DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 1 of 15>

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
Review Questions

1. The main component of air is ____________.

a. oxygen b. argon c. carbon dioxide d. nitrogen e. methane

2. Of the following, ____________ is characteristic of gases.

a. Gases are highly compressible
b. These are relatively large distances between molecules
c. Gases form homogenous mixtures regardless of the non-reacting gas components
d. All of these
e. A gas expands spontaneously to fill its container

3. One significant difference between gases and liquids is that ______________________.

a. a gas is made up of molecules
b. a gas assumes the volume of its container
c. a gas may consist of both elements and compounds
d. gases are always mixtures
e. all of these answers are correct

4. Molecular compounds of low molecular weights tend to be gases at room temperature. Which of the following is most
likely not a gas at room temperature?
a. Cl2 b. HCl c. LiCl d. H2 e. CH4

5. Gaseous mixtures ________________.

a. can only contain molecules
b. are all heterogeneous
c. can only contain isolated atoms
d. are all homogenous
e. must contain both isolated atoms and molecules

6. Which one of the following is NOT true about the unit Pascal (pa)?
a. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2
b. The Pa is the SI unit for pressure
c. 1 atm = 101.325 kPa
d. 1 Pa = 100 torr
e. The Pa is the Si unit for force

7. The first person to investigate the relationship between the pressure of a gas ad its volume was ________________.
a. Amadeo Avogadro
b. Lord Kelvin
c. Jacques Charles
d. Robert Boyle
e. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac

8. Of the following, ____________ is a correct statement of Boyle’s law.

a. PV = constant
b. P = constant
V
c. V = constant
P
d. V = constant
T
e. n = constant
P
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 2 of 15>

9. Of the following, ______________ is a valid statement of Charles’ law.

a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P

10. Which one of the following is a valid statement of Avogadro’s law?

a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P

11. The volume of an ideal gas is zero at _________.

a. 0C b. -45F c. -273K d. -363K e. -273C

12. Of the following, only _________ is impossible for an ideal gas.

a. V1 = V2
T1 T2
b. V1T1 = V2T2
c. V1 = T1
V2 T2
d. V2 = T2 ( V1)
T1
e. V1 = T1 = 0
V2 T2

13. The molar volume of a gas at STP is _____L.

a. 0.08206 b. 62.36 c. 1.00 d. 22.4 e. 14.7

14. A gas is considered “ideal” if ___________.

a. it is not compressible
b. one mole of it occupies exactly 1 liter at standard temperature and pressure
c. it can be shown to occupy zero volume at 0C
d. its behavior is described by the ideal-gas equation
e. one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a pressure exactly 1 atm at room temperature

15. For which of the following changes is not clear whether the volume of a particular sample of an ideal gas will increase or
decrease?
a. increase the temperature and increase the pressure
b. increase the temperature and decrease the pressure
c. increase the temperature and keep the pressure constant
d. keep temperature constant and decrease the pressure
e. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure

16. Standard temperature and pressure (STP), in the context of gases, refers to ____________________.
a. 298 K and 1 atm
b. 273 K and 1 atm
c. 298 K and 1 torr
d. 273 K and 1 pascal
e. 273 K and 1 torr
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 3 of 15>

17. Of the following, ______________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M),
density (d) and mass (g).
a. M = dRT
PV
b. M = gRT
PV
c. M = PT
GRV
d. M = gV
RT
e. M = RT
Gv

18. Of the following, _____________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M),
density (d) and mass (g).
a. d = PM
RT
b. d = gRT
PM
c. d = PTM
gRV
d. d = gV
RT
e. d = RT
PM

19. Of the following gases, ____________ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given temperature.
a. NH3 b. CH4 c. Ar d. HBr e. HCl

20. An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas _________________.
a. have no attraction for one another
b. have appreciable molecular volume
c. have a molecular weight of zero
d. have no kinetic energy
e. has an average molecular mass

21. The statement, “For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is inversely proportional to gas pressure.” Is
known as:
a. Avogadro’s law b. Boyle’s law c. Charle’s law d. Graham’s law e. Kelvin’s law

22. If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant:

a. the pressure stays the same
b. the molecules move faster
c. the kinetic energy increases
d. the molecules move slower
e. none of these answers

23. Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas collected over water is an example:
a. Avogadro’s Hypothesis b. Dalton’s law c. Graham’s law
d. van der Waals Theory e. ideal gas law

