Dr.

Marwah’s Test Series

WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
1. Prominent reticulocytosis is a feature of: d. PGE2
a. Aplastic Anemia 14. Which source of water ranks next to rain water in purity:-
b. Aplastic Anemia a. Impounding reservoirs
c. Nutritional Anemia b. Rivers O3:
d. Anemia of chronic disease c. Tank
2. Freeze drying technique of fixation is used specially for d. Sea Water
a. Brain tumors 15. In Kyasanur Forest Disease, the amplifying host is
b. Muscles a. Pig
c. Liver biopsy b. Monkey
d. Renal biopsy c. Rat
3. CA-125 is used in the monitoring and treatment of: d. Cattle
a. Ovarian cancer 16. Which of the following is not true about measles?
b. Colon cancer a. High secondary attack rate
c. Breast cancer b. Only one strain causes infection
d. Pancreatic cancer c. Not infectious in prodromal phase
4. Function of TNF and IL 1: d. Infection confers life-long immunity
a. Endothelial activation 17. The Definitive & intermediate host of Taenia saginata
b. Fever respectively is:
c. Systemic phase response a. Cattle & Man
d. All of the above b. Man & Cattle
5. Fragile X syndrome is: c. Pig & Man
a. AD d. Man & pig
b. AR 18. Screening for breast cancer using mammography is:
c. X-linked a. Primordial prevention
d. Multifactorial b. Primary prevention
6. The following feature is not common in 22q11.2 deletion c. Secondary prevention
syndrome d. Tertiary Prevention
a. Mental retardation 19. Which of the following is a third-generation intrauterine
b. Schizophrenia device?
c. ADHD a. Cu-7
d. Congenital heart defects b. TCu-200
7. Which is most common benign tumour of esophagus: c. T Cu-380A
a. Fibroma d. Progestasert
b. Leiomyoma 20. Which of the following vaccines has NOT been introduced in
c. Hemangioma the Universal Immunization Programme in India?
d. Neurofibroma a. Pentavalent vaccine
8. All of the thyroid tumor arises from follicular epithelial cell b. MMR vaccine
except: c. Injectable polio vaccine
a. Papillary carcinoma d. Cervical cancer vaccine
b. Follicular carcinoma 21. Ability of a test to correctly identify all true positives is called
c. Medullary carcinoma a. Precision
d. Anaplastic carcinoma b. Predictive accuracy
9. Which of the following is correlated with disease severity in c. Sensitivity
SLE: d. Specificity
a. Anti ds DNA 22. In Severe mental retardation person has IQ of:
b. Anti nuclear antibodies a. < 20
c. Anti centromere antibody b. 20-34
d. Anti histoneAb c. 35-49
10. All of the following are prion disease except d. 50-70
a. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease 23. The ideal desk recommended for a school child is:
b. Gerstmann Sträussler Scheinker syndrome a. Plus type
c. Kuru b. Minus type
d. Parkinson’s c. Zero type
11. Which organelle plays a pivotal role in cell injury and cell d. Any of the above
death? 24. Which virus among the following is least likely to cross
a. Mitochondria placenta?
b. ER a. Rubella
c. Golgi b. Herpes simplex
d. Lysosome c. HIV
12. All of the following are risk factor for breast cancer except: d. HBV
a. Early menarche 25. Communicability of a disease is assessed by-
b. Estrogen exposure a. Secondary attack rate
c. Nullipara b. Generation time
d. Early pregnancy c. Serial interval
13. Platelet aggregation is caused by? d. Incubation period
a. Nitrous oxide 26. According to the national health policy, one sub-centre for
b. Thromboxane A2 the hilly areas covers a population of?
c. Aspirin a. 3000

1|Page
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
b. 5000 39. Colostrum rich in which immunoglobulin:
c. 1000 a. IgE
d. 4000 b. Ig A
27. Under ESI, a benefit which is NOT given in cash? c. IgG
a. Sickness benefit d. IgM
b. Medical benefit 40. Infertility is defined as:
c. Maternity benefit a. Inability to conceive after 1 year of regular
d. Dependents' benefit unprotected intercourse
28. Triage is? b. Inability to conceive after 1 year of marriage
a. A concept in trauma c. Inability to conceive after 2 years of marriage
b. A method of breast lump diagnosis d. Inability to conceive in spite of 2 years of regular
c. An investigation for duodenum and pancreas unprotected intercourse
d. Management of old age health problems 41. Most common side effect of IUCD is:
29. Which is the method of choice for waste disposal for small a. Menorrhagia
camps? b. Infection
a. Dumping c. Perforation
b. Manure pit d. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Incineration 42. IUCD having the longest lifespan is:
d. Burial a. Progestasert
30. World health day is celebrated on? b. Cu T 380A
a. 7th April c. Mirena
b. 11th April d. Nova T
c. 5th June 43. What is the degree of placenta previa in the following
d. 1st December picture:
31. The number of live births per 1000 women in the
reproductive age group in a year refers to-
a. Total fertility rate
b. Gross reproductive rate
c. Net reproductive rate
d. General fertility rate
32. Which one of the following is the most suitable situation for
prescribing progestin only pill?
a. Young patients
a. Type I
b. Emergency contraception
b. Type II
c. Lactating mother
c. Type III
d. Woman with unexplained vaginal bleeding
d. Type IV
33. Multidrug treatment (MDT) for leprosy is contraindicated in
44. Following sonography shows which sign in twin pregnancy:
a. Pregnancy
b. HIV infection
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
34. The stool specimens for polio should be collected with in
…….days after the onset of paralysis?
a. 5
b. 14
c. 30
d. 60
35. The various uses of screening are all except:
a. Case detection a. Twin peak sign
b. Control of disease b. Lambda sign
c. Knowing natural history of disease c. T sign
d. Used as a basis for treatment d. None of the above
36. Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by 45. In the following picture, which is the type of twin:
mosquitoes
a. Filaria
b. Japanese Encephalitis
c. Kala Azar
d. Chikungunya Fever
37. pH of cervical mucus is:
a. 3-4
b. 5-7
c. 7-8
d. 9-10
38. Average material weight gain in full term pregnancy is: a. Diamniotic dichorionic twin
a. 10–12 kg b. Diamniotic monochorionic twin
b. 12–14 kg c. Monoamniotic monochorionic twin
c. 14–16 kg d. Monoamniotic dichorionic twin
d. 6–8 kg

