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ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE - MOTOR

MOTOR - DESIGN, COMPONENTS
1 Precision engine bearing inserts are manufactured with a small 2 The method of piston cooling in which oil is delivered through the
portion of the bearing ends extending beyond the bearing housing connecting rod to a compartment within the piston, then distributed
or caps. The installation process of these bearings requires by the motion of the pistons, and allowed to drain to the crankcase
sufficient ________. via one or more holes or pipes, is termed ________

A. overlap A. quaker
B. crush B. shaker
C. lap or lead C. circulation
D. protrusion D. spray
Ans: B Ans: B
3 The piston rod scraper box incorporated in a two-stroke/cycle, 4 In a large, slow-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the
crosshead diesel engine serves to _____________. parts listed is under tension when the engine is running?

A. eliminate the necessity for an oil scraper ring A. Bed plate

B. prevent side thrust and cylinder scoring B. Column
C. prevent sludge and dirty oil from entering the crankcase C. Entablature
D. scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder walls D. Tie rod
Ans: C Ans: D
5 The main advantage of unit injectors (combined fuel pump and 6 Passages are drilled in the crankshafts of diesel engines to provide
injector) over other fuel injection systems is _____________. lubricating oil to the _____________.

A. the lack of high pressure fuel lines A. main bearings

B. their relatively low injection pressures B. connecting rod bearings
C. reduced wear of spray orifices C. piston pin bushings
D. the lessened chance of fuel leaks into the engine sump D. All of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
7 When may the crankcase ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes of two 8 The main function of tie rods in the construction of large, low speed
or more engines be connected? diesel engines is to ____________.
A. Propulsion engines under 1000 shaft horsepower may share a A. stiffen the bedplate in way of the main bearings to increase the
common crankcase vent provided the oil drains remain separate. engine's longitudinal strength

B. In most cases it is desirable and cost effective for propulsion B. accept most of the tensile loading that results from the firing forces
engines to share a common crankcase ventilation and monitoring developed during operation
system.
C. No interconnection may be made between the crankcase C. mount the engine frame securely to the hull to prevent shaft
ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes. coupling misalignment
D. None of the above are correct. D. connect the crosshead solidly to the piston rod
Ans: C Ans: B
9 On most modern diesel engines, the main and connecting rod 10 Fuel injection pumps using the port and helix metering principle
bearings receive their lubricating oil by ____________. requires the use of a ___________.
A. banjo feed A. crosshatched design
B. splash feed B. lapped plunger and barrel
C. gravity feed C. variable stroke
D. pressure feed D. variable cam lift
Ans: D Ans: B
11 Lubricating oil is supplied to the crankpin bearings in a marine 12 gudgeonpin bearings are difficult to lubricate because of their
diesel engine by _____________. oscillating motion and _____________.
A. internal crankshaft passages A. their free-floating design
B. immersion in oil B. their relatively small size
C. spclearance lubrication C. the reciprocating motion of the piston
D. injection lubrication D. their position in the lubrication system
Ans: A Ans: D
13 The camshaft drive is designed to maintain proper camshaft speed 14 Engines having a bore exceeding 250 mm, but not exceeding 300
relative to crankshaft speed. In maintaining this relationship, the mm are to have at least _________.
camshaft drive causes the camshaft to rotate at _____________.

A. one-half crankshaft speed in a two-stroke cycle diesel engine A. three compression rings per piston and the minimum of two oil
scraper rings
B. crankshaft speed in a two-stroke cycle diesel engine B. one intake and one exhaust valve per cylinder provided no other
means of scavenging is used
C. two times crankshaft speed in a two-stroke cycle diesel engine C. one explosion relief valve in way of each alternate crank throw, with
a minimum of two valves
D. one-fourth times crankshaft speed in a four-stroke cycle diesel D. one crankshaft except in cases where an opposed piston design is
engine required
Ans: B Ans: C
15 The opening of an exhaust valve on a modern, large, low- speed, 16 Shaker, circulation, and spray are the three general methods used
main propulsion diesel engine, may be actuated by in _____________.
_____________.
A. direct action of cam shaft A. pre-injection fuel oil treatment
B. compressed air pressure B. lube oil filtration
C. hydraulic "push rods" C. lube oil purification
D. direct action of the main piston moving down D. piston cooling
Ans: C Ans: D
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17 The speed of the camshaft in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, 18 Explosion relief valves on diesel engine crankcases should relieve
running at 950 RPM, is _____________. the pressure at not more than _________.
A. 475 RPM A. 0.1 bar
B. 950 RPM B. 0.2 bar
C. 1900 RPM C. 1.0 bar
D. 2400 RPM D. 2.0 bar
Ans: B Ans: B
19 A two stroke diesel engine exhaust temperaturewill be lower than a 20 The sealing surfaces of a diesel engine piston ring are considered
four stroke diesel engine of the same displacement because the to be the faces in contact with the cylinder wall, in addition to the
___________. I. scavenging air is cooling the exhaust gases II. ring groove ___________.
exhaust cycle time is longer
A. I only A. bottom
B. II only B. back
C. both I and II C. top
D. neither I nor II D. side
Ans: A Ans: A
21 Where is the fuel delivery check valve located in a jerk pump fuel 22 How many crankcase relief valves are required for a 325mm bore,
injection system? eight cylinder in-line engine?
A. In the cylinder head A. 2
B. On the suction side of the delivery pump B. 4
C. In the injection pump housing discharge C. 6
D. On the inlet side of the spray valves D. 8
Ans: C Ans: D
23 Which of the air intake systems listed will result in the lowest 24 In which of the following areas of a crosshead engine is a
specific fuel consumption? permanently connected fire extinguishing system required?
A. Natural aspiration A. Exhaust manifolds in excess of eight inches in diameter.
B. Turbocharged B. Crankcases having a gross volume in excess of 21 cubic feet.

C. Roots blower C. Turbocharger inlet piping in excess of twelve inches in diameter.

D. Piston blower D. Scavenging spaces in open connection to the cylinders.

Ans: B Ans: D
25 Camshafts are usually driven by timing gears or ___________. 26 The valve cam slope angle determines the _____________.

A. push rods A. opening and closing points of the valve

B. chain drives B. opening and closing rate of the valve
C. rocker arms C. height of valve opening
D. flywheels D. amount of time the valve remains open
Ans: B Ans: B
27 The arrangement and shape of the cams on a diesel engine 28 Carbon deposits building up, in, and around the injection nozzle tip
camshaft directly control which of the listed groups of operating are least likely to occur when using which of the listed types of fuel
conditions? injector nozzles?
A. Speed, torque, and horsepower production A. Hole
B. Firing order, valve timing, and valve lift B. Multi-hole
C. Fuel consumption, efficiency, and cylinder pressure C. Pintle
D. Scavenge pressure, compression ratio, and exhaust pressure D. Multi-pintle

Ans: B Ans: C
29 A port-and-helix fuel injection pump having upper and lower plunger 30 Which of the following statements describes a fuel injection pump
helixes is designed to _____________. marked "timed for port closing"?
A. vary fuel delivery and return pressure A. Injection has a constant beginning and variable ending.
B. vary the beginning and ending of injection B. The pump stroke determines the amount of fuel injected.
C. operate with residual fuels only C. Fuel is metered by the pump's delivery valve.
D. provide maximum fuel delivery rate D. Timing reference marks should be changed.
Ans: B Ans: A
31 Some fuel injection systems utilize port-and-helix metering. Which 32 An individual injection pump is designed for variable beginning and
of the following statement describes a system "timed for port constant ending of injection. For diesel engines operating at
closing"? constant speeds, the start of injection will _____________.

A. Injection has a variable beginning and a constant ending. A. advance as the load increases
B. Injection is metered by an external delivery valve. B. retard as the load increases
C. Injection has a constant beginning and variable ending. C. remain unchanged regardless of load
D. Injection will not occur until the helix closes the delivery valve. D. always occur at top dead center

Ans: C Ans: A
33 A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its center line is 34 The amount of fuel injected in a particular time, or degree, of
said to be __________. crankshaft rotation is termed _____________.
A. dynamically balanced A. metering
B. statically balanced B. timing
C. counter balanced C. rate of injection
D. resonantly balanced D. rate of distribution
Ans: B Ans: C
35 The small end of the connecting rod is attached to the piston with a 36 At dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually
_____________. coincides with the _____________.
A. crankpin A. angularity of the piston motion
B. sliding wedge B. inertia moment from the piston
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C. gudgeon pin C. centerline of the cylinder

D. torque bushing D. centerline of the king pin
Ans: C Ans: C
37 Connecting rods in a diesel engine are used to connect the 38 Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system using
_____________. individual plunger-type pumps _____________.
A. engine to the bed A. changes the position of the fuel inlet ports
B. rocker arm to the camshaft B. changes the length of the pump stroke
C. crankshaft to the gear train C. varies the quantity of fuel delivered
D. piston to the crankshaft D. varies the compression of the delivery valve spring
Ans: D Ans: C
39 The purpose of a heat dam used in some diesel engine cast iron 40 Diesel engines are classified as reciprocating internal combustion
pistons is to ____________. engines because they ______________.
A. concentrate all heat in the piston crown A. use energy from fuel burned outside their cylinders
B. increase the distance of travel for heat from the crown to the top B. burn fuel in a combustion chamber that moves back and forth
ring groove
C. ensure that all heat in the piston crown is conducted to the top ring C. burn fuel in a chamber where its energy moves a piston back and
forth
D. provide a short direct path for heat to flow from the crown to the top D. use a continuous combustion process to impart rotary motion to the
ring pistons
Ans: B Ans: C
41 A diesel engine with a full speed of 1000 RPM drives a propeller at 42 Which of the listed design features is most common to a two-
300 RPM. What is the speed reduction ratio? stroke/cycle low-speed main propulsion diesel engines?
A. 0.3 to 1 A. Crosshead construction
B. 3.33 to 1 B. Cross-scavenging air flow
C. 33 to 1 C. Trunk type pistons
D. 300 to 1 D. Single reduction gearing
Ans: B Ans: A
43 Why is the ring belt narrower in diameter than the skirt of a piston 44 Which statement about diesel engine combustion is true?
designed for a diesel engine?
A. To allow for greater expansion due to higher operating A. Combustion does not begin until the piston starts down on the
temperature. power stroke.
B. To seal the cylinder against leakage of combustion gases. B. Maximum combustion pressure is reached before TDC.
C. To provide an additional surface for oil cooling. C. Turbulence in the cylinder causes a delay in ignition.
D. To provide additional strength for the crown and lower structure. D. Maximum cylinder firing pressure is not developed until the piston
passes TDC.
Ans: A Ans: D
45 The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than at the 46 Why are some diesel engine cylinder liners plated on the wearing
skirt, in order to ______________. surface with porous chromium?
A. facilitate the installation of piston rings A. The chromium will not wear out the piston rings.
B. allow for the expansion of the piston during operation B. Chromium eliminates the need for oil scraper rings.
C. prevent crankcase vapors from entering the combustion chamber C. The chromium strengthens the liners in the way of the scavenging
air ports.
D. reduce wearing of the upper cylinder liner D. Pores in the plating aid in maintaining the lube oil film.
Ans: B Ans: D
47 The fuel injection pumps on a diesel engine are controlled by a 48 What type of fitting is to be used on diesel engine fuel injection line
linkage system attached to the _____________. piping?
A. camshaft A. Mild steel
B. crankshaft B. Hardened steel
C. governor C. Extra heavy
D. flywheel D. Double extra heavy
Ans: C Ans: C
49 The ability of a fuel particle to travel into the combustion chamber 50 Theoretical perfect combustion in a diesel engine yields by-products
before burning is called _____________. of _____________.
A. penetration A. aldehydes and carbon dioxide
B. permanence B. water vapor and carbon monoxide
C. turbulence C. nitrogen and carbon monoxide
D. atomization D. water vapor and carbon dioxide
Ans: A Ans: D
51 The function of the window cast into the housing of an individual 52 The piston gudgeon pin used in some diesel engine pistons is
jerk pump is to ____________. prevented from contacting the cylinder wall by a __________.

A. allow the pump to be timed to the engine A. piston relief groove

B. check for sludge on the pump barrel B. piston pin cup
C. check that the fuel return passages are clear C. snap ring
D. set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimeters D. bronze bushing
Ans: A Ans: C
53 Turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is of major importance in 54 The load is always placed on the lower half of the main bearings in
providing _____________. a/an ____________.
A. proper fuel metering A. two-stroke/cycle engine
B. complete fuel/air mixing B. four-stroke/cycle engine
C. minimal fuel penetration C. reverse cycle engine
D. proper fuel timing D. double acting engine
Ans: B Ans: A
55 Cavitation erosion in the cooling water system of a diesel engine 56 The main operating characteristic of diesel engines which
usually occurs at the pump impeller, and on the waterside of the distinguishes them from other internal combustion engines is the
_____________. _____________.
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A. fuel nozzle holders A. method of supplying air

B. exhaust valve guides B. cooling system
C. engine cylinder liners C. method of igniting fuel
D. engine exhaust manifold D. valve operating mechanism
Ans: C Ans: C
57 Which term describes piston pins having bearing surfaces in both 58 Compared to other fuel injection systems, unit injectors operate with
the piston bosses and connecting rod eye? virtually no _____________.
A. Stationary A. injection lag
B. Full floating B. ignition delay
C. Semi-floating C. moving parts
D. Free rolling D. control
Ans: B Ans: A
59 Piston cooling fins are located _____________. 60 A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will ________.
A. on top of the piston crown A. prevent piston ring wear
B. underneath the piston crown B. shorten the ring break-in period
C. at the base of the piston skirt C. prevent cylinder liner glazing
D. inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket D. appear slick and glazed
Ans: B Ans: B
61 Besides the use of piston cooling fins to assist in cooling,they also 62 The minimum fuel oil delivery pressure required for efficient
provide extra strength for the piston ___________. injection depends primarily on the ______________.

A. skirt A. degree of cylinder air turbulence

B. crown B. maximum pressure in the engine cylinders during injection
C. gudgeon pin C. quantity of the fuel to be injected
D. oil rings D. duration of the ignition delay period
Ans: B Ans: B
63 A thrust bearing is used with a propulsion diesel engine to 64 The two strokes of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are
_____________. ____________.
A. control axial movement of the crankshaft A. power and intake
B. transmit engine thrust to the propeller shaft B. intake and exhaust
C. absorb vibrations in the propeller shafting C. exhaust and compression
D. prevent propeller thrust from being transmitted to the hull D. compression and power
Ans: A Ans: D
65 Which of the following statements pertains to propulsion engines 66 Where engine bores exceed 230 mm, a bursting disc or flame
with bores exceeding 200 mm? arrestor is fitted ____________.
A. There shall be a means to display the cooling water outlet A. at the supply inlet to the starting air manifold for non-reversing
temperature of each cylinder. engines
B. All engines connected to controllable pitch propellers shall be of the B. on the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbocharger
direct reversible type.
C. The engines will be fitted with a means to display the exhaust gas C. on all devices subject to the by-products of combustion or
temperature of each cylinder. lubrication system vapors
D. All of the above are correct. D. in way of the control valve of each cylinder for direct reversing
engines having a main starting manifold
Ans: C Ans: A
67 What is the function of the main thrust bearing? 68 The main function of piston compression rings is to _______.
A. Prevents lateral movement of the slow speed gear. A. prevent excessive cylinder liner wear
B. Transmits propeller thrust to the hull. B. reduce friction losses in the engine
C. Keeps spring bearings in line. C. seal the space between the piston and the liner
D. Prevents main reduction gear axial movement. D. limit upward flow of lube oil into the combustion space
Ans: B Ans: C
69 The function of diesel engine piston compression rings is to 70 Diesel engine piston ring gaps can be straight or angle cut. In
____________. comparison, the angle cut ring ____________.
A. prevent piston side thrust A. allows piston ring expansion
B. prevent engine friction losses B. controls piston ring tension
C. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner C. increases ring wearing quality
D. remove oil from the cylinder combustion space D. decreases combustion gas leakage
Ans: C Ans: D
71 Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel 72 Which of the listed designs is effectively used to provide the
injection operate on a combustion phase within the cycle which is turbulence necessary for proper combustion in a diesel engine
_________. cylinder?
A. entirely constant pressure A. Masked exhaust valves
B. entirely constant temperature B. Special piston rings
C. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure C. Turbocharger
D. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure D. Precombustion chamber

Ans: C Ans: D
73 The purpose of counterboring the top of the cylinder liner, extending 74 The most rapid period of fuel combustion in a diesel engine cylinder
down to the top point of travel of the top compression ring, is to should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and
_____________. ____________.
A. increase cylinder turbulence A. when fuel injection has been completed
B. prevent wear of the liner from occurring B. when fuel vaporization has been completed
C. prevent wear of the liner from forming a ridge at the upper level of C. should efficiently continue through the after burning period in all
ring travel properly designed engines
D. decrease compression ratio for easier starting D. should be completed shortly after passing top dead center
Ans: C Ans: D
75 Exhaust gas pyrometers are useful for ____________. 76 Oil control rings function to _____________.
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A. detecting faulty combustion in individual cylinders A. allow proper lubrication of cylinders and compression rings
B. adjusting fuel racks to maintain equal loading between cylinders B. reduce the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber

C. adjusting the load limit setting of the governor at idle conditions C. scrape excess lube oil from the liner on the downstroke

D. calculating engine horsepower D. all of the above

Ans: A Ans: D
77 In the construction of a diesel engine, what is the purpose of end 78 The main purpose of the piston oil scraper rings is to
plates? _____________.
A. To provide accessibility to the cylinder liners. A. seal the space between the piston and the liner
B. To add rigidity to the block and a surface for attaching other parts. B. reduce the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber

C. To add stability to the engine block. C. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner
D. To make a surface for the base. D. damp out fluctuations of the piston side thrust
Ans: B Ans: B
79 What is commonly used to create turbulence in a diesel engine 80 How many power strokes per crankshaft revolution are there in an
combustion system? eight cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine?
A. Shape of the piston crowns. A. One
B. Increasing the compression ratios. B. Two
C. Increasing the effective plunger stroke. C. Four
D. Increasing the turbocharger gear ratio. D. Eight
Ans: A Ans: D
81 To shut down a diesel engine after it exceeds the set maximum 82 Turbulence is created in the cylinders of a diesel engine to
speed, which type of device listed should be used? _____________.
A. Speed limiting governor A. obtain injection lag
B. Overspeed governor B. help mix fuel and air
C. Overspeed trip C. increase combustion pressure
D. Overspeed relay D. utilize higher injection pressures
Ans: C Ans: B
83 To function properly, oil control rings used on a diesel engine piston 84 An important design characteristic of an explosion relief valve for a
must distribute sufficient oil to all parts of the cylinder wall and must diesel engine is the ability to _________.
also _____________.
A. prevent any lubricant from reaching the compression rings A. close quickly in order to prevent an inrush of air
B. prevent excessive lubrication from reaching the combustion space B. open quickly against crankcase pressure to prevent a possible
implosion
C. provide metal-to-metal contact to seal the cylinder against blow-by C. open slowly to permit a gradual reduction of crankcase pressure

D. assure a positive means of scraping carbon accumulation from the D. close slowly to permit proper seating of the valve disc and neoprene
cylinder sealing surfaces
Ans: B Ans: A
85 In some modern large diesel engines, which of the followingis used 86 Turbulence in the cylinder of a two-stroke/cycle main propulsion
as the support for the main bearings? diesel engine is mainly created by _____________.

A. Bedplate A. directional intake valve ports

B. Block B. masked intake valves
C. Base C. precombustion chambers
D. Sump D. intake port design
Ans: A Ans: D
87 In an internal combustion engine, which of the devices listed will 88 The theoretical minimum compression ratio necessary to ensure
force the compression rings to seal the compression gases in the compression ignition in a direct injection diesel engine is
space above the piston? _____________.
A. Use of bimetallic piston rings A. 0.334027778
B. Ring gap pretensioning B. 0.418055556
C. Thermal increase in ring-end clearance C. 0.500694444
D. Gas pressure acting against the back of the ring D. 0.584027778
Ans: D Ans: C
89 The size of the exhaust valve opening is ____________. 90 Provision is to be made for ventilation of an enclosed diesel engine
crankcase by means of a small ________.
A. most critical in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine A. aperture not exceeding 25mm diameter
B. most critical in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine B. fan to develop a slight suction not exceeding 25mm of water
C. most critical in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine if it is turbocharged C. vent line attached to the upper most area of the crankcase near the
center of the engine
D. of equal importance in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine as in a four- D. breather or by means of a slight suction not exceeding 25mm of
stroke/cycle diesel engine water
Ans: B Ans: D
91 Which of the general advantages listed does the electrical 92 In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to
pyrometer have over the mechanical pyrometer? the crosshead is ______________.
A. When heated, it will move proportional to the amount the metal has A. against the crosshead during power stroke and away from the
lengthened or expanded. crosshead during the compression stroke
B. The pointer associated with the pyrometer scale can be made to B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away
also measure engine RPM. from the crosshead during the power stroke
C. It can be utilized in exhaust manifolds and heat exchangers C. against the crosshead during the power and compression strokes
interchangeably.
D. It can indicate temperature at a distant point from the source of D. away from the crosshead during the power and compression
heat. strokes
Ans: D Ans: C
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93 A diesel engine is driving an alternator required to run at1800 RPM. 94 A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its center line is
The overspeed governor is normally required tobe set within a said to be __________. I. staticly balanced II. dynamically
range of ______________. balanced
A. 1980 to 2070 RPM A. I only
B. 2100 to 2200 RPM B. II only
C. 2200 to 2300 RPM C. both I and II
D. 2300 to 2400 RPM D. neither I nor II
Ans: A Ans: A
95 A six cylinder 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 580 96 Using a diesel engine indicator P-V diagram, the cylinder mean
mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke. What indicated power per effective pressure is calculated to be 21.3 kg/cm2. What is the
cylinder will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is scale of the spring used on the indicator if the diagram area is 18.46
15.3 kg/cm2 at a speed of 120 RPM? cm2 with a length of 13 cm?
A. 1,348 kW A. 0.9
B. 2,696 kW B. 1
C. 4,044 kW C. 1.25
D. 8,088 kW D. 1.5
Ans: A Ans: D
97 Diesel engine valve springs function to _____________. 98 A built-up exhaust valve is one in which _____________.
A. hold the valves open A. the stem and heads are made of different material
B. keep the valves off their seats until the exhaust stroke is completed B. the self-centering action comes from motion of the valve stem in the
guide
C. close the valves C. a replaceable valve disk is welded to the head
D. open inlet valves when the air injection cycle begins D. low-alloy steel is used throughout
Ans: C Ans: A
99 A six cylinder, two stroke/cycle diesel engine is 83% efficient and 100 A seven cylinder, 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a
has a cylinder constant of 0.998 while operating with a mean 750 mm bore and a 2000 mm stroke. What indicated power will be
effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at a speed of 100 RPM. What is developed if the average mean effective pressure is 14.8 kg/cm2
the metric brake horse power developed? at a speed of 96 RPM?

A. 5,559 kW A. 1,959 kW
B. 6,698 kW B. 3,906 kW
C. 7,455 kW C. 7,182 kW
D. 8,982 kW D. 14,363 kW
Ans: C Ans: D
101 Between the periods of injection and ignition of the fuel, a diesel 102 The cylinder liner forming the cylinder wall and the inside of the
engine crankshaft rotates through the ____________. water jacket is called a _____________.
A. detonation period A. dry liner
B. firing period B. wet liner
C. delay period C. jacket liner
D. advance period D. corrugated liner
Ans: C Ans: B
103 The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engineexhaust 104 The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engineexhaust
valve is to ________. I. work in conjunction with valve rotators to valve is to ________. I. seat the valve quickly II. break up seat
rotate the valve II. seat the valve quickly deposits

A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. both I and II C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II D. neither I nor II
Ans: B Ans: C
105 One function of diesel engine lubricating oil is to _______. 106 Open combustion chambers are designed to _____________.
A. induce carbon formation on cylinder walls A. eliminate carbon buildup
B. improve fuel penetration in the combustion space B. improve piston cooling
C. form a friction reducing film between mating surfaces C. prevent air charge turbulence
D. lubricate the fuel injectors D. provide proper fuel/air mixing
Ans: C Ans: D
107 In a diesel engine, exhaust valves open before the intakeports are 108 Critical speeds occurring within the operating speed range of a main
uncovered to ___________. I. reduce pumping losses II. reduce propulsion diesel engine may be changed, or have their damaging
back pressure effects reduced by a/an _____________.
A. I only A. engine support vibration isolator
B. II only B. detuner or viscous fluid damper
C. both I and II C. lightened crankshaft flywheel
D. neither I nor II D. spherically seated crankshaft bearing
Ans: C Ans: B
109 The amount of fuel injected into a diesel engine cylinder by a unit 110 Which bearing half will receive the greatest load in a two-
injector, is controlled by _____________. stroke/cycle diesel engine?
the firing pressure in the cylinder
A. All bearing halves share an equal load.
A.
a metering helix inside the pump
B. Upper half of the main bearing.
B.
varying the physical length of the plunger stroke
C. Lower half of the piston pin bearing in the connecting rod.
C.
varying the clearance between the injector cam and the injector
D. Lower half of the connecting rod bearing at the crankshaft end of
D.
rocker arm the rod.
Ans: B Ans: C
111 A diesel engine operating at a light load, when compared to 112 A safety cover differs from other diesel engine access doors in that
operating at heavy load has a fuel/air ratio that is __________. it is fitted with a __________.
A. higher A. spring-loaded pressure plate
B. less B. handwheel
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C. equal C. nut-operated clamp

D. directly proportional D. large gasket
Ans: A Ans: A
113 In an opposed piston engine, which of the following events would 114 Which of the following relationships should occur between the
happen if the lower crank lead were reduced from 12‚ to 0‚? temperature developed in a combustion space, and the
compression ratio of the engine?
A. The exhaust ports would open before the scavenging ports. A. Higher compression ratios create higher temperature.
B. The scavenging ports would open before the exhaust ports. B. Higher temperatures create higher compression ratios.
C. Neither the exhaust nor the scavenging ports would open. C. Lower temperatures create higher compression ratios.
D. The exhaust and scavenging ports would open simultaneously. D. Higher compression ratios create lower temperatures.

Ans: D Ans: A
115 The valve stem expansion associated with engine warm-up is 116 Which of the bearing types listed is commonly used for main
allowed for by the ____________. bearings in small internal combustion engines?
A. valve springs A. Precision-type with shims
B. hydraulic governor B. Poured-type consisting of babbitt
C. tappet clearance adjusters C. Poured-type with shims
D. cooling system D. Replaceable precision-type
Ans: C Ans: D
117 A dry-type spark arrestor removes sparks from a diesel engine 118 The most common instrument used to measure diesel engine
exhaust by _____________. exhaust pressure is the _____________.
A. increasing the linear velocity of the exhaust gases A. pyrometer
B. changing directions of exhaust gas flow B. bourdon gauge
C. decreasing the temperature of the exhaust gases C. pneumercator
D. accelerating the exhaust gas through a reduced size orifice D. manometer
Ans: B Ans: D
119 When two cams of the same diameter, one with tangential flanks 120 Which of the following types of engines have a combustion
and the other with convex flanks are compared, the cam with chamber located between a cylinder head and the crown of a
tangential flanks will cause___________. piston?
A. greater valve lift A. Horizontal opposed
B. more abrupt valve action B. Opposed
C. less valve seat wear C. Single acting
D. less valve gear wear D. None of the above
Ans: B Ans: C
121 The average pressure exerted on a piston during each power 122 The greatest turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is created by
stroke is termed _____________. the _____________.
A. indicated horsepower A. shape of the combustion chamber
B. mean effective pressure B. fuel injection spray pattern
C. exhaust back pressure C. cylinder swept volume
D. compression pressure D. degree of penetration of the fuel oil droplets
Ans: B Ans: A
123 Wet-type exhaust silencers, used with some diesel engines, have 124 The exhaust system for a diesel engine is usually designed to
which of the following design features in common? remove exhaust gases and to _____________.
A. The silencer is equipped with a water seal. A. power the Roots-type exhauster
B. The exhaust gases are not mixed with cooling water. B. remove the emission of exhaust smoke pollutants
C. The internal baffles break up the exhaust gas pulsation. C. power a reciprocating supercharger
D. The exhaust noise is completely eliminated. D. muffle exhaust noise
Ans: C Ans: D
125 In a diesel engine, after ignition of the fuel occurs, but before the 126 Most practical diesel engines today operate on a cycle which is a
piston reaches TDC, there is little change in the cylinder combination of the Diesel and Otto cycles. In this process,
_____________. compression ignition _____________.
A. volume A. begins on a constant volume basis
B. pressure B. begins on a constant pressure basis
C. temperature C. ends on a constant volume basis
D. energy D. begins and ends on a constant volume basis
Ans: A Ans: A
127 Main propulsion diesel engines having a bore exceeding 300 mm 128 In an opposed piston engine, the term "crank lead" refers to
are to have at least _________. _____________.
A. two independent means of starting the engine A. one crankshaft turning faster than the other
B. two engine driven lube oil pumps capable of parallel operation B. the two crankshafts turning in different directions

C. one (explosion relief) valve at the position of each main crank throw C. the piston in one cylinder reaching inner dead center several
crankshaft degrees before the other piston
D. five air starting valves to permit the admission of starting air at any D. the piston in one cylinder reaching dead center when the other
crank angle reaches outer dead center
Ans: C Ans: C
129 A controllable pitch propeller on a diesel driven vessel eliminates 130 Which of the events listed does NOT occur during the instant the
the need for ____________. piston just reaches top dead center?
A. friction clutches A. Intake
B. disconnect clutches B. Ignition
C. reversing gears C. Power
D. reduction gears D. Combustion
Ans: C Ans: A
131 Mist detectors used on large low-speed main propulsion diesel 132 A main propulsion diesel engine crankshaft bearing lacking
engines monitor and check for the presence of ____________. sufficient "crush", will _____________.
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A. fuel oil vapor at the sludge tank vent A. pound under load
B. unburned fuel vapors in the scavenge air receiver B. be lubricated more easily than with sufficient crush
C. lube oil vapors in the crank case C. tend to rotate with the journal
D. lube oil vapors in the engine room D. have its back forced against the seat under load
Ans: C Ans: C
133 A unit type fuel injector is used on a diesel engine to 134 The intake valves in a diesel engine are reseated by
_____________. _____________.
A. meter the fuel A. cam followers
B. produce the proper fuel oil pressure B. push rods
C. atomize the fuel C. combustion gases
D. all of the above D. valve springs
Ans: D Ans: D
135 The closing of the exhaust valves used on a modern, large, low- 136 A characteristic of a bearing material which permits small dirt
speed, main propulsion diesel engine may be directly provided by particles to become embedded in it's surface is
_____________. ________________.
A. large conical springs A. desirable, as it will prevent damage to the journal surface
B. compressed air pressure B. desirable, as it will assist in keeping the lube oil filters clean
C. hydraulic pressure C. undesirable, since the embedded particles will score the journal
D. exhaust gas pressure D. undesirable, since the particles will interfere with lube oil flow

Ans: B Ans: A
137 A diesel engine crankcase ventilation system ______________. 138 Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by _____________.
A. prevents spark generation A. fuel oil pressure
B. removes combustible gases B. a cam operated follower
C. determines the level of combustible gases C. a spring-loaded pressure plate
D. provides inert gas generation in crankcase D. timing gears keyed to the crankshaft
Ans: B Ans: A
139 The bearings used to support the crankshaft are generally called 140 Injection pressure in a common rail fuel system is controlled by
__________. _____________.
A. line shaft bearings A. engine speed
B. connecting rod bearings B. varying the fuel pump piston stroke
C. main bearings C. varying the injector needle valve clearance
D. support bearings D. a bypass valve
Ans: C Ans: D
141 Internal combustion engine crankcase vent outlets must be 142 What is to be installed on an internal combustion engine if its
equipped with ______. cylinder bore exceeds 200mm?
A. hinged rain guards A. Crankcase vapor monitors
B. corrosion resistant flame screens B. Engine exhaust silencers
C. dipsticks for measuring oil levels C. Constant pressure type turbochargers
D. crankcase ventilation fans D. Explosion relief valves
Ans: B Ans: D
143 Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed main propulsion diesel 144 What is the purpose of the "window" installed in the housing of an
engines is admitted to each cylinder during _____________. individual jerk pump?
A. the power stroke A. To allow the pump to be timed to the engine.
B. the compression stroke B. To check for sludge on the pump barrel.
C. low load operation only C. To check that fuel oil return passages are clear.
D. periods of standby D. To set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimeters.
Ans: B Ans: A
145 Which of the following listed construction details of internal 146 Which statement regarding the arrangement and location of
combustion engines is required? explosion relief valves used on an internal combustion engines is
true_____________?
A. A warning notice to caution against the opening of a hot crankcase A. They may be omitted on all engines having a cylinder bore of nine
for a specified period of time after shut down. inches or less
B. The use of end block construction for engines developing over B. They may be omitted provided the engine utilizes a crankcase
1000 brake horsepower. monitoring system
C. Removable cylinder liners must be used for engines developing C. The type of engine and operating cycle must be considered by the
over 1000 brake horsepower. designer
D. All engines shall be provided with an exhaust gas pressure D. Minimizing the danger from emission of flame is a key
monitoring system. consideration
Ans: A Ans: D
147 The term "proper metering", as applied to a diesel fuel injection 148 One function of the fuel pump delivery check valve is to
system, can be best defined as _____________. _____________.
A. delivering the same quantity of fuel to each cylinder for each power A. prevent carbon deposits from forming on the injector nozzle
stroke according to engine load
B. maintaining the metering adjustment for a reasonable period under B. help the injector needle reseat without dribbling at the nozzle holes
all load conditions
C. timing fuel injection to obtain maximum power and good fuel C. provide a prolonged pressure drop in the high pressure steel piping
economy to the injector
D. distributing the fuel to all parts of the combustion chamber for D. ensure a fuel leakoff between the plunger and barrel which provides
proper combustion lubrication for relative movement
Ans: A Ans: B
149 The rate of fuel injection in a diesel engine cylinder depends 150 Fuel injection systems meter fuel, atomize fuel, and
primarily on _____________. _____________.
A. the size of the holes in the fuel nozzle A. create turbulence in the combustion chamber
B. timing of the pump B. aid in completing cylinder scavenging
C. supply pressure to the pump C. inject fuel at the proper time
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D. shape of the combustion chamber D. minimize fuel penetration into the cylinder
Ans: A Ans: C
151 The valve cam slope angle determines the _____________. 152 Engine displacement is equal to the cylinder _____________.
A. engine torque characteristics A. area times the stroke
B. acceleration rate of valve opening and closing B. area times the stroke, times the number of cylinders
C. engine fuel efficiency C. volume times the stroke
D. diameter of intake and exhaust valves D. volume times the stroke, times the number of cylinders
Ans: B Ans: B
153 Cylinders diameters greater than 230 mm require additional safety 154 A loop or cross scavenged engine utilizes the motion of its pistons
devices when the scavenging spaces are openly connected to the and a turbocharger to provide scavenging air. Which of the listed
cylinders. Which of the following devices will be used to protect mechanical designs prevents the air under the pistons from being
such spaces? pumped back through the scavenge ports during the piston

A. Tri-knock fittings A. Masked intake ports

B. Explosion relief valves B. Length of the piston skirt
C. Quick release expansion joints C. Positive pressure from the blower
D. Stacked plate type inlet check valves D. Lower liner seals
Ans: B Ans: B
155 Fuel injectors used in heavy fuel oil systems are usually provided 156 The possibility of damage from operating a diesel engine at critical
with cooling to reduce _____________. speeds is reduced by the use of ______________.
A. cold corrosion of the nozzles A. an isochronous governor
B. fuel viscosity for better atomization B. elastic engine mounts
C. carbon accumulation on the nozzles C. a vibration damper
D. fuel detonation in the cylinders D. a cast iron bed plate with good flexible qualities
Ans: C Ans: C
157 Increasing the load on an engine using a double-helix type injection 158 The linear motion of a diesel engine piston is converted to the rotary
pump varies the effective stroke of the pump to start motion required to drive gears, propeller shafts, and generators by
_____________. the _____________.
A. earlier and end later A. flywheel
B. later and end earlier B. crankshaft
C. and end later C. journal bearings
D. and end earlier D. camshaft
Ans: A Ans: B
159 The duration of fuel injection developed by an individual port-and- 160 The plunger in a jerk pump is rotated until the release port is
helix fuel injection pump, is determined by the ____________. uncovered. If the port remains uncovered all of the time, which of
the listed operations will occur?
A. total pump stroke A. No fuel will be delivered.
B. pump plunger diameter B. The maximum effective stroke will be attained.
C. plunger helix angle C. The fuel delivered to the cylinder will be excessive.
D. effective pump stroke D. The injection nozzle will overheat and carbonize.
Ans: D Ans: A
161 When the lower edge of the spiral begins to uncover the release 162 The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger fuel injection
port in a jerk pump, the _____________. pump is controlled by _____________.
A. pumping continues until the plunger travels its full stroke A. varying the pump discharge pressure
B. effective pumping stroke of the plunger ends B. varying the pump return pressure
C. pressure drops slowly until the full stroke is attained C. rotation of the pump plunger
D. plunger rotates to the zero delivery position until the next stroke D. rotation of the pump barrel
Ans: B Ans: C
163 Which of the following will occur when the lower edge of the spiral, 164 In a diesel engine, pistons are attached to the crankshaft by
on the plunger of a jerk pump, uncovers the spill port? _____________.
A. The plunger immediately reverses direction. A. push rods
B. The pressure drops and fuel delivery stops. B. clearance adjusters
C. The plunger rotates to the no fuel position. C. connecting rods
D. The barrel rotates to the zero effective stroke position. D. piston guides
Ans: B Ans: C
165 Which of the components listed is NOT found in a single acting 166 In diesel engines designed with a crosshead, the motion of the
engine? piston rod can be described as _____________.
A. Exhaust valves A. reciprocating at the piston pin, rotary at the crank pin
B. Scavenging ports B. reciprocating at the crank pin, rotary at the piston pin
C. Combustion chambers C. straight reciprocation
D. Double crankshafts D. straight rotation
Ans: D Ans: C
167 Cast iron pistons used in large propulsion diesel engines are 168 Which of the following manufacturing methods is recommended for
constructed with ____________. diesel engine fuel injection line piping?
A. no taper what so ever A. Cold rolled
B. the skirt being tapered and smaller than the crown B. Electric resistance welded
C. the skirt being tapered and larger than the crown C. Seamless drawn
D. the crown being tapered and smaller than the skirt D. Straight seam
Ans: D Ans: C
169 Successful combustion inside the cylinders of a diesel engine is 170 Which of the combustion parameters listed is used in a diesel
dependent upon _____________. engine, but NOT related to the injection system?
A. fine atomization A. Atomization
B. high temperature B. Metering
C. good mixing of fuel and air C. Effective stroke
D. all of the above D. Penetration
Ans: D Ans: C
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171 Fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel engine is 172 Proper atomization of fuel in diesel engine combustion chambers
_____________. will _____________.
A. dependent on air turbulence A. affect the injection pressure
B. reduced by finer atomization B. improve combustion
C. increased by finer atomization C. reduce compression pressure
D. nonexistent in the precombustion chamber system D. decrease power output
Ans: B Ans: B
173 What is required for crosshead type engines that have a 174 Which of the following statements is an accurate description of fuel
scavenging space in open connection to the cylinder? injection piping used on diesel engines with a cylinder bore of 250
mm and above?
A. The air flow from the scavenging space must always be protected A. The piping shall be so arranged to allow for uncomplicated removal
by plate type check valves and under no circumstance may other of the fuel injection equipment and other associated components
devices be used. located on the cylinder head.
B. A suitable gasket for the interface of both manifolds is necessary to B. All high pressure piping shall be of the double lined type, with the
prevent recirculation of scavenging gases, while additionally outer leakoff line suitably channeled to a dedicated tank.
minimizing exhaust gas leakage.
C. The scavenging space is to be permanently connected to an C. All storage tanks connected to the leakoff piping of fuel injection
approved fire extinguishing system, entirely separate from the fire systems shall be provided with high level alarms and sufficient
extinguishing system of the engine room. means for emptying.
D. The required equipment for a crosshead type engine is totally D. The piping is to be effectively shielded and secured to prevent fuel
dependent upon manufacturer's ability to placate market demands or fuel mist from reaching a source of ignition on the engine or its
surroundings.
Ans: C Ans: D
175 In a diesel engine mechanical-type fuel pump, the delivery check 176 What is the term given to the process of breaking up fuel oil into
valve is opened by ____________. very fine particles for better combustion?
A. push rod action A. Settling
B. cam action B. Straining
C. hydraulic action C. Spraying
D. spring action D. Atomizing
Ans: C Ans: D
177 Differential needle valves used in fuel injectors are directly closed 178 Diesel engine fuel oil leakage should be drained and additional
by _____________. precautions provided to __________.
A. cam action A. return this oil to the proper storage tank
B. spring force B. prevent contamination of lubricating oil by fuel oil
C. fuel oil pressure C. ascertain an accurate measurement of this leakage
D. firing pressure D. drain cooling water system components
Ans: B Ans: B
179 Injection lag can be caused by ____________. 180 When is fuel injected into a cylinder of diesel engines?
A. improper timing of the intake valves A. Before air in the cylinder is compressed.
B. setting of the pump plunger B. After air in the cylinder is compressed.
C. compressibility of the fuel C. After combustion gases in the cylinder have expanded.
D. position of the needle valve D. As air is taken into the cylinder.
Ans: C Ans: B
181 A diesel engine with a combustion chamber located between the 182 The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition
crowns of two pistons is known as a/an _______________. process in a diesel engine, is influenced chiefly by the
____________.
A. double-acting engine A. percent of CO2
B. opposed pistons engine B. range of inflammability
C. single-acting engine C. theoretical fuel/air ratio
D. horizontal acting engine D. length of the ignition delay period
Ans: B Ans: D
183 An exhaust pipe from a internal combustion engine may not need to 184 The driving force of a propeller is transmitted to the hull through
be insulated when _________. the_____________.
A. installed on fishing vessels A. bevel gear teeth
B. it is of the water jacketed type B. helically cut gear teeth
C. it is used as an emergency generator C. sleeve bearings
D. special provision is made by the Chief Engineer D. thrust bearing
Ans: B Ans: D
185 In diesel engines, the four basic events (intake, compression, 186 Fuel supplied by each unit injector on a two-stroke/cycle single
power and exhaust) are performed once in _______________. acting diesel engine is directed into each cylinder at a very high
pressure through the ____________.
A. two crankshaft revolutions in a two-stroke/cycle engine A. high pressure fuel line
B. two power strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine B. spill deflector
C. one power stroke in a two-stroke/cycle engine C. check valve
D. two piston strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine D. spray tip of the injector
Ans: D Ans: D
187 The main reason for using bimetallic piston rings is to 188 The time between injection and ignition of the fuel is known as
______________. _____________.
A. increase engine thermal efficiency A. turbulence lag
B. reduce specific fuel consumption B. after burning ratio
C. reduce the probability of ring fracture C. preignition lag
D. allow for ring expansion D. ignition delay
Ans: C Ans: D
189 The device used to limit engine torque at various engine speeds is 190 Which characteristic of the Otto cycle occurs in the actual diesel
called a ______________. cycle but NOT in the theoretical diesel cycle?
A. speed limiting governor A. No pressure increase during combustion.
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B. variable speed governor B. Rapid pressure increase during combustion.

C. constant speed governor C. Rapid volume increase during combustion.
D. load limiting governor D. No volume increase during combustion.
Ans: D Ans: D
191 What causes diesel fuel to be ignited in the cylinder of an operating 192 The efficient burning of fuel in a diesel engine is dependent upon
diesel engine? the _____________.
A. Spark plug A. temperature of compression
B. Heat of compression B. atomization of the fuel
C. Carburetor C. penetration of the fuel
D. Glow plug D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
193 The purpose of compressing the air within the cylinder of a diesel 194 The blower type crankcase ventilation system ____________.
engine is to __________.
A. produce the heat for ignition A. removes combustible gases from the crankcase
B. decrease injection lag B. prevents the formation of combustible gases in the crankcase

C. increase ignition delay C. cools lubricating oil

D. aid in exhausting burnt gases D. improves cold weather starting
Ans: A Ans: A
195 The most important factor in engine performance is the actual 196 A diesel engine which is rated for normal operation at a crankshaft
power output at the end of the crankshaft available for doing work. speed of 800 RPM, is commonly classed as a ____________.
This is known as _____________.
A. indicated horsepower A. slow-speed diesel
B. brake horsepower B. medium-speed diesel
C. net horsepower C. high-speed diesel
D. friction horsepower D. constant-speed diesel
Ans: B Ans: B
197 The bore of a diesel engine cylinder describes the ________. 198 Crankcase explosion relief valves should be of the ________.

A. swept volume of the cylinder A. return seating type

B. inside diameter of the cylinder B. spring centered type
C. piston displacement in the cylinder C. spring opened type
D. length of the piston stroke D. duplex double acting type
Ans: B Ans: A
199 Diesel engine exhaust valve springs are under compression when 200 Which of the factors listed has the greatest effect on the mechanical
they are __________. efficiency of a diesel engine?
A. wide open only A. Temperature of the intake air
B. partially open only B. Friction within the engine
C. closed only C. Mechanical condition of the supercharger
D. in any position D. Mechanical condition of the turbocharger
Ans: D Ans: B
201 Which of the following statements describes the operating 202 Which of the following statements is correct concerning available
characteristics of a precombustion chamber? astern power for diesel main propulsion systems?
A. When fuel oil is injected into the precombustion chamber, it does A. The astern power of the main propelling machinery is to provide for
not need to be as finely atomized as the fuel oil in diesel engines continuous operation astern at 60% of the ahead rpm at rated
having direct injection. speed.
B. When operating correctly, combustion should not occur in the B. Astern power is to be provided in a sufficient amount to secure
precombustion chamber. proper control of the ship in all normal circumstances.

C. Engines which are designed with precombustion chambers are
more likely to suffer blocked nozzle holes, due to fuel oil impurities,
than engines designed with direct injection.
D. Engines with precombustion chambers, which do not have an
increased compression ratio, are not as difficult to start when cold,
as engines with direct injection.
Ans: A
203 A multi-orifice fuel injection nozzle is usually used with which of the
listed types of combustion chamber?
C. For main propulsion systems without reversing gears, controllable
pitch propellers or electric propulsion drive, running astern is not to
lead to overload conditions.
D. Astern power available will be equal to ahead power when
controllable pitch propellers are utilized, thus discounting the need
for increased operating parameters.
Ans: B
204 Combustion gases formed in the cylinder of a diesel engine are
prevented from blowing past the piston by _____________.

A. Open combustion chamber A. cylinder valves

B. Precombustion chamber B. compression rings
C. Turbulence chamber C. piston skirts
D. Energy cell D. oil rings
Ans: A Ans: B
205 The flywheel reduces speed fluctuations by _____________. 206 Opposed piston diesel engines are classified as __________.

A. maintaining a constant rack setting A. two-stroke/cycle single acting

B. storing kinetic energy B. two-stroke/cycle double acting
C. maintaining equal exhaust pressure C. four-stroke/cycle single acting
D. maintaining even camshaft speed D. four-stroke/cycle double acting
Ans: B Ans: A
207 In a single acting, two-stroke/cycle, diesel generator engine, the 208 In an operating diesel engine, the sealing of the cylinder is the result
power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs ____________. of the compression rings being forced against the cylinder walls by
_____________.
A. once every crankshaft revolution A. oil pressure acting behind the ring
B. once every two crankshaft revolutions B. compression pressure acting beneath the ring
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C. once every piston stroke C. ring expansion from the heat of combustion
D. twice every piston stroke D. combustion gas pressure acting behind the ring
Ans: A Ans: D
209 In a modern internal combustion diesel engine, the load carrying 210 In diesel engines, hydraulic valve lifters are used to
part of the engine is referred to as the _________. ____________.
A. bedplate or base A. reduce valve gear pounding
B. sump or oil pan B. increase valve operating clearance
C. cylinder block C. obtain greater valve lift
D. frame D. create longer valve duration
Ans: A Ans: A
211 The purpose of piston ring end clearance is to ____________. 212 What is the purpose of a hydraulic tappet clearance adjuster?

A. allow the combustion gases to press the ring down on the land A. Insures proper pressure in a hydraulic system.

B. allow the combustion gases to get behind the ring and press it B. Allows for constant contact between the valve stem and the rocker
against the cylinder liner arm regardless of whether the engine is cold or warm.

C. prevent buckling and breaking of the ring C. Eliminates need to remove valve springs.
D. aid in protecting the oil film D. Provides far easier removal of the valve cage.
Ans: C Ans: B
213 What is the swept volume per cylinder per revolution of a six- 214 In a unit injector the amount of fuel that will be forced through the
cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a 580 mm bore and a spray nozzle on each stroke of the plunger depends on
1700 mm stroke operating at 100 RPM? _____________.
A. 0.45 cubic meters (450 L) A. the pump supply pressure
B. 0.90 cubic meters (900 L) B. the slope of the fuel cam
C. 2.7 cubic meters (2700 L) C. how the plunger is rotated
D. 5.4 cubic meters (5400 L) D. the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack
Ans: B Ans: C
215 The intake and exhaust valves used in a diesel engine are returned 216 Valve cages are used on some large diesel engines to
to their seats by _____________. _____________.
A. push rod pressure A. reduce wear on the valve stem
B. spring force B. permit the use of alloy valve seat materials
C. combustion pressure C. reduce heat transfer from the valve seat
D. exhaust pressure D. facilitate valve removal for servicing
Ans: B Ans: D
217 In a diesel engine, an integral liner is one in which thecooling water 218 A diesel engine indicator diagram has an area of 22 cm2 and a
__________. I. flows through the cylinder liner jackets II. touches length of 12.5 cm. If the scale of the indicator spring is 1 mm = 1
the outer side of the liner kg/cm2, what is the cylinder mean effective pressure?

A. I only A. 17.6 kg/cm2

B. II only B. 27.5 kg/cm2
C. both I and II C. 34.5 kg/cm2
D. neither I nor II D. 36.0 kg/cm2
Ans: A Ans: A
219 Which of the listed bearing types is an example of a solid bearing? 220 In which of the scavenging methods listed will the exhaust valve be
located in the cylinder head?
A. Piston gudgeon pin bushing A. Return-flow
B. Turbine bearing B. Uniflow
C. Spring bearing C. Crossflow
D. Diesel engine main bearing D. Direct flow
Ans: A Ans: B
221 A method of finishing diesel engine cylinder walls to aid in the 222 The device most commonly used to measure exhaust gas
proper ring seating and lubrication is known as ____________. temperature of cyclinders is a _____________.
A. ribbed honing A. pyrometer
B. angled honing B. calorimeter
C. cross hatch honing C. dynamometer
D. doubled honing D. tachometer
Ans: C Ans: A
223 The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition in a 224 The lower water seal on a diesel engine wet cylinder liner must
diesel engine is influenced by the length of the ignition delay period allow for liner axial movement. This seal is most commonly a
due to the ______. _____________.
A. valve overlap A. neoprene O-ring
B. volumetric efficiency B. soft copper gasket
C. turbulence of the air change C. precision ground flange joint
D. fuel efficiency D. flexible metallic seal ring
Ans: C Ans: A
225 Which of the devices listed is installed on a diesel engine to isolate 226 Differential type fuel oil nozzles in a diesel engine areclosed directly
some of the crankshaft vibrations caused by rotational and by _____________. I. spring pressure II. fuel oil pressure
reciprocating forces?
A. Planetary gear set A. I only
B. Torsional vibration damper B. II only
C. Friction clutch C. either I or II
D. Air bladder clutch D. neither I nor II
Ans: B Ans: A
227 Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel 228 An efficient seal between the cylinder block and cylinder heads on
injection operate on a combustion cycle which is _________. many diesel engines is obtained with _____________.
 Page 13

A. entirely constant pressure A. graphite packing

B. entirely constant volume B. sealing compound
C. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure C. lubricating oil
D. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure D. gaskets

Ans: C
229 For a four-stroke/cycle medium-speed diesel engine, fuel injection
commences from 7 to 26 crankshaft degrees before top dead
center. After fuel injection commences, how many degrees does
the camshaft rotate before the exhaust valve push rod moves up?
Ans: D
230 Oil for piston cooling is delivered through the connecting rod to a
compartment in the piston head, then distributed as a result of
piston motion, and finally drained to the crankcase through one or
more holes or pipes. This procedure is known as the

A. 21‚-31‚ A. splash method

B. 45‚-55‚ B. spray method
C. 66‚-76‚ C. shaker method
D. 106‚-115‚ D. throw off method
Ans: C Ans: C
231 Poor timing of the fuel injection system is similar to the effects of 232 The "breaking-up" of fuel as it enters a diesel engine cylinder is
poor _____________. known as _____________.
A. metering of the fuel flow A. airification
B. control of the rate of fuel injection B. vaporization
C. atomization of the fuel C. atomization
D. distribution of the fuel D. gasification
Ans: B Ans: C
233 The exhaust ports of a diesel engine using the crossflow 234 Which of the bearings listed below is most widely used for the main
scavenging method are opened and closed by the ____________. and connecting rod bearings of a modern high-speed diesel
engine?
A. reciprocating motion of exhaust valves A. Steel-lined
B. rotary motion of the camshaft B. Poured babbitt, self-aligning
C. reciprocating motion of the piston C. Split roller
D. developed differential D. Precision insert
Ans: C Ans: D
235 Valve rotators are commonly used on which of the listed diesel 236 Exhaust valve openings in a diesel engine cylinder head are made
engine cylinder head valves? as large as practical to _____________.
A. Air starting A. increase back pressure during the exhaust process
B. Cylinder relief B. facilitate periodic replacement of the valves
C. Exhaust C. reduce the pumping loss associated with scavenging
D. Blowdown D. reduce tension on valve springs
Ans: C Ans: C
237 Piston cooling fins are located _____________. 238 Diesel engine mufflers reduce noise by ______________.
A. atop the piston crown A. packing muffler chambers
B. beneath the piston crown B. the use of long head pipes
C. at the base of the piston skirt C. the use of zinc electrodes
D. inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket D. changing exhaust gas direction
Ans: B Ans: D
239 In the cylinder head of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, valves are 240 Which of the listed characteristics is common to both wet and dry
used for _____________. type diesel engine exhaust mufflers?
A. air intake A. Both mufflers contain moving parts.
B. a fuel outlet B. They never require any maintenance.
C. cooling water inlets C. They function as spark arresters.
D. exhausting combustion gas D. Both have a dust collecting chamber.
Ans: D Ans: C
241 The intake ports of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are opened and 242 Compared to four-stroke/cycle engines, two-stroke/cycle diesel
closed by the action of the _____________. engines have the disadvantage of _____________.
A. camshaft A. less even torque
B. piston movement B. higher cylinder head temperatures
C. exhaust valves C. fewer power strokes per revolution
D. vertical drive D. greater weight/size requirements
Ans: B Ans: B
243 Which of the listed conditions will affect the mean effective 244 In comparing engines of equal horsepower, higher exhaust gas
pressure the most in the cylinders of a diesel engine? temperatures occur in a/an _____________.
A. TBN of the lubricating oil A. opposed-piston engine
B. Temperature of the lube oil B. double-acting engine
C. Completeness in the mixing of the fuel and air C. two-stroke/cycle engine
D. Temperature of the cooling (sea) water D. four-stroke/cycle engine
Ans: C Ans: D
245 The primary purpose of the open combustion chamber used in 246 Which of the bearings listed are most widely used for the main and
diesel engines is to _____________. connecting rod bearings of a diesel engine?
A. improve piston cooling A. Roller
B. stratify the fuel charge B. Sleeve
C. prevent carbon buildup C. Precision insert
D. provide a place for combustion D. Mechanical lubricators
Ans: D Ans: C
247 Which of the following is an example of a solid bearing? 248 The upper section of a piston is called the _____________.
A. Piston pin bushing A. land
B. Turbo-generator turbine bearing B. skirt
C. Spring bearing C. crown
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D. Thrust bearing D. plate

Ans: A Ans: C
249 In a diesel engine, the main bearings are used between the 250 Which of the listed bearing installations is subjected to swinging
_____________. motion?
A. connecting rod and the crankshaft A. Crankshaft journal
B. gudgeon pin and the connecting rod B. Crankpin bearings
C. camshaft and the engine block C. gudgeon pin bearings
D. crankshaft and the engine block D. aluminum piping with expansion loops
Ans: D Ans: C
251 Which of the bearings listed is most widely used for main and 252 The proper location for journal bearing oil grooves is
connecting rod bearings of modern diesel engines? _______________.
A. Steel-lined A. in the region of the load bearing surface
B. Poured babbitt, self-aligning B. as a side relief where the two shells meet
C. Split roller C. at the bottom of the bearing
D. Precision insert D. halfway between bottom and where shells meet
Ans: D Ans: B
253 Fuel is admitted to a diesel engine cylinder through the 254 Directional intake ports in diesel engines are used to
_____________. _____________.
A. intake valves A. reduce air charge turbulence
B. carburetor B. induce air swirl
C. exhaust ports C. deflect hot combustion gas away from the valves
D. scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder walls D. lock all safety interlock switches closed
Ans: D Ans: B
255 Telescopic pipes to the piston of a large slow-speed main 256 How are hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters on diesel engine
propulsion diesel engine are designed to prevent __________. rocker arm assemblies lubricated?

A. excessive crankcase pressure A. Cup-fed grease

B. excessive lube oil temperature B. Sealed self-lubricators
C. contamination of the lube oil by water C. Metered hydraulic oil supply
D. All of the above are correct. D. losses to escaping exhaust gases
Ans: C Ans: D
257 A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine uses sea water 258 The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel
to directly cool the _____________. engine is to warn of ____________.
A. cylinder heads A. excessive mist density in the crankcase
B. exhaust valves B. excessively high crankcase vacuum
C. scavenging air C. excessively high bearing temperatures
D. injectors D. excessive carbon buildup in the lube oil
Ans: C Ans: A
259 One method of constructing large marine diesel engines and 260 Which of the fuel injection systems listed uses a spring loaded
reducing the total engine frame weight is through ____________. differential spray needle valve and an individual pump for each
cylinder?
A. casting interlocking components A. Common-rail injection
B. welding plates to form sections for assembly B. Air injection
C. forging integral components C. Jerk pump injection
D. main shaft flexible coupling D. Distributor injection
Ans: B Ans: C
261 Concerning diesel propelled vessels, the astern power is to provide 262 The crankcase of many diesel engines are kept under a slight
for continuous operation astern ___________. vacuum by the ______________.
A. equal to that available for ahead operation A. scavenging action of the piston
B. at 70 percent of the ahead rpm at rated speed B. crankcase exhaust fan
C. while underway and under all normal conditions C. gland exhausting manometer
D. at 70 percent of the ahead rpm of average continous sea speed D. piston type vacuum pump taking suction off a differential
manometer
Ans: B Ans: B
263 Which of the fuel systems listed combines the injection pump and 264 In a unit injector, an upper helix and lower helix are machined in the
the injection nozzle in one housing? lower part of the plunger for _____________.
A. Common rail A. facilitating plunger rotation
B. Unit injector B. positioning the control sleeve
C. Air injection C. accurate metering of the fuel oil
D. Hydraulic governing D. eliminating injection lag
Ans: B Ans: C
265 Regarding a Diesel engine crankcase, the general arrangement 266 In a diesel engine, internal combustion causes the piston to be
and installation should preclude the possibility of ________. moved by _____________.

A. free entry of air to the crankcase A. the pressure of gases developed

B. water entering the crankcase while engine washdowns are being B. the simple admission of fuel and air into the combustion space only
performed
C. excessive oil leakage during periods of increased blowby C. specially designed parts connected to a shaft
D. all of the above D. the concept of reciprocity
Ans: A Ans: A
267 What function is provided by the crankcase ventilation system on 268 For diesel engine piston cooling, lubricating oil can be supplied to
some diesel engines? the pistons by a/an ____________.
A. Increases the sludge forming tendency of lube oil. A. oil spray
B. Prevents the accumulation of combustible gases. B. oil bath
C. Improves lube oil cooling. C. oil control rings
D. Improve cold weather starting D. drilled passage through the camshaft
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Ans: B Ans: A
269 The purpose of the delivery check valve used in a diesel fuel 270 In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at
injection jerk pump is to _____________. _____________.
A. assist in a quick cutoff of fuel injection A. twice the crankshaft speed
B. allow oil backflow from the injector to the helix B. half the crankshaft speed
C. reduce fuel oil pressure between injection strokes C. the same speed as the crankshaft
D. meter the quantity of fuel delivered D. a speed independent of the crankshaft
Ans: A Ans: C
271 The primary function of a fuel delivery check valve assembly is to 272 For any piston ring to operate smoothly without scuffing, the ring
_____________. must be _____________.
A. deliver proper fuel quantity to the injection nozzle A. of a material harder than the cylinder liner
B. provide rapid fuel injection cutoff B. properly lubricated
C. control fuel quantity entering the pump body C. prevented from compressing
D. control fuel pressure delivered to the combustion chamber D. prevented from rotating during engine operation
Ans: B Ans: B
273 The upper piston rings in large, slow-speed, two-stroke/ cycle diesel 274 Fuel injector nozzles are usually of the multi-orifice type with the
engines are most effectively lubricated by oil _____________. number and placement of the holes arranged according to the
_____________.
A. fed from mechanical lubricators A. type of piston rings
B. thrown off from the main bearings B. pressure of the fuel system
C. supplied from wick fed drip lubricators C. size of the pump plunger spring
D. flow from a centrifugal or banjo oiler D. design of the combustion chamber
Ans: A Ans: D
275 The delivery valve installed in a port and helix fuel injection pump is 276 The shape of a diesel engine cam determines the ___________.
designed to ____________.
A. maintain constant pressure in the discharge line A. points of opening and closing of the valve
B. maintain a column of fuel in the line B. velocity of opening and closing of the valve
C. accurately meter the quantity of fuel injected C. amount of the valve lift from its seat
D. close with hydraulic action D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
277 Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of 278 If all other conditions such as bore, stroke, speed, and mean
the crankcase such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar effective pressures are equal, a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will
drives when the __________. develop approximately _____________.
A. gross volume of such spaces exceeds 0.6+D340 cubic meters A. the same indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine

B. possibility of explosion exists due to the formation of volatile gases B. one half the indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine

C. unit is operating in extreme overload conditions C. twice the indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine

D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic meter D. one power stroke for every two crankshaft revolutions
Ans: A Ans: C
279 In order to reverse the rotation of a two-stroke/cycle loop 280 A viscous damper, as used on a marine diesel, is a sealed
scavenged, direct reversing, propulsion diesel engine, the cam precision built device which dampens the torsional vibrations in the
positions must be changed for the _____________. _____________.
A. starting air and fuel pumps A. camshaft
B. piston cooling pumps B. flywheel
C. exhaust valves C. crankshaft
D. all of the above D. thrust shaft
Ans: A Ans: C
281 The rotary motion of a diesel engine crankshaft is obtained from the 282 Indirect cooling of fuel injector nozzle holders for diesel engines is
up and down motion of the piston via the _________. accomplished primarily by ____________.

A. camshaft A. heat conduction into the injected fuel oil

B. reduction gears B. heat conduction into the water jacket wall
C. rocker arm C. water circulation through passages in the holder
D. connecting or piston rod D. fuel oil circulation through passages in the holder
Ans: D Ans: B
283 Diesel engine main and connecting rod precision bearings are 284 The port-and-helix metering pumps, used in diesel fuel injection
made in halves. Each half exceeds one-half the bearing systems, are usually designed to produce a constant beginning
circumference by a small amount. The small amount is termed and a variable ending of fuel injection. These pumps are usually
_____________. _____________.
A. clearance A. timed for port opening
B. crush B. timed for port closing
C. pitch C. controlled by rack movement
D. thrust D. controlled by plunger stroke
Ans: B Ans: B
285 The end of fuel injection in a port-and-helix metering pump can be 286 The main reason counterweights are added to crankshafts is to
controlled by _____________. _____________.
A. uncovering a fuel port in the pump barrel A. reduce piston side thrust
B. covering a fuel port in the pump barrel B. reduce crankshaft end thrust
C. closing the fuel pump delivery valve C. provide uniform loading and wear of main bearings
D. opening the fuel pump delivery valve D. increase the strength of the crank webs
Ans: A Ans: C
287 For a given size engine, the two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will 288 In a jerk pump, the amount of fuel that will be forced through the
deliver more power than a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine because spray nozzle on each upward stroke of the plunger depends on
____________. _____________.
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A. it has a longer power stroke A. the pump supply pressure

B. more air gets into the cylinder each stroke B. the slope of the fuel cam
C. it develops twice as many power strokes at the same speed C. how the plunger is rotated
D. higher combustion pressure is developed D. the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack
Ans: C Ans: C
289 Modern marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel injectors 290 The amount of fuel delivered by a unit injector is controlled by the
operate on a combustion cycle which is _________. _____________.
A. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure A. camshaft
B. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure B. main spring

C. entirely constant pressure C. rack position

D. entirely constant volume D. nozzle orifice size
Ans: A Ans: C
291 The diesel engine valve subjected to most severe conditions of 292 For a given fuel, a change in the compression ratio will affect the
service is the ____________. ignition lag by which of the listed means?
A. cylinder exhaust valve A. An increase in compression ratio will increase the ignition lag.
B. air starting valve B. An increase in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag.

C. air inlet valve C. A decrease in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag.

D. cylinder relief valve D. A decrease in ignition lag will increase the compression ratio
Ans: A Ans: B
293 The lower section of a piston is called the _____________. 294 What is the function of an engine's stationary parts?
A. land A. To add power to the engine.
B. skirt B. To keep the engine firmly attached to its supporting base.
C. crown C. To keep moving engine parts in their proper relative positions.

D. plate D. To rotate the crankshaft.

Ans: B Ans: C
295 Fuel oil discharged to the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the 296 Proper dispersion of fuel in a diesel engine cylinder is dependent
_____________. upon the _____________.
A. turbocharger A. injection pressure
B. injector nozzle tip B. shape of combustion space
C. carburetor C. turbulence in combustion space
D. fuel oil pump D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
297 In a diesel engine, crosshatch on the liner surface aids 298 Why is it necessary to compress the air charge in the cylinders of a
in___________.I. rapid ring seating II. the retention of lube oil diesel engine?
A. I only is correct A. To ignite the fuel.
B. II only is correct B. To insure pumpimg losses are held to a minimum.
C. both I and II are correct C. To increase fuel consumption.
D. neither I or II are correct D. To keep exhaust temperature low.
Ans: C Ans: A
299 Which of the following statements concerning a closed type fuel 300 Many diesel engine exhaust valves are being constructed with
injection nozzle is true? hollow stems filled with sodium in order to _____________.

A. The hole type of a closed nozzle is self-cleaning. A. increase overall valve strength due to the high gas pressures

B. Multi-hole type nozzles are only suitable for use in engines with B. provide added wear protection against today's corrosive quality of
precombustion chambers. fuel
C. Most closed nozzles open inward under the pressure acting on the C. assist in dissipating heat due to the extreme operating
differential area of the needle valve. temperatures
D. The pintle type nozzles are most susceptible to carbon deposits D. reduce the overall weight of the valve thus helping eliminate valve
building up in and around the orifice. spring surge and hammering
Ans: C Ans: C
301 Turbulence of the compressed air charge in a diesel engine cylinder 302 Thin bronze rings are inserted in the face of some chromium plated
increases _____________. piston rings to _____________.
A. ignition lag A. promote piston ring seating in the cylinder
B. piston side thrust B. prevent rapid wear on the ring face
C. the efficiency of the engine C. provide better lubrication of the piston ring
D. compression pressure D. produce an even glaze on the cylinder
Ans: C Ans: A
303 In the Otto cycle, the fuel/air mixture is ignited at what point and by 304 Critical speed in diesel engines occurs when engine torque
what means? pulsations become _____________.
A. At TDC by heat generated by compression. A. opposed to the crankshaft rocking couple
B. Just before TDC by heat generated by compression. B. resonant with the crankshaft natural frequency
C. Just before TDC by spark ignition. C. critical fore and aft crankshaft vibrations
D. At TDC by spark ignition D. horizontal whipping motions of the crankshaft
Ans: C Ans: B
305 A diesel engine piston ring face is in direct contact with the 306 A secondary function of diesel engine piston rings is to
_____________. _____________.
A. top of the ring groove A. reduce friction losses in the engine
B. cylinder liner oil film B. absorb the piston side thrust
C. bottom of the ring groove C. prevent cylinder liner wear
D. back of the ring groove D. prevent excess lubricant from reaching the combustion space
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Ans: B Ans: D
307 Fuel is ignited in a diesel engine cylinder by ____________. 308 Barrel face, taper face, grooved, and chrome plated are all types of
diesel engine _____________.
A. a spark plug A. pistons
B. injectors B. piston rings
C. the heat of compression C. piston skirts
D. increasing jacket water temperatures D. cylinder liners
Ans: C Ans: B
309 Injectors for use with heavy fuel oil must be cooled by either water 310 Which of the equal power diesel engines listed, running at the same
or light oil to _____________. speed, is least affected by exhaust back pressure?
A. prevent heat corrosion to internal components A. A four-stroke/cycle "V" type engine
B. increase fuel delivery rate and economy B. A two-stroke/cycle "V" type engine
C. prevent preignition C. An in-line two-stroke/cycle engine
D. avoid carbonisation of the nozzle tips D. An opposed piston engine
Ans: D Ans: A
311 In a diesel engine, the time taken to heat the fuel particles, turn 312 In a diesel engine, the contact surfaces of the piston compression
them into vapor, and bring about combustion is called rings are those in contact with the___________. I. back of the ring
_____________. groove II. bottom of the ring groove

A. injection lag A. I only

B. ignition delay B. II only
C. compression ignition C. both I and II
D. turbulance lag D. neither I nor II
Ans: B Ans: B
313 The thermal energy produced by an internal combustion engine is 314 The reason some two-stroke/cycle, diesel engine piston rings are
transformed into ______________. pinned to prevent rotation, is _____________.
A. combustion energy A. cylinder lubricant is spread more evenly on the cylinder wall
B. internal energy B. less blow-by as the pin seals the end gap
C. external energy C. to keep the ring ends from catching in the scavenging ports
D. mechanical energy D. to promote more even ring wear
Ans: D Ans: C
315 Oil control rings are designed with slotted holes to 316 Precombustion chambers differ from turbulence chambers in that
_____________. precombustion chambers _____________.
A. decrease ring contact area and cut down heat transfer A. allow fuel injection directly into the space above the piston
B. decrease contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall B. do not contain the fuel injector nozzle tip
C. increase contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall C. contain the major portion of the total clearance volume
D. permit excess oil to drain back to the sump D. contain a smaller portion of the total clearance volume
Ans: D Ans: D
317 The primary purpose of oil control rings on a diesel engine piston is 318 The compression ratio of a diesel engine refers to the ratio between
to _____________. the _______________.
A. provide a reservoir for cylinder lubrication A. piston area to connecting rod length
B. pump oil into the combustion space for cylinder cooling B. cylinder volumes at top dead center and at bottom dead center

C. prevent excessive lubricating oil consumption C. engine cylinder size to piston size
D. allow hydraulic oil film formation on the cylinder D. the number of compression strokes for a given horsepower
Ans: C Ans: B
319 In describing basic diesel engine operation, the term "event" refers 320 The ratio of the brake horsepower to the indicated horsepower of a
to _____________. diesel engine is its ______________.
A. the production of high pressure gases A. thermal efficiency
B. the removal of expended combustion gases B. mechanical efficiency
C. the admission of air to the cylinder C. brake thermal efficiency
D. All of the above D. volumetric efficiency
Ans: D Ans: B
321 Slots are provided in a diesel engine piston oil scraper ring to 322 The function of the piston compression rings used in a diesel
_____________. engine is to _____________.
A. decrease piston side thrust pressure A. seal the space between the piston and liner
B. allow for thermal expansion of the ring within the ring land B. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner
C. permit drainage of excess oil to the engine sump C. reduce the amount of combustion gas blow-by
D. make it more flexible for scraping cylinder surfaces D. All of the above.
Ans: C Ans: D
323 How are the pressure and temperature affected in a diesel engine 324 Modern marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel injection,
cylinder during compression? operate on a combustion cycle which is _________.
A. Pressure and temperature decrease A. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure
B. Pressure and temperature increase B. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure

C. Pressure decreases and temperature increases C. entirely constant pressure

D. Pressure increases and temperature decreases D. entirely constant volume
Ans: B Ans: A
325 If the compression ratio is increased on any diesel engine, 326 Piston compression rings used in a diesel engine function to
_____________. _____________.
A. the expansion ratio will decrease A. transfer heat from the cylinder to the piston
B. combustion will be slowed down B. scrape oil from the sides of the piston
C. thermal efficiency will decrease C. seal the combustion space from the crankcase
D. thermal efficiency will increase D. prevent any piston contact with the cylinder liner
Ans: D Ans: C
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327 At bottom dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually 328 A diesel engine exhaust valve spring is under compression when
coincides with the _____________. _____________.
A. angularity of the piston motion A. the valve is open
B. inertia moment from the piston B. the piston is at top dead center
C. centerline of the cylinder C. the valve is closed
D. centerline of the king pin D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
329 A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is ______. 330 The purpose of the flywheel is to ______________.
A. opening the exhaust ports A. provide energy to operate the engine between power impulses

B. placed on top of the engine along its centerline B. neutralize the primary inertia force of the crankshaft
C. farthest from the cylinder head C. reduce the shock of starting loads on the main bearings
D. nearest to the cylinder head D. prevent the engine from operating at critical speed
Ans: D Ans: A
331 A seven cylinder, two-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine with 332 What is the metric brake horse power developed per cylinder by an
a cylinder indicated horsepower calculated as 1350 kW and brake 83% efficient, six cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a
horsepower measured at 7466 kW has a mechanical efficiency of cylinder constant of 0.998 and a mean effective pressure of 15
______________. kg/cm2 at 100 RPM?
A. 0.18 A. 1,497 kW
B. 0.55 B. 1,242 kW
C. 0.79 C. 1,116 kW
D. 0.83 D. 926 kW
Ans: C Ans: B
333 In a diesel engine, pistons are attached to the crankshaft by 334 One advantage of dry cylinder liners used in a diesel engine is the
_____________. _____________.
A. push rods A. lower thermal expansion rates than wet liners
B. piston rods B. greater heat transfer rate than wet liners
C. connecting rods C. greater wear resistance than wet liners
D. piston guides D. procedure to replace dry liners is simpler than for wet liners
Ans: C Ans: D
335 Vibrations from diesel engines and engine driven equipment are 336 Which of the following statements concerning fuel atomization in a
isolated from the hull structure by _____________. diesel engine cylinder is correct?
A. torsional-vibration dampers A. The greater the atomization, the greater the penetration.
B. harmonic balancers B. The greater the atomization, the lesser the penetration.
C. a detuner flywheel C. The degree of atomization has nothing to do with the degree of
penetration.
D. flexible engine mountings D. Atomization and penetration are one and the same.
Ans: D Ans: B
337 The most rapid period of fuel combustion occurring in a diesel 338 When comparing different fuels for different engines, the ignition
cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches top dead quality of diesel fuel oils becomes a less critical consideration as
center and ______________. ______________.
A. when fuel injection has been completed A. the amount of lube oil additives increase
B. when fuel vaporization has been completed B. piston speeds increase
C. should continue through the afterburning period C. injection pressures decrease
D. should be completed after the top dead centre D. engine speeds decrease
Ans: D Ans: D
339 The power developed by a large slow-speed main propulsion diesel 340 An indicator card or pressure-volume diagram, shows graphically
engine is dependent upon the ______________. the ____________.
A. quantity of air it takes in and retains in the cylinders during a given A. relationships between pressure and volume during one stroke of
time period the engine
B. proportion of trapped air that is utilized in the combustion process B. relationships between pressure and volume during one cycle of the
engine
C. thermodynamic efficiency of the engine cycle C. volume of the engine
D. all of the above D. compression ratio of the engine
Ans: D Ans: B
341 Cylinder linings constructed as an integral part of the block, are 342 One end of a diesel engine cylinder is sealed by the cylinder head
characterized by which of the following disadvantages? and the other end by the _____________.

A. They conduct heat poorly. A. crankcase

B. They are expensive. B. piston
C. They cannot be replaced. C. cylinder liner
D. They require special tools for removal. D. crank cheek
Ans: C Ans: B
343 Where is the charge for an air starting system stored? 344 Maximum power of a diesel engine is attained ____________.

A. Air compressor when the engine RPM is pulled down by overload

A.
B. Pressurized tank at rated engine RPM
B.
C. Distributor assembly at 95% of rated engine RPM
C.
D. cylinder check valve at 95% of a properly adjusted governor RPM with the engine under
D.
full load
Ans: B Ans: B
345 Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams, which serve to 346 During the fuel injection period, fuel pressure must exceed cylinder
_____________. gas pressure to _____________.
A. keep piston crown temperatures elevated for smoother combustion A. ensure penetration and distribution of the fuel in the combustion
chamber
 Page 19

B. reduce the possibility of overheating the top compression ring B. ensure the needle valve is flushed clean during each injection

C. help retain the heat of compression to prevent ignition delay C. prevent combustion gas blowback into the open needle valve
D. help retain the heat of compression to prevent combustion knock D. prevent reflected pressure waves when the needle valve closes

Ans: B Ans: A
347 The difference in crank lead between the upper and lower cranks of 348 Telescopic pipes to the piston of a large slow speed main
an opposed piston engine causes the lower crankshaft to propulsion diesel engine are designed to prevent
____________. _________________.
A. receive less power than the upper shaft A. excessive crankcase pressure
B. receive more power than the upper shaft B. excessive lub oil temperature
C. operate the fuel oil booster pump C. contamination of the lub oil by water
D. rotate faster than the upper shaft D. contamination of the cooling watyer by the lub oil
Ans: B Ans: C
349 The exhaust system for a turbocharged two-stroke/cycle diesel 350 Which of the diesel engine exhaust mufflers listed is usually
engine functions to _____________. equipped with a spark arrestor?
A. discharge exhaust gases and smoke A. A wet-type exhaust muffler
B. furnish energy to the turbocharger B. A constant pressure muffler
C. reduce engine room noise C. A dry-type exhaust muffler
D. all of the above D. A constant velocity muffler
Ans: D Ans: C
351 When monitoring diesel engine performance, the most useful 352 The exhaust system of a diesel engine is usually designed to
instrument to use is the _____________. remove exhaust gases and to _____________.
A. dwell-tachometer A. provide exhaust back pressure
B. exhaust gas pyrometer B. prevent exhaust smoke emissions
C. fuel flow rate meter C. power a reciprocating supercharger
D. exhaust gas analyzer D. muffle exhaust gas noise
Ans: B Ans: D
353 A water jacket is placed around the exhaust manifoldsof propulsion 354 In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the exhaust gases are expelled
diesel engines to ________. from the cylinder by the ______________.
A. reduce heat radiation to the engine room A. exhaust manifold
B. aid in preventing turbocharger overheating B. valve bridge
C. condense and drain moisture from exhaust gases C. pressure of the fresh air charge
D. dampen exhaust gas pulsations in the manifold D. valve adjusting gear
Ans: A Ans: C
355 Diesel engine mufflers or silencers reduce the engine exhaust 356 The exhaust gases in a supercharged two-stroke/cycle diesel
noise by ________________. engine are expelled from the cylinder by __________.
A. passing the exhaust through long head pipes A. pumping action of the piston
B. diffusing exhaust vibrations through activated carbon baffles B. pressure of the fuel charge

C. increasing the exhaust gas velocity C. vacuum developed in the manifold

D. reducing the exhaust gas velocity D. pressure of the fresh air charge
Ans: D Ans: D
357 Exhaust gases in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are discharged 358 A disadvantage of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is
through _____________. ___________.
A. the air valves A. more power strokes per revolution
B. a roots-type blower B. the use of scavenge air
C. exhaust ports or valves C. more complicated valve gear
D. direct to the atmosphere D. higher working temperatures of the piston and cylinder
Ans: C Ans: D
359 Many diesel engines have pistons with concave heads to 360 In a single-acting diesel engine, the cylinder liner area that is most
_____________. difficult to lubricate is the ______________.
A. decrease air turbulence and improve fuel mixing A. major thrust side
B. increase air turbulence and improve fuel mixing B. minor thrust side
C. prevent fuel afterburning when injection ends C. top circumference
D. prolong fuel afterburning when injection ends D. bottom circumference
Ans: B Ans: C
361 Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of 362 Which of the following design features will reduce the possibility of
the crankcase, such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar overheating the top compression rings of a cast iron piston?
drives, when the _______.
A. overall volume of such spaces exceeds 0.6 cubic meters A. The top ring is located as close to the piston rim as possible.
B. possibility of explosion exists due to the formation of volatile gases B. The inside surface of the piston head is rounded into the ring belt.

C. unit is operating in extreme overload conditions C. A nickel-bearing insert is cast into the top ring groove.
D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic meter D. A heat dam design is sometimes used in the piston head
Ans: D Ans: D
363 Which of the following statements concerning the factors affecting 364 Which of the following statements is a description of the combustion
ignition delay is correct? cycle?
A. An increase in intake air temperature will increase ignition delay. A. The mechanics of engine operation.

B. An increase in coolant temperature will decrease ignition delay. B. The number of piston strokes involved.

C. An increase in combustion chamber turbulence will increase ignition C. The heat process which produces the force to initiate the movement
delay. of the engine parts.
D. An increase in compression ratio will increase ignition delay. D. The mechanical equivalent of heat.
Ans: B Ans: C
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365 In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to
the piston is ______________.
A. against the crosshead during power stroke and away from the
crosshead during the compression stroke
B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away
from the crosshead during the power stroke
C. against the crosshead during the power and compression strokes
D. away from the crosshead during the power and compression
strokes
Ans: C
367 Which of the construction techniques listed is used on new piston
rings to facilitate run-in or seating?
A. Special ring facings, such as a thin bearing surface of antifriction
metal.
B. The oil control ring face is machined at an angle of 10 degrees.
C. The ring diameter, when free, is machined slightly smaller than the
cylinder bore to allow for expansion at high combustion
temperatures.
D. Oil control rings maintain continuous oil film.
Ans: A
369 The intake air ducting to a diesel engine should not draw from an
area on deck where flammable vapors released from tanks are
present, because ____________.
A. flammable vapors will accelerate corrosion of the turbocharger
B. the engine may overspeed and the normal governor or overspeed
trip will not be able to secure the engine
C. the flammable vapors will result in an excessively rich mixture
which will increase the brake horsepower output
D. all of the above
Ans: B
371 The purpose of the delivery check valve used in a diesel fuel
injection jerk pump is to _____________. I. assist in a
quick cutoff of fuel injection II. prevent fuel oil backflow from the
injection pump
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II
Ans: A Ans:
373 A large low-speed main propulsion engine must be operated with
one cylinder secured. When the engine was stopped, the affected
cylinder ended in a position preventing the engine from being
restarted. Which of the following actions should be taken
A. Turn the shaft with the turning gear while applying starting air.
B. Increase starting air pressure by small amounts until the air
pressure is high enough to crank the engine over.
C. Admit starting air in the direction opposite to the desired direction,
then restart in the desired direction.
D. Open the indicator cocks on those cylinders on compression and
apply increased starting air pressure.
Ans: C
375 Oil control rings used in two-stroke/cycle diesel engines are located
near the bottom of the piston skirt in order to _____________.
A. increase the liner area covered by the oil film
B. maintain an oil film on the lower liner where scuffing is prevalent
C. keep excess oil away from intake and exhaust ports
D. help cushion piston skirt side thrust by providing a hydrodynamic oil
wedge
Ans: C
377 In a diesel engine, the time period between fuel injection and
ignition is usually defined as _____________.
A. injection duration
B. ignition timing
C. precombustion lag
D. ignition delay
366 One of the advantages in the use of a dry liner over a wet liner is
_____________.
A. it is fitted with neoprene O-ring seals
B. the honing process makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film
C. there is less likelihood of water leaking into the combustion space
D. it fits more loosely due to a decrease in heat transfer through the
composite wall
Ans: C
368 In diesel engines, the four basic events (intake, compression,
power, and exhaust) are performed once in ______________.
A. one complete crankshaft revolution in a two-stroke/cycle engine
B. two crankshaft revolutions in a two-stroke/cycle engine
C. two power strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine
D. two piston strokes in a four-stroke/cycle engine
Ans: A
370 In a two-stroke/cycle, opposed piston, diesel engine, one crankshaft
operates several crank angles in advance of the other crankshaft to
_____________.
A. allow the exhaust ports to open and close before the inlet ports
close
B. allow the scavenge ports to open and close simultaneously with the
exhaust ports
C. prevent the exhaust piston from reaching TDC and BDC before the
intake piston
D. prevent scavenge air pressure buildup in the cylinders
Ans: A
372 In a diesel engine, what is the advantage of
precombustionchambers over the open type of combustion
chamber? I. Precombustion chambers permit coarser fuel
atomization. II. Precombustion chambers allow lower fuel injection
pressure.
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II
C
374 The average exhaust temperature of a two-stroke/cycle diesel
engine with a turbine-driven supercharger is lower than a similar
four-stroke/cycle diesel engine at equal loads because
____________.
A. two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have a higher M.E.P. than four-
stroke/cycle diesel engines
B. four-stroke/cycle diesel engine exhaust is cooled by scavenging air
C. two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have a lower M.E.P. than four-
stroke/cycle diesel engines
D. the opening of the two-stroke/cycle diesel exhaust ports or valves
occurs much later than in four-stroke/cycle diesel engines
Ans: C
376 Which of the following statements represents the function of the
compression rings installed at the top of a diesel engine piston?
A. Transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner.
B. Control the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber.
C. Prevent damage to ring groove inserts by acting as a heat dam.
D. Dissipate combustion chamber gas pressure by channeling it
through the ring gap.
Ans: A
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Ans: D
MOTOR - OPERATION
378 A loose crosshead plunger assembly in a metering or 379 In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is
proportioning pump will cause _____________. directly related to engine ________________.
A. rapid wear on the crosshead A. compression ratio
B. damage to the stroke adjustment arm B. valve size
C. rapid wear on the plunger packing C. fuel pressure
D. damage to the pressure compensator valve D. cylinder clearance volume
Ans: C Ans: B
380 A naturally aspirated diesel engine at full throttle will have an intake 381 An increase in the air inlet manifold pressure of a diesel engine will
manifold pressure ____________. result in a/an ____________.
A. slightly less than atmospheric pressure A. decrease in maximum cylinder pressure
B. approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times B. increase in ignition lag
C. that is widely fluctuating C. decrease in fuel consumption per kilowatt-hour
D. constantly decreasing as engine load increases D. decrease in exhaust manifold pressure
Ans: A Ans: C
382 On a large diesel engine installation, crankshaft axial alignment is 383 The crankcases of many diesel engines are kept under a slight
maintained by the ______________. vacuum to _____________.
A. piston rod guides A. improve fuel economy
B. engine thrust bearing B. increase the air charge velocity
C. crosshead bearing C. reduce the risk of explosion
D. main shaft flexible coupling D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: C
384 Maintaining the lowest possible scavenging air temperature at all 385 On a turbocharged, medium-speed, diesel engine, which of the
times is not recommended due to the possibility of the following problems is an indication of a restricted air intake
________________. passage?
A. air charge density becoming too high A. engine is hard to start
B. piston crown surfaces becoming too cold B. engine misses
C. formation of excessive quantities of condensate C. surges at governed RPM
D. compression pressure being greatly reduced D. coolant temperature is too low
Ans: C Ans: A
386 An indication of a diesel engine air intake being partially clogged, is 387 Load control on a diesel engine is accomplished by
____________. _____________.
A. low firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures A. regulating the speed of the turbocharger
B. low firing pressure and normal exhaust temperatures B. rotating the fuel injector pump plunger
C. high firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures C. regulating the speed of the fuel oil transfer pump
D. high firing pressure and high exhaust temperatures D. changing engine timing
Ans: B Ans: B
388 Operating a diesel engine for prolonged periods, with a closed 389 The air supplied to a diesel engine is compressed to___________.I.
freshwater cooling system, at temperatures lower than the normal provide heat for the ignition of the fuel II. decrease injection delay
design temperature can cause _____________.

A. the formation of sulphuric acid A. I only is correct

B. a decrease in lube oil viscosity B. II only is correct
C. a decrease in cooling water pH C. both I and II are correct
D. a thermostat failure D. neither I or II are correct
Ans: A Ans: A
390 Fuel droplets injected into a diesel engine cylinder must have 391 Loss of lubricating oil pressure to the main propulsion diesel engine
adequate penetration to _____________. will actuate a/an _____________.
A. prolong the ignition delay period A. overspeed trip
B. ensure the beginning of fuel injection B. audible/visual alarm
C. thoroughly utilize the air charge C. the ships/boats general alarm
D. allow controlled fuel combustion D. reserve oil storage tank
Ans: C Ans: B
392 The amount of fuel injected into a cylinder by a unit injector is 393 The dripping of fuel from an injector nozzle after injection
controlled by _____________. terminates, often results in ____________.
A. the firing pressure in the cylinder A. early combustion
B. a metering helix B. incomplete combustion and decreased fuel consumption
C. varying the length of the plunger stroke C. coking and blocking of the fuel nozzles
D. varying the clearance between the injector cam and the injector D. decreased cylinder wall temperatures and increased exhaust gas
rocker arm temperatures
Ans: B Ans: C
394 The amount of fuel delivered for each cycle must be in accordance 395 The knock occurring when a cold diesel engine is started and
with the engine load, and the same quantity of fuel must be continues while running at low speed, but stops when the engine
delivered to each cylinder for each power stroke at that load. reaches normal operating speed and temperature, is
Which of the following statements describes this requirement? _________________.

A. Proper timing A. caused by retarded injection timing

B. Accurate metering B. caused by a mechanical defect in one cylinder
C. Suitable injection rate C. caused by high fuel injection pressures
D. Suitable atomization rate D. normal for these conditions
Ans: B Ans: D
396 The most crucial time for any bearing with regards to lubrication is 397 Which of the listed diesel engine operating conditions should be
_____________. checked immediately after any diesel engine is started?
A. during low loads A. Exhaust temperature
B. after proper oil viscosity is reached B. Lube oil level
 Page 22

C. during starting C. Lube oil pressure

D. after cleaning filters D. Water level in the expansion tank
Ans: C Ans: C
398 If the coolant temperature is excessively low as it passes through 399 What occurs in the combustion space of a diesel engine cylinder
the internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors may be damaged shortly after ignition and before the piston reaches TDC?
by _____________.
A. water condensation in the fuel A. Rapid increase in temperature with constant pressure.
B. corrosion of the nozzle tip B. Rapid increase in pressure with constant temperature.
C. carbon deposits on the leakoff inlet C. Rapid increase in pressure and temperature.
D. over lubrication of the needle valve D. Rapid increase in volume and decrease in pressure.
Ans: B Ans: C
400 The effective pump stroke of an individual port-and-helix fuel 401 The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger type fuel injection
injection pump is determined by the ________________. pump is controlled by _____________.
A. fuel delivery pressure A. rotation of the pump plunger
B. pump plunger diameter B. rotation of the pump barrel
C. plunger control rack position C. varying the pump supply pressure
D. total pump stroke D. varying the pump return pressure
Ans: C Ans: A
402 Which of the following conditions will develop if the flow of "raw" 403 The effective stroke of a constant-stroke, individual, fuel injection
cooling water to a diesel engine is obstructed? pump is varied by the _____________.
A. Air will enter the cooling system. A. control rack
B. Carbon will plug the water cooled exhaust manifolds. B. delivery valve
C. The jacket water temperature will rise. C. governor speed
D. The lube oil viscosity will increase. D. plunger crossbar
Ans: C Ans: A
404 Which of the listed conditions will occur if a diesel engine exhaust 405 High firing pressures and a low exhaust temperature in a diesel
valve is leaking? engine may result from _____________.
A. Loss of compression for that cylinder A. decreased piston to cylinder head clearance
B. Misfiring or rough running B. increased exhaust system back pressure
C. Damage to the valve C. early fuel injection timing
D. All of the above D. low scavenge air temperature
Ans: D Ans: C
406 Exhaust pyrometer readings provide an indication of the 407 A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine
_____________. cylinder has the greatest effect on the ____________.
A. effectiveness of water-cooled exhaust elbows A. cylinder air turbulence
B. distribution of the load between engine cylinders B. fuel spray angle
C. amount of fuel penetration into the engine cylinders C. fuel injection rate
D. indicated horsepower of the engine cylinders D. combustion in that cylinder
Ans: B Ans: D
408 Diesel fuel oil having a low cetane rating can result in 409 To successfully reduce an excessively high diesel engine exhaust
_____________. gas temperature, you should _____________.
A. improved cold weather starting A. reduce the engine driven fuel pump outlet pressure
B. smoother engine operation B. retard the fuel injector timing to reduce power
C. combustion knock C. increase the fuel rack setting
D. reduce ignition lag D. reduce the load on the engine
Ans: C Ans: D
410 High exhaust temperature and black smoke exhausting from an 411 Combustion gas venting through the expansion tank can be caused
auxiliary diesel engine can be caused by _____________. by a _____________.
A. engine overload A. leaking oil cooler
B. low combustion temperature B. cracked cylinder head
C. plugged fuel nozzle holes C. leaking exhaust valve
D. excessive compression pressure D. worn piston ring
Ans: A Ans: B
412 Which of the following problems can cause fluctuating pressures in 413 A fuel leak occurs in the high pressure fuel piping between the
the closed cooling system of a main propulsion diesel engine? injection pump and fuel nozzle. This requires immediate repair
because of the _____________.
A. Defective temperature controls in the system. A. high cost of fuel
B. Cavitation in the cooling water pump. B. serious fire hazard
C. Opened vent in the cooling system. C. possibility of pollution
D. Restricted water passages in the engine. D. poor combustion which will occur in that cylinder
Ans: B Ans: B
414 Individual cylinder performance in a diesel engine is routinely 415 Excessive diesel engine cylinder exhaust back pressure will be
determined by exhaust gas _____________. caused by _____________.
A. chemical analysis A. slight timing discrepancies
B. pressure readings B. heavy fuel injection
C. pyrometer readings C. an obstruction in the exhaust silencer
D. infrared analysis D. a fouled intake manifold
Ans: C Ans: C
416 The injection pressure of a hydraulic fuel injection nozzle can be 417 Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by
increased by _____________. _____________.
A. increasing fuel oil booster pump pressure A. excessive fuel penetration
B. increasing the injector nozzle orifice size B. prolonged injection lag
C. removing shims from under the nozzle spring C. reduced ignition lag
D. increasing compression on the pressure spring D. prolonged ignition lag
Ans: D Ans: D
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418 Which of the following problems could develop due to the 419 One problem resulting from a diesel engine fuel injector opening
accumulation of oil vapors in the crankcase of a diesel engine? pressure being lower than specified by the engine manufacturer, is
that the _____________.
A. Reduced lubrication A. start of injection will always be retarded
B. Poor fuel economy B. duration of injection will always be reduced
C. Combustion knock C. quantity of fuel injected will always be decreased
D. Crankcase explosion D. quantity of fuel injected tends to be increased
Ans: D Ans: D
420 Which of the listed reasons is the most likely cause of a sudden 421 A sudden drop in diesel engine cylinder compression pressure can
drop in compression pressure in one diesel engine cylinder? be caused by ____________.