24. The energy of molecules of a gas:

a. is dependent on concentration
b. is distributed over a wide range at constant temperature
c. is the same for all molecules at constant temperature
d. increases with a decrease in temperature
e. increases with an increase in pressure
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 4 of 15>

25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain the ideal gas law?
a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent of total gas volume
b. inter-particle forces are negligible in gases
c. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
d. collisions between gas particles and container walls are perfectly elastic
e. individual gas particles are perfectly compressible to nuclear size

26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end of the room might soon perceive an
odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon is an example of:
a. monometry b. ideality c. effusion
d. diffusion e. barometry

27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than one filled with hydrogen is explained by citing:
a. Avogadro’s hypothesis b. Dalton’s law c. Graham’s law
d. van der Waals Theory e. ideal gas law

28. Gases tend to behave ideally at

a. low temperature and low pressure
b. low temperature and high pressure
c. high temperature and low pressure
d. high temperature and high pressure
e. gases always behave ideally

29. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have the lowest density at standard temperature and
pressure?
a. SF6 b. CF2Cl2 c. CO2 d. N2 e. Kr

30. Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is:
a. CH4 b. NH3 c. Ne d. H2 e. He

31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to float on the surface of some water illustrates a
property of liquid known as:
a. compressibility b. polarizability c. surface tension
d. triple point e. viscosity

32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called:
a. capillarity b. polarizability c. resistivity
d. viscosity e. wetability

33. A liquid will “wet” a surface if:

a. the liquid has a lesser density than the surface
b. the forces between the liquid molecules are weak
c. the liquid has a low vapor pressure
d. the forces between the molecules and the surface are greater than the forces between the molecules of the liquid
e. none of these answers

34. Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid state is true?
a. Cohesive forces are not important
b. The molecules contract to fit the size of the container
c. The molecules have no motion
d. The molecules in a patterned (oriented) arrangement
e. The molecules are mobile and relatively close together

35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external pressure is called the :
a. boiling point b. critical point c. melting point
d. sublimation point e. thermal point

36. Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become indistinguishable at the:

a. triple point b. normal point c. permanent point
d. critical point e. absolute point
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 5 of 15>

37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature, the following conditions could exist:
(I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor
(II) The vapor pressure has a unique value
(III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid), proceed at equal rates
(IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time

Which of the above choices are applicable?

a. I b. II and III c. I, II, and III
d. II and IV e. none of these combination

38. Which of the following does NOT describe the critical point of a liquid?
a. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid’s meniscus disappears
b. The point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion temperature
c. The highest temperature at which a liquid can exist
d. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are identical
e. The highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid from its vapor by increasing pressure
39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium If the volume of the container is decreased,
which of the following has occurred once equilibrium is reestablished?
a. the temperature is lower b. the temperature is higher c. the pressure is higher

d. the pressure is lower e. none of these

40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the temperature of the liquid equals:
a. 100C b. boiling point c. the normal boiling point
d. the vaporization point e. none of these

41. When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a closed container:

a. The rate at which molecules from the liquid phase enter the gas phase exactly equals the rate at which molecules
from the gas phase pass into the liquid phase
b. A change in temperature will not change the pressure in the container
c. The amount of gas in the container must exactly equal the amount of liquid
d. Molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to the gas phase because the amount of liquid in the container is constant
e. The vapor will gradually change back to the liquid state, that is, no vapor will be left

42. Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur?
a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy
b. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large surface area
c. high molecular energy, small surface area
d. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area
e. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass

43. Which of the following does NOT decrease rate of vaporization?

a. closing container lid b. increasing forces between molecules c. increasing mass of molecule
d. decreasing temperature e. decreasing surface area

44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the normal boiling point of a liquid?
a. atmospheric pressure b. strength of forces between molecules c. rate of evaporation
d. rate of condensation e. none of these answers

45. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed to escape, what is the immediate result?
a. condensation rate decreases b. vaporization rate increases c. condensation rate increases
d. vaporization rate decreases e. none of these

46. The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the existence of a metastable:

a. the liquid at a temperature below that of its critical point
b. liquid at a temperature below that of its sublimation point
c. liquid at a temperature below that of its freezing point
d. gas at a temperature below that of its critical point
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 6 of 15>
e. two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing point

47. All of the following are true about crystals EXCEPT

a. A crystal softens and melts over a wide range of temperature
b. A crystal tends to shatter along defined planes
c. Crystals generally have a specific shape for a specific substance
d. Crystal usually have a high degree of symmetry