2|Page
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
46. Following picture represent which obstetric grips during 56. Indications for classical ceserean section are all except :
palpation: a. Cervical cancer
b. Placenta percreta
c. Large lower segment fibrioid
d. Abruption
57. Area between Bregma & root of nose is :
a. Face
b. Vertex
c. Brow
d. Occiput
58. All are risk factors for shoulder dystocia except :
a. Obesity
b. Prematurity
c. Diabetes mellitus
a. First Leopold d. Excessive weight gain
b. Second Leopold 59. The best method for delivering after-coming head of breech
c. Third Leopold is:
d. Fourth Leopold a. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit
47. All are causes of preterm labour except;- b. Burns-Marshall
a. Idiopathic c. Wigard-Martin
b. Infections d. Piper’s forceps
c. Multiple gestation 60. Turtle sign is seen in :
d. Oligohydramnios a. Ectopic pregnancy
48. Which amongst the following placental tumour is associated b. Shoulder dystocia
with polyhydramnios: c. Uterine inversion
a. Chorioangioma d. PPH
b. Teratoma 61. PID includes all EXPECT?
c. Placental site trophoblastic tumours a. Endometritis
d. Placental metastases b. Salpingitis
49. Risk of HRT are all EXCEPT: c. pelvic peritonitis
a. Endometrial carcinoma d. Cervicits
b. VTE 62. A lady has a history of epilepsy. Which one of the following
c. Breast cancer contraceptives should not be advised?
d. Fractures a. OC pills
50. Premenopausal changes in menstrual cycle are seen in all b. Condoms
EXPECT: c. IUCD
a. Menstrual cycle. d. All of the above
b. Follicular phase. 63. Natural family planning (NFP) methods include all except :
c. Luteal phase a. Rhythm method
d. Menstrual blood loss. b. Basal Body Temperature Method
51. Most common site of endometriosis: c. Cervical Mucus Method
a. Fallopian tube d. Lactational Amenorrhea Method
b. Ovaries 64. Which Structural Fetal Malformations is associated with the
c. Cul de sac highest risk of Aneuploidy?
d. Broad ligament a. Cleft lip
52. Cause of amenorrhea before puberty is all EXPECT: b. Cystic hygroma
a. Inadequate pituitary gonadotropins c. A Diaphragmatic hernia
b. Inadequate estrogen levels d. Gastroschisis
c. Unresponsive endometrium 65. Triple marker test isdoneat weeks of gestation
d. None of the above a. 10-13
53. All of the following are associated with gestational diabetes b. 11-14
mellitus (GDM), EXCEPT: c. 16-18
a. Macrosomia d. 20-22
b. Shoulder dystocia 66. Fetal karyotyping can be done by all, EXCEPT:
c. Malformations a. Cordocentesis
d. Polyhydramnios b. Amniocentesis
54. Most common cause of hypothyroidism in pregnancy. c. CVS
a. Hyperthyroid women on excessive amounts of d. Fetal skin biopsy
antithyroid drugs 67. Which of the following statement(s) is true concerning the
b. Hashimoto thyroiditis histologic variants of invasive breast carcinoma?
c. Iodine deficiency a. The presence of an in situ component with invasive
d. Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis ductal carcinoma adversely affects prognosis
55. Indication for starting insulin in a pregnant diabetic mother b. Medullary carcinomas, although often of large size,
on a diabetic diet: are associated with a better overall prognosis than
a. FBS > 108 mg/dl common invasive ductal cancers
b. FBS > 140 mg/dl c. Mucinous or colloid carcinoma is one of the more
c. PLBS > 100 mg/dl common variants of invasive ductal cancer
d. Oral hypoglycemic agents are preferred.

3|Page
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
d. Invasive lobular carcinoma is associated with a d. Seen after jejuno-ileal bypass surgery in obese
lower incidence of bilateral breast cancer patients
68. Which of the following breast lesions are noninvasive 77. All are features of bile acid diarrhea except?
malignancies? a. Fecal bile acid excretion increased
a. Intraductal carcinoma of the comedo type b. Mild steatorrhea
b. Tubular carcinoma and mucinous carcinoma c. Responds to low fat diet
c. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma d. Responds to cholestyramine
d. Medullary carcinoma, including atypical medullary 78. Brain tumor causing hypernatremia in children?
lesions a. Medulloblastoma
69. Surgical therapy for epilepsy should be considered in patients b. Cerebellar astrocytoma
with: c. Craniophyrangioma
a. Seizures well controlled with antiepileptic d. Brain stem glioma
medications 79. Acute hyponatremia become symptomatic at:
b. A single epileptic focus a. <135 mEq
c. Seizures arising from multiple areas of cerebral b. <125 mEq
cortex c. <120 mEq
d. Seizures arising within the cortical motor strip d. <110 meq
70. The most common complication of chronic pancreatitis is 80. In carcinoid syndrome, the part of heart mostly affected is?
a. Pseudocysts a. Inflow tract of RV
b. Duct strictures and/or stones b. Inflow tract of LV
c. Pancreatic necrosis c. Mural endocardium
d. Duodenal obstruction d. Pericardium
71. Which of the following statement(s). is/are true concerning 81. A 65 year old lady hospitalized for cervical spondylosis was
the diagnosis of biliary tract disease? found to have serum calcium of 12.5mg%. Her haematocrit
a. Nonvisualization of the gallbladder on oral and KFT is normal with phosphate of 2.3mg/dl. Which is the
cholecystogram is diagnostic of biliary calculous first investigation to be done in the patient?
disease a. Serum PTH
b. Ultrasonography has a diagnostic accuracy and b. PTH-rP levels
sensitivity for cholelithiasis in excess of 95% c. Serum electrophoresis for M spike
c. Ultrasonography is the preferred test to distinguish d. Vitamin D3 levels
chronic from acute cholecystitis 82. Basic defect in HbS is?
d. Hepatobiliary scintigraphy is not indicated to a. Altered function
confirm the clinical diagnosis of acute cholecystitis b. Altered solubility
72. True statements about the surgical management of patients c. Altered stability
with acute calculous cholecystitis include: d. Altered O2 binding capacity
a. Operation should be performed in all patients as 83. Which of the following causes of Anemia is associated with
soon as the diagnosis is made. Hypoplastic marrow?
b. Antibiotic therapy should not be initiated as soon as a. Fanconi’s Anemia
the diagnosis is made. b. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
c. Dissection of the gallbladder is facilitated by c. Hypersplenism
decompression of the organ with the use of a d. Myelofibrosis
trocar. 84. The most reliable investigation in amyloid disease is:
d. An operative cholangiogram should be done in a. Rectal biopsy
every patient. b. Immunoglobulin assay
73. A 28-year-old man has lenticonus and ESRD. His maternal c. Ultrasound
uncle also died of similar illness. What is the diagnosis? d. Abdominal fat pad biopsy
a. ARPKD 85. Sicca syndrome is associated with all except:
b. ADPKD a. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Oxalosis b. Midline granulomas
d. Alport’s syndrome c. Sarcoidosis
74. The following type of glomerulonephritis should not be d. Chronic active hepatitis
treated with prednisolone? 86. All are clinical manifestations of Felty’s syndrome except:
a. Minimal change disease a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Lipoid nephrosis b. Splenomegaly
c. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome c. Neutropenia
d. Post-streptococcal GN d. Nephropathy
75. If the kidney biopsy is done in a bronchogenic carcinoma 87. All of the following are features of sarcoidosis except:
patient who presents as a case of nephrotic syndrome, which a. Right paratracheal lymphadenopathy
lesions will be seen most likely? b. Cardiomyopathy
a. Membranous GN c. Hypercalcemia
b. Focal proliferative GN d. Malabsorption syndrome
c. Minimal change disease 88. What treatment should be given to a pregnant female
d. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis suffering from Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome to avoid
76. Feature of Granulomatous hepatitis is? abortion?
a. Jaundice is a usual feature a. IVIG
b. Seen with sarcoidosis b. Plasmapheresis
c. Seen with syndrome X c. Aspirin + LMW heparin
d. Progesterone injections