A. Missing filter segment of an intake filter A. a leaking fuel injector nozzle

B. Malfunctioning valves B. a clogged air filter
C. Leaking fuel injector nozzle C. excessively early fuel injection
D. Excessively early fuel injection D. malfunctioning valves
Ans: B Ans: D
422 Failure to open the diesel engine test cocks after a long period of 423 Which of the listed conditions is most likely to cause a crankcase
shutdown, prior to starting may result in _______. explosion?
A. an air bound fuel system A. A high cooling water temperature
B. damage to cylinder heads and pistons B. Fuel dilution of the lube oil
C. excessive fuel injection C. Excessive engine speeds
D. excessive air valve lift D. Improper lube oil viscosity
Ans: B Ans: B
424 If the coolant temperature is too low as it passes through internally 425 A diesel engine is operating with excessively high exhaust
cooled fuel injectors, the injectors can be damaged by temperatures at all cylinders. To correct this condition, you should
________________. FIRST _____________.
A. water condensation in the fuel A. reduce the engine load
B. corrosion of the nozzle tip B. increase the cooling water flow
C. carbon deposits on the nozzle tip C. increase the lube oil pressure
D. inadequate lubrication of the needle valve D. adjust the fuel rack
Ans: B Ans: A
426 The overspeed trip installed on most diesel engines will stop the 427 White smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine may
engine by shutting off the ____________. indicate _____________.
A. water supply A. a cracked liner
B. fuel oil supply B. burning lube oil
C. lube oil supply C. an overloaded engine
D. exhaust damper D. insufficient combustion air
Ans: B Ans: A
428 Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine can be 429 A device which functions to bring a diesel engine to a full stop to
caused by _____________. protect it from damage is known as a/an ___________.

A. fuel dribbling from leaking fuel injectors A. torque limiter

B. burning fuel with a high carbon content B. overspeed trip
C. burning fuel with a high vanadium content C. overspeed governor
D. burning fuel with a lower sulphur content D. load limit governor
Ans: A Ans: B
430 Which of the following conditions can cause oil to accumulate in 431 Lube oil accumulating in the cooling water system of a diesel
the cooling system of a diesel engine? engine will result in _____________.
A. Excessive valve train lubrication. A. lube cooler failure
B. Defective oil cooler core. B. poor heat transfer
C. Excessive lube oil pressure. C. mechanical lubricator failure
D. Overfilled lube oil system. D. camshaft seizure
Ans: B Ans: B
432 When the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is greater than 433 Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine is an
that specified by the engine manufacturer, the _____________. indication of poor combustion which may be caused by
_____________.
A. quantity of fuel injected is decreased A. water in the fuel
B. quantity of fuel injected will always be increased B. insufficient fuel for combustion
C. start of injection is advanced C. clogged air intake passages
D. duration of injection will always be greater D. burning lubricating oil
Ans: A Ans: C
434 The highest pressure in a diesel engine cylinder normally occurs 435 Diesel engine lube oil diluted with fuel oil is indicated by
_____________. _____________.
A. at TDC A. decreased viscosity
B. before TDC B. decreased pour point
C. after TDC C. increased fclearance point
D. during air starting D. increased viscosity
Ans: C Ans: A
436 A broken pintle in a fuel injector usually causes _________. 437 Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to ________.
A. corrosion of the spray nozzle A. check cylinder lubrication prior to starting engine
B. clogging of the orifices B. connect exhaust gas analyzers to determine engine efficiency

C. distortion of the spray pattern C. pressure test cylinder heads to check for leaks
D. erosion of the valves D. remove moisture accumulations from cylinders prior to starting

Ans: C Ans: D
 Page 24

438 A practical way of checking for excessive fuel injection in one 439 A diesel engine emits blue exhaust smoke as a result of
cylinder of an operating diesel engine is to _____________. _____________.

A. feel the high pressure fuel line A. cold intake air

B. check the cylinder exhausts for white smoke B. excessive compression pressure
C. frequently check the cylinder exhaust temperature C. excessive cylinder lubrication
D. isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector D. a light load
Ans: C Ans: C
440 Which of the following problems could cause misalignment between 441 A diesel engine is operating under a normal load with low firing
the needle valve and nozzle in a fuel injection nozzle? pressures and high exhaust temperatures. The most probable
cause of this condition is ________________.
A. A bent fuel needle. A. a missing air intake filter
B. A defective nozzle tip seat. B. a restricted exhaust manifold
C. A distorted valve body. C. the fuel rack being too far in
D. All of the above. D. the fuel rack being too far out
Ans: D Ans: B
442 In the common rail system, excessive pressure in the header may 443 The highest loads applied to the diesel engine crankshaft main
be caused by _____________. bearings are ____________.
A. improper adjustment of the bypass valve A. axial loads
B. a dribble in the fuel injection nozzle B. firing loads
C. insufficient leakoff through injection nozzle packing C. inertia loads
D. a malfunctioning injection nozzle D. centripetal loads
Ans: A Ans: B
444 If the diesel engine fuel injection timing is changed to delay the start 445 Increasing the compression ratio of a diesel engine while
of injection until the pistons are at top dead center, the engine will maintaining the designed rate of fuel flow will result in
_____________. ____________.
A. backfire through the air intake A. increased horsepower
B. develop less power under load B. reduced efficiency
C. have high firing pressures C. increased heat loss
D. lift its cylinder relief valves D. lower cylinder pressures
Ans: B Ans: A
446 If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a 447 During which of the listed piston strokes of a four-stroke/cycle
diesel engine, you should FIRST __________. diesel engine, is the piston moving downward?
A. place standby cooler in operation A. Intake stroke
B. reduce engine load B. Compression stroke
C. check thermostatic valve C. Exhaust stroke
D. clean sea water strainer D. Pumping stroke
Ans: B Ans: A
448 In an operating diesel engine, preignition can be caused by 449 Significant retardation of a diesel engine fuel injection timing will
_____________. result in _____________.
A. excessively late fuel injection A. smoother engine operation
B. oil in the air charge B. advanced fuel ignition
C. water in the fuel C. increased fuel economy
D. injection continuing after the fuel charge is ignited D. reduced engine power
Ans: B Ans: D
450 When fuel is injected late into a diesel engine cylinder, 451 Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing
_____________. pressure with _____________.
A. the exhaust will be clear A. high exhaust temperature
B. fuel consumption will be low B. low exhaust temperature
C. all the fuel will be burned at top dead center C. fuel knock in each cylinder
D. fuel consumption will be high D. mechanical knock in each cylinder
Ans: D Ans: A
452 If a single cylinder relief valve on a diesel engine lifts frequently 453 When one cylinder has a lower compression pressure and higher
while the engine is running, the cause may be an _____________. exhaust gas temperature than any of the other engine cylinders,
which of the conditions listed will be indicated?
A. excessively late injection timing for each cylinder A. Advanced ignition
B. incorrectly adjusted intake valve timing B. Clogged air intake
C. incorrectly adjusted fuel injector C. Leaky exhaust valve
D. incorrectly adjusted intake valve clearance D. High exhaust pressure
Ans: C Ans: C
454 A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause a diesel 455 If a few injector spray holes become plugged, the result could be
engine to have _____________. _____________.
A. higher firing pressure A. excessive surging at governed speed
B. more power output B. combustion knock under load
C. lower fuel pressure C. poor fuel combustion
D. less power output D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
456 A diesel engine fails to start because of water in the fuel. In order to 457 A diesel engine piston crown can crack from ____________.
start the engine, you should ____________.
A. turn engine with jacking gear A. excessive piston to liner clearance
B. drain filters and strainers and bleed off water at each injection B. excessive dirt beneath the piston crown that reduces heat transfer.
pump
C. use ether to start the engine with blowdown valves open C. faulty nozzle spray
D. blow through the cylinders and fuel lines with a drying agent D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
 Page 25

458 Permitting a diesel engine fuel oil day tank to run dry can cause 459 Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will
_____________. cause the engine to _____________.
A. overheated injection pumps A. burn excessive amounts of lube oil
B. water condensation in the cylinders B. overheat without smoking
C. fuel dilution of the lube oil C. operate with reduced power or stop
D. air in the fuel system D. run away without load
Ans: D Ans: C
460 Which of the following problems will occur if the needle valve in a 461 A dry-type exhaust muffler clogged with soot, will cause
fuel injection nozzle sticks in the open position? _____________.
A. Fuel injection timing will change A. low exhaust temperature
B. Nozzle operation will be unaffected B. loss of engine power
C. Fuel will leak into the drain line C. burned intake valves
D. Fuel will not be delivered D. engine racing
Ans: A Ans: B
462 Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to ________. 463 Air may be bled from the fuel system by _____________.

A. check cylinder lubrication A. blowing down the air tanks

B. connect the pressure indicator B. loosening the compression nuts at the injectors
C. pressure test cylinder heads C. changing fuel filters
D. connect the exhaust gas pyrometers D. pumping down the day tanks
Ans: B Ans: B
464 Which of the terms listed below represents the operational speed at 465 If the needle valve in a fuel injection nozzle sticks open,
which excessive engine vibration is created? _____________.
A. Non-harmonic speed. A. fuel will leak into the nozzle drain line
B. Critical speed. B. no fuel will be delivered through the nozzle
C. Maximum speed. C. the nozzle will overheat
D. Design maximum speed. D. injection lag will be increased
Ans: B Ans: C
466 Which of the conditions listed would cause simultaneous high 467 Early fuel injection timing is indicated by the cylinder pressure being
cylinder firing pressure and low exhaust temperature? _____________.
A. Improper fuel rack positioning. A. above normal with a below normal exhaust temperature
B. Lengthy opening of the exhaust valve. B. above normal with a normal exhaust temperature
C. Excessively early injection timing. C. below normal with a normal exhaust temperature
D. Extended light load operation. D. below normal with an above normal exhaust temperature
Ans: C Ans: A
468 If fuel injection occurs too early, a diesel engine will lose power 469 Diesel engine air start valve timing is controlled by
because the _____________. _____________.
A. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder A. engine operating speed
B. ignition will be delayed due to low compression pressure B. an air manifold
C. maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke C. a hydraulic distributor

D. fuel will ignite after top dead center D. individual cams and valve gear
Ans: B Ans: D
470 A diesel engine fails to start due to excessive water in the fuel. 471 If you suspect a diesel engine is misfiring due to air leakage into
Before the engine can be started, the water should be removed the fuel system, you should begin looking for the leak at the
from the _____________. _____________.
A. fuel lines A. fuel line connections to the cylinder injection valves
B. lube oil filter B. gasket surfaces of the fuel oil filters
C. crank case pump C. discharge fittings of the fuel injector pumps
D. rocker arm reservoir D. suction side of the fuel oil transfer pump
Ans: A Ans: D
472 An increase in the load on a turbocharged diesel engine operating 473 When a diesel engine is operated at partial load, as compared to
at constant speed will result in an increase in _____________. full load, a decrease will occur in the average _____________.

A. exhaust temperature A. air quantity aspirated

B. air box pressure B. fuel injection pressure
C. brake mean effective pressure C. combustion pressure on the power stroke
D. all of the above D. compression pressure on the compression stroke
Ans: D Ans: C
474 Air in the fuel can cause _____________. 475 Early injection timing is indicated by ____________.
A. high lube oil temperature A. high exhaust temperature and low firing pressure
B. blue smoke B. high exhaust temperature and high firing pressure
C. the engine to stop C. low exhaust temperature and low firing pressure
D. piston seizure D. low exhaust temperature and high firing pressure
Ans: C Ans: D
476 Which of the following operating procedures should be carried out 477 The most common diesel engine fuel system problems are caused
immediately after any diesel engine is started? by _____________.
A. Take all exhaust temperature readings. A. incorrect adjustments
B. Check the sump oil level. B. dirty fuel
C. Verify proper lube oil pressure. C. broken fuel lines
D. Check the water level in expansion tank D. excessive vibration
Ans: C Ans: B
478 If sludge accumulates on the underside of a diesel engine piston, it 479 Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be a
will ______________. direct cause of ______________.
A. cause blow-by A. excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling
B. chemically attack the piston skirt B. sediment in the fuel supply
 Page 26

C. form an emulsion of lube oil and water C. distortion of the fuel spray pattern
D. raise the piston temperature D. improper atomization of the fuel
Ans: D Ans: B
480 Low cylinder compression pressure and a high exhaust 481 Fuel oil injected into the cylinder of a diesel engine just after the
temperature may indicate ______________. piston passes top dead center, will _____________.
A. early fuel injection timing A. increase engine power
B. leaking valves B. increase engine load
C. a continuously open scavenge air port C. decrease engine power
D. low cooling water temperature D. improve fuel economy
Ans: B Ans: C
482 The loss of the diesel engine cylinder air charge through leaky 483 During diesel engine warm-up, which type of tappet clearance
valves, piston rings, worn or scored liners, would be indicated by adjuster listed allows for the change in length of the exhaust
which of the following sets of conditions? valves?
A. Low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature A. Mechanical
B. Low firing pressure and high exhaust temperature B. Hydraulic
C. Low compression pressure and low exhaust temperature C. Pneumatic
D. Low firing pressure and low exhaust temperature D. Electrical
Ans: A Ans: B
484 Worn cylinder head valve seats in a diesel engine will cause 485 Which operating condition of a diesel engine is indicated by
____________. excessive firing pressures?
A. less cold tappet clearance A. Overspeeding
B. more cold tappet clearance B. Overload
C. excessive pressure in hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters C. Low exhaust temperature
D. broken valve springs D. High crankcase pressure
Ans: A Ans: B
486 If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a 487 A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication
diesel engine, you should FIRST __________. of a/an _____________.
A. call the chief engineer A. worn cylinder liner
B. reduce engine load B. faulty cylinder relief valve
C. check thermostatic valve C. excessive lube oil pressure
D. clean sea water strainer D. excessive scavenge air pressure
Ans: B Ans: A
488 Which of the following procedures should be carried out when a 489 The most practical way of detecting an overload in one cylinder of
large, low-speed, diesel engine is operated with one cylinder an operating large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is to
secured? _____________.
A. Lubrication to the defective cylinder should be increased. A. check the cylinder exhausts for black smoke
B. Cooling water temperature to the engine should be increased. B. engage the starter motor with the flywheel

C. Only the turbocharger speed should be reduced. C. isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector
D. Engine speed should be reduced. D. check the cylinder exhaust temperature frequently
Ans: D Ans: D
490 A diesel engine could fail to start because of ____________. 491 One cause of diesel engine piston ring blow-by is _________.

A. incorrect injection timing A. reduced scavenging

B. low exhaust back pressure B. high exhaust temperatures
C. floating exhaust valves C. excessive lubrication
D. excessive cranking speed D. floating piston pins
Ans: A Ans: C
492 If you notice smoke coming from the crankcase exhaust fan outlet 493 Which of the following conditions may need to be reduced when
of an operating diesel engine, you would suspect ___________. operating a large, low-speed, main propulsion, diesel engine at low
loads?
A. a cracked cylinder liner A. Injection pressures
B. clogged intake ports B. Control air supply pressure
C. broken piston rings C. Cooling water flow through aftercoolers
D. a faulty head gasket D. Lube oil temperature
Ans: C Ans: C
494 A restricted diesel engine exhaust manifold operating under a 495 Excessive exhaust temperatures in a two-stroke/cycle dieselengine
normal load is indicated by ______________. can be caused by a/an ____________.
A. low firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures A. high injection pressure
B. low firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures B. high firing pressure
C. high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures C. overheated air starting line
D. high firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures D. carbon build up in the exhaust ports
Ans: B Ans: D
496 What color exhaust will be exhibited when a slow speed two- 497 Immediately after starting a diesel engine, normal raw waterand
stroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine, designed to operate on jacket water pressures are indicated. However, thejacket water
light and heavy fuel oil, is operated on insufficiently preheated temperature continues to rise. If there is nochange in the sea
heavy fuel oil? temperature, you should suspect _________.

A. White A. overloading in all cylinders

B. Black B. a jammed three-way thermostatic valve
C. Blue C. chromate pH too low
D. Clear D. a high level in the surge tank
Ans: B Ans: B
498 Before starting a diesel engine that has an engine driven lube oil 499 Collapsed hydraulic valve lifters in a diesel engine will result in
pump, the engineer should _____________. ____________.
A. open the bypass line A. excessive rocker arm movement
 Page 27

B. cut in the lube oil cooler B. little or no valve clearance

C. pressurize the lube oil system C. excessive valve clearance
D. top off the expansion tank D. collapsed or stacked valve springs
Ans: C Ans: C
500 Prolonged operation of a diesel engine with a closed cooling water 501 A large low speed main propulsion diesel engine may
system, at lower than normal designed operating temperatures can becomeoverloaded by_______________. I. a heavily fouled hull II.
_____________. strong head winds and heavy seas
A. increase power output A. I only
B. decrease lube oil viscosity B. II only
C. eliminate fuel knock C. both I and II
D. cause sulphuric acid formation D. neither I nor II
Ans: D Ans: C
502 Immediately after any diesel engine is started, the engineer should 503 In a diesel engine lube oil system, which of the following parts
check the ____________. should be lubricated first?
A. crankcase pressure A. Camshaft bearings
B. lube oil pressure B. Main bearings
C. saltwater pressure C. Piston crowns
D. exhaust temperature D. Cylinder walls
Ans: B Ans: B
504 Poor combustion in a diesel engine can be caused by 505 Diesel engine exhaust gas temperatures can be used to determine
______________. individual cylinder _____________.
A. high compression pressure A. performance
B. low intake air temperature B. horsepower output
C. low exhaust pressure C. fuel consumption
D. high scavenge air pressure D. scavenge effect
Ans: B Ans: A
506 Which of the following problems may occur if the opening pressure 507 All of the diesel engine cylinder firing pressures are normal, yet all
of a fuel injection nozzle is greater than specified by the engine of the exhaust temperatures are low. Which of the following
manufacturer? situations is responsible for this condition?
A. The amount of fuel injected will be increased. A. Excessively early injection timing
B. The start of injection will be retarded. B. Combustion knock
C. The nozzle will permit fuel to dribble. C. Leaking piston rings
D. The spray pattern will be distorted. D. Light load
Ans: B Ans: D
508 Insufficient piston cooling for a large, low-speed, main propulsion 509 Which of the following factors tends to increase scale formation on
diesel engine burning heavy fuels, can result in _____________. the saltwater side of a heat exchanger used in a diesel engine
cooling water system?
A. excessive crosshead temperatures A. Baffle plates that have been bent during prior removal.
B. dangerous thermal expansion of the piston skirt B. Leaks in the cooler tube nest.
C. high temperature corrosion and burning off of piston crown metal C. Operating the engine while maintaining a high sea water outlet
temperature.
D. change in fuel cetane number D. A punctured sea water strainer supplying cooling water to the heat
exchanger.
Ans: C Ans: C
510 High exhaust back pressure will result in an increase in 511 Any increase in the exhaust back pressure of a four-stroke/cycle
______________. diesel engine will _____________.
A. turbocharger efficiency A. reduce engine power output
B. engine power output B. aid in silencing the exhaust noise
C. carbon deposits on fuel injectors C. increase the mean effective pressure
D. cylinder scavenging D. contribute to effective cylinder scavenging
Ans: C Ans: A
512 In a diesel engine, blow-by _____________. 513 A crack in a cylinder liner can be caused by _____________.
A. increases exhaust back pressure A. worn piston rings
B. causes excessive crankcase pressure B. installation of undersized sealing rings
C. can only be detected by a compression check C. operating the engine at low loads
D. decreases fuel consumption D. restricted cooling water passages
Ans: B Ans: D
514 A cracked cylinder head on a diesel engine may be indicated by 515 The direct cause of a crankcase explosion can be attributed to
_____________. ______________.
A. excessive lube oil consumption A. extremely hot scavenge air
B. water draining from the fuel leak off valves B. excessive cooling water temperature
C. combustion gases venting at the expansion tank C. an overheated bearing
D. excessive fuel oil consumption D. excessive lube oil in the crankcase
Ans: C Ans: C
516 Crankcase explosions in propulsion diesel engines result from 517 Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by
_____________. ________________.
A. the spclearanceing of lubrication oil by the crankshaft A. low coolant temperature
B. the dilution of crankcase oil with particles of combustion B. insufficient fuel
C. broken fuel lines spraying oil on the crankcase C. high ambient temperature
D. the ignition of unburned fuel and air in the crankcase D. carbon buildup on the injector tips
Ans: D Ans: A
518 Persistent knocking of one cylinder of a diesel engine ceases when 519 Which of the conditions listed may occur in an operating diesel
the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. This problem may be a engine if air pockets form within the cylinder head circulating water
result of ______________. passages?
A. low loading of that cylinder A. Hydraulic stress and distortion will develop.
B. faulty combustion in that cylinder B. Hot spots will develop.
 Page 28

C. sluggish piston ring action C. Fuel oil viscosity will increased.

D. excessive piston cooling D. An increase in trapped deposits of scale and dirt.
Ans: B Ans: B
520 If a diesel engine's exhaust temperature is abnormally high, the 521 Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles can be prevented by avoiding
cause could be ____________. _____________.
A. too light of a load A. excessive fuel oil temperature
B. injection timing is too early B. long periods of engine overload
C. overloading of the engine C. metallic contact between nozzles and cylinder heads
D. too low of a compression ratio D. hard carbon deposit and varnish on the nozzles
Ans: C Ans: B
522 A main propulsion diesel engine is normally shut down by 523 Excessive diesel engine back pressure may be an indication of
_____________. __________.
A. shutting off the air supply A. carbon buildup in the exhaust manifold
B. overspeeding the engine B. overcooling of the exhaust manifold
C. securing the fuel supply C. eroded muffler baffle plates
D. securing the ignition system D. high injection pressure
Ans: C Ans: A
524 White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can result from 525 What is the best way of stopping an overspeeding diesel engine?
____________.
A. high exhaust temperature A. Disconnect the battery cables from the starting motor.
B. high lube oil temperature B. Drain the hydraulic fluid from the governor sump.
C. low turbocharge speed C. Block the flow of cooling air to the radiator.
D. low cooling water temperature D. Secure the fuel supply and block the air intake
Ans: D Ans: D
526 By comparing the exhaust gas output of each cylinder of a diesel 527 One cylinder of a diesel engine is persistently knocking and does
engine, one method of determining if the engine load is balanced is not cease when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. Which of
by the use of a ______________. the following problems may be the cause?
A. tachometer A. Low loading of the cylinder
B. calorimeter B. Excessive cooling of that piston
C. pedometer C. Sluggish ring action on the piston
D. pyrometer D. A mechanical defect in a working part
Ans: D Ans: D
528 A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapour is noted in the 529 A smoking exhaust from an operating diesel engine could be
exhaust, this could indicate _____________. caused by ______________.
A. excessive cylinder lubrication A. low sulphur content in the fuel
B. a lugging engine B. a loose injector inlet connection
C. a leaking cylinder liner C. late fuel injection
D. overloading of one cylinder D. high injection pressure
Ans: C Ans: C
530 Oil accumulating in the exhaust piping or manifold of a diesel 531 Diesel engine operating conditions are indicated by the color of the
engine can be caused by ________________. exhaust smoke. Blue smoke can indicate _____________.

A. collapsed hydraulic valve lifters A. low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature
B. worn valve guides B. an overloaded engine
C. excessive crankcase vacuum C. clogged drain holes in the oil control rings
D. excessive lube oil pressure D. complete combustion
Ans: B Ans: C
532 If a diesel engine is smoking excessively under load, the cause 533 Sticking of diesel engine piston compression rings may be caused
could be _____________. by _____________.
A. low exhaust back pressure A. high compression pressure
B. early fuel injection in one of the cylinders B. excessive ring action
C. compression pressure in one of the cylinders C. excessive cylinder lubrication
D. plugged injector holes D. improper ring rotation
Ans: D Ans: C
534 Which of the following conditions can cause excessive lube oil 535 Late fuel oil injection in a diesel engine can result in
consumption in a diesel engine? _____________.
A. Low lube oil temperature A. fuel knock
B. Dirty lube oil strainer B. increased power
C. Low lube oil pressure C. low compression pressure
D. High lube oil temperature D. high exhaust temperature
Ans: D Ans: D
536 Which of the following conditions is likely to develop if the 537 When the opening pressure of a diesel engine fuel injector is
thermocouple element of a pyrometer becomes coated with greater than that specified by the engine manufacturer, which of the
excessive amounts of combustion by-products? following problems can be expected?
A. Indicated exhaust pressure readings will increase. A. Quantity of fuel injected tends to be decreased.
B. Pyrometer responses will be retarded. B. Quantity of fuel injected will always be increased.
C. Indicated cylinder temperature readings will increase. C. Start of injection tends to be advanced.
D. Indicated firing pressure readings will increase. D. Duration of injection will always be greater.
Ans: B Ans: A
538 Late fuel injection occurring at, or after TDC in a diesel engine is 539 In a diesel engine, late fuel injection is indicated by black or gray
indicated by excessive exhaust smoke and _____________. exhaust smoke with ______________.

A. low exhaust temperature A. low firing pressure

B. low firing pressure B. low exhaust temperature
C. fuel knock in each cylinder C. mechanical knock in each cylinder
D. mechanical knock in each cylinder D. fuel knock in each cylinder
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Ans: B Ans: A
540 If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, you should stop 541 A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too late in the
the engine and _____________. cycle, because the ______________.
A. immediately open all crankcase relief ports A. fuel droplets will burn as they leave the fuel injector
B. allow the engine to cool naturally B. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder
C. increase crankcase exhauster speed to draw cool air into the C. maximum expansion of the burned fuel cannot take place in the
engine cylinder
D. increase crank case scavenge air to remove unburned gases D. compression pressure will be too low to cause fuel ignition

Ans: B Ans: C
542 Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur when 543 Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated byblack or gray
unburned fuel contaminates the crankcase of a diesel engine? exhaust smoke with a _____________.

A. Lube oil is diluted and its viscosity is reduced. A. low firing pressure
B. sulphuric acid is formed. B. low exhaust temperature
C. Bearings become pitted and immediately fail. C. mechanical knock in each cylinder
D. Valve stems develop sludge deposits. D. fuel knock in each cylinder
Ans: A Ans: A
544 The ignition quality of diesel fuel becomes less critical as 545 Higher than normal temperature air passing through the intake of a
______________. diesel engine will result in _____________.
A. the amount of lube oil additives increase A. greater overall efficiency
B. piston speeds increase B. greater fuel economy
C. injection pressures decrease C. lower horsepower
D. engine speeds decrease D. lower compression ratio
Ans: D Ans: C
546 When a fuel injection nozzle overheats, which of the problems 547 An increase in the fuel injection pump discharge pressure can be
listed can be expected? caused by a/an _____________.
A. The fuel metering will vary. A. leaking delivery valve
B. The fuel will explode. B. increase in engine load
C. The cylinder head will crack. C. plugged injector spray hole
D. The engine will stop. D. increased plunger stroke
Ans: A Ans: C
548 If fuel injection in a diesel engine begins earlier than the design start 549 Prior to starting, the purpose of turning over a main propulsion
of injection, ignition may be delayed because the _____________. diesel engine with the cylinder test cocks open, is to
_____________.
A. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough A. test the starting system
B. cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough B. remove condensation from the cylinders
C. cylinder compression temperature may be too high C. check the compression
D. scavenge and purge process is incomplete D. check for proper lube oil pressure
Ans: B Ans: B
550 A fuel injection valve opening at a pressure lower than normal will 551 Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be
result in _____________. directly caused by _____________.
A. late fuel injection A. water in the fuel oil supply
B. early fuel injection B. excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling
C. high exhaust temperature from that cylinder C. a distorted fuel spray pattern
D. decreased effective stroke from that injector D. leakage past the plunger into the oil drain
Ans: B Ans: A
552 Water in the fuel can prevent the engine from starting, prevent it 553 Air in the fuel lines of a diesel engine can cause _____________.
from developing full power, or ____________.
A. run at an irregular speed A. ignition failure
B. create high lube oil temperature B. oxygen corrosion of the fuel lines
C. cause the engine to overspeed C. the pistons to seize
D. cause blue smoke in the exhaust D. blue smoke
Ans: A Ans: A
554 Before starting a diesel engine, you should always 555 Dirt in a fuel oil system of a diesel engine can cause
_____________. _____________.
A. check the pyrometer readings A. damage to strainers
B. check the crankcase oil level B. overspeeding of the engine
C. change the fuel oil strainers C. excessive cooling of the engine
D. clean the air filter D. injector damage
Ans: B Ans: D
556 If cooling water flow through the aftercooler is interrupted, the 557 Operating a propulsion diesel engine at less than 30% of designed
power output of a turbocharged diesel engine will drop because the normal load for prolonged periods will result in ____________.
_____________.
A. turbocharger will stall A. decreased fuel consumption per brake horsepower
B. density of the air charge will decrease B. more complete cylinder scavenging
C. scavenge effect will increase C. extended valve life
D. exhaust pressure will increase D. carbon formation on combustion chamber surfaces
Ans: B Ans: D
558 Diesel engine fuel oil contamination often results in 559 Operating a diesel engine under light loads and at low
_____________. temperatures for an extended period can result in _________.

A. governor malfunctions A. formation of carbon on the intake and exhaust ports

B. fuel injection system malfunctions B. high water jacket temperatures
C. high cylinder lube oil temperatures C. overheated pistons and cylinders
D. low intake temperatures D. an increase in lube oil viscosity due to fuel dilution
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Ans: B Ans: A
560 Which of the conditions listed occurring in a diesel engine would 561 If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, which of the
cause carbon deposits to develop in the piston ring belt? listed actions should be taken?

A. Faulty combustion A. Open the crankcase immediately to check for damage.

B. Excessive ring temperatures B. Apply fire fighting water through the crankcase breather.
C. Over lubrication C. Allow the engine to cool before opening the crankcase.
D. All of the above. D. Assume that there is no damage to the crankshaft.
Ans: D Ans: C
562 The burning of fuel oil in a diesel engine having a high sodium 563 The longer the ignition delay period resulting from improper use of
content, will cause ____________. low cetane fuel, the ____________.
A. corrosion and grooving of exhaust valves A. less fuel will enter the cylinder
B. corrosion and gumming of the fuel injection pump B. higher the cylinder combustion temperature
C. salt deposits in the exhaust manifold C. more complete the fuel combustion
D. slag deposits in the fuel injection equipment D. more rapid the rise in combustion pressure
Ans: A Ans: D
564 If the relief valve on a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could 565 A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication
be due to _____________. of _____________.
A. liquid in the cylinder A. excessive lube oil pressure
B. low compression in the cylinder B. the proper seating of new rings
C. high exhaust temperature C. a worn cylinder liner
D. poor fuel penetration D. a malfunctioning cylinder relief valve
Ans: A Ans: C
566 An indication of an overloaded main propulsion diesel engine is 567 A dry-type exhaust silencer clogged with soot, will cause
_____________. _____________.
A. white smoke in the exhaust A. low exhaust temperature
B. high exhaust gas pyrometer readings B. loss of engine power
C. sparks in the exhaust C. burned intake valves
D. blue smoke in the exhaust D. engine racing
Ans: B Ans: B
568 A dark exhaust from a running diesel engine can be caused by 569 Partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can cause
_____________. _____________.
A. late ignition A. overheating of the engine
B. water in the fuel B. high exhaust temperatures
C. high compression temperature C. sluggish engine operation
D. starting valve stuck open D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
570 The color of the exhaust from a diesel engine should 571 Engine operating conditions may be indicated by the color of the
be___________. exhaust smoke. Black smoke could indicate ____________.

A. clear A. an insufficient speed droop setting

B. hazy light brown B. an overloaded engine
C. hazy light blue C. clogged drain holes in the oil control rings
D. hazy light grey D. complete combustion
Ans: A Ans: B
572 A restricted air intake to a diesel engine may result in the engine 573 The color of the engine exhaust from a diesel propelled ship should
_____________. be ______________.
A. failing to reach rated speed A. clear
B. knocking under maximum load B. hazy light brown
C. hunting or surging under light load C. hazy light blue
D. overspeeding and running away D. hazy light grey
Ans: A Ans: A
574 With regards to a diesel engine crankcase explosion, the most 575 You are operating a main propulsion diesel engine at a constant
violent is the _____________. I. primary explosion II. secondary load when the jacket water temperature begins to rise. This could
explosion be caused by ____________.
A. I only A. a piston about to seize
B. II only B. dirty fuel oil filters
C. both I and II C. fuel oil being too heavy (viscous)
D. neither I nor II D. high water level in the expansion tank
Ans: B Ans: A
576 Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling 577 Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling
water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature
from all cylinders begins to rise above normal, you should suspect from an individual cylinder begins to rise, you should suspect
_____________. _____________.
A. increased blow-by in all cylinders A. overloading of adjacent cylinders
B. incomplete combustion in all cylinders B. overloading of that cylinder
C. overloading in all cylinders C. increased blow-by in that cylinder
D. insufficient fuel delivery to all cylinders D. incomplete combustion in that cylinder
Ans: C Ans: B
578 A diesel engine using lube oil with too high a viscosity will exhibit 579 One result of operating a diesel engine at light load with excessively
_____________. low cooling water temperatures is a/an _______.

A. increased starting difficulty in cold weather A. decrease in ignition lag

B. increased oil consumption B. increase in fuel economy
C. thickening at higher operating temperatures C. reduction in lube oil viscosity
D. minimal friction losses D. increase in cylinder misfiring
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Ans: A Ans: D
580 Which of the following conditions will tend to increase the ignition 581 In a diesel engine, excessive cylinder liner wear willcause
delay period of combustion in a compression ignition engine? ___________.I. increased blowby II. wear between the piston ring
and groove
A. Using a fuel oil with a higher cetane number. A. I only is correct
B. Decreasing the air charge temperature. B. II only is correct
C. Reducing the injected fuel oil droplet size. C. both I and II are correct
D. increasing the compression ratio D. neither I or II are correct
Ans: B Ans: C
582 A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine would 583 The longer the ignition delay period occurs in a diesel engine, the
most greatly affect _____________. _____________.
A. air turbulence A. less fuel will enter the cylinder
B. fuel penetration B. lower will be cylinder compression temperatures
C. fuel spray angle C. more complete will be fuel combustion
D. fuel injection rate D. more rapid will be the rise in combustion pressure
Ans: B Ans: D
584 Diesel engine exhaust temperatures may be used to indicate 585 Maintaining the proper fuel oil temperature will result in
_____________. _____________.
A. leaking exhaust valves A. the elimination of valve wear
B. an overloaded cylinder B. improved atomization
C. a clogged injector nozzle C. a decrease in cylinder blow-by
D. all of the above D. an increase in cylinder blowby
Ans: D Ans: B
586 Combustion knock can occur in the cylinders of a diesel engine 587 Persistent knocking in one cylinder of an eight cylinder diesel
under any condition permitting _____________. engine would MOST likely be caused by _____________.
A. a shortened ignition delay period A. using fuel oil with low cetane number
B. a lean fuel/air mixture B. a badly worn piston pin
C. excess fuel in the combustion chamber C. a loose flywheel key
D. rapid vaporization of injected fuel droplets D. a loose bedplate bolt
Ans: C Ans: B
588 A cracked cylinder head in an operating engine may be indicated 589 Coolant can be lost from a diesel engine jacket cooling water
by _____________. system by leakage from _____________.
A. a steady flow of water from the expansion tank vent A. cylinder head cracks
B. combustion gases venting at the expansion tank B. piping joints
C. lower temperature at the cylinder head water discharge C. pump seals leaking
D. water draining from the fuel leakoff lines D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
590 When oil vapor, oxygen and hot spots are present at the sametime 591 A possible cause for an individual piston to knock when at TDC on
within a crankcase, which of the following hazards could develop? a slow-speed, two-stroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine could
be due to ____________.
A. Explosion A. early fuel injection
B. Implosion B. excessive bearing play within the running gear
C. Misfire C. overloading of the cylinder
D. Dieseling D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
592 An automated diesel engine should normally shut down due to 593 Routine monitoring of a diesel engine should include
_____________. _____________.
A. low lube oil temperature A. checking for leaks
B. high ambient air temperature B. checking temperatures and pressures
C. low lube oil pressure C. listening for abnormal noises
D. high exhaust system back pressure D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
594 One remedy for a high firing pressure, in addition to a high exhaust 595 If a diesel engine is difficult to start and operates with the engine
temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine, is to ____________. temperatures lower than normal, you should suspect that the
_____________.
A. increase scavenge air pressure A. compression pressures are below normal
B. reduce fuel booster pump pressure B. lube oil is diluted with fuel oil
C. adjust the fuel rack C. cranking speed is too low
D. retard fuel injector timing D. exhaust system is partially restricted
Ans: C Ans: A
596 A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause 597 White smoke issuing from the exhaust of an auxiliary diesel engine
_____________. could mean _____________.
A. high firing pressure A. the engine is overloaded
B. corrosion of the nozzle tip B. the engine is cold
C. low fuel pressure C. there is too much lube oil in the cylinders
D. loss of power D. the turbocharger is fouled
Ans: D Ans: B
598 White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by 599 Bluish smoke in the exhaust of an operating diesel engine can be
_____________. caused by ______________.
A. low combustion temperature A. an overheated engine
B. a leaking fuel nozzle check valve B. a scored cylinder liner
C. late fuel injection C. water leaking into a cylinder
D. plugged oil scraper ring holes D. low combustion temperature
Ans: A Ans: B
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600 One of the factors limiting the amount of load which can beput on a 601 White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by a
modern marine diesel engine is the ____________. ___________.

A. governor sensitivity A. high combustion temperature

B. exhaust temperature B. high compression pressure
C. fuel injection pressure C. cracked cylinder liner
D. speed of the cam shaft D. fuel with a high vanadium content
Ans: B Ans: C
602 If a diesel engine runs roughly, which of the systems listed is most 603 One cause of diesel engine surging can be a result of
likely to be at fault? _______________.
A. Fuel A. injection pump plungers stuck or worn
B. Lubricating B. low compression
C. Cooling C. solenoid stuck open
D. Ignition D. fuel tank too full
Ans: A Ans: A
604 Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out prior 605 Plugged spray holes in a diesel engine fuel injector will cause
to starting a crosshead type diesel engine after an overhaul? excessive smoking at idling speed, in addition to _____________.

A. Prelube cylinders with hand cranks. A. damage to pistons or cylinder heads

B. Open all air space drain cocks. B. detonation throughout the load range
C. Open all indicator valves. C. preignition throughout the load range
D. all of the above D. excessive smoking when the engine is under load
Ans: D Ans: D
606 Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing 607 Distortion of the spray pattern of a nozzle or injector may be
pressure with _____________. indicated by a/an _____________.
A. low exhaust temperature A. high firing pressure
B. low exhaust pressure B. overload of that particular cylinder
C. mechanical knock in each cylinder C. smoky exhaust
D. black or gray exhaust smoke D. cooling water temperature rise
Ans: D Ans: C
608 An incorrect spray pattern produced by a diesel engine fuel 609 High cylinder firing pressure, accompanied by low exhaust
injection nozzle can be directly caused by _____________. temperature, can result from _____________.
A. overheating of the nozzle A. improper fuel rack positioning
B. overcooling of the nozzle B. lengthy exhaust valve duration
C. carbon blockage of the spray holes C. extended operation at light load
D. excessive lube oil tempertures D. excessively early injection timing
Ans: B Ans: D
610 A leaking diesel engine fuel injector will cause __________. 611 Diesel engine piston seizure can be caused by _________.
A. prolonged maintenance intervals A. poor cooling of cylinder walls
B. improved atomization B. improper cooling of the piston
C. greater fuel economy C. insufficient piston lubrication
D. incomplete combustion D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
612 When fuel is injected too early in the injection cycle, it may cause 613 A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too early
the engine to have _____________. because the _____________.
A. high fuel economy A. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder
B. smoky exhaust B. ignition will be delayed due to low ignition temperature
C. early detonation and a loss of power C. maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke

D. high exhaust temperatures D. fuel will ignite before top dead centre
Ans: C Ans: B
614 When fuel is injected in a diesel engine cylinder too early, 615 Which of the following should always be checked prior to starting a
_____________. diesel engine?
A. ignition may be delayed A. Air filters
B. fuel economy is not affected B. Fuel oil strainers
C. exhaust gas temperature will be unchanged C. Crank case oil level
D. the exhaust will be clear D. Pyrometer readings
Ans: A Ans: C
616 When high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures occur 617 If the firing pressures in a diesel engine are high, although the
simultaneously in a diesel engine, this may be a result of exhaust temperatures are normal, the cause may be
____________. _____________.
A. decreased piston-to-cylinder head clearance A. early injection timing
B. increased exhaust back pressure B. worn orifices in the injection nozzles
C. early timing of fuel injection C. worn or scored cylinder liners
D. low scavenge air temperature D. using a fuel with too low of a cetane number
Ans: C Ans: B
618 Which of the following statements represents the reason for rolling 619 In order to start a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine
over a diesel engine with the cylinder indicator cocks open prior to on high viscosity fuel after an extended shutdown, the
starting? ____________.
A. To test the starting system. A. fuel must be preheated
B. To remove air bubbles from the jacket water. B. intake air should be preheated
C. To ensure that the lube oil system delivers pressure. C. none of the above
D. To ensure foreign material ( water, etc ) is not present in the D. lube oil outlet temperature should be increased 20‚ above normal
cylinders
Ans: D Ans: A
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620 After starting a diesel engine, which of the listed operating 621 What harmful condition can result if a diesel engine is operated at
conditions should be checked FIRST? very light loads for long periods of time?
A. Air box pressure A. Increased carbon buildup.
B. Lube oil pressure B. Burning of intake valves.
C. Exhaust temperatures C. Excessive firing pressures.
D. Raw water pressure D. Increased fuel consumption.
Ans: B Ans: A
622 A diesel engine should not be operated at low loads for long 623 The possibility of a diesel engine crankcase explosion will be
periods of time because _____________. increased by operating an engine ____________.
A. heavy carbon deposits will buildup on the valves and in the exhaust A. equipped with a crankcase exhaust blower which vents to fresh air

B. fuel dilution is increased at low load B. with a leaking crankcase inspection cover gasket
C. exhaust valves may be damaged C. with a crankcase vacuum between 38mm and 50mm of water

D. all of the above D. equipped with a turbocharger which utilizes a gear drive
Ans: D Ans: B
624 The main propulsion diesel continues running after you try to shut 625 Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by
down. You should now attempt to _____________. ______________.
A. stop the air supply A. carbon deposits in the combustion space
B. engage the jacking gear B. carbon deposits on the piston crown
C. secure the lube oil pump C. leaking cylinder liner seal rings
D. shut off the fuel at the day tank D. carbon deposits on the piston
Ans: A Ans: D
626 If a diesel engine has been stopped because of piston seizure due 627 Which of the following conditions indicates the dilution of diesel
to severe overheating, the crankcase _____________. engine lube oil by fuel oil?

A. inspection covers should not be opened until the engine has cooled A. Water discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier.

B. ventilation system should be continued in operation for one hour for B. Fuel oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil
cooling purifier.
C. scavenge pump should be immediately secured to prevent loss of C. Lube oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil
lube oil purifier.
D. explosion covers should be opened slightly to provide extra D. A change in the lube oil viscosity.
ventilation
Ans: A Ans: D
628 Following an overhaul of a crosshead type diesel engine, the 629 A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is operating at
engine is jacked over with the turning gear as part of the pre-start rated load and speed while the vessel is in calm seas. As the
procedure. Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be intensity of the seas increase, the engine speed governor
carried out? maintains the same RPM, although the load indicator indicates an in

A. Ensure proper cylinder lube oil flow. A. Increase the load limit setting.
B. Open all air space drain cocks. B. Decrease the load limit setting.
C. Open all indicator valves. C. Increase engine RPM.
D. all of the above D. Ignore this situation as the engine can handle the load increase.

Ans: D Ans: B
630 A drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine 631 Which of the conditions listed could cause the cylinder relief valves
can be caused by _____________. on a large, low-speed, propulsion diesel engine to lift?

A. a leaking fuel injection nozzle A. Plugged injector nozzles

B. a clogged air filter B. Excessive fuel injection
C. early fuel injection C. Very late injection timing
D. burned valves D. Incorrect crankshaft clearances
Ans: D Ans: B
632 An increase in crankcase pressure generally indicates 633 An increase in diesel engine crankcase pressure generally indicates
_____________. excessive _____________.
A. worn connecting rod bearings A. compression pressure
B. worn engine cylinder liners B. lube oil header pressure
C. high cylinder firing pressure C. scavenge air pressure
D. stuck spring loaded manhole covers D. piston ring blow-by
Ans: B Ans: D
634 If a diesel engine were running at 20% overload with a smoky 635 The starting air rotates a diesel engine at the proper speed, but the
exhaust, you should _____________. engine fails to start. You should check _____________.

A. stop the engine immediately to prevent damage A. the overspeed trip

B. increase lube oil pressure B. for an obstructed air filter
C. slow the engine allowing it to gradually cool C. for air-bound fuel lines
D. decrease the cooling water temperature to the water jacket D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
636 If a diesel engine turned over at normal cranking speed but failed to 637 An increase in power output of a turbocharged diesel engine
start, the cause could be late fuel injection or _____________. operating at a constant engine speed results in _____________.

A. excessive fuel pressure A. higher exhaust temperature

B. high lube oil viscosity B. increased turbocharger speed
C. inadequate fuel injection C. higher air box pressure
D. excessive starting air pressure D. All of the above are correct.
 Page 34

Ans: C Ans: D
638 An accumulation of carbon on one of its thermocouples of an 639 Which of the listed set of conditions indicates early fuel injection
exhaust gas pyrometer will ______________. timing?
A. read low for that location due to the insulation effect of the deposits A. Lower than normal compression pressure and high exhaust
temperature
B. read high for that location due to the hot spots formed by the B. Higher than normal firing pressure and low exhaust temperature
deposits
C. fluctuate due to the conductance of carbon C. High fuel consumption and high exhaust temperatures
D. respond quickly to temperature changes D. Loss of engine power and high exhaust temperatures
Ans: A Ans: B
640 Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine indicates 641 Clogged or partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can
_____________. cause _____________.
A. proper fuel injection A. overspeeding of the engine
B. water in the fuel B. failure of the engine to shut down
C. incomplete combustion C. no effect of engine performance
D. burning of lube oil D. high exhaust temperatures
Ans: C Ans: D
642 Combustion knock will most likely occur as a result of using a fuel 643 Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine may be caused by
with _____________. _____________.
A. low ignition quality A. excessive scavenging air pressure
B. a high volatility B. high coolant temperature
C. low ignition delay C. insufficient fuel
D. a high cetane number D. a clogged air cleaner
Ans: A Ans: D
644 If a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is overspeeding due to leakage 645 A two-stroke/cycle diesel engine operates erratically, overspeeds,
of lube oil into the cylinders, what should you do to stop the engine? and fails to restart when cranked at normalspeed. Which of the
following problems is the most likelycause for the engine failing to
restart?
A. Move the fuel control mechanism to the no fuel position. A. Improper governor operation due to excess oil pressure
B. Block the fuel supply by closing the master fuel valve. B. Damage to the governor due to excessive speed
C. Shut off the fuel supply and block the flow of intake air. C. Failure to reset the overspeed trip
D. Relieve all pressure in the fuel system. D. Failure to reposition the fuel rack
Ans: C Ans: C
646 When running a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine 647 If it becomes necessary to cutout an individual cylinder of a large,
on heavy fuel, which of the following precautions should be low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, the fuel to that cylinder
observed when switching back over to diesel oil? should be secured and its ____________.
A. The diesel oil must never be allowed to mix with the heavy fuel. A. fuel pump should be removed and all connections blanked off

B. The temperature of the fuel from the preheater should be gradually B. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased slightly above that used
reduced after switching over the three-way valve. at normal sea speed
C. The heating steam to the preheater should be secured as soon as C. cylinder oil feed rate should be reduced
the diesel fuel passes through the three-way valve.
D. The heating steam must be secured before the diesel oil passes D. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased to the maximum flow
through the three-way valve. capable of the metering pump
Ans: B Ans: C
648 Late fuel injection timing is indicated by ____________.
A. lower than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature

B. lower than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature

C. higher than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature

D. higher than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust

temperature
Ans: B
MOTOR - MAINTENANCE
649 Bearing wear on a split sleeve type bearing is measured with a 650 Wear occurring at the tips of the reduction gear teeth is usually the
____________. result of _____________.
A. ball anvil micrometer A. surface fatigue
B. pair of outside calipers and a dial indicator B. fretting corrosion
C. pair of inside calipers C. heavy overloading
D. depth micrometer D. gear misalignment
Ans: A Ans: D
651 While inspecting the main bearings on a diesel engine you find 652 When a nozzle tester is being used to test a "closed" type fuel
impregnated dirt and scratches in the bearing surface. You would, injection nozzle, a clogged nozzle orifice will be indicated by a
therefore, suspect that ___________. ____________.
A. the bearing had been overheated A. distorted spray pattern
B. water was present in the oil B. chattering sound when the nozzle closes
C. the lube oil was not being properly filtered C. squealing sound midway in the pump stroke
D. the maximum allowable bearing pressure had been exceeded D. popping sound when the nozzle opens
Ans: C Ans: A
653 The spray holes in diesel engine fuel valves should be cleaned 654 When disassembling or assembling an injection pump plunger and
using carbon solvent and _____________. barrel you should _____________.
A. diesel fuel A. keep the parts immersed in diesel fuel
B. a special cleaning wire B. always keep the plunger and barrel together
C. a copper wire brush C. work over a linoleum-type surface
 Page 35

D. a shaved wooden dowel D. all of the above

Ans: B Ans: D
655 Visual inspection of a fuel injector valve, removed during overhaul, 656 A visual inspection of the chrome plated piston compression rings
shows heat discoloration of the lower end of the valve. This is at the liner ports reveals vertical brown streaks on the face of the
indicative of ____________. rings. This condition indicates __________.
A. valve leakage A. a broken ring
B. insufficient valve lift B. normal conditions
C. choking of nozzle holes C. ring blow-by
D. return check valve leakage D. a leaky fuel injector
Ans: A Ans: C
657 Uneven bolt tightening during the installation of a fuel injection 658 In a diesel engine, a cylinder liner should be replaced if it is
pump can result in _____________. ______________.I. scuffed II. scored
A. binding of pump moving parts A. I only is correct
B. ignition delay B. II only is correct
C. high torsional shock to fuel lines C. both I and II are correct
D. improper pump-to-engine timing D. neither I or II are correct
Ans: A Ans: B
659 If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes 660 Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring
damaged, _____________. grooving tool?
A. the entire pump must be replaced A. Steel brush
B. the injection pump and injection nozzle must be replaced B. Fine emery cloth or steel wool
C. either the barrel or plunger must be replaced C. A section of the removed compression ring
D. the barrel and plunger must be lapped and blued. D. A case hardened scraper
Ans: A Ans: C
661 Cracking of a diesel piston crown can result from ____________. 662 It is easier to replace a dry cylinder liner than a wet one because
____________.
excessive piston to liner clearance
A. A. of the thin wall thickness
all of the above
B. B. honing makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film
faulty nozzle spray
C. C. water seals are not required
the underside of the piston crown being excessively dirty, lowering
D. D. it fits more loosely due to a decrease in heat transfer through the
the rate of heat transfer composite wall
Ans: D Ans: C
663 To facilitate early ring seating of newly installed piston rings, while 664 Insufficient end clearance on newly fitted piston rings in a diesel
still providing extended ring wear, __________. engine will cause the rings to ______________.
A. inlaid rings can be utilized in which the chrome center of the ring A. jam in the least worn part of the cylinder when the rings expand
face slightly protrudes beyond the cast iron edges
B. the cylinder surface is honed to the smoothest surface attainable B. break in the most worn part of the cylinder when the rings expand

C. a taper faced ring can be used C. wear eccentrically on the side opposite the end gap
D. rings with increased back clearance are provided D. overheat and jam at the top center on the combustion stroke
Ans: C Ans: A
665 Heavy fuel oils generally have an upper average ash content of 666 The face surface appearance of a shallow groove, stainless steel,
0.1% by weight. Which of the following conditions could be chrome plated compression ring should exhibit through its operating
expected if the ash content increases above this amount? life a ____________.
A. Glazing of the cylinder liners A. smooth, shallow groved, chrome surface
B. Increased valve wear B. smooth surface of stainless steel
C. Excessive oil pumping C. smooth surface displaying areas of stainless steel and chrome

D. Increased fuel consumption D. surface of gradually deepening grooves

Ans: B Ans: A
667 To determine the main bearing clearance of a propulsion diesel 668 Visual inspection of chrome-plated piston compression rings
engine, you should measure the main bearing shell using a ball reveals a black ring face at the position of the cylinder liner ports.
anvil outside micrometer and measure the crankshaft journal using This condition indicates a ring which ________________.
a/an _____________.
A. telescoping gauge A. has a crown-face
B. ring "snap" gauge B. exceeds wear limits through normal wear
C. inside vernier caliper C. has excessive blow-by
D. outside micrometer D. is in good condition
Ans: D Ans: C
669 The consistent burning of fuel oil with a high sulphur content in a 670 Burning fuel with a high sulphur content in a diesel engine will
diesel engine will result in _____________. _____________.
A. clogged fuel injection pumps A. increase thermal efficiency
B. increased cylinder liner wear B. cause clogging of the fuel system
C. intake valve stem corrosion C. increase the ability of the engine to start in cold weather
D. varnish deposit on pistons D. produce corrosion in the cylinder and exhaust system at low loads

Ans: B Ans: D
671 Which of the following statements concerning cylinder liner wear is 672 Generally, where should you expect to find the greatest amount of
true? wear on a cylinder liner?
A. Liner wear is normally greatest in the middle of the cylinder. A. Adjacent to the piston skirt when the crank is on TDC.
B. Excessive liner wear causes wear between piston ring and groove. B. Along the lower part of the liner wall opposite the oil control ring.

C. Excessive, but uniform liner wear will not cause wear between C. Opposite the top ring shortly after piston travel has ended the
piston ring and groove. compression stroke.
D. Liner wear is distributed equally between the upper and lower D. Opposite the oil control ring when the crank is on bottom dead
portions of the cylinder. center.
 Page 36

Ans: B Ans: C
673 Worn main bearings will cause the compression ratio of an auxiliary 674 The insertion of shims between the foot of a marine type connecting
diesel engine to _____________. rod and a bearing box would result in __________.

A. increase A. increased compression ratio

B. decrease B. decreased compression ratio
C. remain the same C. increased bearing clearance
D. increase on compression; decrease on expansion D. decreased bearing clearance
Ans: B Ans: A
675 Diesel engine crankshaft deflection readings are generally taken at 676 An acceptable method of measuring for the correct rotational force
four crank positions. Good engineering practice requires the applied to the connecting rod and main bearing bolts, is to use a
deflection gauge or indicator to be ___________. _____________.

A. placed as near the crankpin axis as possible A. torque wrench

B. removed each time the crankshaft is repositioned B. monkey wrench
C. left in place for all four readings C. pipe wrench
D. reset to zero for all four readings D. slugging wrench
Ans: C Ans: A
677 Small cracks in the crankshaft bearing surface of a diesel engine 678 If water is found in the crankcase of a diesel engine, the cause may
are an indication of _____________. be due to _____________.
A. corrosion fretting A. a cracked cylinder head
B. insufficient lubrication B. a leaky cylinder head gasket
C. abnormal wear C. a cracked cylinder liner
D. fatigue failure D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
679 Diesel engine piston ring blow-by is usually caused by excessive 680 Diesel engine "blow-by" into the crankcase is caused by excessive
ring clearance at the ring ____________. ring ____________.
A. back A. back clearance
B. side B. side clearance
C. gap C. gap clearance
D. bottom D. taper clearance
Ans: C Ans: C
681 Wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore of a diesel 682 Which of the following operations will have a direct impact on the
engine due to the ____________. rate of wear in a cylinder liner ____________.
A. side thrust A. amount of scavenge air to the cylinder
B. skirt making the greatest amount of contact B. quality of fuel injected
C. highest pressures being exerted C. viscosity of the lube oil
D. tremendous acceleration rate D. compression ratio of the piston
Ans: C Ans: B
683 Failure to remove the carbon ridge from the top of the cylinder 684 Scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine can result
when replacing the piston rings, will result in ____________. from _____________.

A. damaged upper piston rings and/or ring lands A. starting the engine while hot
B. scored piston walls B. knurling the piston skirt
C. damaged cylinder liners C. operating the engine overheated
D. deformed piston skirts D. scuff resistant piston rings
Ans: A Ans: C
685 Water accumulation in the cylinder of a secured engine is an 686 The formation of carbon monoxide in diesel exhaust gases is
indication that the _____________. reduced by ____________.
A. fresh water pump was not secured along with the engine A. spraying water into the exhaust pipe
B. jacket water thermostat has failed B. keeping the exhaust system free of carbon deposits
C. cylinder liner may be cracked C. maintaining proper combustion and scavenging
D. sea water pump is overspeeding just prior to engine shutdown D. avoiding light load operation

Ans: C Ans: C
687 The amount of wear on a split precision main bearing can be 688 On a diesel engine equipped with individual jerk type fuel pumps,
accurately determined by comparing the data from a previous adjustments should be made to the tappets (push rods) of the
reading to the present readings taken with a ____________. pumps to ____________.
A. dial indicating outside caliper A. equalize effective delivery strokes
B. telescoping gauge B. regulate combustion pressures
C. ball anvil outside micrometer C. regulate exhaust temperatures
D. screw thread outside micrometer D. change from light to heavy fuel
Ans: C Ans: A
689 The amount of wear on a split, fixed sleeve-type, main diesel 690 Friction, engine wear, and oil consumption in a diesel engine are
bearing can be accurately determined with a ________. directly related to the ____________.
A. dial indicating outside caliper A. acidity of the oil
B. spider gauge B. pour point of the oil
C. ball anvil outside micrometer C. fclearance point of the oil
D. screw thread outside micrometer D. viscosity of the oil
Ans: C Ans: D
691 Improper cooling of a diesel engine cylinder liner due to the 692 The nuts of main bearings, connecting rod bolts and all other
accumulation of scale deposits, may cause _____________. moving parts are to be secured by ________.
A. low compression pressure A. hardened steel nut locks
B. increased piston wear B. cotter pins made of spring steel
C. increased cylinder lube oil consumption C. split pins or other effective means
 Page 37

D. poor contact between compression rings and liner D. hydraulic nuts as commonly found on large low speed engines

Ans: B Ans: C
693 The easiest way to locate a defective diesel engine exhaust valves 694 Engine coolant accumulating in the diesel engine lubricating oil can
is by _____________. result from a _____________.
A. taking compression readings A. low oil pressure
B. inspecting the valves visually B. high coolant pressure
C. comparing exhaust pyrometer readings C. leaking fuel injector
D. listening to the engine D. cracked cylinder head or liner
Ans: C Ans: D
695 If it becomes necessary to clean the spray holes in a diesel engine 696 While overhauling a jerk-type fuel pump it is necessary to replace
fuel injector, you should use a suitable size piano wire and the pump plunger. Which of the parts listed below must also be
______________. replaced?
A. gasoline A. Delivery check valve
B. carbon solvent B. Pump barrel
C. degreasing compound C. Tubing to the injector
D. strong detergent D. Cam follower
Ans: B Ans: B
697 An acceptable means of tightening connecting rod and mainbearing 698 In a diesel engine, when refitting piston rings
cap bolts is to measure the ___________. I. torque applied to each youshould__________. I. check the ring gap at the smallest
nut and bolt assembly II. stretch of each nut before and after diameter of the cylinder II. remove carbon from the ring groove
tightening
A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. both I and II C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II D. neither I nor II
Ans: A Ans: C
699 Problems with the diesel engine fuel injection pump are usually 700 Dirt lodged on the nozzle valve seat of a fuel injection nozzle will
caused by _____________. cause _____________.
A. improper adjustment A. erosion and cratering of the nozzle orifices
B. contaminated fuel B. fuel leakage into the nozzle drain line
C. kinked fuel lines C. fuel leakage before and after injection
D. excessive engine vibration D. insufficient fuel delivery through that nozzle
Ans: B Ans: C
701 When a diesel engine is operated with a piston ring having a cold 702 Due to excessive water in the fuel, a diesel engine fails to start.
gap clearance less than that recommended by the manufacturer, Before the engine can be started, the water must be removed from
the ring will ____________. the ____________.
A. seize and buckle A. fuel pumps
B. seat in more slowly B. cylinders
C. slap in the groove C. fuel strainers
D. stick in the groove D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
703 Failure to remove the carbon ridge at the top of the cylinder when 704 If the piston ring gap remains insufficient when installing new rings,
removing a piston may result in ___________. you should ___________.
A. damaged upper piston rings and/or ring lands A. install oversized rings
B. scored piston walls B. hone the cylinder liner to allow ring installation
C. damaged cylinder liners C. compress the rings tighter with a compressing tool
D. deformed piston skirts D. file the ends of the rings
Ans: A Ans: D
705 When inspecting piston rings through the ports of a two- 706 An examination of the piston compression rings of an efficiently
stroke/cycle diesel engine, black areas on the sealing surfaces are operating diesel engine, should appear with a ___________.
the result of ______________.
A. insufficient lubrication A. shiny face and bottom, black back and top
B. improper piston cooling B. shiny face, black top, back and bottom
C. blow-by C. shiny face, bottom, back and top
D. overload operation D. black face, bottom, back and top
Ans: C Ans: A
707 Excessive side clearance between a piston ring and its groove will 708 In certain cases, a cylinder liner can be refinished rather than
cause the ring to ______________. replaced. When properly honed, the _____________.
A. expand excessively under operating temperatures A. cylinder should be cleaned with kerosene
B. scuff the cylinder liner excessively B. cylinder liner should have a glazed appearance
C. hammer the piston land above the ring C. liner surface should have a crosshatch pattern
D. hammer the piston land below the ring D. counterbore is slick and smooth
Ans: D Ans: C
709 One method of determining crankshaft misalignment is by 710 Which of the following statements concerning cylinder liner wear in
______________. a single acting diesel engine is correct?
A. laying a straight edge across the crank webs at the crankpin and A. Uniformly excessive liner wear will not cause wear on the piston
measuring the distance to the crankpin in two places rings and grooves.
B. measuring the crank drop on either side of each crank throw while B. Liner wear is distributed equally between upper and lower portions
the crankshaft is slowly rotated through one revolution of the cylinder.

C. rotating the crankshaft through one revolution, pausing each 90° of C. Excessive liner wear causes wear between piston rings and
rotation to measure bearing clearances, top and bottom grooves.

D. taking micrometer readings between the crank webs opposite the D. Liner wear is normally greatest in the middle of the cylinder.
crankpin every 90° of crank angle rotation
 Page 38

Ans: D Ans: C
711 On a large low-speed main propulsion diesel engine, lower main 712 The rate of wear on a cylinder liner depends on the
bearing wear is usually measured by using a/an ______. _____________.

A. dial indicator A. quality of air filtration

B. outside caliper B. effectiveness of lubrication
C. bridge gauge C. type of fuel used
D. tram rod D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
713 Abnormal crankpin bearing and piston skirt surface wear indicate 714 To determine the main bearing clearances in a dieselengine, you
_____________. should use _____________.
A. a restricted air intake A. a depth micrometer
B. a clogged connecting rod oil passage B. an anvil faced micrometer
C. incorrect connecting rod alignment C. plasti-gauge
D. high cylinder firing temperatures D. a vernier caliper
Ans: C Ans: C
715 The ring lands on a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine 716 Incomplete combustion in a running diesel engine can cause piston
piston may crack due to _____________. rings to become stuck as a result of _____________.
A. insufficient cylinder liner wear A. residual carbon deposits
B. contaminated lubricating oil B. lube oil viscosity breakdown
C. high main lubricating oil system temperature C. uneven heat expansion of the rings
D. insufficient ring groove clearance D. uneven heat expansion of the piston
Ans: D Ans: A
717 If the compression rings on a diesel engine piston become stuck in 718 A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticking in the
the ring groove, the cause may be due to ______________. ring grooves, is insufficient ring clearance at the ring
____________.
A. excessive ring action A. gap
B. excessive ring temperature B. side
C. improper ring rotation C. back
D. excessive ring face wear D. radial
Ans: B Ans: B
719 Low compression in a diesel engine could be caused by 720 Low compression pressure in a diesel engine is caused by
________________. ___________.
A. worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings A. low water in the expansion tank
B. high cooling water temperature B. improperly seated valves
C. worn or broken piston rings C. low fuel oil pressure
D. low fuel oil pressure D. worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings
Ans: C Ans: B
721 Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by 722 Which of the listed problems can be a cause of low compression
_____________. pressure in a diesel engine?
A. improperly seating intake valves A. Clogged air filter
B. leaking cylinder liner seal rings B. Leaky valve cage
C. late fuel injection timing C. Burned exhaust valves
D. carbon deposits on the piston D. All of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
723 Low compression pressure in a diesel engine may be the result of 724 When a nozzle tester is used to check the spray pattern of an
______________. injection nozzle, _____________.
A. insufficient fuel supply due to fuel pump valves sticking or leaking A. the nozzle should operate within plus or minus 500 pounds of the
specified opening pressure
B. excessive mechanical clearance between the piston crown and B. the nozzle should not make any noise when pressure is applied
cylinder head
C. excessively worn fuel pump plunger C. the valve should pop at 1/2 the actual set pressure
D. excessive exhaust back pressure D. the oil spray could cause blood poisoning if the spray penetrates
the skin of the operator
Ans: B Ans: D
725 When a piston is removed from a diesel engine for maintenance, 726 To reduce load during jacking operations, which of the listed
the piston should be examined for ___________. devices should be opened?

A. scoring A. Fuel line

B. cracks and burned spots B. Expansion tank
C. gummy deposits and sticking rings C. Cylinder test valves
D. all of the above D. Sea valve
Ans: D Ans: C
727 After removing an old set of rings, which of the following conditions 728 After an engine has been started using a Bendix drive unit, the drive
is indicated if a bright spot is found on each end of a broken piston gear, or pinion disengages from the flywheel due to
ring? ______________.
A. Improper lubrication A. the action of a spring
B. Excessive diametrical tension B. rotation of the starting cam
C. Insufficient ring pressure C. the higher rotating speed of the flywheel
D. Insufficient gap clearance D. Clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter.
Ans: D Ans: C
729 Bearing "crush" as applied to diesel engine main bearings, will 730 Crank web deflection readings will give a positive indication of
result in _____________. ____________.
A. positive seating of the bearings in their housings A. worn main bearing journals
B. above normal operating temperatures B. torsional stress deformation
C. damage to the journals C. slack thrust bearings
 Page 39

D. damage to the bearings D. bearing shells shim dimensions

Ans: A Ans: A
731 When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two- 732 The replacement piping for diesel engine high pressure fuel
stroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed, you should take care systems must be the same length and diameter as the original
to avoid carbon _____________. piping to _____________.
A. entering the cylinder A. avoid unnecessary parts inventory
B. particles becoming lodged under the intake valves B. keep torsional vibration constant
C. entering the water jacket C. use existing supports and braces
D. particles entering lube oil D. lube oil system
Ans: A Ans: D
733 A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher than normal 734 In a diesel engine, a leaking exhaust valve can cause
____________. _____________.
A. firing pressure A. misfiring
B. exhaust temperature from a particular cylinder B. preignition
C. cooling water temperature C. interrupted scavenging
D. compression pressure D. reduced scavenging
Ans: B Ans: A
735 The most severe cavitation erosion occurring on the waterside of 736 Exhaust valve grooving and corrosion is caused by certain
diesel engine wet cylinder liners normally occurs ____________. components of residual fuel oil. These components are sodium,
sulphur, and _____________.
A. throughout the lower one-half of the liner A. vanadium
B. throughout the upper one-half of the liner B. carbon
C. at TDC opposite the thrust side of the liner C. copper
D. near the middle of the thrust side of the liner D. ash
Ans: D Ans: A
737 Which of the listed cylinder liner surface conditions indicates proper 738 A well-lubricated bearing surface always appears __________.
lubrication?
A. Dull black appearance. A. well knurled
B. Bright appearance. B. slightly streaked
C. Thin layer of lacquer. C. lightly glazed
D. thick oil film D. highly polished
Ans: B Ans: D
739 To minimize the formation of carbon deposits on fuel injection 740 The principal hazard to personnel when a diesel nozzle tester is in
nozzles, you should _____________. use is _____________.
A. avoid using liquid-cooled nozzles whenever possible A. electrical shock
B. avoid low cooling water temperatures B. toxic fumes
C. avoid prolonged overloading of the engine C. explosion
D. make certain the gasket seal between the nozzle and cylinder head D. blood poisoning
is tight
Ans: C Ans: D
741 You are inspecting the lower main precision bearings on a diesel 742 You are testing a non-popping closed fuel injection nozzle using a
engine. You observe that about half the thin babbitt linings are of a nozzle tester. A pressure slightly less than design valve opening
milky white color. This condition is caused by _____________. pressure is applied. If no fuel appears at the spray tip, the
_______________.
A. large dirt particles in the oil supply A. nozzle orifices are too small
B. insufficient lubricating oil and overheating B. nozzle orifices are eroded
C. normal wear C. needle valve is defective
D. water contamination of the lube oil D. needle valve is seating properly
Ans: D Ans: D
743 Because of the close tolerances used in diesel engine fuel oil 744 Which of the fuel nozzles listed requires the LEAST maintenance?
pumps, a worn plunger requires _____________.
A. grinding the spare plunger to the barrel A. Pintle
B. replacing the plunger and the barrel B. Single hole
C. highly polishing both the plunger and barrel C. Multi-hole
D. replacing plunger only D. open
Ans: B Ans: A
745 When inspecting pistons, liners, and rings of a large two- 746 Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring
stroke/cycle diesel engine through the cylinder ports, a wet piston grooving tool used to remove hard carbon deposits from piston ring
crown would indicate a ____________. grooves in preparation for installing new rings?

A. faulty piston lubricator A. Steel brush

B. leaky fuel injector B. Fine emery cloth or steel wool
C. broken compression ring C. A section of the removed compression ring
D. faulty oil ring D. A case hardened scraper
Ans: B Ans: C
747 If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes 748 Surface irregularities, such as erosion and pitting on injection pump
damaged, _____________. plungers, will _____________.
A. only the replacement of the entire pump would be acceptable A. increase ignition delay
B. the injection pump and injection nozzle must be replaced B. affect fuel oil metering
C. either the barrel or plunger must be replaced C. affect engine performance at low speed only
D. the barrel and plunger must be replaced as a unit D. disappear due to fuel oil abrasion
Ans: D Ans: B
749 The side clearance of the compression rings on diesel engine 750 If lost motion is present in an individual fuel injection pump, which of
pistons is necessary to _____________. the following problems will occur?
A. permit gas pressure behind and on top of the rings A. Fuel injection will be increased.
B. prevent carbon accumulation behind the rings B. Fuel injection will remain unchanged.
 Page 40

C. allow for lube oil drainage behind the rings C. Fuel injection will occur earlier.
D. prevent combustion gases burning the ring grooves D. Fuel injection will occur later.
Ans: A Ans: D
751 In a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, if the injectors 752 A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticking in the
have formed carbon around the nozzle holes, which of the following ring grooves, is insufficient ring clearance at the ring
would help avoid further buildup? ____________. I. gap II. side
A. Increase fuel injection pressure. A. I only
B. Increase fuel preheat temperature. B. II only
C. Decrease load limit on the governor. C. both I and II
D. Increase injector cooling water temperature. D. neither I nor II
Ans: D Ans: B
753 In a diesel engine, when installing new piston rings it isimportant to 754 The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engine exhaust
check _____________. I. ring gap clearance II. side clearance valve is to ________. I. work in conjunction with valve rotators to
rotate the valve II. break up seat deposits
A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. both I and II C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II D. neither I nor II
Ans: C Ans: B
755 When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two- 756 You are installing new piston rings on a single acting diesel engine
stroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed, you should take care piston. To check the ring gap clearance, the rings should be placed
to avoid carbon particles _____________. at the ____________.
A. entering the lube oil A. point of minimum cylinder wear
B. entering the cylinder B. center of the cylinder
C. entering the water jacket C. point of maximum cylinder wear
D. become lodged under the intake valves D. point of maximum ring wear
Ans: B Ans: A
757 A defective injector nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can cause 758 Which of the following problems is the main source of fuel pump
_____________. and injection system malfunctions?
A. engine power losses A. Air in the fuel system
B. smoking due to unburned fuel B. Improper adjustments
C. high exhaust temperature readings C. Coated fuel lines
D. all of the above D. Excessive vibration
Ans: D Ans: B
759 When turning a new cylinder head stud on a lathe, the minimum 760 If you determine that entrained air in the fuel oil system is causing a
effective thread length of the stud is determined primarily by the diesel engine to stall, you should first check for _____________.
_____________.
A. stud length A. fuel leakage in the injector pump's discharge lines
B. stud diameter B. worn gaskets in the transfer pump discharge lines
C. head nut diameter C. partially clogged fuel oil discharge strainers
D. stud material D. loose fittings in the booster fuel pump suction piping
Ans: B Ans: D
761 In a large low-speed diesel engine excessive piston clearance can 762 Which of the following procedures should be carried out to permit
be restored by ____________. the use of a crosshead engine with an inoperable aftercooler?

A. decreasing the thickness of the cylinder head gasket A. Bypass the aftercooler to operate at sea speed.
B. inserting shims between the crankpin bearing box and the B. Run at reduced speed until the cooler can be repaired or renewed.
connecting rod foot
C. replacing the complete bearing set C. Switch to diesel fuel and run at reduced speed.
D. rotating the crankpin bearing until the proper end clearance is D. Nothing needs to be done due to the low heating value of heavy
obtained fuel
Ans: B Ans: B
763 A faulty injector in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine can be 764 Which of the following conditions would cause carbon deposits to
located by ____________. form in the piston ring belt of a diesel engine?
A. cutting out individual injectors and noting engine performance A. Faulty combustion

B. checking lube oil temperature B. Excessive ring temperature

C. checking cam position C. Over lubrication
D. using a timing light D. All of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
765 A change in the quality of fuel atomization by a diesel engine fuel 766 When installing rings on a diesel engine piston, you should check
injector would be caused by a/an ______________. the ring _____________.
A. increase in engine speed A. diametrical tension
B. increase in cylinder turbulence B. gap clearance
C. leaking needle valve C. radial thickness
D. reduction in cylinder turbulance D. face thickness
Ans: C Ans: B
767 A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine 768 Which of the following problems may occur if the clearance
greatly affects the _______________. between a piston and cylinder liner is insufficient?
A. air turbulence A. Excessive wear
B. fuel penetration B. Scuffing of the liner
C. fuel spray tip angle C. Piston seizure
D. fuel injection rate D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
769 Black areas on the sealing surfaces of piston rings indicate 770 A bright shiny appearance of the sealing surfaces on diesel engine
_____________. compression rings indicates _____________.
 Page 41

A. lube oil pumping A. combustion gas blow-by

B. rotating rings B. excessive lubrication
C. gas pressure behind the ring C. properly functioning rings
D. passage of hot gases D. insufficient cylinder cooling
Ans: D Ans: C
771 The best tool to use for removing the carbon ridge at the top of an 772 Which of the devices is commonly used in measuring the
engine cylinder, prior to removing the piston, is to use clearances between the main engine bearings and the crankshaft?
____________.
A. an electric grinder A. Plasti-gauge
B. a metal scraper B. Depth gauge
C. a reamer C. Copper shims
D. a three wing hone D. wooden gaging pegs
Ans: B Ans: A
773 Which of the following conditions can result in the cracking of the 774 Which of the following problems may occur when using fuel oil with
piston lands? a high sulphur content?
A. High lubricating oil temperature A. Injection lag
B. Dirty lubricating oil B. Lube oil dilution
C. Minimal cylinder liner wear C. Preignition
D. Insufficient ring groove clearance D. Corrosion
Ans: D Ans: D
775 If the back clearance of a piston ring is excessive, 776 Which of the following conditions could contribute to the cracking of
_____________. a diesel engine cylinder head?
A. compression pressure in the cylinder will be higher A. Leaking seal ring
B. carbon will accumulate behind the ring B. Insufficient heat transfer from the exhaust valves
C. combustion gases will penetrate beneath the ring land C. Blocked cooling water passages to the head
D. piston side thrust will be increased D. Excessive scavenging air provided to the engine
Ans: B Ans: C
777 A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will ________. 778 A scored diesel engine cylinder liner will cause __________.
A. prevent piston ring wear A. high firing pressure
B. shorten the ring break-in period B. abnormally high cooling water temperature
C. prevent cylinder liner glazing C. rapid wearing of piston rings
D. appear slick and glazed D. combustion gases in the cooling water
Ans: B Ans: C
779 Which of the following operating conditions can occur when shims 780 After a long period of operation, a wear ridge, caused by piston ring
are removed from the joint between the foot of a marine type diesel action, will develop near the top of the cylinder liner. This ridge
engine connecting rod and the bearing box? must be removed when piston rings are renewed in order to
prevent ______________.
A. Decreased connecting rod bearing clearance A. excessive wear during the seating period
B. Increased connecting rod bearing clearance B. excessive lubrication of the top ring
C. Decreased compression ratio C. improper spreading of lubrication on the cylinder wall
D. Increased compression ratio D. breaking of the top ring, ring land, or both
Ans: C Ans: D
781 Crank lead can be adjusted to change which of the listed operating 782 When a hydraulic valve lifter is on the base circle of the cam, "zero"
conditions? tappet clearance is maintained by the ______________.

A. Longer combustion events. A. valve spring

B. Exhaust events starting before scavenging events. B. plunger spring
C. Exhaust events lasting longer than scavenging events. C. oil pressure
D. Higher combustion temperatures D. rocker arm
Ans: A Ans: B
783 In a diesel engine, blow-by is generally the result of worn 784 Which of the listed conditions can cause lacquer to be deposited
_____________. on a piston skirt?
A. valve guides A. High sulphur content fuel
B. oil control rings B. High lube oil temperatures
C. valve seats C. High vanadium content fuel
D. compression rings D. Excessive piston slap
Ans: D Ans: B
785 Scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine can result 786 If a diesel engine driving a generator turns over freely but fails to fire
from _____________. properly, the cause could be ____________.
A. chromium plating piston rings A. excessive compression pressure
B. knurling the piston skirt B. air in the fuel lines
C. extended maximum power operation C. high fuel pressure
D. applying load to a cold diesel engine D. excessive load
Ans: D Ans: B
787 When a diesel engine compression pressure is checked, the 788 In a diesel engine exhaust system, the cooling of the exhaust gases
indicator is connected to the _____________. below their dew point, will result in ____________.
A. cylinder exhaust ports A. increased engine back pressure
B. injection line B. sulphuric acid corrosion
C. cylinder indicator cock C. surface pitting of the turbocharger compressor blades
D. banjo oiler line D. moisture impingement on the turbocharger compressor blades

Ans: C Ans: B
789 Which of the following statements is true regarding the installation 790 In a large, low-speed diesel engine the clearance between the
of piston rings on two-stroke/cycle, diesel engines as compared to piston crown and cylinder head is found to be excessive. In order to
four-stroke/cycle, diesel engines? correct for this, you should ______________.
 Page 42

A. In a two-stroke/cycle engine, the rings run hotter, requiring the end A. build up the piston crown by metal spraying
gap to be greater.
B. Some provision must be made in a two-stroke/cycle engine to keep B. build up the cylinder head by metal spraying
the rings from binding in the ports.
C. No gap is required to exist between the ends of the ring when cold C. insert shims between the crankpin bearing box and the connecting
in a two-stroke/cycle engine, but a small gap is required in a four- rod foot
stroke/cycle engine.
D. The end gaps should be staggered on either side of a piston in a D. install a thinner head gasket
two-stroke/cycle engine, while staggering is not necessary in a four-
stroke/cycle engine.
Ans: B Ans: C
791 Bouncing of the valve gear in a diesel engine can be caused by
_____________.
A. prolonged high speed operation
B. spring surge
C. worn valve seats
D. excessively tightened spring retainers
Ans: B
MOTOR - STARTING AND REVERSING SYSTEMS
792 Where engine bores exceed 230 mm, a bursting disc or flame 793 What may be used to protect starting air mains against explosions
arrester is to be fitted ___________. arising from improperly functioning starting valves?

A. at the supply inlet to the control air manifold for non- reversing A. The starting air main shall be protected by the use of a rupture disc.
engines
B. on the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbochargers B. No protection is necessary because all starting air valves are
designed similar to check valves.
C. on all devices subject to the by-products of combustion or C. An isolation non-return valve is to be installed at the starting air
lubrication system vapors supply connection to each engine.
D. in way of the starting valve of each cylinder for direct reversing D. The materials used in the construction of the starting air mains will
engines having a main starting manifold contain any explosion.
Ans: D Ans: C
794 The total air capacity for non-reversible main engines is to be 795 Starting a large propulsion diesel engine using diesel fuel during
sufficient for _______. cold weather conditions can be made easier by ______.

A. six consecutive starts A. increasing the quantity of starting air

B. eight consecutive starts B. increasing the lube oil pressure
C. ten consecutive starts C. heating the engine fuel supply
D. twelve consecutive starts D. heating the engine jacket water
Ans: A Ans: D
796 A diesel engine is turned at normal cranking speed, but fails to fire. 797 Which of the following methods is used to prevent throttling of
This can occur from _____________. compressed air through the diesel engine air starting valves?

A. low lube oil temperature A. Holding the valve open for a long period
B. low starting air temperature B. Increasing the starting air pressure used
C. air in the fuel injection system C. Opening the starting air valve quickly
D. water in the starting air system D. Reducing the starting air valve size
Ans: C Ans: C
798 In the starting process of a diesel engine, the main object is to 799 Fluid type starting motors used for starting auxiliary diesel engines
attain the compression conditions sufficient to ______________. may either be of the piston type or the _____________.

A. turn the flywheel A. gear type

B. reduce friction B. vane type
C. overcome inertia C. impeller type
D. ignite the fuel D. accumulator type
Ans: D Ans: B
800 A six-cylinder, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is fitted with a rotary 801 In addition to a main engine driven starting air compressor, another
distributor type air starting system. The speed of the rotating air compressor, driven by a separate power source, is installed to
distributor disc is _____________. _____________.
A. one-half engine speed A. provide air for engine scavenging
B. the same as engine speed B. provide air for engine supercharging
C. twice engine speed C. supply a backup source of starting air
D. four times engine speed D. supply the independent source of reversing air
Ans: A Ans: C
802 The reversing mechanism on a direct reversing large low-speed 803 When the quick acting valve to admit starting air to an air start
main propulsion diesel engine, operated by means of oil pressure, motor is activated, the valve should be opened rapidly to
can serve to _____________. ____________.
A. bring the respective cam under the fuel pump roller A. prevent damage to the air line lubricator
B. rotate or displace the camshaft according to engine design B. ensure proper operation of the Bendix pinion
C. bring the respective cam under the air distributor pilot valves C. prevent damage to the valve seat
D. all of the above D. increase the air charge density to the motor
Ans: D Ans: B
804 Which of the listed diesel engine starting systems is most 805 Before any diesel engine hydraulic starting system is opened for
susceptible to difficulties in cold weather? servicing or repair, you must _____________.
A. Direct cylinder admission air start A. place all control levers in the "HOLD" position
B. Hydraulic B. ensure that the hydraulic fluid reservoir is full
C. Electric C. block all hydraulic hoses using high pressure covers
 Page 43

D. Air motor starting D. bleed off all hydraulic pressure from the system
Ans: C Ans: D
806 The minimum speed an engine must attain before ignition can 807 A diesel engine fails to start, even though it can be barred over, but
occur depends upon __________. not cranked over. The probable cause is _______.
A. the type and size of the engine A. a seized piston
B. the condition of the engine B. an improperly fitted bearing
C. ambient temperature C. a closed or obstructed air starting line valve
D. all of the above D. insufficient compression
Ans: D Ans: C
808 If an auxiliary diesel engine equipped with an electric starting 809 During extremely cold weather, while starting an engine, it turns too
system cranks very slowly after repeated attempts to start, the slowly and fails to start. This problem is most likely the result of
cause could be a/an ____________. ____________.
A. low lube oil viscosity A. high fuel oil viscosity
B. low compression pressure B. low fuel oil temperature
C. ring gear with broken teeth C. high lube oil viscosity
D. overheated motor winding D. energized glow plugs
Ans: D Ans: C
810 Improper seating of an air starting check valve in an operating 811 Vessels having main engines arranged for air starting are to be
diesel engine is indicated by _____________. provided with at least _________.
A. noise coming from the air starting valve A. one automatic drain serving both containers
B. an overheated air supply pipe to the cylinder head B. two air starting containers of approximately equal size
C. continuous operation of the starting air compressor C. one control air container and one starting air container
D. zero air pressure in the air starting system D. one additional means of starting the main engine
Ans: B Ans: B
812 If control air systems are supplied from starting air receivers, the 813 Cold weather starting of a diesel engine is more difficult than warm
capacity of the receivers should be sufficient _________. weather starting due to _____________.

A. to provide for intermittent starting procedures
B. for continued operation of these systems after capacity for the
required number of consecutive starts has been used
C. to provide a nonreversible engine a minimum of twelve
consecutive starts
D. to enable six consecutive starts of a reversible engine
Ans: B
814 Starting aids such as glow plugs, are installed on _____.
A. large, direct drive diesel engines
B. diesel engines designed to burn residual fuels
C. medium-speed, four-stroke/cycle diesel engines
D. small diesel engines utilizing electric starting equipment
Ans: D
816 An eight cylinder, air started, two-stroke/cycle direct reversing,
marine diesel engine can be started from any crankshaft position
only if it has ____________.
A. at least three cylinders equipped with air start valves
B. a minimum of five cylinders equipped with air start valves
C. each upper cylinder head equipped with reversible air start valves
D. the cylinders on opposite ends equipped with air start valves
A. use of low viscosity oil in cold weather
B. higher compression pressures reached due to smaller clearances
existing in the engine during cold weather
C. increased drag of pistons and bearings due to increased oil
viscosity
D. increased moisture content of inlet air in cold weather
Ans: C
815 A diesel engine may fail to start due to _____________.
A. low air charge temperature
B. high cranking speed
C. excessive fuel dilution of lube oil
D. high compression pressure
Ans: A
817 On a diesel engine, using a distributer type air startingsystem, that
is not running, which of the following methods may be used to
detect leaking air starting valves?
A. Open the cylinder test cocks and check for blowing air.
B. Check the position of the air start valve cams.
C. Stop the air compressor and check for pressure drop throughout
the system.
D. Feel each air supply line to see which is warm from leaking air.

Ans: A Ans: A
818 If a diesel engine starts firing, but is unable to come up to normal 819 After changing out the fuel filters the diesel engine fails to restart.
speed, either without load or even under a small load, the cause The most probable cause for this condition is a/an ____________.
may be ______________.
A. insufficient fuel supply A. low compression
B. faulty governor B. air-bound fuel system
C. high exhaust back pressure C. improper spark
D. all of the above may cause this problem D. change in viscosity
Ans: D Ans: B
820 While underway, which of the following would be the FIRST step in 821 A ship is propelled by a direct reversing large, slow-speed, diesel
reversing a direct reversing large, low-speed, main propulsion, engine. One step in reversing the direction of propeller rotation for
diesel engine? this vessel is by ______________.
A. Manually trip the overspeed device. A. properly inflating the air operated clutch
B. Interrupt the fuel flow to the engine. B. reversing the reduction gears
C. Disengage the safety interlock. C. changing the gear ratio
D. Slide the camshaft to the neutral position. D. reversing the servomotor
Ans: B Ans: D
822 When starting a diesel engine at temperatures below 20°C, the 823 The starting air supply for a diesel engine is generally produced by
frictional resistance to turning will be _____________. a/an _____________.
A. reduced by increasing lube oil pressure A. exhaust powered turbocharger
B. controlled by reducing the compression ratio B. Roots-type blower air pump
C. proportional to the lube oil viscosity C. centrifugal air compressor
D. eliminated by heating the intake air D. multistage reciprocating air compressor
Ans: C Ans: D
824 Air motors used for starting some auxiliary diesel engines are 825 Intercoolers installed on starting air compressors, reduce the
generally the type known as a/an ____________. possibility of ________________.
A. vane motors A. dust entering the high pressure stage
 Page 44

B. plunger motors B. lube oil carbonization

C. gear motors C. discharge pulsations
D. accumulator motors D. interstage vapor lock
Ans: A Ans: B
826 Starting air valves are held firmly on their seats by ____________. 827 Starting systems for large, low-speed, direct reversing, main
propulsion diesel engines are usually _____________.
A. cam rollers on the camshaft A. hydraulic starting motor
B. spring force B. electric starting motor
C. air pressure on top of the valve differential piston C. direct air admission
D. air pressure on the bottom of the valve differential piston D. vane type air motors
Ans: B Ans: C
828 Diesel engine air start system check valves are opened by 829 In a hydraulic starting system, oil to the starting motor flows from the
_____________. _____________.
A. an air start cam A. accumulator
B. cylinder compression pressure B. reservoir
C. starting air pressure C. hand pump
D. valve springs D. electric pump
Ans: C Ans: A
830 When an air started, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is being 831 If a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is started by injecting air into the
cranked, the starting air is admitted to each cylinder during what cylinders, the pistons receiving the charge of starting air must be
would normally be the _____________. _____________.
A. intake stroke A. on the power stroke
B. compression stroke B. on the exhaust stroke
C. power stroke C. at the end of the power stroke
D. exhaust stroke D. at the start of the intake stroke
Ans: C Ans: A
832 An auxiliary diesel engine may fail to start due to _____________. 833 If a diesel engine rotates slowly when cranked, but does not fire, the
___________________.
A. low exhaust back pressure A. fuel control rack had admitted excessive fuel
B. high lube oil temperature B. engine speed does not match the fuel rack setting
C. insufficient cranking speed C. engine has failed to reach its firing speed
D. excessive fuel atomization D. starter pinion and ring gear contact is not correct
Ans: C Ans: C
834 Which of the routine maintenance procedures listed is required for 835 Which of the following problems can occur if you continually fail to
starting air receivers? drain off condensate from a starting air receiver?
A. Frequent draining of accumulated moisture. A. Corrosion and eventual failure of the tank.
B. Frequent testing of relief valves. B. Gumming of the tank relief valves.
C. A close watch on temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure. C. Immediate failure of components downstream of the compressed
air system.
D. Frequent cleaning to remove oil and foreign matter. D. Boiling of the water oil mixture as pressure is reduced.
Ans: A Ans: A
836 When attempting to start a main propulsion diesel engine, the 837 A four-stroke/cycle, 1000 horsepower diesel engine fails to start at
engine turns at the proper speed but will not start. You should normal cranking speed with normal fuel pressure and ambient
check the _____________. temperature. The reason for the failure could be
_______________.
A. starting air pressure A. glazed liners or pistons
B. scavenge air pressure B. high lube oil pressure
C. overspeed trip C. excessive compression ratio
D. banjo oiler line D. worn valve seats and valves
Ans: C Ans: D
838 Which of the listed items should be secured before performing any 839 When starting air is admitted, a diesel engine turns over very slowly
maintenance on a solenoid operated air start valve? without firing. The cause may be ______________.

A. Electric power A. an obstruction in an engine cylinder

B. Lube oil standby pump B. water accumulation in some engine cylinders
C. Hydraulic switch C. low starting air pressure
D. Motor drain D. low scavenge air pressure
Ans: A Ans: C
840 A pilot-operated, main air starting valve begins leaking in one 841 Hydraulic starters are installed on many lifeboat diesel engines
cylinder while the engine is operating. This malfunction is indicated instead of comparable air start systems, because ____________.
by ____________.
A. an increase in the exhaust temperature reading for that cylinder A. hydraulic starters are the least expensive of all starting systems

B. an increase in the starting air manifold pressure B. the system does not require high pressure piping
C. high exhaust pressure C. hydraulic systems turn diesel engines at higher rates of speed than
air starters
D. an overheated air supply line to that cylinder D. the system can be manually recharged
Ans: D Ans: D
842 If a diesel engine fails to start, one of the likely causes is 843 A diesel engine may fail to start when being cranked, due to
_____________. _____________.
A. low compression temperature A. high cetane number
B. low ambient air pressure B. insufficient compression
C. high lube oil pump pressure C. low lube oil viscosity
D. high fuel oil booster pump pressure D. high lube oil pressure
Ans: A Ans: B
 Page 45

844 If a hydraulic starting motor turns, but the diesel engine does not, 845 A bendix drive starting motor disengages the drive gear from the
the most likely cause is ____________. flywheel by ______________.
A. excessive viscosity in the hydraulic fluid A. spring force
B. a malfunctioning overrunning clutch B. rotating of the starting cam
C. loss of accumulator precharge C. the high rotating speed of the flywheel
D. air in the hydraulic system D. applying accumulator pressure
Ans: B Ans: C
846 A diesel engine electric starting motor is operated under a no-load 847 If the diesel engine starter-drive mechanism fails to disengage after
condition. Continuing to operate the motor unloaded will the engine starts, which of the following situations will occur?
_______________.
A. disengage the throw out bearing A. The engine will stall.
B. overspeed and cause serious damage B. The starter motor will have reverse current.
C. fail to develop normal speed C. The engine flywheel will be burred.
D. cause the pinion to fail D. the starter motor will overspeed
Ans: B Ans: D
848 During maneuvering operations for a direct reversing large, low- 849 The pilot valves in an air pilot starting system for a two-stroke/cycle,
speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the following direct-reversing, main propulsion diesel engine are operated by
actions is used to stop the shaft from turning prior to reversing the either a ported distributor disc or a/an _____________.
engine rotation?
A. Flywheel inertia A. regulator valve
B. Admission of starting air B. quick opening main air valve
C. The way of the vessel C. pilot air start check valve
D. securing of fuel to the cylinders D. individual cam for each pilot valve
Ans: B Ans: D
850 A two-stroke/cycle diesel engine requires less starting air than a 851 Which of the listed types of starting systems is often used on large,
four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, of equal displacement, because low-speed, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines?
the two-stroke/cycle diesel engine _____________.

A. has little or no internal friction A. Electric

B. has a lower effective compression ratio B. Hydraulic
C. operates with scavenge air under a positive pressure C. Air
D. operates without energy absorbing intake and exhaust strokes D. all of the above

Ans: D Ans: C
852 The timing of diesel engine air starting valves is controlled by 853 Which of the types of motors listed is used in a hydraulic starter?
_____________.
A. the air start valve timing gears and rods A. Piston
B. a cylinder check valve B. Gear
C. individual cams and valve gear C. Turbine
D. an air manifold poppet valve D. centrifugal
Ans: C Ans: A
854 An accumulator used in a hydraulic starting system is generally 855 The device used to store a charged pressure for an hydraulic
located between the _____________. starting system is called the _____________.
A. pump and the compressor A. reservoir
B. storage tank and the pump B. hand pump
C. starting motor and the reserve tank C. accelerator
D. pump and the starting motor D. accumulator
Ans: D Ans: D
856 The pinion of an electric starting motor used with a diesel engine 857 Auxiliary diesel engine electric starting motors use ____________.
engages the flywheel ring gear by a/an ____________.