48. All of the following are logical consequences of the observed macroscopic properties of crystals EXCEPT
a. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are arranged in a regularly repeating pattern
b. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal are the same for essentially every atom except at the surface
c. The distances between adjacent atoms or molecules vary greatly
d. Some defects are present in the crystals

49. Which of the following has the largest number of lattice points per unit cell?
a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice
b. The face centered cubic lattice
c. The body centered cubic lattice
d. All these lattices have the same number of lattice points per unit cell

50. All of the following are true about lattice points in a crystal structure EXCEPT
a. The first lattice point can be placed at any location
b. All lattice points have identical environments
c. The corners of unit cells are located at lattice points
d. Atoms are always located on lattice points

51. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

a. The face-centered cubic lattice is identical to the cubic closest packed lattice
b. The body-centered cubic lattice is identical to the hexagonal closest packed lattice
c. The cubic closest packed and hexagonal closest packed structures have identical fractions of space which are
occupied by atoms
d. The density of a metal sample is independent of the size of the sample considered

52. Which of the following represents the minimal amount of data necessary to determine the atomic mass of a metal?
a. Avogadro’s number and the density of the metal
b. Avogadro’s number, the density of the metal and the length of the unit cell edge
c. Avogadro’s number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit cell edge and the type of lattice
d. Avogadro’s number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit cell edge, the type of lattice and the atomic radius
of the metal

53. Which of the following is assumed when calculating atomic radii of metals from crystallographic data?
a. The atoms are soft spheres that are deformed in the structure
b. The atoms are almost perfect cubes
c. The atoms are of different sizes and the value calculated for the radius is an average
d. The atoms in the structure are touching

54. What is the usual relationship between the number of valence electrons and the number of nearest neighbors of a metal
atom in a solid metal?
a. The number of valence electrons is less than the number nearest neighbors
b. The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of nearest neighbors
c. The number of valence electrons is equal to the number of nearest neighbors
d. The number of valence electrons can be less than, greater than, or equal to the number of nearest neighbors

55. All of the following are consequences of the theory of the structure of metals EXCEPT
a. Metals conduct electricity b. Metals are malleable
c. Metals are ductile d. Metals break easily when they are bent

56. Which of the following is the reason that metals conduct electricity?
a. The metal atoms are close together
b. There are no empty spaces in metal structures
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 7 of 15>
c. Electrons in the structure can move freely
d. Electrons and protons in the structure can move freely

57. Which of the following is the reason why salt stay bonded in the solid state?
a. There are strong covalent bonds between the ions
b. The structure consists of salt molecules tat bind tightly to other salt molecules
c. They are held together by electrostatic attractions and the structure includes no electrostatic repulsions
d. There are both electrostatic attractions and repulsions within the structure but the total of the attractions is greater

58. All of the following are possible crystal defects EXCEPT

a. An atom or ion out of its regular position and occupying a normally empty hole
b. A crystal in which the only defect is one pair of ions of the same charge which are missing
c. An electron occupying a site that is normally occupied by a –1 anion
d. A crystal containing some ion sites empty and some ions not bearing the expected charge

59. Which of the following is the most important explanation for the conductivity of metals?
a. they are almost all solids b. their coordination numbers are high
c. Their numbers of valence electrons are high d. Their densities are high

60. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?

a. AIS and P b. GeAs and Se c. GeAs and GaSe d. Al and SiP

61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same element?
a. The atomic mass b. the molar mass c. the structure d. the chemical and physical properties

62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in the dark because
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23…C
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three dimensions
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic solids

63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region of A1 doped semiconductor bonded to a region of P
doped semiconductor) with a flowing current due to an applied voltage from a battery. Which of the following statements
is TRUE?
a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band gap
b. The device works better warm rather than cold because the number of thermally generated electrons is higher
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region combines with an electron from the P region
d. Both (a) and (c)

64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which element should be incorporated into the lattice?
a. P b. A1 c. C d. O

65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true, EXCEPT
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and vice versa
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the same
c. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of Na and Cl are known, then the density can be
calculated
d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have different ionin radii

66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid C are true, EXCEPT
a. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its band gap is quite large
b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded in only two dimensions
c. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp3 hybridization
d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large

67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are called
a. amorphous b. crystalline c. glasses d. metals e. none of these

68. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains many sharply defined spots. The
specimen is
a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous d. plastic e. liquid
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 8 of 15>

69. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains three diffuse rings close to primary
x-ray beam. The specimen is
a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous d. polycrystalline e. colloidal

