ballistic Trajectory
23. The type of firearm used in a crime can usually be identified by the bullet
or by the casings left at the scene.
a) False c) Only for revolvers
b) True d) Only for shotguns
25. Which of the following will cause the highest degree of damage at an
entry site?
a) High caliber bullet c) Low velocity bullet
b) Low caliber bullet d) High velocity bullet
28. Which of the following would external ballistics be most likely to study?
a) Striation Markings c) Extractor Markings
b) Powder Tattoo Patterns d) Bullet Trajectory
85
86
Chapter 24
Polygraph Test
Prepared By: Cadiz, Reymond A.
6. ________ is a medical device which is fastened around the chest and another
around the abdomen to measure the variation in respiratory pattern.
a) Sphygmomanometer c) Plethysmograph
b) Galvanograph d) Pneumograph tube.
7. _________is a medical device which is similar to the one used by physicians, and
is attached to the subject’s upper arm during the test.
a) Pneumograph tube c) Sphygmomanometer.
b) Plethysmograph d) Galvanograph
9. __________are attached to the hand or index & ring fingers, through which a
weak electric current is passed to measure the galvanic skin response (GSR).
a) Pneumograph tube c) Sphygmomanometer
b) Plethysmograph d) Galvanograph.
10. The following are the persons who should not take polygraph test, except?
a) Pregnant Women c) Person who epileptic
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b) Person with serious heart condition d) Obese person.
11. The following are the medical devices that are used to monitor changes
occurring in the body during polygraph examination, except?
a) Blood Pressure Cuff c) Electrodes
b) Pneumograph tube d) Stethoscope.
12. _________ means that a change takes place in person who consciously holds
feelings, which manifest into physiological changes in his blood pressure, pulse
rate, respiration and electro-dermal response.
a) Polygraph interaction
b) Isotonic interaction
c) Psychosomatic interaction.
d) Psychological interaction
13. What are these physiological indices that are measured and recorded during
polygraph examination?
a) Blood Pressure, Pulse, Respiration, Body Temperature
b) Blood Pressure, Pulse, Body Temperature
c) Blood Pressure, Pulse, Respiration, Skin Conductivity.
d) Pulse, Respiration, Body Temperature, Skin conductivity
14. The first attempt to develop a scientific instrument to detect truth was made by
________ in 1895.
a) John Reid c) Benussi
b) Lombroso. d) Larson
16. Who was the 1st person to work on practical deception tests based on
physiological changes?
a) Benussi. c) Larson
b) Lombroso d) Keeler
17. __________is a questioning technique which do not directly relate to the crime
under investigation, but to a similar situation in which the answers may have a
feeling of concern with respect to either its truthfulness or its accuracy.
a) Peak of tension question c) Control question.
b) Relevant/irrelevant question technique d) all of the above
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20. ___________is the protégé of Larson which updated the device by making it
portable and added the galvanic skin response to it in 1939.
a) Keeler. c) Lombroso
b) Benussi d) John Reid
21. In 1947, __________ further improved the instrument as well as the technique
of administering the test.
a) Keeler c) Lombroso
b) Benussi d) John Reid.
24. The Polygraph Examiner considers the following aspects while analysing the
results of the test, except?
a) Simultaneous occurrence in respiration & increase in blood pressure
immediately after the subject’s reply
b) Heavier breathing immediately after reply to a relevant question
c) Increase on blood pressure several seconds after the subject’s
reply.
d) None of the above
25. The Supreme Court reiterated the same rule, by categorically stating that “the
court does not put credit and faith on the result of a lie detector test inasmuch
as it has not been accepted by the scientific community as an accurate means of
ascertaining truth or deception.
a) People vs Reanzares c) Paople vs Daniel
b) People vs Adoviso d) People vs Carpo.
26. The Supreme Court stated “that much faith and credit should not be vested
upon a lie detector test as it is not conclusive.
a) People vs Carpo c) People vs Daniel
b) People vs Adoviso d) Both b and c.