4|Page
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
89. A 67-year-old man is admitted emergently to the hospital a. Myasthenia gravis
because of severe chest pain. A Swan-Ganz catheter is b. Congenital myopathy
floated into the pulmonary artery, the balloon is inflated, and c. Inclusion body myositis
the pulmonary wedge pressure is measured. The pulmonary d. Muscular dystrophy
wedge pressure is used clinically to monitor which pressure? 98. What is not seen in tuberous sclerosis?
a. Left atrial pressure a. Giant Cell Astrocytoma
b. Left ventricular pressure b. White matter migration lines
c. Pulmonary artery diastolic pressure c. Sub-ependymal nodules
d. Pulmonary artery systolic pressure d. Ependymoma
90. The apex of the upright human lung compared with the base 99. What is incorrect about Brugada Syndrome?
has: a. SCN5A defect
a. A higher PO2 b. Asymptomatic ST-segment elevation
b. A higher ventilation c. Sudden death
c. A lower pH in end-capillary blood d. Pacemaker is treatment of choice
d. A higher blood flow 100. What is incorrect about chronic aortic regurgitation?
91. Duret hemorrhages are seen in? a. Chest pain
a. Brain b. Wide pulse pressure
b. Adrenal gland c. Quincke’s sign
c. Lungs d. Late systolic murmur
d. Liver 101. A 50 year man presents with a ‘grey spot’ in his vision. He
92. During a demonstration for medical students, a neurologist had recurrent fevers and weight loss for the past 3
uses magnetic cortical stimulation to trigger firing of the months. He had a history of mitral valve disease. Vision is
ulnar nerve in a volunteer. At relatively low-amplitude 6/6. Given below is the picture of his fundus. Choose the
stimulation, action potentials are recorded only from muscle FALSE statement?
fibers in the index finger. As the amplitude of the stimulation
is increased, actionpotentials are recorded from muscle
fibers in both the index finger and the biceps muscle. What is
the fundamental principle underlying this amplitude-
dependent response?
a. Large motor neurons that innervate large motor
units require a larger depolarizing stimulus
b. Recruitment of multiple motor units requires a
larger depolarizing stimulus a. Occur in several conditions including less severe
c. The biceps muscle is innervated by more motor virulent infections of a metastatic nature
neurons b. They are Roth spots
d. The motor units in the biceps are smaller than c. They are characteristically associated with severe
those in the muscles of the fingers general reaction of the surrounding retina
93. “Donald Duck” voice is heard in? d. These findings can also occur in anemia, leukemia
a. Devic’s disease 102. Cardiomyopathy does not develop in?
b. Pseudobulbar palsy a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
c. Progressive supra-nuclear gaze palsy b. Alkaptonuria
d. Palatal myoclonus c. Pompe disease
94. CT scan Head should be done before Lumbar puncture in all d. Fabry’s disease
of the following except? 103. Which is correct about the ECG shown below?
a. Hypertension
b. Immunocompromised state
c. KernohanWoltman sign
d. Low GCS score
95. H reflex is used for?
a. S1 radiculopathy a. First Degree Heart Block
b. L5 radiculopathy b. Second degree heart Block, Wenckebach
c. L4 radiculopathy c. 2: 1 Block
d. L3 radiculopathy d. Third degree heart Block
96. The dissociative sensory loss is seen in all except? 104. A 50 year old man develops an excruciating headache. On
a. Anterior spinal artery occlusion examination he has nuchal rigidity. NCCT performed after 4
b. Leprosy hours shows blood in the Sylvain fissure. What does the ECG
c. Multiple system atrophy show?
d. Hydromyelia
97. What is the diagnosis of this patient?

a. T-wave inversion
b. Artifact
c. Premature ventricular complexes
d. Prominent U wave

5|Page
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
105. An apparently healthy 15-year-old boy dies during a minor d. 1st
surgical procedure while under general anesthesia. The boy’s 115. Characteristics of the hypermetabolic response to burn injury
grandfather had also died during a surgical procedure. A include:
clinical assessment team determines that the child had a. Elevation of core temperature, skin temperature,
malignant hyperthermia (MH), which is most likely to be and core-to-skin heat transfer
associated with which of the following? b. Ambient temperature dependency of metabolic
a. Decreased anaerobic metabolism rate.
b. Decreased CO2 production by muscles c. A marked decrease of blood flow to the burn
c. Decreased lactic acid production by muscles wound.
d. Defective ryanodine receptors d. A curvilinear relationship to the extent of burn
106. During pregnancy , lesser volume of drug is required to 116. Spermatogenesis is regulated by a negative feedback control
achieve the same level of block in spinal anaesthesia due to? system in which FSH stimulates the steps in sperm cell
a. Increased sensitivity to local anaesthetic agents formation. Which negative feedback signal associated with
b. Increased lumbar lordosis sperm cell production inhibits pituitary formation of FSH?
c. Increased cardiac output a. Testosterone
d. None of above b. Inhibin
107. Specific treatment for local anaesthetic systemic toxicity c. Estrogen
(LAST) is? d. LH
a. Beta blockers 117. Release of which hormone is an example of neuroendocrine
b. Lipid emulsion secretion?
c. Epinephrine a. GH
d. None of above b. Cortisol
108. Main problem associated with use of Xenon in anaesthesia? c. Oxytocin
a. Side effects d. Prolactin
b. Prolonged recovery 118. Which of the following is not associated with xerostomia?
c. Delayed induction a. Dehydration
d. Poor availability b. Sjögren’s syndrome
109. An experimental drug is being tested as a potential c. Radiotherapy to the head and neck
therapeutic treatment for asthma. Preclinical studies have d. Cholinergic medications
shown that this drug induces the relaxation of cultured 119. Which of the following conditions is associated with
porcine tracheal smooth muscle cells precontracted with ascending bacterial sialadenitis?
acetylcholine. Which of the following mechanisms of action is a. Dental abscess
most likely to induce this effect? b. Oral thrush
a. Decreased plasma membrane K permeability c. Dehydration
b. Increased plasma membrane Na permeability d. Otitis media
c. Inhibition of the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca - ATPase 120. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched
d. Stimulation of adenylate cyclise a. Gastrin – G cells
110. Which one of the following statements regarding the above b. CCK- C cells
burn patient is correct? c. Motilin – M cells
a. High-dose penicillin should be administered d. Somatostatin – D cells
prophylactically 121. Which of the following approaches is best suited for
b. Tetanus prophylaxis is not necessary if the patient performing Triple Arthodesis at the ankle?
has been immunized in the previous 3 years a. Ollier’s approach
c. This burn can be estimated at 60% total body b. Gatellier and chastang’s approach
surface area using the “rule of nines” c. Posterior approach to the ankle
d. This patient should undergo immediate intubation d. Colonna’s approach
for airway protection and oxygen administration 122. Which of the following is transported in intestinal epithelial
111. Benzodiazepine of choice in neuroanaesthesia is? cells by a Na+-dependent cotransport process?
a. Diazepam a. Fatty acids
b. Lorazepam b. Triglycerides
c. Midazolam c. Fructose
d. Tolazolam d. Alanine
112. The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by: 123. Which of the following is not a complication of radiotherapy
a. Sensing of K+ concentration in the macula densa for head and neck cancer?
b. Sensing of H+ concentration in macula densa a. Trismus
c. Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa b. Visual impairment
d. Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in c. Osteoradionecrosis of the mandible
afferent arteriole d. Renal toxicity
113. Contraindication for putting a nasopharyngeal airway: 124. A 29-year-old woman develops difficulty in swallowing.
a. Oral trauma Examination reveals acute pharyngitis. Which organism is
b. Basal skull fracture most likely to be isolated?
c. COPD a. Viral
d. All b. Treponema
114. Bennett’s fracture is fracture dislocation of base of c. Anaerobic
metacarpal? d. Staphylococcus aureus
a. 4th 125. The sweat glands and piloerector muscles of hairy skin are
b. 3rd innervated by which type of fibers?
c. 2nd a. Cholinergic postganglionic parasympathetic