A. automatic follow-up A. alternating current

B. muff coupling and release B. 400 cycle per second motor-generators
C. friction-type clutch C. low amp, high voltage AC
D. bendrix drive or similar mechanism D. direct current
Ans: D Ans: D
858 In a starting motor equipped with a Bendix drive, the pinion moves 859 A large two-stroke/cycle direct reversing diesel engine is to be
and meshes with the flywheel ring gear due to __________. reversed. Prior to the admission of starting air you must
____________.
A. the mechanical linkage A. line up the engine for restarting with light diesel oil
B. the threaded sleeve's rotation B. reposition the fuel injection cam
C. centrifugal force C. change the intake and exhaust valve cam positions
D. electromotive force D. place the starting cam in the intermediate position
Ans: B Ans: B
860 In a medium-speed marine propulsion engine equipped with direct 861 Two air compressors are provided for the starting air system and
air starting valves, the cylinders without air starting valves fire first should be capable of ______.
because the ____________.
A. operation is under higher compression A. charging the starting air containers within one hour
B. fuel is admitted only to these cylinders during cranking B. providing the minimum quantity of starting air at all times
C. compression is released during starting by opening the exhaust C. supplying all the air necessary to start both the main engine and an
valve auxiliary at the same time
D. cylinders are not chilled by the expansion of the starting air D. topping of all receivers at the required design pressures
Ans: D Ans: A
862 If cranking a diesel engine is too slow while attempting to start, it will 863 In an operating diesel engine, which of the following conditions is
result in _____________. an indication of a leaking air starting valve?
A. insufficient heat of compression A. Noise coming from that air starting valve.
 Page 46

B. fouling of the air intakes B. Continuous operation of the starting air compressor.
C. improper injection timing C. Zero air pressure in the air starting system.
D. high exhaust temperatures D. Overheated starting air pipe to the cylinder head.
Ans: A Ans: D
864 Each receiver in a starting air system which can be isolated from a 865 Air receivers installed in starting air systems are to be ________.
relief valve _______________.
A. is to be provided with a suitable fusible plug to relieve the pressure A. cylindrical in shape with service connections located at the top and
in case of fire bottom
B. will incorporate the use of an automatic unloading device B. opened and made available for inspection during biannual
inspections
C. will not be approved for classification purposes C. provided with automatic drain traps for the removal of moisture

D. and satisfy classification regulations shall be approved D. so installed as to make the drain connections effective under
extreme conditions of trim
Ans: A Ans: D
866 A diesel engine may be hard to start if the _____________. 867 The total starting air capacity required for reversible main engines is
to be sufficient for a least __________.
A. air intake is restricted A. six consecutive starts
B. engine is cranked too fast B. eight consecutive starts
C. vibration dampener is faulty C. ten consecutive starts
D. exhaust back pressure is low D. twelve consecutive starts
Ans: A Ans: D
868 What preventative maintenance should be done frequently to diesel
engine starting air receivers?
A. Drain the accumulated moisture.
B. Test the relief valves.
C. Watch the temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure.
D. Clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter.
Ans: A
LUBRICATING SYSTEMS
869 Heat exchangers are most commonly found in a small auxiliary 870 One advantage of vacuum feed type cylinder lubricators over the
diesel engine ____________. liquid sight glass type is ______________.
A. fuel oil system A. there are fewer moving parts
B. governing system B. adjustment is not required
C. air starting system C. better metering accuracy
D. lube oil system D. a lower grade of oil may be used
Ans: D Ans: C
871 Which of the following devices controls the discharge flow rate of an 872 Mechanical lubricators for diesel engine cylinders are usually small
attached, positive displacement, rotary gear, diesel engine, lube oil reciprocating pumps which are _____________.
pump?
A. A pressure regulating valve A. operated manually once each hour
B. A pressure relief valve B. operated until the engine has started
C. The engine speed C. placed into operation only at maximum load
D. An orifice D. adjustable to meet lubrication requirements
Ans: C Ans: D
873 Which of the following statements is true concerning an oil cooler? 874 Lubrication for the main reduction gears used with diesel engines is
usually supplied by _____________.
A. The oil temperature is less than the cooling water temperature. A. oil from the main engine sump

B. The oil pressure is less than the cooling water pressure. B. an independent lube oil system
C. The oil pressure is greater than the cooling water pressure. C. the stern bearing head tank
D. The oil flow control valve is always installed in the oil input line D. the stern bearing sump tank

Ans: C Ans: B
875 Which of the following devices is normally provided to prevent oil 876 A large, low-speed, crosshead, main propulsion diesel engine using
starvation in a diesel engine lubrication system utilizing the "full residual fuel oils must have a cylinder oil having a ____________.
flow" principle?
A. Duplex strainer A. low TBN value
B. Three-way valve B. high alkaline reserve
C. Pressure relief bypass line around the filter C. low fclearance point
D. Mechanical straining filter D. high pour point
Ans: C Ans: B
877 Many lube oil filters have pressure gauges installed on both the inlet 878 The rate of cylinder lubricating oil metered to each cylinder of a
and outlet in order to indicate the pressure drop across the filter. In large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is
normal operation, the pressure drop will _____________. ______________.

A. slowly increase A. the same, whether at sea, or during maneuvering

B. slowly decrease B. adjusted during each hour of operation while at constant RPM
C. remain the same C. higher at sea than while maneuvering
D. have no effect on filter operation D. lower at sea than while maneuvering
Ans: A Ans: C
879 Lube oil cannot be efficiently filtered if its ____________. 880 A dirty lube oil strainer can result in _____________.
A. viscosity is too low A. crankcase dilution
B. temperature is too low B. low lube oil temperature
C. pump discharge pressure is higher than the system's pressure C. excessive oil consumption
 Page 47

D. pump capacity is greater than the system's needs D. low bearing oil pressure
Ans: B Ans: D
881 Lube oil filters remove contaminants more efficiently if the oil being 882 The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system
filtered is _____________. duplex filter should be checked to _________.
A. under high pressure A. determine the need for filter changing
B. under low pressure B. measure any change in oil viscosity
C. heated to reduce viscosity C. prevent damage to the filter
D. cooled to increase viscosity D. determine the need for batch filtration
Ans: C Ans: A
883 Lube oil in the fresh water cooling system of a diesel engine may 884 Most large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines use duplex
result from a _____________. lube oil strainer to _____________.
A. camshaft seizure A. decrease the time required between cleanings
B. lube oil pump failure B. remove water contamination
C. lube oil cooler failure C. ensure a positive flow of oil at all times
D. lube oil sump overflow D. ensure that all lube oil has been treated twice
Ans: C Ans: C
885 Which harmful consequence may be the result of lube oil sludge 886 The TBN value of diesel engine lube oil refers to its ability to
accumulation? _____________.
A. Clogged oil pump suction screens. A. resist changes in viscosity with changes in temperature
B. Increased oil operating temperatures. B. resist emulsification
C. Sticking piston rings. C. neutralize acids
D. All of the above D. resist oxidation at high temperatures
Ans: D Ans: C
887 A dirty fuel oil filter is can be detected by ________. I. fuel oil 888 Sludge formation in a diesel engine lube oil system is caused by
analysis II. observing the pressure drop across the filter ____________.
A. I only A. carbonization of oils from the combustion chambers
B. II only B. emulsions of lube oil and water
C. either I or II C. coagulation of unburned fuel below the piston rings
D. neither I nor II D. All of the above.
Ans: B Ans: D
889 Two important considerations for the proper lubrication ofa diesel 890 The adverse effects of burning high sulphur fuel can be
engine include, the delivery of the oil insufficient amount, and the compensated for by using a cylinder oil having sufficient
____________. ________________.
A. cetane number A. dispersant additives
B. pour point B. floc point depressive additives
C. viscosity temperature C. alkalinity
D. quality of the oil D. ignition quality
Ans: D Ans: C
891 Lubricating systems for diesel engines are usually designed to 892 The lube oil cooler is located after the lube oil filter in order for
initially provide lube oil to the engine _____________. _____________.
A. camshaft bearings A. the filter to operate more efficiently
B. main bearings B. the lube oil cooler to be bypassed
C. piston crowns C. positive lube oil pump suction to be assured
D. cylinder walls D. galvanic action in the cooler to be minimized
Ans: B Ans: A
893 A spring-loaded relief valve is located on some lube oil filters in full 894 Lube oil filters remove contaminants from oil more efficiently if the
flow systems to _____________. oil being filtered is _____________.
A. prevent overpressurization of the filter cartridge A. heated to reduce viscosity
B. prevent overpressurization of the filter casing B. cooled to increase viscosity
C. bypass the filter should it become clogged C. pumped rapidly through the filter
D. limit the lube oil outlet pressure D. pumped through the filter under high pressure
Ans: C Ans: A
895 Lubricating oil used in a diesel engine serves to _________. 896 A diesel engine should use which type of lubricating oil?
A. reduce the wear of bearing surfaces A. Nondetergent oil
B. cool the bearing surfaces B. Cutting oil
C. assist in sealing bearing surfaces C. High grade vegetable oil
D. all of the above D. Detergent oil
Ans: D Ans: D
897 In a diesel engine, the function of lubrication oil is to provide 898 A diesel engine exposed to widely varying ambient temperatures
_____________. should use a lubricating oil with ____________.
A. a film between the shafts and bearings A. a high viscosity index
B. cooling of the pistons and bearings B. a low viscosity index
C. for removal of dirt or metal particles resulting from wear C. extreme pressure additives
D. all of the above D. no additives
Ans: D Ans: A
899 When fuel enters the crankcase of a diesel engine, it 900 The thickness of the oil film to be developed in a diesel engine main
_____________. bearing, depends upon the _____________.
A. dilutes the lube oil and reduces its viscosity A. bearing pressure
B. forms sulphuric acid in the lube oil B. viscosity of the oil
C. causes pitting and failure of the bearings C. rpm of the shaft
D. causes sludge deposits on valve stems D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
901 Maximum lube system operating pressure for a diesel engine is 902 For a continuous operation diesel engine, a duplex filter unit would
normally regulated by a/an _____________. be the best arrangement because _____________.
A. orifice in the pump suction A. changing filter elements would not interrupt engine operation
B. special filter design B. filtering occurs twice in each pass of oil through the system
 Page 48

C. pressure drop through the filter C. clogging will not occur

D. relief valve D. dropping in pressure is half of that through a single stage filter unit

Ans: D Ans: A
903 The highest indicated lube oil pressure in a diesel engine should be 904 In a diesel engine, maximum lube oil system pressure isnormally
expected when the engine oil is ________. controlled by _____________.
A. cold at idle A. the capacity of the lube oil pump
B. warm at idle B. the speed of the lube oil pump
C. warm at full speed C. the outlet pressure of the lube oil pump
D. warm at full speed and no fuel dilution exists D. a relief valve
Ans: A Ans: D
905 With respect to the flow of lubricating oil through a diesel engine, 906 Lubricating oil systems for diesel engine journal bearings are
the lube oil coolers are located after filters in order to usually lubricated by which of the following types of lubricating oil
_____________. systems?
A. allow filtration of less viscous oil A. splash
B. decrease the pressure drop across the filter B. Gravity
C. improve overall filtration C. Pressure
D. All of the above D. bypass
Ans: D Ans: C
907 Which of the following characteristics of lube oil helps to reduce the 908 Which lubricating oil additive is used in diesel engines to reduce the
amount of deposits in the piston ring belt during the combustion tendency for sludge and varnish to form on the engine parts?
process in a diesel engine?
A. Low viscosity index A. Fclearance point improvers
B. Low carbon forming tendencies B. Pour point improvers
C. High film strength C. Inhibitors
D. High noncorrosive qualities D. Foam suppressors
Ans: B Ans: C
909 Motor vessels usually have independent lube oil systems for main 910 Where may a strainer be located in a diesel engine lubricating oil
engine and main reduction gears because ______________. system?

A. coolers are not needed for the gear system A. Suction line
B. contaminants produced by the engine could harm the reduction B. Discharge line
gears
C. non-additive oils are used in the main engine system C. Supply line
D. different type centrifuges are required for the main engine and D. In any combination of the above
reduction gear lube systems
Ans: B Ans: D
LUBRICATION - MAINTENANCE
911 To routinely clean a metal-edge type lube oil strainer, you should 912 When excessive fuel dilution is noted in the lube oil, the oil should
_____________. be _____________.
A. remove the disc element and immerse it in gasoline A. centrifuged
B. remove the disc element and immerse it in kerosene B. filtered
C. rotate the disc element and drain off the sediment C. strained
D. rotate the knife-edge cleaner blades and drain off the sediment D. changed

Ans: C Ans: D
913 If a used lube oil analysis indicates excessive fuel dilution, the lube 914 A "detergent-type" lube oil, used in a diesel engine, should be
oil should be _____________. replaced when _____________.
A. changed A. fuel oil dilution is 5%
B. centrifuged B. it begins to turn black
C. filtered C. the exhaust shows traces of blue smoke
D. settled D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: A
915 Which of the contaminants listed would remain in the lube oil after 916 Most large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines use duplex
filtering? lube oil strainer to _____________.
A. Acid sludge A. decrease the time required between cleanings
B. Fuel oil B. remove all large and small foreign objects
C. Sediment C. ensure a positive flow of oil at all times
D. Water D. ensure that all lube oil has been treated twice
Ans: B Ans: C
917 Which of the following test points should be considered a 918 In a normally operating diesel engine, the main source of lubricating
determining factor as to whether or not a diesel generator's lube oil oil contamination in the crankcase is a result of the
should be drained and renewed? ______________.
A. An extremely low neutralization number. A. metal particles loosened by wear
B. An extremely high precipitation number. B. air when no air cleaners are used
C. The oil appears black in color. C. condensation of water vapors
D. A minor increase in fclearance point. D. breakdown of the lubricating oil itself
Ans: B Ans: D
919 A magnetic strainer is used in the diesel engine reduction gear oil 920 A dirty diesel engine oil filter element can best be detected by
system to remove small particles of _____________. _____________.
A. water A. visual inspection of the elements
B. babbitt B. the pressure drop across the filter
C. iron or steel C. high lube oil sump temperature
D. acids D. decrease in oil viscosity from the filter
Ans: C Ans: B
 Page 49

921 What could cause the bypass valve in a full-flow lubrication system 922 The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system
to open? duplex filter should be checked to _________.
A. Clogged filter element A. determine the need for filter cleaning
B. Bypass valve setting is too high B. measure any change in oil viscosity
C. Check valve stuck open C. prevent damage to the filter
D. Fuel dilution of the lubricant D. determine the need for batch filtration
Ans: A Ans: A
923 To properly clean the disks of a metal-edge type strainer in a diesel 924 A "Blotter test" is performed on the lube oil of a diesel engine to
engine lube oil system, you should _____________. determine the _________.
A. remove the disks and soak them in kerosene A. percent of fuel dilution of lube oil
B. rotate the T-handle spindle one turn B. fclearance point
C. wire brush the disks to remove sludge C. relative detergency remaining
D. blow compressed air through the disks D. TBN number
Ans: B Ans: C
925 When fuel oil has seriously contaminated a diesel engine lubricating 926 How often should the lubricating oil of a diesel engine be changed?
oil, you should ____________.
A. filter to remove the fuel oil A. After every trip
B. use the settler to remove the fuel oil B. Every 4000 hours
C. remove the fuel oil by centrifuging C. According to manufacturer's instructions
D. drain and then renew the lube oil supply D. Every time they are shutdown
Ans: D Ans: C
927 If the detergent type lubricating oil being used in a diesel engine is 928 Which of the following operational conditions will occur to the diesel
black, the oil _____________. engine lube oil at extremely high temperatures?
A. must be centrifuged A. The oil oxidizes and forms carbon deposits.
B. must be filtered B. The viscosity increases.
C. must be changed C. Engine oil consumption decreases.
D. is holding finely dispersed carbon in suspension D. Lubricating qualities of the oil are enhanced.
Ans: D Ans: A
929 Oil oxidation, as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is 930 Metal particles accumulated from the wearing of components in a
harmful to a diesel engine because _____________. diesel engine can result from lube oil that has been contaminated
with _____________.
A. oil foaming will occur A. abrasive particles
B. large quantities of oil are consumed B. metallic oxides
C. lube oil viscosity is always decreased C. corrosive acids
D. corrosive by-products are usually formed D. any or all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
931 If the analysis of used lube oil indicates a high content of iron 932 If a used lube oil analysis indicates an excessive chromate content,
particles, this could indicate _____________. this means _____________.
A. corrosive deterioration of a bearing A. air filtration is inadequate
B. inadequate air filtration B. engine coolant is leaking into the lube oil
C. excessive ring and liner wear C. fuel oil is leaking into the lube oil
D. excessive cooling of lubricating oil D. the piston rings are excessively worn
Ans: C Ans: B
933 One simple laboratory analysis of used lube oil that can be carried 934 A decrease in the fclearance point of the diesel engine lube oil
out aboard ship is called the _____________. indicates the lube oil is _____________.
A. paraffin test A. diluted with fuel oil
B. blotter test B. diluted with water
C. stability test C. contaminated with carbon
D. spectrographic test D. contaminated with sludge
Ans: B Ans: A
935 Which of the listed conditions can be used to determine if lube oil 936 A sudden decrease in the diesel engine lube oil viscosity could be
has been diluted by fuel? an indication of ____________.
A. Viscosity is lowered. A. loss of additives from the lube oil
B. Octane number is altered. B. carbon deposits in the lube oil
C. Pump speed is decreased. C. excessive centrifuging
D. Blowers' speed is decreased. D. excessive fuel dilution
Ans: A Ans: D
937 Which of the following faults would allow lube oil to enter the cooling 938 The color of the diesel engine detergent type lube oil in an operating
system of a diesel engine? diesel engine is black, this indicates _____________.

A. Excessive valve train lubrication A. "worn out" oil

B. Leaking standby oil cooler core B. fuel dilution
C. Excessive lube oil pressure C. water dilution
D. Excessive lube oil in the system D. normal oil condition
Ans: B Ans: D
939 If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from adiesel 940 Oil oxidation as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is
engine indicates an increased neutralization number the harmful to a diesel engine because _____________.
_________.
A. acidity has increased A. oil foaming will always occur
B. viscosity has decreased B. large quantities of oil are consumed
C. demulsibility has improved C. lube oil viscosity is always decreased
D. foaming is guaranteed to occur D. corrosive by-products are usually formed
Ans: A Ans: D
941 Unusually low oil pressure in the lube oil header of a diesel engine 942 To manually bypass a strainer or filter in a shunt type lube oil
is the result of a/an ____________. filtering system, _____________.
A. pressure regulating valve being stuck in the closed position A. first, parallel the drain lines
 Page 50

B. restricted lube oil passage in the engine B. turn the three-way valve
C. air leak in the lube oil cooler C. open the bypass valve and then close the isolation valves
D. air leak in the oil pump suction line D. close the isolation valves and then open the bypass valve
Ans: D Ans: B
943 In a full flow type lube oil system, the bypass relief valve will lift due 944 To determine if the lube oil filter elements need changing,
to _____________. ________________.
A. a clogged filter element A. open the filter and inspect the elements
B. excessive lube oil pump discharge pressure B. check the lube oil pump discharge pressure
C. excessive lube oil flow C. check the lube oil header pressure
D. excessively hot lube oil D. check the pressure and drop across the filter
Ans: A Ans: D
945 A decrease in flash point of diesel engine lube oil indicates lube oil 946 Which of the listed conditions can cause a diesel engine to use too
has become __________ . much lube oil?
A. contaminated with sludge A. Dirty lube oil filter
B. contaminated with carbon B. Too much piston ring wear
C. diluted with fuel oil C. High lube oil viscosity
D. diluted with water D. low lube oil temperature
Ans: C Ans: B
947 Which of the following conditions is indicated when the lubricating 948 When a leak has developed in the lube oil cooler of an operating
oil of a diesel engine turns dark after a few hours of use? diesel engine, which of the listed operating conditions can be
expected to occur?
A. The oil should be purified. A. Lube oil contaminated with saltwater
B. The lubricating quality of the oil has dangerously deteriorated. B. Lube oil level decreases

C. The oil is functioning normally. C. Lube oil contaminated with fresh water coolant
D. Normal engine operating temperatures have been reached D. lube oil level increases
Ans: C Ans: B
949 The oxidation by-products forming in diesel engine lube oil can 950 Under normal conditions, the main source of crankcase oil
cause _____________. contamination is attributed to ______________.
A. pitting A. metal particles loosened by wear
B. sludge B. air when air cleaners are not used
C. hard varnish C. condensation of water vapors
D. All of the above. D. breakdown of the lubricating oil
Ans: D Ans: D
951 A condition that can increase the foaming tendency of lube oil is 952 One device used to determine the amount of fuel dilution of diesel
________. engine lube oil is a/an ____________.
A. excessively high oil temperatures A. autogenous ignition indicator
B. water or moisture contamination B. viscosity-dilution chart
C. fuel dilution C. precipitation number indicator
D. carbon suspension D. modified neutrality chart
Ans: B Ans: B
953 Fuel oil contamination of an auxiliary diesel engine lube oil can 954 Diesel engine lube oil can become contaminated as a result of
result in _____________. _____________.
A. an increased fclearance point A. the water produced during combustion
B. higher lube oil pressures B. the sulphur in the fuel
C. an increased viscosity C. unburned fuel oil
D. lower lube oil pressures D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
955 Lubricating oil viscosity in an operating diesel engine can be 956 The Total Base Number(TBN) value of diesel engine lube oil refers
reduced by _____________. to its ability to _____________.
A. increasing cooling water flow A. resist changes in viscosity with changes in temperature
B. increasing lube oil flow B. resist emulsification
C. dilution by fuel oil C. neutralize acids
D. Adding SAE 70 oil D. resist oxidation at high temperatures
Ans: C Ans: C
FUEL SYSTEMS
957 To prevent vibration damage to the fuel supply line of a diesel 958 The light and medium fuels utilized in internal combustion engines
engine, you may use ____________. provide a source of ________.
A. a short length of heavy duty clear plastic tubing A. lubrication for pistons and rings
B. a length of approved flexible nonmetallic hose B. food for microbiological organisms
C. welded flange connections for all joints C. gases most detrimental to the ozone layer of the atmosphere
D. aluminum piping with expansion loops D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: B
959 Microbiological growths in marine fuel are a common occurrence 960 The growth rate of microbiological organisms as found in some fuel
that can be ________. supplies will __________.
A. extremely detrimental to equipment and operating processes A. increase in direct proportion to an increase in temperature
B. prevented by maintaining proper storage temperatures B. decrease if bleaches are added to the fuel on a regular basis

C. removed from emulsified fuel oil during the centrifuging processes C. remain unchanged provided complete consumption of the fuel
occurs monthly
D. All of the above are correct. D. All of the above
Ans: A Ans: A
961 Fuels as produced in a refinery are generally sterile, however, 962 In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is
contamination can occur as fuels are ________. necessary for ________.
A. stored at the refinery A. high temperatures to exist
B. stored on the vessel B. low temperatures to exist
 Page 51

C. transported to the distribution sites C. small amounts of water to be present

D. All of the above are correct. D. large amounts of water to be present
Ans: D Ans: C
963 Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication of microbial 964 Which of the substances listed is satisfactorily removed from the
contamination? fuel by a centrifugal oil purifier?
A. Objectionable odors A. Carbon particles
B. Increased air filter changes B. Lube oil
C. Occurrences of flow restrictions C. Gasoline
D. Increased corrosion of tank plating D. Diesel fuel
Ans: B Ans: A
965 A dirty fuel oil filter element can be detected by ________. 966 Fuel oil having a low cetane rating could result in _______.
A. visual inspection of the element A. improved cold weather starting
B. the pressure drop across the filter B. excessive fuel oil consumption
C. high fuel oil tank temperature C. reduced ignition lag
D. increase flow rate from the filter D. smoother engine operation
Ans: B Ans: B
967 In diesel engineering practice, the term used to express the ignition 968 With respect to diesel fuel, the ease with which a cold engine will
quality of a particular fuel is _____________. start is dependent upon the _____________.
A. cetane number A. ignition quality of the fuel
B. octane number B. high heating value of the fuel
C. ignition index number C. amount of carbon residue after combustion
D. volatility point D. internal flow resistance in the injectors
Ans: A Ans: A
969 Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane 970 Why are heavy fuels not usually prone to the problems of
number rating of diesel fuel? microbiological infection?
A. The cetane number is obtained by comparing the fuel with cetane, A. Heavy fuels are subjected to better refining processes which
a colorless liquid hydrocarbon. prevent the formation of these growths.
B. The higher the cetane number, the shorter the ignition lag. B. Most heavy fuels contain chemicals which prevent the growth of
fungi and other bacteria.
C. The highest cetane number of fuel is 100. C. Microbiological infection does not affect marine fuel but rather the
personnel who are involved with the handling, storage and
purification of the fuel.
D. All of the above. D. The necessary nutrients that the organisms feed on are in a more
complex form and not available for microbial degradation.

Ans: D Ans: D
971 Most type(s) of microbiological growths in fuel are __________. 972 Fuel oil strainers should be made of ____________. I. copper II.
brass
A. bacteria A. I only
B. fungi B. II only
C. yeasts C. either I or II
D. All of the above D. neither I nor II
Ans: D Ans: D
973 Which of the following statements describes the unchecked growth 974 When fuel oil heaters are required for main engine operation,
of microbiological organisms within a fuel system? ____________.
A. The dying bacteria will cause a coating to be formed on the sides of A. each heater shall have the capacity to supply the main engine at
the tank thereby decreasing corrosion. full power
B. The fuel in the tank will loose its fluidity, solidify, and be the cause of B. at least two heaters of approximately equal size are to be installed
an expensive removal process.
C. Corrosion of various metal components will occur due to the C. the system shall be designed to permit series or parallel operation
formation of hydrogen sulfide gas.
D. All of the above are correct. D. none of the above
Ans: C Ans: B
975 An indication of microbial contamination is ______. 976 One cause of diesel engine fuel ignition delay is _______.
A. stripping of paint in tanks A. mechanical flexibility in the pump mechanism
B. reduced corrosion in fuel tanks B. late fuel injection
C. usually discovered during normally scheduled strainer cleaning C. early fuel injection

D. yellow slime or fibrous sludge D. ignition quality of the fuel oil

Ans: A Ans: D
977 The desirable properties of a marine fuel oil should include 978 A substance found in residual fuels which tends to cause exhaust
_____________. valve corrosion and grooving, is ____________.
A. high flash point and high viscosity A. carbon
B. low flash point and high viscosity B. vanadium
C. low heating value and high sulphur content C. calcium
D. high heating value and low sulphur content D. hydrogen
Ans: D Ans: B
979 Which of the listed factors will indicate the most about the ability of 980 To minimize corrosion, fuel oil strainer disks, spacers and scraper
a fuel to ignite in a diesel engine? blades are made of _____________.
A. Viscosity A. brass
B. sulphur content B. copper
C. Pour point C. iron
D. Cetane number D. monel metal or stainless steel
Ans: D Ans: D
 Page 52

981 A mixture of 45% cetane and 55% alpha-methyl-naphthalene is 982 The sludge tank installed in the diesel engine room is used to collect
found to have the same ignition delay as a sample of diesel oil. The _____________. I. sludge from the fuel oil settling tanks and
sample can be described as having a/an __________. centrifuge II. water that has been collected in the settling tank.

A. cetane number of 55 A. I only

B. cetane number of 45 B. II only
C. octane number of 55 C. both I and II
D. octane number of 45 D. neither I or II
Ans: B Ans: C
983 Injection lag in a diesel engine may be caused by _________. 984 Diesel engine injection lag is caused by _____________.
A. a higher cetane number of fuel oil A. compressibility of the fuel
B. the diesel fuel used having a high viscosity B. high fuel oil supply flow
C. mechanical rigidity in the lube pump mechanism C. scored plunger and barrel packing
D. a decrease in the fuel pump delivery pressure D. excessive air turbulence
Ans: B Ans: A
985 Automatically fired auxiliary boilers use fuel oil strainer 986 Piping from booster pumps to injection systems are to be at least
arrangements of either the simplex type or _____________. ________.
A. filter bag type A. schedule 60
B. metal disc type B. schedule 80
C. absorbent type C. standard seamless steel
D. duplex type D. none of the above
Ans: D Ans: C
987 The fuel oil strainers located in the fuel oil service system of an 988 Which of the following represents the significance the fuel oil cetane
automatic auxiliary heating boiler are either the duplex type or the number?
_______________.
A. filter bag type A. The cetane number has no affect on injection lag.
B. Perry filter type B. The cetane number is an indication of the fuel's viscosity.
C. simplex type C. Ignition lag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number.

D. absorbent type D. The cetane number is of little significance in the combustion

process.
Ans: C Ans: C
989 Proper filtering and straining of diesel fuel is important because the 990 Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane
_____________. number of diesel fuel?
A. fuel oil pump will overspeed if dirt is not removed A. The cetane number affects the amount of injection lag.
B. fuel oil transfer pumps cannot tolerate small amounts of grit in the B. The cetane number is of little significance in the combustion
oil process.
C. fuel injectors may be damaged by foreign particles in the fuel oil C. Ignition lag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number.

D. dirty fuel will clog the intake air filter D. The cetane number is an indication of the fuel's viscosity.
Ans: C Ans: C
991 If a diesel engine runs out of fuel, you can expect trouble from 992 The cetane number rates fuels for diesel engines according to its
_____________. _____________.
A. overheated injector pumps A. antiknock characteristics
B. water condensed in the cylinders B. ignition qualities
C. fuel dilution of the lube oil C. rates of vaporization
D. air in the fuel system D. viscosity
Ans: D Ans: B
993 The cetane rating of diesel fuel is an indication of the 994 The ignition quality of a fuel oil is an important operational
______________. consideration because it _____________.
A. ignition quality of the fuel A. indicates the amount of abrasive material in the fuel
B. calorific value of the fuel B. affects the starting ability of a cold engine
C. fclearance point of the fuel C. determines the amount of fuel penetration
D. rate of fuel consumption D. affects the compression ratio of an operating engine
Ans: A Ans: B
FUEL SYSTEMS - MAINTENANCE
995 When cleaning a duplex strainer, it is important for 996 Which chemical listed is utilized to prevent and correct most
_____________. microbial infections occurring within fuel storage systems?
A. the pressure to be bled prior to opening the compartment cover A. Bleaches

B. the lube oil to be allowed to cool before removing the basket B. Banalities
C. the cleaning fluid used to be more viscous than the lube oil C. Biocides
D. a new cover gasket to be installed when reassembling the unit D. Benzene additives

Ans: A Ans: C
997 The metal edge type filters used in diesel engine fuel oil and lube oil 998 Proper housekeeping to prevent the formation of microbiological
systems are normally cleaned in place by _____________. growths within a fuel system includes the prevention of water
accumulations and the use of _______.
A. back flushing the system and draining the filter A. steam coils
B. opening the drain plug and blowing through the filter B. fuel oil centrifuges
C. manually operating a built-in scraper and draining the filter C. fuel oil discharge filters
D. flushing with any approved solvent then draining the system D. chemical additives called biocides
Ans: C Ans: D
999 Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication of microbial 1000 An increased pressure differential between the inlet and outlet of a
contamination of the fuel supply? strainer usually indicates the strainer is _____________.
 Page 53

A. Evidence of corrosion A. holed

B. Pitting of metal surfaces B. fouled
C. Presence of green slime C. clean
D. Brightening of copper bering metals D. dry
Ans: D Ans: B
1001 Small amounts of moisture are necessary to trigger the growth of 1002 Which of the following statements describes the results of
microbiological organisms found in some marine fuels. Some excessive microbiological growths within a fuel system?
sources of water contamination are _________.
A. tank surface leakage A. All excessive amounts of growth will cause the main engines of the
vessel to stall due to the inability to supply the proper quantities of
fuel to satisfy the existing load.
B. humidity and condensation B. The deposits produced by these growths form blockages and flow
restrictions ultimately leading to improper atomization of the fuel into
the cylinders.
C. improper tank washing procedures C. Eventually the growth of these organisms will deplete the supply of
food available to them, which in turn will cause their demise.

D. All of the above D. If continual growth is permitted, a sweet odor similar to that
associated with baking will be noticed when system components
are opened for inspection.
Ans: D Ans: B
1003 The major cause of problems occurring with fuel injection 1004 The microbiological growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be
equipment is _____________. transported from one location to another by _________.

A. incorrect replacement of barrels and plungers of jerk pumps A. roaches and other insects
B. overheating of the nozzle orifices B. air, solids, or liquids
C. cracked pump housings C. other non-hydrocarbon fuels
D. dirt in the fuel D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: B
1005 Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will 1006 The major cause of fuel pump and injection system problems is
result in _____________. _____________.
A. lower compression pressures A. improper adjustments
B. overheating without smoking B. contaminated fuel
C. failure to start C. kinked fuel lines
D. a runaway without load D. excessive engine vibration
Ans: C Ans: B
1007 Fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned 1008 Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to
at regular intervals in order to remove ___________. _____________.
A. sludge A. allow impurities to settle out of the fuel
B. water B. allow air to escape from the fuel
C. micro-organism growth C. make fuel available for immediate use
D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
1009 Clogged diesel engine fuel oil filters can cause __________,
A. loss of power
B. misfiring
C. low fuel oil pressure
D. all of the above
Ans: D
AUXILIARY BOILER
1010 Generating tubes in waste heat boilers are finned to 1011 It is desirable for an auxiliary boiler safety valve to pop open and
____________. reseat quickly to __________.
A. reduce gas flow turbulence A. give warning that excessive boiler pressure has been reached

B. prevent exhaust gas corrosion B. prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat
C. increase the rate of combustion C. prevent valve pounding
D. increase the rate of heat transfer D. provide sufficient blowdown
Ans: D Ans: B
1012 A failure to any component of a flame safeguard control for an 1013 The amount of oil consumed by a return flow-type fuel atomization
automatically fired auxiliary boiler, will result in ______________. system, fitted with both supply and return meters, can be
determined by the ____________.
A. the prevention of automatic restart A. supply meter reading only
B. an immediate furnace explosion B. return meter reading only
C. uncontrolled firing C. sum of the supply and return meter readings
D. automatic restart D. difference between the supply and return meter readings
Ans: A Ans: D
1014 The flame safeguard control system of a large automatic auxiliary 1015 If the fire goes out in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler and the
boiler will provide fuel shut off in the case of high ____________. burner continues to supply fuel, there is a potential danger of
______________.
A. water A. overpressure and dry firing
B. voltage B. a severe furnace explosion
C. fuel pressure C. spalling damage to the brickwork
D. steam pressure D. heat damage to the atomizer
Ans: D Ans: B
1016 Prior to lighting off a cold automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you 1017 When an automatically fired boiler has a flameout, which of the
should _____________. following actions should occur FIRST?
 Page 54

A. check and regulate the water level A. The fuel valve should be de-energized.
B. close the air cock once fires are lit B. The purge cycle should begin.
C. blowdown the gauge glass C. An alarm should ring.
D. crack the steam stop to assure protective steam flow D. The fuel oil pump should stop.
Ans: A Ans: A
1018 Which of the following actions takes place in the control circuit of an 1019 Which of the listed sequence of events occurs when an automatic
automatically fired auxiliary boiler when the desired steam pressure auxiliary boiler is prepurged?
is obtained?
A. A temperature sensing device opens the circuit breaker in the A. The damper on the inlet side of the furnace is moved to the open
burner motor. position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the
closed position.
B. The high limit control secures power to the entire oil firing system. B. The damper on the inlet side of the furnace is moved to the open
position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the low
fire position.
C. The stack relay actuates the low limit control which breaks the C. The damper is moved to the closed position for a given number of
ignition circuit. seconds and then moved to the low fire position.
D. The stack relay secures power to the high voltage side of the D. The damper in the uptakes is moved to the wide open position for a
ignition transformer. given number of seconds and then moved to the low firing rate
position.
Ans: B Ans: B
1020 Which of the following conditions could cause the feed pump for an 1021 Fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces in waste heat
auxiliary boiler to lose suction? boilers to ____________.
A. Increased suction head pressure A. prevent soot fires in the exhaust system
B. Decreased feedwater temperature B. prevent exhaust gas erosion of the tubes
C. Pump recirculating line being open too much C. increase the velocity of exhaust gas flow
D. Excessive feedwater temperature D. increase the rate of heat transfer
Ans: D Ans: D
1022 The purpose of a temperature sensing device installed in the stack 1023 Subtracting the return flow meter reading from the supply flow meter
of a small automatically fired auxiliary steam boiler is to secure the reading on a boiler equipped with a return flow fuel oil system,
oil burner _______________. determines the amount of oil ____________.
A. in the event of a flame failure A. circulated by the system
B. in the event of a stack fire B. burner throughput
C. when the water level reaches the crown sheet C. returned to the settler
D. when the feed pump discharge pressure drops to a preset D. discharged from the pump
minimum
Ans: A Ans: B
1024 Variations in the amount of fuel oil burned in a return flow type 1025 When there is a flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary
burner, are controlled by the ____________. boiler, the ____________.
A. atomizing steam pressure A. air supply is shut off
B. size of the whirling chamber B. fuel supply is shut off
C. back pressure in the fuel oil return line C. water supply is shut off
D. area of the tangential slots D. safety valve lifts
Ans: C Ans: B
1026 A burner responsible for producing black smoke in an automatic 1027 Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to
auxiliary boiler, would be caused by a __________. _____________.

A. defective solenoid valve A. remove suspended and precipitated solids from the boiler water

B. dirty fuel nozzle B. completely drain the boiler in an emergency situation

C. grounded high tension lead C. prevent hardened scale deposits in the water drum
D. faulty ignition cable connector D. remove floating impurities from the oiler water surface
Ans: B Ans: A
1028 A pulsating flame, accompanied by a burner developing black 1029 The solenoid valves in the fuel oil supply line to an automatically
smoke in an auxiliary boiler, is an indication that the fired auxiliary boiler, are automatically closed by ______________.
_____________.
A. electrode setting is incorrect A. a decrease in feed temperature
B. ignition current is too low B. high furnace air pressure
C. fuel oil pressure is too low C. high steam pressure
D. fuel nozzle is correctly positioned D. low steam pressure
Ans: C Ans: C
1030 Failure of the feed pump to deliver feedwater to an auxiliary boiler 1031 If the fuel/air ratio in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is
could be caused by _______________. insufficient, the result could lead to __________.
A. a low pump suction lift A. inefficient combustion
B. abnormally low water temperature B. dark smoke
C. grounded probes in the water level control C. automatic shutdown
D. a high pump suction head D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
1032 The diesel engine exhaust gas bypass, as fitted with some waste 1033 High stack temperature occurring in an auxiliary boiler could be a
heat boilers, is installed to ____________. result of ____________.
A. prevent engine back pressure at heavy loads A. insufficient air for combustion
B. increase total engine efficiency at low loads B. complete combustion in the furnace
C. prevent boiler corrosion at low engine loads C. secondary combustion in the uptake
D. improve engine fuel consumption at any load D. high fuel oil temperature
Ans: C Ans: C
1034 A waste heat boiler is installed on some diesel propelled vessels to 1035 The maximum pressure developed by a waste heat boiler is
_____________. determined by the main engine exhaust ____________.
 Page 55

A. provide steam for emergency propulsion A. gas composition

B. provide steam for the turbogenerator B. gas temperature
C. heat the waste water tanks C. pressure
D. steam for warming engines D. timing
Ans: B Ans: B
1036 Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to 1037 When an auxiliary boiler is panting and emitting black smoke, you
_____________. should _____________.
A. completely drain the boiler in an emergency A. increase the fuel oil temperature
B. prevent sludge from forming in the steam drum B. decrease the fuel oil temperature
C. remove floating impurities from the boiler water surface C. decrease the fuel oil supply pressure
D. remove settled solids from the water drum D. increase the air supply
Ans: D Ans: D
1038 With which of the following types of diesel engine arrangements is 1039 The purpose of the separating nozzle in the accumulator of a water-
a waste heat boiler most likely to produce the maximum steam tube, coil-type, steam generator is to separate _____________.
pressure, temperature, and flow conditions?

A. Supercharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine A. dry steam from the steam and water mixture
B. Supercharged, loop scavenged diesel engine B. condensate from feedwater
C. Turbocharged, crossflow scavenged diesel engine C. superheated steam from saturated steam
D. Turbocharged, return flow diesel engine D. sludge accumulations from feedwater
Ans: A Ans: A
1040 Which of the following methods is typically employed in the design 1041 Within the cycle of a forced ciculation auxiliary water-tube boiler,
of waste heat boilers to obtain maximum heat transfer, while part of the water flashes into steam, and the remaining hot water is
maintaining low overall weight? ____________
A. Feedwater is preheated in a separately fired economizer. A. collected in the lower portion of the steam accumulator for
recirculation back to the heating coil or water tank
B. An external superheater unit is located above the boiler in the gas B. returned to the lower drum via downcomers due to density
passages. difference for reheating
C. An unfired exhaust gas preheater is added to increase the heat C. passes through the domestic heating system return line steam
transfer rate. traps to the auxiliary feed supply tank
D. Steel fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces to increase D. automatically dumped into auxiliary feed heater and reheated by
the effective surface area. auxiliary exhaust back pressure
Ans: D Ans: A
1042 A variable capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burner functions to 1043 The firing range of a variable capacity, return flow-type fuel atomizer
____________. is regulated to meet steam demand by varying the ____________.

A. maintain a constant fuel temperature A. fuel oil damper setting

B. provide a wide range of combustion B. fuel oil return pressure
C. provide a constant fuel return pressure C. burner register opening
D. maintain smokeless fuel oil atomization D. atomizer orifice setting
Ans: B Ans: B
1044 In an auxiliary boiler steam and water system, the highest pressure 1045 Fins are installed on the fireside of the water-tubes used in waste
will be in the ____________. heat boilers to ____________.
A. steam stop valve A. decrease the velocity of gases flowing past the tubes
B. dry pipe B. increase the rate of heat transfer
C. feedwater system C. reduce accumulations of carbon deposits
D. generating tubes D. direct the flow of gases
Ans: C Ans: B
1046 Large steam drums are not required in the design of a coil-type 1047 A horizontal fire-tube package boiler, incorporating a two-pass
auxiliary water-tube boiler because _____________. design, is basically constructed with ____________.
A. steam and water are separated in the accumulator (fclearance A. the rear of the boiler being used as a combustion chamber
chamber)
B. the heat of combustion is sufficient to remove all moisture from the B. extensive fireside baffling used to its fullest, enabling increased heat
steam transfer rates
C. the volume of steam is small at low pressures C. removable spiral metal gas retarders being inserted in the tubes to
decrease the gas velocity to a minimum, thus extracting the
maximum caloric heat value
D. automatic burner cycling controls steam volume and quality D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: C
1048 Downcomers installed on auxiliary package boilers are protected 1049 Waste heat boilers may be equipped with vents on the feed water
from direct contact with hot gases by ___________. heater heads to ____________.

A. refractory and insulation A. prevent air binding

B. several rows of screen tubes B. release excess pressure
C. steel baffles C. allow for feedwater treatment
D. water wall tubes D. remove sediment
Ans: A Ans: A
1050 Why should the main steam stop valve of an auxiliary boiler be 1051 A distorted furnace in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler may be the result of
eased off its seat and then gently closed before lighting off? ____________.

A. To examine the valve stem for scars or nicks. A. firing for extended periods in the low fire mode
B. To check for a tight bonnet seal. B. overheating, due to waterside deposits
C. To ensure that the valve will not be seized shut when hot. C. varying the water level above the crown sheet
D. To check the valve packing. D. carrying excessive alkalinity in the boiler water
Ans: C Ans: B
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1052 Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to _____________. 1053 Which of the following conditions is responsible for the fuel oil to
atomize when using a steam atomizer in an auxiliary boiler?

A. provide a means of draining the boiler A. Expansion of the steam in the furnace.
B. warn the engineer of low water level B. Expansion of the steam in the whirling chamber.
C. cool the crown sheet at high firing rates C. Expansion of the steam in the orifice plate.
D. open the burners' electrical firing circuits D. All of the above.
Ans: B Ans: A
1054 A feed pump for an auxiliary boiler might lose suction if the 1055 The purpose of the programmed purge cycle on an automatically
____________. fired auxiliary boiler is to _______________.
A. boiler water level is low A. cool the furnace to prevent preignition
B. feedwater is too hot B. remove explosive vapours from the furnace
C. boiler steam demand is low C. evaporate accumulated unburned fuel oil
D. feedwater is too cold D. provide sufficient air in the furnace to allow ignition of the fuel

Ans: B Ans: B
1056 After undergoing extensive repairs, an auxiliary boiler, with a 1057 When preparing to light off a cold boiler equipped with a return flow
maximum allowable working pressure of 10 kg/cm2, should be fuel oil system, the recirculating valve directs the flow of oil
hydrostatically tested at a pressure of ______________. ____________.
A. 10 kg/cm2 A. directly to the fuel oil heater inlet for further warm-up
B. 12.5 kg/cm2 B. back to the fuel oil settler for further filtration
C. 15 kg/cm2 C. back to the suction side of the service pump
D. 20 kg/cm2 D. directly to the deep tanks
Ans: C Ans: C
1058 The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the 1059 The purpose of designing some waste heat boilers with sinuous fire
firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to ____________. tubes, is to ____________.
A. prevent slag accumulation on the corbels A. increase exhaust gas velocity through the boiler
B. direct the force draft into the space between the inner and outer B. reduce accumulations of carbon deposits on the heat transfer
casings, to maintain a pressure seal surfaces
C. protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss C. eliminate exhaust gas pulsations and noise
D. prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank D. increase the rate of heat transfer to the waterside
Ans: C Ans: D
1060 Excessive vibration of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can be 1061 The amount of fuel oil atomized by a return flow oil burner is directly
caused by _____________. controlled by the ____________.
A. air or water in the furnace A. header supply valve
B. combustion pulses B. burner root valve
C. fuel oil pump failure C. oil micrometer valve
D. flame failure D. fuel oil back pressure
Ans: B Ans: D
1062 An exhaust gas bypass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order 1063 In the event of a flame failure in an auxiliary water-tube boiler, you
to ____________. must ______________.
A. recycle exhaust gas to the turbocharger A. relight the boiler immediately to prevent loss of steam pressure

B. bypass a portion of the exhaust gas at peak loads for better B. relight the fire off the brickwork as long as the bricks are cherry red
efficiency
C. bypass exhaust gas at high loads to prevent excessive back C. purge the furnace of any combustible gases before attempting to
pressure relight the fire
D. minimize moisture condensation in the boiler gas passages at low D. speed up the feed pump to prevent dry firing when the burner flame
loads is reestablished
Ans: D Ans: C
1064 A properly adjusted safety valve for an auxiliary boiler will 1065 An auxiliary boiler is equipped with a return flow fuel atomization
____________. system, which uses a/an _____________.
A. attain maximum lift when it pops below its set pressure A. constant fuel supply pressure
B. open with a sharp, clear pop at its set pressure B. constant fuel return pressure
C. close sharply when the pressure drops to its set pressure C. variable fuel supply pressure
D. operate most effectively when it has zero blowdown D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: A
1066 Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to 1067 The constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burners
meet a wide variation in steaming loads on an auxiliary boiler, are designed to meet a wide variation in the steaming loads of an
_____________. auxiliary boiler, are ________________.
A. automatically supplied with warmer air on demand A. automatically cycled on and off in response to demand
B. automatically supplied with more fuel on demand B. automatically supplied with more fuel on demand
C. equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers C. equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers
D. cycled on and off in response to steam demand D. equipped with fuel nozzles having variable orifices
Ans: D Ans: A
1068 The gauge glass on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is connected to the 1069 Excessive vibration from an auxiliary boiler could be caused by
______________. ____________.
A. heating coil inlet and outlet A. combustion pulses
B. surge chamber B. insufficient air to the burner
C. accumulator C. loose hold-down bolts
D. water softener D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
1070 In comparison to straight flow mechanical atomizers, return flow 1071 Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a coil-
atomizers provide relatively uniform atomization over a wide firing type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler is correct?
range due to the ____________.
 Page 57

A. back pressure regulation resulting in more complete combustion A. Water is continuously circulated through a preheater before it enters
at high firing rates the fclearance chamber.
B. oil supply pressure not having to be reduced at low loads to the B. Steam is generated in the heating coils and is force fed to an
point where poor atomization occurs accumulator.
C. return flow atomizer being designed for best combustion at low C. Unevaporated boiler water collects in the bottom of the
firing rates accumulator.
D. rotational motion imparted by the tangential slots being greater in D. Moisture is removed from generated steam in a radiant
the return flow atomizer superheater.
Ans: B Ans: C
1072 Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is 1073 Which of the following statements about a coil-type forced
correct? circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler is correct?
A. Combustion gases flow through the tubes. A. Steam is generated in the fclearance chamber.
B. Flames impinge on the tubes. B. Steam is recirculated to the heating coils.
C. Combustion occurs in the tubes. C. Response to steam demand is comparatively rapid.
D. Water flows through the tubes. D. Unevaporated feedwater drains to the bilge.
Ans: A Ans: C
1074 Which of the listed problems will happen when the water level of a 1075 Excessive return oil pressure from a variable capacity return flow
fire-tube type auxiliary boiler approaches the crown sheet? fuel oil burner system on an automatic auxiliary boiler, will cause
____________.
A. The fusible plugs will melt. A. flame failure
B. The furnace will explode. B. burner smoking
C. Excess steam will be generated. C. ignition failure
D. The furnace will overheat. D. burner failure
Ans: A Ans: B
1076 Fins are installed on the fireside of the water-tubes, used in waste 1077 An auxiliary boiler equipped with a return flow fuel atomization
heat boilers, to ____________. system, has a _____________.
A. decrease the velocity of gases flowing past the tubes A. constant fuel combustion rate
B. reduce the accumulation of soot deposits on the tubes B. constant fuel return pressure
C. create turbulence C. variable fuel supply temperature
D. increase the heat transfer surface area D. variable fuel return pressure
Ans: D Ans: D
1078 When a waste heat boiler is installed in the exhaust of a main 1079 The amount of oil atomized by the return flow variable capacity
propulsion diesel engine, the exhaust gas bypass would be used atomizer, used with some automatically fired boilers, is controlled
____________. by the _______________.
A. at high loads to prevent overheating A. amount of air admitted to the atomizer
B. at low loads to prevent corrosion in the boiler B. oil pressure in the oil return line
C. during periods of high steam demand C. quantity of oil delivered by the service pump
D. when the turbochargerisinoperation D. proportioning device in the atomizer fuel valve
Ans: B Ans: B
1080 Which of the following items is necessary for all waste heat boiler 1081 Throttling a burner air register on an auxiliary boiler could result in
installations, regardless of design or manufacturer? ____________.
A. Control of evaporation A. smoky boiler operation
B. A separate means to prevent feedwater contamination B. decreased fuel consumption
C. Power circulating pump C. improved fuel combustion
D. exhaust gas bypass D. fewer soot deposits
Ans: A Ans: A
1082 When lighting off an auxiliary boiler, which of the problems listed 1083 Diesel engine waste heat boiler construction is usually of the fire-
could cause the burners to sputter? tube or _____________.
A. Cold fuel oil A. cyclone furnace boiler type
B. Low fuel oil pressure B. dry back boiler type
C. Low atomizing steam pressure C. water-tube type
D. Water in the fuel oil D. critical circulation boiler type
Ans: D Ans: C
1084 Which of the following statements describes how the fueloil enters 1085 The variation in the amount of fuel oil burned in the operation of an
the whirling chambers of the sprayer plates usedin a auxiliary boiler auxiliary boiler, utilizing a return flow type atomization system, is a
return flow fuel oil system? function of the _____________.
A. Through the outer barrel tube. A. fuel oil recirculating valve
B. Through the sprayer plate drilled passages. B. fuel oil back pressure
C. Through tangential slots in the sprayer plate. C. fuel supply pressure regulating valve
D. Through baffles in the orifice plate. D. automatic steam atomizer assembly
Ans: C Ans: B
1086 The PRIMARY function of a waste heat boiler is to _________. 1087 Auxiliary boilers can be classified as ________________.

A. reduce engine exhaust noise A. water-tube natural circulation boilers

B. reduce engine back pressure B. fire-tube boilers
C. recover heat which otherwise would be lost C. water-tube forced circulation boilers
D. increase turbocharger efficiency D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
1088 A SECONDARY function of a waste heat boiler is to _________. 1089 In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler
_____________.
A. reduce engine exhaust noise A. steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler
B. reduce engine back pressure B. hot water fclearancees to steam in the fclearance chamber
C. increase engine cycle efficiency C. unevaporated feedwater is lost through the atmospheric vent
D. increase turbocharger efficiency D. response to steam demand is slower than in a fire-tube boiler

Ans: A Ans: B
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1090 The purpose of the safety relief valves installed on an auxiliary 1091 In a forced circulation auxiliary boiler, steam is formed in the
boiler is to ____________. ____________.
A. relieve excess fuel oil pressure during the "off" fire cycle A. heating coils
B. admit water to the dry pipe B. steam accumulator (fclearance chamber)
C. throttle the forced draft fan output for proper combustion C. hotwell
D. reduce excess steam pressure in the boiler D. thermostat tube
Ans: D Ans: B
1092 The safety valve installed on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is located on 1093 Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which
the ____________. is _____________.
A. thermostat tube A. fire-tube controlled circulation
B. topmost coil B. fire-tube supercritical circulation
C. water tank C. water-tube natural circulation
D. fclearance chamber D. water tube express circulation
Ans: D Ans: C
1094 Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which 1095 The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally
is ______________. connected by ____________.
A. water-tube supercritical circulation A. girder stays
B. water-tube forced circulation B. fire-tubes and stay-tubes
C. fire-tube controlled circulation C. external boiler plating
D. fire-tube express circulation D. separate crown sheets
Ans: B Ans: B
1096 In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler, 1097 Which type of pump is typically used to supply fuel to a unit type
____________. auxiliary boiler?
A. steam demand response is comparatively rapid A. Centrifugal
B. steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler B. Propeller
C. unevaporated feedwater is discharged through the skim tube C. Reciprocating
D. steam demand response is slow D. Rotary
Ans: A Ans: D
1098 The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the 1099 In a coil-type auxiliary water-tube circulation boiler _____________.
firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to ____________.
A. prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank A. unevaporated feedwater collects in the bottom of the fclearance
chamber
B. direct the force draft into the space between the inner and outer B. all generated steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler
casings, to maintain a pressure seal
C. protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss C. heated water fclearancees to steam in the boiler heating coils
D. prevent slag accumulation on the corbels D. response to steam demand is slower than in a fire-tube boiler

Ans: C Ans: A
AUXILIARY BOILER - MAINTENANCE
1100 Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically 1101 Which of the following procedures decreases the total dissolved
fired auxiliary boiler, you should always _____________. solids concentration in the water of an auxiliary boiler?

A. block all control system relays closed A. Hydrazine treatment of condensate

B. allow the boiler to cool completely B. Frequent compounding
C. close all manually operated fuel valves C. Chemical cleaning
D. lock all safety interlock switches closed D. Bottom blowing
Ans: C Ans: D
1102 How is the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the feedwater of 1103 A sprayer plate used in a return flow fuel oil atomizer is correctly
an auxiliary boiler maintained at acceptable limits? installed if the oil __________.

A. Feedwater is cycled through a DC heater. A. passes through the whirling chamber before passing through the
tangential slots
B. Feedwater is treated with phosphates. B. passes through the tangential slots before passing through the
whirling chamber
C. Oxygen is liberated in the three-stages of feedwater preheating. C. leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with the primary
flow of combustion air
D. Oxygen is liberated by maintaining the highest practical feedwater D. leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with the swirling
temperature. atomizing steam
Ans: D Ans: B
1104 A burner producing black smoke in an automatic auxiliary boiler, 1105 The water in an auxiliary boiler should be chemically tested daily for
would be caused by a/an ______________. alkalinity and _________________.
A. incorrect electrode setting A. soap hardness
B. defective solenoid valve B. nitrogen content
C. grounded high tension lead C. chloride content
D. incorrect primary air setting D. dissolved CO2
Ans: D Ans: C
1106 The water in an auxiliary boiler should be tested for chloride 1107 For proper operation, auxiliary boiler feedwater must have which of
content to determine ______________. the following characteristics?
A. total dissolved solids A. High oxygen concentration
B. salt contamination B. Low pH
C. water hardness C. Proper alkalinity
D. chlorine contamination D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: C
1108 The procedures recommended for auxiliary boilers having high 1109 The concentration of dissolved solids in the boiler water of an
salinity include ____________. auxiliary boiler could increase as a result of ___________.
 Page 59

A. treating with oxygen scavengers A. phosphate treatment

B. securing the boiler and giving it a bottom blow B. zero water hardness
C. increasing the pH C. dissolved oxygen deaeration
D. reducing the phosphate level D. frequent bottom blows
Ans: B Ans: A
1110 If a tube ruptures in a water-tube auxiliary boiler due to low water, 1111 When checking for the presence of sulphite in the feedwater of an
you should ____________. auxiliary boiler, you are in essence checking ____________.

A. secure the fires and maintain feedwater to boiler to keep up the A. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for controlling
water level dissolved oxygen
B. not secure the fires until water level falls out of sight in the gauge B. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for control of pH
glass
C. secure both the fires and the feed inlet valve C. the hardness of the makeup feed water
D. secure the fires when the pressure drops to 50% of the maximum D. to ensure the automatic or manual blowdown rate and frequency is
allowable working pressure adequate for control of total dissolved solids
Ans: C Ans: A
1112 A coil-type automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to be laid up wet for 1113 A safety valve on an auxiliary boiler simmers constantly and can not
an indefinite period. The boiler water should be treated to ensure be stopped by several quick blow-offs using the hand relieving gear.
that ____________. The problem may be __________.
A. the manufacturer's recommended pH is maintained A. loose dirt on the seat
B. there is no excess of oxygen scavenging chemicals B. exposed valve springs
C. sludge formation cannot occur in the steam separator C. a clogged drain line
D. waterside blowdown will not be required D. a damaged seat
Ans: A Ans: D
1114 If an operating auxiliary boiler has a water pH reading of 7, you 1115 The water in a steaming auxiliary boiler should be tested daily for
should ______________. ______________.
A. bottom blow the boiler A. dissolved oxygen
B. treat the water with caustic soda B. chlorides
C. treat the water with chemical scavengers C. sludge
D. reduce the water alkalinity to recommended readings D. dissolved nitrogen
Ans: B Ans: B
1116 Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by 1117 Which of the following actions should be taken when an auxiliary
_____________. boiler is operation?
A. water in the fuel oil A. Clean all electrical connections.
B. excessive cycling B. Lift the relief valves by hand.
C. high fuel oil pressure C. Inspect and clean all solenoid valves.
D. improper burner maintenance D. Inspect for oil and water leaks.
Ans: D Ans: D
1118 Failure of the burner flame in an automatic auxiliary boiler would 1119 Improper maintenance of an automatic auxiliary boiler oil burner
probably be a result of ______________. could result in ______________.
A. water in the fuel oil A. fuel pump failure
B. broken high tension leads B. fan motor failure
C. incorrect electrode setting C. increased feedwater consumption
D. full fuel pressure at the nozzle D. decreased boiler efficiency
Ans: A Ans: D
1120 The water in an operating auxiliary boiler should be tested for 1121 In a fire-tube auxiliary boiler, you should expect to find the thickest
alkalinity and chloride content each __________. scale on the waterside of the ____________.
A. hour A. crown sheet
B. day B. through stays
C. week C. hydrokineter
D. month D. belly plug
Ans: B Ans: A
1122 The most common cause of scale formation in an auxiliary boiler is 1123 If the feed pump for an auxiliary boiler fails to deliver the feed water
______________. to the boiler, the cause may be ____________.
A. concentrations of calcium sulfate in the boiler water A. high steam pressure in the boiler
B. fuel oil in the feedwater B. abnormally high feedwater temperature
C. improper treatment of the feedwater with calcium sulfate C. abnormally high boiler water temperature
D. excessive feedwater alkalinity D. steam demand exceeding feed pump capacity
Ans: A Ans: B
1124 Why should the main steam stop valve of an auxiliary boiler be 1125 Which of the following actions should normally be taken during
eased off its seat and then gently closed before lighting off? each watch when the auxiliary boiler is operation?

A. To check the valve packing. A. Test boiler water alkalinity

B. To examine the valve stem for scars or nicks. B. Inspect and clean burner fuel oil solenoid valves
C. To check for a tight bonnet seal. C. Lift the safety valves by hand
D. To ensure that the valve will not be seized shut when hot. D. Blowdown the water gauge glass
Ans: D Ans: D
1126 Which of the following actions should normally be taken during 1127 An automatically fired auxiliary boiler with carbon deposits formed
each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation? on its burner electrodes, will experience _________.
A. Clean all duplex oil strainers A. flame failure
B. Observe general boiler performance B. ignition failure
C. Lift the safety valves by hand C. panting of the furnace
D. Inspect and clean burner oil solenoid valves D. sputtering of the burner flame
Ans: B Ans: B
1128 Flame failure in an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler can 1129 Oxygen corrosion in auxiliary boilers is prevented by treating the
result from a _____________. boiler feed tank with either sodium ____________.
 Page 60

A. broken electrode insulator A. sulfite or hydrazine

B. faulty steam pressure signal to the trial for ignition circuit B. sulfite or hygroscopic sulfite
C. broken 2000 volt supply lead C. bromide or hydrazine
D. clogged fuel nozzle D. bromide or hygroscopic sulfite
Ans: D Ans: A
1130 A firebox explosion in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler may be 1131 Why should handhole gaskets not be allowed to leak on an auxiliary
the result of ______________. boiler?
A. excessive purging before lighting off A. Water circulation in the boiler will be disrupted.
B. insufficient trail for ignition period B. The gasket and its seating surface may become wire drawn.
C. a faulty transformer in the ignition circuit C. The gasket material will become hardened.
D. insufficient purging before lighting off D. Scale and sediment will form on the gasket.
Ans: D Ans: B
1132 After lighting off a cold, automatically fired, auxiliary boiler, as steam 1133 During maintenance inspections of a fire tube auxiliary boiler, you
begins to form, you should ___________. should check for _____________.
A. close the air cock A. weaking of the tubes at the tube sheet
B. give the boiler a bottom blow B. burning of tube ends
C. test the safety valve C. fireside corrosion
D. completely open the steam stop D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
1134 If poor combustion occurs in an auxiliary boiler due to an air damper 1135 Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically
linkage being out of adjustment, you would adjust the linkage and fired auxiliary boiler, you should always _____________.
then _____________.
A. reset the pressure limit controls A. allow the boiler to cool completely
B. test the high and low fire solenoids B. close all manually operated fuel valves
C. check the photocell window for carbon deposits C. lock all safety interlock switches closed
D. check the burner ignition electrode gap D. block all control system relays closed
Ans: C Ans: B
1136 The pH value of water in a diesel engine closed cooling water 1137 A dirty atomizer sprayer plate in the burner of an auxiliary boiler,
system should be maintained between _____________. would be indicated by ____________.

A. 6.0 to 7.5 A. carbon on the register doors

B. 8.0 to 9.5 B. a dazzling white atomizer flame
C. 10.0 to 11.5 C. fluctuating pressure in the windbox
D. 12.0 to 13.5 D. an unevenly shaped burner flame
Ans: B Ans: D
1138 The boiler water alkalinity in a coil-type auxiliary boiler should be 1139 A bypass line provided around a waste heat auxiliary boiler in a
maintained at the pH recommended by the boiler manufacturer to diesel engine exhaust system, may be used to avoid boiler
_________________. ____________.
A. precipitate silica from solution A. corrosion at low engine loads
B. reduce corrosion in the heating coil B. erosion at high engine loads
C. prevent clogging and erosion in the coil C. overload at high engine loads
D. maintain zero water hardness D. scaling at all exhaust temperatures
Ans: B Ans: A
1140 The amount of chloride content in the water of an auxiliary boiler 1141 Which of the following actions should normally be taken during
can be reduced by ____________. each watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation?
A. adding hydrazine A. Clean the flame scanner photocell window.
B. blowing down the boiler B. Inspect and clean all solenoid valves.
C. adding phenolphthalein C. Lift the safety valves by hand.
D. adding a sulfite chloride scavenger D. Inspect for oil or water leaks
Ans: B Ans: D
1142 In readying an auxiliary water-tube boiler for a routine hydrostatic 1143 The correct procedure for giving an auxiliary boiler a bottom blow,
test, which of the following procedures should be undertaken prior is to begin _____________.
to filling the boiler with fresh water?
A. The safety valve escape piping should be disconnected from the A. when the boiler has been secured long enough for most solids to
valve body and a blank inserted. settle
B. The boiler vent valves should be opened. B. when the boiler has been cooled to ambient temperature
C. All handhole/manhole covers should be tightened up as much as C. only after raising the water level to within 1/2 inch of the high water
possible to preclude any leaks. cutout
D. All of the above. D. only after bypassing the low pressure pressostat
Ans: B Ans: A
1144 The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an 1145 When an auxiliary boiler is secured and you expect to relight the
auxiliary boiler can increase as a result of __________. unit within six hours, you should _____________.
A. seawater contamination A. maintain a head of steam not less than 1kg/cm2
B. frequent surface blows B. completely fill the boiler with feedwater
C. dissolved oxygen deaeration C. flush the boiler and close the waterside airtight
D. frequent bottom blows D. maintain steam pressure 1kg/cm2 below normal boiler load
Ans: A Ans: A
1146 Before an auxiliary boiler is shutdown for an extended period of 1147 Improper maintenance of the fuel oil burners in an automatically
time, the water in the boiler should have a pH value of fired auxiliary boiler, could result in ____________.
____________.
A. 10 A. increased fuel consumption
B. 7 B. increased feedwater consumption
C. 4 C. fuel pump failure
D. 1 D. combustion control system failure
Ans: A Ans: A
 Page 61

1148 Excessive alkalinity of the water in an auxiliary boiler can cause 1149 Flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can result from
____________. a/an ______________.
A. caustic embrittlement of the boiler metal A. incorrect electrode setting
B. acidic corrosion of the boiler metal B. incorrect nozzle position
C. hard scale deposits on the boiler tubes C. clogged fuel nozzle
D. etching of the heat exchange surfaces D. broken high tension lead
Ans: A Ans: C
1150 The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an 1151 The daily inspection of an operating auxiliary boiler should include
auxiliary boiler can increase as a result of ___________. ____________.
A. seawater contamination A. lifting of all safety valves
B. frequent surface blows B. an examination of the boiler firesides
C. dissolved oxygen deaeration C. checking for external fuel and water leaks
D. frequent bottom blows D. measuring steam quality
Ans: A Ans: C
1152 Which of the following conditions could cause black smoke to be 1153 Waterside scale in a fire-tube boiler may cause ___________.
discharged from the stack of an auxiliary boiler equipped with
turbine-driven rotary cup atomizers?
A. Insufficient steam supply to the fuel oil heater. A. increased heat transfer
B. Excessive opening of the dampers in the combustion air inlet. B. fireside erosion

C. Improper turbine shaft speed in the atomizer assembly. C. high steam demand
D. high drum water level D. overheated tubes
Ans: C Ans: D
1154 A smoking burner with a pulsating flame in an auxiliary boiler, is an 1155 Which of the following conditions would cause "panting" in a
indication that the ______________. steaming auxiliary boiler?
A. fuel oil supply temperature is normal A. Insufficient combustion air
B. burner electrode is incorrectly positioned B. Low water level
C. fuel/air ratio is incorrect C. Flame failure
D. ignition current is too low D. Faulty flame scanner
Ans: C Ans: A
1156 If oil is dripping from the burner of a coil-type auxiliary steam 1157 Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired
generator, the cause may be _____________. auxiliary boiler, you should always ___________.
A. the oil valve not seating properly A. block all control valves
B. a loose burner nozzle B. allow the boiler to cool completely
C. carbon on the burner nozzle causing deflection of oil spray C. lock all safety interlock switches closed
D. all of the above D. close all manually operated fuel valves
Ans: D Ans: D
SCAVENGING,TURBOCHARGING AND AIRCOOLING
1158 Which of the two events listed occurs simultaneously in a two- 1159 Scavenging in a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is
stroke/cycle diesel engine? accomplished ___________.
A. Exhaust and scavenging A. during the valve overlap period
B. Scavenging and compression B. with only the exhaust valve open
C. Ignition and expansion C. at a pressure below atmospheric
D. Exhaust and compression D. without cooling the cylinders or pistons
Ans: A Ans: A
1160 Air scavenging of a diesel engine cylinder _____________. 1161 A diesel engine is supercharged in order to _____________.
A. blows out the exhaust gases A. lower the no-load RPMs
B. supplies oxygen for combustion B. provide more air for combining with the fuel
C. cools the valves and cylinder walls C. increase the no-load RPMs
D. all of the above D. provide more fuel for combining with the air
Ans: D Ans: B
1162 One characteristic of a pulse type turbocharging system is 1163 Which of the listed types of superchargers will NOT have a
_____________. volumetric capacity proportional to engine speed?
A. high average exhaust manifold pressure A. Exhaust gas turbocharger
B. greatly fluctuating inlet manifold pressure B. Roots blower
C. constant exhaust manifold pressure C. Piston type blower
D. multiple exhaust pipes to the turbocharger D. Vane type blower
Ans: D Ans: A
1164 Which of the following turbocharging systems channels the exhaust 1165 A turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a larger valve
gases of each individual cylinder directly into the turbine rotor overlap than a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, in
blades? order to increase the ______________.
A. Reaction A. temperature of the exhaust gases
B. Pulse B. energy supplied to the turbocharger
C. Constant Pressure C. air pressure to the intake manifold
D. Variable pressure D. purge of exhausted gases from the cylinders
Ans: B Ans: D
1166 Which of the following statements is correct regarding a 1167 Why will a turbocharged diesel engine produce black smoke if
turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel generator? excessive additional load is applied too quickly?
A. At zero load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the A. Exhaust energy would draw excess air.
exhaust manifold pressure.
B. At full load the intake manifold pressure and exhaust manifold B. The inertia of the turbocharger rotor causes a time lag which delays
pressure are equal. the turbocharger speed increase.
C. At full load the intake manifold pressure is less than the exhaust C. Exhaust gas pumping losses are increased due to turbine windage.
manifold pressure.
D. At full load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust D. Exhaust gas back pressure falls slightly due to increased nozzle
manifold pressure. action.
 Page 62

Ans: D Ans: B
1168 A turbocharged diesel engine will have an intake manifold pressure 1169 A Roots-type blower installed on a direct reversible engine
_____________. _____________.
A. constantly decreasing as engine load increases A. is engaged only when turning ahead
B. constantly increasing as the amount of supercharging increases B. is geared so that air flow through the blower is always in the same
direction
C. approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times C. reverses rotation along with the engine
D. approximately equal to atmospheric pressure at all times D. exhausts to atmosphere when turning astern
Ans: B Ans: C
1170 Which of the diesel engine components listed increases air density 1171 Which of the engine components listed increases air charge density
and helps to improve engine operating efficiency? and helps to improve engine operating efficiency?
A. Impeller A. Intake manifold
B. Compressor B. Water-cooled exhaust system
C. Aftercooler C. Aftercooler
D. Exhaust diffuser D. Exhaust diffuser
Ans: C Ans: C
1172 What is the function of the aftercoolers installed in the diesel engine 1173 Which of the designs listed will keep the lobes from making contact
air intake system? in a Roots-type blower?
A. Decrease the air density A. Drive chain
B. Increase the exhaust temperature B. Blower timing gears
C. Decrease the lube oil temperature C. Air trapped between blower lobes
D. Increase the air density D. Oil filter between blower lobes
Ans: D Ans: B
1174 In a turbocharger, inlet air velocity is increased in the 1175 In a Roots-type rotary blower, the volume of air delivered is directly
_____________. proportional to _____________.
A. inlet nozzle ring A. engine speed
B. stationary diffuser passages B. engine load
C. compressor outlet volute C. brake horsepower
D. rotating impeller vanes D. brake specific fuel consumption
Ans: D Ans: A
1176 A Roots-type blower installed on some diesel engines, serves to 1177 In a turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the exhaust
_____________. valve remains open until after top dead center and the intake valve
opens before top dead center to __________.

A. heat the cylinder for hotter compression A. produce a scavenging effect in the combustion space
B. push out exhaust gases and replace them with fresh air B. equalize cylinder and exhaust manifold pressures
C. force cool air across the radiator, lowering the jacket water C. alleviate the difference in valve size between the intake and
temperature exhaust
D. maintain a positive charge of fresh air in the crankcase thus D. flush out condensate that collects after each compression stroke
eliminating the chances of a crankcase explosion
Ans: B Ans: A
1178 The small clearances existing between each of the blower lobes, 1179 Which of the following conditions may contribute to the formation of
and between the lobes and casing of a Roots-type blower, must be deposits on the blades of the turbocharger turbine?
maintained to ______________.
A. provide for normal timing A. Poor combustion
B. prevent blower oil leakage B. High cylinder oil consumption
C. provide adequate blower lubrication C. Leaking exhaust valves
D. prevent abnormal air leakage D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: D
1180 Which of the following conditions can cause below normal air 1181 If the turbocharger of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine fails to
pressure in the intake manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine? operate, which of the following statements best describes the
probable effect?
A. Excessive piston blow-by to the manifold. A. Intake manifold pressure will be high.
B. Insufficient cooling water flow. B. Intake manifold pressure will be unaffected.
C. Accumulated water in the air boxes. C. Exhaust temperatures will be high.
D. Clogged air intake filters. D. Exhaust temperatures will be low.
Ans: D Ans: C
1182 A sudden power loss from a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel 1183 Leaking oil seals on a diesel engine turbocharger can cause
engine is an indication of a/an ______________. _____________.
A. turbocharger malfunction or failure A. the engine to run after the fuel has been secured
B. crankcase exhauster overload B. the engine to overspeed
C. overload on the intercooler C. a fire
D. obstruction in the engine cylinders D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
1184 Which of the following terms best describes the Roots-type blower 1185 Exhaust gases are generally removed from the cylinders of a two-
used to supercharge a diesel engine? stroke/cycle diesel engine by ______________.
A. Rotary vane A. natural aspiration
B. Positive displacement B. masked intake valves
C. Axial flow C. air cells
D. centrifugal D. scavenging air
Ans: B Ans: D
1186 The speed of the turbocharger for a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine 1187 The principal difference between loop scavenging and crossflow
driving a generator at constant speed depends on the scavenging, as used in single acting diesel engines, is the
_____________. _____________.
A. engine speed A. direction of air flow within the cylinder
B. kilowatt load B. sequence of port opening
 Page 63

C. fuel injection pressure C. method of opening exhaust ports

D. air intake manifold temperature D. volume of air admitted to the cylinder
Ans: B Ans: A
1188 Scavenging in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine occurs during the 1189 The term "diesel engine scavenging" means ____________.
_____________.
A. last part of the exhaust stroke, and the first part of the intake stroke A. delivering more air into the cylinder than it would normally receive
during an ordinary charging process
B. last part of the intake stroke only B. forcing the products of combustion out of the cylinder with the fresh
air charge
C. early part of the injection stroke only C. collecting the air charge at the air cleaner
D. early part of the power stroke D. combustion and expansion of hot gas
Ans: A Ans: B
1190 Cooling the intake air supplied to a diesel engine will 1191 Which of the following conditions is indicated by the presence of
_____________. water in the scavenging air receiver?
A. reduce mean effective pressure A. Leaking cylinder head gaskets
B. decrease average compression pressure B. Leaking aftercooler
C. decrease air charge density C. Excessively low scavenge air temperature
D. increase power output D. Auxiliary blower failure
Ans: D Ans: B
1192 Forcing the exhaust gases from the cylinder of an operating diesel 1193 "Loop," "uniflow," "crossflow," and "return-flow" are terms used to
engine with the aid of a blower is known as ________. describe various types of _____________.

A. scavenging A. control air circuits

B. forced draft B. supercharging
C. turbocharging C. turbochargers
D. aspiration D. scavenging
Ans: A Ans: D
1194 The exhaust system for a turbocharged diesel engine functions to 1195 Which of the following beneficial results can be expected from
_____________. supercharging a previously naturally aspirated engine?
A. power the aftercoolers A. Increased turbulence
B. power the turbocharger B. Increased mechanical efficiency
C. reduce the cylinder scavenge effect C. Increased brake mean effective pressure
D. cool the turbocharger D. All of the above.
Ans: B Ans: D
1196 Which of the following conditions is realized by the turbocharging of 1197 Which of the turbocharging systems listed operates with the least
a previously naturally aspirated diesel engine? average back pressure in the exhaust manifold?

A. Ignition lag increases. A. Constant volume

B. Lube oil system pressure increases. B. Constant pressure
C. Brake specific fuel consumption increases. C. Pulse pressure
D. Mechanical efficiency increases. D. Radial flow
Ans: D Ans: C
1198 The process of scavenging a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine serves 1199 Which of the turbocharging methods listed directs the exhaust
to _____________. gases to the turbine at fairly uniform velocity and pressure?

A. improve fuel flow volume A. Constant pressure

B. cool the exhaust valves B. Pulse pressure
C. reduce the intake air charge density C. Constant velocity
D. increase the temperature of exhaust gases D. Axial flow
Ans: B Ans: A
1200 When used in conjunction with a turbocharger, the main function of 1201 Intake air flow from a diesel engine turbocharger is directly
an aftercooler is to ___________. proportional to engine __________.
A. increase the density of the cylinder air charge A. exhaust gas pressure
B. prevent turbocharger overheating B. exhaust gas temperature
C. eliminate the need for a precooler C. speed
D. remove moisture from air compressed by the turbocharger D. load
Ans: A Ans: D
1202 Some diesel engines are supercharged with a _____________. 1203 The purpose of an aftercooler is to _____________.

A. slam charger A. reduce the turbocharger operating temperature

B. turbocharger B. increase the pressure of the inlet air
C. fuel atomizer C. increase the density of the inlet air
D. fuel injector D. reduce the blower operating temperature
Ans: B Ans: C
1204 Most Roots-type blowers have two rotors which _____________. 1205 As engine RPM is increased from idle speed to full load speed,
which of the conditions listed will decrease?
A. are extremely quiet at high speed A. Compression ratio
B. rotate in the same direction B. Fuel/Air ratio
C. rotate in opposite directions C. Compression pressure
D. decrease objectionable turbulence in the cylinders D. Lube oil pressure
Ans: C Ans: B
1206 In a diesel engine, a positive displacement type blower isusually 1207 The high air velocity leaving the compressor of an exhaust gas
____________. turbocharger is converted to pressure in the __________.

A. gear driven by the engine A. inlet nozzle ring

B. driven by an exhaust gas turbine B. turbine wheel blading
 Page 64

C. driven by a camshaft C. diffuser passages

D. driven by separate motor D. inlet volute
Ans: A Ans: C
1208 Turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engines utilize valve overlap 1209 The compression of air in a positive displacement rotary
for _____________. supercharging blower, occurs only _____________.
A. improving cylinder scavenging A. between the rotating blower lobes
B. preheating the combustion chamber B. between the casing and blower lobes
C. reducing air charge density C. after the engine reaches operating speed
D. preventing valve wear D. as air moves into the discharge passage
Ans: A Ans: D
1210 If the turbocharger failed on an auxiliary diesel engine, which of the 1211 The power consumed during the scavenging process of a diesel
following conditions would probably occur? engine is known as the _____________.
A. Full power cannot be developed. A. scavenging loss
B. The exhaust will contain black smoke. B. valve loss
C. Complete combustion will be impossible. C. back pressure loss
D. All of the above. D. pumping loss
Ans: D Ans: D
1212 A thin film of oil on the lobes of a Roots-type blower indicates 1213 In a main propulsion turbocharged diesel engine, the speed of the
_____________. turbocharger varies according to the _____________.
A. proper lubrication A. governor droop
B. timing out of adjustment B. speeder spring tension
C. excessive cylinder lubrication C. fuel rack lag
D. leaking rotor bearing oil seals D. load on the engine
Ans: D Ans: D
1214 During the valve overlap period, the exhaust pressure of a 1215 Large, two-stroke/cycle, main propulsion, diesel engine cylinders
turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine must be less than the can be successfully pressure charged during normal operation, by
intake manifold pressure to ensure ___________. using the ___________.
A. effective cylinder scavenging and cooling A. exhaust gas temperature system
B. constant pressure from the turbochargers B. exhaust load system
C. cooler operation of the exhaust system C. constant or pulse pressure system
D. effective constant pressure for turbocharger operation D. constant volume system
Ans: A Ans: C
1216 In a multi-cylinder, constant pressure, turbocharged diesel engine, 1217 When would the available energy of the exhaust gases of a two-
the combined exhaust temperature at the turbocharger inlet reads stroke/cycle diesel engine be insufficient to drive an exhaust gas
higher than the individual cylinder exhausts. This means the turbocharger, resulting in the incorrect amount of air for
_____________. combustion?
A. combined exhaust pyrometer is defective A. During operation at low speed
B. combined exhaust pyrometer is reading normally B. During operation at rated speed, but low power output
C. turbine blades are coated with carbon C. During acceleration
D. turbine is overheating D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
1218 In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the process of scavenging 1219 The process of supplying a diesel engine cylinder with air at a
begins as the ________. pressure greater than atmospheric is called _________.
A. piston nears and passes TDC A. engine displacement
B. early part of the upstroke B. super-aspirating
C. piston passes BDC C. air injection
D. early part of the downstroke D. supercharging
Ans: B Ans: D
1220 The power output of a turbocharged diesel engine will drop if the 1221 A supercharged diesel engine, when compared to a similar naturally
cooling water flow through the aftercooler is interrupted because aspirated diesel engine, will develop an increase in
the _____________. _____________.
A. turbocharger stalls A. ignition lag
B. exhaust pressure increases B. engine horsepower
C. air charge density decreases C. lube oil system pressure
D. scavenge effect increases D. specific fuel consumption
Ans: C Ans: B
1222 If the speed of a turbocharged diesel engine is maintained constant 1223 Compared to a naturally aspirated diesel engine, a supercharged
the turbocharger speed will _____________. diesel engine has _____________.
A. decrease until the engine speed increases A. a cylinder air charge of higher pressure
B. increase as the load increases B. increased pumping losses
C. decrease as the load increases C. less valve overlap
D. remeins unchanged as the load decreases D. educed blowby
Ans: B Ans: A
1224 Which of the following devices will increase the power output of a 1225 The relative air pressure in the inlet manifold of a turbocharged
diesel engine without increasing its frictional load? diesel engine is usually _____________.

A. Positive displacement blower A. greater than the average exhaust manifold pressure
B. Roots-type rotary blower B. less than the average exhaust manifold pressure
C. Gear-driven centrifugal blower C. greater at the turbine wheel than at the impeller
D. turbine-driven centrifugal blower D. greater at reduced engine speed
Ans: D Ans: A
1226 Which of the Roots blower rotors listed below, will supply air to a 1227 The function of the aftercooler installed between the turbocharger
two-stroke/cycle, medium-speed, diesel engine with the least and intake manifold on some diesel engines, is to _____________.
amount of turbulence and pulsation?
A. Three-helical lobes A. increase the density of the intake air
B. Two-helical lobes B. decrease turbocharger power usage
 Page 65

C. Three-cylindrical lobes C. reduce exhaust gas temperature

D. Two-cylindrical lobes D. compensate for turbocharger RPM fluctuations
Ans: A Ans: A
1228 Performance of a turbocharged engine can be improved by 1229 Aftercooling of a turbocharged diesel engine will result in
_____________. _____________.
A. decreasing the amount of valve overlap A. higher torque but lower brake horsepower
B. preheating the air intake B. lower torque but higher brake horsepower
C. aftercooling the intake air C. higher torque and higher brake horsepower
D. preheating light fuels D. lower torque and lower brake horsepower
Ans: C Ans: C
1230 The air supplied to the cylinders by a turbocharger is often reduced 1231 The lobes of a Roots-type blower are sometimes twisted into a
in volume by a/an ______________. spiral formed around the axes of rotation to ____________.
A. air compressor A. decrease air losses around the lobes
B. diffuser B. decrease maintenance
C. aftercooler C. allow for higher blower operating speeds
D. venturi D. produce a more constant airflow
Ans: C Ans: D
1232 Some diesel engines are equipped with a Roots-type blower to 1233 An aftercooler installed between the turbocharger and the cylinder
provide ______________. air inlet _____________.
A. more air to combine with the fuel A. increases the density of the air
B. more amps per kilowatt hour B. decreases the density of the air
C. higher no-load RPMs C. increases the specific heat of the air
D. higher voltage output D. decreases the specific heat of the exhaust
Ans: A Ans: A
1234 When the load is increased on a turbocharged diesel engine, the 1235 The large number of mechanical and pulsating vibrations
amount of increased air supplied by the turbocharger will developed in a diesel engine may damage an attached
_____________. _____________.
A. lag behind the increased fuel supplied to the engine A. scavenged air pump because it is designed for steady state
operation rather than pulsating gas load
B. enter the engine along with the increase in fuel B. reciprocating scavenge pump because of its direct linkage to the
crankshaft
C. enter the engine before the increased fuel supply C. rotary blower because it operates at close tolerances over a small
range of speeds and delivers its air charge at a certain resonant
frequency
D. leave the turbocharger as a negative pulse D. gas driven turbocharger because it has a wide speed range and
high temperature materials that are subject to resonant vibration

Ans: A Ans: D
TURBOCHARGER AND AIRCOOLER - MAINTENANCE
1236 When the timing gear backclearance for a Roots-type blower has 1237 If over a period of weeks the air-box pressure of a turbocharged,
become excessive, the problem is properly repaired by diesel engine, operating at full load, appears to be dropping off, the
_____________. cause can be _____________.
A. renewing the drive gear A. open air-box drains
B. renewing the driven gear B. loss of cooling water to the diffuser
C. renewing both driving and driven gears as a set C. gradual fouling of the air filters
D. shimming and pinning the gears with proper backclearance D. improperly timed exhaust valves
Ans: C Ans: C
1238 Which of the following conditions would require the removal of a 1239 If you observe smoke coming from the turbocharger of an auxiliary
turbocharger for repair? diesel engine, you should ______________.
A. Nicked blades A. check the air filter for obstruction
B. Broken blades B. check for an exhaust leak
C. Stretched blades C. check the exhaust temperature
D. All of the above D. secure the engine
Ans: D Ans: D
1240 Following the failure of one turbocharger on a large, crosshead, 1241 Corrosion and grooving on the blading of an exhaust driven
main propulsion diesel engine, fitted with multiple turbochargers, turbocharger is caused by certain components of residual fuel oils.
which of the following actions should be taken prior to further These components are vanadium, sodium, and
operation of the engine? ________________.
A. Blank off the exhaust gas inlet to the damaged turbocharger. A. copper
B. Secure cooling and lubrication to the damaged turbocharger. B. carbon
C. Lock the rotor of the damaged turbocharger. C. hydrogen
D. All of the above. D. sulphur
Ans: D Ans: D
1242 An operating turbocharged diesel engine that suddenly loses 1243 While maneuvering, you discover heavy smoke coming from the
power, is due to a/an _____________. turbocharger casing, you should ____________.
A. restricted turbocharger air intake A. check the air filter for dirt
B. oil leak into the turbocharger B. check for an exhaust leak
C. dribbling injector C. check the cooling water temperature
D. low fuel viscosity D. notify the bridge that you are going to shut the engine down
Ans: A Ans: D
1244 Which of the following precautions should be taken when cleaning 1245 Which of the listed adjustments must be made to a naturally
the air filter on a diesel engine equipped with a turbocharger? aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine if a turbocharger is to be
installed?
A. Reduce engine speed to idle before removing the filter. A. Increase the compression ratio.
B. Soak the dirty filter in kerosene only. B. Increase the exhaust and intake valve overlap.
C. Blow out the air inlet with compressed air. C. Increase the ignition lag.
 Page 66

D. cover the air inlet after removing the filter D. Decrease the amount of exhaust and intake valve overlap
Ans: D Ans: B
1246 Which of the following problems can cause an above normal air 1247 Which condition indicates the air side fouling of an aftercooler on a
temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a turbocharged turbocharged diesel engine?
and aftercooled diesel engine?
A. Faulty turbocharger turbine diffuser ring A. An increased air temperature differential between the cooler inlet
and outlet.
B. Faulty turbocharger compressor ring B. A decrease in the air pressure differential across the cooler.
C. Insufficient cooling water flow C. Excessive condensate forming in the air box.
D. Clogged air intake filters D. A decrease in the temperature differential between the cooler inlet
and outlet
Ans: C Ans: D
1248 A turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine can overspeed due 1249 Which of the following conditions may be attributed to a fouled
to _____________. turbocharger compressor inlet screen or filter?
A. air in the hydraulic governor A. Decreasing scavenge air pressure.
B. high ambient air temperature B. Increasing exhaust temperatures before the turbine.
C. oil leaking into the turbocharger compressor end C. Reduction in engine speed.
D. insufficient piston ring blow-by D. All of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
GOVERNOR AND OVERSPEED CONTROL
1250 Diesel engines driving alternators operating in parallel must 1251 Increasing the load on an engine equipped with a constant speed
maintain a set frequency regardless of load changes. The governor mechanical governor, will cause the engine speed to initially
characteristic used to accomplish this is known as ____________. ___________.

A. actuation A. increase
B. sensitivity B. decrease
C. compensation C. fluctuate
D. promptness D. remain constant
Ans: C Ans: B
1252 How is the diesel engine operating RPM affected when a "ZERO 1253 If the main propulsion diesel engine governor works irregularly with
DROOP" setting is selected on the governor? a jerking motion, a possible cause can be _____________.

A. The RPM will drop to low idle when load is applied. A. a sticking fuel control linkage
B. The RPM must be manually controlled by the load limit knob. B. a malfunctioning overload cam
C. The governor has no control over RPM in this mode. C. an unlocked overspeed trip
D. The RPM will remain the same with or without load. D. floating valves
Ans: D Ans: A
1254 On a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous governor, if the 1255 The required amount in the change of speed necessary before a
"speed droop" control is reduced to the "zero" setting, the engine governor will make a corrective movement is known as
_____________. _____________.
A. speed will drop drastically with any increase in load A. speed droop
B. will stop due to zero fuel supply B. sensitivity
C. will stall upon application of load C. stability
D. speed will remain fairly constant despite load changes D. promptness
Ans: D Ans: B
1256 Air bubbles in a hydraulic governor can cause _____________. 1257 Which of the listed governor operating characteristics is considered
to be isochronous?
A. sluggish response A. Zero speed droop
B. speed droop variations B. Positive speed droop
C. isochronous governing C. Negative speed droop
D. sensitivity increase D. Varying speed droop
Ans: A Ans: A
1258 Governor hunting is caused by _____________. 1259 A continuous fluctuation of the speed, due to overcontrol by the
governor, is known as _____________.
A. governor undercontrol A. hunting
B. excessive speed droop B. sensitivity
C. insufficient speed droop C. promptness
D. governor overcontrol D. speed droop
Ans: D Ans: A
1260 A direct acting, pneumatically controlled governor for a diesel 1261 After each speed change, the compression of the diesel engine
engine operates in a range of 0.7 to 3.5 bar. The fuel rack position governor speeder spring is returned to a constant value, regardless
is at 20 mm when the governor air pressure is 2.1bar. If the of the amount of movement of the fuel control mechanism and
governor air pressure changes to 1.4 bar, the fuel rack is at engine load. Hence, this results in ____________.

A. 13 millimeters A. speed droop governing

B. 17 millimeters B. isochronous governing
C. 22 millimeters C. high sensitivity governing
D. 24 millimeters D. relay-type governing
Ans: A Ans: B
1262 An overspeed trip stops a diesel engine when the engine 1263 In a simple hydraulic governor with speed droop, oil under pressure
_____________. is maintained ready for use in the _____________.
A. runs out of fuel A. power piston
B. has low lubricating oil pressure B. governor sump
C. exceeds a set maximum speed C. spring-loaded piston accumulator
D. has high cooling water temperature D. pressure pilot valve assembly
Ans: C Ans: C
 Page 67

1264 Internal combustion engines are to be fitted with governors to 1265 Which of the listed governor characteristics will greatly affect the
prevent the engines from exceeding the rated speed by more than load sharing relationship between paralleled diesel generators?
______.
A. 10 percent A. Sensitivity
B. 15 percent B. Power
C. 20 percent C. Speed droop
D. 25 percent D. Compensation
Ans: B Ans: C
1266 When the prime movers of two paralleled generators are equipped 1267 A change in engine speed is required before a governor is able to
with mechanical-hydraulic governors, and are operating within their make a corrective movement of fuel rack. This aspect of governing
designed range, the unit with the least amount of speed droop will is commonly expressed as a percent and is known as
____________. _______________.
A. pick up more of any increase in load A. governor sensitivity
B. pick up less of any increase in load B. governor promptness
C. share an equal amount of any increase in load C. speed droop
D. drop an equal amount of any decrease in load D. isochronous governing
Ans: A Ans: A
1268 The direct acting mechanical governor used with some small diesel 1269 Sensitivity for a diesel engine governor is described as the
engines, controls fuel flow to the engine by _____________. _____________.

A. governor flyweight action on a pilot valve which controls fuel A. percent of speed change necessary for corrective action by the fuel
injection control
B. governor flyweight motion acting on fuel controls through suitable B. ability to maintain desired engine speed without speed fluctuation
linkage
C. positioning a butterfly valve in the fuel delivery system C. governor's speed of response to variations in engine load
D. positioning a servomotor piston attached to the fuel controls D. ability to maintain constant speed regardless of engine load
Ans: B Ans: A
1270 The ability of the governor to prevent fluctuations in engine speed 1271 An overcorrecting and unstable engine governor operation is known
is termed _____________. as ____________.
A. sensitivity A. droop
B. stability B. dead banding
C. promptness C. dash potting
D. speed droop D. hunting
Ans: B Ans: D
1272 For most diesel propulsion and generator engines, the overspeed 1273 A directly connected or geared main propulsion diesel engine
trip device will stop the engine by ____________. should be fitted with a/an ____________.
A. moving the governor control to stop A. constant speed governor
B. shutting off the lubricating oil supply B. variable speed governor
C. tripping the governor emergency stop lever C. isochronous hunting governor
D. shutting off the fuel supply D. nutating disk governor
Ans: D Ans: B
1274 An AC diesel generator incapable of being paralleled with the main 1275 Which of the speeder springs listed is more suitable for a governor
bus normally employs an isochronous governor in order to installed on an engine operating over a wide speed range?
_____________.
A. increase speed droop in proportion to load A. Spiral
B. maintain a frequency of 60 cycles per second B. Conical
C. increase or decrease engine speed upon load demand C. Cylindrical
D. prevent attempts to parallel D. Helical
Ans: B Ans: B
1276 In a simple mechanical governor, the _____________. 1277 An overspeed trip serves to _____________.
A. centrifugal force rotates the ball-head A. stop the engine by cutting off the cooling water supply
B. flyweight centrifugal force is balanced by spring force B. stop the engine by closing the air intake
C. flyweight centrifugal force is balanced by hydraulic pressure C. slow the engine but not stop it

D. speeder spring alone actuates the fuel control rod D. slow the engine to half of normal load
Ans: B Ans: B
1278 If the speeder spring of a main propulsion diesel engine governor 1279 A diesel engine is equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor.
breaks while operating at full load, the engineRPM will __________. A decrease in load will cause the engine speed to ____________.