27. The ruling in the Adoviso Case was recapitulated in ___________, where the
Supreme Court emphasize that a lie detector test has never been accepted in our
jurisdiction as a means of ascertaining the truth.
a) People vs Carpo c) People vs Daniel
b) People vs Adoviso d) People vs Reanzares.
89
c) Electrodermal activity
d) Physiochemical response
30. The _____________ interacts with the body and creates physiological changes
in the form of increased blood pressure, increased respiratory rate, increased
heart rate & lower GSR.
a) Psychosomatic interaction c) Defence Mechanism.
b) Galvanic Skin Response d) Electrodermal Activity
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CHAPTER 25
FORENSIC PSYCHOLOGY AND PSYCHIATRY
Prepared by: OMAR BARRION PALAMOS
6. This is a rule on insanity in the practice of law when the accused is not criminally
responsible if his unlawful act was the product of mental disease or defect.
91
b. Forensic sociology d. Not mentioned
12. Its function is to control the id's impulses. It also has the function of persuading the
ego to turn to moralistic goals rather than simply realistic ones and to strive for
perfection.
a. The ego c. The Id
b. The Superego. d. The Superergo
13. Which of the following is a Theory on Crime as Adaptive Behaviour?
a. Modelling Theory c. Attachment Theory
b. Behaviour Theory d. All of the above.
17. In Civil court cases, psychologists also provide psychotherapy and counselling to
individuals for the following problems, except:
a. Anxiety c. Depression
b. Desensitization d. None.
19. Includes autism and mental retardation, disorders which are typically first evident in
childhood.
a. Physical condition
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b. Psychosocial condition
c. Developmental disorders and personality disorders.
d. None of the above
20. The following statements describe about the differences between Forensic
Psychology and Forensic Psychiatry. Which among them is not?
a. Forensic psychiatrists favor their capacities to diagnose serious mental
disorder while psychologists were seen as especially prepared to go beyond
the matter of mental disorder to describe the person
b. Forensic psychiatrists generally are seen as better able to use interviews, on-
the-ward observations, and record reviews to reach diagnostic and forensic
conclusions. Conversely, forensic psychologist was perceived as better
prepared to obtain and use standardized, quantitative assessment data
c. Research tradition of psychiatry is rooted in medicine's reliance upon applied
clinical experience in the evolution of knowledge. In contrast, forensic
psychologists are trained in psychology's tradition, which places a higher
value on knowledge that evolves from controlled experimentation
d. Psychiatry only and not psychology contributed to the pool of
psychodynamic, social and behavioral theories that guide the logic
of both forensic psychiatrists and psychologists.
93
Chapter 26
Personality Disorders
Prepared By: Nyel Yves T. Martin
94
9. This personality disorder is characterized by a long-standing pattern of a
disregard for other people’s rights, often crossing the line and violating those
rights:
a) Antisocial Personality Disorder.
b) Avoidant Personality Disorder
c) Borderline Personality Disorder
d) Dependent Personality Disorder
10. The following are the symptoms of Antisocial Personality Disorder, except:
a) failure to conform to social norms
b) deceitfulness
c) impulsivity
d) Unwilling to get involve with people unless certain of being liked.
16. A pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others such as their motives are
interpreted as malevolent:
a) Paranoid Personality Disorder.
95
b) Dependent Personality Disorder
c) Histrionic Personality Disorder
d) Borderline Personality Disorder
17. The following are the manifestations of Paranoid Personality Disorder, except:
a) suspects, without sufficient basis, that others are exploiting, harming, or
deceiving him or her
b) preoccupied with unjustified doubts about the loyalty or trustworthiness
of friends or associates
c) reluctant to confide in others because of unwarranted fear that the
information will be used maliciously against him or her
d) shows perfectionism that interferes with task completion.