6|Page
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
b. Cholinergic postganglionic sympathetic c. Endoscopy can uniformly predict the histology of a
c. Adrenergic preganglionic parasympathetic polyp based on location and appearance
d. Adrenergic postganglionic sympathetic d. Gastric adenomatous polyps greater than 2 cm. in
126. Initial resuscitation of a trauma patient is best done by diameter should be excised because of the risk of
administration of which of the following? malignant transformation
a. D5W 137. A 57-year-old woman presents with scattered light-
b. D5W and 0.45% normal saline brown macules on her dorsal hands and face, which
c. Ringer’s lactate solution have increased in number in recent years. They do not
d. 5% plasma protein solution bleed and are otherwise unchanged. What is the most
127. Disability of hands is maximum with a lesion of: likely diagnosis?
a. Median nerve at elbow
b. Median nerve at wrist
c. Ulnar nerve at elbow
d. Ulnar nerve at wrist
128. A classical expansile lytic lesion in the transverse process of
the vertebra is seen in
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Osteoblastoma
c. Aneurysmal bone cyst a. Actinic keratoses
d. Metastasis b. Seborrheic keratoses
129. When size of osteoclastoma exceeds the size of metaphysis c. Melanoma
a. Tumor will be covered by fibrous capsule d. Solar lentigines
b. Tumor will be covered by a thin layer of bone 138. Carbon dioxide (CO2) regulates blood flow to which one of
c. It is covered by periosteum the following organs?
d. All of the above a. Heart
130. Metabolic complications of subtotal gastrectomy with b. Skin
Billroth I or Billroth II reconstruction include: c. Brain
a. Anemia d. Kidney
b. Reactive hypoglycemia 139. Melasma :
c. Dumping syndrome a. Acquired asymmetric brown hyperpigmentation
d. All of the above b. Involves the face and neck in genetically
131. The phenomenon of decerebrate rigidity can be explained, at predisposed women
least in part, by which of the following? c. The dermal type readily responds to depigmenting
a. Stimulation of type 1b sensory neurons agents
b. Loss of cerebellar inputs to the red nucleus d. Treatment includes topical steroids
c. Overactivity of the medullary reticular nuclei 140. Which of the following would be expected to occur during a
involved in motor control Cushing reaction caused by brain ischemia?
d. Unopposed activity of the pontine reticular nuclei a. Increase in parasympathetic activity
132. Which of the following risk factors have been shown to b. Decrease in arterial pressure
increase significantly the incidence of gastrointestinal c. Decrease in heart rate
bleeding from stress gastritis in intensive care unit (ICU) d. Increase in sympathetic activity
patients? 141. The nail affection shown in the following picture is most
a. Glucocorticoid administration likely suggestive of?
b. Coagulopathy
c. Organ transplantation
d. Jaundice
133. Spongiform pustule of Kogoj is a feature of:
a. Lichen planus
b. Psoriasis
c. Impetigo contagiosa a. Chronic bacterial paronychia
d. Carbuncle b. Pachyonychia congenital
134. If the S-A node discharges at 0.00 seconds, when will the c. Tinea unguium
action potential normally arrive at the A-V node? d. Nail psoriasis
a. 0.03 second 142. Deviating from reminders is related to which of the following
b. 0.09 second categories, while diagnosing Acute stress disorder?
c. 0.12 second a. Arousal
d. 0.16 second b. Negative mood state
135. Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by c. Avoidance
a. Skin biopsy d. Intrusion
b. Patch test 143. Which of the following is responsible for the antiparasitic
c. Prick test action of eosinophils?
d. Estimation of serum IgE levels a. Major Basic Protein
136. Which of the following statements about gastric polyps is b. Superoxide
true? c. Hydrolases
a. Like their colonic counterparts, gastric epithelial d. Peroxidases
polyps are common tumors 144. A person is noticed to perceive burning sensation in the
b. They are analogous to colorectal polyps in natural brain. This experience can be explained by:
history a. Migraine