A. increase until the overspeed trip actuated A. decrease only

B. hunt until stabilized by the droop rod B. increase only
C. decrease to a slightly lower value C. decrease slightly then returned to original speed
D. remain the same until manually changed D. remein constant
Ans: C Ans: D
1280 The hunting of a diesel engine may be caused by ___________. 1281 If an engine operates at 900 RPM at no load, and at 870 RPMat full
load, the speed droop is _____________.
A. excessive speed droop A. 0.031
B. insufficient speed droop B. 0.034
C. excessive sensitivity C. 0.037
D. low governor power D. 0.04
Ans: D Ans: B
1282 Which of the following statements best describes the operational 1283 A diesel engine is fitted with a pneumatically actuated governor,
characteristics of an isochronous governors? having an operating range of 0.7 to4.2 bar. The current fuel rack
setting is 15 mm at 2.1bar. If the air pressure to the governor is
increased to 2.8 bar, the fuel rack position is
 Page 68

A. They are suitable for use on main propulsion units. A. 10 mm

B. They strive to maintain a constant prime mover speed for all values B. 14 mm
of steady load.
C. They cause a proportional drop in prime mover speed as the load is C. 15 mm
increased.
D. They have poor sensitivity at low RPM D. 20 mm
Ans: B Ans: D
1284 Governors used on diesel engines to limit the load must be 1285 The principal characteristic of an isochronous governor is it will
equipped with _____________. _____________.
A. a fixed maximum fuel stop A. slow the machine down as the load is increased
B. a variable maximum fuel stop B. shut down the engine if it overspeeds
C. pivotless centrifugal flyballs C. display excessive speed droop
D. a proportional action compensation mechanism D. maintains a constant speed with variation of loads
Ans: B Ans: D
1286 Which of the following devices is common to both mechanical and 1287 Which of the following devices is a common basic element with
hydraulic governors? nearly all mechanical governors?
A. Direct linkage between the ball-head and fuel rack A. Power piston
B. A servomotor B. Control rack
C. A compensating device C. Weights acted on by centrifugal force
D. Flyweights D. Isochronous droop spring
Ans: D Ans: C
1288 On most diesel engines, the governor controls the output speed by 1289 The governor controlling a diesel engine modulates crankshaft
_____________. RPM by adjusting the _____________.
A. controlling the amount of fuel injected into the cylinders A. intake air supply
B. varying the speed of the turbocharger B. turbocharger speed
C. adjusting the compression ratio C. fuel injection pumps
D. changing the timing of the fuel injection camshaft D. engine speed droop
Ans: A Ans: C
1290 Which of the items listed causes a direct acting mechanical 1291 A spring-loaded centrifugal flyweight governor responds to reduced
governor to operate the engine fuel control linkage? engine load with an immediate increase in _________.

A. Hydraulic oil pressure A. pilot valve oil pressure

B. Servomotor action B. speeder spring force
C. Flyweight centrifugal force C. compensation needle valve clearance
D. Relay motion D. centrifugal force on the fly weights
Ans: C Ans: D
1292 A diesel generator has just been paralleled with an AC 1293 In addition to the normal governor, each main engine havinga
turbogenerator, but the load can not be properly divided. This could maximum continuous output of 300 hp and over, which canbe
be caused by _____________. declutched or which drives a controllable pitchpropeller,
______________.
A. an incorrect diesel generator governor speed droop adjustment A. is not required to have any additional overspeed protection
provided a hydraulic governor is used
B. a faulty reverse power relay within the main circuit breaker B. and is a direct reversible engine, is required to have an overspeed
assembly trip set to secure the fuel to the engine when its rated speed is
exceeded by more than 15 percent
C. unsynchronized isochronous load distribution adjustments C. is to be fitted with a separate overspeed device so adjusted that the
speed cannot exceed the maximum rated speed by more than 20
percent
D. a different speed setting on each unit D. will not require any additional overspeed protection provided a
mechanical type governor is used
Ans: A Ans: C
1294 The overspeed trip device installed in some diesel engines is
automatically actuated by _____________.
A. spring force
B. hydraulic pressure
C. centrifugal force
D. mechanical linkage
Ans: C
GOVERNOR - MAINTENANCE
1295 The most common contaminate of governor hydraulic fluid is 1296 The purpose of the compensating adjustment used in a diesel
____________. engine hydraulic governor is to _____________.
A. moisture A. compensate for low oil level
B. dirt B. increase governor promptness
C. acid C. prevent governor hunting
D. air D. limit engine load
Ans: B Ans: C
1297 During a routine round of a diesel engine generator, you observe a 1298 A large change in ambient temperature, or using an oil of a viscosity
low oil level in the governor sump. If there is no visible sign of different than the one recommended by the manufacturer in a
external leakage, you should suspect the cause to be a/an mechanical hydraulic governor, will result in the need to adjust the
________. ____________.
A. leakage through the governor drive shaft oil seal A. pilot valve opening
B. leakage through the power piston oil seal B. compensating needle valve
C. uncovered sight glass ventilation orifice C. compensating spring tension
D. defect in the sight glass gasket D. accumulator spring tension
Ans: A Ans: B
 Page 69

1299 Where one or more diesel driven AC generators are operating in 1300 Which of the following adjustments is always required whenever
parallel, reducing the value of the speed droop to "zero" on one unit the diesel engine governor oil has been drained and renewed?
will allow that unit to ____________.
A. gradually reduce its speed as load is applied A. Speed droop
B. change load without changing speed B. Compensation
C. automatically divide and balance the loads C. Idle speed setting
D. effectively anticipate the amount of fuel necessary to bring the D. Load limit control
engine up to the proper output to accept the increased load

Ans: B Ans: B
1301 If the compensating needle valve of a hydraulic governor is opened 1302 If the load on a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous
more than necessary the governor will _____________. hydraulic governor is increased, after compensation is performed
by the governor, the engine speed will __________.

A. have a larger than normal dead band A. remain the same

B. produce excessive speed response to a load change B. increase
C. respond slowly to any change in engine load C. decrease
D. stabilize engine speed at the new governor setting D. fluctuate
Ans: B Ans: A
1303 Trapped air was bled from the hydraulic system of a diesel engine 1304 If a hydraulic governor has been refilled with oil, the engine should
governor while it had been operating at idle speed. Oil was added be operated until it reaches normal temperature, then the air
to restore the correct level and the air vent plug tightened. The should be purged, and the _______.
compensating needle valve should then be gradually ______

A. opened until hunting is eliminated A. rack position should be adjusted

B. closed until it is approximately 1/16 of a turn open B. compensating needle valve should be opened fully
C. closed to cause the engine to hunt in order to purge trapped air C. compensating needle valve should be adjusted to stabilize
from the new oil operation
D. closed until engine hunting is eliminated D. speed limiting device should be adjusted
Ans: D Ans: C
1305 Friction developing between the moving parts of a governor, 1306 If the operating speed of a diesel engine increases without an
governor linkage and control valve will cause the governor to apparent change in the engine control settings, you may suspect a
_________. ________.
A. react with insufficient speed droop A. clogged intake air intercooler
B. fail to react to small speed changes B. control air leak
C. have excessive sensitivity to small speed changes C. leaking air starting valve
D. remain in the neutral position D. malfunctioning governor
Ans: B Ans: D
1307 The major cause of trouble in a mechanical-hydraulic governor is 1308 Adjustments to the compensating needle valve in a hydraulic
contamination of the hydraulic fluid by _____________. governor should be made with the engine at _____________.

A. dirt A. maximum power at a normal load

B. fuel oil B. maximum power and load under normal conditions
C. governor cooling water C. half speed and normal temperature
D. fuel oil tars D. normal operating temperature without a load
Ans: A Ans: D
1309 On a diesel engine equipped with a hydraulic speed control 1310 A diesel generator governor is hunting. After changing the oil the
governor, hunting in many cases can be corrected by adjusting governor is flushed and the compensation needle valve is
the _____________. adjusted; but the hunting persists. You should NOW
_____________.
A. accumulator spring compression A. check air intake manifold pressure
B. balance piston B. calibrate the fuel pump rack settings
C. compensating needle valve C. set the speed droop adjustment to zero
D. proportional piston D. carefully check for binding in the governor linkage
Ans: C Ans: D
1311 Compensating needle valve adjustments to a hydraulic governor 1312 If a main propulsion diesel engine hunts excessively at idle speed,
should be made with the engine _____________. you should ____________.
A. running at normal operating temperature without load A. adjust the idle speed control
B. running at half speed and at normal temperature B. drain and flush the governor and replace the oil
C. running at maximum power and load under normal conditions C. adjust the compensating needle valve
D. developing maximum power at normal load D. adjust the load limit
Ans: A Ans: C
FOUR STROKE ENGINES - DESIGN,COMPONENTS AND OPERATION
1313 Which of the following methods is normally used to lubricate 1314 Clearance volume scavenging in a turbocharged, four-
bearings in a small high-speed diesel engine? stroke/cycle diesel engine is accomplished ___________.
A. Spclearance lubrication A. during the valve overlap period
B. Pressure lubrication B. with only the exhaust valve open
C. Sight feed lubricators C. at a pressure below atmospheric
D. Mechanical lubricators D. without cooling the cylinders or pistons
Ans: B Ans: A
1315 Trunk-type diesel engine pistons are most effectively cooled by 1316 The reversing cams of some four-stroke/cycle diesel engines are
heat _____________. brought into position by ____________.
A. conducted through the engine block A. sliding the camshaft along its axis
B. conducted to water cooled cylinder walls B. rotating the cam 180°
C. conducted through the piston crown C. rotating the cam followers 180°
D. losses to escaping exhaust gases D. moving the idler sprockets in the drive chain
 Page 70

Ans: B Ans: A
1317 Which of the following conditions can cause above normal air 1318 How much will the jacket water temperature normallyincrease
temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a four- between the inlet and outlet of medium orhigh-speed diesel
stroke/cycle, turbocharged, diesel engine? engines?
A. Clogged air intake filters A. 1° to 3°C
B. Piston blow-by B. 3° to 5°C
C. A defective aftercooler C. 5° to 10°C
D. Faulty exhaust valves D. 15° to 25°C
Ans: C Ans: C
1319 Trunk type diesel engine pistons are effectively cooled when heat is 1320 Ring groove inserts are occasionally used on aluminum alloy
____________. pistons to ____________.
A. radiated through the engine block A. reduce the ring groove wear rate
B. transferred to water cooled cylinder walls B. seal against crankcase vapors
C. conducted through the piston crown C. lessen the wear on aluminum parts of the cylinder
D. transferred to escaping exhaust gases D. allow for the greater expansion rate of aluminum
Ans: B Ans: A
1321 Broken intake valve springs on one cylinder of a diesel engine can 1322 Excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine can be caused by
cause the engine to _____________. _____________.
A. overspeed A. late combustion
B. fire improperly B. plugged oil wiper rings
C. lose oil pressure C. low lube oil temperature
D. overheat rapidly D. low lube oil pressure
Ans: B Ans: B
1323 When the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the 1324 During the power stroke of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, most
engine manufacturer, the diesel engine valves will _____________. of the side thrust of a trunk-type piston is absorbed by the
_____________.
A. open earlier than normal A. piston skirt
B. close earlier than normal B. pinion
C. remain open for a shorter duration C. crosshead
D. fail to open when the valves are warm D. compression rings
Ans: A Ans: A
1325 Excessive lube oil consumption can result from worn or broken 1326 Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause
_____________. _____________.
A. piston rings A. high lube oil viscosity
B. valve guides B. increased lube oil consumption
C. valve seals C. low lube oil temperatures
D. all of the above D. high firing pressures
Ans: D Ans: B
1327 Excessive lubricating oil consumption in a running diesel engine 1328 In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, badly worn intake valve guides
can be caused by _____________. can cause excessive ____________.
A. clogged lube oil piping A. exhaust pressure
B. excessive valve-guide clearance B. exhaust temperatures
C. high lube oil viscosity C. cooling water temperatures
D. low lube oil temperature D. lube oil consumption
Ans: B Ans: D
1329 The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is used to 1330 A diesel engine valve spring is under compression when thevalve is
operate the _____________. _________. I. open II. closed
A. fuel injectors A. I only
B. exhaust valves B. II only
C. intake valves C. both I and II
D. all of the above D. neither I nor II
Ans: D Ans: C
1331 The force exerted by a valve spring to close the diesel engine 1332 Exhaust pipes for separate diesel engines can be combined only
valves, is proportional to _____________. when _____________.
A. spring compression A. space limitations prevent separately run pipes
B. engine speed B. the engines are small auxiliary units
C. the natural frequency of vibration C. they are arranged to prevent gas backflow to each engine
D. spring surge D. a waste heat boiler is installed
Ans: A Ans: C
1333 Spring surge in diesel engine valve springs can result in 1334 The satisfactory operation of diesel engine exhaust valves usually
_____________. depends on ______________.
A. increasing effective spring force A. the proper back pressure
B. bouncing of the valve gear B. the cooling water temperature
C. splitting of the valve keeper collars C. correct timing and proper seating
D. failure of the valve to open D. accurate metering and the exhaust temperature
Ans: B Ans: C
1335 The angular distance a flywheel rotates between the firing of the 1336 On a medium-speed main propulsion diesel engine, the crankpin or
cylinders of a V-16, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is crank journal bearings receive lubricating oil from _____________.
_____________.
A. 22.50‚ A. a spindle lubricator
B. 33.75‚ B. an oil jet
C. 45.00‚ C. internal spclearanceing
D. 90.00‚ D. drilled passages in the crankshaft
Ans: C Ans: D
 Page 71

1337 In comparison to exhaust valves, intake valves of diesel engines 1338 Multiple concentric valve springs are often used with diesel engine
may be fabricated from low-alloy steels because _____________. valves to ____________.

A. the beveled edges of the intake valves provide for self-centering A. enable research and development of cam contour to be simplified
during seating
B. intake valves utilize stellite-coated valve seat inserts which reduce B. operate the valve gear where a larger force is normally required,
wear but space limitations restrict the use of a single large spring

C. the volume of air passing through intake valves is less than the C. allow for easier valve replacement
volume of air passing through exhaust valves
D. intake valves are less affected to the corrosive action of exhaust D. enable a total smaller valve spring force to keep the valve tight on
gases its seat
Ans: D Ans: B
1339 Before shutting off the fuel supply to stop a medium or high-speed 1340 Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are
diesel engine, why is it necessary to allow the engine to idle for a usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric
few minutes? housing to ____________.
A. To let the waste heat boiler reduce it's rate of steam generation. A. provide cooling water flow when the engine is running either ahead
or astern
B. To ensure the fuel nozzles are flushed clean. B. provide the greatest pump efficiency
C. To clear the smoke stack. C. prevent pump clogging from marine growth
D. To prevent internal damage from local overheating. D. prevent cavitation at the pump outlet
Ans: D Ans: A
1341 In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at 1342 Fuel oil begins injection into the cylinder of a four-stroke/cycle diesel
_____________. engine during the _____________.
A. twice the crankshaft speed A. intake stroke
B. half the crankshaft speed B. exhaust stroke
C. the same speed as the crankshaft C. power stroke
D. a speed independent of the crankshaft D. compression stroke
Ans: B Ans: D
1343 A piston in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine makes four strokes 1344 What is the speed of the crankshaft in a four-stroke/cycle engine
during each __________. when the camshaft is turning at 750 rpm?
A. crankshaft revolution A. 375 RPM
B. mechanical cycle of operation B. 500 RPM
C. period of two combustion cycles C. 750 RPM
D. cycle of two events D. 1500 RPM
Ans: B Ans: D
1345 Regarding jerk-type fuel pumps as used on some auxiliary diesel 1346 What is the crank angle between any two crank throws in the firing
engines, the delivery cutoff point is controlled with a order of a four-stroke/cycle, in line, eight cylinder diesel engine?
_____________.
A. delivery valve spring A. 45°
B. spill port for leakoff B. 60°
C. check valve in the guide C. 90°
D. helical groove on the plunger D. 100°
Ans: D Ans: C
1347 The firing order of an in-line, four-stroke/cycle, six cylinder, auxiliary 1348 Precombustion chambers, air cells, and energy cells in high- speed,
diesel engine is 1-5-3-6-2-4. When the #1 cylinder is firing at top small bore diesel engines all serve to increase _____________.
dead center, the #3 piston is ____________.
A. on the intake stroke A. firing pressure
B. on top dead center B. ignition quality of fuel
C. on the power stroke C. fuel/air ratio during compression
D. at bottom dead center D. turbulence
Ans: A Ans: D
1349 Which of the following statements represents the advantage of a 1350 In a full floating gudgeonpin, the pin is prevented from sliding
precombustion chamber used in an auxiliary diesel engine? against the cylinder walls by _____________.

A. Timing of injection does not need to be exact. A. snap rings

B. Turbulence is eliminated. B. seal welding
C. Lower mean effective pressures are developed. C. a press fitting
D. Excellent control of combustion can be attained. D. a tongue-and-groove
Ans: A Ans: A
1351 The exhaust valve opens before bottom dead center in a four 1352 A V-12 four-stroke/cycle 500 horsepower diesel engine is operating
stroke engine to___________. I. allow for blow down II. reduce under a normal load, the firing pressures are low and the exhaust
pumping losses temperatures are high. Which of the following problems is the most
probable cause of this condition?

A. I only A. Fuel pump rack setting is too far out.

B. II only B. The air intake filter is missing.
C. both I and II C. The exhaust back pressure is too high.
D. neither I nor II D. The fuel pump rack setting is too far in.
Ans: C Ans: C
1353 In order to keep excess oil from the intake ports in two-stroke/cycle 1354 One advantage obtained from the use of a precombustion
diesel engines, ______________. chamber in a diesel engine is _____________.
A. wide compression rings are used A. increased engine thermal efficiency
B. oil rings are located above the piston pin B. higher peak cylinder pressures
C. dense chromium plating is used on all piston rings C. higher developed BMEP
D. oil rings are located near the bottom of the piston skirt D. smoother combustion
 Page 72

Ans: D Ans: D
1355 The use of push rods are necessary in a diesel engine when 1356 When attempting to restart a warm high-speed engine, which of the
_____________. following reactions can you expect?
A. the camshaft is located some distance below the rocker arms A. Excessive fuel use

B. the rocker arms are pivoted near their centers B. Higher than normal temperatures for start up
C. two or more valves must be opened and closed at the same time C. Longer starting periods

D. hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters are used D. Higher than normal lube oil pressure
Ans: A Ans: B
1357 Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a 1358 Cams used to activate mechanically operated air starting valves on
single acting four-stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a single acting four-stroke/cycle diesel engines should have which of the valve lift
two-stroke/cycle diesel engine because ____________. profiles listed?

A. bearing pressure in a four-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is A. Abrupt lift with a short open period, and abrupt valve seating.
continually reversed
B. bearing pressure in a two-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is B. Gradual lift with a short fully open period, and accelerated valve
continually reversed closing.
C. the maximum bearing pressure is higher in a single acting two- C. Abrupt lift giving full valve opening for a long period, with gradual
stroke/cycle diesel engine valve seating.
D. two-stroke/cycle diesel enginesrequire more complicated lubrication D. Gradual lift giving full valve opening for a long period, with gradual
piping valve seating.
Ans: A Ans: C
1359 In a diesel engine, with the valves set to specification, the shape of 1360 Which type of gudgeon pin uses bearings in the piston bosses, but
the cam determines the valve _____________. is fixed to the small end of the connecting rod?
A. point of opening A. Semi-floating
B. speed of opening B. Full floating
C. lift from its seat C. Solid
D. all of the above D. Fixed
Ans: D Ans: A
1361 A turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a larger valve 1362 To reduce the weight of the reciprocating parts, pistons of high-
overlap than a naturally aspirated, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine in speed engines are made considerably shorter. This results in
order to increase the _____________. _____________.
A. temperature of the exhaust gases A. less piston slap and quieter running
B. energy supplied to the turbocharger B. increased crankshaft bearing wear
C. air pressure to the intake manifold C. slightly greater piston wear
D. cooling effect on the exhaust valves D. decreased side pressures
Ans: D Ans: C
1363 Valves in the cylinder head of a diesel engine are opened by the 1364 High-speed, multi-cylinder, diesel engines commonly use
direct action of the _____________. counterweights placed opposite to the crankpins to ________.

A. exhaust pressure A. prevent bearing loads

B. valve spring pressure B. provide dynamic balance by equalizing centrifugal force
C. rocker arm movement C. counteract inertia forces
D. gudgeon pin movement D. provide a balance of rocking couples around the crankshaft
Ans: C Ans: B
1365 A four-stroke/cycle six cylinder in-line diesel engine has a firing 1366 In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system employing a
order of 153624. When cylinder #6 is firing at top dead center, radiator, proper water temperature can be obtained by
piston #4 is ____________. _____________.
A. at top dead center A. adjusting the radiator louvers
B. on the compression stroke B. passing cooling water through a space heater
C. at bottom dead center C. passing cooling water through the lube oil cooler
D. on the intake stroke D. piping exhaust gases across the radiator front
Ans: D Ans: A
1367 In an auxiliary diesel engine bypass type lubricating oil system, the 1368 If a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is running at 1550 RPM, the
main lube oil pump forces _____________. speed of the camshaft will be _____________.
A. all of the oil used by the engine through a filter A. 525 RPM
B. some of the oil used by the engine through a filter B. 775 RPM
C. some of the oil used by the engine through a centrifuge C. 1550 RPM
D. cylinder clearance volume D. 1800 RPM
Ans: B Ans: B
1369 An inline engine having a 225mm bore and more than eight 1370 An advantage of aluminum pistons, when compared to cast iron
cylinders will _________. pistons is _____________.
A. incorporate the use of two explosion relief valves A. greater high temperature strength
B. have three explosion relief valves B. better heat conductivity
C. have at least eight explosion relief valves C. greater weight per cubic cm
D. not be required to have explosion relief valves D. increased resistance to wear
Ans: B Ans: B
1371 An electric heater built into some smaller diesel engines is used to 1372 In a bypass type filtering system for a medium or high speed diesel
_____________. engine, the lube oil bypassing the filter __________.
A. raise lube oil viscosity for easier starting in cold weather A. returns directly to the suction side of the pump
B. increase air inlet temperature B. returns directly to the sump
C. increase compression ratio C. flows to the engine bearings
D. increase jacket water temperature for easier starting in cold D. flows through a second-stage strainer, reheater, and returns to the
weather sump
Ans: D Ans: C
 Page 73

1373 The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine provides a 1374 In a single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the power
means to operate the _____________. impulse in an individual cylinder occurs ____________.
A. fuel injectors A. once every crankshaft revolution
B. exhaust valves B. once every two crankshaft revolutions
C. intake valves C. once every piston stroke
D. all of the above D. twice every piston stroke
Ans: D Ans: B
1375 If fuel injection to a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine begins earlier 1376 Air motion is induced in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine cylinder to
than designed, ignition may be delayed because the improve air fuel mixing, and is known as _____________.
____________.
A. cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough A. supercharging
B. cylinder compression temperature may be too high B. scavenging
C. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough C. turbulence
D. scavenge and purge process is incomplete D. swept volume charging
Ans: A Ans: C
1377 One of the most common methods in preventing a diesel engine 1378 In the operating cycle of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine,
piston pin from contacting the cylinder wall is by the use of blowdown to exhaust manifold pressure must occur before the
____________. piston begins the exhaust stroke to avoid _____________.

A. non-floating pin A. pressure losses

B. tape rod bosses B. exhaust pulsations
C. snap rings C. excessive scavenging
D. offset drilling D. pumping losses
Ans: C Ans: D
1379 Exhaust pipes of multiple engine installations are not to be 1380 Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a
interconnected, but are to be run separately to the atmosphere single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a two-
_______. stroke/cycle diesel engine because __________.

A. unless arranged to prevent the return of gases to an idle engine A. the direction of pressure on the journals in four-stroke engines is
continuously reversing, whereas in two-stroke engines it is constant

B. to a point not lower than the highest load line B. positive feed lubricators are installed on all bearings of four-stroke
engines, whereas as a spclearance feed system is used on two-
stroke engines
C. at a location segregated from other ventilation systems C. four-stroke engines usually utilize a heavier grade of fuel oil than
two-stroke engines
D. and shall be protected by a rain guard or similar device D. two-stroke engines usually consume less lube oil than four-stroke
engines
Ans: A Ans: A
1381 During the power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk type piston is a 1382 Auxiliary diesel engines can be automatically shut down as a result
result of the angle ____________. of __________.
A. formed by the connecting rod and the cylinder center line A. low lube oil temperature
B. formed by the piston in relation to the piston pin B. low lube oil pressure
C. between the crankarm and crankpin C. high exhaust temperature
D. between the master and link connecting rods D. high cooling water pressure
Ans: A Ans: B
1383 An emergency diesel generator should automatically shut down in 1384 Prior to starting most medium-speed propulsion diesel engines,
the event of __________. which of the procedures listed should be observed?
A. dangerous overspeeding A. The expansion tank should be topped off.
B. a loss of lube oil pressure B. The fuel filters should be changed.
C. the activation of the fixed CO2 system for the emergency generator C. The thermostatic water regulating valves should be manually
space opened.
D. All of the above. D. The engine should be turned over slowly with the indicator cocks
open.
Ans: D Ans: D
1385 During warm-up the expansion of valve stems due to engine heat, 1386 High lube oil temperatures developing in a diesel engine can result
is allowed for by the _____________. from _____________.
A. valve springs A. high oil pressure
B. hydraulic governor B. excessive bearing end play
C. tappet clearance C. plugged oil control rings
D. cooling system D. engine overload
Ans: C Ans: D
1387 In a medium speed diesel engine, a trunk type piston may becooled 1388 The shape of a cam on a diesel engine determines the valve's
by ____________.I. oil circulation though passages in the piston __________.
crown II. heat transfer through piston rings and liner wall

A. I only A. point of opening

B. II only B. speed of opening
C. either I or II C. lift from its seat
D. neither I nor II D. All of the above are correct.
Ans: C Ans: D
1389 One end of a cylinder for a medium or high-speed diesel engine is 1390 The side pressure per unit of area, resulting from the angularity of
sealed by the piston and rings, the other end is sealed by the the motion of the connecting rod, depends primarily on the
____________. ____________.
A. crankcase A. weight of the piston
B. cylinder head B. length of the piston
 Page 74

C. valve cover C. length of the cylinder liner

D. engine frame D. speed of the engine
Ans: B Ans: B
1391 In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, after the completion of the 1392 During the diesel engine power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk
power stroke, the piston will move _________________. type piston is a result of the angle _____________.
A. up and draw in a fresh air charge A. formed by the connecting rod and cylinder center line
B. down to burn off fuel B. of the bevel on the piston oil control rings
C. down to compress the fuel air charge C. formed by the crank arm and crank pin
D. up and force out the exhaust gases D. formed bythe master and link connecting rods
Ans: D Ans: A
1393 Which of the listed design features is found in an exhaust valve and 1394 A connecting rod in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is subject to
NOT in an intake valve? ____________.
A. Hard alloy steel construction A. tension load twice each crankshaft revolution
B. Beveled edges on the valve head B. compression load during power and compression strokes
C. Low alloy steel construction C. inertia load once every four crankshaft revolutions
D. Poppet type design D. bending loads at bottom and top dead center
Ans: A Ans: B
1395 A disadvantage of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is 1396 In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine the intake valves open
_____________. _______.
A. higher working temperature of piston and cylinder A. before TDC and close after BDC
B. the use of scavenge ports B. after TDC and close after BDC
C. fewer power strokes per revolution of the crankshaft C. before TDC and close before BDC
D. part of the fuel is burned as the piston is moving away from top D. after TDC and close before BDC
dead centre
Ans: C Ans: A
FOUR STROKE ENGINE - MAINTENANCE
1397 Increasing the valve clearance between a valve stem and rocker 1398 If the oil control rings were installed upside down on a diesel engine
arm, will result in the valve _____________. piston, which of the following conditions would result?

A. closing later A. Excessive oil pumping would occur.

B. opening sooner B. The rings would tend to overheat.
C. staying open for a shorter period of time C. The ring grooves would be blocked.
D. staying open for a longer period of time D. Tendency for ring breakage is increased.
Ans: C Ans: A
1399 Which of the listed problems would be indicated by an 1400 If a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve
accumulation of water in one cylinder, in addition to the crankcase compartment of a diesel engine, the cause may be __________.
of an idle diesel engine?
A. Excessive condensation in that cylinder. A. a loose valve stem and guide
B. Water in the fuel system. B. excessive tappet clearances
C. Cracked cylinder liner. C. a stuck valve
D. Leaking lube oil cooler. D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
1401 If there is a "clicking" sound in the valve compartment of adiesel 1402 Water accumulating in the crankcase of a diesel engine could
engine, the cause may be _____________. indicate _____________.
A. a worn gudgeon pin A. a cracked cylinder liner
B. excessive tappet clearance B. excessive water in the fuel
C. worn connecting rod bearings C. a leaking intercooler
D. all of the above D. excessive moisture in the scavenge air
Ans: B Ans: A
1403 A sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel 1404 If the piston groove drain holes for the oil control rings become
engine can be caused by _____________. clogged, which of the following is likely to occur?
A. a leaking fuel injector nozzle A. The oil control rings will seat improperly and wear rapidly.
B. bourdon gauge B. The piston will overheat due to insufficient lubrication.
C. excessively early fuel injection C. Excessive oil will remain on the cylinder wall.
D. malfunctioning valves D. Light brown smoke will emanate from the engine exhaust.
Ans: D Ans: C
1405 If you increase the clearance between a valve stem and rocker 1406 Bearing clearances in small high-speed diesel engines should be
arm, which of the listed conditions will occur? measured using _____________.
A. Valve will open later. A. gauge blocks
B. Valve will close later. B. plasti-gauge
C. Amount of fuel injected will be increased. C. feeler gauges
D. Amount of fuel injected will be decreased. D. round solder wire
Ans: A Ans: B
1407 A loud clicking noise occurring from within the valve compartment 1408 On small diesel engines, a noticeable decrease in the time interval
of an operating diesel engine would indicate _____________. between the replacement of the lube filter cartridge indicates
____________.
A. worn valve seats A. piston ring blow-by
B. tight rocker arm springs B. dirty air filter
C. excessive tappet clearance C. excessive oil pressure
D. weak rocker arm springs D. excessive oil temperature
Ans: C Ans: A
1409 To check the setting of the overspeed trip on a diesel powered 1410 Immediately after starting a small high-speed diesel engine, you
generator, you would use a _____________. should check the _____________.
A. tachometer A. cooling water temperature
B. torsion meter B. lube oil temperature
C. dynamometer C. fuel pressure
 Page 75

D. pony brake D. lube oil pressure

Ans: A Ans: D
1411 Increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel engine 1412 A faulty thermostatic bypass valve, in a diesel engine cooling
will result in the exhaust valve opening __________. system, can result in _____________.
A. later and closing earlier A. excessive time required for warming-up
B. later and closing later B. excessive freshwater corrosion
C. earlier and closing earlier C. scale formation on the saltwater side
D. earlier and closing later D. saltwater mixing with the freshwater
Ans: A Ans: A
1413 When using a fuel with a higher than normal sulphur content in an 1414 Which of the following problems can cause excessive
auxiliary diesel engine, you should _____________. consumption of the lubricating oil in a diesel engine?
A. maintain higher than normal jacket water temperature A. Dirty lube oil filters
B. change the lube oil more frequently than normal B. Excessive piston ring wear
C. maintain a higher air-box temperature than normal C. Excessively high lube oil viscosity
D. maintain a higher air-box pressure than normal D. Excessively low lube oil temperatures
Ans: B Ans: B
1415 If the intake, or exhaust valve stem clearance is found to be 1416 Which of the following problems represents one possible cause of
excessive, in addition to too little movement of the rocker arms, high lube oil consumption in a four stroke diesel engine?
you should check for _____________.
A. collapsed hydraulic valve lifters A. Worn intake valve guides
B. loose valve spring locks B. Pitted precombustion chambers
C. worn valve seats C. Loose valve tappets
D. broken valve springs D. High exhaust back pressure
Ans: A Ans: A
1417 The service life of a worn aluminum piston for an auxiliary diesel, for 1418 Which of the changes in the valve timing listed should be carried
which no spares are readily available, can be extended by out when a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is
____________. converted to a supercharged engine?
A. turning down the piston skirt to concentric values A. Retard the intake valve opening and advance the exhaust valve
closing period.
B. knurling the piston skirt surface B. Advance the intake and exhaust valve opening period.
C. building up the piston skirt with a liquid epoxy material and then C. Advance the intake valve opening and retard the exhaust valve
remachining closing periods.
D. increasing the dimensions of the ring land grooves D. Retard the intake and exhaust valve closing period.
Ans: B Ans: C
1419 A loud clicking noise from the valve compartment of an operating 1420 Excessively worn, or polished ends on a diesel engine valve spring,
diesel engine would indicate _____________. indicate ________________.
A. worn valve seats A. burned exhaust valves
B. worn main bearings B. excessive spring compression
C. excessive valve clearance C. spring surge
D. weak rocker arm springs D. worn valve seats
Ans: C Ans: C
1421 Excessive valve clearance will cause a valve to open 1422 In a diesel engine, blow-by is a result of combustion gases leaking
_____________. into the crankcase past the _____________.
A. early and close early A. gudgeon pin bushings
B. early and close late B. compression rings
C. late and close early C. cylinder liner seals
D. late and close late D. cylinder liner sealing ring
Ans: C Ans: B
1423 Reducing the clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm will 1424 Excessive vibration in an operating diesel generator may be caused
result in the valve _____________. by _____________.
A. having a shorter duration of opening A. electrical overload
B. having a longer duration of opening B. surging at governed RPM
C. closing sooner C. loose engine mounting bolts
D. opening later D. coolant leaking into the cylinder
Ans: B Ans: C
1425 If you were inspecting the valve springs on an auxiliary diesel 1426 If the valve tappets in a diesel engine are set at greater clearances
engine, your best indication of impending spring failure would be than those specified by the engine manufacturer, those valves will
_____________. _____________.
A. a glazed surface on the spring A. open late and close early
B. nicks in the protective coating B. open late and close late
C. a buildup of sludge deposits C. fail to open when the engine is cold
D. cracks in the surface of the spring D. fail to open at normal operating temperature
Ans: D Ans: A
1427 The overspeeding of the diesel engine driving an electric generator 1428 Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause
could cause ______________. _____________.
A. low voltage trip to trip A. high lube oil viscosity
B. reverse power trip to trip B. abnormal lube oil consumption
C. damage to windings C. low lube oil temperatures
D. excessive exhaust temperatures D. high firing pressures
Ans: C Ans: B
1429 Worn diesel engine intake valve guides can result in 1430 In a diesel engine, the spring force required for proper valve
_____________. operation is determined by _____________.
A. increased engine breathing efficiency A. maximum firing pressure
B. excessive tappet clearance B. minimum firing pressure
C. excessive lube oil consumption C. cam contour
D. lower than normal fuel consumption D. length of the spring
 Page 76

Ans: C Ans: C
1431 If an auxiliary diesel engine coolant temperature is higher than 1432 In a trunk type diesel engine piston, the thickness of the head or
normal, but the thermostat is determined not to be defective, you crown is determined by the ___________. I. strength requirement
would suspect a/an ___________. II. heat dissipation requirement
A. cavitation erosion in the water jackets A. I only
B. excess corrosion inhibitor in the coolant B. II only
C. dirty jacket water cooler C. both I and II
D. defective turbocharger D. neither I nor II
Ans: C Ans: C
1433 Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles on small high-speed diesel 1434 tappet clearance, or clearance refers to the _____________.
engines, can be prevented by _____________.
A. employing fuel oil as a cooling medium A. clearance between valve spindle and guide
B. preventing hard carbon deposit on nozzle tips B. compression of the valve springs
C. avoiding fuel oil temperature exceeding builder's specification C. clearance between the valve seat inserts and the head

D. ensuring good metallic contact between nozzles and cylinder heads D. clearance between the top of the valve stem and the rocker arm

Ans: D
1435 Which of the following precautions must be taken if an electric
immersion heater is used to keep the coolant in a diesel engine
warm during the time the engine is secured?
A. The coolant temperature must be maintained at 180°F.
Ans: D
1436 If the tappet clearance on a diesel engine is set improperly, which
of the following statements represents the most serious problem
that can develop?
A. Too little clearance will cause noisy operation and excessive wear.

B. The thermostatic bypass valves must be manually opened before B. Too much clearance will cause the valve to open early and close
the engine is started. late.
C. The pressure cap must be removed while the engine is secured. C. Too little clearance may prevent the valves from seating properly.

D. Electrical power to the heater must be secured before the cooling D. Too much clearance may prevent combustion through loss of
system is drained compression.
Ans: D Ans: C
1437 Bearing clearances in small high-speed diesel engines should be 1438 In an auxiliary diesel engine, the reason for knurling the piston skirt
measured with _____________. is to __________.
A. gauge blocks A. improve skirt lubrication
B. plasti-gauge B. allow for expansion
C. feeler gauge C. transmit forces evenly
D. round solder wire D. improve the piston seal
Ans: B Ans: A
1439 When the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the 1440 If clearance between a piston and the cylinder wall is excessive,
manufacturer, diesel engine valves, operating at normal piston slap will occur. The slap itself is caused by
temperatures, will ______________. ______________.
A. open later than normal A. alternation of side thrust
B. close later than normal B. a breakdown of the lube oil film on the cylinder wall
C. have less total lift C. worn piston boss piston pin bearings
D. fail to open when the valves are warm D. fluctuating gas pressure in the combustion space
Ans: B Ans: A
1441 Excessive tappet clearance in an auxiliary diesel engine will cause 1442 Poor quality fuel being used in a turbocharged medium-speed,
the valves to open _____________. diesel engine could result in ________________.
A. later and close sooner A. hard starting
B. sooner and close later B. excessive fuel consumption
C. sooner and close sooner C. loss of power
D. later and close later D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
1443 Cold clearances between the skirt of an aluminum piston and the 1444 Improperly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine can cause
cylinder liner is about ______________. _____________.
A. twice as large as with a cast iron piston A. excessive lube oil consumption
B. the same size as with a cast iron piston B. lower than normal lube oil temperature
C. half as large as with a cast iron piston C. higher than normal exhaust back pressure
D. the same size as the crown of an aluminum piston D. excessive crankshaft endplay
Ans: A Ans: A
1445 A four-stroke, cycle, turbocharged, 1000 horsepower diesel engine 1446 A 16 cylinder main propulsion diesel engine is operating at 90% of
has been operating under load. The load suddenly increases, full load. All cylinder exhaust temperatures are indicated at 450°C,
causing excessive black exhaust smoke, and a rapid rise in the except the No. 7 cylinder which is indicated at 550°C. All fuel racks
lube oil temperature. In response to this condition, you should _ are at 21-22 mm except No. 7 which is at 16mm.

A. reduce load A. Replace and retime No. 7 cylinder fuel pump.

B. check your exhaust B. Pull No. 7 cylinder piston and examine the rings.
C. adjust cooling water temperature C. Examine the governor linkage for binding.
D. increase the lube oil flow D. Check the intake manifold pressure for evidence of burned intake
valves.
Ans: A Ans: A
1447 Irregular engine speed in a diesel generator can be caused by 1448 Decreasing the exhaust valve clearance of a diesel engine will
_____________. cause the exhaust valve to open ______________.
A. high generator load A. earlier and have less lift
B. low fuel viscosity B. earlier and remain open longer
C. high injection pressure C. later and have greater lift
D. binding in the fuel control linkage D. later and have less duration
 Page 77

Ans: D Ans: B
1449 A 16-cylinder diesel engine is operating at 75% load. All exhaust
temperatures are between 400° and 450°C, except the #3 cylinder
reading of 300°C. All fuel rack settings are between 21 and 22
millimeters, with the #3 rack at 17 mm. What will you do?

A. Reduce engine load.

B. Stop the engine and change out the #3 fuel nozzle.
C. Increase the #3 rack setting and watch the exhaust temperature.

D. Stop the engine and adjust the #3 cylinder pump timing.

Ans: C
AUTOMATION - INSTRUMENTATION
1450 Why do most temperature control valves in diesel engine closed 1451 Which of the following statements is true concerning pressure limit
freshwater cooling systems vary the flow of jacket water through the switches and pressostats installed on auxiliary boilers?
cooler instead of through the engine?
A. Changing the rate of flow in the jackets could cause localized hot A. They are bimetallic elements sensing temperature differentials
spots. corresponding to pressure changes.
B. Emergency hand control would not be possible if water flow through B. They consist of a bellows assembly, linked with a snap action
the jackets were controlled. switch, through a pressure adjusting mechanism.
C. Excessive cooling would take place in the heat exchangers at high C. They automatically relieve excessive steam pressure by acting as
loads. a pilot to the safety valve.
D. Excessive cavitation erosion would take place in the coolers. D. They automatically restart the burner sequence via the high water
level signal
Ans: A Ans: B
1452 If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary 1453 A sudden flame failure in an operating auxiliary boiler, equipped with
boiler fails to relight the burner after a normal shutdown, you should an automatic combustion control system and burning light fuel,
check for a/an ____________. could be attributed to a______________.
A. low steam pressure A. dead or malfunctioning step up transformer
B. high voltage on the ignition electrode B. faulty ignition cable connector
C. open air damper C. loose connection on the photocell
D. faulty photocell detector D. rapid fuel viscosity increase
Ans: D Ans: C
1454 In an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, restarting from the normal 1455 In a diesel engine cooling system, the high temperature alarm
shutdown cycle in response to steam demand, is initiated by a/an contact maker will be activated on excessively highwater discharge
______________. temperature from the ____________.
A. modulating pressostat, sensing both steam pressure and A. raw water pump discharge
temperature
B. pyrostat measuring decreased steam temperature B. expansion tank outlet
C. pressostat measuring only the steam pressure C. cooling water heat exchanger outlet
D. electrode sensing water level D. engine jacket water outlet
Ans: C Ans: D
1456 Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler can be 1457 The flame safeguard controls of a large automatically fired auxiliary
caused by ______________. boiler, may consist of a ____________.
A. carbon deposits on the electrode A. stack switch
B. excessive fuel oil temperature B. pyrostat
C. excessive return oil pressure C. photoelectric cell
D. brickwork failure D. thermistor
Ans: A Ans: C
1458 Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler could be 1459 Ignition failure in an auxiliary boiler can be caused by
caused by _____________. _____________.
A. carbon deposits on the flame scanner A. carbon deposits on electrodes
B. high fuel oil temperature B. a jammed open oil solenoid
C. low fuel oil viscosity C. excess fuel pressure at the nozzle
D. high steam pressure D. an excessively long purge cycle
Ans: A Ans: A
1460 Which of the listed failures, occurring in an automated diesel 1461 An emergency diesel generator cooling system is equipped with an
generator system, should cause an audible alarm at the engine automotive type thermostat. If the thermostat bellows loses its
room control station? charge, the thermostat will _____________.
A. Low cooling water outlet temperature A. open, and the coolant temperature will increase
B. High lube oil pressure B. open, and the coolant temperature will decrease
C. Low lube oil temperature C. close, and the engine coolant temperature will increase
D. Low starting air pressure D. close, and the coolant temperature will decrease
Ans: D Ans: C
1462 When an auxiliary boiler is on the line, the output of the flame 1463 Diesel engine automated control systems may utilize sensing
scanner can be checked by placing a microammeter in series with devices of dual function, with sensing ranges providing both alarm
the photoelectric cell circuit. The readings on high fire should be and engine shut down capability. Which of the key points listed
____________. would only require an alarm sensor?
A. higher than those at low fire A. Lube oil pressure and temperature
B. equal to those at low fire B. Jacket water pressure and temperature
C. lower than those at low fire C. Engine overspeed
D. lower than those at low fire, but the generated voltage will be higher D. Lube oil sump level

Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 78

1464 The burner assembly on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted 1465 If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary
with variable capacity, pressure atomizing burners, maintains steam boiler fails to sustain burner ignition after a normal shutdown, you
pressure by ______________. should check for a/an __________.
A. cycling on and off A. faulty photocell detector
B. changing fuel oil return pressure B. low steam pressure
C. changing the speed of a rotary cup C. high voltage on the ignition electrode
D. varying air pressure supplied to the nozzle D. open air damper
Ans: B Ans: A
1466 A three-way thermostatic control valve regulates the diesel engine 1467 The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an
cooling water temperature by passing a portion of the water automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent ____________.
_____________.
A. around the engine A. accidental dry firing and overpressure
B. around the cooler B. uncontrolled fires in the furnace
C. to the expansion tank C. explosions in the boiler furnace
D. overboard D. overheating of the pressure parts
Ans: B Ans: C
1468 All automatically fired low pressure heating boilers must have an 1469 The fuel supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler, will be
automatic ____________. automatically shutdown if the boiler ______________.
A. fuel cutoff as a result of low water A. salinity is abnormally high
B. pressure-control regulator B. steam demand is too high
C. feedwater control valve C. water level is abnormally low
D. superheat control system D. feedwater flow is low
Ans: A Ans: C
1470 Automatic burner shutdown in an auxiliary boiler, as a result of a 1471 In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the amount of
component failure in the flame safeguard controls, will coolant flowing through the heat exchanger is controlled by the
_______________. _____________.
A. prevent the boiler from automatically relighting A. suction pressure regulator
B. eliminate the need for furnace purging B. thermostatic bypass valve
C. cause automatic restart after a purge period C. sea water temperature
D. cause an explosion in the boiler furnace D. water level in the expansion tank
Ans: A Ans: B
1472 Under which of the following conditions must the combustion 1473 Temperature control valves installed in the jacket cooling water
control system for a small automatic auxiliary boiler secure the system of a diesel engine, modulates the rate of water flow through
burner? the __________.
A. High water level A. cooling water pump
B. Low steam pressure B. nozzle cooling passages
C. Flame failure C. cylinder jackets
D. High fuel oil temperature D. heat exchanger
Ans: C Ans: D
1474 At the beginning of the prepurge period on an automatic auxiliary 1475 After a normal, or safety shutdown, automatic combustion control
boiler equipped with a programmed control system, the unit will not systems for an auxiliary boiler are designed to prevent the
restart if airflow is not sensed and ______________. immediate refiring of a burner in order for the ________________.

A. the damper is not sufficiently opened A. furnace to be repurged

B. the damper is not fully closed B. electric charge to buildup in the igniter
C. oil pressure is not sensed C. fuel pump to restart
D. water pressure is not sensed D. drum level to stabilize
Ans: A Ans: A
1476 Which of the following types of feedwater regulators is commonly 1477 Automatic combustion control systems for auxiliary boilers are
used with a water-tube, natural circulation, auxiliary boiler? designed to cycle burners on and off in response to the
_______________.
A. Thermomechanical A. excess air pressure
B. Bimetallic element B. steam moisture content
C. Ring thermostat C. furnace temperature
D. Modulating pressostat D. steam pressure
Ans: A Ans: D
1478 If the operating element of a thermostatic valve installed in a diesel 1479 Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers
engine cooling system malfunctions, it may result in are designed to cycle burners on and off in response to
______________. ____________.
A. a low level in the engine expansion tank A. fuel supply pressure
B. excessively high coolant pressure B. fuel return pressure
C. improper temperatures C. steam pressure
D. malfunctioning of the jacket water heater D. furnace air pressure
Ans: C Ans: C
1480 Engine protection by means of an alarm or shutdown control can be 1481 Control of the main propulsion diesel engines can be shifted from
obtained with devices that are sensitive to _____________. the engine room to the wheelhouse from the ___________.

A. temperature A. wheelhouse control station

B. pressure B. engine room control station
C. engine speed C. captain's office
D. all of the above D. chief engineer's office
Ans: D Ans: B
1482 To test the operation of the flame failure switch of an operating 1483 Electrically operated safety devices on auxiliary diesel engines
automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should _____________. function to stop the engine by _____________.

A. de-energize the high voltage ignition system A. increasing the volume of intake air
 Page 79

B. move the igniter away from the normal firing position B. shutting off the fuel supply
C. close the manual fuel valve with the burner firing C. increasing the engine back pressure
D. shift the controls to low fire D. overspeeding the engine
Ans: C Ans: B
1484 The programmed control system of an automatic auxiliary boiler will 1485 On auxiliary boilers using individual flame scanners to monitor the
terminate the light off process during the prepurge period if air flow main and pilot flames, the main flame scanner should be sighted to
is not sensed and _________. ______________.
A. the damper is not sufficiently open A. detect pilot flames that are incorrectly positioned
B. the damper is not fully closed B. view the refractory directly opposite the main burner
C. oil pressure is not sensed C. avoid detecting the pilot flame
D. water pressure is not sensed D. view the main flame in its outer periphery
Ans: A Ans: C
1486 Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers 1487 If the flame of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler tends to move
are designed to cycle burners on in response to ____________. away from the burner tip when the firing rate is changed from low to
high, you should ____________.
A. low fuel pressure A. decrease the fuel pressure
B. fuel return pressure B. adjust damper linkage to slow the opening rate of the dampers

C. low steam pressure C. adjust damper linkage to lengthen the purge period
D. furnace air pressure D. adjust the photocell to observe the new flame position
Ans: C Ans: B
1488 Which of the following conditions will cause only one of the burner 1489 While an auxiliary boiler is operating at design load, which of the
solenoid valves to close on an automatically fired, two burner unit, following actions will occur if the automatic combustion control
auxiliary boiler? system detects a steam pressure drop?
A. Loss of the forced draft fan A. More burners will be lighted off.
B. Low boiler water level B. The registers will open fully.
C. High boiler water level C. The fuel oil valve and air damper will open wider.
D. A faulty coil in one the solenoid valves D. The steam flow will be automatically regulated
Ans: D Ans: C
1490 The main propulsion diesel engine jacket water temperature rises 1491 Constant capacity pressure atomizing fuel oil burners installed on
above normal, with the raw water sea suction and the expansion automatically fired auxiliary boilers, respond to variations in load
tank water level being normal. Which of the following problems is demand by ____________.
most likely the cause?
A. Faulty thermostatic bypass valve. A. automatically increasing the fuel/air ratio
B. Eroded zinc pencils in the heat exchanger. B. automatically cycling the burner on and off
C. Steam formation in the expansion tank. C. responding to the boiler high and low water level limit switches

D. Excessive leakage from jacket water pump seals. D. regulating the fuel oil service pump discharge pressure
Ans: A Ans: B
1492 Burner ignition failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler would 1493 An automatically fired auxiliary boiler is required by Regulations to
be caused by ____________. be shutdown as a result of ____________.
A. a burned out solenoid in the oil supply valve A. low boiler pressure
B. high temperature excess air B. low water level
C. incorrectly setting the hotwell dump valve C. wide flame cone angle
D. an incorrectly positioned burner snubber assembly D. high fuel oil pressure
Ans: A Ans: B
1494 If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary 1495 When the steam pressure drops below a set value on an
boiler fails to restart from the normal shutdown mode, you should automatically fired auxiliary boiler, fitted with rotary cup atomizers,
check for ______________. the combustion control system will _________.
A. broken or grounded high tension leads A. increase the fuel oil control valve opening
B. a faulty ignition cable connector B. increase the rotary cup speed
C. an incorrect electrode setting C. decrease the back pressure regulating valve opening
D. all of the above D. decrease the supply steam control valve opening
Ans: D Ans: A
1496 The jacket water temperature in a diesel engine closed freshwater 1497 On an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, the steam pressure limit
cooling system is normally controlled by _____________. switch is wired into the burner electric circuit to ______________.

A. regulating the level of corrosion inhibitor in the primary cooling A. energized the flame scannercircuit when high boiler pressure is
system reached
B. the level of the freshwater expansion tank B. sound an alarm when the burner is shut off
C. varying the engine load to meet temperature requirements C. shut off the burner when the cutoff pressure is reached
D. the operation of thermostatic valve D. maintain smokeless fuel oil atomization
Ans: D Ans: C
1498 A failure of any component of a flame safeguard control for an 1499 The fuel oil supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler, will
auxiliary boiler will result in ____________. automatically shutdown if the boiler _____________.
A. a furnace explosion A. steam demand is high
B. automatic burner shutdown B. salinity is high
C. uncontrolled firing C. safety valve simmers
D. automatic restart D. burner flame is extinguished
Ans: B Ans: D
1500 Control of the fuel oil metering valve in an automatically fired 1501 The pressostat is installed on an auxiliary boiler to sense steam
auxiliary boiler is accomplished by a ___________. pressure changes, it _______________.
A. pressure magnifying device in the steam coil outlet A. controls the flow of feedwater to the boiler
B. signal from feed water electrode B. monitors the boiler high water level
C. metering device in the air supply line C. secures the fires when a fusible plug burns out
 Page 80

D. steam pressure sensing device with linkage to the damper air D. automatically regulates the quantity of oil and air flow to the burner
vanes
Ans: D Ans: D
1502 Which of the automatic boiler controls listed should be tested prior 1503 A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler
to lighting off an auxiliary boiler? burner management system ________________.
A. Automatic bottom blow valve A. opens the burner circuit upon sensing a flame failure
B. Low water level cutoff switch B. must be bypassed at low firing rates
C. Voltage output of the ignition transformer C. requires mechanical linkage to secure the burner fuel supply
D. Insulation resistance readings in the ignition system high tension D. detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant heat from glowing
leads refractory
Ans: B Ans: A
1504 If the jacket water temperature in an auxiliary diesel engine cooling 1505 Diesel engine control can be obtained by the bridge
system is lower than normal, the probable cause is _________. _____________.

A. air binding of the engine cooling system A. at any time

B. a cracked water cooled exhaust manifold B. only after the engine room control station is switched to "bridge
control"
C. blockage in the heat exchanger C. whenever the secondary station is switched to "bridge control"

D. faulty operation of the thermostat D. with the approval of the chief engineer only
Ans: D Ans: B
1506 The temperature at which an adjustable bellows type thermostat 1507
valve is set by ______.
A. changing the position of the actuating bulb
B. replacing the bellows with a heavier spring
C. varying air loading pressure to the bellows
D. changing spring compression to oppose bellows
Ans: D
POWER TRANSMISSION,GEARS AND CLUTCHES
1508 Where diesel engine speed and clutch controls are combined into 1509 The control system for a controllable pitch propeller can be
one operation by a single control lever, movement of the lever from programmed ___________.I. to produce a maximum combined
the "stop" position to the "ahead" position will FIRST propeller and engine efficiency between pitch and a given engine
____________. speed II. for continuous operation of the engine at pre-setconditions

A. decrease the engine speed A. I only is correct

B. increase the engine speed B. II only is correct
C. engage the ahead clutch C. both I and II are correct
D. disengage the astern clutch D. neither I or II are correct
Ans: C Ans: C
1510 A diesel engine is operating at 1800 RPM and driving a propeller at 1511 The torque transmitted by an electromagnetic slip coupling is
600 RPM. What is the speed reduction ratio? dependent upon excitation and the _____________.
A. 0.30 to 1 A. engine speed
B. 3.00 to 1 B. harmonic frequency
C. 3.33 to 1 C. amount of slip
D. 33.0 to 1 D. resonance
Ans: B Ans: C
1512 Which of the couplings listed will prevent shock loads from being 1513 In most marine single reduction gear units, the spur gear is driven
transmitted to an engine? by the _____________.
A. Grid A. quill shaft
B. Dog type B. helical gear
C. Friction C. pinion gear
D. Hydraulic D. spur gear
Ans: D Ans: C
1514 Hydraulic couplings will transmit torque equal to the input torque by 1515 Helical reduction gears, as used with main propulsion drive trains,
means of energy changes in a rotating vortex of liquid. For the are constructed so that several teeth are meshed at the same time
vortices to form, there must be __________. to ____________.
A. slip between the impeller and runner A. eliminate propeller shaft end thrust
B. less than 2 per cent slip between the impeller and runner B. translate heavy load into high speed output
C. axial thrust generated by the runner pinion shaft C. provide smooth continuous power transmission
D. momentary torsional vibration transmitted by the driving impeller D. allow construction with fewer gear teeth

Ans: A
1516 Which of the following characteristics is true relative to meshing
spur gears?
A. The gear of larger diameter will rotate at a slower RPM.
B. Both gears will operate in the same direction.
C. The teeth on the larger gear are larger than the teeth on the smaller
gear.
D. Power can be transmitted at a 90° angle.
Ans: A
1518 When used with reversing reduction gears, medium-speed diesel
engines should be bolted to their foundations with fitted bolts at the
drive end and clearance (loosely fitted) bolts in other locations. This
is done to _____________.
A. maintain alignment when the ship's hull is working in heavy seas
Ans: C
1517 Gear-type flexible couplings are often used in diesel engine drive
trains because they _____________.
A. require no lubrication under normal operating conditions
B. compensate for gross misalignment in the drive train
C. are able to transmit high torque, even where slight misalignment
exists
D. will rapidly disconnect the engine from the line shaft
Ans: C
1519 The best method for determining the amount of eccentricity or offset
misalignment between the disconnected propeller shaft coupling
flange and the reduction gear output flange is by using a
_____________.
A. straight edge laid across the flange edges
 Page 81

B. ensure engine vibrations correspond to the natural frequency of the B. thickness gauge between the separated flange faces
hull
C. permit the engine to expand away from the driven equipment as the C. bridge gauge to check the position of each flange in relation to the
engine heats up and expands other
D. maintain engine thrust bearing clearances D. dial indicator mounted on one flange indicating any misalignment
of the other flange
Ans: C Ans: D
1520 A flexible coupling is located between the _____________. 1521 Reduction gear casings are vented in order to _____________.

A. engine and the pinion A. allow windage to exist for cooling the gears
B. line shaft and tailshaft B. avoid a buildup of pressure within the gear case
C. pinion and the bull gear C. avoid lube oil foaming within the case
D. thrust bearing and the worm gear D. allow for proper lubrication of the friction clutch shoes
Ans: A Ans: B
1522 Which of the types of reduction gearing listed is best suited for 1523 Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be
medium speed main propulsion units? detected by using a dial indicator or _____________.
A. Hypoid A. inside micrometer
B. Helical B. feeler gauge and straight edge
C. Cyclical C. adjustable trammel
D. Spur D. sighting device
Ans: B Ans: B
1524 Which of the bearing types listed is most commonly used in smaller 1525 When more than one propulsion diesel engine is connected to a
vessel main propulsion reduction gears as thrust bearings? single propeller shaft through reduction gears, the gears are
usually _____________.
A. Ball bearings A. single reduction
B. Poured bearings B. double reduction
C. Sleeved bearings C. triple reduction
D. Tapered roller bearings D. quadruple reduction
Ans: D Ans: A
1526 Which of the following statements is correct concerning a hydraulic 1527 One advantage of hydraulic clutches over mechanical clutches in
coupling? diesel engine installations is ____________.
A. Rapid declutching is impossible. A. the power is transmitted at a very high efficiency of 60%
B. Accurate alignment between the rotating members is extremely B. the torsional vibrations are transmitted directly to the reduction
important. gears
C. Torque is controlled by the volume of oil in the coupling. C. each clutch has a separate oil gland for reverse operation
D. Torsional vibrations from the engine are transmitted directly to the D. no mechanical connection exists between the driving and driven
hull by the coupling. elements
Ans: C Ans: D
1528 The magnetic lock between the armature and field in an 1529 In reducing engine speed to an efficient propeller speed by the use
electromagnetic coupling is established by _____________. of reduction gears, ____________.
A. controlled engine speed A. speed and torque are both reduced
B. energizing the field coils B. speed is reduced and torque remains unchanged
C. brush contact with the armature C. speed is reduced and torque is increased
D. rotating the primary rotor D. speed is sometimes unchanged while torque is increased
Ans: B Ans: C
1530 When changing the direction of propeller shaft rotation in a diesel 1531 Airflex clutches are used to transmit power from a diesel engine to
plant equipped with a pneumatic clutch, you must pause at neutral the propeller shaft. A restricted orifice is used in the control air
to allow the _____________. system of this unit to _____________.
A. fuel rack to readjust A. delay deflation of the clutch being disengaged
B. engine to slow down B. delay inflation of the clutch being engaged
C. propeller to stop C. reduce the deflation time of both clutches
D. clutch to deflate D. reduce the inflation time of both clutches
Ans: D Ans: B
1532 The power loss associated with slip in a fluid coupling appears as 1533 Slippage of an air operated friction clutch can result from
__________. _____________.
A. chattering in the driving member A. an overloaded engine
B. heat in the hydraulic fluid B. prolonged slow speed operation
C. vibration in the driving member C. weak disc springs
D. leakage around the ring valve D. newly installed friction blocks
Ans: B Ans: A
1534 Pitting in the area close to the pitch line and on the same end of 1535 When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine which is using
each gear tooth of a reduction gear unit would be caused by an inadequately inflated air bladder clutch unit, you can expect
_____________. _____________.
A. corrosion on the gears A. pneumatic seizure
B. excessive gear speed B. overheating because of slipping shoes
C. dirt in the oil C. chipped reduction gear teeth
D. misalignment of the gears D. excessive wear on the thrust bearings
Ans: D Ans: B
1536 Pitted reduction gear teeth having a deep blue color with evidence 1537 Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be
of overheating have been operated with __________. detected by using a dial indicator or _____________.

A. excessive speed A. inside micrometer

B. improper warm-up B. feeler gauge
C. extreme misalignment C. adjustable trammel
D. inadequate lubrication D. sighting device
Ans: D Ans: B
 Page 82

1538 A gear type flexible coupling is precision built for _____________. 1539 Effective hydraulic coupling operation depends upon a certain
amount of _____________.
A. reduced torsional vibration and resonance A. slip
B. increased slip and maneuvering capability B. mechanical friction
C. high torque transmittal under limited misalignment conditions C. fluid overheating
D. low axial thrust transmission under minimal alignment irregularities D. torsional vibration

Ans: C Ans: A
1540 When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine +which is 1541 When two diesel engines are electrically coupled in parallel to a
using an air bladder clutch unit that is inadequately inflated, you can common propeller shaft, which of the operating conditions listed will
expect _____________. apply?
A. chipped reduction gear teeth A. Full horsepower is available ahead and astern.
B. overheating because of slipping shoes B. One engine must be running ahead and the other astern.
C. pneumatic seizure C. Full reversing torque is not available.
D. excessive wear on the thrust bearings D. Mechanical gearing is not required
Ans: B Ans: A
1542 In an electromagnetic coupling, torque to the driven shaft is limited 1543 Proper operation of the main engine reduction gear set requires the
by the _____________. operator to monitor _____________.
A. overload trip A. the sump oil level
B. coupling pullout value B. oil flow sight glasses
C. staybolt strength C. bearing temperatures
D. shear-off coupling D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
1544 When air is delivered under pressure to one of the glands of an air- 1545 To guarantee that a reduction gear bearing is receiving proper oil
bladder clutch, the ____________. supply, you should check the ___________.
A. inside diameter of the clutch gland increases A. lube oil temperature at the cooler outlet
B. inside diameter of the clutch gland decreases B. lube oil strainer magnets
C. gland rotates out of contact with the drums C. bearing lube oil temperature
D. clutch begins to rotate with the engine D. lube oil pressure to the bearing
Ans: B Ans: C
1546 When transmitted by a reduction gear, diesel engine speed is 1547 Which of the couplings listed is normally not repairable, and is
reduced and the torque available for work ______________. usually replaced if completely damaged?
A. remains the same A. Flexible disk-ring coupling
B. is reduced B. Gear-type coupling
C. is increased C. Grid spring coupling
D. is eliminated D. Block and jam coupling
Ans: C Ans: B
1548 When passing through mesh contact, the teeth of a reduction gear 1549 What type of reduction gear would most commonly be used with
first go through a series of actions best described as __________. twin medium-speed propulsion diesel engines driving a single
shaft?
A. galling A. Single reduction, planetary
B. squeezing B. Single reduction, single input
C. sliding C. Single reduction, double input
D. slipping D. Double reduction, double input, articulated
Ans: C Ans: C
1550 The air bladder clutch used with some reversing reduction drive 1551 In using reduction gears to obtain efficient propeller speeds,
gears, consists of _____________. ____________.
A. twin-disk clutch plates A. they must be located at the after end of the engine
B. jaw-type clutch plates B. they can only be used with one engine at a time
C. multi-plate friction plates with sliding collars C. they eliminate the need for controllable pitch propellers
D. two independent clutches D. they are connected to the engine with a flexible coupling
Ans: D Ans: D
1552 Some medium and high-speed diesel engines require reduction 1553 Although slip in pneumatic clutches is normally undesirable in
gear units to provide a useful propeller speed. In most reduction modern pneumatic clutch arrangements, some reduction gear units
gears, the spur gear ____________. are provided with an optional slip clutch which is used to an
advantage in _____________.
must churn the oil in the sump
A. A. reducing high speed torque vibrations
is connected to the propeller shaft
B. B. controlling the warm up of clutch friction surfaces
is driven at the highest RPM
C. C. obtaining maneuvering speeds below engine idle speed
compensates for alignment variations between the engine and
D. D. limiting shock loads transmitted to the engine in heavy weather
pinion gear
Ans: B Ans: C
1554 The volume of available air supply required by an air clutch varies 1555 One of the most common causes of reduction gear failure is gear
with the _____________. wear caused by scoring as a result of ______________.

A. size of the clutch A. surface fatigue of the gears

B. volume of the supply line between the control valve and the clutch B. an inadequate lube oil film

C. frequency of engagement C. plastic flow of the gears

D. all of the above D. fretting corrosion from water contamination
Ans: D Ans: B
1556 In an electromagnetic slip coupling, the slip _____________. 1557 Which of the following statements represents an advantage of an
electromagnetic clutch?
A. reduces magnetic pull caused by non-concentric electromagnets A. It aids in maintaining power factor.
 Page 83

B. reduces resonance and accentuates the turning moment B. Slip is held to a minimum when reversing shaft rotation.
irregularities
C. transmits electromagnetic flux through the primary circuit C. Engine torsional vibrations to the driven shaft are eliminated.
D. generates the low frequency current which excites the secondary D. Large misalignments can be tolerated between the shaft and
electromagnet engine coupling.
Ans: D Ans: C
1558 One advantage of electromagnetic slip couplings is
_____________.
A. torsional vibrations are reduced
B. torque increases with a decrease in excitation current
C. the coupling rapidly responds to sudden changes of load
D. excitation and induction power losses appear as a change in torque
instead of rotational speed between the primary and secondary
elements
Ans: A
COOLING SYSTEMS
1559 Diesel engine jacket water is used in the distillation process as the 1560 In any diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the lowest
____________. pressure exists at the _____________.
A. coolant for the distillate A. jacket water outlet
B. coolant for the brine cooler B. cooling water pump outlet
C. means of heating the feedwater C. heat exchanger outlet
D. primary means of producing a vacuum within the distiller D. expansion tank atmospheric vent
Ans: C Ans: D
1561 The expansion tank for a diesel engine closed cooling system is 1562 A closed freshwater cooling system is commonly used with marine
designed to maintain a constant head on the system and diesel engines because the _____________.
___________.
A. reduce water temperature A. need for water treatment is eliminated
B. reduce water turbulence B. cooling water temperature differential is greater
C. provide an air cushion C. cooling water pumps are directly reversible
D. allow for an increase in water volume as the engine warms up D. jacket water temperature is more easily controlled

Ans: D Ans: D
1563 Which of the following statements describes the function of an 1564 The outlet from an expansion tank of a closed freshwater cooling
expansion tank in a diesel engine cooling system? system should be piped to the ____________.
A. Maintains a constant head on the system. A. cylinder head water outlet header
B. Reduces the likelihood of air or steam pockets formation. B. cylinder jacket inlet main
C. Provides a low pressure point for the addition of makeup cooling C. heat exchanger inlet connection
water.
D. All of the above. D. jacket water pump suction line
Ans: D Ans: D
1565 High diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by 1566 High diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by
_____________. _____________.
A. a worn water pump A. air in the cooling system
B. not enough coolant B. an overhauled water pump
C. air in the cooling system C. correct amount of coolant
D. all of the above D. no air in the cooling system
Ans: D Ans: A
1567 Higher than normal jacket water temperatures occurring in all 1568 The highest pressure in any closed diesel engine freshwater cooling
cylinders of a diesel engine can result from a/an __________. system is at the _____________.

A. oil suction line restriction A. jacket water outlet

B. correct amount of coolant B. expansion tank inlet
C. cavitation erosion in the water jackets C. heat exchanger inlet
D. clogged sea suction strainer D. cooling water pump outlet
Ans: D Ans: D
1569 Which of the following statements is correct concerning diesel 1570 Which of the following statements is correct for the design and
engine cooling water systems? installation of diesel engine cooling water systems?
A. Each engine must have its own engine driven cooling water pump A. An alarm device with audible and visible signals is required for all
capable of providing cooling for all ranges of operation. cooling water systems.

B. Propulsion engines with bores exceeding 200 mm are to be fitted
with a means to display the cooling water temperature of each
cylinder.
C. At least two independent sea suctions are to be provided for
supplying water to the engine jackets or to the heat exchangers.
B. Propulsion engines with bores over 200 mm are to be fitted with
cooling water thermometers at each cylinder.
C. Each totally enclosed cooling system shall be provided with a
suitable head tank.

D. Suitable strainers are to be fitted between the circulating pumps D. Drain cocks are to be provided at the lowest points of all cylinder
and heat exchangers when sea water is used for direct cooling. water jackets.

Ans: C
1571 In a diesel engine jacket water cooler, with seawater cooling the
fresh water, the ___________.
A. sea water temperature must never be warmer than 40°F
B. jacket water pressure should always be greater than the sea water
pressure
C. jacket water temperature must always be less than 60°F
Ans: D
1572 Jacket water heaters are used on diesel engines to ________.
A. help the engine start easier in cold weather
B. maintain the proper jacket water pH
C. maintain the proper expansion tank water level
 Page 84

D. jacket water pressure must always be less than the sea water D. keep the engine room warm
pressure
Ans: B Ans: A
1573 The device allowing for the change in volume of the cooling water in 1574 In a closed cooling system for a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle
a propulsion diesel engine closed cooling system is the diesel engine, fluctuating water pressure can be caused by
_____________. ________________.
A. fresh water expansion tank A. improper venting of the cooling system
B. sea water expansion tank B. carrying the expansion tank water level too high
C. thermostatic expansion valve C. a totally clogged impeller in the cooling water pump
D. jacket water cooler accumulator D. an incorrectly set cooling system temperature control
Ans: A Ans: A
1575 The expansion tank in a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling 1576 In a closed cooling water system, which of the following problems
system is located at _____________. can cause the water pressure to fluctuate?
A. the highest point in the system A. An open vent in the cooling system.
B. the lowest point in the system B. A fouled sea chest.
C. or near the floor plate level C. A restricted water passage in the engine.
D. or near the tank top level D. Air entrained in the cooling water.
Ans: A Ans: D
COOLING SYSTEMS - MAINTENANCE
1577 The interior of some diesel engine saltwater heat exchangers are 1578 Corrosion inhibitors and/or soluble oils are added to diesel engine
protected from corrosion by the use of __________. cooling systems to _____________.
A. aluminum plates A. maintain low pH in the cooling water
B. lead cathodes B. reduce the cooling water temperature
C. copper baffle plates C. increase cooling water hardness
D. sacrificial zincs D. form a protective film on metal surfaces
Ans: D Ans: D
1579 When checking zincs in a saltwater cooled heat exchanger, you 1580 A diesel engine cooling water system with a pH factor of 3.0
should _____________. indicates a condition of ____________.
A. paint the zincs to stop corrosion A. slight acidity
B. insulate the zincs to alter the temperature B. slight alkalinity
C. replace the zincs if they are 50% consumed C. excessive alkalinity
D. file the zincs to change the shape D. excessive acidity
Ans: C Ans: D
1581 Which of the listed effects would the film of alkaline chromate have 1582 Antifreeze solutions containing ethylene glycol, should not be mixed
on the metal surfaces of the cooling systemof a diesel engine? with corrosion protection oils, as the resultant mixture
_____________.
A. Increases the rate of heat transfer A. is dangerously flammable
B. Retards the flow of cooling water B. promotes scale buildup
C. Protects metallic surfaces from corrosion C. may cause frothing
D. Tends to increase corrosion D. has a higher chloride content
Ans: C Ans: C
1583 If the coolant temperature of a closed cooling water system for a 1584 Ethylene glycol, when used as a coolant in a closed cooling system
diesel engine gradually increases, the trouble usually is for a diesel engine, is more advantageous than untreated raw
_____________. water because it _____________.
A. a broken shaft on the freshwater pump A. provides a constant pH below 7
B. an excessive accumulation of scale in the heat exchanger B. provides better vapor-phase cooling
C. an incorrect thermostatic element operating range C. has a higher freezing point and a lower boiling point
D. lube oil in the cooling water D. has a lower freezing point and higher boiling point
Ans: B Ans: D
1585 In a diesel engine cooling water system, a pH of 6.0 indicates a/an 1586 Failure to ensure proper venting of the cooling system of a diesel
______________. engine can result in ____________.
A. slightly acidic condition A. excessive air charge density
B. slightly alkaline condition B. priming in the expansion tank
C. overtreatment of water C. failure of raw water pump shaft seals
D. neutral condition of water D. local overheating and/or internal corrosion
Ans: A Ans: D
1587 If the jacket water temperature of an operating diesel engine 1588 If the raw water supply pressure for a diesel engine cooling system
suddenly rises above normal, the cause can be attributed to is below normal, you should check for a ____________.
_____________.
A. an overfilled expansion tank A. broken thermostat
B. excess chromate treatment of the jacket water B. clogged sea strainer
C. a clogged raw water sea suction C. blown head gasket
D. cavitation erosion of the heat exchanger tubes D. cracked head
Ans: C Ans: B
MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS
1589 When reassembling the bowl of a disk-type centrifuge, the bowl or 1590 Which of the listed contaminants will be satisfactorily removed from
locking ring is rotated ____________. fuel oil by centrifuging?
A. clockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise A. Sludge
B. clockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise B. Diesel fuel
C. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise C. Lube oil
D. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise D. Gasoline
Ans: C Ans: A
1591 Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if oil 1592 If fuel oil were being discharged from the waste water outlet of a
containing moisture is continuously fed to a purifier operating as a fuel oil disk type centrifuge, operated as a separator, you should
clarifier? ________________.
A. The purifier must be operated at a higher temperature. A. remove the discharge ring
 Page 85

B. The purifier must be operated at a higher speed. B. reprime the purifier

C. The purifier will gradually change operation to separation. C. slow the centrifuge to its proper speed
D. The bowl will eventually fill with water. D. install an additional discharge ring
Ans: D Ans: B
1593 A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the following 1594 If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when operated as a
contaminants from fuel oil? separator is not primed, the _____________.
A. Gasoline A. oil has a tendency to emulsify in the bowl
B. Water B. purifier will act as a clarifier at the discharge ring
C. Lubricating oil C. oil will be lost through the water discharge ports
D. Sulphur compounds D. oil solids will be deposited only at the intermediate top disk
Ans: B Ans: C
1595 Which factor determines the ring dam size for a fuel oil, tubular bowl 1596 The output pressure of a diesel engine lube oil pump is regulated
type, centrifugal purifier? by a/an _____________.
A. The viscosity of the fuel. A. relief valve
B. The quantity of water to be removed from the fuel. B. metering valve
C. The specific gravity of the fuel. C. variable speed pump drive
D. The quantity of dirt to be removed from the fuel. D. orifice in the lube oil header
Ans: C Ans: A
1597 The lube oil pump used in a diesel engine is a ____________. 1598 How does water enter the crankcase of a diesel engine?
A. volute pump A. Through the crankcase exhauster.
B. centrifugal pump B. As water vapor contained in blow-by.
C. diaphragm pump C. Demulsifying lube oil passing through the main bearings.
D. gear pump D. Condensation from vapor formed in the expansion tank.
Ans: D Ans: B
1599 Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel 1600 Cooling water pumps driven by direct-reversing diesel engines are
engine heat exchangers to _____________. usually ____________.
A. reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals A. curved impeller vane with tangential outlet
B. keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean B. curved impeller vane with concentric outlet
C. prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth C. straight impeller vane with concentric housing
D. provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces D. straight impeller vane with tangential housing
Ans: A Ans: C
1601 Which of the following problems will cause above normal cooling 1602 Scale and dirt accumulation in the waterside of a lube oil cooler will
water temperatures in a diesel engine using a closed freshwater be indicated by a gradual increase in the lube oil ____________.
cooling system?
A. An air leak in the header tank cover A. TBN number
B. Benzotriazole found in the primary water B. viscosity
C. Eroded baffle in the cooler C. temperature
D. Low level in expansion tank D. foaming
Ans: C Ans: C
1603 Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are 1604 In a bypass type lubrication system for a diesel engine, the dirty oil
usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric line to the centrifuge should be taken from the _____________.
housing to ____________.
A. facilltiate bi-directional operation A. lube oil pump suction line
B. provide the greatest pump efficiency B. lube oil pump discharge line
C. prevent pump clogging from marine growth C. bottom of the lube oil sump
D. prevent cavitation at the pump outlet D. outlet from the lube oil header
Ans:
A Ans:
C
1605 The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the 1606 Standby, or emergency diesel generator day tanks should always
_____________. be kept full to reduce the possibility of __________.
A. vent line A. sediment contamination
B. overflow line B. fuel filter clogging
C. feed line C. moisture formation
D. sounding tube D. inadequate transfer pump suction head
Ans: D Ans: C
1607 When centrifuging heavy fuel oil, an important factor to consider is 1608 Valves used in diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping are to be
the _________.I. flow rate II. viscosity of the fuel oil _______________.

A. I only is correct A. so constructed as to permit packing under pressure

B. II only is correct B. solenoid released upon the failure of engine lubrication
C. both I and II are correct C. either of the gate or globe valve type
D. neither I nor II D. forge constructed under the approval of the Marine Inspector

Ans: C Ans: A
1609 Heavy residual fuel oils are heated prior to centrifuging to 1610 Lube oil pumps taking suction from the sump of most small marine
_____________. engines are usually _____________.
A. reduce fuel weight A. of the diaphragm type
B. increase specific gravity B. of the centrifugal type
C. separate fuel from lube oil C. of the positive displacement type
D. reduce fuel viscosity D. independently driven by electric motors
Ans: D Ans: C
1611 Which of the listed types of gasket material should be used on high 1612 A centrifuge is normally used to purify _____________.
pressure fuel oil lines on a diesel engine?
A. Fiberglass A. cooling water
B. Sheet asbestos B. fuel oil
C. Neoprene C. sea water
 Page 86

D. different type centrifuges are required for the main engine and D. diesel intake air
reduction gear lube systems
Ans: D Ans: B
1613 If the cooling water temperature and the lube oil temperature in a 1614 Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from
diesel engine are too high, the cause can be _____________. diesel fuel by centrifuging?

A. a dirty lube oil strainer A. Sludge

B. internal water leaks B. Gasoline
C. an oil suction line restriction C. Fuel oil
D. excessive wear of the cooling water pump D. lube oil
Ans: D Ans: A
1615 When fuel oil is accidentally mixed with lube oil which ofthe following 1616 Whether using a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and
processes can be used to separate them? I. filtering II. settling filtration will be the most effective when the oil is at a
_____________.
A. I only A. high temperature and a high viscosity
B. II only B. high temperature and a low viscosity
C. either I or II C. low temperature and a high viscosity
D. neither I nor II D. low temperature and low viscosity
Ans:
D Ans:
B
1617 A centrifugal fuel oil purifier should be shut down if 1618 The most effective method in removing water from diesel fuel oil is
_____________. by _____________.
A. more sealing water is needed A. centrifuging the fuel
B. the cover clamp needs tightening B. using it in the engine
C. the purifier has a bad vibration when started C. heating the fuel tanks
D. water is discharged from the overflow line D. straining the fuel
Ans: C Ans: A
1619 For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should 1620 Valves and fittings used with diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping
be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable may be threaded in sizes up to and including 60 mm O.D., but
______________. screwed unions ________.
A. throughput A. are to be used on pressure lines in sizes 33 mm O.D. and over

B. additive percent B. over 33 mm O.D. will be permitted in lieu of flanged connections

C. cetane number C. shall not be used in any instance where the fitting is subjected to
excessive vibration
D. TBN number D. are not to be used on pressure lines in sizes 33 mm O.D. and over

Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 87

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE - GENERAL

WORKSHOP PRACTICE, SOLDERING, BRAZING, WELDING AND GAS CUTTING
1621 Which of the following conditions will indicate a need for a finishing 1622 In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for checking the
cut to be taken on the pump shaft? angle of ______________.
A. Roughness A. drill points
B. Deep ridges B. screw threads
C. Corrugations C. screw thread pitch
D. All of the above D. 60° thread cutting tools
Ans: A Ans: D
1623 Very small irregularities on the seat and disk of a globe valve may 1624 If a drill press is used to completely bore through a metal plate, feed
be manually repaired with the valve in place by the process known pressure on the drill bit should be eased as the bit breaks through
as _____________. the bottom of the hole to prevent ________________.

A. honing A. drill bit breakage

B. lapping in B. undersized holes
C. refacing C. straining the spindle
D. spotting in D. dulling the drill
Ans: B Ans: A
1625 Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is engaged, you 1626 Which of the devices listed should be used to reshape a grinding
must be certain the _____________. wheel?
A. spindle clutch is disengaged A. A round nose tool
B. carriage clamp screw is loosened B. An oil stone
C. carriage stop clamp is tightened C. A wheel dressing tool
D. thread dial indicator is zeroed D. A sharp nose tool
Ans: B Ans: C
1627 The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by 1628 A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the piece of material
setting the _________. to be threaded is slightly ____________.
A. guide (swivel) bar A. peened
B. automatic cross feed B. reamed
C. tailstock off center C. center drilled
D. compound rest angle D. chamfered
Ans: A Ans: D
1629 To properly remove packing from a valve stuffing box, you should 1630 Tapping threads into a blind hole should be finished by using a
use a _____________. ____________.
A. sharpened rod of silver solder A. short tap
B. packing puller B. taper tap
C. chisel and hammer C. plug tap
D. screw driver D. bottoming tap
Ans: B Ans: D
1631 Which of the following definitions accurately describes "tool feed" 1632 The "pitch" of a screw is the _____________.
when referring to lathe work?
A. The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the work. A. angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread

B. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the B. number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of
workpiece. the screw
C. The distance the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting C. distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads
tool point in one minute.
D. The chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute. D. angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests
of the thread
Ans: A Ans: C
1633 The diameter of a hole drilled for tapping threads into a piece of 1634 A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a
stock should be _____________. _____________.
A. larger than the tap diameter A. taper punch
B. smaller than the tap diameter B. drill drift
C. the same size as the tap diameter C. vice grip
D. the same size as the bolt diameter D. leather mallet
Ans: B Ans: B
1635 Machine bolts are identified by their _____________. 1636 Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting ___________.

A. type of head A. oil grooves in bearings

B. major diameter and length B. V-grooves and inside sharp angles
C. threads per inch C. holes through metal plate
D. all of the above D. keyways having square corners
Ans: D Ans: B
1637 When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per 1638 To remove a hand held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has
inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between the gone all the way through a hole, you should
_____________. __________________.
A. drive motor and spindle A. turn the tap wrench clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer

B. spindle and feed rod B. tap the reamer out with a softfaced hammer
C. lead screw and head stock spindle C. turn the tap wrench counterclockwise, simultaneously raising the
reamer
D. lead screw and feed rod D. work the reamer side to side to dislodge it
Ans: C Ans: A
 Page 88

1639 The proper file for a finishing cut on soft metal, such as brass, is the 1640 To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the
____________. _______________.
A. smooth cut file A. teeth should point toward the handle
B. warding file B. teeth should point away from the handle
C. mill file C. blade should be kept loose in the frame
D. second cut file D. blade should be 10 inches in length
Ans: C Ans: B
1641 The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to _________. 1642 Round split dies are usually adjustable to ________________.

A. pipe fittings A. allow threading on oversized stock

B. measuring instruments B. control the diameter of threads cut
C. machinist's hand taps C. to help start the die squarely on the round stock
D. drill press parts D. allow threading up to a shoulder
Ans: C Ans: B
1643 For cutting thin tubing or sheet metal, the proper hacksaw blade 1644 A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned
should have ______________. with a file ______________.
A. the teeth pointing towards the handle A. scraper
B. the blade and teeth of "all-hard" quality B. card
C. 14 teeth per inch C. oilstone
D. 32 teeth per inch D. dressing tool
Ans: D Ans: B
1645 Taps and dies used for threading pipe are ____________. 1646 Copper tubing is best cut with a ________________________.

A. not hardened A. tubing cutter

B. not fluted B. hand hacksaw
C. tapered C. pipe cutter
D. straight D. flare cutter
Ans: C Ans: A
1647 If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at 1648 The tool used to expand and "bell" the ends of small diameter
an angle, the threads will _____________. copper tubing is a/an _____________.
A. be out of round on the work A. adjustable tube roller
B. be cut crooked on the work B. adjustable belling tool
C. be rough, weak, and easily broken C. flaring tool
D. straighten out after the third revolution D. tubing expander
Ans: B Ans: C
1649 Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is 1650 When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should
to ______________. _____________.
A. use a tapered reamer A. stop applying the cutting fluid
B. drill to the large diameter of the taper B. reduce cutting speed and pressure
C. drill to the small diameter of the taper C. change to a finer cut blade
D. bore a straight hole D. increase cutting speed and pressure
Ans: C Ans: B
1651 The complete tool used for manually cutting threads on pipe is 1652 Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered
called a pipe ________________. pin "frozen" in its hole?
A. tool and die A. Drift punch
B. stock and die B. Aligning punch
C. tap C. Center punch
D. chaser D. Prick punch
Ans: B Ans: A
1653 To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should 1654 Which of the following statements best defines "depth of cut" in
_________________. lathe work?
A. place the gasket over the flange and knock off the excess material A. The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the
with a lead mallet work.
B. remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin B. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the
snips workpiece.
C. make up the flanged joint to make an impression of the flange C. The distance the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting
surfaces to insure a pattern for proper alignment tool point in 1 minute.
D. cut grooves into the flange with a chisel to ensure good gasket D. The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute.
contact
Ans: B Ans: B
1655 The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead 1656 For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale
smooth refer to the ________. making it possible to read in increments of _______________.

A. shape of the file A. one hundreth of a millimetre

B. coarseness of the file teeth B. one thousandth of a millimetre
C. size of the file C. one tenth of a millimetre
D. cuts of the file D. one thosandth of a metre
Ans: B Ans: B
1657 A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine 1658 Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of
__________________. the thimble to _____________.
A. large diameter stock between centers A. click at each increment of measure
B. threads on long slender shafts B. prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
C. work mounted on the lathe carriage C. stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel
D. round stock to a finished dimension D. eliminate ratchet movement
Ans: B Ans: B
 Page 89

1659 To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should 1660 The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached
engage the ___________. when _____________.
A. feed-change lever A. the scale is read on the handle
B. split or half-nut B. the dial is read on the handle
C. back gear lever C. an audible click is heard and the handle releases
D. thread-chasing dial D. a dial lights on the handle
Ans: B Ans: C
1661 What basic dimensions are used in describing machine bolts? 1662 A micrometer would be used to measure ____________.
A. Diameter and length only A. microseconds
B. Diameter and cross section only B. round stock diameter
C. Diameter, length, and number of threads per inch C. electrical resistance
D. Diameter, head size, and shoulder length D. low voltages
Ans: C Ans: B
1663 To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first 1664 The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as the
_____________. _________________.
A. disengage the spindle clutch A. anvil
B. engage the feed change lever B. barrel
C. disengage the feed reverse lever C. frame
D. stop the lathe rotation D. thimble
Ans: D Ans: D
1665 A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drill's 1666 When knurling a piece of work on a lathe, it is important to
________________. ________________.
A. length A. operate the lathe at the slowest speed
B. diameter B. use plenty of oil
C. clearance angle C. mount the knurling tool securely in the tool post
D. web thickness D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
1667 If all of the metals listed below are two inches in diameter, which of 1668 For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between
those listed can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed? lathe centers, you should use a ___________________.

A. Cast iron A. faceplate

B. Machine steel B. steady rest
C. Aluminum C. draw-in collet chuck
D. Soft brass D. compound rest
Ans: C Ans: B
1669 After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should 1670 Shim stock thickness is measured by a/an __________________.
___________.
A. remove inside burrs with a reamer A. shim gage
B. rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file B. feeler gage
C. flare the tube before removing the burrs C. outside micrometer
D. crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting D. inside micrometer
Ans: A Ans: C
1671 The best method of determining the number of threads per inch of 1672 The temper is likely to be drawn out of a chisel edge when you
a bolt or screw would be through the use of a __________. _____________.

A. thread tool gage A. hold it next to a wet grinding wheel

B. machinist's scale B. soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods
C. screw pitch gage C. grind the cutting angle too small
D. screw thread micrometer D. grind it for long periods of time with too much pressure
Ans: C Ans: D
1673 To get an accurate inside measurement of the diameter of a 1/2 1674 Solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a
inch hole, you should use a/an ____________. ______________.
A. depth micrometer A. fusing point much higher than that of the metals being joined
B. inside micrometer B. melting point lower than that of the metals being joined
C. small hole gauge C. coating of Borax flux to raise the melting point
D. inside spring caliper D. composition of lead and tin if the solder is the "hard" type
Ans: C Ans: B
1675 The proper use of a flat chisel is for cutting ____________. 1676 Soldering flux aids the soldering process by _____________.
A. inside corners A. softening the metals
B. slots or keyways B. fusing the metals
C. half-round grooves C. removing oxides
D. flat stock D. hardening the metals
Ans: D Ans: C
1677 The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the 1678 In an oxygen acetylene welding outfit, the torch tip orifice size
____________. ____________.
A. round nose chisel A. depends on the hose length
B. flat cold chisel B. determines the amount of acetylene and oxygen fed to the flames

C. diamond point chisel C. can be varied by rotating the tip

D. cape chisel D. depends on the regulator flow rate
Ans: D Ans: B
1679 When welding or burning with a oxygen-acetylene, the acetylene 1680 A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to
working pressure must not exceed ____________. prevent the _____________.

A. 0.1bar A. heat of friction

B. 0.3bar B. blade from overheating
 Page 90

C. 1bar C. blade from bending

D. 1.6bar D. cut from clogging
Ans: C Ans: B
1681 A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at 1682 If you have to completely grind a new point on a high speed drill,
right angles to each other, and is called a ____________. which of the following could happen if it is cooled in cold water
immediately after grinding?
A. seam weld A. The edges will be dulled.
B. plug weld B. The 59° angle will be lost due to metal contraction.
C. tack weld C. Cracks may appear in the metal.
D. fillet weld D. The cutting surface will become annealed by the cold water.
Ans: D Ans: C
1683 Which of the following procedures is used to bring a hole to finished 1684 Which of the devices listed can be used to measure any angle on a
size with high accuracy? blueprint or drawing?
A. Coring A. Vernier
B. Boring B. Protractor
C. Broaching C. Planimeter
D. Reaming D. Compass
Ans: D Ans: B
1685 When welding mild steel with a shielded metal-arc electrode, and 1686 Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole
getting only shallow penetration, you should __________. center should be ______________.

A. use a lower current A. marked with chalk

B. speed up your electrode travel B. prick punched
C. use larger electrodes C. scribed
D. increase the amperage D. blued
Ans: D Ans: B
1687 Which of the factors listed governs the intensity of heat required for 1688 Which of the following statements is correct concerning welding
any given welding job? sequences?
A. The strength of the bond only. A. First, weld the joints that will tend to contract the most.
B. The strength of the bond and the welding process being used. B. First, weld attachments which will restrain points of maximum
contraction.
C. The type of metal being joined only. C. Make a weld across an unwelded plate joint in adjoining members.

D. The type of metal being joined and the welding process being used. D. Each successive welded part should be restrained to lock in
stresses and avoid cracking.
Ans: D Ans: A
1689 A taper tap is correctly used for _________. 1690 A screwdriver should never be used as a ________.
A. starting threads in a hole A. pry bar
B. producing tapered threads in a hole B. chisel
C. deepening the extent of existing threads in a hole C. punch
D. finishing the threading operation in a blind hole D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
1691 Ball peen hammers are sized according to their ____________. 1692 A tap marked "1/4-20" will cut a thread _____________.

A. overall length A. 1/4 inch in diameter with a pitch of 20 threads per inch
B. head weight B. 1/2 inch long having a total of 20 threads
C. face diameter C. a total of 20 threads with a pitch of 1/4 inch
D. peen head size D. 1/20 of an inch long and 1/4 inch in diameter
Ans: B Ans: A
1693 The Phillips screwdriver has a blunt end and flukes with an angle of 1694 When using a handheld hacksaw, you should apply pressure only
________. on the forward stroke ____________.
A. 10° A. only when cutting thin wall tubing
B. 45° B. only when cutting carbon steel
C. 30° C. only when cutting conduit
D. 60° D. at all times
Ans: C Ans: D
1695 The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety 1696 For cutting cast iron or soft steel, the proper hacksaw blade should
lathe dog is that the latter _____________. have ________.
A. is more easily centered A. 14 teeth per inch
B. has a headless set screw B. 18 teeth per inch
C. has a spring loaded catch C. 24 teeth per inch
D. allows for misaligned center holes D. 32 teeth per inch
Ans: B Ans: A
1697 Which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges? 1698 Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have ______.