20. The following are the characteristics of Narcissistic Personality Disorder, except:
a) has a grandiose sense of self- importance (e.g., exaggerates
achievements and talents, expects to be recognized as superior without
commensurate achievements)
b) preoccupied with fantasies of unlimited success, power, brilliance, beauty,
or ideal love
c) believes that he or she is “special” and unique and can only be understood
by, or should associate with, other special or high-status people (or
institutions)
d) perceives attacks on his or her character or reputation that are
not apparent to others and is quick to react angrily or to
counterattack.
96
23. The following are the characteristics of Schizoid Personality Disorder, except:
a) neither desires nor enjoys close relationships, including being part of a
family
b) almost always chooses solitary activities
c) has little, if any, interest in having sexual experiences with another person
d) suspiciousness or paranoid ideation.
26.Odd beliefs or magical thinking that influences behavior and is consistent with
subcultural norms (e.g., superstitiousness, belief in clairvoyance, telepathy, or
“sixth sense”; in children and adolescents, bizarre fantasies or preoccupations)
are characteristics of:
a) Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
b) Neurosis
c) Schizoid Personality Disorder
d) Borderline Personality Disorder
97
c) Avoidant Personality Disorder
d) Multiple Personality Disorder
98
Chapter 27
MENTAL DISORDER QUESTIONS
a) True.
b) False
a) True.
b) False
3. Bulimia Nervosa refers to people with this disorder consume large amounts of
food and then rid their bodies of the excess calories by vomiting, abusing
laxatives ot diuretics, taking enemas, or exercising obsessively.
a) True.
b) False
4. Compulsions is the Repetitive behaviors or mental acts that the person feels
driven to perform in response to an obsession, or according to rules that must be
applied rigidly
a) True.
b) False
a) True.
b) False
a) True.
99
b) False
a) True.
b) False
a) Delirium
b) Multi-Infract Dementia
c) Dementia Associated with Alcoholism
d) Hypertension.
10. Binge-Eating is still being debated as to ways in determining who has this kind
of disorder, but most people who has this disorder have:
13.Compulsions is the repetitive behaviors or mental acts that the person feels
driven to perform in response to an obsession, or according to rules that must be
applied rigidly
a. True.
b. False
100
14.Obsessions is the recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that are
experienced as intrusive and inappropriate, and that cause marked convulsions.
a. True
b. False.
15.A stressor is anything that causes a great deal of stress in the person’s life,
which could be a positive event, like a wedding, or a negative event, like a family
member’s death.
a. True.
b. False
16.While experiencing or after experiencing the event, the individual may have the
following symptoms, EXCEPT.
c. Derealization
d. Depolarization.
a. True.
b. False
18.Restricting Type is when the person restricts their food intake on their own, and
does engage in binge-eating or purging behavior.
a. True
b. False.
101
19.Binge-Eating or Purging Type is when the person self-induces vomiting or
misuses antitussives, emetic, or enemas
a. True
b. False.
a. True
b. False.
21. Cyclothymic Disorder – people with this disorder have, for at least 2 years, the
presence of numerous periods with hypomanic symptoms and numerous periods
with depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a Major Depressed
Episode
a. True.
b. False
a. True
b. False.
a. True
b. False.
a. True.
b. False
a. True
b. False.
a. True.
102
b. False
27.While experiencing or after experiencing the event, the individual may have the
following symptoms, EXCEPT.
c. Derealization
e) Delirium
f) Multi-Infract Dementia
g) Dementia Associated with Alcoholism
h) Hyperventilation.
a.True
b. False.
a. True
b. False.