7|Page
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
b. Tactile hallucination
c. Cenesthetic hallucination
d. Multiple sclerosis
145. Important stimulants of gastrin release from endocrine cells
in the antrum include
a. Acidification of the antral lumen
b. Small peptide fragments and amino acids from
luminal proteolysis
c. Locally released somatostatin
d. Dietary fats
146. Somatosensory amplification is seen in:
a. Mania
b. Somatoform disorder
c. Learning disability
d. Mental retardation
147. Reduced impulse to act and indifference to consequences is
seen in:
a. Abulia
b. Avolition a. Nanotechnology
c. Apathy b. Insulin pump
d. Alogia c. Transbuccal delivery
148. A 2-day-old infant starts having brief tonic–clonic seizures d. Iontophoretic transdermal system
throughout the day. His neurological function in between 153. Highest rate of drug failure is seen in following phase of trial
seizures is normal, and he has no other medical or a. Phase 1
neurological problems. The history reveals no readily b. Phase 2
apparent causes for the seizures, though the mother recalled c. Phase 3
that her first baby also developed seizures shortly after birth d. Phase 4
that only lasted for 2 weeks, with no subsequent episodes or 154. Structure passing Posterior to Hilum of lung
developmental problems. Genetic analysis revealed a a. Phrenic and vagus nerve
mutation of voltage-gated K+ channels consistent with a b. Vagus Nerve only
diagnosis of benign familial neonatal seizures. Which of the c. Phrenic Nerve only
following would cause an immediate reduction in the amount d. Pericardiophrenic vessels
of potassium leaking out of a cell? 155. Specific antidote for sulfonylurea-induced hypoglycemia:
a. Decreasing the extracellular potassium a. Glucagon
concentration b. Hydrocortisone
b. Decreasing the extracellular sodium concentration c. Octreotide
c. Hyperpolarizing the membrane potential d. Adrenaline
d. Increasing the permeability of the membrane to 156. Which of the following is incorrect about pramlintide?
potassium a. Most common adverse effect is nausea
149. All of the following measures have been recommended for b. Administered as a subcutaneous injection prior to
control of acid secretion in patients with Zollinger-Ellison meals
syndrome except: c. Pramlintide can be given in patients with
a. Antrectomy gastroparesis
b. Highly selective vagotomy d. Approved for treatment of types 1 and 2 diabetes
c. Total gastrectomy 157. Injury to ulnar nerve at wrist causes paralysis of
d. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty a. Apposition of thumb
150. Which of the following feature(s) is not part of depressive b. Abduction at carpometacarpal joint of thumb
personality? c. Adduction at thumb
a. Optimism d. Flexion of metacarpophalangeal joint of middle finger
b. Chronic unhappiness 158. Hemodialysis is advised following acute overdose of lithium, if
c. Self-doubts lithium has following blood concentration
d. Duty Bound a. 0.5-0.8 meq/L
151. A woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis has b. 2.0 -3.0 meq/L
neutropenia on routine labs and splenomegaly is noted on c. 3.0-3.5 meq/L
physical examination. Which is the most likely diagnosis? d. > 4 meq/L
a. Thalassemia 159. Most patients with lymphedema can be managed by:
b. Hereditary spherocytosis a. Pedicle transfer of lymphatic-bearing tissue into the
c. Sickle cell disease affected area
d. Felty’s syndrome b. Elevation, elastic support garments, and massage
152. The delivery system shown in image is therapy or mechanical pneumatic compression
c. Lymphatic bypass using an autogenous vein graft
d. Excision of hypertrophic scarred fibrotic skin and
subcutaneous tissue down to muscle fascia and
coverage with split-thickness skin grafts
160. Following are available as Long Acting Injectable antipsychotics
except
a. Fluphenazine
b. Haloperidol

8|Page
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
c. Paliperidone 169. Which primary malignancy of the small intestine is most
d. Clozapine common?
161. Which of the following part of basal ganglia involved in a. Adenocarcinoma of the duodenum
hemiballismus b. Carcinoid tumor of the ileum
a. Caudate nucleus c. Lymphoma of the jejunum
b. Lentiform nucleus d. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) of the
c. Subthalamus duodenum
d. Substantia nigra 170. What does the “enterohepatic circulation” refer to?
162. Splenic injury is best detected by: a. The superior mesenteric-portal venous circuit
a. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage b. The secretion of cholesterol in the bile and its
b. CT reabsorption in the distal ileum.
c. Ultrasonography c. The secretion of bile acids by the liver and their
d. Isotope scan reabsorption in the distal ileum.
163. Statin of choice in severe renal dysfunction patient is? d. The secretion of cholecystokinin by the jejunum and
a. Rosuvastatin its stimulation of bile flow.
b. Simvastatin 171. A 28 year old woman with complains of difficulty in
c. Atorvastatin swallowing. Further examination reveals that she has no
d. Lovastatin taste sensation of the anterior two-third of her tongue and
164. Different gaps between pharyngeal muscles are lack of secretion of the sub mandibular gland. Which of the
marked. Identify the space which transmit following would most likely cause this condition?
glosso pharyngeal nerve a. Fracture of the mandibular canal
b. Section of the zygomatic nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve injury
d. Facial nerve injury
172. A pocket- or sock-like outpouching on the anti-mesenteric side
of the distal ileum, called a Meckel diverticulum, is caused by
a. Excessive traction on the intestine during childbirth.
b. Increased intraluminal pressure.
c. A persistent vitelline duct.
d. A mutation of the c-Mec gene.
173. Following structures have only adrenergic receptors for the
actions shown, but no sympathetic innervations except
a. Adipocytes for lipolysis
a. A b. Liver cells for gluconeogenesis
b. B c. Skeletal muscles for glycogenolysis
c. C d. Blood vessels for contraction
d. D 174. Dura is supplied by all cranial nerves except
165. A 71 year old woman often visits an emergency department a. 12
with swallowing difficulties & subsequent choking while eating b. 10
food. Which of the following Pairs of muscles is most c. 5
instrumental in preventing food from entering the larynx & d. 4
trachea during swallowing? 175. Which of the following points is/are true concerning the
a. Sternohyoid & sternothyroid muscles diagnosis of Crohn’s disease?
b. Oblique arytenoid and aryepiglottic muscles a. In 10% of cases, Crohn’s disease cannot be
c. Inferior pharyngeal constrictor and thyrohyoid distinguished from chronic ulcerative colitis based on
muscles clinical, radiologic, and pathologic criteria
d. Levator veli palatini and tensor veli palatini muscles b. Although no specific laboratory tests exist for Crohn’s
166. Which of the following Beta blocker is both class II and class III disease, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate has
anti arrhythmic drugs as per Vaughan- Williams classification? evolved as a useful measure of disease activity
a. Propranolol c. Specific endoscopic features encountered in Crohn’s
b. Esmolol disease which allow differentiation from ulcerative
c. Sotalol colitis include aphthous ulcers, cobblestoning, and
d. Atenolol skip areas
167. Mixed inhibitor of endothelin converting enzyme and d. All of the above
neprilysin is 176. The following drug has activity on herpes viruses also :
a. Daglutril a. Emtricitabine
b. Sacubitril b. Lamivudine
c. Omapatrilat c. Tenofovir
d. Nesiritide d. Indinavir
168. Which of the following statement is correct? 177. Paromomycin is used in following conditions except
a. Beta 2 stimulation causes glycogenolysis leading to a. Cryptosporidiosis
hyperglycemia b. Giardiasis
b. Beta 2 has no action on insulin release but it c. Melidiosis
increases glucagon release leading to hyperglycemia d. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
c. Alpha 2 stimulation inhibits insulin release leading to 178. A high school basketball player experiences a sudden difficulty
hyperglycemia in breathing and is brought to an emergency department.
d. All of the above When a low tracheotomy is performed below the isthmus of
the thyroid, Which of the following vessels may be