A. Mill A. longer than normal shanks

B. Pillar B. larger than normal shanks
C. Half round C. shorter than normal shanks
D. Knife D. insulated handles
Ans: B Ans: D
1699 The length of a file is always measured exclusive of the 1700 Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision
______________. assembly of small parts?
A. edge A. Ratchet
B. tang B. Jeweler's
C. point C. cabinet-tip
D. heel D. Square-shanked
 Page 91

Ans: B Ans: B
1701 When cutting sheet metal too thin to be held in your hand while 1702 The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where the teeth are
using a hand held hacksaw, the sheet metal should be placed continuously staggered with one to the left and one to the right is
between two ____________. known as ___________.
A. blocks of steel A. alternate
B. blocks of wood B. double alternate
C. pieces of sand paper C. raker
D. pieces of cloth D. wave
Ans: B Ans: A
1703 A fine wire bristled brush used for cleaning files is called a 1704 Which of the following problems will cause a twist drill to cut
______________. improperly?
A. file brush A. Improper lip clearance
B. file card B. Improper cutting angle
C. pulling brush C. Improper clearance angle
D. cleaning card D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
1705 Protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxyacetylene 1706 Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or
welding should always include ____________. declared _____________.
A. goggles A. safe for personnel
B. ear plugs B. safe for hot work
C. non-sparking tools C. not safe for personnel
D. steel toe safety shoes D. not safe for hot work
Ans: A Ans: B
1707 Why is a covering applied to a welding electrode, rather than using 1708 You should never watch the arc generated during electricarc welder
a bare electrode? with the naked eye because _____________.
A. Protect the welder from electric shock. A. serious flash burns will result
B. Prevent arc blow. B. arc blow will burn your face
C. Shield the arc during the welding process to prevent oxidation. C. the fumes are highly toxic

D. Stabilize the electron emission rate and produce uniform D. slag and metal splatter will get in your eyes
temperatures in the heat affected zone.
Ans: C Ans: A
1709 Some of the hazards of working with electric power tools may be 1710 If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the
avoided if the operator insures that _____________. listed actions must be done to begin its removal?
A. they are properly grounded A. Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor.
B. eye shields and gloves are worn B. Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch.
C. loose clothing and jewelry are not worn C. Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud.
D. all of the above D. Use a screw extractor only.
Ans: D Ans: C
1711 To ensure the stock is running true in a lathe, you should use a 1712 When using a wheel dressing tool to true up a grinding wheel, you
____________. should always _____________.
A. center gage A. lubricate the dressing tool
B. gage block B. operate the grinder in neutral
C. dial indicator C. remove the tool rest from the grinder
D. micrometer D. wear goggles to protect your eyes
Ans: C Ans: D
1713 A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding 1714 While reaming a hole, the reamer should not be turned backwards
the contact surfaces together of a valve, is called _____________. if the hole has not been fully reamed because _______________.

A. spotting-in A. the cutting edges may be damaged

B. honing B. turning in the wrong direction will cause chatter
C. lapping-in C. the shank will loosen in the tap wrench
D. refacing D. reverse rotation will make the hole oversize
Ans: C Ans: A
1715 An eroded globe valve disk can be repaired by _____________. 1716 After a piece of pipe is cut, the opening in the end should be
cleaned out with a _____________.
A. taking a light cut in a lathe A. pipe reamer
B. sandblasting with light weight grit B. pipe cleaner
C. dressing the seat with crocus cloth C. taper tool
D. scraping with a bastard file D. hole cleaner
Ans: A Ans: A
1717 After a piece of pipe has been cut, a good shop practice to ream 1718 An acetylene pressure regulator should never be adjusted to
out the burr left in the pipe. This is done to _______________. maintain pressures exceeding 1bar (103.4 kPa) because
____________.
A. make a taper for starting the threading die A. the relief valve will lift
B. make the taper required for pipe threads B. the fusible plug will blowout
C. remove tool marks which could interfere with flow C. rapid depletion of acetylene is hazardous
D. prevent the burr from restricting flow in the pipe D. this gas become extremely unstable under this condition
Ans: D Ans: D
1719 When using a hand die to cut threads on brass stock, the threads 1720 The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw
can be dry cut or may be lubricated with __________. blade is known as the _____________.

A. graphite and oil A. set

B. white lead B. rake
C. lard oil C. pitch
D. kerosene D. thread gauge
 Page 92

Ans: C Ans: C
1721 Some of the hazards associated with air-operated power tools may 1722 All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to
be avoided if the operator would _____________. prevent _____________.
A. inspect the hoses for cracks and other defects A. electric shock if the tool is shorted
B. remove jewelry and loose clothing B. burning out the motor from an overload
C. bleed air pressure from the lines before breaking the connections C. overloading the motor from a short

D. all of the above D. grounding the plastic case through a short

Ans: D Ans: A
1723 A wrench that completely surrounds a nut, or bolt head is a/an 1724 Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip off a bolthead or
____________. nut?
A. adjustable wrench A. Open end wrench
B. open end wrench B. Box end wrench
C. tappet wrench C. Crescent wrench
D. box wrench D. Spanner wrench
Ans: D Ans: B
1725 A lathe dog, fitted with a headless set screw, is known as a 1726 A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for
____________. ______________.
A. clamp lathe dog A. restoring damaged threads
B. standard lathe dog B. enlarging existing threads
C. safety lathe dog C. cutting original threads
D. common lathe dog D. straightening tapered threads
Ans: C Ans: A
1727 Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of 1728 To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece,
its slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt? the stock should be mounted in a _____________.
A. Open end wrench A. collet
B. Box end wrench B. V-block
C. Crescent wrench C. clamp
D. Monkey wrench D. morse sleeve
Ans: B Ans: B
1729 If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should 1730 A hacksaw blade is normally placed in the saw frame with the
_____________. ______________.
A. tap the holes without cutting oil A. maximum possible tension on the blade
B. flood the tap with mineral oil B. teeth pointing away from the handle
C. chamfer the edges of the holes C. blade tooth set adjusted for maximum cutting width
D. start tapping with a plug tap D. teeth angled toward the saw handle
Ans: A Ans: B
1731 To accurately cut the proper size gasket for installation in a pipeline, 1732 When listed by pitch, which of the hacksaw blades listed would be
you should use _____________. the most suitable for cutting thin tubing?
A. tin snips A. 14 teeth per inch
B. a jack knife B. 18 teeth per inch
C. a gasket cutter C. 24 teeth per inch
D. a pair of nail clippers D. 32 teeth per inch
Ans: C Ans: D
1733 Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should always be stored 1734 Protective equipment while carrying out oxyacetylene welding
_____________. should include the use of ____________.
A. upright with the cylinder caps screwed on A. goggles
B. horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on B. cotton gloves
C. upright with the cylinder caps off C. trousers with deep pockets
D. horizontal with the cylinder caps off D. wool jackets
Ans: A Ans: A
1735 When using a portable droplight, you should always insure that the 1736 Cracks may be prevented from developing at the corners of welded
_____________. plating inserts by ____________.
A. bulb is protected by a shield or guard A. squaring the corners
B. extension cord is always yellow and clearly marked "FOR DROP B. rounding the corners
LIGHT USE ONLY"
C. bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts C. plug welding the corners
D. all of the above D. slot welding the corners
Ans: A Ans: B
1737 Safety glasses should be worn when _____________. 1738 Internal pipe threads are cut with _____________.
A. using a hand portable grinder A. dies
B. scraping paint with a hand scraper B. reamers
C. using a hammer and chisel C. taps
D. all of the above D. tap drills
Ans: D Ans: C
1739 Which of the following practices is considered to be safe for the 1740 When machining a long piece of work between centers, you must
handling and use of compressed gas cylinders? ________________.
A. Using oxygen as a substitute for compressed air for pneumatic A. make sure that the lathe dog is securely jammed in the slot of the
tools. face plate
B. Routinely greasing or lubricating the valves on oxygen cylinders. B. correct for expansion of the work by readjusting the tailstock center

C. The storage of the cylinders in a well ventilated compartment. C. make sure that the work is only supported by the headstock center

D. Cracking the valve on a hydrogen cylinder to clear dust and dirt. D. make sure the tailstock is tight against the work

Ans: C Ans: B
 Page 93

1741 If the point angle of a drill is less than 59°, the _______________. 1742 As the drill bit is being fed into a metal work piece, a squeaking
sound from the tip of the bit indicates _____________.

A. hole will be drilled too large A. the bit is too large for the hole
B. hole will take longer to drill B. the bit tip has not been properly ground
C. drill will not center properly C. insufficient force has been applied on the drill bit
D. drill will cut undersized D. a continuous chip is being taken by the drill bit
Ans: B Ans: B
1743 While carrying out electric arc welding, there is alwaysthe danger of 1744 A hazard associated with electric arc welding is _____________.
_____________.
A. developing burns to the retina of the eye A. the effects of radiation from the arc
B. fire B. flying sparks
C. electric shock C. electric shock
D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
1745 What is the distinguishing difference between the Phillips and the 1746 In order to minimize distortion in a weldment due to shrinkage, you
Reed and Prince type screwdrivers? should ____________.
A. The diameter of the shanks. A. use intermittent welds rather than continuous welds wherever
possible
B. The angle of the tip flukes. B. make fewer passes with larger electrodes as opposed to a great
number of passes with small electrodes
C. The overall length of the screwdriver. C. use restraining forces such as clamps, jigs, and fixtures
D. None of the above. D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
1747 Safe welding practice requires _____________. 1748 A hacksaw blade will break if ________.
A. checking the area for items that may catch fire A. the rate of cutting is too great
B. that a fire watch be posted B. the blade becomes loose in the frame
C. checking for explosive gases C. too much pressure is applied to the blade
D. all of the above D. all the above
Ans: D Ans: D
1749 Which statement describes the function of the filler material used in 1750 Sawing faster than a rate of 40 to 50 strokes per minute while using
acetylene cylinders? a hand held hacksaw will generally ____________.

A. It reduces the danger of explosion. A. sharpen the blade

B. It chemically reacts with acetone to produce acetylene. B. cause the blade to cut faster
C. It neutralizes the gas to render it harmless. C. dull the blade
D. It is fire resistant and reduces fire hazards. D. not change how the blade cuts
Ans: A Ans: C
1751 Which term applies to a hacksaw blade having short sections of 1752 Acetylene should never be used at pressures in excess of 1barg(15
teeth bent in opposite directions? psig) because the ____________.
A. Alternate A. acetylene cylinders have a maximum allowable pressure of 15 psig

B. Double alternate B. fusible plug will blow out

C. Rake C. relief valve will lift
D. Wave D. slightest shock could cause an explosion
Ans: D Ans: D
1753 When gas welding or burning, the acetylene working pressure must 1754 The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead
be kept below 15 psi to prevent a possible ___________. smooth refer to the ________.

A. explosion A. distance between the parallel cuts of a file

B. torch backfire B. size of the file
C. torch flameout C. coarseness of file teeth
D. acetone fire D. both A and C are correct
Ans: A Ans: D
1755 Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed to protect small 1756 When arc welding, you can reduce the chance of a dangerous
screws from being over tightened? electric shock by _____________.
A. Magnetic screwdriver A. using insulated electrode holders
B. Torque limiting screwdriver B. wearing dry welding gloves
C. Variable speed screwdriver with a jacobs chuck C. avoiding wet or damp areas while using arc welding equipment

D. Constant rpm screwdriver with a jacobs chuck D. all of the above

Ans: B Ans: D
1757 Which of the files listed will have coarsely spaced teeth? 1758 Which of the files listed is provided with only one safe edge?
A. Second cut A. Mill
B. Dead smooth cut B. Pillar
C. Bastard cut C. Half round
D. Smooth cut D. Bastard
Ans: C Ans: D
1759 For drilling or machining cast iron, which of the cutting lubricants is it 1760 Which of the screwdrivers listed is fastest and most convienent
necessary to use? when tightening many screws?
A. Lard oil A. Square shank
B. Soluble oil B. Offset
C. Kerosene C. Ratchet
D. None of the above D. Standard
Ans: D Ans: C
1761 When using a chisel, you should ___________. 1762 A file coated with oil and stowed away will ________.
 Page 94

A. wear gloves A. cause the file to overheat

B. hold the tool lightly B. cause the file to slide across the work and prevent fast, clean
cutting
C. be certain it is a nonsparking type C. cause dust and metal particles to collect in the teeth
D. wear safety glasses D. both B and C are correct
Ans: D Ans: D
1763 The tool used to remove a ball bearing from the shaft of a motor is 1764 Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against
called a _____________. the work, is called ___________.
A. slugging wrench A. stroke filing
B. gear puller B. cross filing
C. drift pin C. draw filing
D. come along D. standard form filing
Ans: B Ans: B
1765 Rapid wear on the extreme outer corners to the cutting edges of a 1766 All straight shanked twist drills must be mounted or held in a
drill bit is the result of the drill having ______________. _____________.

A. too much cutting speed A. drill socket

B. not enough cutting speed B. tapered sleeve
C. too much clearance angle C. drill chuck
D. not enough margin width D. morse sleeve
Ans: C Ans: C
1767 When drilling holes in metal, which of the materials listed does not 1768 The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth
have to be lubricated? ___________________.
A. Tool steel A. pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine

B. Cast iron B. pointing away from the motor end of the machine
C. Mild steel C. pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away
from the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade
D. Cast steel D. pointing toward the motor end of the machine
Ans: B Ans: D
1769 When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap 1770 Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the
to be run entirely through you can begin and end the tapping of the electrode is the negative pole for the arc, is known as a/an
hole by using a ____________. ____________.
A. taper tap A. straight polarity welding circuit
B. plug tap B. inert-arc welding circuit
C. bottoming tap C. shielded-arc welding circuit
D. finishing tap D. reverse polarity welding circuit
Ans: A Ans: A
1771 Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________. 1772 Which material can be drilled at the highest speed?
A. strip insulation from electric wire or cable A. Aluminum
B. perform work in tight places ordinary pliers cannot B. Medium cast iron
C. cut recessed cotter pins C. Copper
D. tighten electrical wire clamps D. High carbon steel
Ans: B Ans: A
1773 A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when _____________. 1774 A tool used for measuring, or laying out angles is called a
____________.
A. the bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth A. trammel
B. the wrench jaws are at the widest open setting B. protractor
C. a maximum pull is exerted with one hand C. micrometer
D. an extension is placed on the wrench handle D. caliper rule
Ans: A Ans: B
1775 Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a _____________. 1776 When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended
period, you should close the ____________.
A. chain pipe wrench A. hand valves on the torch only
B. monkey wrench B. cylinder valves only
C. basin wrench C. cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of
pressure in the hoses
D. strong back D. cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and
regulators is zero
Ans: A Ans: D
1777 Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves? 1778 To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools
must be used with a small hole gage to get an accurate reading?

A. Diamond point A. A Center gage

B. Flat cold B. Wire gage
C. Round nose C. Micrometer
D. Square nose D. None of the above
Ans: C Ans: C
1779 Which of the following procedures should be used with a chisel 1780 To measure the diameter of a piece of round stock, you should use
having a mushroomed head? a ___________.
A. Remove the ragged edges by grinding. A. dial indicator
B. Do not strike the mushroomed portion. B. wire gauge
C. Use only light hammer blows with the chisel. C. micrometer
D. Knock off the ragged edges with a hammer. D. circular slide rule
Ans: A Ans: C
 Page 95

1781 To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a 1782 Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a
_______________. piece of sheet metal?
A. micrometer A. Gauge calibrator
B. scribing circle B. Wire gauge
C. steel rule C. Inside micrometer
D. calipers D. Circular mil
Ans: C Ans: B
1783 When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a lathe, you 1784 A tailstock "dead center" has been given that name because it
should mount the drill chuck in the ____________. ____________.
A. compound rest A. is dead centered on the tailstock spindle
B. cross feed B. does not revolve
C. tailstock C. must be removed by clamping in the chuck
D. headstock D. fits into the dead center of the workpiece
Ans: C Ans: B
1785 The lathe steady rest is normally used for supporting one end of a 1786 For boring holes in mild steel and general work, the correct included
_____________. angle of a drill point is _____________.
A. short heavy casting held in a three jaw chuck A. 29°
B. long workpiece for facing, drilling, and boring B. 45°
C. short workpiece being machined to an internal taper C. 90°
D. tubular workpiece being parted between centers D. 118°
Ans: B Ans: D
1787 When steel, cast iron, or other metals with surface scale are being 1788 If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe
turned, the first roughing cut should be taken centers begin to squeal, you should first _____________.
___________________.
A. slowly to prevent tool chatter A. lubricate the centers
B. deep enough to get under the scale B. stop the lathe
C. lightly to avoid dulling the tool C. change the cutting bit
D. rapidly in a continuous chip D. run the lathe at a slower speed
Ans: B Ans: B
1789 The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead 1790 If the drill point lips are of unequal length, the drill will wobble and
smooth refer to the ________. ______________.
A. parts of the file A. cut a continuous chip
B. shape of the file B. jam in the hole and break
C. distance between the parallel cuts on the file C. cut an oversized hole
D. size of the file D. overheat rapidly from rubbing
Ans: C Ans: C
1791 Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with the carriage 1792 Which of the screwdrivers listed is produced with a tip to fit screws
locked in position? with a fourway or cross slot?
A. Facing work held in a chuck. A. Standard
B. Turning work held between centers. B. Phillips
C. Threading internal threads. C. Allen
D. Boring an angled hole. D. Torx
Ans: A Ans: B
1793 The most accurate method of setting an inside caliper is to use a/an 1794 The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only after the end
_____________. of the work piece has been ____________.
A. thread micrometer A. counter bored
B. outside micrometer B. tapered
C. engineer's scale C. center drilled
D. dial indicator D. convexed
Ans: B Ans: C
1795 A taper may be turned on a lathe by _____________. 1796 The tang of a file is the part that ___________.
A. setting over the tailstock A. does the cutting
B. using the compound rest B. fits into the handle
C. using the taper attachment C. has crosscut teeth
D. all of the above D. is opposite the handle
Ans: D Ans: B
1797 The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a 1798 A hand hacksaw blade is normally installed in the saw frame with
flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a the teeth pointing away from the saw handle, because
_____________. ____________.
A. gasket cutter A. the blade will always break if installed otherwise
B. spud wrench B. cutting fluid must flow down the teeth
C. scraper C. the blade will overheat if installed otherwise
D. flange spreader D. cutting pressure is most easily put on the forward stroke
Ans: D Ans: D
1799 A metal scribe should only be used to _____________. 1800 Open end wrenches are _____________.
A. remove packing A. nonadjustable solid wrenches
B. mark on metal B. intended for gripping round objects
C. punch gasket holes C. not suitable for tubing fittings
D. clean file teeth D. used with a speeder handle
Ans: B Ans: A
1801 A roughened checkered surface is machined by a lathe on round 1802 Hand taps are provided in sets of three, with each being known as
stock using a ______________. _____________.
A. knurling tool A. taper, plug, and finish
B. checkering tool B. short, medium, and long
C. chamfering tool C. taper, plug, and bottom
D. threading tool D. starting, through, and finishing
 Page 96

Ans: A Ans: C
1803 Double cut files are most effective when used for 1804 Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine
_______________. finish on metal?
A. sharpening tools A. Mill
B. draw filing B. Float
C. finish work C. Warding
D. rough work D. Second cut
Ans: D Ans: A
1805 If the drill point lips are ground at different angles, the drill will 1806 Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied
_____________. only on the __________.
A. overheat rapidly from rubbing A. backward stroke
B. cut an oversized hole B. forward stroke
C. cut a continuous chip C. front of the hacksaw frame
D. jam in the hole and break D. top of the hacksaw frame
Ans: B Ans: B
1807 Which of the following types of files will produce a fine finish when 1808 A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you
draw filing? _____________.
A. Mill cut A. apply maximum pressure at the start of the cut
B. Bastard B. coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut
C. Double cut C. turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame
D. Second cut D. file a nick where the cut is to be started
Ans: A Ans: D
1809 When drilling holes larger than 12.5mm, a smaller pilot hole should 1810 When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should
be drilled first to ___________. _____________.
A. ensure the maximum cut by the large drill A. start the die at a slight angle with the work to create tapered
threads
B. provide a path for the dead center of the drill B. tap the die with a hammer to break up the chips
C. allow the use of a drill with a lesser lip clearance angle C. continue turning until the end of the pipe has gone through the die
and is flush with the die face
D. increase the cutting speed of the drill bit D. never use a lubricant
Ans: B Ans: C
1811 To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should 1812 When using the draw file method, which of the listed types of files
use a blade with what number of teeth per inch? will produce a fine finish?
A. 14 A. A double cut file
B. 18 B. A bastard file
C. 24 C. A single cut file
D. 32 D. A second cut file
Ans: C Ans: C
1813 The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct 1814 The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe
size is ____________. _____________.
A. a pair of tin snips A. cutter
B. a jack knife B. stock and die
C. a gasket cutter C. threader
D. a ball peen hammer D. ratchet cutter
Ans: C Ans: B
1815 If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel workpiece in a lathe and 1816 Increasing the feed pressure on a drill as its point begins to break
see blue chips coming off that workpiece, you should through the bottom of the workpiece will cause the drill to
_______________. ___________.
A. decrease the flow of lubricating oil to the tool A. break cleanly through the bottom of the workpiece
B. reduce the cutting tool height above center B. cut an elongated hole in the bottom of the workpiece
C. reduce the tool feed or depth of cut C. form a tapered hole in the bottom of the workpiece
D. decrease the cross compound speed D. dig into the workpiece and tend to whirl it around
Ans: C Ans: D
1817 To finish tapping a blind hole, it is best to use a _____________. 1818 Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size
will fit inside is termed ____________.
A. taper tap A. belling
B. finishing tap B. stretching
C. bottoming tap C. flaring
D. plug tap D. swaging
Ans: C Ans: D
1819 Which of the following statements represents the difference 1820 When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is
between a four-jaw independent chuck and a three-jaw universal a good practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should
chuck? have a diameter ________________.
A. The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted. A. slightly larger than the web thickness of the larger drill

B. The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
C. The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in
either a concentric or an eccentric position.
D. Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering,
it is always more accurate than the four-jaw independent chuck.
B. equal to at least 1/2 the diameter of the larger drill
C. smaller than the dead center of chisel edge of the larger drill
D. small enough to ensure the maximum cut by the larger drill

Ans: B
1821 Which of the following conditions is true concerning a radiograph
taken on a large welded piping repair?
A. A discontinuity in the form of a crack would appear as a thin light
line against the dark background of the film.
Ans: A
1822 Which of the precautions listed should to be observed when
working with oxy-acetylene welding equipment?
A. Bottles should be labeled air and gas.
 Page 97

B. Porosity, a discontinuity caused by entrapped gas, would occur as B. Keep cylinders away from exposure to cold temperatures.
various sized round dark spots.
C. As long as the plane of a crack is not in direct alignment with the C. Keep oxygen regulators and valves coated with a light film of oil.
direction of radiation, detection is certain.
D. All of the above. D. Keep gas cylinders supported so that they can not tip over.
Ans: B Ans: D
1823 When using a portable droplight, you should always insure that 1824 Which practices should be followed at all times when using an
_____________. electric grinding machine?
A. the bulb is protected by a shield or guard A. Wear goggles or face shield.
B. the extension cord is yellow and clearly marked B. Be certain that the frame is properly grounded.
C. the bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts C. Be properly trained in the use of this tool.
D. all of the above D. Each of the above practices.
Ans: A Ans: D
1825 The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a 1826 Careful handling of compressed gas bottles should include
thread _____________. _____________.
A. chaser A. stowing, to avoid them from crashing into one another
B. die B. keeping them away from flame, high heat, and direct sunlight
C. broach C. keeping the valve protection caps in place
D. tap D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
1827 Hidden edges in objects are represented in blueprints by 1828 The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or checked
___________________. surface on round stock in a lathe is called _____________.

A. a thin solid line A. checkering

B. a thick solid line B. crosshatching
C. dashed lines having alternating long and short dashes C. knurling
D. dashed lines having approximately equal length dashes D. swaging
Ans: D Ans: C
1829 The welding process using an electric arc developed between a flux 1830 To properly use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil hole in a bushing,
covered electrode and the metal being welded is known as you would mount the crotch center in the ________________.
____________.
A. flux cored arc welding A. compound rest
B. resistance spot welding B. headstock
C. shielded metal arc welding C. tailstock
D. submerged arc welding D. chuck
Ans: C Ans: C
1831 Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with afourway or 1832 The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings
cross type slot? is called a _____________.
A. Standard screwdriver A. swaging tool
B. Phillips screwdriver B. stretcher
C. Reed and Prince screwdriver C. flaring tool
D. Both B and C are correct D. spreader
Ans: D Ans: C
1833 When the insulation breaks down within a metal encased, portable, 1834 Edges on objects not visible in the view shown are represented in
electric tool, _____________. blueprints by ___________________.
A. added safety features are built into the receptacle to allow A. a thick solid line
continued use of the tool
B. care should be taken to insert the plug correctly when energizing B. dashed line having alternating long and short dashes
the tool
C. you should stand on a grounded deck plate before energizing the C. dashed lines having approxiamately equal length dashes
tool
D. line voltage may be placed on the tool casing making it dangerous D. Hidden edges are not represented because they are "hidden".
to operate
Ans: D Ans: C
1835 Which of the following listed pressures is the maximum acetylene 1836 The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where two adjoining teeth
gas pressure that can be safely used in gas welding? are staggered to the right, then two to the left, and continue to
alternate in this manner is known as ________.

A. 10 psi A. Alternate
B. 15 psi B. Double alternate
C. 25 psi C. Racker
D. 35 psi D. Wave
Ans: B Ans: B
1837 A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a _____________. 1838 When using a hand held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of
speed for cutting should be ________.
A. center drill A. 10 to 20 strokes per minute
B. finish drill B. 80 to 100 strokes per minute
C. broach C. 40 to 50 strokes per minute
D. reamer D. 70 to 80 strokes per minute
Ans: D Ans: C
1839 Double cut files are used for ________. 1840 Using a file without a handle may result in ________.
A. quick removal of metal A. your work becoming rounded
B. finish work B. injury to your hand
C. rough work C. overheating of the file
D. both A and C D. pinning
Ans: D Ans: B
 Page 98

1841 Which of the files listed will have closely spaced teeth for finishing 1842 When mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, which of the blades
to a smooth surface? listed could cut smoothly through a metal file?
A. Smooth cut A. Wave set
B. Bastard cut B. Hardened
C. Second cut C. Rod
D. Rough cut D. Flexible
Ans: A Ans: C
1843 A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of 1844 Which of the files listed is tapered on three sides and is used to file
________. acute internal angles?
A. monel stock using heavy pressure A. Mill
B. brass stock using heavy pressure B. Round
C. bronze stock using light pressure C. Square
D. stainless steel stock using light pressure D. Triangular
Ans: C Ans: D
1845 Which of the files listed can be used for sharpening a tool? 1846 File lengths are determined by the _____________.
A. A double cut file. A. overall length of the file
B. A single cut file. B. distance between the face and the edge of the file
C. Any bastard cut file. C. distance between the point and the heel of the file
D. Only a double bastard cut file. D. length of the tang only
Ans: B Ans: C
1847 Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication? 1848 If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will _______________.

A. Steel A. cut faster

B. Brass B. cut slower
C. Monel C. rapidly dull
D. Tungsten D. not cut
Ans: B Ans: C
1849 If the cutting edges of a drill are ground at different angles, the 1850 Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to
___________. _____________.
A. drill will not cut A. allow it to be used as a pry bar
B. hole will be oversized B. prevent the shank from bending
C. hole will be undersized C. permit striking with a hammer
D. drill will seize immediately D. allow turning with a wrench
Ans: B Ans: D
1851 When welding, a flux is used to __________. 1852 A pipe or Stillson wrench should only be used on __________.

A. control penetration A. hexagonal objects

B. reduce metal fatigue and warpage B. round objects
C. reduce oxidation C. square objects
D. increase heat transfer D. flat objects
Ans: C Ans: B
1853 A plug tap is correctly used for ___________. 1854 Prussian blue is used to _____________.
A. starting threads in a hole A. check heat exchangers for leaks in the waterside
B. reversing the threads in a hole B. check the fit of a seat and disc of a valve
C. the second cut when threading a blind hole C. check for leaks in a R-12 system if a Halide torch is not available

D. finishing the threads in a blind hole D. trace condensate flow in an impulse steam trap
Ans: C Ans: B
1855 The center head of a combination square set is used to 1856 A drill that wobbles while the drill press is in operation may
______________. ______________.
A. check degrees of angle A. be bent
B. find right angles B. have a severely worn shank
C. locate the center on round stock C. have been placed in the chuck off center
D. check the angle of thread cutting tools D. all the above
Ans: C Ans: D
1857 To ensure a good weld, post heating is required whenever an arc 1858 To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel
weld repair is made _______________. rule, you should measure _____________.
A. with a straight polarity rod A. from the one inch graduation mark
B. with a reverse polarity rod B. from the zero end on the scale
C. to a cast component (casting) C. on the narrow edge of the rule
D. to a part of the ship's main structure D. on the unmarked edge of the rule
Ans: C Ans: A
1859 A welding electrode is marked E-6010, this designation means that 1860 Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to
_________. first hand feed the carriage to ensure _________________.

A. the electrode may be used in the flat position only A. the carriage is lubricated
B. the minimum tensile strength of the weld metal will be 70,000 psi B. the lathe is level

C. either insulated or uninsulated electrode holders may be used C. all locking devices have been released
D. the electrode is to be used for shielded metal arc welding D. the workpiece is secure in the lathe
Ans: D Ans: C
1861 To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it 1862 In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact
to make a bearing shim, you should use a ____________. tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an
____________.
A. feeler gage A. hook spanner
B. micrometer B. dial wrench
 Page 99

C. machinist's rule C. offset box end

D. depth gage D. torque wrench
Ans: B Ans: D
1863 When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the torque is 1864 Which of the following statements concerning braze welding is/are
_____________. correct?
A. read on a scale mounted on the handle of the wrench A. Braze welding is an exceptionally good method of repairing
malleable (special heat-treated) iron.
B. read on a dial mounted on the handle of the wrench B. A braze welded joint should be cooled immediately with cold water
or forced air draft to reduce the intensity of the heat path.

C. indicated by an audible click C. Repairs to working parts or containers used in chemical processes,
especially strong alkaline solutions, are effectively accomplished
with braze welding.
D. indicated by a release or break of the handle D. All of the above.
Ans: A Ans: A
1865 When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, _____________. 1866 Solder is an alloy of _____________.
A. open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG A. tin and lead
B. open the acetylene cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the B. beryllium and antimony
wrench on the valve stem
C. a leaking hose must be repaired by binding with tape C. copper and lead
D. a flashback of flame into the hose is normal D. silicon and selenium
Ans: B Ans: A
1867 Tinning a soldering iron will __________. 1868 Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.
A. prevent the tip from overheating A. decrease the melting point of the solder
B. protect the tip from scratches B. make the solder "flow"
C. add extra weight to the tip C. ensure proper tinning
D. prevent tip oxidation when heated D. clean the joint area
Ans: D Ans: D
1869 When stock is being turned in a lathe the outside diameter is 1870 A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because
reduced by an amount equal to _____________. ____________.
A. the depth of cut A. the chisel cannot be struck squarely
B. one half the depth of cut B. pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyes
C. twice the depth of cut C. the hammer head may be chipped
D. twice the rate of feed D. it must be held firmly by the head to strike it
Ans: C Ans: B
1871 Soft solders have relatively low melting points and consist mainly of 1872 To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a
______________. ___________.
A. silver base alloys A. machinist's steel rule
B. lead base alloys B. flexible steel rule
C. copper base alloys C. hook rule
D. nickel base alloys D. folding rule
Ans: B Ans: B
1873 If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the workpiece 1874 Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal,
tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should the harder the metal, the greater should be the drill's
_____________. ______________.
A. increase the lathe spindle speed A. diameter
B. increase the height of the tool cutting edge B. lip clearance
C. stop the lathe and tighten the chuck C. included point angle
D. stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center D. cutting speed
Ans: B Ans: C
1875 A dial indicator is used to measure ______________. 1876 The drill size is marked on the _____________.
A. shaft eccentricity A. point
B. positive readings only B. shank
C. scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces C. margin
D. torque of a shaft D. flute
Ans: A Ans: B
1877 When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size, you should 1878 A small hole gauge is used in conjunction with a/an
measure across the drill ______________. _________________.
A. margins A. feeler gauge
B. flutes B. micrometer
C. shank C. surface gauge
D. web D. angle gauge
Ans: A Ans: B
1879 A micrometer screw has a pitch of _____________. 1880 Pipe thread taps are _____________.
A. 40 threads per cm A. not hardened
B. 50 threads per metre B. not fluted
C. 75 threads per mm C. tapered
D. 100 threads per mm D. straight
Ans: A Ans: C
1881 Which of the following files will produce the finest surface on a 1882 The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers
workpiece being finished filed in a lathe? is most easily machined by the ___________.
A. A mill file A. taper attachment
B. A double cut file B. compound rest
C. Any bastard cut file C. tailstock setover method
D. All warding files D. headstock setover method
Ans: A Ans: B
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1883 Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing? 1884 The tool used in precision work to smooth or enlarge a slightly
undersized hole, is called a ____________.
A. A double cut file A. round out
B. A single cut file B. round file
C. Any bastard cut file C. reamer
D. Only a double bastard cut file D. hole driller
Ans: B Ans: C
1885 A mill file is used to _____________. 1886 Prussian blue is used for ________________________.
A. produce a very fine finish by draw filing A. grinding in valves
B. produce a coarse finish by push filing B. spotting in valves
C. file lead C. lapping valves
D. file plastic D. refacing valves
Ans: A Ans: B
1887 A file handle is fitted to the file's ____________. 1888 The best hacksaw blade to use for cutting brass is the
_____________.
A. tang A. flexible blade
B. point B. all-hard blade
C. taper C. all-soft blade
D. heel D. hollow core blade
Ans: A Ans: B
1889 When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper 1890 Two separate workpieces are to have a taper cut with the same
method of stopping the progress of the drill boring through the work taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece
is by __________. is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a
change in the _______________.
A. moving the working table A. length of the workpiece
B. using a depth stop B. diameter of the workpiece
C. adjusting the spindle return spring C. angle of the cutting tool
D. gaging chuck motion D. none of the above
Ans: B Ans: A
1891 With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, 1892 The designation E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding
hard-facing, and the welding of nonferrous alloys, such as monel, electrode. Which of the listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies
the best flame to use is termed a/an ________________. the welding position for which the electrode is recommended?

A. oxidizing flame A. E
B. neutral flame B. 70
C. nitriding fusion C. 2
D. carburizing flame D. A1
Ans: D Ans: C
1893 In an oxyacetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and 1894 A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut
two pressure gages. One pressure gage indicates cylinder machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If
pressure and the other gage is used to indicate the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the
___________________________. headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.

A. tip pressure A. away from you to correct alignment

B. upstream pressure B. toward you to correct alignment
C. hose pressure C. closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset
D. arc pressure D. away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment
Ans: C Ans: A
1895 An offset screwdriver is best used for _____________. 1896 Oiling a file as a rust preventative will cause ___________.
A. tightening Allen head screws only A. overheating
B. tightening or loosening "offset type" machine screws B. pinning
C. driving self-tapping screws only C. fast cutting
D. screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver D. binding
Ans: D Ans: B
1897 A grinding wheel is trued with a _____________. 1898 The edge of a file not having any teeth is known as a _____.
A. lathe tool A. smooth edge
B. dressing tool B. safe edge
C. garnet stone C. flat edge
D. round file D. dead edge
Ans: B Ans: B
1899 One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill 1900 Pressure-relief devices on gas welding cylinders are located in
press is to _____________. ___________.
A. move the drive belt to a smaller diameter motor pulley A. the cylinder valve
B. move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley B. the shoulder of the cylinder
C. change the terminal connections of the drive motor C. the bottom of the cylinder
D. change to a larger diameter spindle D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
1901 An aligning punch is used to ___________. 1902 Pipe threads are cut with a taper to ____________.
A. line up corresponding holes in adjacent parts A. prevent overtightening the joint
B. completely loosen a jammed bolt B. provide a leakproof fit
C. mark centers and lines in layout work C. permit easy joint disassembly
D. make a starting mark for a drill D. produce a fine even thread
Ans: A Ans: B
1903 Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to
become _______________.
A. tapered
 Page 101

B. smooth
C. rough
D. rounded
Ans: D
REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
1904 Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to 1905 The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator is known
_____________. as the _____________.
A. frequently grounding out A. latent heat of vaporization
B. frequently starting and stopping B. sensible heat
C. running too fast C. refrigerating effect
D. running too slow D. specific heat of vaporization
Ans: B Ans: C
1906 When liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration system 1907 Which of the refrigerants listed is considered safe and ideal for
through the suction line, the condition is called _____________. most marine applications?

A. flooding back A. R-21

B. superheating B. Ammonia
C. overflowing C. R-12
D. recycling D. Sulfur dioxide
Ans: A Ans: C
1908 The heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a 1909 The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration unit will not start
refrigeration plant is the _____________. while undergoing repairs, is to ____________.
A. latent heat of expansion A. secure and tag the electrical circuit
B. sensible heat of condensation B. place a crow bar in the flywheel of the unit
C. heat of compression C. inform all persons in the area not to start the unit
D. all of the above D. make a log book entry
Ans: C Ans: A
1910 In a refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the latent heat of 1911 Personnel working with refrigeration systems, and subject to the
vaporization in the _____________. exposure of refgerants should wear ________________.
A. compressor A. face shield
B. condenser B. a respirator
C. receiver C. rubber gloves
D. evaporator D. an all purpose gas mask
Ans: D Ans: A
1912 The heat required to change a substance from a solid to a liquid 1913 The only means of removing the latent heat of condensation from a
while at its freezing temperature, is known as the latent heat of refrigerant in the normal refrigeration cycle is by _________.
_____________.
A. fusion A. passing it through the expansion valve
B. vaporization B. condensing refrigerant in the system condenser
C. condensation C. passing the gaseous refrigerant through the heat interchanger on
the suction side of the compressor
D. sublimation D. maintaining a high pressure on the system's receiver
Ans: A Ans: B
1914 The amount of moisture in a given sample of air, when compared 1915 When it is necessary to open a refrigeration system for repairs and
with the amount of moisture the air could hold if totally saturated at the system will be open for more than a few minutes, the open
the existing temperature of the sample, is called ____________. ends of the system should be ____________.

A. absolute humidity A. dehydrated

B. specific humidity B. purged
C. effective humidity C. plugged
D. relative humidity D. evacuated
Ans: D Ans: C
1916 People familiar with ammonia refrigeration systems become 1917 When subjected to high heat from a open flame, or an electric
accustomed to its odor and may forget that the vapors heating element, which of the listed refrigerants will break down and
_____________. produce phosgene gas?
A. in a low concentration can cause death A. CO2
B. will dissolve in perspiration and cause caustic burns B. Methyl chloride
C. will burn or explode C. R-22
D. all of the above D. Sulphur dioxide
Ans: D Ans: C
1918 A refrigeration system contaminated with moisture can be affected 1919 Some chloronated flourocarbon refrigerants may decompose into a
by _____________. toxic irritating gas if it is ____________.
A. acid formation A. stored at temperatures below 60 degrees Fahrenheit
B. sludge formation B. charged into a system having copper fittings
C. ice in the expansion valve C. allowed to mix with compressor oil
D. all of the above D. exposed to an open flame or hot surface
Ans: D Ans: D
1920 In a direct expansion type cargo refrigeration system, a box is 1921 If the suction line between the evaporator and compressor is
normally changed from chill to freeze by adjusting the frosting up, the cause may be due to the thermal expansion valve
_____________. _____________.
A. hand expansion valve A. thermal bulb coming loose from the suction line
B. compressor suction valve B. needle valve is stuck closed
C. solenoid bypass C. thermal bulb is in a cold air stream
D. back pressure regulating valve D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: A
 Page 102

1922 Which of the listed reasons could cause frost to form on the suction 1923 If a refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the trouble
line of a refrigeration compressor? could be caused by _____________.
A. Shortage of refrigerant in the system. A. excessive superheat
B. Expansion valve is stuck open. B. a minor amount of air in the system
C. Liquid line service valve is closed. C. normal oil circulation with the refrigerant
D. Condenser cooling water temperature is too high. D. the expansion valve being stuck in the open position
Ans: B Ans: D
1924 If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the cause 1925 Crankcase sweating in a refrigeration system is caused by
may be due to _____________. _____________.
A. a shortage of refrigerant A. a stuck solenoid valve
B. the compressor running continuously B. a shortage of refrigerant
C. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor C. too much oil in circulation
D. the compressor short cycling on the high pressure cutout D. too much superheat
Ans: C Ans: C
1926 Liquid line gas may cause erosion of the expansion valve's internal 1927 If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating, you
components and could cause the valve to ________. should _____________.
A. overheat A. add refrigerant to the system
B. hunt B. adjust the thermal expansion valve to the proper setting
C. freeze shut C. adjust the float valve to the proper holding pressure
D. freeze open D. open the hand expansion valve
Ans: B Ans: B
1928 The compressor in the ship service refrigeration system is short 1929 If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure
cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. The probable reason for cutout switch, the probable cause for this might be the
this is the ____________. ____________.
A. discharge valves are leaking excessively A. system was overcharged with refrigerant
B. discharge valves are leaking slightly B. high pressure switch was improperly adjusted
C. condenser is getting insufficient cooling water flow C. expansion valve strainers were fouled
D. system is low on refrigerant D. suction valves were leaking slightly
Ans: C Ans: C
1930 The refrigeration system compressor is short cycling on high head 1931 When handling contaminated oil from a hermetically sealed
pressure when the sea water cooling temperature is 22°C. In this refrigeration compressor unit that has burned out its motor, you
situation, you should ____________. should _____________.
A. check for sufficient cooling water flow through the condenser A. store the oil in a clean refrigerant drum

B. purge noncondensable gases from the receiver B. use rubber gloves

C. reset the thermostatic expansion valve C. circulate the oil through a filter drier
D. completely purge the high pressure side of the system D. remove the oil with a portable charging cylinder
Ans: A Ans: B
1932 When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST 1933 The accumulation of air and other noncondensable gases in a
thing that should be checked for is a ____________. refrigeration system will ____________.
A. loose expansion valve control bulb A. cause a loss of the liquid seal
B. low differential setting on the H.P. cutout B. create a vapor lock in the liquid receiver
C. blown fuse in the motor circuit C. collect in the condenser
D. faulty suction pressure regulator D. cause foaming of the oil in the crankcase
Ans: C Ans: C
1934 If a large difference exists between the compressor discharge 1935 While troubleshooting a refrigeration system for low head pressure,
pressure and the pressure corresponding to the existing liquid refrigerant flooding back from the evaporator is determined
condensing temperature in a refrigeration system, you should to be the cause. It may be necessary to ___________.
____________.
A. increase the flow of the cooling water through the condenser A. change the expansion valve adjustment

B. adjust the high pressure cutout to maintain the desired pressure B. readjust the water regulating valve to increase the flow of water

C. open the hot gas bypass temporarily to reduce capacity C. purge air from the condenser
D. purge noncondensable gases to reduce the excess pressure D. clean the waterside of the condenser

Ans: D Ans: A
1936 Air entering an air-cooled refrigeration system is indicated by 1937 Refrigerant is normally subcooled in a refrigeration or air
____________. conditioning system condenser to _____________.
A. frosting of the liquid line A. maintain adequate coil back pressure
B. higher than normal head pressure B. prohibit flashing in the liquid line
C. a clear sight glass C. reduce refrigerant volume in the system
D. abnormally cold reefer boxes D. reduce compressor discharge line loading
Ans: B Ans: B
1938 Subcooling is a method of reducing the temperature of the liquid 1939 Flash gas formed in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may
refrigerant below its _____________. cause ____________.
A. freezing point A. pressure at expansion valve inlet to increase
B. floc point B. expansion valve pins and seats to erode
C. condensing temperature C. expansion valve capacity to increase
D. compression temperature D. pressure difference across the expansion valve to increase
Ans: C Ans: B
1940 The component of a refrigerating system in which the refrigerant 1941 In a refrigeration system, the heat normally producing the flash gas
vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as the _____________. at the thermostatic expansion valve, is obtained from
_____________.
A. condenser A. the hot gas bypass connection at the threeway valve
B. vapor generator B. the portion of liquid refrigerant which does not flash
 Page 103

C. accumulator C. exposure to the high ambient temperature within the coil

D. evaporator D. exposure to the high ambient temperature of the cooled space

Ans: D Ans: B
1942 Which of the listed statements is correct concerning refrigeration 1943 The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe
systems? the _____________.
A. Dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system. A. release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant in the crankcase

B. A 25 ton refrigeration system has the same cooling effect as B. release of miscible refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase
melting 25 tons of ice in 24 hours.
C. A thermostatic expansion valve is used to control refrigerated C. sudden evaporation of entrapped air from the refrigerant liquid
space temperature.
D. The liquid receiver functions to collect and remove D. sudden evaporation of entrapped moisture from the crankcase
noncondensable gases. lubricant
Ans: B Ans: B
1944 The refrigerant leaves the evaporator of a refrigeration system as a 1945 Which of the listed refrigeration system components keeps the
low pressure _____________. refrigerant circulating through the system?
A. subcooled liquid A. Expansion valve
B. high temperature liquid B. Condenser
C. oil saturated liquid C. Evaporator
D. superheated vapor D. Compressor
Ans: D Ans: D
1946 When refrigerant leaves the receiver, it flows next on to the 1947 Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration
_____________. compressor at start up can cause _____________.
A. evaporator coils A. compressor damage from improper lubrication
B. liquid strainer B. refrigerant absorption by the lubricant
C. compressor C. increased viscosity in the lubricant
D. condenser D. carbon deposit on the compressor suction valves
Ans: B Ans: A
1948 If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, 1949 If a refrigeration compressor is running continuously without
has a solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, this could lowering the temperature in the refrigerated space, the trouble may
cause __________. be _____________.
A. low suction pressure A. a shortage of compressor oil
B. high superheat in the outlet coil B. warm food in the refrigerator
C. noisy compressor operation upon starting C. excessive condenser cooling water
D. refrigerant slugs in the receiver D. a shortage of refrigerant
Ans: C Ans: D
1950 The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit 1951 "Flooding back" is a condition where the liquid refrigerant
mass of a substance 1° is known as __________. _____________.
A. latent heat A. vaporizes in the condenser
B. sensible heat B. reaches the compressor through the suction line
C. specific heat C. flashes in the liquid line
D. variable heat D. condenses in the receiver
Ans: C Ans: B
1952 Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated 1953 Badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge valves will cause
by _____________. _____________.
A. higher than normal suction pressure A. overfeeding of the expansion valve
B. lower than normal suction pressure B. damage to the condenser
C. lower than normal evaporator temperature C. constant running of the compressor
D. noticeable increase in compressor noise D. flooding of the receiver
Ans: A Ans: C
1954 If the suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor is below 1955 If a refrigeration compressor had a higher than normal suction
normal, the cause can be _____________. pressure, the problem could be a result of ________.
A. refrigerant overcharge A. a minor accumulation of air or noncondensable gases in the system

B. overfeeding by the expansion valve B. a constant loss of refrigerant

C. a restricted suction strainer C. leaking compressor suction valves
D. due to short cycling of the compressor D. a slightly higher than normal liquid level in the receiver
Ans: C Ans: C
1956 Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an excessive 1957 If the refrigeration compressor was developing higher than normal
amount of refrigerant circulating through the system? discharge pressure, this could be a result of _____________.

A. Sweating of the compressor crankcase A. air or noncondensable gases in the system

B. Colder than normal solenoid valve B. leaking discharge valves
C. Frosting of the evaporator C. leaking suction valves
D. Weeping of the purge valve D. liquid refrigerant flooding back from the cooling coil
Ans: A Ans: A
1958 When the refrigeration system compressor suction pressure 1959 If the water failure switch should fail to shut down the refrigeration
corresponds to an elevation in coil temperature, a low pressure compressor, the refrigerant pressure will build up in the high
cutout switch is set to automatically start the compressor. The pressure side of the system to the point where the
normal stopping point of the compressor is set by adjusting the _____________.
____
A. cut-in point of the low pressure cutout switch A. compressor discharge valves would be damaged
B. low pressure cutout switch differential B. condenser tubes would rupture
C. cutout point of the high pressure cutout switch C. system relief valve would open
D. high pressure cutout switch differential D. high pressure cutout switch would function
 Page 104

Ans: B Ans: D
1960 The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor 1961 The dew point is reached when the wet bulb temperature is
is a result of _____________. ____________.
A. low pressure in the condenser A. equal to the dry bulb temperature
B. the existing load on the evaporator producing a thermodynamic B. twice the dry bulb temperature
head exceeding the normal maximum of the compressor

C. low pressure in the condenser at low load C. 38.8°C less than the dry bulb temperature
D. high pressure in the evaporator at high load D. 10°C above the dry bulb temperature
Ans: B Ans: A
1962 If the superheat value of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too 1963 The function of a heat interchanger used in a refrigeration system is
low, the ________. to _____________.
A. the suction line will be abnormally cold and liquid may slug back to A. lower the temperature of liquid refrigerant before entering the
the compressor expansion valve
B. the suction line will be hot due to a reduced amount of refrigerant B. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant from flooding back to the
returning to the compressor compressor
C. the temperature of the refrigerant within the condenser will remain C. minimize sweating of the suction line
the same
D. the temperature of the refrigerant passing through the subcooler D. All of the above.
will decrease
Ans: A Ans: D
1964 Rather than design an infinite variety of valve sizes for use as 1965 If a liquid drying agent is used in a refrigeration system already
thermostatic expansion valves, some manufacturers use equipped with a solid drying agent, the liquid drying agent will
_____________. _____________.
A. an adjusting cap to meet the various size differences A. release the moisture already trapped in the solid drying agent
B. a flexible diaphragm B. react violently with the solid drying agent
C. internal restrictors of different sizes C. cause toxic gases to from in the refrigerated space
D. a feeler bulb with an adjustable pressure line D. solidify the refrigerant oil in the compressor crankcase
Ans: C Ans: A
1966 What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic 1967 Overcharging an air-cooled refrigeration system will cause the
expansion valve? ____________.
A. The thermal bulb may be recharged. A. relief valve to lift
B. The rate action may be increased. B. compressor to run continuously
C. The proportional action may be varied. C. system to automatically change over to the hot gas defrost cycle

D. The inlet screen may be cleaned. D. compressor to short cycle

Ans: D Ans: D
1968 Which statement about calibrating a newly installed thermostatic 1969 The presence of gas in the liquid line is undesirable and can be
expansion valve is correct? eliminated by _____________.
A. The procedure requires a refrigeration wrench and a digital A. increasing the distance between the evaporator and condenser
thermometer to measure box temperature.
B. No special tools are required as long as the solid state circuit B. using a larger expansion valve
control panels are functioning properly.
C. This procedure is done at the factory with tools not available to a C. subcooling the liquid
mariner.
D. An accurate thermometer and suction pressure gage are essential D. installing the evaporator at a higher level than the condenser
to this process.
Ans: D Ans: C
1970 Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator outlet of a 1971 As the electric current flow to a modulating suction valve increases,
refrigeration coil by a _______________. the _________.
A. solenoid valve A. compressive forces against the spring will increase
B. low pressure cutout switch B. suction pressure of the compressor will rise
C. king valve C. evaporator coil pressure will decrease
D. thermal expansion valve D. amount of superheat formed will increase
Ans: D Ans: A
1972 If the temperature of the ammonia gas in the discharge piping and 1973 Which piping material is recommended to be used in extra heavy
the condenser of a refrigeration system remains above 130°C, the duty sizes in ammonia refrigeration system construction?
_________.
A. refrigeration effect increases A. Steel
B. unit will begin to subcool B. Monel
C. vapor will cease to condense C. Bronze
D. process of sublimation will begin D. Copper
Ans: C Ans: A
1974 At ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure, R-12 is a/an 1975 Ammonia is lighter than air and if a leak should occur its
_____________. concentration will be _____.
A. corrosive liquid A. lower near the top of an enclosed space
B. flammable gas B. dependent upon available free hydrogen ions
C. odorless gas C. of minimum importance during venting procedures
D. superheated liquid D. lower near the deck of an enclosed space
Ans: C Ans: D
1976 If your skin comes in contact with liquid ammonia refrigerant, you 1977 A lower thermostatic temperature setting will provide a desired
should immediately _________. degree of comfort in a room where _____________.
A. contact physicians health care A. low relative humidity is maintained
B. apply an antibacterial ointment B. triple banded squirrel cage fans are used
C. flush the affected area with water C. air circulation is a maximum
D. remove all necessary clothing D. high relative humidity is maintained
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Ans: C Ans: D
1978 The pressure in a high pressure refrigeration system about to be 1979 Which of the following refrigerants will normally require water cooled
opened for repair should be _____________. compressor components?
A. 1 to 2 bar g A. R-134
B. 4 to 7 bar g B. Ammonia
C. 11 to 12 bar g C. R-22
D. 0 bar g D. All of the above are correct.
Ans: D Ans: B
1980 The flame of a sulphur candle in the presence of an ammonia leak 1981 Under normal conditions ammonia refrigerants should be added at
will turn ________. the ___________.
A. pink A. high side of the system
B. white B. suction service connection
C. yellow C. discharge service connection
D. blue D. expansion valve sideport connection
Ans: B Ans: A
1982 To service a 60 ton air conditioning package, the easiest way to 1983 Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration system
determine the type of refrigerant used is to_________. should be in which of the following conditions?
A. use your service gage set and refrigeration card A. Sub-cooled liquid
B. look at the unit name plate B. Sub-cooled vapor
C. ask the Chief Engineer C. Superheated vapor
D. look on the top of the TXV D. Liquid
Ans: B Ans: C
1984 Inhalation of high concentrations of CFCs may have which of the 1985 Refrigerant leaving the metering device in a refrigeraton system is a
following effects? _________.
A. drowsiness A. sub-cooled liquid
B. loss of concentration B. sub-cooled vapor
C. cardiac arrhythmia's C. saturated liquid/vapor mixture
D. all of the above D. saturated liquid
Ans: D Ans: C
1986 The four most commonly used refrigerants listed in order, from the 1987 Large quantities of halogenated floro-carbons when released from
most damaging to the least damaging to the ozone layer refrigeration systems, will contribute to ozone depletion in the
are________. _________.
A. R-11, R-12, R-502 and R-22 A. bathosphere
B. R-22, R-12, R-11 and R-502 B. ionosphere
C. R-502, R-12, R-22 and R-11 C. stratosphere
D. R-11, R-12, R-22 and R-502 D. troposphere
Ans: A Ans: C
1988 Which of the following is not part of the high side of a refrigeration 1989 Which of the listed chemicals will eventually reach the stratosphere
system? and react unfavorably with ozone?
A. condenser A. fluorine
B. receiver B. chlorine
C. accumulator C. halogen
D. liquid line D. carbon
Ans: C Ans: B
1990 Which can be considered as a drop-in replacement refrigerant? 1991 Pressure in the control tubing of a thermostatic expansion valve
depends directly upon the _____________.
A. R-500 A. temperature in the box
B. R-123 B. superheat in the tail coil
C. R-134a C. compressor suction pressure
D. none of the above D. heat transferred from the saturated liquid in the evaporator
Ans: D Ans: B
1992 To protect a recovery or recycling machine when removing 1993 In preparing to remove the air from a refrigeration condenser for a
refrigerant from a burned out system, a filter drier should be large multibox water cooled system, all of the refrigerant in the
installed in ________. system should be ____________.
A. the system liquid line A. at a superheated temperature
B. the machine inlet B. pumped to the receiver
C. the system suction line C. pumped to the evaporator
D. the container inlet D. at a saturated temperature
Ans: B Ans: B
1994 HCFC-22 has been recovered from a refrigeration system during 1995 The process of removing refrigerant from a system and storing it
replacement of the condenser. The refrigerant can be _____. without testing or processing is known as ___________.

A. recycled into a system that had used HCFC-11 A. reclaiming

B. reclaimed as a low pressure system refrigerant B. recouping
C. returned to the system C. recycling
D. must be destroyed, as it can no longer be used D. recovering
Ans: C Ans: D
1996 Which of the following represents a low-pressure refrigerant as 1997 When using nitrogen to pressure leak test a system, the nitrogen
defined by EPA regulation? tank should always have a __________.
A. R-12 A. cut off valve
B. R-22 B. blue top
C. R-502 C. level indicator
D. R-123 D. regulator
Ans: D Ans: D
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1998 In addition to the recovery of refrigerant, recovery machines not 1999 As the amount of moisture in the air increases, the difference
necessarily able to pull a vacuum can also evacuate a system of between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures will
__________. ____________.
A. non-condensable gases A. increase
B. oil B. decrease
C. moisture C. remain unchanged
D. acids D. be greatest at dew point
Ans: A Ans: B
2000 Which of the refrigerants listed is considered to be clorine free? 2001 Solenoid valves used in refrigeration systems may be classified as
______________.
A. R-12 A. normally open, de-energized
B. R-221 B. normally closed, energized
C. R-142 C. normally open or normally closed
D. R-152a D. normally energized or normally de-energized
Ans: D Ans: C
2002 Small appliances with less than 1.5kgs of refrigerant should be 2003 The expansion valve used in a refrigeration system regulates the
__________. _____________.
A. liquid charged A. superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
B. vapor charged B. back pressure in the evaporator
C. either vapor or liquid charged C. temperature in the refrigerated space
D. initially liquid charged and then topped with a vapor charge D. degree of superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator
Ans: B Ans: D
2004 The carbon ring of a refrigeration compressor crankshaft 2005 The oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refrigeration
mechanical seal is held in position against the stationary ring by compressor appears to be brownish in color. This is indicative of
using a/an _______________. ______________.
A. spring A. carbonization caused by air in the system
B. elliptical retaining assembly B. bearing wear or piston scoring
C. belleville spring C. head gasket breakdown
D. thrust washer D. copper plating caused by moisture in the system
Ans: A Ans: D
2006 Why should the refrigerant stored in a recovery cylinder be allowed 2007 Which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the
to equalize with room temperature? others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor?
A. to prevent the rupture disk from blowing A. R-12
B. this is a way to check refrigerant level in the cylinder B. R-11
C. this is the only way to read refrigerant pressure accurately C. Ammonia
D. the recovery cylinder could explode if the temperature rose too D. Carbon dioxide
quickly
Ans: C Ans: B
2008 Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil 2009 Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening
foaming occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor? any part of a refrigeration system?
A. If the oil level is not initially high, this condition is the result of A. Make certain that a positive pressure exists in the system to prevent
agitation created by the movement of the mechanical components. entrance of moisture.

B. This condition is the result of the sudden low pressure created in B. Find the leaks in the system with a Halide torch.
the crankcase at start up causing the release of refrigerant
accumulated within the oil.
C. This will occur only if crankcase heaters are used. C. Use the hot gas defrost line to remove frost on coils.
D. This phenomenon is inherent only in hermetically sealed units and D. Set the high pressure cutout on manual to prevent automatic
is always provisional. starting.
Ans: B Ans: A
2010 In refrigeration systems, which type of contamination will the 2011 A quick method used to test a water cooled condenser for
reclamation process be unable to separate? refrigerant leaks is to test the _____________.
A. mixed refrigerants A. cooling water for proper pH
B. acid B. receiver for water content
C. moisture C. air vents on the condenser heads with a halide torch
D. air D. condenser tubes hydrostatically
Ans: A Ans: C
2012 In a vapor compression refrigeration system with a freeze, dairy, 2013 A properly adjusted thermostatic expansion valve will have a
and thaw box, a solenoid valve should be installed ___________. constant valve opening under a condition of constant
_____________.
A. immediately before each expansion valve A. supply pressure
B. on the inlet side of the receiver B. suction pressure
C. in the liquid line bypassing the expansion valve C. refrigerant superheat
D. in the vapor line bypassing the oil separator D. compressor speed
Ans: A Ans: C
2014 Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or 2015 An economizer, or heat interchanger, is installed in a refrigeration
sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of _____. system to _____________.
A. high surrounding relative humidity A. reduce the possibility of sweating of the suction line
B. a refrigerant line restriction B. reduce the temperature of liquid refrigerant prior to entering the
expansion valve
C. water in the system C. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant flooding back to the
compressor
D. proper cooling taking place D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
2016 Before charging a refrigeration unit, the refrigerant charging lines 2017 The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by
should be _____________. __________.
 Page 107

A. flushed with clean refrigerant oil A. saturation pressure

B. purged with the refrigerant B. volume
C. washed with an ammonia and alcohol solution C. weight
D. grounded to the compressor D. saturation temperture
Ans: B Ans: C
2018 Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory 2019 Water regulating valves are installed to vary the water flow through
method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an the water cooled refrigeration condensers in response to
air conditioning system? ____________.
A. Cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point. A. compressor speed
B. Heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then B. compressor discharge temperature
recooling it.
C. Cooling the air to a point below dew point, then reheating it. C. compressor discharge pressure
D. Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point. D. condenser discharge temperature
Ans: C Ans: C
2020 In a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system, the liquid 2021 Immediately before the actual charging process is started,
refrigerant passes through the condenser directly to the refrigerant oil charging lines should be loosely connected and
_____________. _____________.
A. evaporator A. flushed with clean refrigerant oil
B. chiller B. purged with refrigerant gas
C. economizer C. washed with an ammonia and alcohol solution
D. expansion valve D. grounded to the compressor
Ans: C Ans: A
2022 The primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve in a 2023 Which of the fluids listed is normally used to condense the primary
typical multi-box shipboard refrigeration system is to refrigerant in a shipboard central air conditioning system?
_____________.
A. control the refrigerated space temperature A. Air or Nitrogen.
B. regulate the compressor suction pressure B. Seawater or Fresh water.
C. regulate the amount of refrigerant superheat leaving the evaporator C. Sodium Nitrate brine.

D. control the refrigerant temperature entering the evaporator D. Calcium Sulfate brine.
Ans: C Ans: B
2024 The amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder is measured by 2025 The device which normally stops the refrigeration compressor
_____________. before the relief valve starts to open is the _____________.

A. pressure A. low pressure cutout switch

B. volume B. back pressure cutout switch
C. weight C. high pressure cutout switch
D. temperature D. relief valve bypass
Ans: C Ans: C
2026 The lubrication oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration 2027 Vapor seals used in the insulation on refrigerated spaces serve to
compressor is heated to _____________. _____________.
A. reduce absorption of refrigerant by the oil A. prevent Freon vapor from saturating the insulation
B. prevent refrigerant vaporization B. hold water vapor on the cold side of the insulation
C. remove entrained water C. reduce the possibility of moisture laden warm air entering the
insulation
D. remove wax and gum D. reduce the possibility of moisture laden cold air from entering the
insulation
Ans: A Ans: C
2028 A typical shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system 2029 Which of the following methods is normally used to control the
operates with one compressor and condenser. What is the purpose temperature of air distributed from individual cooling coils in an air
of the sensing line connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator conditioning system using a chilled water circulation system?
coil outlet?
A. To open or close the solenoid valve when the box temperature A. A room thermostat activates an electric heater at each individual
increases or decreases. chilled air outlet when necessary.
B. To open the back-pressure regulating valve when evaporator coil B. Varying the number of passes the air makes across the coils.
pressure increases.
C. To direct evaporator outlet pressure to the lower part of the C. Varying the temperature of the water through the coils.
solenoid bellows.
D. To transmit the pressure (proportional to the coil superheat) to the D. Varying the quantity of water flowing through the coils.
thermal expansion valve.
Ans: D Ans: D
2030 For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning 2031 In order to achieve greater dehumidification, you wouldadjust the air
system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions conditioning system by __________. I. reducing the chill water flow
should remain constant regardless of load changes? through the cooling coil II. increasing the preheater temperature

A. Chilled water system supply temperature. A. I only

B. Chilled water system return temperature. B. II only
C. Compressor discharge temperature. C. Both I and II
D. Compressor suction pressure. D. Neither I nor II
Ans: A Ans: D
2032 In a large refrigeration system having more than one evaporator, a 2033 A partially fouled liquid line strainer in therefrigeration system will
king solenoid valve should be installed and located ____________. cause ___________. I. a loss of refrigeration effect II. the strainer
outlet piping to be cooler than the inlet
A. just after the receiver A. I only
B. before the condenser B. II only
C. between the condenser and receiver C. Both I and II
 Page 108

D. before the back pressure regulating valve D. Neither I nor II

Ans: A Ans: C
2034 When a refrigeration compressor is in the "off" cycle, the thermal 2035 The discharge valves used in a refrigeration compressor are
expansion valve will_________. leaking badly and _____________.
A. always be wide open when the compressor restarts A. the reeds should be reground
B. continue to operate as if the system were in operation B. the reeds should be replaced
C. remain open until evaporator pressure equalizes, then close until C. should continue to operate at minimum efficiency
the compressor restarts
D. always be completely closed until the compressor restarts D. the high pressure cut-out should be readjusted to operate efficiently

Ans: B Ans: B
2036 The output capacity of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor may 2037 The purpose of the water failure switch in a refrigeration system is to
be controlled manually by _____________. react to a loss of cooling water by __________.
A. controlling the compressor speed A. stopping the compressor
B. throttling the compressor suction B. bypassing refrigerant to the receiver
C. reducing condenser water flow C. closing the high pressure cutout switch
D. all of the above methods D. opening the high pressure cutout switch
Ans: D Ans: A
2038 Which of the listed components for a refrigeration system is 2039 The dehydrating agent normally used in a refrigeration system is
required for a two box system, but not for a one box system? ______________.

A. Hand expansion valve A. slaked lime

B. Automatic expansion valve B. sodium chloride
C. High pressure cutout switch C. activated alumina
D. Liquid line solenoid valve D. calcium chloride
Ans: D Ans: C
2040 If atmospheric pressure decreases while the air temperature 2041 Which of the fluids listed is suitable for use as a secondary
remains constant, the air will ______________. refrigerant?
A. give up moisture as condensation A. Methyl alcohol
B. have greater capacity to absorb moisture B. Brine
C. become supersaturated at high relative humidity C. Carbon dioxide
D. absorb less free atmospheric moisture D. Cuprous chloride
Ans: B Ans: B
2042 Which of the listed materials can be used as a desiccant in a 2043 Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be
refrigeration system? accomplished by _____________.
A. Silica gel A. varying the speed of the compressor
B. Activated alumina B. varying the suction pressure
C. Anhydrous calcium sulfate C. varying condenser water flow rate
D. All of the above D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
2044 To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, 2045 When multiple refrigeration evaporators are served by the same
you should introduce the refrigerant through the _____________. compressor and operate at different temperatures, the pressure in
the coldest evaporator is ___________.
A. discharge service valve as a vapor A. higher than the pressure in warmest evaporator
B. suction service valve as a liquid B. the same as any evaporator in the system
C. charging valve as a liquid C. lower than the pressure in the warmest evaporator
D. condenser purge valve as a vapor D. controlled by adjusting the thermal expansion valve
Ans: C Ans: C
2046 When adding oil to a refrigeration system, you must be certain that 2047 The pressure in a low pressure refrigeration system about to be
_____________. opened for repair should be _____________.
A. all air is removed from the pump and fittings A. 10 to 12 psig
B. the suction strainer is not blocked B. 4 to 7 psig
C. the discharge pressure is not too high C. 0 to 1 psig
D. the condenser is secured D. 25 inches of hg vacuum
Ans: A Ans: D
2048 The back pressure regulating valve used in a refrigeration system 2049 After a refrigeration plant has been open for repairs, it is advisable
serves to _____________. to purge air from the system by _____________.
A. maintain a constant pressure in the suction line heat exchanger A. slightly opening the purge valve on the condenser

B. limit the minimum pressure in the evaporator B. cracking the valve bonnet assembly on the thermostatic expansion
valve
C. limit the maximum pressure in the suction line heat exchanger C. turning over the compressor flywheel with the suction line valve
open
D. maintain a minimum discharge head on the compressor D. loosening the purge connection attached to the receiver head
Ans: B Ans: A
2050 A purge connection installed on the refrigerant side of a water 2051 The charging of a refrigerating system should be carried out by
cooled condenser is used to _____________. adding _____________.
A. free tubes of accumulated scale A. refrigerant vapor to the receiver only
B. charge the system with refrigerant B. liquid refrigerant to the low side only
C. remove noncondensable gases C. liquid refrigerant to the high side only
D. ensure positive air circulation D. liquid refrigerant to the high or low side
Ans: C Ans: C
2052 When the temperature in a refrigerated space rises above its 2053 Unless designed for such operation, two compressors should not
normal set point, which of the listed actions should occur FIRST? be operated in parallel in a refrigeration system because the
____________.
 Page 109

A. The thermal expansion valve will close. A. operation of two compressors will overload the expansion valve

B. The compressor will start. B. condenser pressure will be too high causing condenser failure

C. The solenoid valve will open. C. lubricating oil may be transferred from one compressor to the other

D. The automatic defrost timer will activate. D. evaporator would fail due to low suction pressure
Ans: C Ans: C
2054 The thermal bulbs for expansion valves used in air conditioning 2055 A purge recovery system is used in a centrifugal air conditioning or
systems are charged with _____________. refrigeration system to _____________.
A. fluids other than the system charge A. purge lube oil from the liquid refrigerant
B. the same refrigerant as the system B. recover water purged from the system
C. a mixed charge of fluids C. separate foul gases from the receiver
D. mercuric sulfate D. purge noncondensable gases without losing refrigerant
Ans: B Ans: D
2056 In addition to pressure, most refrigerant compound gages are also 2057 Which of the listed conditions would cause the thermal expansion
calibrated in _____________. valve to open?
A. saturated gas temperature A. Rise in the gas temperature within the cooling coils
B. superheated gas temperature B. Compressor cutting out
C. absolute temperature C. Compressor cutting in
D. absolute pressure D. A drop in the temperature of the cooling coils
Ans: A Ans: A
2058 In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of 2059 The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration
refrigerant to each refrigerated space is accomplished by system is to prevent dirt and scale from entering the
_____________. ____________.
A. the king expansion valve A. solenoid and expansion valves
B. individual coil expansion valves B. compressor and receiver
C. a solenoid valve in the liquid line C. condenser and liquid line
D. individual back pressure regulating valves on all but the coldest box D. evaporator coil piping

Ans: B Ans: A
2060 Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a 2061 Air conditioning duct-work begins at the large mixing chamber
refrigeration compressor pulley may cause ____________. called the _____________.
A. overheated bearings A. exhaust chamber
B. unnecessary motor loading B. plenum chamber
C. noisy operation C. intake chamber
D. all of the above D. vapor chamber
Ans: D Ans: B
2062 If the people in an air conditioned room complain of being too cool, 2063 The dew point of air is reached when the wet bulb temperature is
the trouble might be that the _____________. _____________.
A. preheater has failed to cutout A. twice the dry bulb temperature
B. air velocity is too low B. 5°C above the dry bulb temperature
C. relative humidity is high C. 3°C above the dry bulb temperature
D. relative humidity is too low D. equal to the dry bulb temperature
Ans: D Ans: D
2064 In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the maximum 2065 If air at 35°C dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity is
amount of moisture it can hold at a specific temperature, it is said conditioned to 24°C dry bulb temperature and 50% relative
to be _____________. humidity, it is an example of _____________.
A. superheated A. cooling only
B. saturated B. cooling and humidifying
C. condensed C. cooling and dehumidifying
D. convected D. adiabatic cooling
Ans: B Ans: C
2066 When the relief valve opens it discharges high pressure refrigerant 2067 Dichlorodifluoromethane when vaporized in the presence of an
vapor to the _____________. open flame, will form ____________.
A. liquid strainer A. carbon dioxide gas
B. refrigerant inlet of the condenser B. phosgene gas
C. inlet side of the evaporator C. trichlorodifluoromethane
D. suction side of the compressor D. sulphur dioxide
Ans: D Ans: B
2068 A pressure drop in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may 2069 Moisture is removed from a refrigeration system by
cause _____________. _____________.
A. the solenoid valve to seize A. bleeding refrigerant from the condenser
B. the compressor to hunt B. opening a drain petcock on the oil separator
C. flash gas to form in the liquid line C. condensing the water in the heat exchanger
D. the expansion valve to freeze open D. using a dehydrator cartridge
Ans: C Ans: D
2070 In an operating refrigeration system low on refrigerant, a liquid line 2071 Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system will most likely
sight glass will _____________. _____________.
A. be clear A. boil in the condenser
B. be blue B. be removed by the liquid line strainers
C. be light green C. cause sweating and frost on the evaporator coils
D. show bubbles D. freeze in the expansion valve
Ans: D Ans: D
 Page 110

2072 Some refrigeration systems have chemical moisture indicators 2073 In a refrigeration system, where multiple evaporators are operating
installed in conjunction with the sight glass in the liquid line. If at different temperatures, and serviced by a single compressor and
excess moisture is present in the system, the indicator will condenser, the control of individual coil temperatures should be
_____________. carried out by adjustment of the ____________.

A. activate the driers A. thermostatic expansion valve

B. change color B. back pressure regulating valve
C. secure the compressor C. king valve
D. add a predetermined amount of liquid drier D. box temperature solenoid valve
Ans: B Ans: B
2074 A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not 2075 A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is examined
a refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. It is generally located and gas bubbles are noted in motion with the fluid flow. This means
in the ____________. _____________.
A. high pressure liquid line A. the system is fully charged
B. low pressure liquid line B. there is air leaking in from the condenser
C. high pressure vapor line C. ice crystals are forming in the refrigerant
D. low pressure vapor line D. the system contains less than a full charge of refrigerant
Ans: A Ans: D
2076 Frost appearing on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct 2077 In a water-cooled refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water
expansion refrigeration system _____________. regulating valve is controlled by ___________.
A. is best removed by means of an ice pick A. temperature of the cooling water
B. will increase the refrigeration effect B. refrigerant pressure
C. can be removed by passing hot vapors through the coils C. amount of refrigerant in the system
D. can be quickly removed by simply shutting down the coils D. temperature of the refrigerant after compression
Ans: C Ans: B
2078 When a refrigerated space reaches the desired temperature in a 2079 A totally white or yellow colored flame produced by a Halide torch
multi-box refrigeration system, which of the listed actions will occur being used to test for refrigerant leaks indicates _________.
FIRST?
A. The solenoid valve will close. A. no R-12 leakage
B. The expansion valve will open. B. a partially clogged torch exploring tube
C. The low pressure cutout switch will stop the compressor. C. a defective torch reaction plate
D. The high pressure cutout switch will stop the compressor. D. a minute quantity of R-12 leakage
Ans: A Ans: B
2080 All refrigerant recovered from small appliances must be 2081 When air contains some moisture, but is not saturated, the dew
__________. point temperature is _____________.
A. sent to a designated reclaim facility for processing A. between the wet and dry bulb temperatures
B. contained in a refillable recovery cylinder B. equal to the total heat of air
C. destroyed as unusable C. higher than the wet bulb temperature
D. used to clean out burn-outs D. lower than the dry bulb temperature
Ans: B Ans: D
2082 When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low 2083 The thermal bulb of an expansion valve that is attached to the
pressure cutout switch, you should _____________. evaporator tail coil should be _____________.
A. stop the compressor A. installed on the bottom of the suction line
B. secure the condenser B. installed between the suction strainer and compressor
C. close the "king" valve C. insulated before setting the superheat adjusting screw
D. stop the circulating pump D. insulated after installation
Ans: C Ans: D
2084 Purging is the process used to _____________. 2085 In a direct expansion evaporator, the coils are ___________.
A. eliminate moisture from the refrigeration system A. covered with insulation
B. separate refrigerant from oil B. half covered with insulation
C. remove noncondensable gases from the refrigeration system C. surrounded by air
D. decrease the total amount of refrigerant in the system D. surrounded by water
Ans: C Ans: C
2086 Which of the devices listed is used to limit frosting of evaporator 2087 In addition to removing water from a refrigerant, most dehydrators
coils on multiple box installations served by one compressor? also effectively remove entrapped _____________.

A. Back pressure control valve A. acid

B. Automatic expansion valve B. air
C. Capillary tube C. dichlorodifluoromethane
D. Solenoid valve D. desiccant
Ans: A Ans: A
2088 When you find a small refrigerant leak with a halide torch, the color 2089 The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system opens
of the torch flame will be _____________. when the pressure _____________.
A. orange A. decreases in the evaporator
B. blue B. decreases in the expansion valve control bulb
C. white C. increases above the expansion valve diaphragm
D. green D. increases in the solenoid valve
Ans: D Ans: C
2090 When a refrigerated compartment of a multi-box system served by 2091 During the initial pull down of the box temperatures in a refrigeration
one compressor reaches the correct temperature, the temperature system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive
control in that one compartment is achieved by a/an gas pressure at the compressor suction?
_____________.
A. expansion valve A. Suction pressure hold back valve
B. back pressure regulating valve B. High pressure cutout
C. solenoid valve C. Solenoid valve
D. low pressure cutout switch D. Low pressure cutout
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Ans: C Ans: A
2092 The device used to limit the passage of moisture through a 2093 In an atmosphere of 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb
refrigeration system is the _____________. thermometer would register a temperature _____________.
A. humidifier A. above the dry bulb temperature
B. aerator B. below the dry bulb temperature
C. dehydrator C. the same as the dry bulb temperature
D. trap D. above the dry bulb temperature, but below the saturation
temperature
Ans: C Ans: C
2094 When a refrigeration system is being charged through the low side, 2095 Copper piping has been used in refrigeration systems because
the _____________. _____________.
A. refrigerant should be added as a vapor A. it is creep resistant at low temperatures
B. suction service valve must be back seated B. it offers less internal friction
C. discharge service valve must be front seated C. iron is corroded by R-12
D. refrigerant drum should be turned upside down D. leaks are more easily detected in copper
Ans: A Ans: B
2096 Loss of refrigerant during the purging process can be kept to a 2097 In a refrigeration system, if the cooling water to thecondenser fails,
minimum by ____________. the __________.
A. operating the dehydrator continuously A. box temperature solenoid valve will close
B. purging through the discharge service valve B. expansion valve will close
C. cracking the purge valve briefly C. compressor will shutdown
D. closing the liquid line king valve D. king valve will open
Ans: C Ans: C
2098 In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the 2099 Which of the listed types of refrigeration compressors can be
greatest temperature drop across the __________. designed with short large diameter suction lines?
A. evaporator A. Reciprocating
B. capillary tube B. Rotary
C. compressor C. Screw
D. receiver D. Centrifugal
Ans: B Ans: D
2100 Which of the methods listed is most frequently used to control 2101 The safest and quickest method of adding refrigerant to a
evaporator refrigerant flow rate in a shipboard refrigeration refrigeration system is to add the refrigerant through the
system? _____________.
A. Direct expansion with constant superheat A. discharge service valve as a vapor
B. Indirect expansion with constant superheat B. suction service valves as a liquid
C. Low side float control C. charging valve as a liquid
D. High side float control D. condenser relief valve as a vapor
Ans: A Ans: C
2102 The primary purpose of a thermostatic controlled solenoid valve 2103 The purpose of running a refrigeration compressor motor in short
used in a multi-box refrigeration system is to _____________. intermittent spurts when starting the system after a prolonged
shutdown is to _____________.
control the refrigerated compartment temperature
A. A. allow refrigerant vapor cycling time
bypass refrigerant flow to the evaporator
B. B. insure proper operation of the compressor
maintain the proper refrigerant superheat
C. C. let the refrigerated compartment cool gradually
stop the compressor when the evaporator reaches the proper
D. D. determine actual compressor oil level
temperature
Ans: A Ans: B
2104 In a refrigeration system, the thermal expansion valve sensing bulb 2105 Prior to making repairs on an evaporator located in a large, multi-
is located _____________. box refrigeration system, you should remove the refrigerant by
_____________.
A. near the evaporator coil outlet A. pumping it from the system to a clean empty drum
B. near the evaporator coil inlet B. draining the system through the purge valve connection
C. on the liquid line strainer C. pumping all refrigerant to the receiver
D. at the solenoid valve outlet D. exhausting it to the atmosphere
Ans: A Ans: C
2106 An evaporator pressure regulating valve (back pressure regulator) 2107 When the solenoid valves in a refrigeration system have closed,
is installed in the evaporator coils of some refrigeration systems to the compressor will be stopped by the _____________.
_____________.
A. prevent compressor overload A. low water cutout
B. maintain a minimum evaporator pressure B. low pressure cutout
C. control liquid refrigerant pressure C. high pressure cutout
D. regulate refrigerant outlet superheat D. spring-loaded relief valve
Ans: B Ans: B
2108 If the air temperature increases while atmospheric pressure 2109 Refrigeration isolation valves are of the double seated type in order
remains constant, the air will _____________. to ______________.
A. have a greater capacity to absorb moisture A. allow for operation as a suction or discharge valve
B. absorb less free atmospheric moisture B. permit repacking under pressure
C. become supersaturated at high relative humidity C. conserve space
D. give up moisture as condensation D. allow for removal or replacement without shutting down
Ans: A Ans: B
2110 In order to achieve greater dehumidification with an airconditioning 2111 Subcooling of the refrigerant to reduce the percent offlash gas is
system, you should _________. I. reduce the cooling coil accomplished ___________. I. as the refrigerant passes through
temperature II. increase the reheater temperature the expansion valve II. in most water cooled condensers

A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
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C. Both I and II C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II
Ans: C Ans: B
2112 The effective temperature of air is dependent upon _______. I. 2113 One of the primary steps in assisting someone who has been
relative humidity II. air velocity overcome by ammonia vapors is to _____________.
A. I only A. loosen all clothing
B. II only B. provide the victim with smelling salts
C. Both I and II C. rinse the affected area with water
D. Neither I nor II D. give the patient plenty of fresh air
Ans: C Ans: D
2114 Which recovery phase will reduce the loss of oil during the recovery 2115 To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from a refrigeration
of refrigerants from small appliances such as a water cooler? system in an enclosed area, you should ____________.

A. vapor recovery A. apply liquid ammonia to the suspected leak

B. liquid recovery B. apply a soap solution to the area of the suspected leak
C. inital recovery C. a halide leak detector to all piping joints
D. vapor-liquid recovery D. apply a hydrostatic test with water
Ans: A Ans: B
2116 One benefit of proper air circulation in a refrigerated cargo space is 2117 The high pressure cutout switch will stop the refrigeration centrifugal
_____________. compressor when there is _____________.
A. more temperature differential A. a stoppage of condenser cooling water flow
B. increased moisture content B. fouled condenser tubes
C. reduced slime and mold C. excessive air in the system
D. increased density of the air D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
2118 Dehydrators are usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration 2119 A liquid line solenoid valve controls refrigerant flow to the
systems in order to _____________. evaporator by _____________.
A. remove oil from the refrigerant A. throttling the refrigerant
B. prevent icing of the expansion valve B. fully opening or closing
C. reduce compressor discharge line sweating C. sensing the superheat in the tail coil
D. prevent liquid slugging in the suction line D. sensing the temperature in the liquid line
Ans: B Ans: B
2120 Low side passive charging of a refrigeration system may be 2121 The individual box temperatures of a multibox refrigerationsystem
speeded up by _____________. are controlled by _____________.
A. warming the service cylinder with a torch A. expansion valves
B. warming the service cylinder with hot water B. solenoid valves
C. inverting the service cylinder C. back-pressure valves
D. inclining the service cylinder D. regulation of the cooling water
Ans: B Ans: B
2122 The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a 2123 Charging liquid CFC-11 into a system under a heavy vacuum could
refrigerated box senses _____________. cause __________.
A. evaporator coil inlet temperature A. the purge unit to operate
B. evaporator coil outlet temperature B. system secondary refrigerant to freeze
C. compressor discharge temperature C. air and moisture to enter the reciever
D. the refrigerated box temperature D. rupture disk to rupture
Ans: D Ans: B
2124 Which materials should be used for ammonia refrigeration system 2125 When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, the most
evaporator cooling coil construction? accurate reading is obtained ____________.
A. Copper tubing with copper fins A. immediately after purging
B. Copper tubing with aluminum fins B. immediately after charging
C. Aluminum tubing with copper fins C. after being secured for 3 hours with the sump heater secured

D. All of the above may be used. D. immediately after shutdown following a prolonged period of
operation
Ans: C Ans: D
2126 The temperature in a refrigerated space is controlled by adjusting 2127 Standard driers used in many container type refrigeration systems
the thermostat connected to the _____________. may contain ________________.
A. suction line solenoid A. activated charcoal or silica gel
B. thermostatic expansion valve B. special chemicals to increase adsorbtion rates
C. liquid line box solenoid C. activated alumina or silica gel
D. low pressure cutout switch D. all of the above may be used
Ans: C Ans: C
2128 The water regulating valve installed in a refrigeration system is 2129 The maximum level of moisture permitted in an operating
operated by the _______________. refrigeration system is ______________.
A. compressor discharge temperature A. 5 parts per million
B. compressor discharge pressure B. 8 parts per million
C. solenoid C. 10 parts per million
D. sensing line from the tail coil D. 15 parts per million
Ans: B Ans: D
2130 When used as a refrigerant, ammonia containing moisture will act 2131 The thermal expansion valve reacts directly to the
as a corrosive mixture to __________. _____________.
A. steel components A. temperature in the space being cooled
B. brass and bronze metals B. liquid refrigerant pressure at the solenoid valve
C. stainless steel components C. pressure drop across the evaporator coils
D. All of the above are correct. D. refrigerant gas superheat at the coil outlet
Ans: B Ans: D
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2132 In an operating, water-cooled, multi-box refrigeration system, both 2133 When hot gas defrosting a refrigeration system, one way to
low discharge and high suction pressures are being simultaneously overcome the possibility of a large slug of liquid refrigerant entering
experienced. The probable cause for this condition is a/an the compressor suction is to use the installed _____________.
____________.
A. overcharge of refrigerant in the system A. subcooler
B. fouled shell-and-tube condenser B. liquid extractors
C. improper superheat adjustment on the low side C. re-evaporator
D. discharge relief valve leaking back to the suction side D. drain lines
Ans: D Ans: C
2134 Refrigerant recovery equipment that is considered as being system 2135 The suction pressure switch controlling the refrigeration compressor
dependent __________. operation is actuated by _____________.
A. must have its own power source A. pressure acting on a bellows
B. recovers refrigerant with the aid of components in the system B. temperature acting on a bellows

C. are portable units C. temperature acting on a thermal element

D. can only recover liquid refrigerant
Ans: B
2136 If you find the pressure of a R-12 refrigeration system to be worked
on is 0 bar g, ___________.
A. only recover the vapor refrigerant
B. only recover the liquid refrigerant
C. recover liquid and vapor refrigerant and have it reclaimed
D. do not recover the refrigerant
Ans: D
2138 The low pressure cutout switch will cause the compressor in a
refrigeration system to short cycle if the ________.
A. expansion valve thermal bulb loses its charge
B. differential pressure between the cut-in pressure and cutout
pressure is too small
C. expansion valve freezes in the closed position
D. refrigerant has too much oil in circulation
D. pressure acting on compressor suction valves
Ans: A
2137 When taking readings at the suction service valve of an operating
refrigeration compressor __________.
A. the pressure, or temperature reading is only required, as the
refrigerant is saturated
B. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant
is probably subcooled
C. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant
is superheated
D. is unimportant as accurate readings at this location can not be
obtained
Ans: C
2139 If the electric coil to a refrigeration system modulation valve
develops an open, the valve will _______________.
A. move to the open position due to the flow of refrigerant across the
valve orifice
B. move to the open position due to the spring pressure acting upon
the armature
C. tend to move to a centered position, thereby maintaining box
temperature
D. remain in whatever position it was in prior to developing the open

Ans: B Ans: B
2140 The liquid line, thermostatically controlled, solenoid valve is 2141 Most refrigerants are originated primarily from which of the following
operated in response to the ____________. base molecules?
A. superheat in the tail coil A. ammonia and carbon dioxide
B. temperature of the box B. ammonia and ethane
C. compressor suction pressure C. methane and sulfur dioxide
D. compressor discharge pressure D. ethane and methane
Ans: B Ans: D
2142 Refrigerant recovery cylinders are color coded__________. 2143 One function of the thermal expansion valve is to _________.
A. gray top and yellow lower body A. act as a pilot from the solenoid valve
B. gray top and light blue lower body B. regulate the amount of refrigerant flow to the coil
C. light blue top and yellow lower body C. regulate the water flow
D. yellow top and gray body D. turn the compressor off and on
Ans: D Ans: B
2144 All refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances must be 2145 Which of the following refrigerants is an interim retrofit replacement
__________. for R-11?
A. sent to a designated reclaimation facility for processing A. R-500
B. contained in a refillable cylinder B. R-134a
C. destroyed although it can be reused C. R-12
D. used to clean out burn-outs D. R-123
Ans: A Ans: D
2146 When a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a container 2147 If passive recovery is used on a refrigeration unit with a non-
refrigeration system, the sensing bulb may not require insulation if operating compressor, the recovery should be made
the bulb is installed _______________. through____________.
A. outside of the cooled air stream A. high side only
B. in the cooled air stream B. low side only
C. on the tail end of the condenser outlet pipe C. high and low side
D. at the mid-horizontal level of a vertically run tail coil D. venting to atmosphere, cannot be recovered
Ans: A Ans: C
2148 Which of the following instruments can be used to measure the rate 2149 When current to a refrigeration system modulating valve is
of air flow? increased, the _________.
A. Thermometer A. valve is moving to a more open position
B. Anemometer B. temperature of the box is increasing
C. Psychrometer C. suction pressure of the compressor will decrease
D. Areometer D. amount of air flowing through the condenser is decreased
Ans: B Ans: C
2150 Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable 2151 Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable and
replacement for R-11? limited ozone producing alternative for R-11?
 Page 114

A. R-22 A. R-22
B. R-123 B. R-123
C. R-134a C. R-134a
D. R-227 D. R-227
Ans: B Ans: B
2152 Moisture is removed from CFC-12 using a recycler by 2153 Of the four refrigerants CFC-11, CFC-12, HFC-134a, and HCFC-
__________. 22; HCFC-22 operates at the __________.
A. bleeding noncondensables off A. lowest system pressure with the lowest boiling point
B. opening a drain petcock on the oil separator B. highest system pressure with the lowest boiling point
C. condensing the water in the condenser C. lowest system pressure with the highest boiling point
D. using a dehydrator cartridge D. highest system pressure with the highest boiling point
Ans: D Ans: B
2154 When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration 2155 The watch engineer finds the cargo refrigeration compressor has
compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent _________. blown the shaft seal. In this situation, he should __________.

A. any lubricant from contacting the carbon surface that would cause A. secure the compressor at once and close the suction and
the expulsion of the saturated teflon film discharge valves
B. dirt and foreign particles from coming in contact with the highly B. pump the system down and isolate the leak
polished sealing surfaces
C. the teflon film from being damaged by the corrosive effects of C. close the suction valve, secure the compressor, and then replace
excessive handling the shaft seal
D. shaft scoring due to improper use of the installation tools provided D. tighten the shaft seal packing to reduce leakage, slow the
with the seal kits compressor, and operate the expansion valves by hand until repairs
can be made
Ans: B Ans: A
2156 Routine maintenance on a Central Control Room hermetically 2157 HCFC-123 presents health threats to service technicians, which
sealed air conditioning unit should include _____________. may include its ___________.
A. changing the air filter A. flammability as a liquid
B. recharging the system B. freezing in the compressor
C. changing compressor lubricant C. toxic threat
D. renewing container vacuum D. being caustic and strong offensive odor
Ans: A Ans: C
2158 The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a 2159 In an air conditioning system, low head pressure associated with a
chiller with more than 2.5 kgs of refrigerant, to meet EPA reciprocating compressor can be the result of __________.
requirements is to use a __________.
A. liquid pump A. broken valve springs
B. vapor recovery machine B. tight drive belts
C. liquid followed by vapor recovery C. high line voltage
D. vapor followed by liquid recovery D. air in the system
Ans: C Ans: A
2160 An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an 2161 If a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too high a
incompletely cooled evaporator and ______________. superheat value _________________.
A. a higher than normal discharge pressure A. all of the system liquid will flow to the evaporator coil
B. frosting at the evaporator inlet B. an insufficient amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator
C. a decrease in the amount of frosting across the drier C. an excessive amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator
D. frosting at the suction side of the compressor D. only the required amount of refrigerant will enter the evaporator
regardless of the required superheat value
Ans: B Ans: B
2162 If an expansion valve is adjusted for too low a superheat value 2163 Any air mixture whose dew point remains constant will also have an
_________. unchanging _____________.
A. the efficiency of the unit will be increased A. dry bulb temperature
B. too much liquid will be passed back to the evaporator B. wet bulb temperature
C. the box temperature will increase causing an expansion of the C. specific humidity
volume of air
D. the refrigeration effect will increase contributing to uncontrolled box D. specific volume
temperatures
Ans: B Ans: C
2164 A reheater in an air conditioning system functions to 2165 A water regulating valve controls the refrigeration condenser
_____________. cooling water flow in response to condenser _____________.