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CHAPTER 28
CRIMINAL PROFILING
Prepared by: Mabanan, Rolando
2. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that involves collection and
assessment of all data relating to a specific case?
a) Decision Process Models c) Crime Assessment
b) Criminal Profile d) Profiling Inputs
3. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that involves arranging of all
information gathered into a logical and coherent pattern?
a) Decision Process Models c) Crime Assessment
b) Criminal Profile d) Profiling Inputs
4. One of the following is not involved in FBI’s crime analysis, which one?
a) Decision Process Models c) Victimology
b) Profiling Inputs d) Criminal Profile
5. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that involves the reconstruction of the
sequence of events and specific behaviors both of the victim and the
perpetrator?
a) Profiling Inputs c) Crime Assessment
b) Decision Process Models d) Criminal Profile
6. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that provides a list of background,
physical and behavioral characteristics of the perpetrator?
a) Crime Assessment c) Profiling Inputs
b) Criminal Profile d) Decision Process Model
7. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis where the actual profile is provided to
requesting agencies and is incorporated to their investigation?
a) Investigation c) Decision Process Model
b) Apprehension d) Criminal Profile
104
10.What is the method developed by David Canter similar with that employed by
FBI which is used with application of some methods of environmental
psychology to criminal investigation?
a) All-Factor Principle c) Three-Way Method
b) Five-Factor Model d) Single Approach Model
12.What step in the Five-Factor Model provides the analyst with information
about offender mobility, thereby leading to inferences about offender’s likely
residential location?
a) Interpersonal Coherence
b) Significance of Time and Place
c) Forensic Awareness
d) Criminal Characteristics
14.What step in the Five-Factor Model refers to the assessment that is made to
determine whether the offender may have engaged in criminal activity in the
past and what kind of activity is mostly to have been?
a) Criminal Characteristics c) Criminal Career
b) Interpersonal Coherence d) Forensic Awareness
15.What step in the Five-Factor Model collects any evidence that an offender has
knowledge of, or may be privy to, police techniques and procedures relating
to evidence collection?
a) Forensic Awareness c) Criminal Career
b) Criminal Characteristics d) Interpersonal Coherence
17.What model of offender behavior assumes that offender will “strike out” from
their home base in the commission of their crimes?
a) Marauder Model c) Dunham Model
b) Austin Model d) Commuter Model
18.What model of offender behavior assumes that offender will travel a distance
from their home base before engaging in criminal activity?
a) Marauder Model c) Dunham Model
b) Austin Model d) Commuter Model
19.All of the following are involved in Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) except
105
a) Equivocal Forensic Analysis c) Offender Characteristics
b) Perpetratorology d) Victimology
20.What step in the Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) has the main purpose of
assessing the most likely meaning of the evidence?
a) Offender Characteristics c) Crime Investigation
b) Crime Scene Characteristics d) Equivocal Forensic Analysis
23.What step in the Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) involves analysis of the
distinguishing feature of a crime scene as evidence by an offender’s
behavioral decisions regarding the victim and the offense location, and their
subsequent meaning to the offender?
a) Victimology c) Crime Scene Characteristics
b) Equivocal Forensic Analysis d) Offender Characteristics
24.What is the last step in Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) containing the
offender’s behavioral and personality characteristics derived from and
informed by the three preceding steps?
a) Offender Characteristics c) Crime Scene Characteristics
b) Equivocal Forensic Analysis d) Victimology
26.What is one of the broad phases during which core assumptions of Behavioral
Evidence Analysis (BEA) are useful and is also referred to as “the unknown
offender for the known crime” phase?
a) Honeymoon Phase c) Investigative Phase
b) Riddle Phase d) Interrogative Phase
106
28.What is one of the broad phases during which core assumptions of Behavioral
Evidence Analysis (BEA) are useful and is also referred to as “the known
offender for the known crime” phase?
a) Trial Phase c) End Phase
b) Actual Phase d) Discovery Phase
29.Which of the following is one of the main purposes why a Trial Phase is
conducted?
a) Help develop and gain insight into victim’s fantasy and motivations
b) Help gain insight into offender state of mind only before commission of a
crime
c) Help suggest a crime scene linkage by virtue of modus operandi
d) Provide investigators with investigatively irrelevant leads and strategies
30.Who developed the Five-Factor Model?
a) David Canter
b) Harry Canter
c) David Hunter
d) Dudley Canter
107
CHAPTER 29
FORENSIC TOXICOLOGY
4. An organized body in the field Forensics that supervised and control the legal
practice and profession of Toxicology?