9|Page
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
encountered? b. Decreasing the pH below 5.5 increases the
a. Inferior thyroid artery effectiveness of pancreatic lipase in hydrolyzing fat.
b. Inferior thyroid vein c. Co-lipase blocks triglyceride hydrolysis.
c. Costocervical trunk d. Fatty acid and 2-monoglyceride enter the intestinal
d. Superior thyroid artery cell by active transport.
179. Which of the following is a substrate of CYP3A4 189. Waldeyer’s fascia true statement:
a. Rifabutin a. In front of the bladder
b. Rifampicin b. Behind the rectum
c. Rifapentine c. Contains middle rectal vessels
d. None d. Condensation of pelvic peritoneum
180. Different layers of deep cervical fascia is marked in the 190. A 65-year-old female requires emergency surgery for a
cross section. Which of the following statement is true strangulated inguinal hernia. Which of the following is correct?
a. The sac is formed by an unobliterated processus
vaginalis.
b. The hernia is direct rather than indirect.
c. Such herniae never contain small intestine.
d. Strangulation never results in bowel ischemia and
gangrene requiring resection.
191. A new drug is to be evaluated for its therapeutic effect. The
best study design will be
a. Cross sectional survey
a. Carotid sheath contributed by B and c b. Case control design
b. Parotid sheath and thyroid sheath from C c. Natural experiment
c. Axillary sheath from A d. Randomized controlled trial
d. Contribute to trapezius and sternocleidomastoid 192. Live attenuated vaccine can be given to
181. Newer monoclonal antibody approved for Locally advanced or a. Children under 8 years
metastatic urothelial carcinoma b. Symptomatic HIV patients
a. Durvalumab c. Patients on steroids
b. Pembrolizumab d. Patients on radiation therapy
c. Nivolumab 193. Anti-inflammatory cytokines are
d. Sarilumab a. TGF-β & IL-10
182. Which of the following is true statement : b. INF-γ & TGF-β
a. Osteoblasts give rise to osteocytes c. INF-γ & IL-10
b. Growth of bone is maximum at diaphysi d. TNF-α & IL-10
c. Epiphysis is present between metaphysis and 194. Hyper IgM syndrome is due to defect in
diaphysis a. CD 40 ligand
d. Interphalangeal joint is a saddle joint b. CD 28
183. Which of the following is a naked monoclonal antibody c. CD 16
a. Alemtuzumab d. CD 4
b. Blinatumomab 195. Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome-1 (Whitaker syndrome)
c. Ibritumomab is due to mutation of
d. Muromonab a. BCL-2
184. Which of the following is incorrect about Estramustine? b. FOXP3
a. Is a combination of estradiol coupled to normustine c. AIRE
b. Estramustine functions in vivo as an alkylating agent d. CTLA4
and destroys DNA of cancer cells 196. Which one of the following genes, when mutated, is implicated
c. Used only for the treatment of metastatic or locally in breast and ovarian cancer?
advanced hormone-refractory prostate cancer a. BRCA-1
d. It binds to β tubulin b. MLH-1
185. All the following are derivatives of foregut except: c. Ataxia telangiectasia (AT)
a. Bile canaliculi d. p53
b. Bronchi 197. Monoclonal Antibodies may act as Anticancer agents because
c. Liver parenchyma they
d. Sinusoids a. Inhibit angiogenesis
186. Which part of the ear has origin from all the three layers of b. Are Antagonistic to growth factors
germ layer? c. Increase the vulnerability of cancer cells to immune
a. Auricle attack
b. Tympanic membrane d. All of these
c. Ossicles 198. In ethanol metabolism, the conversion of ethanol to
d. Middle ear cavity acetaldehyde is carried out by
187. Supports of the uterus are all except a. Cytochrome P450
a. Utero sacral ligament b. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
b. Broad ligament c. Alcohol dehydrogenase
c. Mackenrodts ligament d. Both 1 and 2
d. Levator ani 199. CYP450 system is an example for:
188. Which of these statements about the digestion of fat are true? a. Dehydrogenase
a. Micellar solution provides an optimal environment b. Monooxygenase
for the action of pancreatic lipase. c. Dioxygenase

10 | P a g e
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
d. Oxidase d. Valine
200. Which of the following is used as the specific antidote for 211. Following are true about Portal vein except:
acetaminophen poisoning? a. Formed behind neck of pancreas
a. N-Acetyl cysteine b. Common bile duct is to right and anterior
b. Cysteine c. Gastroduodenal artery is to left and anterior
c. Protamine sulfate d. Ascends behind second part of duodenum
d. Vitamin K 212. Not true about structures dividing the other structures
201. Active form of Vitamin D is: a. Pectoralis minor divide the axillary artery into three
a. Cholecalciferol parts
b. 24,25(OH)2 vit-D b. Scalenus anterior divide the subclavian artery into
c. 1,25(OH)2 vit-D three parts
d. 25-OH vit-D c. Lateral pterygoid divide the maxillary artery into
202. Which vitamin is synthesized in the body? three parts
a. Thiamine d. Hyoglossus divide the facial artery into three parts
b. Vitamin B3 213. The term eye of the hand applies to nerve
c. Vitamin B6 a. Median
d. Riboflavin b. Radial
203. The most common cause of a deficient LES is c. Ulnar
a. Inadequate overall length d. Axillary
b. Mean resting pressure >6 mm Hg 214. Which among the following parameters in spirometry more
c. Inadequate intra-abdominal length sensitive indicator of airway obstruction in asthma?
d. Failure of receptive relaxation a. FEV25-75
204. All of the following are true about Xanthine oxidase,EXCEPT: b. PEFR
a. Contains iron c. FEV1
b. Contains molybdenum d. FVC
c. Flavoprotein 215. Ann arbor staging is used for:
d. Produces H2O a. AML
205. Which of the following is the substrate for the enzyme b. Hodgkin lymphoma
ribonucleotide reductase? c. Non- Hodgkin lymphoma
a. Nucleoside monophosphate d. ALL
b. Nucleoside diphosphate 216. FIRES is a term related to which of the following conditions?
c. Nucleoside triphosphate a. Burns
d. All of the above b. Seizures
206. All of these are parts of the human antireflux mechanism c. Alopecia
EXCEPT d. All of above
a. Adequate gastric reservoir 217. Alanine is similar to serine in the same way that:-
b. Mechanically functioning lower esophageal sphincter a. Val is similar to Thr
(LES) b. Phe is similar to Tyr
c. Mucus secreting cells of the distal esophagus c. Phe is similar to Trp
d. Efficient esophageal clearance d. Ser is similar to Thr
207. The cervical esophagus receives its blood supply primarily from 218. All children with nephrotic syndrome should receive
the immunization against infection?
a. Internal carotid artery a. Pneumococci
b. Inferior thyroid artery b. E.coli
c. Superior thyroid artery c. Diphtheria
d. Inferior cervical artery d. Tetanus
208. Which of the following statements about esophageal motility is 219. Pertussis infection during early infancy is characterized by all
true? of the following except:
a. The act of swallowing initiates LES relaxation, which a. Paroxysms of cough followed by whoop
persists until the bolus of food passes the LES b. Apnea
b. The primary peristaltic wave normally propels the c. Convulsions
swallowed bolus through the esophagus in 15 to 20 d. Cyanosis
seconds 220. This absorption spectrum belongs to
c. Normally, a progressive peristaltic contraction
(primary wave) follows 50% of all swallows, the
remainder being secondary or tertiary contraction
d. Secondary peristalsis is initiated when the entire
swallowed bolus of food fails to empty from the
esophagus into the stomach
209. Edema in nephrotic syndrome is due to:
a. Na and water restriction
b. Increased venous pressure
c. Hypoalbuminemia
d. Hyperlipidemia
a. NADH
210. To which of the following amino acid, heme iron is linked?
b. Tryptophan
a. Leucine
c. DNA
b. Histidine
d. Porphyrin
c. Isoleucine