A. control inlet air temperature A. cooling water outlet temperature

B. control inlet air volume B. liquid refrigerant outlet temperature
C. maintain relative humidity at 15% C. liquid refrigerant outlet pressure
D. restore conditioned air temperature to a comfortable level D. refrigerant vapor inlet pressure
Ans: D Ans: D
2166 In a refrigeration plant, one purpose of the receiver is to 2167 Oil separators installed in refrigeration systems serve to
____________. _____________.
A. cool the refrigerant gas A. remove excess oil from the system
B. superheat the refrigerant liquid B. remove oil entrained in high pressure liquid lines
C. store the refrigerant C. return oil entrained in refrigerant vapor back to the compressor
crankcase
D. condense the refrigerant D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: C
2168 Properties of a good refrigeration oil include ____________. 2169 The receiver used in a refrigeration system _____________.
A. low wax content A. stores liquid refrigerant
B. high pour point B. collects noncondensable gases
 Page 115

C. high viscosity C. allows refrigerant subcooling

D. all of the above D. prevents compressor surging
Ans: A Ans: A
2170 The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to 2171 The sensing line for the low pressure cutout switch to a refrigeration
_____________. system is located _____________.
A. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor A. in the chill box
B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor B. before the receiver
C. start and stop the compressor at preset operating pressures C. on the suction side of the compressor
D. operate at minimum efficiency D. on the discharge side of the compressor
Ans: C Ans: C
2172 The purpose of the refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch 2173 The temperature of the refrigerant in the evaporator coil depends
is to _____________. mostly upon the _____________.
A. protect the compressor from liquid flood back A. refrigerant pressure in the evaporator
B. protect the compressor from low discharge pressure B. cooling water temperature to the condenser
C. start and stop the compressor upon system demand C. heat load in the refrigerator compartment
D. start the compressor after a drop in the evaporator pressure D. solenoid valve in the liquid line
Ans: C Ans: A
2174 One cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration 2175 The oil separator (trap) used in a shipboard refrigeration system is
system can be _____________. located between the ____________.
A. insufficient cooling water flow to the condenser A. compressor discharge valve and the condenser
B. a low refrigerant charge in the system B. condenser and the receiver
C. the liquid valve is open too much C. receiver and the king valve
D. high evaporator superheat D. receiver and the expansion valve
Ans: A Ans: A
2176 An oil separator is a device used to remove oil from the 2177 Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be
_____________. caused by _____________.
A. liquid refrigerant A. insufficient condenser cooling water
B. receiver B. excessive condenser cooling water
C. gaseous refrigerant C. air in the refrigeration system
D. expansion valve D. excessive refrigerant in the system
Ans: C Ans: B
2178 If the head pressure of a reciprocating refrigeration compressor is 2179 A low refrigeration compressor discharge pressure can be caused
excessive, ____________. by _____________.
A. the relief valve should open before the high pressure cutout A. warm food in the refrigerator
B. the relief valve should open and allow the excess refrigerant to B. wasted zinc plates in the condenser
flow to the receiver
C. the high pressure cutout switch should operate before the relief C. leaky compressor discharge valves
valve opens
D. you should close in on the suction valve D. faulty door gaskets on the refrigerator
Ans: C Ans: C
2180 High suction pressure to a refrigeration system compressor is 2181 If a refrigeration compressor had developed a high suction
caused by _____________. pressure, the problem could be a result of ________.
A. the expansion valve is insufficiently opened A. a minor accumulation of air or noncondensable gases in the system

B. the expansion valve being open too wide B. a leaking king valve
C. the king valve is insufficiently open C. a clogged subcooler
D. a dirty dehydrator D. liquid refrigerant flooding back from the cooling coil
Ans: B Ans: D
2182 When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head 2183 Which of the following problems could cause the high pressure
pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge, you should cutout switch to shut down the compressor in a refrigeration
______________. system?
A. increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser A. A shortage of liquid refrigerant.
B. decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser B. Excessive frost on the evaporator.
C. add more refrigerant to the system C. Excessive condenser cooling water.
D. remove some refrigerant from the system D. Insufficient condenser cooling water flow.
Ans: D Ans: D
2184 Which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low 2185 An excessive charge of refrigerant in an air-cooled refrigeration
refrigerant pressure at the compressor suction? system can cause _____________.
A. Insufficient flow of condenser cooling water. A. oil foaming in the compressor
B. The system is low on refrigerant. B. higher than normal suction and discharge pressures with a higher
box temperature
C. The solenoid valve to the chill box is "frozen" in the open position. C. higher than normal discharge pressure with a normal box
temperature
D. The high pressure cutout switch is inoperative. D. the compressor to run continuously
Ans: B Ans: C
2186 Noise in a refrigeration compressor can be caused by 2187 A warmer than normal compressor suction line might be caused by
____________. _____________.
A. worn bearings and piston pins A. insufficient lubrication
B. slugging due to flooding back B. insufficient refrigerant
C. too much oil in circulation C. excess refrigerant
D. all of the above D. excessive opening of the expansion valve
Ans: D Ans: B
2188 Which of the conditions listed will cause a refrigeration compressor 2189 If a substantial difference is maintained between the refrigerant
to run constantly without simultaneously decreasing the temperature and the box air temperature within the refrigerated
temperature in the refrigerated space? compartment, this may result in _____________.
 Page 116

A. Shortage of refrigerant oil. A. slugging in the condenser

B. Slight shortage of refrigerant. B. the evaporator coil to frost
C. Excessive condenser cooling water flow. C. the compressor to short cycle
D. Faulty expansion valve. D. the thermal expansion valve to malfunction
Ans: B Ans: B
2190 The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is considered to 2191 If the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking
exist from the _____________. badly, the compressor should __________.
A. expansion valve to the compressor A. run continuously
B. receiver to the expansion coil B. not start
C. expansion valve to the evaporator C. have high discharge pressure
D. condenser to the expansion valve D. short cycle on the high pressure switch
Ans: A Ans: A
2192 If the evaporator coil of a single box, air cooled refrigerator 2193 In a compression refrigeration cycle, the temperature of the liquid
accumlates frost, the compressor will most likely _____________. refrigerant experiences its greatest decrease in the
_____________.
A. run continuously A. evaporator
B. short cycle on low pressure cutout B. compressor
C. short cycle on high pressure cutout C. expansion valve
D. fail to start D. condenser
Ans: B Ans: C
2194 A refrigerant with oil in solution has a _____________. 2195 The temperature of a refrigerant gas is the highest _______.
A. higher boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure A. at the compressor discharge
refrigerant
B. lower boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure B. at the compressor suction
refrigerant
C. boiling pressure equal to that of a pure refrigerant at a given C. in the expansion valve
pressure
D. boiling point will not be affected by entrained oil D. in the receiver
Ans: A Ans: A
2196 Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by the 2197 If condensation collects and drips off an evaporator coil, the
_____________. temperature of the coil is _____________.
A. compressor A. a maximum of 21°F
B. condenser B. above 0°C, but below the dew point
C. expansion valve C. 21°F but, above the dew point
D. evaporator D. below 32°F and below the dew point
Ans: A Ans: B
2198 Thermostatic expansion valves can be adjusted for _________. 2199 Refrigerant enters the condenser as a _____________.

A. suction pressure only A. high pressure liquid

B. head pressure only B. low pressure vapor
C. superheat only C. high pressure vapor
D. suction pressure and box temperature D. low pressure liquid
Ans: C Ans: C
2200 Which of the listed components is considered to separate the high 2201 The sudden reduction of pressure occurring within the crankcase of
pressure side of a refrigeration cycle from the low pressure side of a refrigeration compressor during starting causes the
the cycle? ___________.
A. The condenser and the expansion valve A. sudden evaporation of wax crystals in the lubricant
B. The king valve and the solenoid valve B. sudden evaporation of entrapped air in the lubricant
C. The compressor and the expansion valve C. release of refrigerant from the oil/refrigerant mixture
D. The condenser and the solenoid valve D. release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant
Ans: C Ans: C
2202 Which of the following statements is correct concerning a typical 2203 Foaming of the oil in a refrigeration compressor crankcase is
shipboard multi-coil refrigeration system? caused by _____________.
A. The liquid receiver functions to collect and remove A. refrigerant boiling out of solution from the lube oil
noncondensable gases.
B. A thermostatic expansion valve is used to control refrigerated B. liquid refrigerant flooding the compressor and system
space temperature.
C. Refrigerant temperature in an evaporator is directly related to C. lube oil viscosity being reduced by refrigerant dilution
refrigerant pressure.
D. Dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system. D. compressor suction pressure suddenly increasing

Ans: C Ans: A
2204 A cracked diaphragm in a thermostatic expansion valve will cause 2205 If a refrigeration compressor will not start, the reason may be
the valve to _____________. _____________.
A. return to a neutral position A. the pressure regulating valve is not closing
B. flood the evaporator B. an excessive lack of refrigerant in the system
C. open C. badly leaking discharge valves
D. close D. worn piston rings
Ans: D Ans: B
2206 Sludge may be formed in the oil in the crankcase of a reciprocating 2207 The refrigeration compressor in a water cooled refrigeration system
air conditioning compressor as a result of _____________. is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. One reason for
this could be the ____________.
A. refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil A. system is low on refrigerant
B. refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity B. high pressure cutout switch is improperly adjusted
C. oxidation of the lube oil from overheating C. discharge valves are leaking slightly
D. reducing the floc or cloud point of the oil D. discharge valves are leaking excessively
 Page 117

Ans: C Ans: B
2208 Air trapped in a refrigeration system using a water-cooled 2209 A refrigeration unit will tend to short cycle when operating
condenser is usually indicated by ____________. ____________.
A. unusually high head pressure when compared to the existing A. under heavy loads
temperature of the liquid refrigerant
B. higher than normal liquid level in the receiver B. during hot gas defrost
C. unusually lower than normal discharge pressure when compared to C. under light loads
the existing temperature of the liquid refrigerant
D. higher than normal liquid refrigerant temperature D. during starting conditions
Ans: A Ans: C
2210 Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning 2211 Excessive circulation of the lubricating oil with the refrigerant in a
compressor as a result of _____________. refrigeration system will cause _____________.
A. bubbling refrigerant A. carbon deposits on the compressor suction valves
B. overheating and oxidation B. the evaporator temperature to increase
C. lowered operating temperatures C. rapid corrosion of the thermal expansion valve
D. reducing the cloud or floc point D. no operating problems
Ans: B Ans: B
2212 If a refrigeration crankcase compressor were short cycling on the 2213 If a liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system shows gas
low pressure cutout switch, the cause might be that the bubbles in motion passing inside of the glass, there is
____________. _____________.
A. system was overcharged with refrigerant A. too much refrigerant in the system
B. system was low on refrigerant B. oil entrained in the refrigerant
C. suction valves were leaking slightly C. less than a full charge of refrigerant in the system
D. relief valve was leaking slightly D. ice crystals forming in the refrigerant
Ans: B Ans: C
2214 The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to 2215 Which of the problems listed could be indicated if a sight glass in
condense is called the ____________. the refrigerant liquid line is full of bubbles?
A. dew point temperature A. Proper refrigerant charge
B. condensation temperature B. Faulty expansion valve
C. psychometric temperature C. Insufficient refrigerant
D. absolute humidity temperature D. Solenoid valve stuck open
Ans: A Ans: C
2216 Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled 2217 Saltwater is typically provided to a refrigeration system to
refrigeration compressor to restart? _____________.
A. Closing of the solenoid valve A. cool the expansion valve
B. Closing of the expansion valve B. prevent refrigerant superheating
C. An increase in the suction pressure C. condense the refrigerant gas
D. Decreasing the suction pressure D. prevent motor overheating
Ans: C Ans: C
2218 R-12 is generally considered to be a safe, nontoxic, nonflammable, 2219 In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated
and nonexplosive refrigerant. It can, however, become highly toxic flourocarbon refrigerants decomposes and form _____________.
when _____________.
A. superheated outside the system A. petroleum crystals
B. in contact with an open flame B. phosgene gas
C. heated to the boiling point C. water vapor
D. all of the above D. carbon monoxide
Ans: B Ans: B
2220 Ammonia when used as a refrigerant is valuable because of its high 2221 For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which
efficiency, it is however _____________. refrigerant bottles should be exposed is _____________.

A. toxic A. 37.8°C
B. flammable B. 52°C
C. explosive C. 66°C
D. all of the above D. 79°C
Ans: D Ans: B
2222 Which of the following terms represents the form of heat removed 2223 When air at a given temperature, contains the maximum amount of
from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration system? moisture for that temperature, the air is said to be
______________.
A. Latent heat of vaporization A. superheated
B. Heat of compression B. saturated
C. Superheat C. condensing
D. All of the above D. evaporating
Ans: D Ans: B
2224 Which of the following factors will have the greatest effect on the 2225 The pressure range between the system cut in and cut out
heating load within a conditioned space? pressures in a refrigeration unit is known as _____________.

A. Solar gain A. opposing operational drag

B. Infiltration and ventilation air B. pressure distribution
C. Occupants inside the space C. differential
D. Entertainment equipment within the space D. system purge
Ans: B Ans: C
2226 When using a sling psychrometer to determine relative humidity, 2227 Cold storage compartments used for frozen or chilled foods, may
the indicated difference between the dry bulb and the wet bulb be equipped with medium velocity air coolers to establish rapid
reading is the _____________. convection and to __________.
A. relative humidity A. prevent shrinkage and drying of stored foods
B. dew point B. deliver cooled air to all areas of the compartment
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C. wet bulb "depression" C. prevent air from being cooled below the dew point
D. partial saturation temperature D. eliminate all noxious odors in the compartment
Ans: C Ans: B
2228 Which of the following statements is correct concerning a halide 2229 Which of the locations listed would be considered as the most
torch leak detector? common place to install a dryer in a refrigeration system?

A. The probe should be moved rapidly over the area of a suspected A. Between the compressor and the condenser.
leak.
B. The torch is effective in locating large leaks only. B. Between the thermal expansion valve and the evaporator.
C. The flame will turn green in the presence of R-12. C. In the suction line.
D. A refrigerant gas mask must be worn while using the torch. D. In the liquid line.
Ans: C Ans: D
2230 Cylindrical driers installed in halocarbon refrigerant systems should 2231 If the flame of a Halide leak detecting torch burns yellow, which of
be arranged _____________. the problems listed is indicated?
A. so that the liquid enters at the top and leaves at the bottom when A. A restricted exploring tube
located in the liquid line
B. so that the liquid enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when B. A refrigeration leak
located in the liquid line
C. so that the gas enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when C. A faulty reactor plate
located in the suction line
D. horizontally if the drying agent is calcium oxide D. Normal operation
Ans: B Ans: A
2232 Tubing connections for refrigeration systems may be made by 2233 In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the
_____________. greatest temperature drop across the __________.
A. flaring A. evaporator
B. soldering B. receiver
C. silver brazing C. compressor
D. all of the above D. condenser
Ans: D Ans: D
2234 When air is at its dew point and there is no change in either the 2235 In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat absorbed by the
temperature or pressure, the air ______________. refrigerant is adjusted at the ____________.
A. has a low absolute humidity A. compressor
B. has the lowest relative humidity B. condenser
C. cannot give up its moisture C. evaporator coil
D. will gain no additional moisture D. expansion valve
Ans: D Ans: D
2236 Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of 2237 A thermal expansion valve installed in a refrigeration system is
dehydrators in refrigeration systems? controlled by _____________.
A. Dehydrators must be used continuously. A. the solenoid valve energizing coil
B. Dehydrators are usually installed in the liquid line. B. regulating the king valve
C. Dehydrators are used when pumping down the system. C. a thermal bulb on the evaporator coil
D. Dehydrators are used when purging the system. D. an electrically operated controller
Ans: B Ans: C
2238 The thermostat controlling a refrigerated cargo box two-way 2239 A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used to remove
solenoid valve senses _______________. _____________.
A. evaporator coil inlet temperature A. noncondensable gases and vapors
B. the refrigerated box temperature B. oil from the refrigerant
C. evaporator coil outlet temperature C. refrigerant from the oil
D. degree of refrigerant superheat D. moisture from the system
Ans: B Ans: D
2240 A solenoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed 2241 The normal operation of a refrigeration compressor should be to
______________. cycle on _____________.
A. with the axis of the solenoid horizontal, sensing temperature of the A. in response to the low pressure cutout switch and off in response to
box, and upstream of the thermal expansion valve the high pressure cutout switch

B. upright, sensing temperature of the box, and upstream of the B. in response to the high pressure cutout switch and off in response
thermal expansion valve to the low pressure cutout switch
C. upright, sensing temperature of the box, and downstream of the C. and off in response to the low pressure cutout switch
thermal expansion valve
D. upright, sensing superheat of the tail coil, and upstream of the D. and off in response to the high pressure cutout switch
thermal expansion valve
Ans: B Ans: C
2242 If two compressors must be operated in parallel in order to maintain 2243 When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has
the box temperatures, a careful watch should be kept on the been shutdown for a period of time, you should manually throttle the
_____________. _____________.
A. discharge pressure gauges of both compressors A. sea water valve
B. suction pressure gauges of both compressors B. king valve
C. expansion valves of both evaporator coils C. suction valve
D. oil levels in both compressor crankcases D. expansion valve
Ans: D Ans: C
2244 Leaking discharge reed valves in a refrigeration compressor should 2245 What is the color of the flame produced by a halide torch when
be _____________. there is no refrigerant present?
A. reground A. Orange
B. relapped B. Blue
C. replaced C. Red
D. rewound D. Green
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Ans: C Ans: B
2246 When a refrigeration compressor is in the "off" cycle, the thermal 2247 Some "hot gas" defrost systems reheat the refrigerant just prior to
expansion valve _____________. its returning to the compressor to _____________.
A. is always wide open A. increase the circulation of liquid refrigerant
B. is always completely closed B. prevent chill shocking the compressor suction valves
C. is open only until evaporator pressure is equalized C. improve the efficiency of the expansion valve
D. operates as if the system were in operation D. reduce the damaging effects of liquid slugging
Ans: D Ans: D
2248 When adding oil to a refrigeration system, precautions must be 2249 If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, the condition
taken to ensure that _____________. would result in ____________.
A. the compressor suction pressure is not too high A. continuous running of the compressor
B. all air is purged from the pump and charging fittings B. high suction pressure
C. the high pressure cutout switch is held open to prevent accidental C. high discharge pressure
starting
D. the condenser is completely shutdown first D. short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch
Ans: B Ans: A
2250 If only the chill box solenoid valve remains open, therefrigeration 2251 When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is
compressor will eventually be stopped by______________. charged with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, it
is said to be _____________.
A. chill box thermostatic temperature switch A. blended charged
B. low water cutout switch B. straight charged
C. low pressure cutout switch C. mixed charged
D. high pressure cutout switch D. cross charged
Ans: C Ans: D
2252 Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the 2253 In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant
refrigeration system through the high side? temperature decreases the most in the _________.

A. Dehydrator inlet valve A. evaporator

B. Liquid line king valve B. condenser
C. Suction line valve C. compressor
D. Thermal expansion valve D. expansion valve
Ans: B Ans: D
2254 In a refrigeration system, silica gel is used in the 2255 If the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the low
__________________. side for repairs, this is an indication of ____________.
A. condenser A. worn piston rings
B. dehydrator B. faulty bearings
C. liquid strainer C. air being introduced to the system
D. hygrometer D. foaming of the crankcase oil
Ans: B Ans: D
2256 A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction 2257 When two refrigerated spaces in a refrigeration system are served
valve that normally draws gas from the suction manifold, but by a single compressor and condenser, yet are maintained at
returns it to the suction line without compressing it is called a different temperatures, a back pressure regulating valve serves to
_____________. provide ____________.
A. discharge line bypass A. a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the colder box
B. cylinder unloader B. a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box
C. suction line bypass C. a lower pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box
D. relief valve D. equal pressures in the evaporator coils of both boxes
Ans: B Ans: B
2258 A common secondary refrigerant used in air conditioning systems 2259 Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion valve is greatest
aboard ship is _____________. when the _____________.
A. R-123 A. evaporator is warm and empty of refrigerant
B. water B. evaporator is cold and empty of refrigerant
C. nitrogen C. low side and high side pressures are equal
D. Carrene D. low side pressure and thermal element pressure equalize
Ans: B Ans: A
2260 In a refrigeration system, air is purged at the __________. 2261 Thermostatic expansion valves are opened ______________.

A. expansion valve A. by spring pressure and closed by refrigerant pressure

B. filter/drier B. by refrigerant pressure and closed by spring pressure
C. evaporator C. and closed by spring pressure
D. condenser D. and closed by refrigerant pressure
Ans: D Ans: B
2262 Which of the listed substances is used as an absorbing agent in the 2263 The purpose of heating the oil in the sump of a secured
shipboard dehydration of refrigeration systems? refrigeration compressor is to _____________.
A. Ethylene glycol A. reduce the absorption of refrigerant by the lubricating oil
B. Sodium bromide B. prevent acidic pitting
C. Silica gel C. remove entrained water
D. Methyl glycol D. remove wax and gum
Ans: C Ans: A
2264 A partially fouled liquid line strainer in therefrigeration system will 2265 Which of the design features listed for a refrigeration valve are
cause ___________. I. an increase in the percent of flash gas II. used to reduce the possibility of loss of refrigerant from the
desireable subcooling of the liquid system?
A. I only A. Back seating
B. II only B. Valve caps
C. Both I and II C. Packless diaphragms
D. Neither I nor II D. All of the above.
 Page 120

Ans: D Ans: D
2266 A thermostatic expansion valve is designed to respond to 2267 The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant
_____________. _____________.
A. refrigerated space temperature A. refrigerant flow
B. compressor suction pressure B. box temperature
C. vapor discharge pressure in the cooling coils C. outlet superheat
D. superheat in the tail coil D. coil pressure
Ans: D Ans: C
2268 Three of the refrigerants covered under the low pressure system 2269 When adding oil to a refrigeration system, precautions must be
regulations are_________. taken to ensure that _____________.
A. CFC-11, CFC-113 and CFC-114 A. the compressor suction pressure is not too high
B. CFC-11, CFC-113 and HCFC-123 B. all air is purged from the pump and charging fittings
C. CFC-11, CFC-114 and HCFC-123 C. the high pressure cutout switch is held open to prevent accidental
starting
D. CFC-11, CFC-114 and CFC-502 D. the condenser is completely shutdown first
Ans: B Ans: B
2270 A reheater, as used in an air conditioning system, is designed to 2271 A secondary refrigerant commonly used in shipboard air
control the _____________. conditioning systems is _____________.
A. chilled water temperature A. methyl chloride
B. dew point temperature B. water
C. primary air temperature C. carbon dioxide
D. dry bulb temperature D. trichloroethylene
Ans: D Ans: B
2272 A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the 2273 Newly developed refrigerants, used to reduce stratospheric ozone
conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is depletion, are sometimes refered to as azeotropic. This means that
accomplished by ____________. the resulting liquid_________.
A. raising the cooling coil temperature and lowering the reheater A. will condense at a temperature lower than the boiling point of the
temperature componant withthe lowest boiling point
B. raising both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater B. boils at a temperature equal to the boiling point of the component
temperature with the lowest boiling point
C. lowering both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater C. will condense at a temperature equal to the highest condensation
temperature point of the component with a condensation point equal to any one
of the components
D. lowering the cooling coil temperature and raising the reheater D. boils at a temperature independent of any individual components in
temperature the mixture
Ans: D Ans: D
2274 If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure 2275 The prohibition against the venting of halogenated floro-carbon
cutout switch, the cause might be that the ____________. refrigerants to the atmosphere requires that, at a minimum, the
refrigerant must be __________.
A. system was overcharged with refrigerant A. recovered
B. system was low on oil B. reclaimed
C. suction valves were leaking slightly C. recycled
D. system was low on refrigerant D. destroyed
Ans: D Ans: A
2276 If the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking 2277 Considering equal capacities, which refrigeration system can
slightly, the compressor will ___________. employ the smallest compressor?
A. run continuously A. Ammonia
B. not start B. Carbon Dioxide
C. short cycle on the water low pressure switch C. Dichlorodifluoromethane
D. short cycle on the high pressure switch D. Monochlorodifluoromethane
Ans: A Ans: A
2278 What is the maximum volume to which refillable refrigeration 2279 In addition to moisture, a refrigerant dehydrator charged with silica
cylinders should be filled? gel is designed to absorb _____________.
A. 60% full A. refrigerant
B. 70% full B. acids
C. 80% full C. noncondensable gases
D. 90% full D. refrigerant oil
Ans: C Ans: B
2280 Which refrigerant listed has the highest latent heat per kg? 2281 The chemical formula for ozone is represented as ________.
A. R-22 A. O
B. Ammonia B. O2
C. R-134 C. O3
D. Sulfur Dioxide D. Oz
Ans: B Ans: C
2282 Average condensing pressures of an ammonia refrigeration system 2283 Which of the following devices is the safest to use when locating
range between __________. ammonia leaks?
A. 8 and 11bar g A. Litmus paper
B. 9 and 11.5bar g B. Sulphur candle
C. 9.5 and 12 bar g C. Halide torch
D. 10 and 13 bar g D. All of the above are recommended.
Ans: D Ans: A
2284 Pure anhydrous ammonia is considered noncorrosive to ______. 2285 For most refrigeration split systems that use one sight glass, a
good location for the sight glass is just ________.
A. iron only A. before the compressor suction line
B. steel only B. after the compressor discharge
C. copper-bearing metals C. upstream of the condenser
 Page 121

D. None of the above are correct. D. upstream of the liquid metering device
Ans: C Ans: D
2286 Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because 2287 A flapper valve, also known as a beam valve, is frequently used in
of the high pressures generated. The generation of pressure is refrigeration compressor discharge valves, and is designed to
the_________. _____________.
A. vapor pressure of the refrigerant A. feed discharge pressure to the suction line
B. discharge pressure of the recovery compressor B. aid in hot gas defrosting
C. hydrostatic pressure of the expanding liquid C. pass liquid slugs
D. discharge pressure from the recovery cylinder D. equalize system pressure for compressor cycling
Ans: C Ans: C
2288 What is the equivalent tonnage of a refrigeration system rated at 2289 R-12 has been a suitable refrigerant for use in high temperature
48,000 BTU per hour? applications with _____________.
A. 2.5 A. reciprocating compressors
B. 3 B. rotary compressors
C. 4 C. centrifugal compressors
D. 5 D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
2290 If you know that a refrigeration system is leaking refrigerant, you 2291 Which of the devices listed will indicate the proper operation of a
would first___________. refrigeration system dryer?
A. recover the refrigerant A. Dryer sensing bulb
B. charge the system B. Mcleod gage
C. look for traces of oil C. Particulate test
D. evacuate the system D. Moisture indicator
Ans: C Ans: D
2292 In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is 2293 Which of the following statements regarding refrigeration systems
installed in the liquid line before _____________. is/are true?
A. the receiver A. In any refrigeration system, oil and refrigerant are always present.

B. each expansion valve B. Refrigerant is the working fluid and is required for cooling.
C. the condenser C. The main purpose of the oil is to lubricate the compressor.
D. the oil separator D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
2294 In a refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water regulating 2295 In a refrigeration system with a Thermostatic expansion valve, the
valve is directly controlled by the ____________. component installed after the metering device is the
___________.
A. temperature of the cooling water A. evaporator
B. compressor discharge pressure B. receiver
C. amount of refrigerant in the system C. compressor
D. temperature of the refrigerant after expansion D. solenoid valve
Ans: B Ans: A
2296 How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating 2297 What differentiates "system-dependent" and "self-contained"
valve? recovery devices in refrigeration systems?
A. A solenoid valve can only be installed in liquid lines. A. self-contained recovery devices can only be used on large CGC
and HCFC units
B. A liquid line solenoid valve is either completely opened or closed, B. self-contained recovery devices usually contain a compressor,
whereas a modulation valve is positioned according to the strength system-dependent recovery devices do not
of the applied electrical signal.
C. Solenoid valves are only used in low voltage refrigeration control C. the system compressor must be working to use system dependent
systems, while modulation valves are used in high voltage devices, the system compressor may or may not be operational
applications. when self-contained devices are used
D. Both valves operate in exactly the same manner, only the D. there is no difference between the devices
manufacturer's terminology is the differentiating factor.
Ans: B Ans: B
2298 When air is at its dew point it is at its ______________. 2299 The refrigerants referred to as CFC's are __________.
A. lowest absolute humidity A. fully halogenated
B. lowest relative humidity B. partially halogenated
C. highest absolute humidity C. not halogenated at all
D. highest relative humidity D. completely filled with hydrogen atoms
Ans: D Ans: A
2300 If you find an extremely large refrigerant leak while using a halide 2301 CFC refrigerants exposed to high temperture or direct flame, will
torch, your flame will _______________. decompose and may produce ___________.
A. change from blue to orange A. methyl chloride
B. "flare up" and remain lighted B. ammonia
C. probably go out C. hydrofluoric acid
D. stay blue D. ozone
Ans: C Ans: C
2302 In a chilled water air conditioning unit using a reciprocating 2303 The movement of the armature within a modulating valve as used
compressor, the refrigerating effect of the primary refrigerant can be on some refrigeration systems is opposed by the ________.
increased by _____________.
A. increasing refrigerant pressure in the coil A. pressure of the flash gas developed
B. increasing chilled water flow through the cooler B. vacuum formed as the refrigerant flows through the valve
C. subcooling the refrigerant in the condenser C. weight of the armature
D. superheating the refrigerant in the compressor D. spring force
Ans: C Ans: D
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2304 Alkylbenzene ISO 32 cST refrigerant oil is miscible and suitable to 2305 The speed of a belt driven ventilation fan can be increased without
use with___________. changing the motor speed by using a _____________.

A. R-22 A. smaller diameter fan

B. R-32 B. smaller diameter drive pulley
C. R-134a C. larger diameter fan
D. R-143a D. larger diameter drive pulley
Ans: A Ans: D
2306 An untagged refrigerant cylinder is found in your storage area. It is 2307 In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermalexpansion valve is
light (sky) blue, and the refrigerant it contains is __________. always located _____________.

A. CFC-12 A. in the middle of the evaporator coils

B. CFC-11 B. near the evaporator coil outlet
C. HCFC-22 C. near the evaporator coil inlet
D. HFC-134a D. at the begining of the bottom row of the evaporator coils
Ans: D Ans: B
2308 Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators 2309 The color of the refrigeration oil can indicate various operating
have a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of foods unless conditions of the compressor/ refrigeration system in which it is
_______________. used. Black oil can be an indication of _____________________.

A. a complete change of air takes place within each 30 second interval A. copper plating caused by moisture in the system

B. foods are packaged in corrugated storage boxes B. bearing wear or piston scoring
C. the air is circulated slowly with a minimum temperature change C. carbonization resulting from air in the system

D. a humidifier is installed within the refrigeration system D. gasket breakdown

Ans: C Ans: C
2310 To add refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the 2311 The color of the oil observed in the sight glass of an operating
refrigerant should be introduced through the _____________. refrigeration compressor experiencing bearing wear or piston
scoring would appear _______________.
A. suction service valve as a vapor A. gray or metallic
B. suction service valve as a liquid B. black
C. discharge service valve as a vapor C. clear, because the heavier particles would gravitate to the bottom of
the sump
D. charging valve as a liquid D. as a light blue-green
Ans: A Ans: A
2312 When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb, it is 2313 Expansion valve maintenance should include which of the following
necessary to ________. procedures?
A. apply a light film of oil to increase heat transfer A. Cleaning of in-line filters.
B. apply a light film of oil to prevent oxidation B. Ensuring that the thermal bulb is in good contact with the suction
line.
C. apply a heavy coating of grease to function as a heat sink C. Checking that the thermal bulb is in the proper location.
D. carefully coat the device with silicone sealant to reduce the effects D. All of the above.
of convective cooling
Ans: B Ans: D
2314 Which chemical symbol represents ammonia? 2315 When opening or closing compressor service and line valves on a
typical refrigeration system, you _____________.
A. AM3 A. should turn valves slowly to avoid thermal stresses due to low
temperatures
B. AMn3 B. must first remove the seal cap
C. NM3 C. should examine the gasket frequently to ensure that it is flat
D. NH3 D. should never tighten the packing gland
Ans: D Ans: B
2316 Which of the refrigerants listed has a boiling point of -33°C at 2317 If a refrigeration system is overcharged with refrigerant, one result
atmospheric pressure? will be ____________.
A. Methyl Chloride A. low suction pressure
B. Sulfur Dioxide B. higher than normal compressor head pressure
C. Ammonia C. increased system operating efficiency
D. Brine D. short cycling on the low pressure cutout
Ans: C Ans: B
2318 If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is 2319 A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will
adjusted too high the _________. result in which of the following conditions?
A. box temperature will continually rise A. Suction pressure fluctuation.
B. rate at which condensation occurs on the evaporator coils will B. Hunting as indicated by fluctuations of the discharge pressure.
increase
C. suction line of the compressor will be abnormally warm C. Expansion valves are designed to pass small foreign particles so
no adverse condition will occur.
D. rate at which condensation occurs within the coils will increase D. Ice is the sole cause of this and will soon melt due to superheat; no
adverse condition will occur.
Ans: C Ans: A
2320 Relative humidity can be determined by using a psychrometric 2321 If a refrigeration compressor in a multi-box system runs
chart and a/an ______________. continuously, the cause might be a _____________.
A. hydrometer A. high pressure switch stuck in the closed position
B. sling psychrometer B. clogged mechanical scale trap
C. aneroid barometer C. shortage of refrigerant
D. compound barometer D. defective thermal bulb
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Ans: B Ans: C
2322 "Respiratory heat" is a term applied primarily to which of the 2323 If the thermal bulb of an expansion valve is incorrectly placed at the
following cargoes? center of the coil instead of the end, it will _____________.

A. Fresh vegetables A. increase the capacity of the coil

B. Meat B. increase the superheat at the bulb
C. Frozen vegetables C. deliver more refrigerant to the coil
D. All of the above D. decrease the capacity of the coil
Ans: A Ans: D
2324 The refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch is actuated by 2325 A one ton air conditioning system has which of the listed operating
_____________. characteristics?
A. an electric system manager A. It forces 1,000 kgs. of refrigerant through the evaporator per day.

B. a sensing bulb at the tail coil of the evaporator B. It forces 1,000 kgs. of air per hour across the evaporator coils.

C. pressure changes in the suction line C. Its cooling power equals that of melting 1,000 kgs. of ice per day.

D. failure of the king solenoid valve D. It contains 1,000 kgs. of refrigerant.

Ans: C Ans: C
2326 An increasing head pressure in a refrigeration system, without any 2327 A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator
corresponding change in the cooling water inlet temperature, would superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the superheat will result in
probably be caused by _____________. a/an ________________.
A. restriction in refrigerant piping A. evaporator pressure decrease
B. air and noncondensable gases in the condenser B. evaporator coil over-feed
C. water in the refrigerant C. evaporator capacity increase
D. flooding back of liquid refrigerant from the evaporator D. expansion valve diaphragm rupture
Ans: B Ans: B
2328 An important consideration in selecting a lubricating oil for use in a 2329 A pressure drop through the refrigerant liquid line may cause
refrigeration compressor is for the oil to ____________. _____________.

A. have a high viscosity index A. solenoid valve to seize

B. mix readily with refrigerant B. compressor to hunt
C. have a high freezing point C. formation of flash gas in the liquid line
D. have a low pour point D. expansion valve to freeze open
Ans: D Ans: C
2330 Which of the problems listed would cause the discharge 2331 Which of the conditions listed is one indication of an excessive
temperature of an R-12 refrigeration compressor to increase? amount of refrigerant in the system?

A. Thermal expansion valve frozen open. A. Safety valve lifting

B. Suction gas heat exchanger bypassed. B. Prolonged running
C. Condenser clogged or fouled. C. Short cycling
D. High pressure cutout switch inoperative. D. Oil absorbed in the crankcase
Ans: C Ans: C
2332 If the suction pressure for an operating refrigeration compressor is 2333 If one box in a multiple box, direct expansion type refrigeration
below normal, the cause may be _____________. system was experiencing an excessively low temperature, this
could be a result of ____________.
A. an excess of liquid refrigerant A. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor
B. the expansion valve overfeeding B. excessive frost on the cooling coils
C. a fouled compressor suction strainer C. a leaking hand expansion valve
D. the compressor short cycling D. an oversized expansion valve
Ans: C Ans: C
2334 In a refrigeration system equipped with a reciprocating compressor 2335 If R-12 is maintained at approximately 8kg/cm2 when discharged by
and a water cooled condensing unit, leaking compressor discharge the compressor, which of the listed values would represent its
valves will result in ________. saturation temperature?
A. refrigerant flooding of the compressor A. -18C
B. low suction pressure B. -6°C
C. noisy compressor operation C. 10°C
D. low head pressure D. 37.8°C
Ans: D Ans: D
2336 If you change from a low pour point lubricant to a highpour point 2337 To correct the condition of slugging and flooding back in a
lubricant in a refrigeration system, __________. refrigeration system, it may be necessary to ______________.

A. compressor lubrication will be improved A. re-adjust the discharge pressure

B. oil will not leave the crankcase B. clean the expansion valve screen
C. compressor valves will be damaged C. add refrigerant
D. oil may congeal in the evaporator D. adjust the expansion valve
Ans: D Ans: D
2338 If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, the condition 2339 Frost appearing on one set of evaporator coils of a multi-box, direct
would result in ____________. expansion type refrigeration system _____________.
A. continuous running of the compressor A. increase the value of superheat to the fluid leaving the coils
B. high suction pressure B. will assist in increasing the refrigeration effect
C. high discharge pressure C. can be removed by passing hot vapors through the coils
D. short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch D. can be quickly removed by simply shutting off fluid flow to the coils

Ans: A Ans: C
 Page 124

2340 Which of the conditions listed represents the greatest effect of 2341 In the refrigeration system, a shortage of refrigerant is indicated by
excess frost accumulation on the evaporator coils? _____________.
A. Keeps the refrigerated space cooler. A. the compressor short cycling on high pressure cut out switch

B. Reduces the efficiency of the plant. B. high suction pressure

C. Takes the load off the compressor. C. high head pressure
D. Has no affect on the system. D. bubbles in the sight glass
Ans: B Ans: D
2342 In a refrigeration system, the amount of refrigerant admitted to the 2343 Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration
evaporator is directly related to _________. compressor is most likely to occur when the compressor
_____________.
A. the compressor discharge pressure A. has run continuously for a long period
B. condenser cooling water temperature B. suction pressure is below normal
C. the solenoid valve differential pressure C. oil level is below normal
D. the superheat of the refrigerant in the tail coil D. starts after a long idle period
Ans: D Ans: D
2344 The refrigerant gas returning to the compressor should be 2345 In which of the listed refrigeration system components does
_____________. superheating of the refrigerant take place?
A. superheated A. Expansion valve
B. saturated B. Evaporator
C. dense C. Drier
D. flooded D. Receiver
Ans: A Ans: B
2346 Under normal conditions, the refrigerant enters the compressor in 2347 Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration
an operating refrigeration system as a _____________. compressor can result in _____________.

A. liquid A. overheated compressor bearings

B. dry saturated gas B. excess lube oil viscosity
C. wet saturated gas C. carbon deposits on the compressor piston rings
D. superheated vapor D. wax crystals forming in the lubricant
Ans: D Ans: A
2348 In a refrigeration system, foaming of the crankcase oil may cause 2349 Which of the listed characteristics can be applied to R-12 vapor?
the _____________.
A. expansion valve to overfeed A. It is corrosive.
B. compressor to knock B. It is odorless.
C. water regulating valve to fail C. It is visible as a blue fog.
D. crankcase drains to plug D. It has a distinctive taste.
Ans: B Ans: B
2350 Sludge may form in the lubricating oil crankcase of a reciprocating 2351 The presence of bubbles in a refrigeration system liquid line may
air conditioning compressor as a result of _____________. ____________.

A. wax precipitation in the lube oil A. promote refrigerant dehydration

B. contamination by dust, scale, or moisture B. be absorbed in the receiver
C. refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil C. cause low condensing pressure
D. refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity D. carry moisture and lead to corrosion
Ans: B Ans: D
2352 The compressor in an air-cooled condensing refrigeration system 2353 Which of the listed statements is a characteristic of the liquid
is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. A probable charged power element used with thermostatic expansion valves?
reason for this is the ____________.
A. system is overcharged with refrigerant A. At the designed operating temperature, the liquid refrigerant
charge has changed to a vapor.
B. system is low on refrigerant B. The liquid refrigerant tends to collect at the bellows or diaphragm
and reduces the valve sensitivity.
C. discharge valves are leaking excessively C. The sensing bulb is empty of liquid refrigerant charge at the
designed operating temperature.
D. discharge valves are leaking slightly D. The sensing bulb is never emptied of liquid refrigerant under
normal operating conditions.
Ans: A Ans: D
2354 If a refrigeration compressor is short cycling on high head pressure, 2355 A constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion valve will always
you should ____________. indicates _____________.
A. purge the condenser if the waterside is dirty A. proper refrigerant control
B. check for proper water flow through the condenser B. a faulty refrigerant control valve
C. increase the high pressure cutout setting C. a lack of refrigerant
D. reduce the cooling water flow D. the flow of 100% liquid refrigerant passing to the evaporator

Ans: B Ans: C
2356 Which of the problems listed could cause erosion of the expansion 2357 Refrigeration system compressor crankcase sweating is an
valve disks and seats? indication of _________.
A. Overcharging the system with refrigerant A. insufficient lube oil circulating through the system
B. Faulty compressor suction valve B. excessive circulation of lube oil through the system
C. Failure of the high pressure cutout C. insufficient refrigerant in the system
D. Flash gas formed in the liquid line D. an overworked compressor
Ans: D Ans: B
2358 A refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating or 2359 Sweating of the refrigeration system compressor crankcase is
unusually cold. This is an indication of _________________. caused by _____________.
A. a shortage of refrigerant in the system A. too much superheat
 Page 125

B. air in the system B. insufficient superheat

C. an accumulation of liquid refrigerant in the crankcase. C. suction pressure too low
D. a shortage of oil in the crankcase D. excessive refrigerant returning to the compressor
Ans: C Ans: D
2360 The effect of high vapor superheat in a refrigeration system, is a/an 2361 On all vessels equipped with refrigeration units of over 0.566 cubic
____________. metres (20 cubic foot) capacity, _____________.
A. increased capacity of the compressor A. a gas mask suitable for protection against each refrigerant used, or
a self contained breathing apparatus must be provided

B. more efficient operation of the thermal expansion valve
C. decreased capacity of the compressor
B. it is the sole responsibility of the chief engineer to ascertain that all
members of the engineering department are familiar with the use of
gas masks or breathing apparatus
C. spare charges shall be carried for at least 50% of each size and
variety of gas masks and/or self contained breathing apparatus

D. loss of receiver capacity D. all of the above

Ans: C Ans: A
2362 Frosting or sweating of the suction line of a reciprocating 2363 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing
refrigeration compressor indicates a condition which could result in of an R-12 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed
severe damage due to _____________. compartment?
A. minor amounts of oil in the refrigerant A. To gain sensitivity, the largest possible flame should be used with
the halide torch.
B. liquid slugging B. The flame of a halide torch will turn blue in the presence of R-12.

C. insufficient refrigerant C. Halide torches are useful in locating very small R-12 leaks.
D. a failed heat interchanger D. Rapid leak testing is possible with the halide torch since there is no
time lag between the time air enters the exploring tube until it hits
the reactor plate.
Ans: B Ans: C
2364 Which of the following statements regarding low pressure, 2365 The principal purpose of subcooling liquid refrigerant prior to its
reciprocating, air compressor valves is correct? entering the expansion valve is to _____________.
A. A relatively large clearance space is required for the valves. A. increase the refrigerating effect by decreasing the amount of flash
gas
B. Mechanical operating valve gear is required to open and close the B. allow the refrigerant to enter the throttling device in a saturated
valves. condition
C. Only the suction valve requires a push rod and rocker arm C. increase the refrigerating effect by increasing the amount of flash
mechanism for valve operation. gas
D. Due to the physical construction of the valves, a relatively small D. minimize the temperature drop of the liquid as it passes through the
cylinder clearance space is required. solenoid valve to the outlet side
Ans: D Ans: A
2366 When you adjust a thermostatic expansion valve ____________. 2367 Each pressure vessel containing refrigerants, which may be
isolated, shall be ___________.
A. refrigerant must be bled off the sensing line before adjustments are A. subject to annual hyrdrostatic tests to be performed in the presence
made of a marine inspector
B. all refrigerant must be pumped into the receiver before B. protected by a relief valve set to relieve at a pressure not exceeding
adjustments are made 110 percent of the maximum allowable working pressure of the
vessel
C. time must be allowed for conditions to stabilize in the evaporator C. stored in an upright position in addition to being secured so as to
before further adjustments are made prevent accidental release of the refrigerant within a confined
space
D. all refrigerant must be routed through the dehydrator while D. protected by a relief valve set to relieve at a pressure not exceeding
changing the superheat setting the maximum allowable working pressure of the vessel

Ans: C Ans: D
2368 When removing the primary refrigerant from a system using water 2369 If the combination moisture indicator and sight glass indicates an
as a secondary refrigerant, it is important to follow which accumulation of moisture within the system, which of the listed
procedure(s) to safeguard the equipment? procedures would be the most practical to follow?
A. Insure that the water doesn't become contaminated with oil in the A. Secure the system, disassemble and de-ice the thermostatic
direct contact heat exchanger. expansion valve.
B. Insure that the water and refrigerant separator is functioning B. Close the king valve, pump down the system, isolate the drier,
properly. remove and replace with new drier element.
C. Insure that the water is drained or continually circulating to avoid C. Purge the entire system to the atmosphere, replace the drier, and
freeze-up. add freon.
D. Leave some refrigerant in the system to prevent the water from D. none of the above
contaminating the referigerant if there is a leak.
Ans: C Ans: B
2370 The receiver used in a refrigeration system _________. 2371 Which refrigeration system will require the use of an oil trap?
A. stores liquid refrigerant A. Brine
B. collects noncondensable gases B. Ammonia
C. allows refrigerant to be subcooled C. Methyl Chloride
D. prevents liquid refrigerant from slugging to the compressor D. All of the above.
Ans: A Ans: B
2372 Which of the following refrigerants is considered to be the oldest in 2373 A refrigerant used in a mechanical refrigeration system should
use? have which of the following characteristics?
A. Methyl Chloride A. High boiling point
B. Sulphur Dioxide B. High freezing point
 Page 126

C. Ammonia C. Low specific heat

D. Carbon Dioxide D. Low boiling point
Ans: C Ans: D
2374 All refrigeration systems must be protected with a ________. 2375 A purge cycle is required on all low pressure chillers because
__________.
A. pressure relief device A. such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric
pressure
B. refrigerant receiver B. evacuation of all air from a chiller is not possible
C. high pressure cut-out C. chillers are often opened for mainatenance
D. low pressure cut-out D. because of the refrigerant's low boiling point
Ans: C Ans: A
2376 Moisture in the refrigerant may _____________. 2377 An ammonia leak will turn moistened pink litmus paper _____.
A. freeze on the expansion valve seat and reduce the flow of liquid A. orange
refrigerant
B. emulsify the oil in the condenser B. red
C. freeze in the king valve C. purple
D. clog the oil trap D. blue
Ans: A Ans: D
2378 To prevent motor overload during start-up of a hermetically sealed 2379 A sight glass is installed in the liquid line to indicate the condition of
centrifugal refrigeration system, the compressor suction gas the refrigerant charge and may also indicate the _____________.
variable inlet guide vanes remain _____________.

A. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage
and current drawn is up to full load current
B. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage
and current drawn is below full load current
C. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage
and current drawn is below full load current
D. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage
and current drawn is up to full load current
Ans: C
2380 The primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve as used
in most refrigeration plants is to _____________.
A. regulate refrigerant passage through the solenoid valve
B. ensure that liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor has the
proper superheat
C. maintain a constant degree of superheat at the evaporator coil
outlet
D. maintain constant evaporator coil pressure independent of suction
pressure variations
Ans: C
2382 A large evaporator coil has been determined to have a pressure
drop of 0.3bar g and can be compensated for by__________. I.
adjusting the Thermostatic expansion valve spring compression
and raising the super heat value II. installing an externally equal
A. condition of the expansion valve
B. moisture in the system
C. condition of the compressor suction valves
D. condenser temperature
Ans: B
2381 The primary function of a back pressure regulator installed in a
refrigeration system is to _____________.
A. limit the minimum evaporator pressure to ensure excessively low
box temperatures are not reached
B. maintain a constant compressor suction pressure regardless of load
C. maintain an evaporator coil pressure that assures excessively cold
coil temperatures
D. adjust compressor suction pressure to load demands
Ans: A
2383 The compressor used in an air-cooled air conditioning system is
short cycling. A service check determines the suction pressure is
above the normal cut-in point with an exceptionally high head
pressure and high superheat at the evaporator. This is probab

A. I only A. loosely fitted compressor drive belt

B. II only B. partially opened liquid service valve
C. Both I and II C. reduction in condenser air flow (dirty condenser)
D. Neither I nor II D. fully closed discharge service valve
Ans: B Ans: C
2384 In a refigeration system, once the compound gage manifold lines 2385 In addition to the main outermost scale on the low side compound
are attached to the service connections, you should ascertain that gage fitted to the portable service manifold, there are often one or
the valves on the gage manifold are closed, and then __________. more other scales on the face of the gage. These are
_____________.
A. open the discharge valve service port by closing the service valve A. pressure scales for different refrigerants

B. continue to backseat the discharge service valve by turning it
clockwise
C. open the discharge valve service port by closing the service valve
approximately 1/4 to 1/2 of a turn
D. open only the valve connected to the discharge service fitting on
the outlet of the king valve
Ans: C
2386 When repairing a refrigeration system, a swedge would be used to
carry out which of the following operations?
A. Swedges are used to remove any sweated edges formed on the
tubing while soldering.
B. Swedges are used during the breaking-in of refrigeration
compressors and drive motors.
C. A swedge is no longer used with repairing refrigeration systems
due to progressive changes in the tool industry.
D. Swedges can be used to expand an end of one tube to fit onto a
tube of the same external diameter.
Ans: D
B. pressure scales for varying ambient temperatures
C. temperature scales for varying ambient pressures
D. temperature scales for different refrigerants
Ans: D
2387 Which of the installation steps listed is necessary for the proper
operation of the thermostatic expansion valve?
A. Clean outlet pipe and secure bulb tangential to the flow of
refrigerant.
B. Clean off oxidation from the surface of the suction line and sensing
bulb with fine abrasive cloth.
C. Remove excess lengths of the sensing bulb capillary tube from the
device to increase sensitivity.
D. Heat shrink insulating material around the device once the bulb has
been properly secured.
Ans: B
 Page 127

2388 An economizer or heat exchanger in a refrigeration system, using a 2389 In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by
reciprocating compressor, functions to ____________. _____________.

A. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant slugging the compressor A. filters

B. raise the temperature of liquid refrigerant B. separators

C. cool the suction vapor returning to the compressor C. ducted traps
D. raise the refrigerant saturation temperature in the evaporator D. dehumidifiers

Ans: A
2390 A large evaporator coil has been determined to have apressure
drop of 5 psig and can be compensated for by__________. I.
doing nothing as this is typical of refrigeration systems II. throttling
the suction of the compressor to prevent the occurance of
Ans: D
2391 A particular space is air conditioned by a 25 ton water cooled
system. While troubleshooting, the space is found to be too warm,
and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines
the compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in

A. I only A. A liquid line service valve is partially closed.

B. II only B. The expansion valve feeler bulb is loosely clamped to the suction
line.
C. Both I and II C. The suction pressure control contacts are stuck open.
D. Neither I nor II D. A suction line is kinked or partially obstructed and blocking
refrigerant circulation.
Ans: D Ans: C
2392 Double trunk pistons are used in some refrigeration compressors 2393 Hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to _____________.
to reduce refrigerant boil off by _____________.

A. increasing compressor volumetric efficiency A. relieve excessive compressor head pressure

B. producing higher compression pressures B. produce flash gas at the expansion valve
C. minimizing free contact between refrigerant and oil in the crankcase C. reduce flooding of the receiver at low loads

D. eliminating the need for a shaft seal D. defrost the evaporator coils
Ans: C Ans: D
2394 When multiple refrigerated boxes are maintaining individual 2395 The best time to check the oil level in the compressor in a typical
temperatures and supplied by a single refrigeration compressor, refrigeration system is when the compressor is stopped after a long
the individual box temperatures are controlled by the period of running. This is because the ____________.
_____________.
A. suction valves oil has had time to mix properly with the refrigerant
A.
B. solenoid valves refrigerant has had time to separate from the oil
B.
C. expansion valves oil trap has been able to return sufficient oil to the sump
C.
D. compressor speed oil heaters are secured; thereby, ensuring that a false level is not
D.
read
Ans: B Ans: B
2396 The presence of flash gas in the high pressure lines of 2397 Inspection of the water-sides of chillers and condensersfor leaking
arefrigeration system is undesireable because ___________. I. tubes should be conducted on a regular basis. How frequently on a
erosion of the TXV valve seat can be increased II. refrigeration minimum basis should these inspectionsbe conducted?
system capacity will be reduced
A. I only A. once a month
B. II only B. once every six months
C. Both I and II C. once a year
D. Neither I nor II D. once every other year
Ans: C Ans: B
2398 A multiple evaporator coil unit is equipped with a suction-pressure 2399 To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system
regulating valve. This valve must be bypassed when pumping while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative
down the system for repairs because reduction of suction pressure humidity in an air conditioning system, you should __________.
would cause the valve to _____________.

A. rupture A. admit only enough fresh outside air to provide proper ventilation

B. open B. reduce the air reheating system load

C. close C. lower the compressor head pressure
D. chatter D. operate the purge recovery unit continuously
Ans: C Ans: A
2400 When purging a gage manifold, which of the fittings listed is 2401 In a refrigeration system, which of the following statements
normally tightened last? describes the actions occurring when a solenoid valve, used in
conjunction with an unloader head, is energized?
A. The hose fitting at the discharge valve is tightened last after purging A. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the valve lifting
the low pressure line. device raising the suction valve off its seat and causing one specific
cylinder to become unloaded.
B. The fittings at the discharge and suction valves of the compressor B. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the underside of
are both closed simultaneously to prevent objective cross flows. the unloading piston, causing it to rise and allowing the recirculating
ports to be opened.
C. The hose fitting at the suction service valve is tightened last after C. When the solenoid valve becomes energized, the valve ports
purging the center connection. become closed, allowing discharge pressure to build up above the
piston, shifting it and causing it to unload.
D. The low pressure hose fitting at the gage manifold is the only fitting D. The solenoid valve allows the refrigerant to pass from the suction
that is connected first and tightened last. chamber to the top of the unloader piston, causing the piston to lift
and unload the cylinder.
 Page 128

Ans: C Ans: D
2402 Which of the following statements describes the accepted method 2403 During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running
for testing a thermostatic expansion valve? excessively, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature
is nearly normal, the suction pressure is slightly above normal, and
the head pressure is low. In this situation, you

A. Heat the bulb by using a halide torch or similar device and observe A. leaking door gaskets
the valve stem movement.
B. Remove the power head from the unit, heat the bulb with a torch B. high cooling water temperature
while using a scale to measure the distance the diaphragm has
moved.
C. Chill the bulb in ice water while observing the compressor for an C. air in the system
increase in suction pressure.
D. Place the sensing bulb in ice water and then warm by hand. D. a shortage of refrigerant
Observe flood-through and temperature change at the suction line.

Ans: D
2404 A refrigeration system is equipped with a reciprocating compressor 2405
and a water cooled condensing unit. If the system is overcharged,
the resulting high head pressure will be caused by _____________.
Ans: A
A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking
discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge
service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over
by hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the comp

A. the expansion valve overfeeding the evaporator A. rising and falling with each stroke
B. a leaking compressor suction valve B. increasing with each stroke
C. an incorrectly adjusted high pressure cutout C. decreasing with each stroke
D. refrigerant flooding the condenser D. decreasing to a vacuum
Ans: D Ans: A
2406 One refrigeration ton is equal to _____________. 2407 Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause _____________.

A. 45kcal/hr A. freezing the expansion valve closed

B. 500kcal/hr B. corrosion of system piping
C. 3,024kcal/hr C. improper temperature regulation
D. 750,000kcal/hr D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
2408 The ratio of the weight of moisture contained in a given volume of
air, to the weight of moisture that the same sample would hold if
saturated, is called the _____________.
A. absolute humidity
B. relative humidity
C. specific humidity
D. total humidity
Ans: B
PUMPS AND EDUCTORS
2409 How is water traveling along the shaft of a centrifugal pump 2410 Which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be installed in a
prevented from entering the shaft bearing? main drainage or evacuation system?
A. Shaft seal A. Reciprocating pump
B. Water flinger B. Centrifugal pump
C. Drain hole C. High pitch rotary vane pump
D. Lantern ring D. Eductor pump
Ans: B Ans: C
2411 Why are removable sleeves installed on centrifugal pump shafts? 2412 A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates 15 cms of water. This
corresponds to a pressure of ____________.
A. They make it easier to replace the pump shaft packing. A. 150 mm WG
B. They can be economically replaced as they wear out. B. 200mm WG
C. They can be removed when it is necessary to lighten the weight of C. 300mm WG
the pump.
D. They increase the strength of the shaft. D. 500mm WG
Ans: B Ans: A
2413 An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often 2414 Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed will
caused by ___________. result in which of the following conditions to occur?
A. defective intake valves A. Loss of suction
B. clogged suction strainers B. Increased clearances
C. scarred cylinder walls C. Decreased clearances
D. clogged drain valves D. Decreased slippage
Ans: B Ans: B
2415 Propeller pumps are used primarily where there is a need to move 2416 If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed electric motor
a large volume of liquid. However, their use is limited by a and produces a discharge pressure less than designed, the cause
maximum total head of ____________. is probably _______________.
A. 6 to 12 metres A. excessive pump speed
B. 10 to 17 metres B. excessive suction head
C. 12 to 20 metres C. worn wearing rings
D. 17 to 24 metres D. gross pump misalignment
Ans: C Ans: C
2417 Which features of a centrifugal pump reduce the need for renewing 2418 A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the
worn impellers and pump casings? _________.
 Page 129

A. Close radial clearance between impeller hub and casing A. water seal pipe is plugged
B. Low rotational speed of impeller B. pump is not primed
C. Removable end plate C. seal ring is improperly located
D. Replaceable impeller and casing wearing rings D. impeller is flooded
Ans: D Ans: B
2419 When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating 2420 If you were operating a centrifugal water service pump with worn
steam pump, the cause may be _____________. wearing rings, the _______________.

A. a loose tappet collar A. pump would be very noisy

B. clogged suction strainers B. pump would vibrate excessively
C. an open snifter valve C. pump would develop insufficient flow
D. misalignment of the crosshead guide D. stuffing box would leak excessively
Ans: D Ans: C
2421 The pump packing gland has been repeatedly tightened by small 2422 A centrifugal pump vibrates excessively during operation. Upon
increments until the gland has bottomed. Which of the actions listed disassembling the pump it is found that the impeller is out of
should be carried out next if the leakage continues to be balance. Without an available spare, you should ____________.
excessive?
A. Replace all of the packing. A. drill holes through the heavy side of the impeller until it balances

B. Replace with larger cross-sectional turns of packing. B. weld counterweights to the light side of the impeller
C. Replace the soft packing with packing turns that are covered with C. remove metal from the heavy side by machining in a lathe
lead wrap.
D. Continue to add more turns of packing. D. acid wash and scrape the heavy side until it balances
Ans: D Ans: C
2423 If the discharge valve is closed before the drive motor is stopped, 2424 In order to properly remove air from the casing of a centrifugal
which of the following types of pumps will most likely be damaged? pump when starting, the pump should have a
___________________.
A. Centrifugal A. positive head
B. Gear B. negative suction head
C. Propeller C. mechanical seal
D. Turbine D. vent valve attached to the casing at the top of the volute
Ans: B Ans: D
2425 Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a 2426 The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of
centrifugal pump is prevented by ______________. _______________.
A. a compressed packing gland A. centrifugal pumps
B. lantern rings between the packing rings B. jet pumps
C. a liquid seal C. propeller pumps
D. the stuffing box gland D. reciprocating pumps
Ans: C Ans: D
2427 Assume identical impeller diameter, width and speed. Which of the 2428 Most pump manufacturers recommend that the suction piping
following impellers will produce the greatest liquid velocity? dimension for centrifugal pumps be ____________.

A. A single stage straight vane impeller
B. A single stage curved vane impeller
C. A dual integeral impeller unit operating at 10% lower speed
D. A dual impeller with multiple stepped curved vanes
Ans: B
2429 A lantern ring is _____________.
A. the bottom ring in a set of piston rings
B. the oil slinger on a spring bearing
C. used to distribute seal water throughout the pump stuffing box
A. one size smaller than the pump suction nozzle
B. the same size as the pump suction nozzle
C. one size larger than the pump suction nozzle
D. installed with a short radius elbow at the pump
Ans: C
2430 A pump is defined as "a device that _____________."
A. produces pressure
B. imparts energy to a fluid to move it from level "A" to level "B"
C. creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations

D. the lifting ring on each running light D. is to develop a pressure differential

Ans: C Ans: B
2431 In which of the following descriptions would centrifugal pump 2432 Most pump manufacturers recommend that the discharge piping for
impeller cavitation most likely occur if the impeller diameters, centrifugal pumps be one size larger than the pump discharge
rotating speed, and liquid temperature are the same? nozzle to __________.

In the second stage of a two-stage pump.

A. A. reduce the pump discharge pressure
A single-stage impeller with straight vanes.
B. B. reduce the frictional losses due to fluid flow
A single-stage impeller with curved vanes.
C. C. increase the pump discharge pressure
A two-stage pump with an operating speed 100 RPM less than
D. D. allow rapid venting of entrained air
specified.
Ans: C Ans: B
2433 The purpose of the wearing rings used in a centrifugal pump is to 2434 Clearances between the impeller hub and casing of a centrifugal
___________________. pump are checked with the use of _____________.

A. prevent an internal explosion in the pump when it is overheated A. wooden wedges

B. enable a visual inspection of the pump while it is running B. an accurate set of feeler gages
C. insure a proper alignment of the pump coupling to the driver C. a machinist's rule
D. accomodate for friction between the impeller and the casing D. a depth micrometer
Ans: D Ans: B
2435 The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a duplex 2436 The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to
reciprocating pump is to ____________. ____________.
A. open the relief valve to prevent accidental starting A. directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped
 Page 130

B. ensure the balance piston is on the downstroke B. directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
C. center the steam pistons in the cylinders C. convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy
D. measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be D. separate air from the liquid being pumped
the same
Ans: C Ans: B
2437 Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created 2438 The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be
by a jet pump or an eductor? adjusted by ____________.
A. Centrifugal force converted into potential energy. A. increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the
piston rod
B. A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid. B. variations in the throttle adjustment
C. A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle. C. twisting the stayrod in a clockwise direction
D. A propeller drawing a fluid through a venturi nozzle. D. changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve
operating rod
Ans: C Ans: D
2439 Which of the following centrifugal pump components converts the 2440 If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to
liquid kinetic energy of velocity to the potential energy of pressure? sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would check for all of the
following EXCEPT ________.
A. Impeller A. the circuit breaker
B. Electric motor B. for leaks in the suction piping
C. Volute C. relief valve is not properly seated
D. Eye D. the suction strainer
Ans: C Ans: A
2441 One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal 2442 If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is
bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the unable to discharge any water, which of the following problems is
_______________. the most probable cause?
A. motor overload will open A. The wearing rings are excessively worn.
B. relief valve will open B. The suction strainer is clogged.
C. pump will overheat C. The discharge valve is clogged.
D. motor will overheat D. The shaft is worn.
Ans: C Ans: B
2443 In a centrifugal pump, the seal piping directs liquid from the 2444 In a reciprocating pump, the position of the pilot valve is controlled
discharge side of the pump to the _____________________. by the position of the ______________.
A. packing gland A. main steam piston valve
B. wearing ring B. piston in the steam cylinder
C. stuffing C. cushioning valve
D. lantern ring D. governor valve spindle
Ans: D Ans: B
2445 Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal 2446 A centrifugal pump attempting to develop flow against a closed
pumps? discharge valve has a/an ______________.
A. They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids. A. capacity of 0%
B. They are started with the discharge valve opened. B. efficiency of 100%
C. The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the C. internal slippage of 0%
rotation of an impeller.
D. They are always mounted in a horizontal position. D. shut off horsepower rating of 100%
Ans: C Ans: A
2447 The capacity of a rotary pump, delivering a constant viscosity fluid, 2448 If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head
will decrease when the discharge pressure is increased, due to becomes air bound, your FIRST response should be to
___________. ______________.
A. decreased suction pressure A. vent the casing
B. increased suction pressure B. close the discharge
C. reduced slippage C. tighten the packing
D. increased slippage D. reprime the pump
Ans: D Ans: A
2449 If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 100 2450 Generally, centrifugal pumps operating without a positive suction
strokes/minute with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 7" stroke, operating head must be primed before they will move liquid on their own. The
with a 90% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump? priming is usually accomplished with a _____________.

A. 105 gpm A. regenerative pump

B. 39 gpm B. rotating liquid piston pump
C. 77 gpm C. jet pump
D. 107 gpm D. turbine pump
Ans: B Ans: B
2451 A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in 2452 To thoroughly pump out the bilges using a horizontally mounted
order to _____________. centrifugal pump, the ___________.
A. establish a back pressure at the labyrinth seal to eliminate leakage A. pump must always be primed

B. equalize pressure on both sides of the suction valve disc B. volute must impart a radial and rotary motion of the water
C. prevent the pump from overheating when operating at shutoff head C. suction side connection must guide the liquid to the lantern rings

D. decrease the net positive suction head D. stuffing box should not be allowed any water leakage
Ans: C Ans: A
2453 A crackling noise coming from a centrifugal pump casing is an 2454 Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will
indication of _______________. ____________.
A. insufficient packing A. cause severe vibration when the pump is operating
B. an oversized lantern ring B. cause excessive leakage past the packing gland
C. excessive suction lift C. cause damage in the stuffing box
 Page 131

D. reversed pump rotation D. allow interstage leakage in the pump casing glands
Ans: C Ans: B
2455 Excessive wear on the packing rings nearest the pump packing 2456 It is possible to mount a double suction centrifugal pump impeller
gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition, with the vanes facing in the wrong direction. This would cause the
is caused by ____________. pump ___________.
A. failure to insert and individually seat the rings, one ring at a time A. head capacity to improve

B. insufficient tightening of the packing gland B. discharge to be reversed

C. failure to tighten the packing gland in a single adjustment C. efficiency to decrease
D. cutting the rings nearest the gland too short D. slippage to decrease
Ans: A Ans: C
2457 Radial thrust developed in high pressure centrifugal pumps can be 2458 The usual symptoms of cavitation in a centrifugal pump is
eliminated by the use of _____________. _______________.
A. single volutes A. noise and vibration
B. a single diffusion nozzle B. an increase in discharge pressure
C. a diffusion ring C. an increase in suction pressure
D. a modified Kingsbury thrust bearing D. lifting of the relief valve
Ans: C Ans: A
2459 If misalignment between a pump and its driving source exceeds 2460 If the shaft packing for a centrifugal pump requires replacement
that specified by the pump manufacturer, the shaft more frequently than normal, a possible cause may be
_________________. __________.
A. flexible coupling will absorb all such misalignment A. worn bearings
B. total end float travel will be excessive B. worn mechanical seals
C. lateral float will be greatly increased C. a flooded pump suction
D. bearings will be overloaded and will fail D. wrong direction of pump rotation
Ans: D Ans: A
2461 When shifting suction from one fresh water tank to another, if the 2462 Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be
fresh water pump loses suction you should___________. used in a steam reciprocating pump?

A. loosen the mechanical seal A. Reinforced rubber packing

B. vent the pump casing B. Wire impregnated high temperature packing
C. check the discharge strainers C. Low pressure braided asbestos packing
D. all of the above D. High pressure graphite packing
Ans: B Ans: D
2463 Which of the following conditions will prevent a shipboard pump 2464 Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear
from achieving its maximum suction lift? pump by _____________.
A. Leaks developed in the suction piping. A. overlapping spaces between gear teeth
B. Friction losses as a result of improperly sized pipe. B. a roller bearing
C. Gases or vapors released in the liquid as a result of greater than C. a stuffing box
normal pressure drops.
D. All of the above. D. the use of shaft end caps
Ans: D Ans: C
2465 Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps 2466 If you heard a "crackling" sound occuring within a centrifugal
handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted pump, the most probable source of the noise would be the
to escape into the atmosphere? ______________.
A. Conventional stuffing box A. shaft sleeves
B. External mechanical seal B. discharge volutes
C. Double mechanical seal C. wearing rings
D. Rubber bellows mechanical seal D. pump suction
Ans: C Ans: D
2467 Closed impellers differ from open impellers in that closed impellers 2468 The factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will
__________. include which of the following conditions?
A. allow liquid to enter the eye from one direction only A. type of pump
B. have side walls which extend from the eye to the outer edge of the B. condition of the shaft
vane tips
C. have small impeller eyes C. length of time in use
D. are not vented above the impeller eye D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
2469 Foot valves are primarily designed to ______. 2470 A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming ________________.

A. give a pump motor or driver positive protection when operating in a A. primarily to lubricate the shaft seals
shutoff condition
B. provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for the impeller shaft B. due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the
stuffing box suction (eye) of the impeller
C. enable a pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting C. to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to
the pump discharge pressure
D. afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and D. in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge
surging line
Ans: C Ans: B
2471 To maintain design discharge pressure from a centrifugal pump, the 2472 In a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration system, the
design clearance must be maintained between the compressor is set up to cycle on and off by the _____________.
______________.
A. shaft and impeller A. pressurestat
B. motor and pump shaft B. high pressure cutout
C. casing and impeller wearing rings C. solenoid valve
D. lantern ring and impeller D. low pressure cutout switch
 Page 132

Ans: C Ans: D
2473 The static suction lift of a pump is the difference in elevation 2474 Which of the following statements represents the advantage of
between the _____________. rotary pumps as compared to reciprocating pumps?
A. centerline of the pump and the level of the liquid in the suction well A. The high discharge pressure of the rotary pumps permits a larger
when the source of liquid is below the pump volume of fluid per unit time than the reciprocating pump.

B. centerline of the pump and the suction liquid level when the source B. Rotary pumps are capable of pumping more fluid than
of liquid is above the pump reciprocating pumps of the same weight.
C. centerline of the pump and the level of the discharge liquid C. Rotary pumps occupy only one-half the space of reciprocating
pumps.
D. liquid levels of the suction and discharge D. Rotary pumps eliminate discharge slippage of the pumped liquid,
while this does not hold true for a reciprocating pump.
Ans: A Ans: B
2475 Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of 2476 A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other
steam to the steam cylinder of a reciprocating pump? pumps, is the ______________.
A. Valve operating differential A. discharge end being smaller than the suction end
B. Crosshead arm B. small size of impeller
C. Pump rod C. lack of moving parts
D. Pilot valve and operating rod D. ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
Ans: D Ans: C
2477 Which of the devices listed is common to all types of pumps? 2478 Lantern rings are provided on centrifugal pumps to ________.

A. A power end and fluid end A. allow illuminated inspection of shaft and packing
B. A propeller and educator B. provide a passage for the stuffing box sealing liquid
C. A volute and impeller C. adjust leakage at the shaft gland
D. A turbine and piston D. allow for distortion of the wearing rings
Ans: A Ans: B
2479 If a centrifugal pump vibrates and is noisy when operating, the 2480 Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of the
cause could be _____________. liquid entering a pump?
A. worn gland sealing shaft A. Suction head
B. worn wearing rings B. Pump head
C. a bent shaft C. Discharge head
D. reversed pump coupling D. Total head
Ans: C Ans: A
2481 Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex 2482 One of the main functions of wearing rings, as used in a centrifugal
reciprocating pump will cause the _____________. pumps, is to _____________.
A. pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for A. maintain radial alignment between the pump impeller and casing
both cylinders
B. pistons to stop in mid-stroke B. absorb all impeller shaft end thrust
C. pump to operate sluggishly C. prevent water leakage to the atmosphere
D. cushioning valves to wear D. prevent wear of the pump casing and/or impeller
Ans: C Ans: D
2483 The seal piping obtains liquid from the discharge side of the pump 2484 Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most
and directs the liquid to the _____________. likely use a propeller type pump?
A. packing gland A. Fluid power transmission system
B. wearing ring B. Main circulating system
C. stuffing C. Steering gear system
D. lantern ring D. Fuel oil service booster system
Ans: D Ans: B
2485 When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves 2486 On many modern tankers, which of the following devices is used to
listed should remain open? reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge?
A. Steam supply valve A. Flinger rings
B. Steam exhaust valve B. Mechanical seals
C. Steam cylinder drain valve C. Shaft sleeves
D. Water cylinder drain valve D. Clipper seals
Ans: C Ans: B
2487 At which of the following intervals must the cargo pump relief 2488 Which of the following intervals do Regulations require the remote
valves on tank vessels be tested? cutout for the fuel oil service pumps to be tested?
A. Prior to each fuel discharge operation. A. Prior to each sailing
B. At least once each voyage. B. Once each month
C. At least once a year. C. At each fire and boat drill
D. At each biennial inspection. D. At each inspection for certification
Ans: C Ans: D
2489 You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, 2490 If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed prime mover
and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is and produces a flow rate less than the designed specifications, the
confirmed when the ______________. cause could be _____________.
A. discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the A. suction absolute pressure greatly exceeds corresponding vapor
discharge pressure pressure of liquid being pumped
B. discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts B. excessive suction head
C. suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to C. pump packing gland misalignment
decrease
D. suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift D. worn wearing rings
Ans: A Ans: D
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2491 When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of 2492 What would be the probable cause if a pump were unable
packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, tomaintain necessary discharge pressure to a system? I. failure of
and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends the coupling used on a close-coupled pump II. fracture of one
_____________. packing gland bolt
A. 45° apart A. I only
B. 90° apart B. II only
C. 120° apart C. Both I and II
D. 180° apart D. Neither I nor II
Ans: B Ans: D
2493 What would be the result of throttling the suction valve tothe point 2494 What would be the probable cause if a pump were unable
where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal tomaintain necessary discharge pressure to a system? I. failure of
pump manufacture? I. The discharge head would be reduced. II. the internal parts of the pump II. failure of the system relief valve
The pump would begin to cavitate.
A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. Both I and II C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II
Ans: B Ans: C
2495 Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require 2496 Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the
lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid
on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of
are required? _____________.
A. Water under negative pressure. A. vapor pockets
B. Water under positive pressure. B. water hammer action
C. Oil under positive pressure. C. fluid friction
D. Oil under negative pressure. D. steam knock
Ans: B Ans: A
2497 A liquid is being transferred by a centrifugal pump. As the liquid 2498 After renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, the
passes through the volute, its velocity decreases and packing should be seated, then the packing gland nuts
______________. _____________.
A. its pressure increases A. left in that position
B. its pressure decreases B. loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
C. the potential energy decreases C. tightened to compress the packing
D. the kinetic energy increases D. loosened, and then retightened until they are only finger tight
Ans: A Ans: D
2499 Which of the following statements is true regarding a positive 2500 A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge
displacement rotary pump? pressure. What corrective action is required?
A. Theoretically, there is no limit to shut off head pressure. A. Replace the wearing rings.
B. Theoretically it is self priming. B. Throttle in on the discharge valve.
C. The discharge side should be protected against excessive pressure C. Replace the wearing rings, shaft, and impeller.
build up via a relief valve.
D. All of the above. D. Throttle in on the suction valve.
Ans: D Ans: A
2501 If a centrifugal pump develops insufficient discharge pressure as a 2502 If a centrifugal pump sealing line becomes restricted while operating
result of worn wearing rings, which of the following corrective under a negative suction head (suction lift), the inner end of the
actions is required? stuffing box will be ___________.
A. Replace the rings. A. under a vacuum and air will tend to leak into the pump
B. Throttle in on the discharge valve. B. sealed by the fluid being pumped and no leakage will occur
C. Always replace the wearing rings and the impeller as a set. C. under pressure and fluid will tend to leak into the pump
D. Throttle in on the suction valve. D. sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring
Ans: A Ans: A
2503 When adding packing to a seal involving motion, you must be 2504 Heavy wear in a particular area of the inner circumference of a
careful to prevent ____________. packing ring may be caused by ____________.
A. excessive friction in the joint A. a high suction head
B. wear of the moving part B. rotating rings
C. deterioration of the packing due to excessive tightening C. badly worn bearings
D. all of the above D. a loose stuffing box gland
Ans: D Ans: C
2505 What would be the result of throttling the suction valve tothe point 2506 The shaft sleeves have recently been replaced on a centrifugal
where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal salt water service pump. The packing gland is now drawn tightly up
pump manufacturer? I. The designed discharge head would be against the casing. Despite the use of standard procedures to
reduced. II. The packing life would be greatly reduced. tighten the packing gland, water continues to pour out along

A. I only A. the sleeves "O" ring seals were not installed

B. II only B. suction head pressure has become excessive
C. Both I and II C. the sealing water flow to the stuffing box is blocked
D. Neither I nor II D. only two sections of the lantern ring were installed
Ans: B Ans: A
2507 A double suction centrifugal pump impeller has been installed in 2508 If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge
the reverse direction, and will ______________. valve closed, the _____________.
A. have a greater head capacity A. motor controller overload would open
B. operate with increased impeller efficiency B. pump would eventually overheat
C. discharge through the suction side of the pump casing C. relief valve would continuously cycle open
D. require more power to turn the shaft D. motor would overheat
Ans: D Ans: B
 Page 134

2509 If the viscosity of the liquid being transferred remains constant as 2510 If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the bearings of the
the discharge pressure increases, the rotary pump condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of ___________.
______________.
A. capacity will increase A. misalignment
B. capacity will decrease B. a plugged water seal line
C. suction pressure will increase C. salt water contamination of the condensate
D. suction pressure will decrease D. worn wearing rings
Ans: B Ans: A
2511 Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is 2512 Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings
usually caused by ____________. in a centrifugal pump, is caused by _________.
A. cavitation A. undertightening the packing
B. electrolysis B. failure to seat the packing rings
C. abrasion C. insufficient lubrication of the packing
D. corrosion D. packing ring rotation
Ans: A Ans: C
2513 One of the many problems occurring with centrifugal pump shaft 2514 When new, a rotary pump is designed to have 0.005 mm clearance
packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing between the rotors and the pump casing in order to develop a 180
gland. If the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition LPM flow rate at 21bar. After one year of operation, the clearance
during the same operating period, the wear is most likely cause has increased to 0.020mm, with the discharge pressure

A. insufficient lubrication of the lantern ring A. less than 180 LPM because of increased clearance
B. packing rings rotating in the stuffing box B. 180 LPM because the pressure is unchanged
C. overtightening the packing in one adjustment C. greater than 180 LPM because of reduced slippage
D. some rings being cut too short D. greater than 180 LPM because of increased efficiency
Ans: C Ans: A
2515 If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the packing on the 2516 When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating
main condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of pumps and deck equipment should be __________.
______________.
A. running at low speed for a long time A. cycled at least once a day
B. excessive condensate recirculation B. cycled once every 4 days
C. defective casing gasket C. cycled once every week
D. worn bearings D. watched carefully while idled
Ans: D Ans: A
2517 A twin-screw, rotary, positive displacement pump is provided with 2518 Which of the following valve arrangements permits the
timing gears. If it were possible to change the lead (pitch) of the reciprocating pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction
screws, which of the following statements would represent the true chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the discharge
effect on the pump characteristics? chamber during the up and down strokes?
A. The longer the lead, the lower the flow rate. A. Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.

B. The shorter the lead, the higher the pressure potential.
C. The longer the lead, the lower the axial velocity.
D. The shorter the lead, the higher the inlet pressure requirements.
B. Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located
in the water chest.
C. One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid
cylinder.
D. Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.

Ans: B Ans: B
2519 The discharge rate or capacity of a centrifugal pump will vary 2520 The discharge head of a centrifugal pump will vary directly with the
directly as the ____________. ______________.
A. change in the impeller diameter A. change in impeller diameter
B. square of the impeller radius B. square of the impeller diameter
C. cube of the impeller diameter C. cube of the impeller diameter
D. impeller efficiency for large changes in its size D. impeller efficiency for large changes in the size of the impeller

Ans: A Ans: B
2521 Theoretically, a double suction impeller is in hydraulic axial balance. 2522 Centrifugal pumps, used to handle hot liquids, must have a
In actuality this balance is rarely achieved due to minimum flow through them under all operating conditions. This flow
_________________. serves to ____________.
A. an unbalanced force exerted from the direction of the impeller A. prevent overheating and damage to pump rotating parts due to
nearest the driving motor rubbing
B. unequal or nonuniform flow to the suction eyes of the impeller B. maintain the net positive suction head of the pump
housing
C. excessive sealing water flow to the stuffing box C. maintain hydraulic differential in the pump impeller passages
D. flexible shaft design which causes rapid wear of the outboard shaft D. purge the pump of noncondensable vapors and gases
bearing
Ans: B Ans: A
2523 To operate a centrifugal fire pump at reduced capacity, you should 2524 Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing box of a
___________________. centrifugal pump ____________.
A. readjust the relief valve A. to help lubricate the shaft packing
B. throttle the suction line B. to limit the outflow of seawater from the stuffing box of a pump
provided with a high suction head
C. throttle the discharge valve C. in place of sealing gages
D. open the priming line D. in place of mechanical seals
Ans: C Ans: A
2525 The centrifugal pump component responsible for converting the 2526 The total static head of a system resisting the operation of a
mechanical energy of the liquid being pumped, to that of kinetic centrifugal pump is the difference in elevation between the
energy is the ____________. __________________.
 Page 135

A. electric motor A. discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level
B. volute B. discharge liquid level and the pump centerline
C. impeller C. suction liquid level and the pump centerline
D. diffusion nozzle D. suction submergence level and the pump discharge
Ans: C Ans: A
2527 When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the 2528 To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a
following precautions should be observed? reciprocating pump, you should __________.
A. Replace all of the packing rings. A. use a packing hook
B. Block off the sealing water connection. B. open the throttle valve and "blow" the old packing out
C. Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft. C. do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing

D. For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between D. open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper
the shaft and packing.
Ans: A Ans: A
2529 Most pump manufacturers recommended that the discharge piping 2530 An advantage of a helical gear pump over a simple gear pump is
for centrifugal pumps be ____________. that the helical gear pump is capable of ___________.

A. one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle A. maintaining a steadier speed
B. the same size as the pump discharge nozzle B. delivering liquids over greater distances
C. one size smaller than the pump discharge nozzle C. operating for longer periods of time
D. installed with a short radius elbow at the pump D. producing a smoother discharge flow
Ans: A Ans: D
2531 When installing a new rotary pump, the suction piping should 2532 The function of a centrifugal pump double volute casing is to
___________________. ____________.
A. be of the same diameter as the pump suction connection A. reduce radial thrust to the impeller
B. be at least one size larger than the pump suction connection B. double the liquid velocity through the pump when compared to a
single volute
C. be the next size smaller than the pump suction connection C. reduce hydraulic end thrust
D. be sloped to the pump D. provide the effect of multi-staging
Ans: B Ans: A
2533 Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or 2534 During the inspection of a low pressure pump, the wearing ring is
pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or determined to have a clearance of 0.3mm - 0.4mm, you should
sleeves? ___________.
A. Heat transfer is restricted. A. replace the worn wearing ring
B. Scoring may result. B. install a new oversized casing ring
C. Valve seat will be damaged. C. machine the worn wearing ring and refit
D. Bonnet corrosion may result. D. leave the existing wearing rings in place
Ans: B Ans: D
2535 Operating a rotary pump at speeds in excess of design 2536 Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam
requirements could cause ____________. reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity?
A. decreased clearances between rotating parts A. Excessive suction lift
B. decreased slippage to the suction side of the pump B. Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber
C. air binding in the discharge ports C. A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the
pump
D. erosion and excessive wear D. All of the above
Ans: D Ans: A
2537 Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, 2538 If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head vibrates,
corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by or becomes noisy, the cause could be ____________.
________________.
A. wearing rings A. excessive pump speed
B. renewable sleeves B. worn wearing rings
C. a hardened sprayed metal coating C. air leakage into suction line
D. internally flooded lantern rings D. insufficient venting
Ans: B Ans: D
2539 Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a 2540 The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the
steam reciprocating pump? ___________.
A. Direct-acting A. total head
B. Diffuser B. discharge head
C. High-pressure C. net positive suction head
D. Vertical D. suction head
Ans: B Ans: B
2541 To absorb the wear resulting from impeller rotation and abrasives 2542 If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated
in the liquid, a centrifugal pump is usually fitted with pressure at the pump suction, the remainder is the
_______________. ______________.
A. lantern rings A. pump head
B. bearings B. total suction head
C. casing volutes C. discharge head
D. wearing rings D. apparent net positive suction head
Ans: D Ans: D
2543 If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually over a 2544 Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a centrifugal
long period of time, you should replace the ____________. pump?

A. packing gland A. Vapor pockets formed in the suction flow stream.

B. mechanical seals B. Rough casing volute surfaces.
C. lantern rings C. Worn wearing rings.
D. wearing rings D. Heavy fluid in the flow stream.
 Page 136

Ans: D Ans: A
2545 Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the 2546 One of the main differences between the various types of screw
bearing housing by the use of ______________. pumps is in the __________.
A. shaft sleeves A. stuffing box diameter
B. lantern rings B. direction of rotation of the screws
C. water flingers C. pitch of the screws
D. water seals D. type of driving gears
Ans: C Ans: C
2547 With respect to centrifugal pump impellers, which of the following 2548 A centrifugal pump designed to handle a liquid with a temperature
descriptions represents the correct centrifugal pump classification? of 120°C or greater must be provided with ___________.

A. Single stage or multistage A. a semi-mechanical seal

B. High pressure or low pressure B. helical grooved wearing rings
C. Open or close coupled C. self adjusting packing
D. Horizontal or vertical D. a liquid seal line
Ans: A Ans: D
2549 The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the 2550 What is a function of the wearing rings used in most centrifugal
centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to ______________. pumps?
A. cool the shaft A. Absorb erosion of high velocity discharge stream.
B. lubricate the packing B. Seal pump shaft against entry of air.
C. seal air from entering along the shaft C. Isolate the discharge side from the suction side.
D. distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box D. Dampen the turbulent discharge flow.
Ans: D Ans: C
2551 The brake horsepower of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as 2552 The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to
the ___________. _____________.
A. diameter of the impeller A. develop a high velocity liquid
B. square of the diameter of the impeller B. convert velocity to pressure
C. cube of the diameter of the impeller C. limit hydraulic end thrust
D. impeller efficiency for large changes in the size of the impeller D. initiate flow

Ans: C Ans: B
2553 If the flow of water from a centrifugal pump is allowed to be stopped 2554 Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material
by closing the discharge valve while the pump continues to run for on mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in
an indefinite period, the ____________. water service?
A. relief valve will open A. Copper.
B. water pressure will lower continually to shut off head B. Copper and carbon.
C. water pressure will tend to rise continuously C. Carbon.
D. liquid may overheat and vaporize D. Bronze.
Ans: D Ans: C
2555 The static suction head of a horizontal centrifugal pump, is the 2556 When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the
difference in elevation between the ____________. cushioning valves should be ______________.
A. discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level A. wide opened
B. discharge liquid level and the pump centerline B. half opened
C. suction liquid level and the pump centerline C. 3/4 opened
D. suction submergence level and the pump discharge D. almost completely closed
Ans: C Ans: D
2557 After the installation of new impeller wearing rings by pressing 2558 When renewing the shaft packing on a centrifugal pump equipped
them onto the pump impeller hub, it is advisable to ____________. with an external liquid sealing supply, you should
________________.
A. dynamically balance the shaft and impeller A. always turn down the shaft in a lathe to ensure a snug fit
B. check the shaft and impeller assembly on centers to see if the ring B. ensure that the lantern ring is aligned with the sealing supply
surfaces are true opening
C. visually inspect the rings after about an hour of service C. check the stuffing box for irregularities with a dial indicator
D. all of the above D. make sure the seal cage is always positioned at the base of the
stuffing box
Ans: B Ans: B
2559 Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo 2560 Which of the listed pumps is NOT a positive displacement pump?
pumps is correct?
A. A pumproom is not necessary. A. Centrifugal
B. The impeller is located at the upper end of the shaft. B. Reciprocating
C. Special priming provisions are necessary. C. Gear
D. The prime mover is connected at the lower portion of the shaft. D. Rotary

Ans: A Ans: A
2561 The diffusion ring installed in many high pressure centrifugal 2562 The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction
pumps, such as feed pumps, ____________. chamber, and the _____________.
A. eliminates axial thrust A. injector
B. imparts kinetic energy to the water passing through the pump B. compressor
C. alleviates the need for a double suction impeller C. diffuser
D. eliminates radial thrust to the impeller D. siphon
Ans: D Ans: C
2563 To prevent air pockets from forming in a centrifugal pump suction 2564 Devices which utilize the rapid flow of a fluid to entrain another fluid
line installed angled from normal, any gate valve should be installed and thereby move it from one place to another are called
with the ____________. _____________.
A. bonnet above suction pipe centerline A. mixed flow pumps
B. centerline above the suction pipe centerline B. jet pumps
 Page 137

C. stem pointing upward at right angles to the pipe C. volute pumps

D. stem horizontal or pointing downward below the pipe D. centrifugal pumps
Ans: D Ans: B
2565 If you heard a "crackling" noise in a centrifugal pump, the most 2566 Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will
probable cause of the problem would be _____________. _______________.

A. insufficient speed A. cause new packing to be torn and scored

B. cavitation B. cause severe pump vibration at operating speed
C. excess discharge pressure C. damage the packing gland stuffing box
D. excessive net positive suction head D. damage the pump casing interstage seals
Ans: B Ans: A
2567 Operating a rotary gear pump far below its rated speed when 2568 One of the many troubles occurring with centrifugal pump shaft
handling low viscosity liquids, will cause its volumetric efficiency to packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing
____________. gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition.
This wear may be caused by ____________.
A. increase steadily as the moving gears develop less vibration A. air entrained in the fluid pumped
B. decrease to where the pump no longer develops flow B. packing rings rotating in the stuffing box
C. remain unchanged due to its positive displacement characteristics C. some packing rings being cut too short

D. fluctuate due to the amount of slip variation D. improper adjustment of the gland nuts
Ans: B Ans: D
2569 The capacity of a rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, 2570 Inspection of a low pressure gear pump for cavitation will usually be
will decrease with an increase in the pump _________. indicated by a wear pattern _____________.

A. discharge volume along the inlet side of the housing

A.
B. suction pressure along the discharge side of the housing
B.
C. steeped speed at the extreme upper and lower peripheries of the housing
C.
D. rotor clearances even throughout the entire periphery of the housing when matched
D.
machined gear sets are used
Ans: D Ans: A
2571 The capacity of a centrifugal pump can be increased by the 2572 Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were
installation of a larger diameter impeller. Another means of using two centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid?
increasing the pump capacity is to _________________.
A. increase speed A. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a
common line.
B. increase the size of the cardent assembly B. Each pump operating at a different speed and discharging into a
common line.
C. reduce wearing ring clearances C. Both pumps operating at the same speed taking suction from a
common line.
D. change the pump to a "close coupled" arrangement D. Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from
a common line.
Ans: A Ans: B
2573 Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump 2574 Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result in an increase
would be indicated by which of the following operational problems? in its capacity. Another means of increasing the capacity of a
centrifugal pump is to increase the _________.
A. The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually A. diameter of the discharge piping, with all other factors remaining the
slackens off to an abnormally low flow. same
B. The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods. B. diameter of the suction piping, with all other factors remaining the
same
C. The motor overcurrent protective device continually shuts the pump C. width of the impeller only
down.
D. Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest. D. diameter of the impeller
Ans: A Ans: D
2575 One of the disadvantages of screw-type positive displacement 2576 A centrifugal pump, normally operated under a positive suction
rotary pumps is that they have ___________. head, has its impeller replaced by one with a larger suction eye.
What effect will this change have on the pump?
A. high internal velocities A. The pump motor will electrically trip off the line.
B. performance characteristics sensitive to viscosity change B. The pump will deliver more gallons per minute at the same RPM.

C. low tolerance for entrained air and gases C. The pump will deliver less gallons per minute at the same RPM.

D. low range of flows and pressures D. The capacity in gallons per minute will not be affected by the
impeller suction eye size.
Ans: B Ans: B
2577 If a horizontal centrifugal pump becomes air bound, the pump 2578 A centrifugal pump operating against a closed discharge valve has
should be vented at the _____________. a/an ______________.
A. suction line A. capacity of 100%
B. discharge flange B. efficiency of 0%
C. top of the volute C. internal slippage of 0%
D. bottom of the casing D. shut off horsepower rating of 100%
Ans: C Ans: B
2579 Which of the listed statements is correct concerning the starting of 2580 If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated with the
centrifugal pumps? discharge valve closed the ____________.
A. They should always be started with the discharge valve closed. A. motor overload would open
 Page 138

B. They should always be started with the discharge valve opened. B. relief valve would open

C. A priming pump is always required to flood the impeller suction. C. pump would eventually overheat

D. They should always be started with the sealing line valves closed. D. motor would overheat

Ans: A Ans: C
2581 Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the 2582 When operating with a negative suction head, which of the following
suction of a centrifugal pump is a result of ____________. types of pumps will require priming?
A. cavitation A. Reciprocating
B. water hammer B. Centrifugal
C. fluid friction C. Rotary
D. steam knock D. Gear
Ans: A Ans: B
2583 The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the 2584 A centrifugal pump must have a stuffing box liquid sealing line and
centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to ______________. seal cages installed if the pump _____________.
A. cool the shaft A. suction head is high, and is handling a cool, debris free liquid
B. lubricate the packing B. is handling a liquid with a temperature of less than 66oC
C. seal air from entering along the shaft C. suction lift exceeds 250mm Hg Vac
D. distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box D. discharge is less than 2kg/cm
Ans: D Ans: C
2585 If a centrifugal pump is being driven by a steam turbine and the 2586 The proper design of a centrifugal pump must include a seal cage
discharge valve is closed off, the pump will __________. and sealing line when the pump _______________.
A. slow down A. takes suction from a low temperature pressurized tank
B. run cooler B. takes suction from a hot well
C. speed up by 5% until the discharge valve is reopened C. is handling a liquid at less than 66°C
D. no longer continue to internally convert the resultant energy D. has a high positive suction head
imparted to the pump
Ans: D Ans: B
2587 One of three available centrifugal salt water service pumps is in 2588 Two individual centrifugal pump impellers of the same diameter,
operation with a sea water temperature of 10°C. The cooling width, and rotating speed are to be compared, one is cast with
temperature of all systems supplied by this pump appear to be straight vanes, the other with curved vanes. Which of the following
high. Therefore, you should ___________. statements is correct?
A. only need to start a second pump and operate it in parallel A. The straight vane impeller develops a higher level of kinetic energy.

B. start a second pump and place it on line, close the discharge valve B. The straight vane impeller has the potential for producing a greater
on the original pump and watch for a rise in the discharge pressure discharge pressure.

C. after starting the second pump open the casing vent valve of the
first pump, then secure the first pump
D. after starting the second pump secure the first pump and do
nothing else with the salt water service system
Ans: B
2589 A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting discharge head
by energy conversion. It is typical for the energy conversion to
follow the order of ______________.
A. mechanical energy to kinetic energy to potential energy
C. The curved vane impeller is less likely to develop cavitation.
D. The curved vane impeller will develop a greater increase in the
liquid velocity.
Ans: D
2590 Which of the following statements about pump operations is NOT a
correct statement?
A. In order for a fluid to be pumped, a fluid must be made to flow.

B. mechanical energy to potential energy to kinetic energy
C. potential energy to mechanical energy to kinetic energy
D. kinetic energy to mechanical energy to potential energy
Ans: A
2591 The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is
operating as designed, is to ____________.
A. closely observe the pump discharge temperature
B. close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
B. A substance must be cold in order for it to be pumped.
C. The kinetic energy imparted by the pump can be used to force a
liquid through a hydraulic system.
D. A pump must receive its energy from an external source.
Ans: B
2592 Which pump installation would require an external source of sealing
water?
A. Main circulator pump jacket water cooling
B. Salt water service pump

C. momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in C. Auxiliary condensate pump
pressure
D. use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past D. Bilge pump
records
Ans: B Ans: D
2593 If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, 2594 When replacing packing rings in the stuffing boxes of reciprocating
operating at unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid pump piston rods, the ends of the rings should be cut
through a common discharge line, the higher speed pump may _________________.
cause the slower pump to ___________.

A. stop A. square
B. turn backward B. beveled
C. overheat C. step-designed
D. overspeed the driving end D. diagonal
Ans: C Ans: A
2595 What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump 2596 A multistage centrifugal pump can be BEST described as having
shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection? _____________.
 Page 139

A. Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for A. two or more impellers housed together in one casing and mounted
lubrication. on a single shaft
B. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve B. a single stepped impeller mounted in a progressively staged casing
bore.
C. Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower C. a large radial clearance between the impeller and casing to prevent
speed. overheating due to friction
D. Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve. D. an increase in the discharge velocity of the liquid with a
corresponding decrease in pressure through the stages
Ans: D Ans: A
2597 A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be 2598 An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will
____________. _________________.
A. repaired by a suitable welding process A. increase discharge pressure
B. straightened by applying heat and torsion B. decrease pump capacity
C. reconditioned by metallizing and machining C. decrease pump cavitation
D. replaced with a satisfactory spare D. decrease reaction ring clearance
Ans: D Ans: B
2599 Which of the units of measurement listed below are used to 2600 Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for
express positive and negative suction heads when calculating pumping oil because _____________.
pump head or hydraulic horsepower?
A. Inches of mercury for positive head and feet of water for negative A. stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated
head with other gear pumps
B. Feet of water for positive head and inches of mercury for negative B. it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this
head pump
C. Inches of mercury for both positive and negative heads C. they are essentially self-priming and produce a high suction lift

D. Feet of water for both positive and negative heads
Ans: D
2601 The static suction head of a pump is the _____________. 2602
A. distance of the suction liquid level above the center line of the pump
B. distance the suction liquid level is below the center line of the pump
D. these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
Ans: C
How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation
of a spur gear pump?
A. The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump
operation.
B. The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.