a) Bureau of Food and Drugs Administration (BFAD)
b) Society of Forensic Toxicology (SOFT)
c) World Health Organization (WHO)
d) Department of Health (DOH)
8. The other specific objective in the 2-fold aim of the forensic toxicology?
a) to help secure the medical or death certificate
b) to represent opinion
c) to brought lawsuit to an individual or corporation in occupational breach
d) secure a name to the history of Forensic Toxicology
108
9. The best known rare case of poisoning by arsenic (1840) which gave way into
the arena of criminal court?
a) John F Kennedy c) Paul McCartney
b) Madame Lafarge d) Ferdinand E. Marcos
13. The commonly used body fluid that is being utilized for the toxicology testing
because of quick and easy to be tapped from a live subject?
a) blood c) urine
b) semen d) saliva
15. In the heavy users of marijuana, what are the chances following use, that
the presence of TetrahydraCannabinol (THC) can still be detected in their
urine sample?
a) 1 month c) 10 days
b) 10 week d) 1 year
16. A body fluid that pose a good profile of a substance for a sufficient,
comprehensive, and ideal sample to screen and confirm most common toxic
substance?
a) urine c) blood
b) semen d) saliva
109
18. It is the approximate growth of hair in one (1) month, on which at such rate,
a feasible forensic study for any drugs accumulated on each strands through
the blood stream, is a viable to the forensic study?
a) 20-25 cm c) 1-1.5 cm
b) 30-50 cm d) 5-10 cm
19. Organisms that may have ingested by the subject matter that may have
ingested any toxic substance within it and which can be used for toxicology
testing?
a) mosquitoes c) bacteria and maggots
b) flies d) cockroaches
20. A commonly used body fluids, particularly collected during the autopsy that
may provide a good sample in detecting undigested pills or liquids which was
ingested prior to death?
a) blood c. gastric contents
b) burine d. semen
21. In the highly decomposed body, a sample or part of the cadaver which might
be the best substitute for toxicology testing ?
a) vitreous humor of the eye c) bone cartilage
b) bteeth d) fingernails
22. The most viable part of the body for examination specimen because it is
protected at best by the skull and sockets against trauma and adulteration?
a) eye c) ear drum
b) nasal cavity d) tonsil
24. A typical volatile organic compound fall under the category of Gas
Chromotography?
a) Ethanol c) Water
b) Sulfuric Acid d) Sodium Hydroxide
26. A test conducted in metal toxin analysis to identify and quantified the organic
residues leaves behind by the chemical oxidation process?
a) Reinsch Test c) Love Bug Test
b) Summative Analysis d) Kaleidoscopy
27. One of the screening method used in toxin analysis in non-volatile Organic
substances?
a) Thin-layer Chromatography c) Urinalysis
b) Activated Carbon Oxidation d) Solitaire Test
110
28. A typical non-volatile organic substance that can cause toxin ingestion to
human that may be subjected for thin-layered chromatography?
a) Drugs (prescribed or illegal) c) alcoholic drinks
b) Sweetened beverages d) calcium fluoride
29. The most practical means of detecting toxins and measuring this highly
potent and difficult to isolate substance such as venoms and other toxic
mixture proteins?
a) Immunoassays c) Lithmus Paper test
b) Psychoanalytic Test d) Freudan Assestment
30.The pioneer health service provider in the Philippine that had already had full
pledge Clinical Toxicology Unit to cater the toxin medication and aligned with
the legal profession for forensic experts?
a) Philippine General Hospital (PGH)
b) Hospital ng Maynila (HM)
c) Eastern Visayas Reg’l Med Center (EVRMC)
d) San Lazaro Hospital (SLH)
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CHAPTER 30
POISONING
6. A sample extracted for toxicological analysis that the intact gut is sent to the
laboratory in the case of suspected heavy metals poisoning (arsenic or
antimony)
a) Stomach contents c) Urine
b) Bile d) Intestinal Contents
7. A sample extracted for toxicological analysis that can be useful for morphine
and chlorpromazine analyses because these substances are concentrated by
the liver and extracted into the gall bladder and is collected directly through a
bottle.