70. The colors in the gemstone opal result from

a. the diffraction of visible light by colloidal crystals in the stone
b. absorption by transition metal complexes
c. contamination by large organic molecules which absorb light in the visible region
d. radioactivity
e. none of these

71. Which of the following symmetry elements can be found in an equilateral triangle?
a. a 2-fold rotation b. a 3-fold rotation c. as mirror line or plane d. all of these e. none of these

72. About half of all the crystals studied so far belong to the ______ crystal system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic d. triclinic e. monoclinic

73. The crystal system with the minimum symmetry requirement of one 4-fold rotation is
a. orthorhombic b. cubic c. tetragonal d. triclinic e. trigonal

74. Crystalline substances are ________. Amorphous substances are ________.

a. isotropic, isotropic b. anisotropic, anisotropic
c. isotropic, anisotropic d. anisotropic, isotropic

75. The three-dimensional array made up of all points within a crystal that have the same environment in the same
orientation is called the
a. unit cell b. primitive cell c. crystal system
d. crystal lattice e. symmetry pattern

76. The basic repeating structural unit of a crystal lattice is the

a. unit cell b. atom c. molecule d. atomic cluster e. symmetry pattern

77. The number of lattice points in a primitive unit cell is

a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. this depends on the crystal system

78. The conditions --- a≠ b ≠ c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the _________ unit cell.
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal e. trigonal

79. The conditions --- a≠ b ≠ c, alpha = gamma = 90, ß ≠ 90--- describe the _______ unit cell
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic d. hexagonal e. trigonal

80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic lattice is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 8

81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the unit cell
a. 1/8 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 1 e. none of these

82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in a face of the unit cell is shared equally with ___
other unit cell
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. none of these

83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the following correctly relates the atomic radius r of the
metal to the length of an edge a of the unit cell?
a. r = a_ b. r = a√2 c. r = a√3
2 4 4
d. This cannot be determined without additional information e. none of these
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 9 of 15>
84. The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a molecular solid are
a. van der Waals forces b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds d. all of these e. none of these

85. Molecular crystals typically

a. are soft b. have low melting points c. are insulators d. all of these e. none of these

86. Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ system

a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic d. tetragonal e. monoclinic

87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of anions, with cations occupying positions exactly between
pairs of anions
a. face-centered cubic b. monoclinic c. trigonal
d. body-centered cubic e. primitive cubic

88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________ equidistant ions of opposite charge
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. none of these

89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt structure?
a. VN b. Na2S c. ZrSe d. NH4I e. MgO

90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl?
a. 1/8 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 1 e. 2

91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in CsCl is

a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. 12

92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high melting point. The substance readily conducts electricity
when molten. This substance is most likely _____ in nature.
a. molecular b. covalent c. ionic d. metallic e. it could be more than one of these

93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice points.

a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules c. positively charged core ions d. electrons e. atomic clusters

94. The metal with the highest melting point is

a. Pt b. Rh c. Nb d. Ga e. W

95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed as close together as possible is called a ____
arrangement.
a. primitive b. close-packed c. face-centered d. dense e. nematic

96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid spheres is
a. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic d. all of these e. none of these

97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination number of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 12

98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other carbon atoms
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. 8

99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature is

a. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4 tetrahedral
d. S2 molecules with double bonds e. S8 rings

100.Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom bonded to three others?
a. As b. Bi c. N d. P e. Sb

101.Which of the following forms a layered structure?

a. graphite b. white tin c. sulfur d. red phosphorous e. all of these

102.Which of the following forms a solid with the diamond structure?

a. sulfur b. white tin c. red phosphorous d. sodium e. gray tin
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 10 of 15>

103.The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular position in the lattice to an interstitial site is
called a(n)
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect c. F-center d. site defect e. berthollide

104. Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can cause

a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline lattice
b. formation of an F-center
c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
d. all of these
e. none of these

105. In a plastic crystal,

a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s disrupted
b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules begin to tumble
c. the molecules are rod-like
d. all of these
e. none of these

106. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon

a. initial concentration of reactants
b. extent of reaction
c. temperature
d. time of reaction

107. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a reaction?
a. Concentration of reactants
b. Nature of reactants
c. Molecularity of the reaction
d. Temperature

108. The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be reduced from

a. the temperature dependence of the rate
b. the rate law
c. the net equation
d. the activation energy