C. force necessary to overcome frictional losses in the pump and C. The pump can only be used for light oils.
piping
D. amount in inches of mercury the total suction head is below D. The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.
atmospheric pressure
Ans: A Ans: A
2603 To maintain the design discharge pressure of a centrifugal pump, 2604 A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves
the clearance between the ____________. _____________.
A. impeller and lantern ring is critical A. slightly opened
B. impeller and casing wearing rings is critical B. throttled
C. packing box and packing gland is critical C. fully opened
D. gland seal and packing gland is critical D. halfway opened
Ans: B Ans: C
2605 As sometimes utilized with centrifugal pumps operating with a high 2606 Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for
suction lift, foot valves are primarily designed to _______________. pumping oil because _____________.

A. give the pump motor, or driver, positive protection when operating A. stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated
in a shutoff condition with other gear pumps
B. provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for the impeller shaft B. helical gear pumps are essentially self-priming and produce high
stuffing box suction lift
C. enable the pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to C. closely maintained design clearances in this pump is not necessary
starting the pump
D. afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and D. helical gear pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
surging
Ans: C Ans: B
2607 Which of the following problems will occur when the suction valve is 2608 A centrifugal pump with a double volute casing operated at greater
throttled on a centrifugal pump not designed to operate in this than design capacity, will ________.
manner?
A. The pump will immediately overheat and seize. A. be less susceptible to shaft deflection than a similar pump with a
single volute casing operated under the same conditions

B. Pump efficiency is reduced and cavitation will be induced. B. be more susceptible to shaft deflection than a similar pump with a
single volute casing operated under the same conditions

C. The pump packing will fail causing irrepairable damage to the pump C. develop excessive radial thrust and resultant shaft deflection
shaft.
D. Pump capacity is reduced and overall efficiency will be increased. D. develop excessive radial thrust and resultant impeller deflection

Ans: B Ans: A
2609 Which of the following statements represents the main difference 2610 In most horizontally split centrifugal pump casings, wearing rings
between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the are prevented from rotating by _____________.
shaft of a centrifugal pump?
A. Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical A. swelling the wearing rings into the casing
seals are not.
 Page 140

B. Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being
pumped, but mechanical seals do not require cooling.
C. If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by
tightening the gland, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be totally
renewed to stop the leakage.
D. The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but
the sealing surface of a packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.
B. using wear rings with a larger than normal outside diameter and
having the casing "crush" them in place
C. using one dowel pin pressed into the side of the ring, then fitting the
pin into a hole drilled into the side of the casing ring grove
D. using an extended lip formed on one half of the ring and using the
upper casing half to trap the lip when the casing is reassembled

Ans: C Ans: D
2611 When a centrifugal pump is operating with a positive suction head, 2612 Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the
the inner end of the stuffing box is _____________. operation of a centrifugal cargo pump?
A. under a vacuum and air tends to leak into the pump through the A. Oil is discharged from the center of the impeller through the outlet.
shaft stuffing box
B. under a pressure and fluid tends to leak from the pump along the B. Gravity causes the oil to flow toward the discharge.
shaft and through the stuffing box
C. sealed by a vacuum and no leakage will occur C. The self-priming feature of the centrifugal pump enables it to draw
its own suction as it starts.
D. sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring D. The discharge capacity varies directly with the speed of the
impeller.
Ans: B Ans: D
2613 Pump efficiency may be lost as a result of _______________. 2614 Centrifugal pumps are designed with sealing lines _________.

A. air entering the pump through a pin hole leak in the discharge
manifold
B. a leak in a gasket on the suction side of the pump
C. the suction valve in the wide open position
D. the pump being installed too close to the suction tank
Ans: B
2615 Which of the following actions should be taken if during a routine
maintenance inspection of a centrifugal pump, localized scoring on
a pump shaft sleeve is detected?
A. Correct the cause of the scoring and repair the sleeve or replace
with a new one.
B. Reassemble the unit and provide more water leak off for proper
lubrication.
C. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial faces to the sleeve
bores.
D. Reassemble the unit and adjust the governor to obtain a slower
speed.
Ans: A Ans: A
2617 Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier 2618
than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?
A. to prevent the fluid being pumped from pouring out of the stuffing
box when a high suction head is available
B. in place of mechanical seals
C. in place of slinger rings
D. to prevent air from entering the pump casing along the shaft
Ans: D
2616 To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the
stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried
out?
A. Tighten the packing in small increments while the pump is
operating.
B. Lubricate the packing with cylinder oil before installing new turns of
packing.
C. Tightening the gland in all the way and then backing it off slightly.
D. Operating the pump slowly and applying oil freely to the shaft until
the packing is properly seated.
Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical
seals?

A. Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller. A. They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any
service other than saltwater.
B. The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear B. They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps.
pump.
C. One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase C. They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped.
has been completed.
D. The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two. D. Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal
surfaces may be reduced by monthly adjustment of the spring
compression.
Ans: C Ans: C
2619 Lead wrapped flexible packing, rated for temperatures of up to 2620 Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to
232°C and shaft speeds up to 1000 RPM, will not be suitable for reduce the wear of the lobe edges?
use with _________________.
A. monel metal shafts A. Gibs
B. steel shafts B. Spur gears
C. bronze shafts C. Casing gears
D. cast iron shafts D. Liner plates
Ans: C Ans: A
COMPRESSED AIR SYSTEM
2621 The process of removing moisture from air is known as 2622 Increasing the moisture content of conditioned air is known as
_____________. _____________.
A. humidification A. moisturizing
B. dehumidification B. dehumidification
C. vaporization C. dampening
D. evaporation D. humidification
Ans: B Ans: D
2623 A first stage unloader installed in a low pressure air compressor is 2624 A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a
unable to completely retract. This will result in low pressure reciprocating air compressor will ______________.
_________________.
A. overheating of the discharge valve A. prevent the valve from wire drawing
B. loss of moisture in the air charge in the receiver B. retard the opening and closing of the valve
C. frequent lifting of the intercooler relief valve C. have no effect on compressor operation
D. an abnormally low intercooler pressure D. provide quieter valve operation
 Page 141

Ans: D Ans: B
2625 The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to 2626 Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented
_____________. by the _____________.
A. drain water from the air receiver A. aftercooler relief valve
B. drain water from the cylinders B. intercooler relief valve
C. delay the compression process until the motor is up to speed C. last-stage unloader
D. check pump alignment D. first-stage unloader
Ans: C Ans: B
2627 Air blowing from the intake air filter of an operating air compressor 2628 One method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up
indicates ___________. is accomplished by ____________.
A. broken inlet valves A. holding the L.P. discharge valve open
B. broken discharge valves B. the use of a precharged accumulator
C. pulsations in the air distribution system C. using a temporarily opened cylinder clearance pocket
D. overloading of the air distribution system D. temporarily discharging to the air receiver
Ans: A Ans: C
2629 In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency 2630 To obtain maximum efficiency, two stage air compressors are
normally results from _______________. usually ____________.
A. adiabatic compression in the intercooler A. horizontally mounted
B. heating of the air leaving the cylinders B. never fitted with intake filters
C. inaccurate valve timing C. fitted with intercoolers
D. constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume D. operated in an unloaded condition at all times
Ans: B Ans: C
2631 In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the 2632 Which of the listed operating conditions would have the greatest
cylinder walls and liners, which of the listed types of pistons are effect on the volumetric efficiency of an operating reciprocating air
used in modern low pressure air compressors? compressor?
A. Differential A. The density of the air entering the compressor.
B. Trunk B. The temperature of the air entering the compressor
C. Barrel C. The designed rotating speed of the compressor.
D. Valve-in-head D. A leaking head gasket.
Ans: B Ans: D
2633 Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for 2634 Which of the following problems can result in below normal
the faulty operation of a reciprocating air compressor suction valve? pressure in the intercooler of an operating low pressure air
compressor?
A. Carbon build up in the piston ring belt. A. Defective pressure pilot valve
B. Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader. B. Defective receiver relief valve
C. Compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity. C. Leaking intake valves on the high pressure cylinder
D. Lifting of intercooler relief valve. D. Leaking discharge valves on the low pressure cylinder
Ans: B Ans: D
2635 If an electric motor driven air compressor fails to start, it may be due 2636 Excessive lube oil consumption in a reciprocating air compressor is
to a _______________. an indication of _____________.
A. leaking discharge valve A. leakage in the aftercooler
B. jammed suction valve B. leakage in the intercooler
C. tripped overload relay C. worn or broken piston rings
D. broken discharge unloader D. defects in the high pressure unloader
Ans: C Ans: C
2637 If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing, you should 2638 On small, low pressure, air compressors, the cylinders are usually
fix them by ____________. lubricated by the _____________.
A. spraying oil on the belts A. splash method
B. tightening the belts B. mechanical force feed lubricators
C. loosening the belts C. detached sump method
D. installing wider belts D. internal cooling passages in the crankshafts and connecting rods

Ans: B Ans: A
2639 The piston displacement rate of a reciprocating air compressor 2640 Air compressor receivers should be "blown down" at least
can be modified by changing the _____________. _____________.

A. piston speed A. yearly

B. compressor capacity B. quarterly
C. volumetric efficiency C. monthly
D. total pressure D. daily
Ans: A Ans: D
2641 Intake valves installed on most reciprocating low pressure air 2642 When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air
compressors are actuated by the pressure differential between the compressor and is used as an aftercooler, the reservoir must be
air in the cylinder and the pressure __________. ___________.

A. of the air on the external side of the valve A. fitted with a manhole
B. of the push rod and rocker arm assembly B. frequently drained of condensed water
C. sensed by the receiver low pressure limit switch C. fitted with a moisture trap at the inlet
D. sensed by the intercooler diaphragm valve D. fitted with a sight glass
Ans: A Ans: B
2643 A knocking sound emitted from an unloaded air compressor is 2644 The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure air
probably caused by _____________. compressors are cooled by _____________.
A. damaged intake valves A. water
B. excessively tight mounting bolts B. oil
C. insufficient cylinder lubrication C. air
D. a loose piston D. CO2
 Page 142

Ans: D Ans: C
2645 An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an 2646 A squealing sound occurring from within an operating reciprocating
aftercooler to _____________. air compressor is an indication of __________.
A. inject water vapor into the compressed air A. compressor overload
B. prevent overheating of first stage valves B. motor overload
C. increase compressor efficiency and economy C. tight compressor bearings
D. reduce the compressed air charge density D. badly leaking unloaders
Ans: C Ans: C
2647 If the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor gradually drops off, 2648 If there is a sudden drop in the capacity of a reciprocating air
the cause could be ____________. compressor, you should check for ____________.
A. leaking compressor valves A. broken compressor valves
B. a clogged air filter B. worn piston rings or cylinder liners
C. worn cylinder liners C. excessive compressor speed
D. all of the above D. a defective pressure switch or pilot valve
Ans: D Ans: A
2649 Reciprocating air compressor bearing failure may result from 2650 Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will
_________________. cause ____________.
A. a misaligned crankshaft A. carbon deposits on valves and pistons
B. overtightened drive belts B. serious wear on valves and pistons
C. contaminated sump oil C. a clogged air intake
D. all of the above D. excessive compressor discharge pressure
Ans: D Ans: B
2651 Which of the following frequent maintenance procedures is required 2652 The heat of compression is partially removed from compressed air
of compressed air receivers? by ____________.
A. A close watch on the temperature. A. intercoolers
B. Constant cleaning to remove oil and dirt. B. aftercoolers
C. Constant testing of the relief valves. C. compressor water jackets
D. Frequent draining of water. D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
2653 An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler to 2654 If a reciprocating air compressor has a knock occurring in frequency
_____________. I. increase the efficiency of the compressor with its operating RPM, the cause is probably ____________.
II. reduce the cylinder operating temperature
A. I only A. misalignment or worn main bearings
B. II only B. insufficient cylinder lubrication
C. Both I and II C. defective or poorly fitted valves
D. Neither I nor II D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: A
2655 According to Regulations , all pressure vessels other than unfired 2656 A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on
steam boilers shall be protected by pressure-relieving devices that the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. a
prevent the pressure from rising more than __________ above the decrease in volumetric efficiency of the compressor II. higher
maximum allowable working pressure. volume of air to be discharged to the receiver

A. 5 percent A. I only
B. 10 percent B. II only
C. 15 percent C. Both I and II
D. 20 percent D. Neither I nor II
Ans: B Ans: D
2657 One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a 2658 If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor becomes fouled
centrifugal pump is the absence of a ______________. either internally or externally, the _______________.
A. volute in the centrifugal type pump A. total capacity will be reduced
B. volute in the propeller type pump B. volumetric efficiency will be decreased
C. velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump C. discharge pressure will decrease
D. reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump D. normal running time will be decreased
Ans: B Ans: B
2659 Why should a person performing maintenance on an air 2660 If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor are loose,
compressor wire and tag the system valves closed? which of the conditions below will occur?
A. To prevent the unexpected. A. The drive belts will squeal
B. To protect the equipment. B. The unloaders will jam shut
C. To protect the operator performing the maintenance. C. The compressor will vibrate
D. Each of the above is correct. D. The intercooler will leak
Ans: D Ans: C
2661 Intercooling of a multistage air compressor provides the 2662 When one belt of a multiple V-belt compressor drive requires
advantages of reducing the work of compression on the replacement, all of the belts must be replaced, because
succeeding stages, and ____________. _____________.
A. condensing part of the original water vapor content A. the old belts would otherwise carry all the load
B. reducing the maximum piston loads B. new belts are shorter than old belts
C. increasing the volumetric efficiency C. new belts have a tendency to slip
D. all of the above D. all the above
Ans: D Ans: B
2663 The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors are held 2664 A squealing sound generated by an operating reciprocating air
in place by _____________. compressor would indicate _________________.
A. discharge pressure in the safety return line A. loose drive belts
B. large teflon gaskets B. badly leaking valves
C. heavy coil springs C. compressor interstage leakage
D. tack welding on the sides D. tight drive belts
Ans: C Ans: A
 Page 143

2665 Which of the following is the probable cause for a motor driven, low 2666 When air compressors are arranged for automatic operation, the
pressure, reciprocating air compressor to repeatedly trip the circuit cylinders can be unloaded during starting and stopping by
breaker upon starting? _____________.
A. Defective pressure switch A. bypassing the discharge to suction
B. Leaking suction unloader B. fitting depressors which hold the suction valve plates on their seats

C. Compressor starting against full load C. step unloading the cylinders in a multi-cylinder machine
D. Compressor starting without any load D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
2667 If a ship service air compressor failed to unload, the 2668 Aftercoolers are used with air compressors to _____________.
________________.
A. compressor would dangerously overspeed A. reduce the temperature of compressed air
B. air receiver pressure would be excessively low B. decrease the density of compressed air
C. circuit breaker may open on starting C. dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air
D. compressor would pump lube oil D. ensure complete expansion of the compressed air
Ans: C Ans: A
2669 Leaking valves in a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor 2670 If a ship service air compressor operating in intermittent service
can result from _______________. were failing to unload, the ____________.
A. excessive compressor discharge pressure A. compressor would stop abruptly when power was secured
B. operating the compressor at excessive speed B. compressor would run continuously
C. uneven piston stroke in the compressor C. air receiver indicated pressure would be excessively low
D. abrasion by dust and dirt D. compressor would require more than the normal amount of
lubrication
Ans: D Ans: A
2671 Excessive lube oil consumption by a reciprocating air compressor 2672 Which of the following problems could cause air to blow out through
can be caused by ____________. the inlet air filter of a running compressor?
A. using a slightly dirty air filter A. Excessive compression in the cylinder
B. using oil having an excessive viscosity B. A broken intake valve
C. intercooler or aftercooler leaks C. A dirty inlet filter element
D. carrying the oil level higher than normal D. An improperly adjusted discharge valve
Ans: D Ans: B
2673 After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from 2674 If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the
air compressor inlet and discharge valves is to use combustion control system and other pneumatic controllers, the
_____________. entire system is known as the __________.
A. ammonia A. control air system
B. diesel oil B. forced draft air system
C. gasoline C. supply air system
D. naphtha D. ships service air system
Ans: B Ans: A
2675 A dirty intercooler on the ship service air compressor will result in 2676 Slipping drive belts on a ship service air compressor is a probable
________________. symptom of ___________________.
A. decreased compression ratio A. low lube oil viscosity
B. higher than normal power consumption B. fouled intercoolers
C. unloader malfunction C. a failed unloader
D. water in the lubricating oil D. high air receiver pressure
Ans: B Ans: C
2677 A dirty intercooler on an air compressor will cause _______. 2678 Air line lubricators are used in compressed air systems to lubricate
______________.
A. damage to the unloader operating diaphragm A. the suction and discharge valves
B. an increase in current flow to the motor B. tools and equipment served by compressed air
C. high pressure in the receiver and refrig-a-filter C. air line reducing valves
D. an excessive consumption of crankcase oil D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: B
2679 If an air compressor is used to supply compressed air to outlets 2680 Which of the following statements represents the path of air flow
throughout the engine room and on deck of a vessel, the system is passing through a typical two stage, low pressure, reciprocating, air
known as the _______________. compressor?
A. combustion control air system A. Intercooler, L.P. cylinder, H.P. cylinder, and air cleaner
B. supply air system B. L.P. cylinder, air cleaner, intercooler, and H.P. cylinder
C. ship's service air system C. Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, H.P. cylinder, and intercooler
D. low pressure deck air system D. Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, intercooler, and H.P. cylinder
Ans: C Ans: D
2681 When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, it will be 2682 A knocking sound from one cylinder of an operating air compressor
necessary to _____________. indicates ____________.
A. ensure the proper belt dressing is applied A. a defective or broken high pressure unloader
B. ensure the seasoned belts are reinstalled in their proper sequence B. a loose valve plate

C. season the new belt prior to installation C. excessive overload

D. replace the entire belt set D. no compression
Ans: D Ans: B
2683 Which of the following statements describes the function of an air 2684 An important point of consideration when replacing a dry type intake
compressor intake filter? filter on an air compressor is to ____________.
A. Protects against suction valve float. A. use the same wetting oil on the element as is used in the
compressor lubrication system
B. Provides a positive pressure on the air inlet valves. B. install a smaller size filter to allow for expansion of the element
 Page 144

C. Prevents lubricating oil contamination of the compressed air supply. C. install only a filter consisting of a treated paper element

D. Protects against the damaging effects of airborne solid particles. D. select the proper size filter so that air flow is not restricted

Ans: D Ans: D
2685 In addition to a pressure gage and a relief valve, an air receiver 2686 A reciprocating air compressor is running roughly and vibrating
should be fitted with a _____________. excessively, indicating that the ____________.
A. sight glass and manhole A. compressor is overloaded
B. thermometer and sight glass B. motor is overloaded
C. thermometer and manhole C. foundation bolts are loose
D. drain connection D. belts are too tight
Ans: D Ans: C
2687 If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 160 2688 A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on
strokes/minute, with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 9" stroke and the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. the
operating with 85% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this motor to run warmer than usual II. lower density air discharged to
pump? the receiver
A. 150 gpm A. I only
B. 225 gpm B. II only
C. 300 gpm C. Both I and II
D. 75 gpm D. Neither I nor II
Ans: C Ans: A
2689 A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on 2690 The unloading of an air compressor may be provided
the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. a high by_________. I. holding the intake valve off of its seat II.
consumption of lube oil II. higher than normal air pressure in the temporarily relieving the the intercooler to the atmosphere
receiver
A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. Both I and II C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II
Ans: A Ans: C
2691 A V-belt that is too tight will cause excessive wear of both the belt 2692 Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air intake filter
and the _____________. can result in a/an ___________.
A. shaft of the prime mover A. immediate piston damage
B. compressor slave pulley B. immediate clogging of the intake
C. main bearing of the compressor C. possible explosion in the compressor
D. prime mover drive pulley D. deposit of carbon on the valves
Ans: C Ans: C
2693 For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multistage 2694 If a ship service air compressor failed to unload the
air compressor, interstage cooling will ________. ___________________.
A. increase the power required for compression A. compressor would run continuously
B. decrease the power required for compression B. air receiver pressure would be excessively low
C. allow isothermal compression of the air charge C. belts could slip when starting
D. allow the compressed air volume to remain constant D. compressor would pump lube oil
Ans: B Ans: C
2695 If the intercooler relief valve lifts while an air compressor is 2696 A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two stage, high
operating under load, you should check for pressure, air compressor can cause excessively high
___________________. ________________.
A. a defective pressure switch or pilot valve A. second stage discharge pressure
B. a leak in the intercooler piping B. first stage discharge pressure
C. leakage through the low pressure unloader control diaphragm C. pressure in the aftercooler

D. leaking high pressure discharge valves D. compressor final discharge temperature

Ans: D Ans: B
2697 Leaking valves in an air compressor can be a result of 2698 Condensate must be drained periodically from the air compressor
_______________. receivers to prevent _____________.
A. excessive discharge pressure A. second stage cylinder lockup
B. abrasion, dust, and dirt B. oil sump contamination
C. excessive compressor speed C. faulty operation of pneumatic valves
D. irregular compression strokes D. corrosion of air receiver baffles
Ans: B Ans: C
2699 The pressure developed in the high pressure cylinder of a 2700 The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating air compressor, is the
reciprocating air compressor, in order to assure an output near the ratio of the _________________.
end of its compression stroke, is ____________.
A. the same as the line discharge pressure A. adiabatic work of compression to the indicated horsepower
B. below the line discharge pressure B. work of isothermal compression to the brake horsepower of the
motor
C. constant throughout the discharge period C. air indicated horsepower from indicator cards to the brake
horsepower input
D. above the line discharge pressure D. actual amount of air discharged by the compressor, to the
theoretical volume swept by the movement of the compressor
piston
Ans: D Ans: D
2701 The air charge leaving an intercooler, or aftercooler of an air 2702 The unloading system on an air compressor will ____________.
compressor can be expected to be ___________.
A. superheated A. increase compressor discharge pressure on demand
B. supercooled B. increase compressor operating speed as necessary
 Page 145

C. at or below the dew point C. allow the motor to turn the compresser opposed only by friction

D. all of the above D. reduce the compressor frictional load when starting
Ans: C Ans: C
2703 Air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the compressor to 2704 Regulations specifically prohibit seats or disks in pressure vessel
_____________. relief valves to be made of ________________.
A. vary their speed according to temperature and load A. cast iron
B. start and come up to speed before air compression begins B. bronze
C. change speed according to overload demands C. brass
D. reduce compressed air charge density D. stainless steel
Ans: B Ans: A
2705 If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you 2706 If the electric motor driving an air compressor fails to start, the
should _____________. cause may be a _____________.
A. replace that belt only A. leaking unloader
B. replace all of the belts B. tripped circuit breaker
C. dress the worn belt C. control line leak
D. adjust belt tension D. defective pop valve
Ans: B Ans: B
2707 Carbon deposits forming on the discharge valves of an air 2708 Air compressors are equipped with unloading systems for the
compressor are caused by oil deterioration under high pressure. purpose of _____________.
The first step in reducing these deposits would be to
_____________.
A. reduce the discharge temperatures A. removing all but the frictional load during starting
B. increase the compression ratio B. relieving intercoolers of high temperature buildups
C. use a high viscosity oil C. providing high starting torque in the drive motor
D. increase the oil volatility D. seating valve plates during compressor shutdown
Ans: A Ans: A
2709 Unloading of a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor at start- 2710 Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a
up can be accomplished by ______________. reciprocating air compressor is caused by _______________.

A. holding the L.P. discharge valve open A. leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder
B. the use of a precharged accumulator B. leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder
C. using a permanently enlarged clearance expansion volume C. insufficient intercooler cooling
D. temporarily discharging back to the compressor intake D. low ambient air pressure
Ans: D Ans: A
2711 On a medium pressure, differential piston, reciprocating air 2712 Broken valve strips in an operating low pressure, air compressor
compressor, lubrication of the pistons/cylinders is usually will cause ____________.
accomplished _____________.
A. by the splash method A. an immediate crankcase explosion
B. with metering type cylinder lubricators B. oil contamination in the compressed air
C. gravity fed lubricators C. a decrease in compressor capacity
D. lube oil flow from the bearing lube oil system D. no immediate loss of the compressed air capacity
Ans: B Ans: C
2713 Which of the listed valve types is typically used as inlet and 2714 The function of the springs used with channel or plate-type valves
discharge valves on modern low pressure air compressors? for reciprocating air compressors is to ____________.

A. Poppet A. open the valves during downward strokes

B. Rotary B. provide positive closing of the valves
C. Reed C. reduce compressor discharge pulsations
D. Sliding D. reduce air intake and exhaust pulsations
Ans: C Ans: B
2715 According to Regulations , a welded repair to be made to a ships 2716 The major difference between the discharge and suction valves
service air receiver, other than an emergency repair at sea, must installed in most low pressure, reciprocating air compressors is that
be ____________. ___________.
A. inspected and tested by the chief engineer before it may be A. one valve seats upwards, while the other seats downwards
returned to service
B. completed and then tested at least twice prior to notifying the B. the reed valves used on the discharge are made substantially
Administration to ask for a surveyor thicker and heavier than the suction valves
C. made with a backing strip to ensure full penetration C. the suction valve springs exert a greater tension than the discharge
valve springs
D. made only with the prior approval of the Administration D. the discharge valve springs exert a greater tension than the suction
valve springs
Ans: D Ans: A
2717 One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to 2718 Cylinder inlet valve failure in a low pressure air compressor can be
_____________. caused by _______________.
A. dry the air discharged from the intercooler A. carbon buildup on the pistons from excessive lubrication
B. minimize the system's line pulsations B. compressor overspeeding due to mechanical failure in the
unloader
C. receive exhaust air from pneumatic accessories C. valve pounding due to valve covers being excessively tight
D. remove all traces of oil from the air D. sticking valves due to carbon buildup on the seats
Ans: B Ans: D
2719 An unloader is installed on an air compressor to __________. 2720 An air compressor can be unloaded at start-up by __________.

A. bypass the high pressure stage to the low pressure stage on 100% A. holding the discharge valve open
of the air compressors in service
B. prevent excessive interstage pressure buildup B. relieving the intercooler pressure to the atmosphere
 Page 146
C. control compressor discharge pressure
D. remove all but the frictional load during starting
Ans: D
2721 Which of the following statements is true concerning the overall
efficiency of air compressors?
A. High pressure compressors are more efficient than low pressure
compressors.
B. Mechanical efficiency divided by compressor efficiency will equal
the overall efficiency of the compressor unit.
C. Two stage compressors are generally more efficient than single
stage compressors.
D. The volumetric efficiency is decreased in multistage compressors.
Ans: C
2723 Which of the following statements is true concerning V-belt drives
for reciprocating air compressors?
A. Belts generally stretch slightly during the first few months of use.
B. An excessively tight belt will overload the bearings.
C. A loose belt will slip on the motor pulley and wear rapidly.
D. All of the above.
Ans: D
2725 Condensate must be drained from the intercooler and aftercoolers
of an air compressor because _____________.
A. the cooling effect of the condensate reduces the compressor's
efficiency
B. a danger of explosion exists whenever water is present in a
compressor
C. water causes erratic operation of pneumatic components
D. the volumetric capacity of the first stage is reduced if water remains
Ans: C
2727 According to Regulations, if a pressure vessel, such as a ships
service air tank, has defects which may impair its safety, the tank
shall be ____________.
A. hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to the design pressure of
the tank
B. hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to 1 1/2 times the
maximum allowable working pressure of the tank
C. pneumatically tested at a pressure equal to the working pressure of
the tank
D. pneumatically tested at a pressure equal to 1 1/2 times the design
pressure of the tank
Ans: B
2729 Regulations require safety and relief valves for air service to be
provided with a substantial lifting device, capable of lifting the disk
from its seat when the pressure in the vessel is
________________.
A. 50% of that at which the valve is set to blow
B. 75% of that at which the valve is set to blow
C. 110% of that at which the valve is set to blow
D. 125% of that at which the valve is set to blow
Ans: B Ans:
2731 Which of the following statements is correct when comparing the
cylinder diameters of a two-stage reciprocating air compressor?
A. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure
cylinder.
B. The high pressure cylinder will be smaller than the low pressure
cylinder.
C. The high and low pressure cylinders will be of equal size.
D. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure
cylinder but the piston stroke will be greater.
Ans: B Ans: B
PROPELLER, SHAFTING AND STERN TUBE BEARING
2733 Which combination of the main shaft segments listed below, that 2734
are located furthest from the main engine, are connected by the
inboard stern tube shaft coupling?
A. Line shaft and thrust shaft
B. Line shaft and stern-tube shaft
C. using an enlarged, permanently opened clearance expansion
space
D. a precharged accumulator
Ans: B
2722 Differential pistons used in some reciprocating air compressors,
serve to provide _____________.
A. a means of distributing side pressures over a wider area of each
cylinder
B. a means of unloading during start-up
C. more than one stage of compression by each piston
D. a variable compression ratio enabling the output to be varied to suit
any load condition
Ans: C
2724 The function of an unloader on a two-cylinder, two-stage medium
pressure, air compressor is to _____________.
A. remove all but the friction load on the compressor motor when
starting
B. prevent water accumulation in air lines
C. reduce motor starting voltage
D. vary compressor speed
Ans: A
2726 The clearance volume for a single stage compressor is defined as
the space created between the _____________.
A. top of the piston and bottom side of head, with the piston at BDC
B. piston and head, including the space around the piston to the top of
the upper ring and under the valves, with the piston at TDC
C. bottom of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC,
regardless of upper ring location and valve placement
D. top of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC as compared
to that which exists between the top of the piston and bottom side of
head at BDC
Ans: B
2728 One cause of leaky valves in a low pressure air compressor may be
attributed to _________________.
A. running with an air filter element different from that required by the
original manufacturer's specifications
B. excessive operating hours without carrying out preventive
maintenance
C. the compressor running too fast
D. excessive discharge pressure
Ans: B
2730 Compared to poppet and other mechanically operated valves,
which of the following advantages is gained by using a thin plate
(feather) low lift type valve in an low pressure air compressor?
A. They improve compression efficiency.
B. They operate with a minimum of noise.
C. They are simple and easy to replace.
D. All of the above.
D
2732 If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver,
the compressor mechanical unloading system will ____________.
A. fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the
compressor will be overloaded
B. fail to work, but the compressor having no load will start with little or
no difficulty
C. still functional normally at start-up
D. Still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive
motor
Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the split
inflatable seal installed aft of the primary seal assembly for the
propeller shaft?
A. To serve as a seal when adding packing to the stuffing box.
B. To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when
the ship is waterborne.
 Page 147

C. Thrust shaft and stern-tube shaft C. To eliminate leakage via the propeller shaft when the shaft is not
rotating.
D. Stern-tube shaft and tail shaft D. To provide a ready means for the entry of cooling water.
Ans: B Ans: B
2735 The exposed portion of the outboard propeller shaft is protected 2736 Water leaking through the stern tube stuffing box is used to
against seawater corrosion by ________________. accomplish which of the following actions?

A. a heavy lubricant A. Cooling

B. a covering of plastic, rubber, or shrunk-on composition sleeve B. Lubrication

C. a corrosion-resistant paint C. Flushing

D. a layer of oxidation formed when the metal of the shaft is exposed D. All of the above
to seawater
Ans: B Ans: D
2737 One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for 2738 Some vessels are equipped with a water lubricated stern tube.
drawing a vessel's tailshaft depends upon the design to reduce When at sea, operating under normal conditions, the water service
stress concentrations in accordance with Class standards. Which valve from the ship's saltwater system to the bearing should be
construction method meets this design criteria? ______________.

A. Spooned keyway and slotted key A. closed, and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing
B. Stress relief grooves at the aft end of the propeller and forward end B. closed, and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing
of the liner
C. Keyway cut as to give a sharp rise from the bottom of the keyway to C. open, and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing
the shaft surface
D. All of the above D. open, and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing
Ans: A Ans: B
2739 An excessive amount of water is prevented from entering a vessel 2740 The device used to retain the packing, that keeps water from
using a water lubricated stern tube bearing by the use of the entering the ship through the opening where the propeller shaft
___________. passes through the hull, is called a ____________.
A. propeller hub A. packing nut
B. lignum vitae B. hawsepipe
C. shaft packing C. stuffing box
D. labyrinth seal D. seal cage
Ans: C Ans: C
2741 If water were a semisolid, the linear distance a propeller would 2742 Excessive propeller vibration may occur as a result of
advance in one revolution is the _____________. _________________.
A. blade thickness fraction A. operating at low speed
B. mean width ratio B. high water pressure under the hull
C. pitch C. cavitation
D. skew back factor D. operating in deep river channels
Ans: C Ans: C
2743 The lignum vitae in a stern tube bearing is normally lubricated with 2744 Unusual hull, or propeller shaft vibrations can be caused by
_____________. _____________.
A. grease A. excessive engine speed in shallow water
B. oil B. slop in a hydraulic clutch
C. water C. slight overheating of the line shaft spring bearings
D. tallow D. high engine speed in deep water
Ans: C Ans: A
2745 Which of the statements listed accurately applies to controllable 2746 Which of the following statements is correct concerning
pitch propeller systems? requirements for propellers?
A. A pitch indicator is to be fitted on the navigation bridge for vessels A. A propeller may not be changed with one of a different pitch unless
400 gross tons and above. stress evaluations are supplied and permission is granted by a
Marine Surveyor.
B. Independent remote control of pitch is to be provided at or near the B. When steel propellers are used, zinc anodes are to be fitted on the
oil distribution box. Tests of its operation are to be performed in the aftermost strut bearing housing and on the forward most section of
presence of the Surveyor. the rudder assembly.
C. After installation in the vessel, the complete piping system is to be C. The exposed steel of the shaft is to be protected from the action of
subjected to a hydrostatic test equal to 1.25 times the design the water by filling all spaces between the cap, hub and shaft with a
pressure. suitable material.
D. The arrangement of piping is to be such that a single failure in one D. Ultrasonic examinations of the propeller may be performed in lieu of
part of the piping or pump unit will not impair the integrity of the required drydocking periods, provided certified copies are
remaining parts of the system. distributed to the proper regulatory bodies.
Ans: D Ans: C
2747 Compared to a constant pitch propeller, a controllable pitch 2748 Which of the components listed is used to connect several sections
propeller _____________. of line shafting?
A. more efficiently uses available engine power A. Inboard stern tube couplings
B. operates at a lower efficiency at a fixed speed B. Bolts fitted through flange type couplings forged integral with the
shaft sections.
C. produces the same torque at lower engine power C. Muff type outboard couplings
D. develops its rated power at a lower speed D. All of the above types
Ans: A Ans: B
2749 The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, 2750 When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating
known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits? frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is
known as the _____________.
A. Reduces turbidness A. synchronous speed
B. Helps with lubrication B. sympathetic speed
 Page 148

C. Protects the nut C. critical speed

D. All of the above D. breakaway speed
Ans: C Ans: C
2751 Keyless propeller hubs secured to tailshafts by "pilgrim nuts", are 2752 When the propeller blades are integral with the hub, the propeller is
removed by _____________. called a _____________.
A. spring-loaded jacks A. built up propeller
B. hydraulic pressure B. solid propeller
C. heating with a torch C. controllable pitch propeller
D. hydraulic lever arms D. suction back propeller
Ans: B Ans: B
2753 In order to prevent overheating of the packing in the stern tube 2754 Any unusual, or new vibration in the hull or propeller shafting can
stuffing box, _____________. be an indication of _____________.
A. the gland is properly adjusted to permit a slight leakage of sea A. clutch slippage
water
B. stave-type rubber seals are used B. overheated bearings
C. cooling water is supplied from the fresh water cooling system C. high engine speeds

D. the gland nuts must be tightly taken up to prevent any water D. propeller unbalance
leakage
Ans: A Ans: D
2755 Following the withdrawal of the tail shaft, whichnon-destructive test 2756 By which of the following means is force efficiently provided to vary
could be used to locate cracks? I. liquid penetrant dye II. magnetic the pitch of the blades on a modern controllable pitch propeller?
flux
A. I only A. Hydraulic
B. II only B. Mechanical
C. Both I and II C. Pneumatic
D. Neither I nor II D. Electrical
Ans: C Ans: A
2757 A piece is missing from one blade of a four-bladed propeller and 2758 Inspection of a vessel's propeller during drydocking should include
could result in ____________. ____________.
A. accelerated stern bearing wear A. noting the condition of the fairwater
B. excessive shaft vibrations B. inspecting the locking device
C. unusual noises C. logging inspection results in the official deck log
D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: B
2759 When the tailshaft is drawn from a vessel in drydock, which of the 2760 In a water cooled stern tube, a slight leakage of water across the
following inspections is required to be carried out? packing gland is provided to ____________.
A. The propeller hub taper and shaft keyway should be inspected for A. flush all dirt and grit from the gland
cracks or corrosion.
B. The stern bearing alignment with the stern frame should be B. flush all dirt and grit from the bearing staves
checked.
C. The interior of the stern tube should be inspected for leaks. C. keep the gland packing cool
D. The shaft liner should be removed and inspected for cracks. D. keep the stern tube fair water cool
Ans: A Ans: C
2761 When a vessel is underway, a small amount of water is allowed to 2762 The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller,
leak through the water lubricated stern tube stuffing box in order to known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits?
___________________.
A. flush out silt and mud which can accumulate from shallow water A. Reduce turbulence

B. prevent overheating of the packing B. Help with lubrication

C. ensure positive coolant flow through the strut bearings C. Protect against electrolytic corrosion
D. prevent seizing of the rubber strips in the bearing bushing D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: A
2763 Propeller pitch speed minus ship speed divided by the propeller 2764 Which of the devices listed prevents water from entering a ship's
pitch speed is termed ______________________. hull via the propulsion shaft?
A. apparent slip A. Stern tube packing or mechanical shaft seal
B. true slip B. Deflector ring and drain
C. pitch C. Spring bearings
D. propulsive efficiency D. Oiler rings
Ans: A Ans: A
2765 Vessel propellers are classified as being right hand or left hand. A 2766 Which of the following nondestructive testing methods can be used
right hand propeller turns clockwise when viewed from to detect a suspected subsurface defect in a tailshaft liner?
_______________.
A. the bow A. Dye penetrant
B. the stern B. Magnetic particle
C. the port side C. Ultrasonic
D. the starboard side D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: C
2767 Which of the following statements best describes an oil lubricated 2768 It is necessary to test the hydraulic system of a controllable pitch
stern tube bearing installation? propeller. According to regulation what should be done?

A. It receives its oil supply from a branch line of the main lube oil A. The vessel must be drydocked and the propeller removed when
system. performing this test.
B. No shaft liner is needed in the area of the babbitted bearing B. The system pressure should be prevented from exceeding the
surface. maximum allowable operating pressure set forth by the
manufacturer.
 Page 149

C. The system pressure must be lowered when maneuvering in port to
prevent blowing the outer oil seal.
D. For precise regulation of the bearing temperature, the system is
required to have its own oil cooler.
Ans: B
2769 Which of the following actions, pertaining to saltwater lubricated 2770
stern tube stuffing boxes, is usually observed when the ship is
expected to be in port for an extended period?
C. The system should be tested at a pressure of 1 1/2 times the
maximum allowable pressure.
D. All necessary repairs must approved by the Chief Engineer of the
vessel.
Ans: C
After packing is added to the stern tube stuffing box,which of the
following procedures should be observed toinsure even tightening
of the gland?

A. The stuffing box is continually flushed. A. Listen for a smooth, regular sound.
B. The drain connection is left opened. B. Measure the distance between the gland and the stuffing box with a
rule.
C. The stuffing box gland is tightened. C. Judge by feeling the gland for an increase in heat as it is being
tightened up.
D. The packing is adjusted for greater cooling or replaced. D. Open the drain connection to allow seawater to flow in and make
the distance even.
Ans: C Ans: B
2771 A bronzed sleeve is secured to the propeller tailshaft by 2772 Which of the following statements represents an operating
_______________. characteristic of neoprene or rubber stern tube bearings?
A. keying A. No stern tube packing is required.
B. shrinking B. The bearing is lubricated by seawater.
C. threading C. Propeller shaft vibration will not damage these bearings.
D. pressing D. Neoprene bearings are less abrasion resistant than bronze
bearings.
Ans: B Ans: B
2773 When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating 2774 Which of the following statements describes the advantage of the
frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is mechanical shaft sealing system over the stuffing box and packing
known as the _____________. method of shaft sealing for propulsion shafting?
A. brekaway speed A. It eliminates the repairing or renewing of the shaft sleeve.
B. critical speed B. It is fully automatic in operation.
C. synchronous speed C. It allows for the removal and reinstallation of all parts without
dismantling the shafts.
D. sympathetic speed D. Each of the above is correct.
Ans: B Ans: D
2775 Stern tube and strut bearings lined with hardwood or rubber 2776 The stern tube flushing connection can be used to _________,
composition materials are lubricated with _____________.
A. saltwater A. assist in flushing out all packing strips when renewing packing
underway
B. graphite B. provide a positive flow of water through the stern tube for
lubricating, cooling, and flushing when required
C. light lubricating oil C. flush out brackish water resulting from extended in port operation

D. heavy lubricating oil
Ans: A
2777 A vessel has been equipped with an oil lubricated stern bearing
and is undergoing a routine drydocking. Which of the following
inspections should be made when the tailshaft has been drawn?
D. serve as the only source of supply of water for the stern tube
bearing
Ans: B
2778 One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for
drawing a vessel's tailshaft depends upon the design to reduce
stress concentrations. Which of the following factors, in part, would
be considered to meet this design criteria?

A. The overall condition of the bearing surface should be examined. A. Sprocketed keyway and slotted key.

B. The shaft liner should be inspected for cracks and tested to insure B. Stress relief grooves at the forward end of the propeller and aft end
a tight fit. of the liner.
C. The stern tube should be tested for cracks with dye penetrant. C. Keyway is to be cut so as to give a sharp rise from the bottom of
the keyway to the shaft surface.
D. All of the above. D. All of the above.
Ans: A Ans: B
2779 The purpose of the propeller fairwater cone is to ________. 2780 The tailshaft is usually supported by the ____________.
A. lock the propeller nut in position A. spring bearings
B. minimize water turbulence B. tail bearings
C. eliminate axial thrust C. stern tube bearings
D. eliminate cavitation D. propeller bearings
Ans: B Ans: C
2781 Regulations require a single tailshaft with water lubricated tailshaft 2782 On a vessel using a water lubricated tailshaft bearing, a single
bearings, stress-relieved keyway, and fabricated from materials tailshaft without a special keyway, and not constructed of materials
resistant to corrosion by sea water, to be drawn and examined resistant to corrosion by seawater, the tailshaft must be drawn and
once in every ___________. examined twice within any ____________.

A. 2 years A. 4 year period

B. 3 years B. 5 year period
C. 5 years C. 6 year period
D. 8 years D. 8 year period
Ans: C Ans: B
METALLURGY AND NON-DESTRUCTIVE TESTING
 Page 150

2783 The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal 2784 The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its
_______________. ___________.
A. softer A. ductibility
B. smoother B. elasticity
C. harder C. malleability
D. tougher D. fusibility
Ans: A Ans: C
2785 To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket 2786 Copper is sometimes used for fluid power lines because it
______________. ______________.
A. and quench it in oil A. has good resistance to high temperatures
B. cherry red and quench in water B. has high resistance to corrosion
C. and let it cool slowly in the air C. withstands heavy vibration under heavy system loads
D. and carbonize it D. resists hardening under stress
Ans: C Ans: B
2787 Which of the following propeller materials will not require stress 2788 In certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each
relief treatment after minor repairs, straightening of the tips or the pass to _____________.
thinning of the blade edges?
A. Manganese bronze A. reduce internal stresses
B. Nickel manganese bronze B. increase the temperature gradient in the weld area
C. Manganese nickel aluminum bronze C. allow the use of smaller welding rods
D. Nickel aluminum bronze D. eliminate the need for post heating
Ans: D Ans: A
2789 The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence of 2790 Which of the listed effects represents the purpose of heat treating
hydrogen sulfide is greatest for ____________. steel?
A. low strength steel A. Develop ductility
B. high strength steel B. Improve machining qualities
C. rubber sealing elements C. Relieve stresses
D. aluminum D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
2791 When using the circular magnetic particle method to 2792 Which of the listed methods used for testing a metal, measures the
nondestructively test a weldment, the best results are obtained ability of a metal to absorb the energy of a load rapidly applied to
when the ____________. the member?
A. current is flowing at right angles to the discontinuity A. Brinell only
B. magnetic field is parallel to the discontinuity B. Charpy only
C. magnetic field is at right angles to the discontinuity C. Charpy and Brinell
D. defect is located outside the parallel flux path of the prods D. Rockwell and Brinell
Ans: C Ans: B
2793 In radiographic inspections, the standard test piece included in 2794 Which of the nondestructive testing methods can be easily used yet
every radiograph provides an effective check on the overall quality with good accuracy to detect, locate, identify, and measure defects
and bears a numerical relation to the thickness of the part being in welds and base metals; regardless of material type and
tested. This piece is called a/an ____________. structure?

A. penetrometer A. Radiography
B. intensimeter B. Ultrasonics
C. lead filter gauge C. Visible dye penetrant
D. exposure screen D. Magnetic particle
Ans: A Ans: B
2795 The internal force of a material, which tends to resist deformation 2796 Which nondestructive testing method is suitable for use in detecting
when subjected to external forces, is known as and identifying a diameter subsurface void in a six inch diameter
___________________. stainless steel shaft?
A. stress A. Magnetic particle
B. strain B. Radiography
C. shear strength C. Ultrasonic
D. ultimate tensile strength D. Dye penetrant
Ans: A Ans: B
2797 Copper sheet metal that is to be used as a gasket, is usually 2798 Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the
annealed by heating it to a cherry red color, and then hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as
_____________. _____________.
A. dousing it in cold water A. low temperature hardening
B. cooling it slowly in air B. case hardening
C. quenching it slowly in oil C. annealing
D. drawing its temper quickly D. tempering
Ans: B Ans: D
2799 When metal is tempered, it becomes _____________. 2800 Ferrous metals are metals containing ___________.
A. harder A. no iron
B. softer B. a large percentage of copper
C. less brittle C. a large percentage of iron
D. more brittle D. a large percentage of aluminum
Ans: C Ans: C
STEAM, HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS
2801 The energy associated with molecules is known as __________. 2802 A bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon
loop to prevent damage from ____________.
A. kinetic energy A. extreme thermal stress
B. potential energy B. the admission of condensate
C. mechanical energy C. pressure shock
D. thermal energy D. differential expansion rates
 Page 151

Ans: D Ans: A
2803 Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good 2804 If the fixed orifice in the evaporator steam supply line were to be
design practices of shipboard steam heating systems? removed, the steam pressure reducing valvelocated upstream
would _____________.
A. Provide constant steam service for equipment operating A. be unable to maintain steam flow unless the proper range spring
throughout the year. were to be installed
B. Provide either a common or individual reducing station for each B. be suitable for maintaining the required steam flow under all load
group of units requiring the same operating pressure. conditions
C. Run all piping so it may be drained by gravity. C. handle the operation satisfactorily as the control orifice develops an
impedance to the steam flow
D. All of the above. D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: A
2805 Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the 2806 A vapor under pressure stays in contact with, and at the same
live steam supply line, the steam at the outlet of the orifice if not temperature as the liquid from which it was generated. The vapor
properly conditioned will be developed as _______________. and liquid in this situation are, therefore, said to be in a/an
____________.
A. desuperheated steam A. equilibrium contact
B. superheated steam B. latent contact
C. saturated steam C. critical state
D. poor quality steam D. superheated state
Ans: B Ans: A
2807 Which of the following statements concerning the operation of 2808 The basic function of a steam trap is to ____________.
steam pressure reducing valves is correct?
A. Reducing station relief valves must be lifted by hand at least once a A. regulate the flow of steam leaving a heater
watch.
B. The cut out valve at the outlet of the reducing valve should be B. limit the flow of steam leaving a heater until it has given up its latent
throttled when in operation. heat of condensation
C. Reducing valves should be warmed-up and drained before they are C. limit the flow of steam leaving a heater until it has given up its latent
adjusted. heat of fusion
D. Reducing valves are absolutely reliable and require no routine D. eliminate steam-pipe water hammer
maintenance.
Ans: C Ans: B
2809 Mechanical energy in transition is referred to as _________. 2810 Which of the following forms of energy is usually associated with
relatively large bodies or objects?
A. horsepower A. Chemical energy
B. work B. Mechanical energy
C. heat C. Thermal energy
D. velocity D. Electrical energy
Ans: B Ans: B
2811 The rate of heat transfer from a hot region to a cold region is 2812 The steam supplied to operate a steam driven reciprocating pump
affected most by the ____________. is usually obtained from the _____________.
A. size of the heat sink A. desuperheated steam line via a reducing station
B. temperature difference between the regions B. auxiliary exhaust line
C. size of the heat source C. main steam line via a reducing station
D. total heat of the system D. contaminated steam generator
Ans: B Ans: A
2813 The difference between the pressure at a point being measured 2814 Medium temperature hot water systems have been used in place of
and that of a perfect vacuum is known as _________. small auxiliary boilers producing 7bar steam with ____________.

A. internal pressure A. 138oC water systems

B. gauge pressure B. 149oC water systems
C. absolute pressure C. 160oC water systems
D. external pressure D. 171oC water systems
Ans: C Ans: C
2815 Steam supply piping to deck machinery is insulated in order to 2816 By which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one
_____________. body to another?
A. maintain good turbulent free steam flow through the pipe A. Radiation
B. prevent superheating of the steam B. Convection
C. reduce heat loss from the system C. Conduction
D. contain small steam leaks D. All of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
2817 The definition of superheat refers to the amount of heatnecessary 2818 Some auxiliaries are not designed to handle auxiliary steam at
to raise the temperature of a fluid and appliesto _________. I. boiler pressure. Which of the devices listed is usually fitted in the
vapors II. liquids branch line to deliver steam at the correct pressure?
A. I only A. An orifice
B. II only B. A steam pressure reducing valve
C. Both I and II C. A nozzle valve
D. Neither I nor II D. A constant quantity regulating valve
Ans: A Ans: B
2819 The action of water being circulated within a natural circulation 2820 The movement of steam piping, as a result of changes in
boiler, is an example of what form of heat transfer? temperature, is best compensated for by the use of
_____________.
A. Radiation A. union joints
B. Conduction B. expansion joints
C. Forced convection C. flexitallic gaskets
D. Natural convection D. rigid brackets
 Page 152

Ans: D Ans: B
2821 The sum of the sensible heat and the latent heat of any substance 2822 A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each
is known as ____________. voyage. How is the cargo boil off normally handled?
A. total heat A. Compressed, condensed, and return to the cargo tanks.
B. residual heat B. Vented to the atmosphere.
C. specific heat C. Burned in the boilers.
D. superheat D. Mixed with nitrogen and recirculated through the primary barrier.

Ans: A Ans: C
2823 A suitable location for the installation of an impulse type steam trap 2824 The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the
would be in the ____________. ______________.
A. horizontal run of drain line from the lowest point at the outlet of the A. action of a float within a chamber
heat exchanger
B. steam supply line to a feedwater heater B. difference in movement of two dissimilar bimetallic strips not
fastened together
C. drain line from a high point in the main steam line expansion loop C. fact that hot water under pressure tends to flash into steam when its
vapor pressure is rapidly reduced
D. vacuum drag line from the atmospheric drain tank to the main D. change in the amount of vapor produced within an enclosed
condenser chamber
Ans: A Ans: D
2825 Heat which brings about a change in the physical state of a 2826 The heat required to change a substance from a liquid to a gas
substance without a change in temperature, is called without experiencing a temperature change, is defined as the latent
_____________. heat of _____________.
A. specific heat A. fusion
B. sensible heat B. vaporization
C. latent heat C. sublimation
D. ambient heat D. condensation
Ans: C Ans: B
2827 How many BTUs must be added to one pound of water at 32°Fto 2828 Thermostatic steam pressure reducing valves are used in the fuel
raise the temperature to 212°F? oil service system to control the ______________.
A. 16 BTU's A. double bottom fuel oil tank temperature
B. 144 BTU's B. heater supply steam flow
C. 180 BTU's C. pressure of the fuel supplied to the burners
D. 970 BTU's D. attemperator steam flow in the heater discharge circuit
Ans: C Ans: B
2829 Heat may be transferred by _____________. 2830 Power is defined as the ____________.
A. conduction A. rate of doing work
B. convection B. amount of force needed to overcome friction
C. radiation C. amount of work accomplished
D. all of the above D. distance through which an object is moved
Ans: D Ans: A
2831 Insulation on deck steam piping must be installed securely as 2832 Which of the following statements represents the definition of
_____________. energy?
A. loose insulation contributes to steam leaks A. Energy is work that has been accomplished.
B. deck steam lines are subject to vibration B. Energy is the capacity for producing an effect.
C. steam driven machinery cannot run with loose insulation C. Energy is work being done.
D. loose insulation prevents normal pipe expansion D. Energy is power.
Ans: B Ans: B
2833 Which of the following forms of energy concerns the forces which 2834 Which of the following terms could be applied to the simple
bind atoms together in a molecule? definition "the energy of motion"?
A. Thermal energy A. Electrical energy
B. Mechanical energy B. Thermal energy
C. Chemical energy C. Potential energy
D. Electrical energy D. Kinetic energy
Ans: C Ans: D
2835 Which unit of measurement is used to measure mechanical 2836 Thermal energy in transition is also referred to as
potential energy? _______________.
A. British thermal units A. heat
B. Horsepower B. power
C. Kg-mtr C. horsepower
D. Calories D. foot-pound
Ans: C Ans: A
2837 Steam traps should be installed at the lowest outlet point of the heat 2838 Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require
exchanger in a horizontal run of pipe. Which of the following any physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance?
installation considerations should also be maintained?

A. They should be installed with their main axis horizontal. A. Radiation

B. They should be installed unpainted and wrapped in an insulation B. Conduction
blanket.
C. A bypass around the trap is unnecessary if the steam input C. Natural convection
pressure never exceeds 0.7kg/cm2
D. They should remain uninsulated and unpainted. D. All of the above
Ans: D Ans: A
2839 A Bourdon tube pressure gage is protected from the effects of the 2840 Which of the following statements concerning energy is correct?
steam entering the pressure element by a/an _______.
A. exposed, uninsulated coil in the line leading to the gage A. Energy can be created or destroyed.
 Page 153

B. impulse-type steam trap in the gage line B. Energy may not be transformed.
C. leather or neoprene diaphragm in the gage line C. The total quantity of energy in the universe is always the same.

D. spring loaded bellows in the gage line D. None of the above.

Ans: A Ans: C
2841 The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 2842 The difference between the pressure at a point being measured
100°C. If the pressure on the open container is decreased, the and that of a perfect vacuum is known as _________.
boiling point will _____________.
A. increase A. internal pressure
B. decrease B. gauge pressure
C. increase and then decrease C. absolute pressure
D. decrease and then increase D. external pressure
Ans: B Ans: C
2843 Which of the following best describes the thermodynamic effect on 2844 Pigtails, or siphons, are used to protect Bourdon tube-type gages
the pressure and volume relationship with regards to saturated from the direct exposure to steam by ________________.
gases?
A. As pressure decreases, volume increases A. changing the direction of the steam flow
B. As volume increases, pressure increases B. rapidly reducing the steam velocity
C. As volume decreases, pressure decreases C. creating a condensate seal
D. As pressure increases, volume increases D. bleeding off a portion of the steam
Ans: A Ans: C
2845 How can you determine the date that the pressure vessels on your 2846 A turbine exhaust pressure of 1.013 bar abs. is equal to
ship will require a hydrostatic test or internal inspection? _____________.

A. Check the boiler equipment list. A. 00.000 bar g.

B. Check the pressure vessel block on the Certificate of Inspection. B. 00.5 bar g

C. Check the class certificates. C. 01.470 bar g

D. Check the pressure vessel addenda to the vessel's SOLAS D. 2 bar g
certificate.
Ans: B Ans: A
2847 A leaking steam trap located in the return lines from a heating 2848 Admitting steam to an improperly drained heating system could
system is indicated by excessive _____________. result in _____________.
A. drain tank steaming A. cutting valve seating surfaces
B. scale returning from the convectors B. high velocity slugs of water in motion in the system
C. steam pressure in the convectors C. damage due to water hammer
D. water in the heating system D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
2849 A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam 2850 A Bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon
reciprocating general service pump could be caused by loop to prevent damage from the direct effects of ____________.
________________.
A. lower than normal supply steam temperature A. pressure shock
B. lower than normal supply steam pressure B. uneven expansion
C. improper adjustment of steam cushion valves C. entering condensate
D. loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber D. entering steam
Ans: C Ans: D
2851 Latent heat can be defined as the heat which must be added to a 2852 Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of
substance in order to change it from a _____________. the pilot slide valve?
A. solid to liquid A. Moving tappets
B. liquid to vapor B. Adjusting of the tappet collars
C. solid to vapor C. Stay rods
D. all of the above D. Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder
Ans: D Ans: D
2853 A major controlling factor in the location of the condensate return 2854 The heat identified by only a change in temperature is known as
piping from a heating system is/are ____________. ____________.
A. the requirement for a gravity return A. sensible heat
B. the requirement for short laterals run B. latent heat
C. the requirement to minimize conflict with headroom and other C. total heat
services
D. all of the above D. residual heat
Ans: A Ans: A
2855 Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by 2856 The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the
____________. ____________.
A. filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water A. thermal expansion of a fluid
B. steam admitted to a cold pipe B. position of a float
C. filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water C. tendency of hot water to flash into steam
D. draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve D. flow characteristics of a liquid as it passes through an orifice

Ans: B Ans: A
2857 Which of the listed types steam traps operates on the principle that 2858 Which of the statements listed concerning heat transfer is correct?
hot water flashes to steam when its vapor pressure is rapidly
reduced?
A. Ball float A. Heat is always transferred at a constant rate.
B. Thermostatic B. Heat transfer rate increases as temperature difference increases.
 Page 154

C. Bimetallic C. The rate of heat transfer is not affected by temperature difference.

D. Impulse D. The high temperature region is known as a heat sink.

Ans: D Ans: B
2859 Which of the following conditions must be carried outbefore the 2860 What is the cooling water source for most recovery unit condensing
superheating of saturated vapor can occur? coils aboard ship?
A. The evaporation rate must be increased. A. condenser water vapor at the outlet
B. The flow of liquid to the unfired pressure vessel must be increased. B. potable water supply

C. The vapor must be removed from contact with the liquid from which C. chiller water taken at inlet
it was generated.
D. The operating pressure must be raised. D. distilled water
Ans: C Ans: D
2861 The latent heat of water vapor in air is dependent upon the 2862 According to regulations, a boiler combustion control system may
_____________. be tested at __________.
A. dry bulb temperature A. a pressure not less than 1.25 times the maximum allowable working
pressure
B. wet bulb temperature B. a pressure not less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable working
pressure
C. dew point C. the maximum allowable working pressure of the system
D. dry point D. the normal operating pressure of the system provided full loading is
accomplished
Ans: C Ans: C
2863 Which of the listed statements describes specific heat? 2864 If the steam flow entering the evaporator steam supply orifice has a
quality of 95%, which of the following statements would be true?

A. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one A. The steam at the outlet would obtain a higher degree of
pound of a material, one degree C. desuperheat.
B. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one B. The steam at the outlet would be at a higher superheat than when it
pound of ice, one degree C. is supplied at 100% quality.
C. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one C. The steam would obtain a lower absolute pressure than when it is
pound of butter, one degree C. supplied at a quality of 100%.
D. All of the above. D. The entrained moisture will become a totally saturated vapor prior to
any superheat being acquired by the steam.
Ans: D Ans: D
2865 Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good 2866 If "wet" steam is supplied to the air ejectors of a low pressure
design practices for shipboard steam heating systems? evaporator, the passage of the mixture through the nozzles will
______________.
A. Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves. A. improve overall vacuum

B. Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit B. cause the potential level of kinetic energy to be partially converted
heater return. to thermal energy
C. Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a C. cause the existing level of thermal energy to be totally converted to
check valve on the return. kinetic energy
D. Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping. D. cause the level of thermal energy to be converted to potential
energy
Ans: B Ans: B
2867 Which of the listed forms of heat transfer, if any, is illustrated by the 2868 When replacing a steam pressure reducing valve, what information
flow of combustion gases through a boiler? is required for the selection?
A. Natural convection only A. Maximum and minimum inlet pressures
B. Forced convection only B. Reduced pressure or pressure range
C. Both natural convection and forced convection C. Maximum and minimum continuous flow rates (kgs./hr.)
D. None D. All of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
2869 Which of the following forms of energy is demonstrated through the 2870 What is the potential energy of an object weighing 10 kgs at a
process of combustion? height of 10 mtrs?
A. Chemical energy A. 10 kg-mtr
B. Mechanical energy B. 20 kg-mtr
C. Thermal energy C. 100 kg-mtr
D. Electrical energy D. 1000 kg-mtr
Ans: A Ans: C
2871 The basic function of a steam trap includes which of the following 2872 Before starting a reciprocating, steam-driven pump that has been
processes? idle for a period of time, you should _____________.
A. Regulate the flow of condensate from a heater. A. open the steam line root valve
B. Regulate the flow of steam from a heater. B. drain the steam cylinder
C. Regulate the flow of steam to a heater. C. close the steam cylinder drains
D. Regulate the flow of condensate to a heater. D. open the liquid cylinder drains
Ans: A Ans: B
2873 Which of the listed methods of heat transfer takes place when two 2874 Which of the listed temperatures represents the saturation
substances of different temperatures are in physical contact with temperature for water at a saturation pressure of 1bar abs. (101.34
each other? kPa)
A. Radiation A. 92°C
B. Conduction B. 100°C
C. Convection C. 168°C
D. Each of the above D. 220°C
Ans: B Ans: B
 Page 155

2875 Which of the following terms is used to indicate that the flow of heat 2876 The equation "energy in = energy out" is a simple way of stating the
will result in a temperature change? principle of the ___________.
A. Latent heat A. conservation of energy
B. Sensible heat B. conservation of matter
C. Convection C. conversion of matter to energy
D. Radiation D. conversion of energy to matter
Ans: B Ans: A
2877 Which of the following terms would best describe the temperature 2878 If the air temperature in a manifold were found to be 122°F, what
at which a liquid boils at a given pressure? will be the equivalent reading on the centigrade scale?
A. Degree of saturation A. 35°C
B. Saturation temperature B. 40°C
C. Superheated temperature C. 45°C
D. Degree of superheat D. 50°C
Ans: B Ans: D
2879 A stopper is inserted into the spout of a closed container in which 2880 If you determine that a steam reciprocating pump is operating with
water has been heated to a temperature of 100°C. If additional too long of stroke, causing the piston nut to strike the cylinder head,
thermal energy is imparted, what changes will occur to the pressure you should _____________.
and temperature inside the container?
A. both pressure and temperature will rise A. completely open the steam cushioning valves
B. pressure alone will rise B. install a smaller nut on the piston rod
C. temperature alone will rise C. adjust the valve gear to manufacturer's specified measurements

D. only a change of state will occur D. install a shorter piston rod

Ans: A Ans: C
2881 Steam tables can be used to obtain the _______________. 2882 The sensible heat of air is dependent upon the ____________.

A. values for properties of water and vapor at various conditions A. dry bulb temperature

B. specific fuel consumption under steady steaming conditions B. wet bulb temperature
C. steam generating capacity of a vessel's boilers C. saturation temperature
D. mechanical efficiency of the main unit D. water vapor superheat
Ans: A Ans: A
2883 Energy existing in a system as a result of the relative velocities of 2884 The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of a
two or more objects is termed_______________. substance 1°F is called ________.

A. potential energy A. its specific heat

B. pressure energy B. its latent heat
C. kinetic energy C. a British thermal unit
D. relative energy D. its adiabatic heat
Ans: C Ans: A
BILGE SYSTEM
2885 The aft, starboard bilge-well can not be pumped out, and back 2886 During routine maintenance the bilge manifold valves are removed.
flushing has not been successful. The next practical solution will be Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve ________.
to carry out which of the following actions?
A. List the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the A. disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary
remainder of the voyage.
B. Place 75 Ltrs of fuel oil tank-wash into the affected bilge well for B. bonnet, flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn
one hour to dissolve the stoppage.
C. Take all necessary steps to properly and safely pump out the C. stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened, the
affected bilge well, then manually "muck" it out. glands have bottomed out, or the glands cannot be tightened

D. Change over and use one of the two remaining bilge pumps to D. all of the above
dewater the starboard bilge well.
Ans: C Ans: D
2887 Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST if one bilge 2888 Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges by the bilge main is
well of a multiple suction bilge system is unable to be pumped out? prevented by ____________.

A. Open the bilge pump for inspection. A. stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds
B. Remove each of the suction manifold valves. B. using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump
C. Remove only the suction manifold valve to the affected bilge well. C. installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes

D. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire D. installing a swing check before each bilge valve
system is affected.
Ans: D Ans: A
2889 An independent bilge suction is required for ________. 2890 The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used
_____________.
A. ballast tanks A. to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty

B. sludge tanks B. when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide
additional cooling water circulation
C. machinery space bilges C. to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
D. cargo hold bilges D. if the bilges become flooded and they can not be emptied by any
other means
Ans: C Ans: D
2891 Which of the following statements indicates compliance with 2892 What can happen to oil based mud when contaminated with salt
Regulations concerning a vessel's bilge system? water?
 Page 156

A. All bilge manifold suctions shall be capable of being locally A. Nothing, as salt water is an ingredient of oil based mud.
controlled from above the floor plates.
B. The system must be capable of operation under all practicable B. Small amounts can cause thickening of the oil based fluid as well as
conditions after a casualty, whether the vessel is upright or listed. a reduction in density.

C. Peak tanks, chain lockers, and decks over peak tanks may be C. Small amounts react with gel particles in the mud causing them to
drained by eductors, ejectors, or hand pumps. flocculate.
D. All of the above. D. The water will collect at the bottom of the tank and can not be
stripped overboard.
Ans: D Ans: B
2893 Regulations for bilge and ballast piping require that ________. 2894 Regulations require the emergency bilge system to ________.

A. all oil and water tanks be connected to the bilge system
B. the bilge pumping system be operable under all practicable
conditions
C. peak tanks and chain lockers have separate electric pumps
D. all of the above
Ans: B
2895 Referring to Regulations , the emergency bilge system ________.
A. be independent of the main bilge system
B. be a part of the independent bilge system
C. have an independent priming pump
D. have a cross connection to the ballast system
Ans: A
2896 A compound gage is typically installed on the _____________.

A. has no independent primary pump A. suction side of a bilge pump

B. is independent of the main bilge system B. exhaust manifold of an auxiliary diesel
C. has a cross connection to the ballast system C. discharge line from an air compressor
D. is part of the independent bilge system D. chemical feed tank of an evaporator
Ans: B Ans: A
2897 If one of the bilge manifold valves is prevented from seating, the 2898 If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat,
________. the ________.
A. bilge-well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge-well being A. bilge well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge well being
pumped will be completely emptied pumped will be completely emptied
B. bilge system will lose vacuum, preventing other bilges from being B. bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from
pumped out being pumped out
C. aftermost bilge-wells connected to that valve will siphon their C. bilge well aft connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the
contents to the forward bilge-wells forward bilge wells
D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: B
2899 The bilge system is unable to pump out the aft starboard engine 2900 When a horizontal type centrifugal pump is used for dewatering the
room bilge-well due to the bilge-well suction being fouled. With two engine room bilges, you would ________. I. use a rotary, liquid
feet of water over the top of the bilge-well, which of the following piston type pump to obtain a prime II. partially open the sea
actions should be carried out? suction valve, then gradually switch over to the require

A. Send the wiper into the bilge-well with a scoop and pail. A. I only
B. Remove the effected bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush B. II only
the line.
C. Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps. C. Either I or II
D. Transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well D. Neither I nor II
and pump out the bilge well with the system.
Ans: B Ans: C
2901 Bilge lines led through tanks, without using a pipe tunnel must be 2902 Which of the equipment listed is most effective in processing bilge
___________. slops for overboard discharge?
A. of schedule 40 pipe A. A 100 PPM oily water separator.
B. fitted with return valves at the bilge manifolds B. Assembling the lube oil purifier as a separator and aligning it to the
bilge overboard.
C. coated with coal tar epoxy, or similar corrosion resistant substance C. A 15 PPM oily water separator.

D. fitted with nonreturn valves at the bilge suctions D. A magnetic duplex strainer.
Ans: D Ans: C
2903 The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft 2904 You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well
starboard engine room bilge-well suddenly fails to be pumped out. that is fouled, with one foot of water over the top of the bilge well,
Which of the following should be done first to determine the cause? what action should be carried out?

A. Open the bilge pump for inspection. A. Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail.
B. Remove each of the manifold valves. B. Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line.

C. Remove only the manifold valve to the affected bilge-well. C. Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps.
D. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire D. It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of
system is affected. degreaser into the bilge well.
Ans: D Ans: B
2905 The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not
been successful. The next practical solution would be to
__________________.
A. change the trim of the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges
for the remainder of the voyage
B. place 75.7 Ltrs (20 gallons) of fuel oil tank wash into the affected
bilge well to clear the blockage
C. properly and safely empty the well with a portable pump then
manually muck it out
 Page 157

D. all of the above

Ans: C
SANITARY AND SEWAGE SYSTEM
2906 The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage 2907 In sewage treatment, the term "maceration" refers to the process of
particles is known as ________. ________.
A. detension A. breaking up solid matter into fine particles
B. maceration B. precipitating nondecomposed waste in a collection tank
C. bulking C. chemically adjusting the sewage pH to 7.0
D. chlorinating D. eliminating bacterium coli from the sewage
Ans: B Ans: A
2908 A P-type trap and drain is used _________. 2909 The drains of lavatory sinks are fitted with P-type or S-type traps to
_______.
A. for all lavatory sink installations, as no other drain type is useable A. reduce water velocity and minimize erosion

B. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in the B. create a strong siphon effect
deck
C. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in a C. provide a cushion of water to reduce the effects of water hammer
bulkhead
D. as a condensate drain for superheaters D. provide a seal against sewer gas rising into the compartment
Ans: C Ans: D
2910 A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the 2911 A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to
discharge of sewage by ________. ________.
A. holding all sewage onboard A. reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump
B. treating sewage in an approved system B. prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction
C. pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container C. provide a higher pressure in the system then the pump can deliver

D. all of the above D. increase water flow through the system

Ans: D Ans: A
2912 The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent 2913 The process of grinding or shredding sewage into smaller particles
explosions by ________. is known as _________.
A. allowing the escape of flammable vapors A. detention
B. dissipating the heat of a fire B. comminution
C. absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity C. bulking
D. preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank D. skimming
Ans: B Ans: B
2914 An S-type trap and drain is used _____________. 2915 Traps in plumbing drains are designed to help prevent _____.
A. for all lavatory sink installations, as no other drain type is useable A. drain noises in the living quarters

B. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in the B. drains clogging at the toilets
deck
C. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in a C. air pockets in the sewer lines
bulkhead
D. as a condensate drain for superheaters D. escape of odors into the living quarters
Ans: B Ans: D
2916 Traps at plumbing drain connections prevent ________.
A. system clogging
B. escape of odors
C. air pockets
D. drain noises
Ans: B
HEAT EXCHANGERS
2917 Machinery operating features are designed to help conserveenergy. 2918 The temperature differential occurring between the inlet
Which of the following results will not contributeto energy temperature of the fluid to be cooled and the outlet temperature of
conservation? the cooling medium in a shell-and-tube heat exchanger is greatest
in which of the flow designs listed?
A. Reduction of friction. A. Cross
B. Insulation of hot surfaces. B. Parallel
C. Lubrication of moving parts. C. Counter
D. Elevation of cooler outlet temperatures. D. Circular
Ans: D Ans: C
2919 The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to _____________. 2920 The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side of a lube oil
cooler is usually indicated by ___________.
A. eliminate hot air from the condenser A. clogged lube oil strainers
B. maintain steady pressure in a system B. seawater leaking into the lube oil system
C. heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid C. decreasing lube oil pressure
D. reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates D. gradually increasing lube oil temperature
Ans: C Ans: D
2921 When a heat exchanger is used as a cooler, excessive cooling 2922 Zinc anodes are installed in a marine raw-water cooling system to
water flow should be avoided to prevent _____________. _____________.

A. erosive tube failure A. inhibit oxidation

B. waterside deposit buildup B. control electrolysis
C. tube sheet bowing C. prevent scaling
D. water hammer damage D. eliminate corrosion
Ans: A Ans: B
 Page 158

2923 In a heat exchanger, excessive fluid velocity should be avoided to 2924 Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of heat
prevent ____________. exchangers to _________________.
A. erosive tube failure A. keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean
B. waterside deposit buildup B. prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth
C. tube sheet bowing C. provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces
D. water hammer damage D. reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals
Ans: A Ans: D
2925 The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing 2926 When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a
ring to ____________. flash type evaporator, liquid appears well inside one of the tubes. In
order to correct this, you should _____________.

A. prevent leakage past the floating end tube sheet reroll the tube
A.
B. dissipate heat seal weld the tube
B.
C. baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass plug the tube
C.
D. modify to a mixer type cooler all of the above would be considered satisfactory as a temporary
D.
repair until permanent repairs may be conducted
Ans: A Ans: C
2927 Hot water heating system converters are selected for the heating 2928 Which of the copper alloys listed is commonly used in heat
load required plus about 50% excess capacity to allow for exchangers and possesses a high resistance to corrosion?
____________.
A. start-up and scaling A. Red brass
B. unusual high demand on the system B. Manganese bronze
C. increase capacity during times of peak demand C. Copper beryllium
D. increase steam and water contact for better efficiency D. Cupro-nickel
Ans: A Ans: D
2929 Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger can result from 2930 The zinc plates are located in the _____________.
_____________.
A. high temperature A. saltwater side of the condenser
B. waterside fouling B. refrigerant side of the condenser
C. excessive cooling water velocity C. evaporator coils
D. poor heat transfer D. suction strainer
Ans: C Ans: A
2931 Zinc rods are installed in the refrigeration system _____________. 2932 In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat
transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends
upon ________________.
A. liquid strainer A. the temperature of the hydraulic fluid
B. liquid receiver B. the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid
C. saltwater condenser C. the temperature of the cooling water
D. evaporator D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
2933 When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to 2934 The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold fluids passing
determine the source of suspected air leaks you should use through a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger will ____________.
___________.
A. fresh water at or above the ambient temperature A. remain constant along the tube's length
B. circulated cold fresh water, while maintaining all normal unit B. be greatest in a single pass counter flow heat exchanger
operating pressures
C. air and a soap solution to test all joints C. remain constant throughout the heat exchanger
D. phosphorescent hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black D. vary from section to section through out the heat exchanger
light source
Ans: A Ans: D
2935 Which of the following statements is correct concerning heat 2936 An 8-inch, globe-type, stop-check valve has been installed in the
transfer? lube-oil cooler water outlet, with the flow coming in from the top of
the disk. This means that _____________.
A. Heat is given off from a high temperature region known as a heat A. the valve will remain completely open
sink.
B. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the size of the heat sink B. the valve will prevent back flow
involved.
C. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the temperature difference C. the valve will never permit water flow from the lube oil cooler
between the heat source and the heat sink.
D. Heat transfer by radiation will occur only by mass motion of a fluid D. the valve will allow the lube oil temperature to be 10‚F (5.5°C) cooler
substance. than if the valve were properly installed
Ans: C Ans: C
2937 Which of the following conditions must exist for heat to flow from 2938 Expansion of the tube bundle in a shell-and-tube type cooler may
one object to another? be provided for by the _______________.
A. The two objects must be in physical contact. A. packing and lantern rings
B. The two objects must be the same size. B. floating end tube sheet
C. There must be an existing temperature differential. C. shell foundation bolts
D. There must be an existing weight differential. D. directional transverse baffles
Ans: C Ans: B
2939 In a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger, the most common cause 2940 Evaporators and condensers are two forms of _____________.
of decreased performance is _____________.
A. loose tube bundle baffle plates A. heat exchangers
B. failure of the baffle plate B. liquid receivers
C. rupture of the tube bundle C. storage receptacles
D. fouling on the seawater side D. flow inhibitors
Ans: D Ans: A
 Page 159

2941 When checking zinc plates, or pencils in the refrigerating system 2942 In heat exchangers, seawater pressure should be maintained lower
condenser, you should _____________. than freshwater pressure to _____________.
A. paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion A. eliminate scaling problems on the saltwater side
B. renew the plates at each inspection B. reduce erosion of heat exchanger surfaces
C. replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50% C. ease the load on the saltwater service pump
D. file the plates to change the negative value D. prevent contamination should leaks develop
Ans: C Ans: D
2943 Which of the following statements is true concerning a radiator type 2944 Heat exchanger tubes can be protected against erosion and
heat exchanger? abrasion by the use of _________.
A. Raw water is the cooling medium. A. metallic packing on the inlet end
B. Water cooled exhaust elbows remove the heat. B. fiber bushings in the ferrules
C. The surge tank must be located a minimum of 4 feet above the C. zinc pencils on the waterside
highest finned tube.
D. Air flow provided by a fan is used as the cooling medium. D. plastic tube end protectors
Ans: D Ans: D
FUEL OIL PROPERTIES AND PURIFIERS
2945 The tendency of a flammable liquid to vaporize is indicated by its 2946 Which of the following statements describes the relationship
____________. between flash point and ignition temperature?
A. ignition temperature A. Both are higher than normal burning temperatures.
B. flash point B. The flash point is always higher.
C. flammable range C. The ignition temperature is always higher.
D. convection index D. They are not necessarily related.
Ans: B Ans: C
2947 The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained 2948 In order to maximize the performance of an operatingcentrifuge,
combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of you can adjust the fuel oil _______. I. viscosity II. through put
ignition is called ____________.
A. explosive range A. I only
B. flash point B. II only
C. ignition temperature C. Both I and II
D. combustion temperature D. Neither I nor II
Ans: C Ans: C
2949 The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the __________. 2950 The flash point of a liquid is the _____________.
A. lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor A. temperature at which it burns freely
to momentarily flash into flame when ignited
B. lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor B. temperature at which paraffin wax begins to crystallize out of the
to continue to burn once ignited solution
C. temperature the fuel oil must be heated to for proper atomization C. lowest temperature at which it vaporizes enough to form an
explosive air/vapor mixture
D. temperature at which the fuel oil will burn in a boiler furnace D. ability of a fuel to ignite upon injection into a diesel engine cylinder

Ans: A Ans: C
2951 The lowest temperature at which fuel combustion becomes self- 2952 The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid
sustaining in the presence of a source of ignition, is defined as the will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a
____________. spark or flame is the _____________.
A. autoignition point A. autoignition temperature
B. flash point B. vaporization temperature
C. burning temperature C. flash point
D. fire point D. fire point
Ans: D Ans: D
2953 Which of the following statements describes the relationship 2954 The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer
between viscosity and specific gravity? because it _____________.
A. Liquids with different viscosities will always have the same specific A. is an indication of the amount of noncombustible material present in
gravity. the oil
B. Liquids with different viscosities will never have the same specific B. indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount
gravity. of the fuel
C. Viscosity and specific gravity are directly proportional. C. is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures
D. Viscosity and specific gravity are not related in that one does not D. reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system
define or limit the other.
Ans: D Ans: A
2955 The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer 2956 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the "flash
because it _____________. point" of a liquid?
A. indicates the quanity of energy released by burning a unit amount A. It is lower than the ignition temperature.
of fuel
B. is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures B. It is the temperature at which a substance will spontaneously
ignite.
C. reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service systems C. It is the temperature at which a substance, when ignited, will
continue to burn.
D. is an indication of the amount of noncombustble material present in D. It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the
the oil explosive range.
Ans: D Ans: A
2957 The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor 2958 The tendency of a liquid to vaporize is indicated by its
to momentarily flash into flame when ignited is defined as the ____________.
____________.
A. burning temperature A. fire point
B. ignition temperature B. pour point
C. fire point C. flash point
 Page 160

D. flash point D. boiling point

Ans: D Ans: C
2959 The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor 2960 The size of the discharge ring used for the efficient operation of a
to burn continuously when ignited is defined as the disk type purifier is dependent upon the _____________.
_____________.
A. burning temperature A. rated capacity of that purifier
B. autoignition temperature B. viscosity of the oil being purified
C. flash point C. maximum design speed of that purifier
D. fire point D. specific gravity of the oil being purified
Ans: D Ans: D
2961 The percentage of impurities in a specific fuel oil sample is 2962 The flash point of a liquid refers to the temperature ____________.
determined by _____________.
A. settling in a fuel tank A. at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors
B. testing in a laboratory centrifuge B. at which a liquid will burn steadily
C. burning in a calorimeter C. at which a liquid will explode
D. testing in a closed cup D. that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily
Ans: B Ans: A
2963 In order to maximize the performance of a centrifuge, youcan adjust 2964 The temperature, in degrees Celsius, at which a liquid gives off a
the _______. I. number of disks in the stack II. frequency shooting flammable vapor when heated in an open cup tester is called the
the bowl _____________.
A. I only A. fire point
B. II only B. flash point
C. Both I and II C. vaporization temperature
D. Neither I nor II D. ignition temperature
Ans: D Ans: B
2965 The substance primarily responsible for heat loss in the combustion 2966 The flash point of a petroleum product is an indication of its
process is _____________. _____________.
A. sulphur A. viscosity
B. carbon B. pour point
C. hydrogen C. volatility
D. nitrogen D. lower explosive limit
Ans: D Ans: C
2967 What is the harmful effect of sulfur in a fuel? 2968 The volatility of any oil may be indicated by _____________.
A. It causes excessive smoking and soot at low firing rates. A. the flash point
B. It doesn't readily burn when combined with oxygen. B. the fire point
C. It clogs fuel oil strainers more often. C. the autogenous ignition point
D. It forms a corrosive acid when mixed with water or water vapor. D. All of the above.

Ans: D Ans: D
2969 It is the duty of the Chief Engineer to acquire and seal a sample of
fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample
must be preserved until ______________.
A. the voyage is completed
B. that particular supply of oil is exhausted
C. it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personnel for
testing and the results entered in the Oil Record Book, CG-480

D. return to the first port where upon it must be sent ashore for
chemical analysis and the findings submitted to the nearest Officer
in Charge, Marine Inspection
Ans: B
MARINE CONTROL SYSTEMS AND INSTRUMENTATION
2970 The controller set point of an automatic control system is 65°C. The 2971 In a pneumatic automation system, a unit producing a signal to
valve closes when the output temperature reaches 70°C, and govern the position of the controller of the measured variable,
reopens when the temperature falls below 60°C. The type of relative to the value of the measured variable, is said to have
positioning action in this controller is known as ________. _______________.

A. one-position single-point A. reset action

B. two-position single-point B. proportional action
C. one-position differential-gap C. two position action
D. two-position differential-gap D. rate action
Ans: D Ans: B
2972 If the loading air pressure for a diaphragm controlled valve drops 2973 Every automated machinery plant must have an "engineer's
below the designed operating pressure, the valve will assistance" alarm. Power for this alarm should be taken from the
________________. _________________.
A. fail to stroke open A. main bus
B. stroke slowly through its operating range B. emergency bus
C. stroke rapidly closed C. standby generator
D. fail to stroke through its complete range D. general alarm power supply
Ans: D Ans: D
2974 The effect of "reset", when added to a proportional controller is to 2975 Which of the following statements expresses the function of
_______________. proportional-plus-reset action?
A. make the controller correction proportional to the rate at which the A. The action measures the rate of time of the final control element.
input change takes place
B. accelerate the corrective action so as to minimize the possibility of B. The action gives control without offset under all load conditions.
hunting
 Page 161

C. make the corrective action of the controller proportional to the C. The action combines proportional-position action and rate action.
deviation of the controlled variable from the set point
D. repeat the proportional action until the controlled variable returns to D. The action is very unstable for anything but constant load
the set point conditions.
Ans: D Ans: B
2976 One disadvantage of proportional-position action is that 2977 Filters are installed ahead of air line lubricators for the primary
__________. purpose of removing ___________.
A. corrective action is only proportional to offset A. the heat of compression
B. exact correction can be made only when there is no change in load B. air supply pressure pulses

C. the controlled variable is stabilized C. moisture in the air supply

D. the corrective action is only proportional to the deviation D. turbulence in the air supply
Ans: D Ans: C
2978 The cylinder unloading mechanism used on low pressure air 2979 Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air
compressors is an example of which mode of control? pressure reducing station?
A. Two position A. Moisture separator
B. Derivative B. Vacuum breaker
C. Integral C. Lubricator
D. Single speed floating D. Nonreturn valve
Ans: A Ans: A
2980 Reset control is also referred to as ____________. 2981 Reset control is also referred to as ____________.
A. proportional speed floating control A. derivative control
B. derivative control B. integral control
C. rate control C. rate control
D. proportional control D. proportional control
Ans: A Ans: B
2982 The quantity or condition which is measured and controlled is 2983 A computing relay is used in a pneumatic control system to
known as the ____________. _______________.
A. controlled variable A. extract square roots
B. manipulated variable B. square
C. set point C. divide
D. control point D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
2984 The reset process control mode is also considered to be the same 2985 A mode of control, whereby the speed of motion of the final control
as _________. I. proportional speed floating control II. derivative element is linearly proportional to the deviation of the controlled
control variable from set point, is called _________.
A. I only A. rate control
B. II only B. derivative control
C. Both I and II C. two position control
D. Neither I nor II D. integral control
Ans: A Ans: D
2986 Which of the following definitions can be used to define the term 2987 Which of the following definitions best describes sensitivity as a
"offset" as a characteristic of controller action? characteristic of controller action?
A. The period of time in which the set point and the control point A. The ratio of the output in response to a specified change to the
coincide. input which caused it.
B. The periodic change between the set point and the control point. B. The steady state difference between the control point and the value
of the controlled variable corresponding to the set point.

C. The variable difference between the set point and the control point. C. The variation of the manipulated variable produced by the mode of
control.
D. The constant difference between the set point and the control D. The time difference between the input change and the output
point. change of the controller.
Ans: D Ans: A
2988 Why is it necessary to spin the piston of a dead weight gage tester 2989 A mandatory characteristic of a pure amplifier is that
while carrying out the calibrations of pressure gages? _______________.
A. Prevent formation of a vacuum. A. the form of the input and output energies must be the same
B. Eliminate the formation of air bubbles. B. the ratio of the output to the input must always be greater than the
numerical value of "one"
C. Prevent the piston rod from sticking. C. the form of the input and output energies must be different
D. To assist in calibrating the dead weight tester. D. the action must be either integral or derivative
Ans: C Ans: A
2990 The control mode in which the final control element is moved from 2991 A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the
one of two fixed positions to the other is known as speed at which the controlled variable is changing is known as
_______________. _____________.
A. dead band action A. reset action
B. neutral zone action B. integral action
C. range C. derivative action
D. on-off action D. proportional action
Ans: D Ans: C
2992 A hydrometer measures specific gravity by comparing the 2993 In an automated control system, which of the following statements
______________. would apply to any type of closed loop system?
A. density of a substance in water with the density of the same subject A. The manipulated variables are adjusted only from the input
in air demand signals without monitoring the outlet conditions or
variables.
B. differences in weight between water and the liquid measured B. Another term commonly used in conjunction with this type of system
is "feed forward."
 Page 162

C. mass of substance measured with the density of the same
substance
D. buoyancy of an object in water with the buoyancy of the same
object in the liquid being measured
Ans: D
2994 Information from a data-logger can be helpful in determining the
long term probability of machinery failure if you _____________.
C. The controlled variable must always deviate from its set point before
any corrective action is initiated by the controller.
D. In order for a system to fall under the category of closed loop
control, there should be no adjustments required to be made
manually by the operator.
Ans: C
2995 In pressure measurement, absolute pressure is defined as the
difference in pressure between _________________.

A. evaluate only the latest logged data as this is the best indication of A. any two pressures measured with respect to a common reference
plant status
B. evaluate a series of readings to obtain operating trends B. atmospheric pressure and barometric pressure at a given point

C. monitor off limit conditions only when announced by an audible and
visual signal
D. secure the machine under relatively steady state conditions
Ans: B
2996 If the flow rate to a linear actuator is reduced by half of the original
amount, the _____________.
A. pump discharge pressure will be reduced by a proportional amount
C. gage pressure and ambient atmospheric pressure
D. a perfect vacuum and the total pressure at a given point
Ans: D
2997 The characteristic of "offset" is inherent with which modeof control?
I. proportional control II. reset control
A. I only

B. speed of the actuator will be reduced B. II only

C. speed of the actuator will be increased C. Both I and II
D. the actuator will move erratically D. Neither I nor II
Ans: B Ans: A
2998 The mandatory operating characteristic of a pure amplifieris the 2999 To avoid corrosion and/or oxidation of the element, a thermometer
_______. I. form of the input and output energy must be the sameII. bulb is often protected by a "well" or casing. In addition to protecting
ratio of the output change to input change must be a value greater the element, the "well" will also ________________.
than 1 (one)
A. I only A. cause consistently higher than actual readings
B. II only B. cause consistently lower than actual readings
C. Both I and II C. require a longer time for the element to reach thermal equilibrium
with the system being measured
D. Neither I nor II D. increase the sensitivity of the element
Ans: A Ans: C
3000 Reset control is considered to be the same as _________. I. 3001 A mechanical and/or hydraulic action preventing the over-
proportional speed floating control II. integral control correction of the fuel supply, while producing transient speed droop
is called _______________.
A. I only A. stability
B. II only B. hunting
C. Both I and II C. compensation
D. Neither I nor II D. sensitivity
Ans: C Ans: C
3002 What is the value of the controlled variable that the automatic 3003 At which of the following locations would a duplex pressure gage
controller operates to maintain. most likely be located?
A. Set point A. Fuel oil service pump discharge flange
B. Control point B. Fuel oil strainer
C. Deviation C. Fuel oil heater
D. Offset D. Fuel oil flow meter
Ans: B Ans: B
3004 Differential pressures can be measured with the use of a 3005 In order to accurately measure very low pressures, which of the
_____________. instruments listed should be used?
A. diaphragm type gage A. Compound gage
B. pressure transducer B. Bourdon tube
C. manometer C. Manometer
D. all of the above D. Deadweight gage
Ans: D Ans: C
3006 A pneumercator is useful in measuring ____________________. 3007 The instrument used to indicate the level of a fluid in a tank is called
a _______________.
A. relative humidity A. fluid meter
B. air pressure B. calorimeter
C. liquid levels in tanks C. viscosimeter
D. fluid pneumercations D. pneumercator
Ans: C Ans: D
3008 Main engine room control console alarms are to be of the self 3009 Which of the following alarms and instrumentation is not required for
monitoring type, meaning that an open circuit to a particular alarm a vessel incorporating a controllable pitch propeller in its main
circuit will _____________. propulsion system?
A. cause an alarm condition A. Pitch indicator
B. secure power to the indicator B. Low oil temperature
C. secure power to the monitored device C. High oil pressure
D. automatically reclose within 10 seconds D. Low oil pressure
Ans: A Ans: B
3010 A compound Bourdon tube type pressure gage is capable of 3011 The instrument always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a
measuring ______________. _____________.
A. temperature and pressure A. pyrometer
B. wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures B. thermometer
 Page 163

C. humidity and temperature C. hygrometer

D. pressure and vacuum D. hydrometer
Ans: D Ans: B
3012 The control mode that is generally not used by itself is 3013 A closed loop pneumatic control system always operates with
_________________. _____________.
A. reset control A. a fixed final control element position
B. integral control B. simple on/off control
C. derivative control C. no controller feedback
D. two position differential gap control D. feedback to the controller
Ans: C Ans: D
3014 While attempting to read a tank level indicator, the mercury column 3015 A pressure gage pointer responding sluggishly to changes in
drops rapidly. This may indicate ____________. pressure, should be repaired by ______________.
A. a leak in the gage line A. tapping the gage housing lightly
B. free surface effect in the tank B. bending the needle to free the linkage
C. an improperly calibrated gage C. cleaning the residue from gear teeth
D. excess air in the balance chamber D. greasing the hair spring
Ans: A Ans: C
3016 A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an inaccurate reading if the 3017 In an automation system, increasing or decreasing the loading
____________. pressure by a set amount is known as _____________.

A. pneumercator is recharged with the air supply open A. positioning

B. pneumercator balance chamber bleed orifice is blocked by the oil B. proportioning
being measured
C. pressure in the system is allowed to equalize C. biasing
D. operating cock is placed in the "vent" position when the system is D. controlling
not in use
Ans: B Ans: C
3018 Moisture and impurities can be removed from pneumatic systems 3019 A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both above and
by using ______________. below _______________.
A. air intake heaters A. absolute pressure
B. desiccated suction strainers B. latent pressure
C. multi-orificed suction valves C. flow pressure
D. blowdown valves and filters D. atmospheric pressure
Ans: D Ans: D
3020 The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the 3021 Temperature measurement is an indication of the ___________.
_____________.
A. bimetallic type A. level of heat intensity
B. diaphragm type B. total heat of a substance
C. bourdon tube type C. rate of heat transfer from one substance to another
D. resistance-temperature type D. total heat contained in any closed energy system
Ans: C Ans: A
3022 In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the 3023 Prior to testing the pyrometer circuit wiring for continuitywith a
proportional action _________. I. opposes the reset action during multimeter, you should disconnect the pyrometerbecause
decreasing error transients II. aids the reset action during ____________.
increasing error transients
A. I only A. the driving voltage of the meter batteries can damage the circuit
meter
B. II only B. the pyrometer total resistance can damage the ohmmeter
C. Both I and II C. the reactance of the pyrometer will give a false meter reading

D. Neither I nor II D. meter current running through the pyrometer will permanently
magnetize the pyrometer's pointer
Ans: C Ans: A
3024 A proportional band or range adjustment to a bourdon 3025 A set point adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage
tubepressure gage is accomplished by ___________. I. adjusting isaccomplished by ___________. I. adjusting the effective moment
the effective moment arm length between the end of the bourdon arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant
tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum II. adjusting the pointer gear fulcrum II. adjusting the pointer position relative to the
position
A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. Both I and II C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II
Ans: A Ans: B
3026 In checking the level of a tank, three pneumercator readings have 3027 Devices, such as a pressure gage, that are subject to continuous
been taken. If each reading is higher than the last, this indicates expansion and contraction are affected by hysteresis. This is a
that _____________. natural process that ___________.
A. excessive charging air was supplied A. allows a material to return to its exact original shape
B. insufficient charging air has been supplied B. permits a resilient material to return to its almost original shape

C. the relief valve is sticking C. allows a resiliant material to resist permanent deformation
D. the tubing between the tank and the gauge has a leak D. is directly related to a material's elastic limit
Ans: B Ans: B
3028 In an automation system, the effect of a control action sensed by a 3029 A pneumercator is an instrument used to indicate __________.
controller is known as _____________.
A. command input A. air pressure in the diesel engine starting circuit
B. set point signal B. phosphates in boiler water
 Page 164

C. output C. tank fluid level

D. feedback D. micro ohms in condensate
Ans: D Ans: C
3030 The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of 3031 The steady state difference between the control point and the value
conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain, is known of the controlled variable, corresponding with the set point, is known
as ____________. as _____________.
A. set point A. dead band
B. control point B. control point
C. deviation C. deviation
D. offset D. offset
Ans: B Ans: D
3032 A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the 3033 While calibrating a bourdon tube pressure gage, all readings are
length of time the controlled variable has been away from the set found to be 0.7 kgs higher throughout its entire range. An
point, is known as ____________. adjustment should be made by ____________.
A. integral action A. increasing the sector to pivot point length
B. proportional action B. resetting the pointer on its shaft
C. rate action C. decreasing the sector to pivot point length
D. derivative action D. increase the set screw length
Ans: A Ans: B
3034 "Offset" is an inherent characteristic of which of the following types 3035 The meat box temperature control circuit, as used in the ship
of control modes? service refrigeration system, is an example of ____________.