a) Bile c) Semen
b) Urine d) Blood
9. A type of poison that are strong mineral acids, organic acids, alakalis,
household bleaches, detergents and vinegars.
a) Analgesics c) insulin
b) corrosive poisons d) drugs
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10.A poisonous substance that was popular with murders in the past such as
Madeleine Smith in 1857 who killed her lover and Mary Blandy who murdered
her own father.
a) Rock c) OPM
b) Heavy Metal d) RNB
11.A rat poison that acutely produces abdominal pains and vomiting then appear
confusion, muscle pain and sleep disturbances. Death occurs because of
degeneration of various organs of the body that can be seen in autopsy.
a) Mercury c) Potassium
b) Iron d) Thallium
12.A term usually in a case of poisoning with a medicinal drug the autopsy
findings are unhelpful because the substances are rarely corrosive and no
local lesions are likely to be found.
a) Overdose c) Mercury
b) Medical Substances d) Vitamins
16.Best known for cases of acute poisoning in children who eat ferrous sulphate.
Gastrointestinal symptoms occur soon after ingestion. Happens due to liver
damage and acidosis from its release.
a) Potassium chloride c) Arsenic
b) Mercury d) Iron
17.Kind of drug dependence that have a strong stimulating effect but can lead to
hyperpyrexia and hypertension that may precipitate a cerebral hemorrhage
and cardiac arrhythmias.
a) Cocaine c) Opiate drugs
b) Amphetamines d) Shabu
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a) Opiate drugs c) Cocaine
b) Shabu d) Amphetamines
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CHAPTER 31
FORENSIC DRUG TESTING
5. A term used for a kind of popular street drug used for incapacitating rape
victims.
a) Viagra c) Date rape drugs
b) Sexual enhancers d) Shabu
7. A strong sedative which is similar to the drug valium but is 10 times stronger
than valium.
a) Ecstacy c) Ketamine
b) GHB/GBL d) Rohypnol/Roofies
9. A central nervous system depressant which was studied for use with
narcolepsy patients to help them sleep, causes euphoria, hallucinations and
deep sleep.
a) Ecstacy c) Ketamine
b) GHB/GBL d) Rohypnol/Roofies
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a) Amphetamine Dependence c) Sedative Dependence
b) Cannabis Dependence d) all of the above
14.Is defined as markedly diminished effect with continued use of the same
amount of the alcohol or substance.
a) addiction c) tolerance
b) obsession d) desire
15.A process which is often painful physical and psychological symptoms that
follows a discontinuance of an addicting substance or alcohol.
a) denial c) acceptance
b) withdrawal d) addiction
18.Marijuana and Hashish intake can be detected in saliva test immediately upon
use.
a) 1hr after ingestion, up to 14 hours
b) from time of ingestion for 48 to 72 hours
c) 1hr after ingestion, up to 24 hours
d) from time of ingestion for 48 to 96 hours
19.Marijuana and Hashish intake can be detected in saliva test immediately upon
use.
a) 1hr after ingestion, up to 14 hours
b) from time of ingestion for 48 to 72 hours
c) 1hr after ingestion, up to 24 hours
d) from time of ingestion for 48 to 96 hours
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CHAPTER 32
ALCOHOL ABUSE
4. This is the standard treatment regime for alcohol withdrawal for severe
alcoholics. It is imperative to supplement this with thiamine 100 mg and folic
acid 1 mg- both orally four times daily for at least two weeks.
a) Disulfram c) Multivitamin
b) Chlordiazepoxide d) Myra-e
8. In this stage of intoxication, the drinker has the tendency to lose emotional
restraint, to forget animosities, to be less critical, converse with abandon and
to lose control over one’s moral integrity.
a) Confusion c) Excitement
b) Stupor d) Hangover
10.In this stage the drinker tends to anesthetic and unfeeling to injury and may
lie with his face flushed, dribbling from the lips and snoring loudly and can
only be aroused by strong stimuli.
a) Hangover c) Confusion
b) Stupor d) Physical clues
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11.The following are alcohol dependence recovery in three phases, except one;
a) Drying out period 1-10 days
b) Personality recovery takes months or years
c) Hangover
d) Physical rehabilitation over 10 days to 2 months.