109. The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by

a. raising the temperature
b. lowering the temperature
c. removing the products of the reaction
d. adding a catalyst

110. The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at given temperature

a. depends on the initial concentrations of the reactants
b. depends on the concentration of one of the products at equilibrium
c. does not depend on the initial concentrations
d. is not characteristic of the reaction

Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the hypothetical reaction and its rate law
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g)  D(g) + 2E(g)
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2
111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9

112. Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 11 of 15>

113.If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its original volume the rate will increase by a factor of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16

114. The value of k, the specific rate constant, may be increased by

a. decreasing the concentration of D
b. increasing the concentration of A
c. increasing the concentration of C
d. increasing the temperature

115. What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of the reaction?
a. Halved b. Multiplied by 1.5
c. Doubled d. Tripled

116. Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase in temperature on the rate of the reaction?
a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary activation of energy
b. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation energy
c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
d. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the products

117. The reactions of high molecularity are rare because

a. activation energy of many body collisions is very high
b. many body collisions have low probability
c. many body collisions are not favoured energetically
d. none of the above statement is true

118. At 25C , the half –life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours, and is dependent of the initial pressure of N2O5 the
specific rate constant is
a. ln 2 b. (1/5.7)hr-1
c. (ln2/5.7)-1hr-1 d. (ln2/5.7)hr

119. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant, the reaction is of
a. zero order b. first order
c. second order d. third order

120. Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?
a. Drapper b. Einstein
c. Grotthus d. Lambert

121. The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on

a. its amplitude b. its frequency
c. its wave length d. none of the above

122. What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a chemical reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization
d. None of the above

123. Raman spectra may be obtained in

a. IR and Visible region
b. Visible region only
c. IR and micro wave region
d. UV and visible region

124. ESR spectra mainly helps in study of

a. compounds having hydrogen
b. compounds having carbons
c. free radicals
d. ionic compounds
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 12 of 15>

125. Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the reactions involving substances X, Y, Z.?
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5
c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) –1 (Cz)0
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2
126. Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent upon
a. pressure b. temperature
c. concentration d. catalyst

127. Which of the following might be used as an electrode?

a. A stick b. A nail
c. A glass rod d. A soda straw

128. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M is
a. 0.00V b. 0.059V
c. –0.059V d. 0.030V

129. A good reducing agent

a. will always react rapidly
b. has a negative oxidation potential
c. is readily oxidized
d. shows a negative oxidation number

130. A Faraday of electricity is

a. one ampere per second
b. 96,500 coulombs per second
c. 6.02 x 1023 electrons per second
d. 6.02 x 1023 electronic charges

131. When aqueous HCl is electrolyzed

a. chlorine gas is produced at the anode
b. hydrogen gas is produced at the anode
c. oxygen gas is produced at the anode
d. oxygen gas is produced at the cathode

132. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00gm of Cu from Cu2+ at the cathode of an electrolytic cell is
a. 1.89 x 1022 b. 3.04 x 103
21
c. 9.47 x 10 d. 1.91 x 1025
133. A possible advantage to using the half reaction method for balancing oxidation-reduction equation is
a. electrons need not be balanced
b. oxidation numbers are not assigned
c. charges are not balanced
d. atoms need not be balanced

134. In a galvanic cell the cathode

a. is always made of copper
b. is always made of zinc
c. may be made of an inert metal
d. always attracts negative ions in the solution

135. Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced than

a. Ag+ b. Cu++
c. Cl2 d. Zn++
136. Not all galvanic cells contain
a. a cathode b. an anode
c. a porous partition d. ions
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 13 of 15>
137. When a cell of a lead storage battery is being charged, it is
a. a galvanic cell b. an electrolytic cell
c. a Daniel cell d. a dry cell

138. A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour. The loss of mass of anode is
a. 0.180g b. 23.6g
c. 0.197g d. 11.8g

139. The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m concentration; all gases at 1 atmosphere pressure)
a. 2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g)  2 Cr+3 + 6 Cl-
b. NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s)  Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)
c. NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s)  3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2O
d. Cl2(g) + 2 Br-  2 Cl- + Br2

140. If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH - concentration is 0.0500M, how many moles of Cl 2 gas are
produced?
a. 5.00 x 10-3mole b. 1.00 x 10-2mole
-2
c. 5.00 x 10 mole c. 1.00 x 10-1mole

141. As the lead storage battery is charged,

a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreases
b. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulfate
c. sulfuric acid is regenerated
d. lead dioxide dissolves