11 | P a g e
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
221. Deficiency of which of the following enzyme will result in 231. All are true regarding acute diarrheal disease in children
similar condition? except:
a. Usually caused by rotavirus and other non-invasive
bacteria
b. ORS and continued feeding of the child is only
needed for most of the cases
c. According to plan-B, child should be administered IV
ringer lactate
d. Usually no investigation is needed for planning
treatment for acute diarrhea
232. Most common organic cause of central precocious puberty?
a. Prolactinoma
b. Craniopharyngioma
a. Ornithine transcarbamoylas c. Hypothalamic hamartoma
b. Argininosuccinate synthase d. Meningioma
c. Argininosuccinate lyase 233. Which of the following is a contraindication for operative
d. Arginase closure of VSD?
222. Treatment of choice for angiofibroma: a. Large VSD
a. Surgery b. Early onset of congestive cardiac failure
b. Radiotherapy c. Qp:Qs ratio > 2
c. Both d. Development of Eisenmenger’s syndrome
d. Chemotherapy 234. Which of the following is not an attribute of human milk?
223. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma presents as: a. High lactose content
a. Epistaxis b. Presence of a bifidus factor
b. Mass in neck c. Antibody content
c. Headache d. High mineral content
d. Nasal stuffiness 235. Which of the following is not a true statement about Ponderal
224. Most common cause of singers nodule is : index?
a. Infection a. Calculated using weight and length of the baby
b. Vocal abuse b. Indicates how well-proportioned the infant is overall
c. Allergy c. Value is more than 2 in normal growth babies
d. Carcinoma d. Value is more than 2 in asymmetric IUGR
225. Which of the following muscle is not supplied by recurrent 236. Massive aminoaciduria without a corresponding increase in
laryngeal nerve: plasma amino acid level is characterstic of which one of the
a. Post cricoarytenoid following disease?
b. Thyroarytenoid a. Homocystinuria
c. Lateral cricoarytenoid b. Hartnup disease
d. Cricothyroid c. Tyrosinemia
226. In Glanzmann thrombasthenia there is defect of: d. Maple syrup urine disease
a. GpΙb-ΙΙa 237. A child can ride a bicycle , copy a circle and knows age, sex by
b. GpΙΙb-ΙΙΙa the age of
c. GpΙb-ΙX a. 30 months
d. GpΙΙb-ΙX b. 42 months
227. Which of the following statements about colonic motility is/are c. 36 months
true? d. 48 months
a. Mass contractions involve only the rectum. 238. Identify the pattern of inheritance from this pedigree?
b. “Antiperistaltic” contractions occur in the descending
colon.
c. The rectum can accommodate stool by receptive
relaxation.
d. Stool in the colon is propelled by continues
contractions.
228. Most common congenital anomaly of larynx:
a. Laryngeal web
b. Laryngomalacia a. Autosomal dominant
c. Laryngeal stenosis b. X linked dominant
d. Vocal cord palsy c. Autosomal recessive
229. Most common fractured bone in the face is: d. Mitochondrial
a. Nasal 239. A 2 year old child with diarrhea had severe dehydration. After
b. Maxillary 3 hours of i.v fluid therapy with Ringer lactate, child was
c. Zygomatic assessed. Hydration and general condition of the child
d. Temporal improved, but some dehydration was still present. What
230. CSF rhinorrhoea is diagnosed by: should be the next course of action?
a. Beta 2 microglobulin a. Continue i.v fluids at lesser rate of infusion
b. Beta 2 transferrin b. Continue i.v fluids at faster rate of infusion
c. Thyroglobulin c. Start ORS
d. Transthyretin d. Change over to colloid solution like 5% albumin
240. Investigation of choice for blunt trauma abdomen is

12 | P a g e
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
a. X-ray standing abdomen b. Capillary telangiectasia
b. Ultrasound abdomen c. AVM
c. DPL d. Venous angioma
d. CT scan abdomen 250. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the
241. Recurrent epistaxis in a 15 year old female the probable cause abnormality seen in the following wrist X-ray?
is:
a. Juvenile nasopharyngeal fibroma
b. Rhinosporidiosis
c. Foreign body
d. Haematological disorder
242. What is the mainstay treatment for Bell’s palsy:
a. Prednisolone
b. Facial nerve decompression
c. Eye drops
d. Electric stimulation
243. True about mammography EXCEPT:
a. X-ray energy used is < 30 kV.
b. Standard views in mamography include Craniocaudal a. It leads to AVN if untreated
and Mediolateral oblique views. b. It almost never leads to non-union
c. “Target material” or anode in mammography X-ray c. It most commonly involved waist
tubes is made up tungsten d. CT is diagnostic in doubtful cases
d. Firm compression is essential during mammography 251. In radiography regarding scattered radiation, which of the
244. Dryness of eye is caused by injury to facial nerve at: following is true?
a. Chorda tympani a. Improves image contrast
b. Vertical segment b. Improves image resolution
c. Tympanic segment c. Reduces image contras
d. Geniculate ganglion d. Reduces patient radiation dose
245. "Swiss cheese" nephrogram is a feature of : 252. The curie is a measure of:
a. Acute ureteral obstruction a. Number of disintegrations per second of a
b. Severe hydronephrosis radioactive substance.
c. Polycystic Kidney Disease b. Total energy absorbed by an object exposed to a
d. Medullary cystic disease of kidney radioactive source
246. Simple mastoidectomy is done in: c. Lethal threshold for radiation exposure
a. Acute mastoiditis d. Number of alpha particles emitted by exactly one
b. Cholesteatoma gram of a radioactive substance
c. Safe CSOM 253. The “R”s of radiobiology include the following except:
d. Localized chronic otitis media a. Repair
247. ‘Gloved-tree’ appearance in chest X-ray is seen in b. Reoxygenation
a. Pneumoconiosis c. Repopulation
b. Histoplasmosis d. Reexcitation
c. Bronchiectasis 254. BAHA is used for the conductive hearing loss with the
d. Interstitial lung disease following:
248. This axial CT chest remarkably demonstrates – a. Cochlear malformation
b. SNHL
c. B/L acoustic neuroma
d. Atresia of external ear
255. The marked structure in the Waldeyer’s ring is:

a. Rasmussen’s aneurysm
b. Air crescent sign
c. Cyst in cyst sign
d. Mc Connel’s sign
249. Contrast enhanced MR brain showing lesion in left
temporal lobe with typical "bag of worms"
appearance is highly suggestive of? a. Nasopharyngeal tonsil

b. Lingual tonsil
c. Faucial tonsil
d. Tubal tonsil
256. A two year old child with a long history of purulent nasal
discharge now presents with fever and right sided
conjunctival congestion and edema for the past 3 days, see
picture below. His fever is 103 degree F and WBC count is
a. Cavernous angioma 12000/µL. The culture of eye discharge was negative. X-ray