12.The drinker has a tendency to come to grief over longer words owing to slight
incoordination, to slur speech, to lose control over finer movements. This
stage of Intoxication exists over any problem requiring clear thinking and
concentration.
a) Physical clues c) Excitement
b) Confusion d) Stupor
13.This is a rare condition which may occur while the individual is still drinking
heavily or upon stopping drinking. The main clinical features are vivid and
persistent unpleasant auditory or visual hallucinations occurring in a setting of
clear consciousness.
a) Alcohol withdrawal c) Insanity
b) Korsakoff Psychosis d) Alcoholic hallucinosis
15.Mr. Jose dela Cruz and his friend Mr. Juan Pakulkog decided to drink and
have fun at a very famous bar in Brgy. Liku-liko di Matagpuan City. Mr. Jose
dela Cruz. The next day they were not able to report to the office where they
work because both of them were in ail because the car which was driven by
Mr. Pakulkog crashed causing the death of a pregnant woman. This situation
is an example why _______________ is needed.
a) Criteria for alcohol dependence
b) Addictive process
c) Legal intervention
d) Alcohol abuse
18.Mr. Smith is alcoholic, his wife decided to get him treated and send him to a
residential center which gives psychosocial treatment through emotional
support. Where should Mrs. Smith send her alcoholic husband?
a) Barangay Health Post c) Mental Hospital
b) Halfway houses d) Rural Health Centers
19.This therapy teaches the alcoholic other ways to reduce anxiety. This is
coupled with relaxation training and assertiveness training. What kind of
alcoholic therapy is this?
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a) Behavior Therapy c) Massage therapy
b) Psychosocial therapy d) Physical therapy
21.Why must the therapist involve the family and friends of the abuser in
treating his alcoholic problems?
a) Patients who are encouraged by family members remain in
treatment
b) Because family/ friends of the abuser can influence the alcoholic to stop
drinking alcohol
c) Because the family/friends does not pressure the abuser to go to therapy.
d) Because they’re alcoholics too.
22.Mr. Raj lose his wife 3 years ago, due to his love for her, he drinks 5 bottles
of red horse every day so that he may be able to sleep. What kind of drinker
is Mr. Raj?
a) Addicted drinker c) Social drinker
b) Heavy drinker d) Binge drinker
23.Ms. Cruz is always present during parties, during parties she drinks alcoholic
beverages with moderation. What kind of drinker is Ms. Cruz?
a) Social drinker c) Heavy drinker
b) Binge drinker d) Addicted drinker
26.Mr. Chang is working far from home, very time that he comes home his wife
throw a party and this leads to drinking session with Mr. Chang’s friends.
They drink until every one of them can no longer remember their names.
What kind of drinker is Mr. Chang?
a) Dependent drinker c) Heavy drinker
b) Binge drinker d) Social drinker
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28.This is a rare condition characterized by a marked change in behavior
occurring within a few minutes of drinking a small amount of alcohol, one
which would not produce intoxication in most people. Behavior is often
aggressive.
a) Alcohol dependence c) Alcohol abuse
b) Pathological intoxication d) Addictive intoxication
29.Mr. Oh a gambler and an aggressive drinker has been to the jail many times
because of causing havoc when he is drunk. Despite all this, he continues to
drink spite of developing difficulties. What kind of drinker is Mr. Oh?
a) Heavy drinker c) Social drinker
b) Alcohol Abuser d) Addicted drinker
30.A group of organic liquids which have a particular chemical grouping (OH).
a) Glutathione c) Propanol
b) Ethanol d) Alcohol
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