142. If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes) one would expect to find
a. potassium deposited at the cathode
b. oxygen liberated at the anode
c. the solution around the cathode becoming alkaline
d. the solution around the anode becoming brown

143. When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at the cathode is
a. Na b. H+
c. OH- d. Cl2
144. If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 ampere, the volume of ozygen produced at STP
at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter b. 6.96ml
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter d. 1.16 ml

145. As a lead storage battery is discharged

a. water is used up
b. lead is formed
c. lead sulfate is consumed
d. sulfuric acid is consumed

146. If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped into a solution containing Ag+, Fe+2, Cu+2, the products of the reaction
will be:
a. Ag, Fe and Cu b. Ag, Fe++ and Cu+
++ ++
c. Fe , Cu and Co d. Fe++, Cu, Ag and Co++

147. Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode potentials and the variation of electrode
potential with concentration?
a. Polarimeter b. pH meter
c. Electrophorous d. Electrophotometer
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 14 of 15>

148. The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an order is known as:
a. electrical conductivity series
b. electrode potential series
c. electrochemical series
d. chemical affinity series

149. In a salt-bridge KCl is used because

a. agar-agar forms a good jelly with it
b. KCl is an electrolyte
c. K+ and Cl- have the same transference number
d. KCl is present in calomel electrode

150. Four colorless salt solutions are placed in separate test-tubes and a strip of copper is dipped in each.. which solution
finally turns blue?
a. Pb (NO3)2 b. Zn (NO3)2
c. AgNO3 d. Cd (NO3)2
151. When an electric current is passed through a cell containing an electrolyte, positive ions move towards the cathode and
negative ions towards the anode. What will happen if the cathode is pulled out of solution?
a. The positive ions will start moving towards the anode and negative ions will stop moving
b. The negative ions will continue to move towards the anode and the positive ions will stop moving
c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the anode
d. None of these movements will take place

152. What is the standard cell potential for the cell Zn; Zn +2 (IM) ll Cu+2 (IM); Cu (E for Zn+2 l Zn = -.76; E for Cu+2 l
Cu = +0.34)
a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V
b. –0.34 – (-0.76) = +1.10V
c. –0.34 – (-0.76) = +0.42V
d. –0.76 – (+0.34) = -1.10V

153. One Faraday of current was passed through the electrolytic cells placed in series containing solutions of Ag +, Ni+2 and
Cr+3 respectively. The amount of Ag (At.Wt. 108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr (At. Wt. 52) deposited will be:
Silver Nickel Chromium
a. 108g 29.5g 17.5g
b. 108g 59g 52.0g
c. 108g 108g 108g
d. 108g 117.5g 166g

154. Given standard electrode potentials

E
Fe++ + 2e  Fe -0.440V
Fe+++ + 3e  Fe -0.036V

The standard electrode potential (E) for Fe+++ + e  Fe++ is

a. –0.476V
b. –0.404V
c. +0.404V
d. +0.771V
 DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 15 of 15>

155. The magnitude of the individual half cell potentials are given
(i) CO2+ + 2e  Co 0.28V
(ii) Hg2+ + 2e  2Hg 0.78V
when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the metallic electrode Co is found to be –ve and Hg
electrode is found to be +ve. The correct sign for the electrode potentials will be:
a. +ve for half cell (I)
b. +ve for half cell (ii)
c. –ve for half cell (ii)

156. When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue color of the solution is lost after some time. This
is due to
a. reduction of Cu++
b. oxidation of CuSO4
c. formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfate
d. formation of a colorless salt of Cu++

157. Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of

a. sodium b. lead
c. copper d. gold

158. The mathematical statement of Gibb’s phase rule is

a. F = C-P+2 b. C = F-P+2
c. C = F-P+1 d. P = C+F+2

159. The homogenous physically distinct and mechanically separable parts of the heterogeneous system in equilibrium are
called
a. phases b. components
c. degrees of freedom d. none of the above

160. What is the degree of freedom of a system consisting of a gaseous mixture of carbon dioxide and nitrogen?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3

161. How many phases are present in the water system?

a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3

162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and methyl alcohol?
a. 3 b. 1
c. 1 d. 0

163. How many components are necessary to define the following equilibrium?

CaCO3 CaO + CO2


Solid solid gas

a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3

164. The minimum number of phases existing in a system is

a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3

165. The incongruent melting point is so called

a. peritectic temperature
b. meritectic temperature
c. transition temperature
d. all of the above