13 | P a g e
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
show opacification of ethmoid sinus. Which of the following 266. Leber cells are most commonly seen in
should be the next step in evaluating this patient: a. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
b. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
c. Ophthalmianeonatorum
d. Trachoma
267. Which of the following is not a common cause of optic
atrophy?
a. CT Scan a. Tobacco
b. FESS b. Paracetamol
c. Blood culture c. Ethyl alcohol
d. Repeat culture of eye discharge d. Methyl alcohol
257. Not True regarding the given condition 268. Not a risk factor for ocular surface squamous neoplasia (OSSN)
a. UV radiation
b. Keratoconus
c. Cigarette smoking
d. XerodermaPigmentosa
269. Which of the following is not true regarding herpes zoster
ophthalmicus:
a. Frontal nerve is most common nerve involved
b. Dendritic ulcers are seen
c. Can involve all parts of eye except sclera
a. Most common cause of stridor in newborn d. Cranial nerves can also be involved
b. Inspiratory stridor 270. Which of the following is not a sign of corneal graft failure:
c. Requires immediate surgery a. Kayes dots
d. Stridor worsens on lying in supine position b. Khordaust’s line
258. Investigation of choice for Intra ocular foreign body is c. Neovascularization
a. High Resolution CT d. Epithelial defect
b. MRI 271. Identify the given image
c. Water’s view
d. ERG
259. NGO eye hospital make which stage of NPCB
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Not included
260. Economic blindness is defined as
a. Vision < 6/60 to 3/60 a. Boston Keratoprosthesis
b. Vision < 3/60 to 1/60 b. Ahmad Glaucoma Valve
c. Vision < 1/60 to Finger counting c. Corectopia
d. No PL d. Laser iridotomy
261. Which of the following parameter is taken to measure vitamin 272. Increased episcleral venous pressure can:
A deficiency? a. Increase IOP
a. Serum retinol b. Decrease IOP
b. Bitot spot c. No effect on IOP
c. Night Blindness d. Initially increases then decreases IOP
d. Keratomalacia 273. Tetany is caused by which poisoning:-
262. Most common developmental tumor in eye is a. Oxalic acid
a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Carbolic acid
b. Dermoid c. Sulphuric acid
c. Glioma d. Nitric acid
d. Metastasis 274. Best test for seminal stains is:
263. Aesthesiometer measures a. Barberio’s test
a. Corneal epithelium b. Acid Phosphatase test
b. Corneal sensations c. Florence test
c. Corneal endothelium d. Detecting the sperm itself in microscope
d. Corneal thickness 275. The WHO definition of health includes all of the following
264. Surfer’s eye is another name for dimensions except?
a. Trachoma a. Social
b. Pinguecula b. Spiritual
c. Pterygium c. Physical
d. Photokeratitis d. Economic
265. Which of the following is not a treatment strategy for 276. The Childhood deaths from TB are usually caused by
conjunctivitis a. Meningitis
a. Topical antibiotis b. Pulmonary TB
b. Irrigation of sac c. Lymph node TB
c. Atropine d. Gastrointestinal TB
d. Dark goggles 277. STI Clinics have been rebranded as?

14 | P a g e
 Dr. Marwah’s Test Series
WhatsApp Number: 9873835363, 8447982490,9717143789 ,3 CBT –2
The winners are decided by hard work and dedication
a. Guptraog Clinic d. Postmortem immersion
b. Sambandh Clinic 290. The infective form for man in case of Schistosoma infection is-
c. Suraksha Clinic a. Metacercaria
d. Suvidha Clinic b. Cercaria
278. Use of a volunteer sample is generally to be avoided because: c. Coracidium
a. Volunteers are hard to get d. Operculated egg
b. They are unlikely to be representative of the 291. Gettler test detects:
intended population a. Diatoms in drowning
c. They are difficult to stratify b. Chloride content of blood in drowning
d. Replication is difficult c. Weight of lungs in drowning
279. Not true for Criminal negligence d. Magnesium content of blood in drowning
a. No specific violation of law need to be proved 292. Characteristic feature of antemortem drowning is?
b. Punishment is imprisonment a. Emphysema aquosum
c. Gross negligence leading to death is criminal b. Paltauf's hemorrhage
negligence c. Water in stomach
d. Guilt should be proved beyond reasonable doubt in d. Cutis anserine
court 293. False about filariasis is:
280. False +ve hydrostatic test in live born fetus is for- a. Man is intermediate host
a. Atelectasis b. Adult worms are found in lymphatics of man
b. Artificial Respiration c. Culex is a vector
c. Putrefaction d. Life span of microfilaria is not exactly known
d. Both 1 and 2 294. In vivo, Candida albicans produces-
281. According to BMW rules 2016 the biomedical waste has been a. Yeast cells
classified into how many categories? b. Hyphae
a. 10 c. Yeast cells and pseudohyphae
b. 5 d. Yeast cells, pseudohyphae and chlamydospores
c. 4 295. In India, Rhinosporidosis is prevalent in:
d. 1 a. Assam
282. Washburn’s Index is with respect to which bone? b. Tamil Nadu
a. Clavicle c. Punjab
b. Sternum d. Gujarat
c. Pelvis 296. Coomb’s test is:
d. Skull a. Precipitation test
283. Judicial hanging causes : b. Agglutination test
a. C2 - 3 fracture dislocation c. CFT
b. C4 - 5 fracture dislocation d. Neutralization test
c. C6 - 7 fracture dislocation 297. MHC class II molecules are found on:
d. None of the above a. Virtually all cells in the body.
284. All are true regarding NK cells except: b. B cells, dendritic cells and macrophages.
a. CD16 positive c. Only gamma-interferon activated cells.
b. CD56 positive d. Virtually all nucleated cells in the body.
c. Secrete complement-like substance 298. Which of the following tests can you use for differentiating
d. None Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
285. Not true about scrub typhus: a. Gram staining
a. Chigger borne b. Hemolysis on blood agar
b. Vector is mite c. Catalase test
c. Caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi d. Coagulase test
d. Chlamydial disease 299. The toxigenicity of C.diphtheriae is due to
286. Hanging is defined as : a. Beta phage
a. Suspension of body a ligature, body weight acting as b. Lambda page
constricting force c. Gamma phage
b. Suspension of body by ligature, after death d. Delta phage
c. Obliteration of air passages by external compression 300. Irradiation can be used to sterilize all except
d. Mechanical interference to respiration a. Bone graft
287. True about Hepatitis C virus- b. Suture
a. DNA virus c. Artificial tissue graft
b. Does not cause liver cancer d. Bronchoscope
c. Most common cause of liver transplantation
d. Does not cause coinfection with Hepatitis B virus
288. Chickenpox is
a. Foodborne disease
b. Airborne disease
c. Contact disease
d. Waterborne disease
289. Hydrocution is :
a. Electrocution in water
b. Dry Drowning
c. Drowning in cold water

15 | P a g e