A. Two position A. two position control

B. Proportional B. single speed floating control
C. Reset C. proportional control
D. Rate D. reset control
Ans: B Ans: A
3036 A mode of control, whereby the position of the final control element 3037 When a controller is provided with reset rate adjustment, a change
is linearly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled in this adjustment results in a change of the _______________.
variable, is called _______________________.
A. reset control A. desired value of the proportionally controlled variable
B. integral control B. floating rate of the proportional-speed floating component
C. two position control C. value representing the readjusted controlled variable
D. derivative control D. desired prepositioned value of the controlled medium
Ans: D Ans: B
3038 The two most common gases used in pneumatic systems are 3039 When "reset" action is added to proportional action, the proportional
_____________. action ______________.
A. compressed air and nitrogen A. aids the reset action during decreasing error transients
B. helium and nitrogen B. aids the reset action during increasing error transients
C. oxygen and hydrogen C. opposes the reset action during increasing error transients
D. oxygen and acetylene D. and reset action are completely independent of one another in the
controller operation
Ans: A Ans: B
3040 Automatic control valves for steam service require periodic 3041 When "reset" action is added to proportional action
maintenance inspections because they ___________. _________________.
A. are subjected to high compressive stress A. the proportional action opposes the reset action during decreasing
error transients
B. are subjected to a wide range of temperatures and pressures B. the proportional action opposes the reset action during increasing
error transients
C. continuously throttle steam resulting in wire drawing and erosion of C. the proportional action assists the reset action during decreasing
the valve error transients
D. receive high pressure air from the pilot valve D. the proportional action and the reset action are completely
independent of one another in the controller operation
Ans: C Ans: A
3042 When a controller with proportional position action is used to control 3043 Which of the following control actions, when combined with
a process, a load change will cause the controlled variable to proportional-position action, will eliminate manual repositioning of
stabilize at some value other than the set point value. The new the set point for each load change to produce an automatic reset
point at which the controlled variable stabilizes is ca action?

A. offset A. Neutral band

B. deviation B. Floating action
C. control point C. Reciprocal action
D. load point D. Rate action
Ans: C Ans: B
3044 A rotameter, when used to indicate the rate of fluid flow in distilling 3045 Double seated, pneumatically controlled, regulating valves exhibit
plants, is essentially an area meter consisting of a good balancing characteristics essential for low-sensitivity
_____________. applications because __________.
A. movable float riding on a rod centered in a tapered tube A. high pressure enters between the seats and creates equal, but
opposing forces
B. piston uncovering a port whose opening is directly proportional to B. they employ a specially fabricated diaphragm
fluid flow
C. movable orifice plate venturi tube and high pressure tap C. the feedback control signals balance the opposing forces acting on
the diaphragm
D. rotating vane transmitting nutating motion to a counter mechanism D. the special diaphragm motor spring resists pressure changes

Ans: A Ans: A
 Page 165

3046 The probable cause of erratic operation of a pneumatically 3047 A compound Bourdon tube gage is capable of measuring pressure
controlled steam pressure reducing valve is ____________. and _______________.
A. the range spring has become weakened A. humidity
B. an incorrect loading pressure supplied to the power unit B. vacuum
C. a partially restricted loading air pressure line C. temperature
D. a pinhole in the power diaphragm D. density
Ans: C Ans: B
3048 If you turn the handwheel clockwise of a spring-loaded, internal 3049 How may the response time for a thermometer using a protective
pilot, reducing valve, you will ____________. well be reduced?
A. compress the adjusting spring against the diaphragm A. Fill the well with nitrogen.
B. release spring tension from the diaphragm B. Fill the well with water.
C. increase steam pressure to the reducing valve C. Drill small holes in the well.
D. decrease spring tension in the main valve D. Pack the space around the bulb with graphite.
Ans: A Ans: D
3050 Why is it necessary to have the weight bearing piston of a 3051 The portion of a mechanism that utilizes manual positioning, or
deadweight gage tester spinning when testing a gage for proper automatic indexing, is known as a detent. An example of a detent
calibration? used aboard ship can be found in a/an ____________.
A. Minimizes piston drag and reduces tester error. A. rheostat
B. Prevents vibration errors in the gage tester. B. engine order telegraph
C. Minimizes piston speed and reduces tester error. C. valve handwheel
D. Allows trapped air below the piston to escape. D. fuel/air ratio control knob
Ans: A Ans: B
3052 Biasing, in a pneumatic automated combustion control system, 3053 If you suspect that a gage is sticking and giving an inaccurate
refers to a set amount of increase or decrease in the_________. reading, you should ___________.

A. control pressure A. blow out the gage line with compressed air
B. loading pressure B. tap the gage body with a wrench
C. supply pressure C. remove the gage bezel and slightly move the needle
D. rate relay pressure D. replace the gage or have it calibrated
Ans: B Ans: D
3054 The moisture sensitive element of a humidistat can be made of 3055 A pneumercator tank gage utilizes ______________.
_____________.
A. hair A. a Bourdon tube indicator
B. copper B. a balance chamber
C. plastic C. an electronic sensing line
D. steel D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: B
3056 A pyrometer is capable of producing a voltage by __________. 3057 A solenoid valve is operated by magnetic action through
_____________.
A. chemical reaction A. suction pressure at the compressor
B. light striking a photo sensitive substance B. an electrically energized coil
C. heating a junction of two dissimilar metals C. superheat at the evaporator outlet coil
D. squeezing crystals of certain substances D. a vacuum operated bellows
Ans: C Ans: B
3058 In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the 3059 In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the
proportional action _________. I. and the reset action are proportional action _________. I. aids the reset action during
completely independent of one another II. opposes reset action increasing error transients II. and the reset action are completely
during decreasing error transients independent of one another
A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. Both I and II C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II
Ans: B Ans: A
3060 To ensure an accurate pneumercator reading, you should 3061 A pneumercator measures the liquid level in a tank bysensing
_____________. ___________. I. head pressure II. liquid density
A. purge the balance chamber to remove any liquid A. I only
B. read the bottom of the mercury meniscus B. II only
C. take the reading with the operating cock in the vent position C. both I and II
D. make certain the tank has been bled of air D. neither I nor II
Ans: A Ans: A
3062 When checking the level of a fuel oil tank using a pneumercator, 3063 The control mode where the position of the final control element has
the initial reading obtained can be quickly verified by a linear relationship with the position or value of the controlled
_____________. variable, is known as _____________.
A. repeating the process and getting the same reading again A. two position control
B. sounding the tank with a tape coated with a fuel indicating paste B. proportion control

C. a gauge reading of zero when the control handle is in the purge C. reset control
position
D. a gauge reading equal to supply air pressure when the control D. rate control
handle is in the purge position
Ans: A Ans: B
3064 The range of values through which the input can be varied without 3065 The ratio of output response to a specified change in the input is
initiating an output response is known as _________. known as ____________.
A. deviation A. primary feedback
B. offset B. deviation
C. sensitivity C. sensitivity
 Page 166

D. dead band D. dead band

Ans: D Ans: C
3066 A proportional band, or range adjustment of a bourdon tube 3067 The set point adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is
pressure gage is accomplished by ______________. accomplished by ___________.
A. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon A. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon
tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum
B. adjusting the pointer position relative to the shaft on which it is B. adjusting the pointer position relative to the shaft on which it is
mounted mounted
C. changing out the pointer pinion C. adjusting the pointer position by bending the free end of the pointer

D. flattening the cross-section of the bourdon tube D. flattening the cross section of the bourdon tube
Ans: A Ans: B
3068 Which of the following control modes is generally not used by itself? 3069 A pure transducer utilizes _____________.

A. Two position action A. integral action

B. Proportional action B. rate action
C. Integral action C. proportional action
D. Derivative action D. derivative action
Ans: D Ans: C
3070 Which of the following elements is common to all indicating 3071 The mode of control employed by an alarm circuit is a
instruments? _____________.
A. An electrical input A. two position control
B. A bourdon tube B. single speed floating control
C. A reset button C. proportional speed floating control
D. A calibrated scale D. reset control
Ans: D Ans: A
3072 Which of the following proportional band values most closely 3073 The response line installed in a pneumatic proportional action
approaches "ON-OFF" control? controller functions to __________.
A. -0.1 A. monitor the accuracy of the measuring element
B. 0.02 B. provide a feedback signal for accurate final element positioning

C. 1 C. regulate the air supply in the line to the nozzle

D. 5 D. readjust the total spring force in the air control relay
Ans: B Ans: B
3074 Increasing the "reset rate" of a proportional-plus-reset controller 3075 A two-position single-point action controller has been adjusted to
____________. minimize cycling and would only be suitable for ____________.

A. narrows the proportional band A. constant load conditions

B. widens the proportional band B. intermittent load conditions
C. repeats the proportional action more frequently C. wide temperature fluctuations
D. increase the stability of the controller D. rate action only
Ans: C Ans: A
3076 The amount of change of a controlled variable that is necessary to 3077 A controller with floating action has a controlled variable where the
cause a specific change in the position of the final control element range of values produces no motion of the final control element.
depends upon the ____________. This range of values is called the _______________.

A. differential gap adjustment A. neutral zone

B. range of valve opening B. set point
C. proportional band adjustment of the controller C. control point
D. form of the controlled medium D. offset
Ans: C Ans: A
3078 A pneumercator is used to indicate fuel oil _____________. 3079 A pyrometer is generally used to measure _________.
A. pressure A. grains of moisture per cubic foot of air
B. level B. salinity concentration of condensate
C. temperature C. stack temperature
D. flow D. level of a fluid in a tank
Ans: B Ans: C
3080 When the vessel's steering wheel on the navigation bridge is 3081 The gage most commonly used aboard ship to measure high
turned, the difference existing between the position of the wheel pressures is the ___________.
and that of the rudder is known as ____________.
A. proportional band A. volatile liquid-type
B. the error signal B. diaphragm actuated-type
C. the reset signal C. Bourdon tube-type
D. feedback D. resistance-temperature-type
Ans: B Ans: C
3082 A compound gage is used to measure _____________. 3083 Any restriction in the instrument air piping of a pneumatic control
system will _______________.
A. temperature and pressure A. delay transmission of the air signal
B. humidity and temperature B. increase the transmitted air signal intensity
C. pressure and vacuum C. reduce the transmitted air signal value
D. pressure and humidity D. accelerate transmission of the air signal
Ans: C Ans: A
3084 A primary element used with flow measurement devices highly 3085 Restrictions occuring in the small orifices of pneumatic control
suitable for liquids containing solids in suspension, is a system components can be caused by _____________.
____________.
A. concentric orifice A. moisture in the compressed air supply
 Page 167

B. convergent nozzle B. excessive dryness in the compressed air supply

C. venturi tube C. pressure surging in the compressed air receiver
D. pilot tube D. insufficient lubrication of the system components
Ans: C Ans: A
3086 Which of the listed characteristics is typical of a strip chart graphic 3087 When the pressure on a compound gage is released, the gage
recorder? pointer is returned to zero psig by action of the _________.

A. The time graduations fan out from the center. A. Bourdon tube
B. The data charts are more easily stored than the circular charts. B. spring return arm

C. The variable being measured is drawn on rectangular coordinates. C. compound diaphragm

D. Strip charts are more difficult to read than circular charts. D. compensating spring
Ans: C Ans: A
3088 On tank vessels using an automatic tape wells, free movement of 3089 With regards to fluid flow control, an advantage of pneumatic
the tape is normally checked by _______________________. control systems over electrical control systems is
________________.
A. removing the side plate A. practically no limit to the power available for a given system
B. operating the hand clutch B. no transmission losses
C. comparing with a hand tape C. low energy input
D. using litmus paste D. continued control through temporary electrical power losses
Ans: B Ans: D
3090 On tank vessels using an automatic tape well for gaging tanks, the 3091 Which of the following statements is true concerning the
hand clutch is used to _____________. instrumentation or alarms provided at the main control station for
an automated main propulsion plant?
A. adjust the tape weight A. Nonvital alarms are separated from vital alarms.
B. lower the thieving rod B. Provisions are made through simulation or actual condition for
testing all audible and visual alarms and indicating lights.
C. roll up the tape C. All alarm circuits should be in operation when the system is on the
line.
D. calibrate the tank D. All of the above.
Ans: C Ans: D
3092 Most solenoid valves are actuated by _________. 3093 The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the
_____________.
A. a spring A. bimetallic type
B. an electromagnet B. diaphragm type
C. the force of gravity C. bourdon tube type
D. refrigerant pressure D. resistance-temperature type
Ans: B Ans: C
3094 The vessel's steering gear is a classic example of a positioner type 3095 When the pressure applied to a Bourdon tube-type pressure gage
automation system. The variable input is provided through the is reduced to atmospheric pressure, the tube will begin to "bend"
steering wheel, and the rudder position is fed back to the operating towards the center of arc. Small variations develop preventing the
mechanism. The difference between the input signal an tube from returning to its exact original shape due to th

A. system differential A. hysteresis

B. proportional band B. compression
C. error C. homiostatious deformation
D. command input D. gas eddys
Ans: C Ans: A
3096 When a bourdon tube pressure gage is tested and found to be
inaccurate, adjustment must be made to obtain the correct
readings. The distance between the pointer spindle and the link
connection to the sector gear will be changed when the
____________.
A. pointer does not travel the correct distance as test weight is added

B. proportional amount of pointer travel for each weight added is

correct, but the total reading is wrong
C. reading is correct only at the working pressure
D. readings are correct only at the minimum and maximum ends of the
scale
Ans: A
 Page 168

SHIP CONSTRUCTION, REPAIRS AND REGULATIONS

3097 The gasket and the broken studs have been replaced on a tank 3098 Vertical transverse structures in the double bottom are known as
manhole cover. Which of the following methods is satisfactory for _________.
testing the repair?
A. Pressurize the tank with 0.7kg/cm2 air, soap the repaired area, A. pillars
watch for visible signs of leakage or bubbles.
B. Fill the tank with water via the ballast pump until the innage reading B. floors
corresponds to the maximum depth of the tank.
C. Hose test the repaired area with a minimum of 7 kg/cm2 water C. ceilings
pressure.
D. Fill the tank via the ballast pump until water flows from the vent line D. stanchions
opening on deck.
Ans: C Ans: B
3099 The garboard strake is located ____________. 3100 The end joint formed by adjoining plates in a hull plating strake is
properly identified as a ____________.
A. at the very bottom center A. bracket
B. just under the sheer line B. scarph
C. at each side of the keel C. butt
D. at the turn of the bilge D. seam
Ans: C Ans: C
3101 Structural members used to support and transmit the downward 3102 The welded joint located between two plates in the same strake of
force of the load and distribute that force over a large area, are hull plating is called a _____________.
called ______________.
A. pillars A. bracket
B. stanchions B. scarf
C. columns C. lap
D. all of the above D. butt
Ans: D Ans: D
3103 Vertical support members used to strengthen bulkheads are called 3104 The double bottom in a vessel is a space comprised of
_____________. ______________.
A. stiffeners A. plating forming the engine room tank top
B. panels B. doubler plating installed over the flat keel plate
C. stanchions C. a watertight boundary formed by the inner bottom
D. brackets D. compartments between the inner and outer bottoms
Ans: A Ans: D
3105 The inner bottom of a ship is the _____________. 3106 A shot of anchor chain has a length of ____________.
A. plating forming the engine room tank top A. 6 fathoms
B. doubler plating installed over the flat keel plate B. 12 fathoms
C. watertight boundary formed by the skin of the ship C. 15 fathoms
D. compartment between the tank top and skin of the ship D. 45 fathoms
Ans: A Ans: C
3107 The part of the anchor windlass that engages the anchor chain for 3108 Which of the following precautions should always be carriedout in
lifting is called the _____________. drydock?
A. warping head A. Liquids should never be transferred between tanks without
consulting the dock master.
B. fairlead B. If sea valves have been disassembled, all bonnets must be
checked for leakage when the ship is refloated.
C. wildcat C. Before refloating, all sea chest strainers should be verified as
having been replaced.
D. capstan D. All of the above.
Ans: C Ans: D
3109 The collision bulkhead is located _________. 3110 Regulations require tank sounding tubes terminating above the
weather deck of a cargo vessel to be fitted with a _________.

A. on the bridge deck A. globe valve

B. between the passenger and cargo areas B. stop-check valve
C. at the stern of the ship C. gate valve
D. as the first watertight bulkhead aft of the bow in the ship D. screw cap or plug
Ans: D Ans: D
3111 According to Regulations , how many means of escape must be 3112 The purpose in constructing a pipe tunnel aboard a vessel is to
provided in spaces where the crew may be quartered or employed? ___________.

A. Two, both of which must be through watertight doors. A. insulate piping from ambient temperatures
B. Two, both of which are located as close together as possible to B. provide convenient grouping of all piping leading fore and aft from
centralize escape routes. the machinery space for easy access and control
C. Two, at least one of which shall be independent of watertight C. enclose all pipes leading to a single forward compartment in their
doors. own enclosure
D. Two, both of which must be vertical ladders terminating in locked D. segregate a pipe from the compartment through which it passes
watertight scuttles.
Ans: C Ans: D
3113 Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close 3114 When a new section of shell plating is being installed, the proper
the watertight doors in an emergency? weld sequence must be followed to _____________.
A. Crew member A. minimize shrinkage stresses and harmful distortion
B. Master of the vessel B. ensure that all weldments are downhand
C. Chief Engineer C. provide the greatest restraint in the weld
D. Chief Mate D. ensure all horizontal weldments are completed first
 Page 169

Ans: B Ans: A
3115 When renewing only a portion of an entire hull plate with an insert 3116 A vessel's immediate protection in the event of a broken stern tube
plate, which of the listed guidelines should be followed? is a/an ____________.

A. The insert plate should cover at least one full frame space. A. aft collision bulkhead
B. The lines of new welding should, where possible, lie in existing B. stern frame bulkhead
lines of welding.
C. The corners of the insert plate should be square. C. after peak bulkhead
D. The insert plate should be at least 9/16 thick. D. aft machinery space watertight bulkhead
Ans: A Ans: C
3117 When the ship's bulkheads are reinforced against bending and 3118 In modern ship construction, high tensile steel (HTS) may be
bulging, the bulkheads are provided with ____________. permitted in _______________.
A. stanchions A. the sheer strake
B. girders B. the keel strake
C. stiffeners C. the margin strake
D. rabbits D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
3119 Which of the listed statements correctly reflects the requirements 3120 In ship construction, beams are transverse girders which provide
for steel used in low temperature applications aboard ships? support to ___________.

A. A steel acceptable for service at 19.5°C is not acceptable for A. bulkheads

service at 10°C.
B. The words "low temperature" are to be marked legibly at each end B. deckhouse structures
of the finished plate.
C. No special welding procedures are required. C. decks
D. Any steel acceptable for a particular minimum service temperature D. vertical frames
is also acceptable for higher service temperatures.

Ans: D
3121 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the
regulations regarding internal combustion engine exhausts, boiler
and galley uptakes, and similar sources of ignition?
A. They shall be kept clear of and suitably insulated from any
woodwork or other combustible matter.
B. All exhausts and uptakes shall run as close as possible to the
vertical and shall exit the machinery space at a point above the
highest load line.
C. The general construction of the vessel shall be such as to minimize
smoke hazards insofar as is reasonable and practicable.
Ans: C
3122 According to regulation , a "C" class division, bulkhead or deck shall
be constructed ___________.
A. with approved incombustible materials and made intact from deck
to deck and to shell or other boundaries
B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no
requirements relative to the passage of flame
C. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of
preventing the passage of flame for one half hour

D. This protection shall be such as to be capable of preventing an D. that if subjected to the standards fire test, they would be capable of
excessive temperature rise in the space containing the emergency preventing the passage of flame or smoke for one hour
source of electric power.
Ans: A Ans: B
3123 Which of the following clearance readings should be taken and 3124 Support of side plating is provided primarily by transverse
recorded in drydock? ______________.
A. The clearances between the propeller blade tips and the hull. A. beams

B. The clearances between the propeller hub and the fair water cone. B. girders

C. The rudder bearing clearances. C. frames

D. The clearances between the stern tube packing gland and the D. bulkheads
retaining ring.
Ans: C Ans: C
3125 In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in strakes and 3126 In ship construction, the strakes are given letter designations
assigned letter designations. If the strakes were lettered "A" beginning with the letter "A." The "A" strake is adjacent to the
through "K", the "K" strake will be ______________. ___________.
A. at the turn of the bilge A. deck edge strake
B. the keel strake B. keel
C. the drop strake C. turn of the bilge strake
D. the sheer strake D. sheer strake
Ans: D Ans: B
3127 In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in strakes, with 3128 In ship construction, which of the listed strengthening members act
four of the strakes being specifically identified by name. The strake to support the decks?
next to the keel is identified as the ____________.

A. keel strake A. Pillars

B. garboard strake B. Girders
C. bilge strake C. Bulkheads
D. sheer strake D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
3129 In ship construction, the hull frame members extending athwartship 3130 The purpose of swash bulkheads is to ____________.
are called ____________.
A. deck frames A. minimize the effect of a listing condition
B. stringer frames B. restrict flooding within a tank
C. longitudinal frames C. separate cargoes in a common tank
 Page 170

D. transverse frames D. reduce liquid movement within a tank

Ans: D Ans: D
3131 If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,there is a 3132 The depth of fuel oil in a double bottom tank is measuredthrough
significant possibility that ________. I. there will be an the _____________.
accumulation of static electricity II. mold will grow and
contaminate the cargo
A. I only A. vent line
B. II only B. depth gage
C. Both I and II C. manhole cover
D. Neither I nor II D. sounding tube
Ans: B Ans: D
3133 Regulations require that any tankship making a voyage "of over a 3134 Pillar cross-sections of "I", "H", or circular are used in ship
48 hour duration" must have certain tests conducted not more than construction in locations where there are large expanses, void of
12 hours prior to leaving port. Meeting this requirement includes intermediate decks and bulkheads, such as in cargo holds and
thetesting of the ____________. engine rooms. A supporting pillar which becomes bent out of ver

A. means of communication between the bridge and engineroom A. not be critical until the vertical angle approaches 15‚
B. fire pump relief valve B. loose practically all of its strength as a support
C. watertight door to the shaft alley C. most likely experience shear stress failure if not reinforced
immediately
D. emergency lighting system D. not pose any problem, provided there are no cracked welds
connecting it to any adjoining strength members
Ans: A Ans: B
3135 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific 3136 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific
portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The
second shot of the chain is painted __________. first shot of chain is painted __________.

A. white on the detachable link A. white on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of
the detachable link
B. red for two links on either side of the detachable link B. white on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of
the detachable link
C. white for two links on either side of the detachable line C. red on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the
detachable link
D. red on the detachable link D. red on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of
the detachable link
Ans: C Ans: D
3137 The bitter end is the __________. 3138 A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.
A. looped end of a mooring cable A. one chain link
B. end of the chain shackled to the anchor B. one - 90 foot segment
C. fixed end of the mooring cable fastened to the mooring winch drum C. 90 fathoms

D. end of the anchor chain fastened to the vessel D. one - 15 foot segment
Ans: D Ans: B
3139 All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are 3140 Stanchions prevent the entire deck load from being carried by the
painted __________. ______________.
A. yellow A. bulkheads
B. white B. stringers
C. red C. frames and beam brackets
D. orange D. deck longitudinals
Ans: A Ans: C
3141 According to regulations , a "B" class bulkhead shall be constructed 3142 The material, design, construction and workmanship of main and
_______. auxiliary machinery shall _________. (46 CFR)
A. of steel or equivalent metal construction, suitably stiffened and A. determine the necessity of duplication and application of redundant
made intact from deck to deck and to shell or other boundaries systems

B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no B. be examined and approved by the Port State Control Officer of the
requirements relative to the passage of flame port in which the vessel is being constructed
C. that if subjected to a standard fire test, they would be capable of C. be at least equivalent to the standards established by the American
preventing the passage of flame for one half hour Bureau of Shipping or other recognized classification society

D. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of
preventing the passage of flame and smoke for one hour
Ans: C
3143 According to regulation , an "A" class division, bulkhead or deck
shall be constructed _________.
A. with approved incombustible materials and made intact from deck
to deck and to shell or other boundaries
B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no
requirements relative to the passage of flame
C. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of
preventing the passage of flame for one half hour
D. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of
preventing the passage of flame and smoke for one hour
D. prevent the possibility of operator injury due to inefficient
construction practices and inappropriate material testing
procedures
Ans: C
3144 The bleeder plug, or docking plug located on a motor vessel double
bottom tank is used to ______________.
A. indicate when the tank is pressed up
B. provide a secondary means of tank sounding
C. vent air from the tank when bunkering
D. empty the tank when in drydock

Ans: D Ans: D
 Page 171

3145 In ship construction, beam brackets are triangular plates joining the 3146 Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead are called
deck beam to a _________________. ____________.
A. bulkhead A. side longitudinals
B. frame B. intercostals
C. stanchion C. stiffeners
D. deck longitudinal D. brackets
Ans: B Ans: C
3147 The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the 3148 If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an
department include _____________. excessive speed, you should _____________.
A. preparing a list of engine department personnel for the Master's A. remove unnecessary weight from the boat
signature
B. taking a complete personal inventory of all engine room spare B. adjust the centrifugal brake mechanism
parts
C. determining if any vital engine room equipment is inoperative C. adjust the davit mounted limit switches
D. obtaining a valid Certification of Inspection from the Coast Guard D. engage the motor friction clutch bands

Ans: C Ans: B
3149 When a vessel is drydocked for inspection, which of the following 3150 Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo
valves are required to be opened during this period? vessels are permitted by Regulations to be located in which of the
listed spaces?
A. Ballast pump manifold valves A. Washrooms
B. High and low suction valves on fuel oil settling tanks B. Laundries
C. Bottom blow skin valves to the main and auxiliary boilers C. Slop sinks
D. Cooling water control valves on refrigeration condensers D. Corridors
Ans: C Ans: D
3151 On small passenger vessels, separation of machinery and fuel tank 3152 Regulations require remote controls for stopping machinery driving
spaces shall be __________. fuel oil service pumps. These controls shall be ___________.

A. provided between each of these spaces by watertight and/or A. located at the control platform
vaportight bulkheads
B. separated from accommodation spaces by watertight and/or B. provided with a locked cover
vaportight bulkheads
C. not considered as essential C. accessible to authorized personnel only
D. separated from accommodations spaces by non-continuous D. protected against accidental operation
bulkheads
Ans: B Ans: D
3153 The location of a vessel's frame stations may be obtained from 3154 Where should you expect to find striking plates?
which of the listed drawings?
A. Profile A. In the bow of the ship at the waterline.
B. Base line B. On the bottom of a fuel or ballast tank under the sounding tube.

C. Cross section C. Under the counter above the propeller blade tips.
D. Buttock D. On the cofferdam manhole.
Ans: A Ans: B
3155 What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain? 3156 The principal purpose of an anchor windlass chain stopper is to
_____________.
A. Red A. tie off the warping head lines
B. White B. absorb the brake thrust of the anchor windlass
C. Blue C. hold the anchor chain while riding at anchor
D. Yellow D. lock the intermediate clutch shaft to the wildcat
Ans: A Ans: C
3157 According to Regulations , where cargo pump shafts on tankers 3158 In merchant ship construction, the term "scantlings" refers to the
pierce bulkheads ________________. ____________.
A. readily accessible gastight glands shall be provided A. factor of safety involved with the hog and sag characteristics of
the hull
B. compressed air shall be used as the primary means to discharge B. hull girder strength in terms of the standard model
cargo
C. a pressure gauge or manometer shall be installed on the bulkhead C. designed size of the beams, stiffeners, and shell plating
to ensure the gastight seal is maintained
D. the glands are to be kept under continuous suction with power D. ICE strength classification of the hull
ventilation
Ans: A Ans: C
3159 The structural members of the hull extending in a fore and aft 3160 The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to
direction are called _________. operate your vessel can be determined by checking the
_______________.
A. frames A. Manning Certificate
B. joiners B. Class Certificate
C. longitudinals C. Master's crew list
D. knees D. Master's logbook
Ans: C Ans: A
3161 Which of the following is operated from the main engine room 3162 Expansion tanks used in a hot water heating system may be of the
console on an automated vessel? open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the
normal temperature range of the water?
A. Fire pump and lube oil pump A. 80°C to 100°C
B. Lube oil pump and distilling plant B. 104°C to 116°C
C. Distilling plant and shaft alley door C. 127°C to 138°C
 Page 172

D. Shaft alley door and fixed CO2 release D. 160°C to 182°C

Ans: A Ans: B
3163 Which of the following statements describes the function of an 3164 According to regulations , a standard fire test is one ________.
alarm annunciator on an engine room alarm panel?
A. An alarm condition causes a light and siren to come on which A. of many initial operating tests performed on newly commissioned
remain on until the machinery is secured. boilers
B. A flashing light comes on, followed by an audible alarm. When an B. which is used to determine the flash point of various marine fuels
alarm acknowledge button is depressed, the audible alarm is
silenced and light stays on.
C. An alarm condition gives an audible and visual alarm signal, both of C. which develops a series of temperature relationships in a test
which are secured when the alarm acknowledge button is furnace
depressed.
D. An alarm condition causes a flashing light to come on, followed by D. in which all emergency firefighting and related safety equipment are
an audible alarm. When the alarm acknowledge button is tested
depressed, the warning light is extinguished.
Ans: B Ans: C
3165 With reference to a vessel's structural integrity, the most significant 3166 With regard to the opening and closing of watertight appliances not
characteristic of a cryogenic liquid is its ______________. fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system, which of the
following is the master or person in charge of a MODU required to
enter in the logbook?
A. capability of causing brittle fractures A. The time required to close the appliances.
B. highly corrosive action on mild steel B. The reason for opening or closing each appliance.
C. vapor cloud which reacts violently with saltwater C. The name of the person performing the opening and closing of such
appliances.
D. toxicity at atmospheric pressure D. The fact that the hull indicators functioned or not.
Ans: A Ans: B
3167 The purpose of bilge keels is to _____________. 3168 Which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or doubler
plate?
A. lower the center of gravity of the ship A. Provides a surface for the application of force, or the installation of
machinery.
B. reduce the amplitude of roll B. Provides landing surface for the sounding bob of a tank sounding
tape.
C. reduce pitching C. Absorbs machinery vibration.
D. reduce yawing D. Prevents valve stem over travel.
Ans: B Ans: B
3169 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific 3170 Aboard tankers, the term Category "A" Machinery Space, as
portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The defined by Regulations means any spaceincluding trunks and
third shot of chain should have __________. ducts to that space containing ____________.
A. three turns of wire wrapped around the detachable link A. internal combustion machinery used for main propulsion
B. three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link on each B. one or more oil fired boilers or oil fuel units
side of the detachable link
C. three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the link on each side C. internal combustion machinery used for purposes other than main
of the detachabale link propulsion where the total collective power is at least 500 brake
horsepower
D. one turn of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link on each D. all of the above
side of the detachable link
Ans: B Ans: D
3171 If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,there is a 3172 If auxiliary machinery vital to the main propulsion system is not
significant possibility that ________. I. there will be an provided with independent duplicate systems, which of the systems
accumulation of static electricity II. mold will grow and listed would satisfy regulations if serviced by two pumps?
contaminate the cargo
A. I only A. Main condensate
B. II only B. Lube oil service
C. Both I and II C. Fuel oil service
D. Neither I nor II D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
3173 Which of the following machinery remote control shutdowns is 3174 All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted
required to be tested during each regular inspection for __________.
certification?
A. Forced draft fan A. yellow
B. Induced draft fan B. white
C. Fuel oil transfer pump C. red
D. All of the above D. orange
Ans: D Ans: C
3175 If a vessel is not provided with duplicate service systems, which of 3176 The hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed today are
the systems listed will satisfy the regulations if serviced by two fabricated from _______________.
pumps?
A. Main condensate A. wrought iron
B. Fuel oil service B. high alloy steel
C. Lube oil service C. mild steel
D. All of the above D. corrosion resisting steel
Ans: D Ans: C
3177 When any vessel is drydocked, examination shall be made of the 3178 The penetration of watertight bulkheads and watertight decks by
propeller, ___________. rigid nonmetallic piping is prohibited except when ___________.
 Page 173

A. fairwater cone and hull anodes by the Chief Engineer assigned to
the vessel
B. propeller coupling and flange fasteners by the authorized inspector
of the repair facility
C. keel and stabilizing fins by a registered marine engineer
A. using an acceptable metallic fitting, welded or otherwise is attached
to the bulkhead or deck by an acceptable method
B. the rigid nonmetallic plastic pipe is at least of schedule 160 and a
metallic shut off valve is provided adjacent to the through deck or
bulkhead fitting
C. metallic shut off valves are welded to nonmetallic hull materials

D. stern bushing, sea connection and fastenings if deemed necessary D. two non-remotely operated metallic valves are installed on either
by the class surveyor side of the deck or bulkhead regardless of accessability

Ans: D Ans: A
3179 In ship construction, a large number of watertight bulkheads results 3180 Regulations require fresh water tank vents terminating within the
in ____________. machinery space to terminate well above the deep load line, unless
the ________.
A. increased capacity to set flooding boundaries A. vents are fitted with suitable mechanical closures
B. decreased capacity to set flooding boundaries B. tanks have no boundaries in common with the hull
C. reduced compartmentation C. vents are fitted with ball float check valves or an equivalent
automatic closure device
D. greater deck load capacity D. tanks are fitted with suitable pressure-vacuum relief valves
Ans: A Ans: B
3181 Regulations prohibit air compressors from being located in 3182 Who is responsible for completing the station bill or muster list and
____________. posting it in a visible area aboard the vessel?
A. a space within three meters of a cargo valve A. Chief Engineer
B. a space in which cargo hose is stowed B. Master
C. an enclosed space containing cargo piping C. PSC inspector
D. all of the above D. None of the above
Ans: D Ans: B
3183 When a vessel is in drydock, the vessel's engineers should 3184 According to Regulations , when reach rods to tank valves pass
____________. through the deck, the stuffing box at this joint must be
________________.
A. examine the condition of the propeller A. grounded with bonding straps
B. chip and paint all hull protection zincs B. water tight
C. install new docking plugs in all cofferdams C. gas tight
D. inspect the hull for hogging or sagging D. made of nylon or other nonmetallic material
Ans: A Ans: C
3185 When installing a new independent fuel tank for the emergency 3186 How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank vessels to
lighting unit, which of the following statements must be strictly be tested?
adhered to in accordance with Regulations?
A. The tank must be located on an open deck or in an adequately A. Prior to each cargo discharge operation.
ventilated metal compartment in which the ambient temperature
never exceeds 150°F.
B. Iron or steel tanks shall be galvanized on the interior to prevent the B. At least once each voyage.
formation of rust if any condensation should occur.

C. The fuel tank should be adequately supported and braced to C. At least once a year.
prevent movement and insulated from the vessel's common
ground to insure against static electricity.
D. All of the above. D. At each biennial inspection.
Ans: A Ans: C
3187 Machinery driving fuel oil transfer and fuel oil service pumps must 3188 A cofferdam is a/an _______________.
be fitted with a remote means of stopping the machinery from
____________.
A. within the space concerned A. empty space between tank tops and bilges
B. outside the space concerned B. cement baffle in a fresh water tank
C. the throttle station C. tank for storing chemicals
D. within the fireroom D. empty space separating compartments to prevent the contents of
one compartment from entering another in case of leakage

Ans: B Ans: D
3189 The outer strake of the inner bottom on each side of the ship is 3190 In a longitudinally framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in
called the ____________. place and supported by athwartship members called
________________.
A. rider plate A. stringers
B. outer plate B. web frames
C. margin plate C. pillars
D. stealer plate D. brackets
Ans: C Ans: B
3191 Which of the following systems, according to Regulations must
have an emergency stop, protected with a glass enclosure, and
located outside of the machinery space?
A. Main fire pump
B. Fuel oil service pump
C. Main circulating/bilge injection valve
D. All of the above
Ans: B
 Page 174

DISTILLING SYSTEM AND POTABLE WATER SYSTEM

3192 A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two 3193 Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied
stages of a flash type evaporator would indicate __________.
A. chill shocking is necessary to remove scale
B. leakage at the second-stage condenser
C. faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
D. carryover in the first-stage
Ans: D
3194 Which of the following descriptions best identifies the operating
principal of a flash-type evaporator?
A. Sea water is heated to boiling temperature while under a vacuum.
to the first-effect of a low pressure submerged tube distilling plant
will cause ___________.
A. increased heat levels throughout the entire unit
B. decreased priming and lower salinity distillate
C. first effect scale formation to be loosened
D. pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit
Ans: D
3195 Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute
pressure within a flash type evaporator?
A. production of high salinity distillate

B. Sea water is passed over heated plates in a thin film. B. seawater feed temperature below 75°C
C. Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber. C. a leak in the first stage demister
D. Sea water is forced through a heated eductor. D. a cracked distillate pump vent line
Ans: C Ans: D
3196 One advantage of a triple-effect low pressure submerged tube 3197 A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of
distilling plant over a double-effect unit is _____________. measuring the _____________.

A. better water purity A. electrical inductance of water

B. less scale formation B. electrical conductivity of water
C. less internal corrosion C. specific gravity of water
D. greater evaporator efficiency D. hydrogen ion concentration of water
Ans: D Ans: B
3198 One distinct advantage of flash type evaporators, as compared to 3199 Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell-
most other evaporators, is that in a flash evaporator ________. and-tube heat exchanger as the air ejector condenser. More recent
models use a combined air ejector condenser with the
____________.
A. high temperature distillate can be recirculated to induce additional A. distilling condenser
flashing
B. scale formation is not a severe problem B. salt water feed heater
C. cold shocking is more effective in removing scale C. distillate cooler
D. water purity is greatly increased at high capacity D. flash chamber
Ans: B Ans: B
3200 If the supplied steam pressure to the first effect of a submerged 3201 Fluctuating pressures and temperatures in an evaporator will
tube distilling plant is allowed to fluctuate, the distiller _____________.
_________________.
A. solenoid dump valve will trip A. eliminate most of the scale formation in the first effect
B. air ejector will operate erratically B. increase the heat level in all effects
C. water levels will automatically lower C. increase the probability of priming
D. brine density will increase D. automatically cold shock the evaporator
Ans: A Ans: C
3202 The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed heater, in 3203 In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feedwater is vaporized in
a flash type evaporator can be manipulated by a/an the _____________.
____________.
A. pressure regulator within the supply orifice A. feed inlet box
B. thermally actuated bypass valve B. distiller feedwater heater
C. attemporator in the steam supply piping C. first and second stage flash chambers
D. sensor wired in with the three-way salinity dump valve D. first and second stage vapor separators
Ans: C Ans: C
3204 Excessive scale formation in a distilling plant may result from 3205 A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by
____________. _________.
A. poor distillate quality A. the flashing of the feed water
B. reduced evaporator capacity B. the condensation of the saltwater feed
C. low brine concentration C. air ejectors, eductors, or a separate vacuum pump
D. improper vacuum regulation D. condensation of the distillate
Ans: D Ans: C
3206 While at sea, the flash type evaporator is discharging the output to 3207 If a flash-type evaporator was designed to operate in seawater at
the distill tanks. If it becomes necessary to reduce the feed water 24°C, and the current seawater temperature is 10°C, without
temperature below 74°C, you should ____________. readjusting any valve associated with this evaporator,
___________.
A. continue the current evaporator operation A. the capacity will be doubled
B. dump the evaporator to the bilge B. the capacity will remain the same regardless of the seawater
temperature
C. secure the evaporator until the feedwater temperature can be C. it will probably "trip off the line" as a result of an excessive and
raised to 74°C or more violent rate of flashing
D. raise the tripping point at the salinity indicating panel for the three- D. it will produce the purest and lowest salinity concentration of
way valve distillate that can be produced
Ans: A Ans: C
3208 Where auxiliary steam supply is not used in the process of 3209 In the event of a power failure to the salinity panel on a flash-type
maintaining vacuum in a distilling unit, the vacuum is usually evaporator, the three-way solenoid valve will _____________.
attained by ________.
A. air operated air ejectors A. be frozen in its last position
B. vacuum pumps B. direct distillate to the fresh water tank
 Page 175

C. increasing the rate of condensation in the distiller condensers C. dump distillate to the bilge

D. a separate suction connection to the brine overboard pump D. dump distillate to the makeup feed tank
Ans: B Ans: C
3210 The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed 3211 Condensate formed within the first-effect tube nest of a double-
heater on most flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels effect, low pressure evaporator, is removed by a _______.
is __________________.
A. slightly less than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction A. series of baffles
B. slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing B. crossover pipe
valve outlet
C. slightly higher than the second stage vacuum C. condensate separator
D. slightly lower than the first stage vacuum D. drain pump
Ans: A Ans: D
3212 Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators 3213 The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is
may be obtained directly from the ________. due in part to the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages,
and the _____________.
A. main steam line A. steam flow rate to the air ejectors
B. turbine extraction line B. float controlled level of the feed heater
C. turbo-generator steam supply line C. capacity of the distillate pump
D. air ejector exhaust line D. throughput of the brine overboard pump
Ans: B Ans: D
3214 Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied 3215 A fixed orifice plate is generally installed in the live steam supply to
to the first-effect of a low pressure distilling plant will cause an evaporator. One of the functions of this orifice is to control the
_____________. quantity of the supplied steam. A second function is to
____________.
A. increased heat levels throughout the entire unit A. reduce pressure fluctuations from occurring in the steam supply to
the salt water feed heater
B. decreased priming and lower distillate salinity B. produce more useful superheated supply steam
C. first effect scale formation to be lessened C. guarantee that the steam supply will remain desuperheated
D. pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit D. produce a low salt water feed heater shell absolute pressure
Ans: D Ans: A
3216 When securing a centrifugal distillate pump, which of the listed 3217 A vacuum is initially established in the first and second stages of a
steps should be carried out FIRST? low pressure evaporator by the use of _________.

A. Stop the pump. A. vacuum drag from the auxiliary condensate system
B. Close the pressure gage valves. B. individual vacuum pumps
C. Trip the three-way solenoid valve. C. a single non-condensing air ejector
D. Close the sealing line valves to the pump. D. a two stage air ejector
Ans: C Ans: D
3218 The vapor separators installed in some distilling plants consist of 3219 Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash
several rows of vertical hooked vanes which remove entrained evaporator, the first-stage air ejector takes suction from the second
moisture from the vapor by _____________. stage of the evaporator, and the second stage air ejector
_____________.
A. directing the vapor through a fine metallic mesh A. takes suction from the first stage of the evaporator
B. condensing water droplets on the metal vanes B. takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator as well

C. trapping water droplets in the metallic mesh
D. abruptly changing the direction of vapor flow
Ans: D
3220 When the steam leaving the control orifice of the live steam supply
is not conditioned, the evaporator _____________.
A. capacity will be increased
B. capacity will be decreased
C. salt water feed heater absolute pressure will decrease significantly
C. takes suction from the first stage ejector discharge
D. is normally idle and used mainly as a standby unit
Ans: C
3221 A flash type evaporator is designed to operate in 24°C sea water, if
operated in 10°C sea water, ________.
A. the absolute pressures will be slightly below the predicted design
absolute pressures
B. absolute pressure in the evaporator stages will be higher
C. the unit will operate at reduced capacity

D. salt water feed heater absolute pressure will increase significantly D. thermal efficiency will decrease, but brine density will increase

Ans: B Ans: A
3222 In order to prevent salt water contamination of the distillate in a 3223 Which of the following statements describes the proper operation
flash-type evaporator, it is important to provide a positive seal of a three-way solenoid trip valve on a flash-type evaporator?
around the _____________.
A. spray caps A. The valve must be manually reset.
B. demisters B. The valve will trip if the sea water feed temperature drops below
79°C.
C. saltwater heater vents C. The valve is interlocked to trip only on de-energization of the
solenoid.
D. steam supply orifice plate D. The valve will trip if the distillate is too warm.
Ans: B Ans: A
3224 Where would a salinity cell be installed in a double-effect distilling 3225 The purpose of chill shocking an evaporator is to _________.
plant?
A. Distillate pump discharge A. prepare for a hydrostatic test
B. Tube nest drain pump discharge B. stress relieve the tubes
C. Air ejector condensate drain C. break loose scale deposits formed on the tubes
D. All of the above D. test for leaks in the tubes
Ans: D Ans: C
 Page 176

3226 Which of the listed problems is occurring if a coil type high pressure 3227 In the last effect of a multi-effect submerged tubedistilling plant rapid
evaporator constantly requires an increase in the coil steam fluctuations of the absolutepressure tend to cause _____________.
pressure in order to maintain capacity?
A. The brine density is improper. A. scale formation with increased heat transfer
B. Heat transfer surfaces are being layered with scale. B. priming with increased salinity of distillate
C. Impure distillate is being produced. C. slight foaming at the distillate feed pump
D. Shell vapor pressure is constantly decreasing. D. improved operating conditions at the brine pump
Ans: B Ans: B
3228 In which of the following types of evaporators is the control of brine 3229 A multistage flash evaporator will be unable to produce consistently
density least important? pure distillate if the __________________.
A. Solo shell evaporators A. distillate cooler is dirty
B. Flash evaporators B. tubes of the saltwater feed heater are flooded internally
C. Submerged tube evaporators C. distillate meter stops
D. Basket evaporators D. vacuum is fluctuating
Ans: B Ans: D
3230 When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which of the listed 3231 Rapid fluctuation of the last effect shell vacuum in a submerged
steps should be carried out first? tube evaporator can cause _____________.
A. Close the pressure gage isolation valves. A. erratic air ejector operation
B. Secure the casing vapor vent line. B. air leaks in the tube nest
C. Secure the stuffing box sealing water line. C. rapid scaling in all effects
D. Trip the three way dump valve. D. priming in that effect
Ans: D Ans: D
3232 Improper waterside venting of the tube nests in a submerged tube 3233 If a higher than normal water level is observed through the
evaporator will cause a/an _____________. inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect
______________.
A. fluctuating vacuum in the evaporator A. a leak in the feedwater heater
B. loss of evaporator capacity B. improper vacuum
C. increased vacuum in the first effect C. a malfunctioning brine pump
D. increased brine overboard flow rate D. a clogged desuperheater water strainer
Ans: B Ans: C
3234 Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type 3235 In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal
distilling plant will be a result of ___________. temperatures is most likely to occur in the ________.
A. maintaining the proper distilling plant heat balance A. second stage feed heater
B. carrying the brine level below normal B. saltwater feed heater
C. leaks in the demister baffles C. distillate cooler
D. venting of the saltwater heater drain pump D. second stage vapor separator
Ans: C Ans: B
3236 Irregular feeding or surging of the feedwater supply to a flash 3237 If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become
evaporator may be attributed to ______________. significantly enlarged through erosion, the ________.

A. erratic water flow through the air eductor A. distillate produced in the second stage would flow towards the first
stage
B. a clogged vent line from the air eductor condenser B. evaporator absolute pressure would eventually equalize in both
stages to that of the first stage
C. excessive pressure in the seawater feed heater C. evaporator absolute pressure could eventually equalize in both
stages to that of the second stage
D. a dirty strainer in the saltwater feed pump suction line D. salt water feed heater absolute pressure would increase to that of
the evaporator second stage
Ans: D Ans: C
3238 In a flash evaporator, heated water under pressure is converted 3239 Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of
into vapor by suddenly ____________. operation of an electrical salinity indicator?
A. increasing its temperature A. Measures the hydrogen ion concentration.
B. increasing its velocity B. Measures the electrical resistance of the water.
C. decreasing its density C. Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen.
D. decreasing its pressure D. Measures the voltage of the chloride ions.
Ans: D Ans: B
3240 In a double-effect submerged tube evaporator, the brine density 3241 Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing
should be prevented from falling below 1.5/32nds to minimize _______________.
____________.
A. scale formation on the tube nests A. steam through heating coils
B. loss in capacity and maintain plant efficiency B. steam through cooling coils
C. corrosion in the evaporator C. heated water into a high pressure area
D. carryover in the evaporator D. heated water into a low pressure area
Ans: B Ans: D
3242 A fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator may be 3243 In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of
caused by _____________. scale formation is greatly reduced by _________.
A. wet steam entering the air ejector nozzle A. operating the unit at its rated capacity
B. pinhole leaks in the evaporator tube nests B. maintaining a relatively high feedwater temperature
C. rapid scaling on the evaporator tube nests C. the fact that the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell at a
constant pressure
D. high water levels in the last effect D. the fact that no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in
the unit
Ans: A Ans: D
3244 Which of the listed chemicals can be routinely used to maintain the 3245 When any low pressure distilling plant is operated at less than the
hygienic quality of potable water? designed vacuum, the _____________.
A. Hydrochloric acid A. heat level drops
 Page 177

B. Chlorine B. capacity increases

C. Sulfuric acid C. scale formation increases
D. Zinc chromate D. distillate purity increases
Ans: B Ans: C
3246 Potable water piping systems installed aboard ships must be 3247 Short cycling of the potable water pump is avoided by the proper
_______. use of a ________.
A. disinfected monthly with a chlorine compound A. hydro-pneumatic tank completely filled with compressed air at
system operating pressure
B. independent of all other piping systems B. hydro-pneumatic tank filled with water
C. cadmium lined to prevent internal corrosion C. charge of air, at 1.4 kg/cm2 (137.9 kPa) above system pressure
with the hydro-pneumatic tank one quarter full of water

D. flushed each time potable water is taken onboard D. charge of air, at system pressure, when the hydro-pneumatic tank is
half full of water
Ans: B Ans: D
3248 A recirculating line is provided in the potable hot water system to 3249 Which of the following components would be necessary for the
__________. proper operation of a potable hot water system?
A. maintain uniform inlet conditions for the constant speed supply A. Circulating pump
pumps
B. maintain flow rates which will eliminate fluid film formation in the B. Drift pockets
piping
C. return overflow from the pressure tanks back to the potable water C. Sterilizer
tanks
D. maintain the desired temperature range throughout the system D. Hydro-pneumatic expansion tank

Ans: D Ans: A
3250 A solenoid operated distillate bypass valve is installed in the 3251 Distilled water from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable
discharge line between a distilling plant and the potable water water tank _____________.
tanks to prevent ____________.
A. excessively warm distillate from entering the potable tanks A. through a detachable hose connection
B. salty distillate from reaching the potable tanks B. after passing through an activated charcoal filter
C. overfilling and overflowing the potable tanks C. after chemical analysis shows it is fit for consumption
D. contaminated water from leaving the potable tanks D. through a solenoid operated three-way valve
Ans: B Ans: D
3252 Brine density in a distilling plant is measured with a/an 3253 Tube leaks in the distillate cooler of a two stage flash evaporator will
_____________. result in _____________.
A. psychrometer A. loss of second stage vacuum
B. salinometer B. contamination of the distillate
C. anemometer C. lower feed inlet temperature
D. sphygmomanometer D. contamination of the second stage condenser
Ans: B Ans: B
3254 In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through 3255 Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient when
individual vent cocks to the _________. operated in cooler seawater temperatures?
A. saltwater heater shell A. Steam carryover between stages is reduced.
B. second-stage condenser B. Evaporator vacuum is increased.
C. atmosphere C. The amount of available flash steam is decreased.
D. second-stage flash chamber D. Feedwater flow from the feedwater heater is increased.
Ans: C Ans: B
3256 The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator 3257 The steam coils in a high pressure evaporator used for saltwater
are cooled by _____________. service should be descaled with _____________.
A. distillate A. a wire brush
B. seawater B. a needle gun
C. brine C. a chipping hammer
D. air D. soap and water
Ans: B Ans: A
3258 Scale accumulation on evaporator heating surfaces will cause 3259 If the rated distillate production of a submerged tube type
___________. evaporator cannot be maintained with the supplied maximum steam
flow rate, the evaporator ______________.
A. immediate loss of vacuum A. chemical feed must be increased
B. increased distillate quality B. has a serious brine leak
C. immediate tube failure C. temperature switch is defective
D. reduced evaporator capacity D. heating surfaces are scaled
Ans: D Ans: D
3260 The first stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure 3261 In a two stage flash evaporator, operating conditions in the second
in a multistage flash evaporator is _____________. stage, as compared to the first stage, are _________.

A. equal to the second stage feedwater temperature and shell A. higher temperature and higher absolute pressure
absolute pressure
B. higher than the second stage feedwater temperature and shell B. higher temperature and lower absolute pressure
absolute pressure
C. lower than the feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure C. lower temperature and higher absolute pressure
in the second stage
D. higher than the second stage feedwater temperature but at a lower D. lower temperature and lower absolute pressure
shell absolute pressure
Ans: B Ans: D
 Page 178

3262 A vacuum differential is maintained in the distillate circuit between 3263 The average salinity of normal seawater, when expressed as brine
any two stages of a multiple stage distilling plant by the use of a/an density is equivalent to _____________.
____________.
A. steam trap A. 1/32nd
B. butterfly valve B. 1.5/32nds
C. loop seal C. 2/32nds
D. adjustable controller D. 3/32nds
Ans: C Ans: A
3264 Salinity cells are strategically installed in distillingunits to indicate the 3265 Potable and nonpotable water systems aboard ship _________.
___________. I. purity of the distillate produced II. quality of the
distillate produced
A. I only A. may be temporarily connected with a removable spool
B. II only B. are permanently connected through a double stop valve
C. Both I and II C. may never be cross-connected by any means
D. Neither I nor II D. may be connected if they are used only for wash water
Ans: B Ans: C
3266 Salinity cells are strategically installed in flash type distilling units to 3267 Partially clogged or scored nozzles in a two stage air ejector unit of
indicate the ___________. I. presence of leaks in the flash a flash distilling plant could result in a ____________.
chambers II. quantity of the distillate produced
A. I only A. fluctuating vacuum in the flash chamber
B. II only B. flooded seawater feed heater shell
C. Both I and II C. high water level in the air ejector after condenser
D. Neither I nor II D. malfunctioning check valve in the air ejector discharge
Ans: D Ans: A
3268 In a flash-type evaporator, an electrical salinity cell would be 3269 Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in
installed in the _____________. a flash-type evaporator, are removed by the _________________.

A. distillate outlet from the distillate cooler A. spray pipes

B. distillate inlet to the distillate cooler B. demisters
C. condensate drains from the distiller feedwater heater C. condensers
D. all of the above D. splash baffles
Ans: D Ans: B
3270 The demisters installed in a flash-type evaporator serve to 3271 In a double-effect distilling plant, the brine particles remaining
____________. entrained with the vapor produced in the evaporator first effect, are
separated by ____________.
A. deaerate the first effect distillate A. a flash chamber
B. filter the condensed flash vapors B. baffles and vanes
C. deaerate the first and second effect distillate C. the vapor feed heater
D. remove small water droplets entrained in the flashed vapor D. a brine pump
Ans: D Ans: B
3272 The inability to maintain proper vacuum in a submerged tube 3273 One function of the vapor feed heater in a double-effect distilling
evaporator can be caused by _____________. unit is to _____________.
A. fluctuating steam pressure to the air ejector nozzle A. condense part of the vapor given off in the first-effect
B. improper venting of the evaporator tube nests B. preheat distillate circulating to the second-effect tube nest
C. air leaks in the evaporator tube nests C. cool the incoming first-effect evaporator feed
D. high water level in the evaporator shell D. condense all the distillate in the second-effect tube nest
Ans: A Ans: A
3274 The size of the loop seal orifice for a flash-type evaporator is 3275 The heated feedwater entering any flash chamber of a flash- type
important for maintaining the control of ________. evaporator will _____________.
A. the vacuum differential developed between both stages A. vaporize, with the unflashed water remaining at the temperature at
which it entered the flash chamber
B. the absolute pressure differential developed between both stages B. vaporize, with the unflashed water equalizing to the saturation
conditions existing in the flash chamber
C. the absolute pressure developed in the salt water feed heater shell C. vaporize, with the remaining water at a temperature greater than it
entered the flash chamber
D. maintaining distillate flow between the first and second stage in D. boil, allowing steam bubbles to rise through the brine at the bottom
order to avoid dry seal operation of the loop of the flash chamber
Ans: D Ans: B
3276 If the distillate temperature from a flash type evaporator falls below 3277 On a multistage flash-type evaporator, the flash chamber is
71°C _________. ______________.
A. the distillate may be directed to the storage tanks A. combined as part of the salt water feed heater
B. the automatic three-way solenoid dump valve should direct distillate B. the open area above the brine levels in the first and second stages
to the bilge
C. the demisters will become scaled C. combined as part of the distillate cooler
D. priming will occur in the first-effect D. another term used to describe the vapor feed heater
Ans: A Ans: B
3278 Which of the listed conditions will cause the feedwater, that has not 3279 When a flash evaporator is being operated in extremely cold water,
flashed to vapor in the first-stage of a flash evaporator, to flow into you may need to throttle the seawater supply to ________.
the second-stage?
A. Gravity siphon effect A. prevent cold shocking the evaporator
B. Higher vacuum in the second-stage B. maintain the feedwater temperature above the required minimum
input temperature
C. Difference in brine density between first and second stages C. avoid flooding the evaporator shell
D. Lower pressure in first-stage D. increase the evaporator distilling rate
Ans: B Ans: B
 Page 179

3280 The final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling plant is 3281 Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces
carried out by _______________________. ______________.
A. low pressure steam admitted to the feedwater heater A. increases brine density
B. heat exchange in the first-stage feedbox B. increases distillate salinity
C. vaporization in the first-stage flash chamber C. reduces metal corrosion
D. heat exchange in each stage distiller condenser D. reduces heat transfer
Ans: A Ans: D
3282 The efficiency of a flash type evaporator can be increased by 3283 In a two-stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is
_________. increased as it passes through the _________.

A. lowering brine discharge density A. first-stage distilling condenser

B. decreasing the absolute pressure of each stage B. second-stage distilling condenser
C. increasing the saltwater feed heater temperature C. salt water feed heater
D. increasing the pressure at the spray pipe D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
3284 In the operation of a flash type evaporator equipped with air 3285 The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of
ejectors, the air and noncondensable gases are evacuated directly the distilling plant should be as constant as possible to
from the _____________. ________________.
A. first stage flash chamber A. prevent scale accumulation on heat exchange surfaces
B. second stage flash chamber B. maintain a constant distillate outlet temperature
C. first stage after condenser C. ensure distillate quality and distilling plant efficiency
D. second stage distilling condenser D. prevent any salinity in the distillate produced
Ans: D Ans: C
3286 Less scale formation occurs in a flash evaporator than in a 3287 In a flash type evaporator, the brine overboard pump is vented
submerged tube evaporator because ____________. directly to the ______________.
A. the distillate produced has greater purity A. saltwater heater shell
B. no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces B. first stage distilling condenser
C. evaporation occurs at a higher rate C. second stage flash chamber
D. the incoming feed is at a higher temperature D. air ejector condenser
Ans: B Ans: C
3288 The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is mostlikely to 3289 The advantages of flash type evaporators, as compared to
occur in the tubes of the ____________. submerged tube type evaporators, include _____________.
A. distillate cooler A. less internal corrosion because of lower brine density
B. first stage condenser B. higher temperature evaporation for lower salinity of the distillate
produced
C. saltwater feed heater C. less scale formation in a flash evaporator
D. flash chamber D. less feedwater required for a flash evaporator
Ans: C Ans: C
3290 In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is 3291 Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause water
vented to the shell of the second stage in order to remove vapor hammer in the potable water system?
from the pump suction?
A. Condenser circulating water pump A. The hydro-pneumatic tank being properly charged.
B. Feedwater heater drain pump B. The starting of the potable water pump.
C. Distillate pump C. A low water level in the potable water storage tank.
D. Air ejector condenser drain pump D. Rapid closing of a spring closed basin faucet.
Ans: C Ans: D
3292 Why will a two stage flash type distilling plant tend to operate more 3293 Which of the following statements represents an advantage of a
efficiently when operating in cold seawater? triple-effect submerged tube evaporator compared to a single-
effect submerged tube evaporator?
A. The colder seawater passing through the condenser tube bundles A. Greater purity of distillate
of the various stages increases evaporator vacuum.
B. The amount of heated feedwater discharged from the feedwater B. Lower consumption of steam per pound of distillate produced
heater aftercondenser is increased.
C. Fewer noncondensable gases are created by the flow of colder C. Less scale formation
seawater.
D. More seawater is allowed to pass through the first stage overflow D. Less complex to maintain and operate
weir.
Ans: A Ans: B
3294 One advantage of a flash distilling plant when compared to a 3295 Potable and non-potable water systems aboard vessel ______.
submerged tube distiller is _____________.
A. greater distillate purity through high temperature evaporation A. may be temporarily interconnected with a removable spool
B. cold shocking for scale removal is not required B. are permanently interconnected through a double stop valve
C. less internal corrosion because of lower brine density C. may never be interconnected by any means
D. less feedwater is required for equal plant capacity D. may be connected if they are used only for wash water
Ans: B Ans: C
3296 Which of the following statements is correct relative to distillation 3297 Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through
plant operation? ___________.
A. Distillation is the process of boiling seawater to produce vapor A. gasketed joints
which is condensed into fresh water.
B. Evaporation is the second part of the distillation process where B. valve stems
brine is removed.
C. Brine is the result of condensed sea water vapor. C. gage glass packing
D. Distillate is the product resulting from the evaporation of fresh water D. all of the above
vapor.
Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 180

3298 When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of 3299 The steam coils in a high pressure evaporator used for saltwater
time, you should _____________. service should be descaled with _____________.
A. fill the unit with saltwater A. a needle gun
B. fill the unit with descaling compound B. soap and water
C. completely drain the unit C. a wirebrush
D. tightly seal the unit to exclude air D. a chipping hammer
Ans: C Ans: C
3300 The rate of scale formation in a flash type distilling plant is greatly 3301 Feedwater supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor
reduced by _____________. in the first-stage due to the flash chamber _________________.

A. operating the unit at its rated capacity A. pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding
to the feedwater temperature
B. maintaining a relatively high feedwater temperature B. temperature being higher than the evaporation temperature of the
supplied feedwater
C. water flashing into vapor rather than boiling on the heat transfer C. heat exchange surfaces being directly in the path of the entering
surfaces feedwater
D. operating the first-stage regulator to maintain a constant shell D. orifices finely atomizing the heated feedwater entering the flash
pressure chamber
Ans: C Ans: A
3302 An excessively high brine level in a flash evaporator can be caused 3303 A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water
by ___________. system of many vessels by using ________.
A. excessive brine pump motor speed A. constant speed supply pumps
B. an excessive brine blowdown rate B. variable speed supply pumps
C. failure of the brine pump C. an air cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank
D. excessive distillate pump speed D. a pressure regulator in the pressure tank discharge piping
Ans: C Ans: C
3304 If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than 3305 Salinity cells are strategically installed in distillingunits to indicate the
normal, while the second stage absolutepressure remains ___________. I. location of a saltwater leak II. size of the leak
satisfactory, the probable fault is due to________.
A. loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages A. I only
B. priming in the second stage B. II only
C. failure of the brine pump C. Both I and II
D. an air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage D. Neither I nor II
Ans: D Ans: A
3306 An automatic solenoid dump valve should be set to trip if the 3307 In the operation of a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, which of
evaporator produces distillate with salt content exceeding the pumps listed should be vented to the second stage shell in
___________. order to remove vapors from the pump suction?
A. 1ppm A. Condenser circulating water pump
B. 5ppm B. Feedwater heater drain pump
C. 50ppm C. Distillate pump
D. 1000ppm D. Air ejector condenser drain pump
Ans: D Ans: C
3308 If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash 3309 If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash
type evaporator _________. I. vaporization of the feed water would type evaporator _________. I. vaporization of the feed water would
continue at second stage designed saturation conditions II. all of continue II. efficiency of the unit would only be moderately
the distillate produced would be certain to b affected

A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. Both I and II C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II
Ans: A Ans: A
3310 Priming in a submerged tube evaporator can be caused by high 3311 Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of
water level and _____________. ___________.
A. low brine density A. faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
B. low steam temperature B. a pressure drop through the loop seal
C. high absolute pressure C. high distillate conductivity
D. excessive brine density D. low distillate conductivity
Ans: D Ans: A
3312 Evaporator priming can be caused by high water level, fluctuating 3313 When a flash-type evaporator is to be secured for an extended
steam pressure, or ____________. period of time, the entire unit should be drained, cleaned, and
____________.
A. fluctuating shell vacuum A. completely filled with saltwater
B. low brine density B. filled with descaling compound
C. low feed temperature C. tightly closed to exclude air
D. a brine overflow weir set too low D. vented to the atmosphere
Ans: A Ans: D
3314 Which of the following statements is true concerning any 3315 A salinity indicator is used to determine the _____________.
evaporator?
A. High conductivity of the distillate indicates distillate salinity is A. cause of salt contamination
excessive.
B. Increasing the absolute pressure of the shell will increase the B. location of salt water contamination
distiller's capacity.
C. Mesh separators are used in evaporators to filter the distillate. C. chemical makeup of feedwater
 Page 181

D. Reducing the brine density will reduce the heat lost overboard. D. level of alkalinity in condensate

Ans: A Ans: B
3316 In the production of freshwater from seawater through a process of 3317 A three-way solenoid operated dump valve installed on a flash-type
heating and cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually evaporator unit, will divert impure distillate to the bilge _________.
called _____________.
A. evaporation A. only if the cell selector switch is positioned to monitor the first stage
distillate outlet
B. distillation B. only if the cell selector switch is positioned to monitor the final stage
distillate outlet
C. dehydration C. regardless of the cell selector switch position
D. condensation D. only if power to the salinity panel is interrupted
Ans: D Ans: C
3318 The process of boiling seawater in order to separate it into 3319 The mesh type steam separators located in a two-stage flash
freshwater vapor and brine is usually defined as __________. distilling plant, function to _____________.

A. dehydration A. vent noncondensable gases

B. condensation B. recycle evaporator flash steam
C. evaporation C. reheat the flash steam
D. dissolution D. improve distillate purity
Ans: C Ans: D
3320 In a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, the mesh-type vapor 3321 In a double-effect distilling plant, the evaporator feed remaining
separators function to __________________. entrained in the first-effect vapor, is removed by
__________________.
A. improve distillate purity A. baffles and vanes
B. vent noncondensable gases B. a flash chamber
C. recycle evaporator flash steam C. the second effect separator
D. direct flash steam into the cooler D. the vapor feed heater
Ans: A Ans: A
3322 The quantity of heating steam supplied to the feedwater heater of a 3323 In a flash type distilling plant, a screen is fitted over the suction
two-stage flash type distilling plant is held relatively constant by a/an connection to the brine overboard pump in order to prevent
__________. ______________.
A. orifice plate A. the pump from cavitating
B. attemporator B. excessively large salt crystals from damaging the pump
C. back pressure regulator C. scale from passing into the brine pump and clogging impeller
passages
D. first-stage bypass valve D. electrolysis from occurring in the pump
Ans: A Ans: C
3324 An unsteady vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator may be 3325 On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator
caused by _____________. would you be more likely to find soft scale formation?

A. air leaks in the tube nests A. Feedwater heater internal tube surfaces.
B. improper venting of the tube nests B. Internal distillate cooler tubes.
C. inadequate steam quality to the air ejector nozzles C. Flash chamber vertical surfaces.
D. high water level in the shell D. Distilling condenser tubes.
Ans: C Ans: A
3326 Why is a self-sealing pump generally not satisfactory for service as 3327 Steam passing through the control orifice installed in the live steam
a brine overboard pump? supply to a low pressure evaporator will develop significant
superheat as a result of _____________.
A. Hot brine tends to form scale on the impeller peripheral edge. A. attemporating conditioning
B. Brine density at 1.5/32 cannot be maintained. B. ebullient conditioning
C. Hot concentrated brine tends to flash, leaving scale deposits to C. adiabatic conditioning
clog the sealing line and gland seal ring.
D. Hot brine tends to clog the brine pump suction line strainer. D. effervescent conditioning
Ans: C Ans: C
3328 For optimum noncondensable gas removal from a low pressure 3329 The purpose of a three-way, solenoid, dump valve on an
evaporator, the air ejector suction is usually taken directly from evaporator is to ___________.
_____________.
A. the salt water feed heater shell A. prevent excessively saline distillate from entering the freshwater
system
B. anywhere on the second stage shell of the evaporator B. drain the evaporator first-effect only
C. the shell of the first stage distilling condenser C. drain the evaporator second-effect only
D. the shell of the second stage distilling condenser D. allow the evaporator's first- and second-effects to be drained with
one valve
Ans: D Ans: A
3330 The purpose of the flash chamber in a soloshell double effect 3331 A solenoid-operated distillate three-way valve is installedin the
distilling unit is to _____________. discharge line between the distilling plant and the potable water
tanks. This valve will trip and dump the distillate discharge if the
_____________.
A. raise the temperature of the evaporator feedwater A. distillate salinity is excessive
B. prevent flashing at the suction of the brine pump B. distillate temperature is excessive
C. allow steam expansion within the first effect tube nest C. potable water tank has been filled with raw water
D. collect and combine distillate formed at different pressures D. potable water tank has become contaminated
Ans: D Ans: A
 Page 182

3332 Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a pump to drain 3333 Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found on the
condensate from the salt water feed heater. In more recent models ___________.
this is commonly carried out by ___________.
A. the continued use of a drain pump A. flash chamber walls
B. gravitating the condensate to the atmospheric drain tank B. tubes of the salt water feed heater
C. vacuum drag to the auxiliary or main condenser C. tubes of the air ejector condenser
D. the use of a loop seal to the combined low pressure feed heater D. tubes of the distiller condenser

Ans: C Ans: A
3334 The vacuum maintained in the salt water feed heater shell of a flash- 3335 Under normal operating conditions, the highest temperature and
type evaporator is generally accomplished by ____________. pressure conditions existing in a flash-type evaporator will occur in
the _______________.
A. a separate air ejector unit A. first stage
B. a direct unimpeded connection between second stage and salt B. second stage
water feed heater
C. either by vacuum drag or an external line from the first stage via a C. distillate cooler
fixed orifice
D. the fixed orifice provided in the steam supply line D. salt water feed heater
Ans: C Ans: D
3336 In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (seawater) first absorbs 3337 In a two-stage flash-type evaporator, excess brine in the first stage
heat in the ___________. automatically passes _____________.
A. vapor feed heater A. directly to the second stage feed heater
B. air ejector condenser B. directly overboard through the brine cooler
C. saltwater heater C. into the second stage flash chamber
D. distillate cooler D. into the second stage vapor condenser
Ans: D Ans: C
3338 The second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute 3339 Rapid fluctuations in the shell pressure in a submerged tube
pressure in a multistage, flash type, distilling plant is distilling unit will cause ___________.
_____________.
A. higher than the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute A. increased heat levels in the entire unit
shell pressure
B. lower than the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell B. decreased priming and high salinity distillate
pressure
C. the same as the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute C. first effect scale formation to be reduced
shell pressure
D. not related to the feedwater temperature and absolute shell D. priming in the last effect shell
pressure
Ans: B Ans: D
3340 Short cycling of the potable water system's pump is prevented by 3341 When any low pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the
using ________. designed vacuum, the _____________.
A. constant speed supply pumps A. heat level rises
B. variable speed supply pumps B. heat level drops
C. variable delivery supply pumps C. capacity increases
D. a hydropneumatic pressure tank D. scale formation decreases
Ans: D Ans: A
3342 A flash type distilling plant is more efficient than a high pressure 3343 The primary reason low pressure evaporators produce distillate
evaporator as _________. I. vaporization of the feed water occurs more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high pressure
in a vacuum II. boiling of feed water occurs only once on the tube evaporators is ____________.
surfaces
A. I only A. evaporation is accomplished in a vacuum
B. II only B. due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed
C. Both I and II C. due to the latent heat of evaporation principle
D. Neither I nor II D. evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate
Ans: A Ans: A
3344 If the brine level of a double effect soloshell evaporator is above the
sight glass, which action should be taken?
A. Do nothing as this is the normal operating level.
B. The feed rate should be reduced and the brine discharge valve
opened slightly.
C. The brine overflow weir should be raised to allow greater outflow.

D. The brine section should be drained down a minimum of 150mm

below the seawater heater bundle.
Ans: B
PIPES AND VALVES
3345 The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended 3346 The designation "schedule 80 extra strong " refers to
when requiring _____________. ____________.
A. high pressure drops A. weight of steel plate
B. close regulation of flow B. tensile strength of bolts
C. no pressure drops C. piping wall thickness
D. no back flow D. tubing bursting strength
Ans: B Ans: C
3347 Piping cross-sections ranging from 3mm to 300mm in diameter, are 3348 On tankers using manually operated tank valves, the deck hand
sized by ____________. wheel indicator registers the ____________.
A. wall strength A. exact lift position of the tank valve disk, through 100% of its
operation
 Page 183

B. nominal inside diameter B. oxygen content of the tank

C. outside diameter C. approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened
D. threaded diameter D. level of oil in the tank
Ans: B Ans: C
3349 Which of the following descriptions could be applied to short 3350 Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called "pipe
lengths of pipe called nipples? _____________".
A. Fully threaded, half threaded, long, and short A. caps
B. Close, short, long, and tank B. ells
C. Standard, extra-strong, double extra-strong, and schedule 80 C. tees

D. Cast, wrought, stainless, and brass D. closures

Ans: B Ans: A
3351 Which of the valves listed will be cycled from fully open to fully 3352 The valve best suited for throttling gas or liquid flow in a pipeline is
closed when the handle is turned 90°? the _____________.
A. A rising stem gate valve A. gate valve
B. A globe stop valve B. globe valve
C. A check valve C. check valve
D. A butterfly valve D. plug cock
Ans: D Ans: B
3353 As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically 3354 On tank vessels equipped with power operated cargo tank valves,
removed and examined. Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the the type of power operator most commonly used is
valve _____________. ______________________.
A. disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary A. hydraulic
B. bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn B. electric

C. stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened C. steam

D. all of the above D. diesel

Ans: D Ans: A
3355 A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used 3356 Compared to globe and angle valves, gate valves ___________.
_______________.
A. in either fully closed or fully opened positions A. are more suitable for throttling
B. only with the stem facing down B. operate with little or no pressure drop when fully opened
C. only for lube oil service C. are more easily repaired
D. to throttle the flow of liquid D. cannot be used for service requiring infrequent operation
Ans: A Ans: B
3357 Which of the listed materials have been used to manufacture piping 3358 Which of the problems listed could happen if you attempted to force
available in standard weight, extra strong, and double extra strong open a valve "frozen" in position by using a wrench on the
wall thickness? handwheel?
A. Plastic A. Bending of the bonnet assembly
B. Copper B. Bending of the valve stem
C. Iron C. Damage to the pressure seal
D. All of the above D. Distortion of the valve body
Ans: C Ans: B
3359 If used for regulating fluid flow through a piping system, which of the 3360 Which of the valves listed below is best suited for throttling
valves listed could be damaged? service?
A. Plug valve A. Plug
B. Globe valve B. Globe
C. Gate valve C. Gate
D. Needle valve D. Butterfly
Ans: C Ans: B
3361 When pipe is properly screwed into a tapped hole, it will give the 3362 Piping cross-sections over 300mm in diameter are sized by the
correct fit when ______________. __________.
A. the pipe cannot be turned A. inside diameter
B. all the threads are covered B. wall thickness
C. half of the threads are covered C. outside diameter
D. all but two or three threads are covered D. threaded diameter
Ans: D Ans: C
3363 Excessive leakage and premature failure of valve packing is a 3364 Which of the pipe materials listed has the best resistance to internal
result of ____________. and external corrosion?
A. opening a valve too quickly A. cast iron pipe
B. jamming a valve in the closed position B. cast steel pipe
C. low pressure fluid flow through the pipeline C. spiral welded pipe
D. a scored valve stem D. centrifugally cast pipe
Ans: D Ans: A
3365 To connect two lengths of pipe previously set in place, you should 3366 When in the completely opened position, which of the listed types of
use a pipe _____________. valve will offer the least resistance to flow?
A. nipple A. gate valve
B. union B. globe valve
C. coupling C. double-seat poppet valve
D. tee D. reed valve
Ans: B Ans: A
3367 An arrow stamped on the valve body of a water regulating valve 3368 Fabric type packing, such as flax or hemp, is best suited for
indicates the ______________. _____________.
A. direction of the plunger slide A. low temperature use
B. closed position B. high temperature use
 Page 184

C. open position C. use where alignment is critical

D. direction of the flow D. packing valves with badly grooved stems
Ans: D Ans: A
3369 When assembling a run of liquid service piping, which of the 3370 Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should
following factors should be considered? ________________.
A. How the type of fittings used will affect the flow. A. determine the size of the gasket
B. What type of gasket material should be used. B. hang a bucket under the joint
C. What radius should be used for each bend in the run. C. have a first aid kit on hand
D. All of the above. D. be sure no pressure exists in the line
Ans: D Ans: D
3371 Small leaks in gaskets should be stopped immediately after 3372 The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of
installation because _____________. _____________.
A. the leak will probably worsen in time A. Monel
B. the gasket may not seal itself for several hours B. stellite
C. the leak will result in severe flange distortion C. a resilient material
D. small leaks cause the pipeline to creep D. admiralty metal
Ans: A Ans: C
3373 An inverted gate valve (stem pointing downward) may be subject 3374 On vessels using reach rods to manually control the tank valves,
to wear sooner than a similar valve installed in the upright position one turn of the handwheel on deck will produce how many turns of
because ______________. the valve stem at the valve?
A. the gate's full weight is upon the stem A. One-fourth of a turn
B. the gland stud nuts are under more pressure B. One-half of a turn
C. sediment collects in the bonnet C. Three-fourths of a turn
D. the packing will not properly adhere to the stem D. One turn
Ans: C Ans: D
3375 The best gasket material to use in cargo fuel oil lines is 3376 The threaded pipe fitting called "street elbows" have
_____________________. _______________.
A. sheet asbestos A. male threads only
B. oil-resistant sheet packing B. female threads only
C. cork sheet packing C. male and female threads
D. unvulcanized packing D. interrupted threads on each end
Ans: B Ans: C
3377 Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________. 3378 A pipe coupling is a fitting having ______________.
A. the pressure drop will be excessive A. outside threads on one end and inside threads on one end
B. air binding will develop B. outside threads on both ends
C. the installation of an equalizing line will be necessary C. a left-hand twist
D. wire drawing of the disc will result D. inside threads on both ends
Ans: D Ans: D
3379 Which of the fittings listed should be used for the installation of 3380 Which of the gasket materials and/or types listed is typically used
piping to permit removal of the pump for servicing? on high pressure steam flange joints?
A. Coupling A. Spiral wound composition asbestos
B. Union B. Wire-impregnated sheet asbestos
C. Quick disconnect C. Rubber
D. Nipple D. Wire-impregnated rubber
Ans: B Ans: A
3381 Which of the following statements represents the proper relative 3382 Which of the following statements is correct regarding grades of
direction of flow through a globe valve? pipe?
A. Direction of flow through the valve is unimportant. A. Stainless steel pipe is manufactured in four general grades.
B. Direction of flow through the valve depends upon the type of seat B. The term "extra strong" is normally associated with schedule 160
design used in the valve. steel pipe.
C. Direction of flow should be from below the seat. C. Copper pipe is manufactured in two common grades.
D. Direction of flow should be from above the seat. D. Brass pipe is manufactured in three common grades.
Ans: C Ans: C
3383 One revolution at the handwheel of a reach rod operated valve will 3384 Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________.
cause the valve stem to rotate ____________.
A. one-fourth of a turn A. the pressure drop will be excessive
B. one-half of a turn B. air binding will develop
C. three-fourths of a turn C. the installation of an equalizing line will be necessary
D. one turn D. wire drawing of the disc will result
Ans: D Ans: D
3385 Which of the valves listed below permits flow in only one direction? 3386 Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in
piping by the use of expansion joints or _____________.
A. Gate valve A. unions
B. Globe valve B. retractable flanges
C. Check valve C. union bulkhead fittings
D. Plug cock D. bends or loops in the line
Ans: C Ans: D
3387 On tankers with manually operated tank valves, the type of valve 3388 Valves used in the machinery space piping systems, and
most commonly used is the _____________. constructed with threaded valve stems, must be ___________.

A. butterfly valve A. right-hand opening (clockwise)

B. globe valve B. left-hand closing (counterclockwise)
C. gate valve C. right-hand closing (clockwise)
D. check valve D. direction of opening and closing is unimportant
Ans: C Ans: C
 Page 185

3389 The movement of steam piping, as a result of changes in 3390 Which of the problems listed could happen if you attempted to force
temperature, is compensated for by the use of _____________. open a valve "frozen" in position by using a wrench on the
handwheel?
A. expansion joints A. Over compression of the packing
B. flexitallic gaskets B. Bending of the valve stem
C. rigid brackets C. Rapid corrosion of the valve disc
D. union rings D. Cracking of gaskets upstream of the valve
Ans: A Ans: B
3391 Which of the valves listed should be used either in the fully opened 3392 Before making up a flanged joint, you should _____________.
or the fully closed position?
A. a gate valve A. be certain that the flanges line up squarely
B. a globe valve B. cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel
C. any check valve C. heat the pipeline to expand the bolt holes
D. any needle valve D. have a second spare gasket on hand
Ans: A Ans: A
3393 Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before they are 3394 The valve which is most suited for regulating the flow through a
connected because ______________. pipeline is a _____________.
A. excessive strain on the joints will result if they are misaligned A. gate valve

B. misalignment permits excessive expansion B. globe valve

C. the pipe will be completely blocked by even the slightest amount of C. swing-check valve
misalignment
D. condensate accumulates rapidly when flanges are not properly D. plug-cock valve
aligned
Ans: A Ans: B
3395 Which of the following conditions can develop if a valve with a badly 3396 If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in
scored valve stem is repacked? a pipeline, you should ____________.
A. The valve disk will crack. A. turn the old gasket over and install it again
B. Leaking and premature failure of the packing. B. check the ship's plans or manufacturer's instructions
C. The valve disk will become eroded. C. leave the old gasket in and cover it with Permatex®
D. The valve seat will sustain damage due to fretting. D. make up the joint without a gasket until you can check with the chief

Ans: B Ans: B
3397 Tubing is sized by _______________________. 3398 A swing check valve is used in a pipeline to _____________.
A. allowed working pressure A. maintain a preset pressure on the line
B. cross-section area B. closely regulate the amount of flow
C. nominal inside diameter C. relieve excessive pressure on the line
D. nominal outside diameter D. allow flow in one direction only
Ans: D Ans: D
3399 Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________. 3400 Piping is sized by its nominal _________________.
A. the pressure drop will be excessive A. inside diameter regardless of other parameters
B. air binding will develop B. outside diameter regardless of other parameters
C. the installation of an equalizing line will be necessary C. inside diameter from 3mm to 300mm, and over 300mm by its
outside diameter
D. cutting of the disc will result D. inside diameter from 3mm to 600mm, and over 600mm by its
outside diameter
Ans: D Ans: C
3401 A gate valve installed in a pipeline should be ____________. 3402 A "close nipple" is a piece of pipe that is _____________.
A. used in either the fully closed or fully opened position A. less than 12mm long
B. installed with the stem down B. threaded along the entire length
C. used for steam service only C. shorter than the nipple outside diameter
D. used to throttle or regulate the flow of liquid D. thread only on one end
Ans: A Ans: B
3403 On tankers using hydraulic tank valve actuation, which of the listed 3404 An electric motor driven (torque producing) remotely controlled,
valve types has the highest tendency to develop leaks relative to valve actuator is installed on the high sea suction with the "red"
the valve, and results in more frequent maintenance? indicator light illuminated. When the "open" push button is
depressed, the "green" indicator light comes on momentarily an

A. Gate valves A. Alternately depress the "close" and "open" buttons to get the valve
open.
B. Butterfly valves B. Manually engage the actuator handwheel and "break" the valve
disk from its seat, then push the "open" button.
C. Globe valves C. Secure power, tag out system and make repairs because the valve
stem has sheared.
D. Check valves D. Secure the breaker to this device, then switch the motor leads and
push the "open" button.
Ans: B Ans: B
3405 The handle of a butterfly valve must be ___________________. 3406 Which of the following statements concerning butterfly valves is
correct?
A. parallel to the axis of flow when the valve is closed A. Special tools are required for lapping or grinding.
B. forty-five degrees to the axis of flow when the valve is fully open B. The butterfly valve should never be used in a freshwater system.

C. either at 0° or 90° but never at any other angle regardless of flow C. To close the valve, it is only necessary to turn the handle a quarter
rate of a turn.
D. parallel to the flow when in the fully open position D. It is impossible to throttle flow with a butterfly valve.
Ans: D Ans: C
 Page 186

3407 Which of the flange types listed identifies the construction of a pipe 3408 Regulations require all power-operated valves, other than those
joint where a flange is slipped over a length of pipe, the pipe end is opened against spring force, to have an energy storage system.
heated, then setup (flanged) in a special machine, and then the That energy storage system shall be capable of ____________.
end of the pipe is machined to form the actual f

A. Raised face flange A. cross connection to an alternate power supply

B. Socket joint B. cycling all connected valves once
C. Walseal joint C. operating any valve independently
D. Lap joint (van stone) flange D. closing the boiler quick-closing fuel valves
Ans: D Ans: B
3409 On tank vessels, which of the listed valve types is most commonly 3410 Which of the problems listed represents the major difficulty
used in conjunction with hydraulically actuated controls? encountered with thermal expansion valve operation?

A. gate valve A. Lube oil passing through the system.

B. globe valve B. Moisture or foreign matter collecting at the valve seat and orifice.

C. butterfly valve C. Variable spring tension caused by the changing temperature.

D. nonreturn valve D. Frost on the liquid line.
Ans: C Ans: B
3411 When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order 3412 A non-rising stem gate valve should _____________.
should the bolts be tightened?
A. Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order A. be completely opened with the handwheel locked hard at the end of
in the clockwise direction. the last opening turn
B. Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order B. be opened to the end of the last opening turn, then rotate the
in the counterclockwise direction. handwheel in the closing direction by approximately 1/4 of a turn

C. Install and tighten bolts 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, and 6, in that order. C. be opened by 1/2 of the total number of turns available from full
closed to full open
D. Install and tighten bolts in pairs which are opposite each other in the D. be opened as much as needed, regardless of how little the gate has
flange (1-4, 2-5, and 3-6). been moved from its seat
Ans: D Ans: B
STEERING
3413 The action necessary to transfer the steering control from the 3414 As the designated rudder angle is being achieved, as a result of
wheelhouse to local control in order to use the steering gear room the original command input, the steering gear follow-up mechanism
trick wheel, is to _____________. is ____________.
A. align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position A. in motion, providing a null input
B. set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position B. not in motion, thus providing a null input
C. open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel C. in motion, providing an input to place the main pump on maximum
stroke
D. always place the rudder in the midship position to engage the trick D. in motion, providing an input to place the main pump at null stroke
wheel
Ans: A Ans: D
3415 If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the 3416 When there is no movement of the rams on an electro-hydraulic
vessel's steering can be initially and best maintained by using the steering gear, the tilting box of the running pump is
_____________. _____________.
A. trick wheel A. set for maximum torque
B. accumulator B. on the purge and vent stroke
C. standby pump C. in the neutral position
D. telemotor D. rotating backwards
Ans: C Ans: C
3417 When the helm demands a 20‚ right rudder movement from an 3418 In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is
electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed actions will be the maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position
FIRST action to happen when this rudder position is attained? by means of the _____________.

A. The six-way valve opens. A. trickwheel

B. The steering service pump motor is stopped. B. follow-up control
C. The follow-up gear takes the pump off stroke. C. six-way valve
D. The cylinder relief valves bypass oil to the suction side of the pump. D. Rapson slide

Ans: C Ans: B
3419 Which of the devices listed, when used on an electro-hydraulic 3420 Your vessel is departing at 1800 hours on a voyage of more than
steering gear, keeps the movement of the rudder closely in step 48 hours duration. Regulations require that the steering gear be
with the steering wheel? examined and tested no earlier than ____________.
A. The follow-up gear A. 0600 hours
B. The rudder angle indicator B. 0900 hours
C. The synchronous electric transmitter C. 1200 hours
D. A rudder angle limit switch D. 1500 hours
Ans: A Ans: A
3421 The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear 3422 Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a
____________. single-acting hydraulic ram is correct?
A. relieves excessive fluid pressure. A. Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against
the ram by directional ports.
B. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is B. The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of
attained. hydraulic force.
C. allows for rudder movement faster than the movement of the ship's C. The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force.
wheel.
 Page 187

D. returns the rudder to amidships when the wheel is released. D. Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling
motion.
Ans: B Ans: C
3423 Which of the following types of hydraulic pumps would be used in a 3424 When air becomes trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering
steering system? system, the _____________.
A. Lobe A. rudder will respond sluggishly
B. Screw B. hydraulic rams will overspeed
C. Radial piston C. sight glass will show bubbles
D. Volute D. ram relief valves will lift
Ans: C Ans: A
3425 Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system should be 3426 While inspecting the steering system at sea, you should check for
indicated by ____________. _____________.
A. the pump overspeeding A. air bubbles in the sight glass
B. an improper rudder response B. any leaks in the system
C. bubbles in the sight glass C. overtravel in the rudder angle indicator
D. ram relief valves lifting D. lost motion in the rams
Ans: B Ans: B
3427 When the steering wheel is turned, oil is directed to the steering 3428 The function of the hydraulic telemotor transmitter used in an
gear rams by _____________. electro-hydraulic steering gear system is to ___________.
A. modulating the oil flow with the six-way valve A. transmit the rudder angle to the bridge indicator
B. moving the automatic pressure differential valve B. prevent the control linkage from striking the stops when hard over

C. moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the two-way valve C. automatically purge all entrained air from the system

D. varying the eccentricity of a floating ring or angle of a tilting box D. send hydraulic signals to the receiving unit

Ans: D Ans: D
3429 A solenoid, direct-acting, three-position, spring-centered, directional 3430 When the helm angle position is changed, the series
control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear ofcorresponding events of the steering gear will
actuator. With the actuator under load there is no movement. include__________. I. length of time the steering gear pump
However, when the load is removed the actuator can be cycl remains on stroke is proportional to helm angle input II. system
pressure being higher for
A. One or both of the centering springs has broken and the spool has A. I only
jammed in the valve body.
B. One or both of the solenoid coils has sustained an open. B. II only
C. The pump coupling is damaged and the pump is unable to attain C. Both I and II
its rated speed of rotation.
D. The pump coupling has sheared and the motor is overspeeding. D. Neither I nor II

Ans: C Ans: A
3431 On an electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed devices 3432 When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the
will keep the rudder from overtraveling the bridge signal? listed actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a
ship equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear?

A. Rudder angle indicator A. The pumps go to full stroke.

B. Follow-up gear B. The six-way valve aligns itself with the running pump.
C. Electric transmitter C. Both port and starboard cables are energized.
D. Rudder angle limit switch D. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion.
Ans: B Ans: D
3433 Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system may be 3434 Most hydraulic steering gears are fitted with relief valves which
indicated by ____________. _____________.
A. the steering pumps overspeeding A. function when the rudder is amidships
B. a jammed open relief valve B. relieve excess whip pressure from the hydraulic oil system
C. a constantly occurring improper rudder response C. protect the piping assembly from external rudder shock
D. excessive ram pressure D. relieve excessive telemotor pressure
Ans: C Ans: C
3435 In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder shock is limited by 3436 Rudder motion is prevented from exceeding the movement of the
_____________. steering wheel by the _____________.
A. a differential gear A. return springs
B. return springs B. six-way valve
C. a hydraulic accumulator C. follow-up gear
D. relief valves D. differential gear
Ans: D Ans: C
3437 When the steering gear is in operation, you should ________. 3438 When the desired rudder angle is attained by a typical double ram
electro-hydraulic steering gear, the ___________.
A. check hydraulic oil levels every hour A. ram relief valves bypass oil to stop rudder movement
B. check the rams for overheating B. six-way valve shifts to the neutral flow position
C. check for excessive oil leakage from rams C. steering pump electric motor is de-energized by the transfer switch

D. drain water from telemotor cylinders each watch D. follow-up gear takes the hydraulic pump off stroke
Ans: C Ans: D
3439 If a severe leak develops in the electro-hydraulic steering gear, 3440 A power failure in the hydraulic system of a compact type steering
which of the listed conditions could result? gear would cause the rudder to _____________.
A. Loss of vessel steering A. swing 35° right or left
B. Overheating of the gyrocompass B. remain locked in its last position
C. Jamming of the six-way valve C. move to the midship position automatically
 Page 188

D. Jamming of the follow-up device D. jam against the rudder emergency stops
Ans: A Ans: B
3441 Regulations require that an indicatinglight, located at the propulsion 3442 A vertical shaft having a rudder attached to its lower end and having
control station, beilluminated if there is an overload that would a yoke, quadrant, or tiller fitted to its upper portion by which it may
causeoverheating of the _________. be turned, is the _________________.
A. forced draft blower motor A. rudder frame
B. fuel pump motor B. rudder post
C. steering gear motor C. rudder stock
D. condensate pump motor D. stern post
Ans: C Ans: C
3443 Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate 3444 Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically
_____________. locked unless _____________.
A. with both pumps on line at the same time A. the manual trick wheel is engaged for steering
B. with one pump on standby B. the variable stroke pump is off stroke
C. with the follow-up gear disconnected C. a rudder order is given by the control system
D. only when the rudder is moved amidships D. an electric power system failure occurs at the steering gear
Ans: B Ans: C
3445 When the helm angle position is changed, the series 3446 Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage,
ofcorresponding events of the steering gear will the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between
include__________. I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be the bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no
proportional to amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate earlier than _____.
(box) angle wi
A. I only A. 1 hour
B. II only B. 4 hours
C. Both I and II C. 8 hours
D. Neither I nor II D. 12 hours
Ans: B Ans: D
3447 In an emergency, the electro-hydraulic steering units can be directly 3448 Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering systems are of
controlled by the _____________. the ____________.
A. trick wheel A. lobe type
B. rapson slide B. screw type
C. follow-up gear C. axial piston type
D. receiver unit D. volute type
Ans: A Ans: C
3449 In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder 3450 While inspecting the steering gear at sea, you should check for
shock is prevented by _____________. _____________.
A. buffer springs A. any leaks in the system
B. relief valves B. accuracy of the rudder angle indicator
C. oil flowing through the pumps C. movement of the trick wheel
D. dashpots D. position of the six-way valve
Ans: B Ans: A
3451 The purging of air from an electro-hydraulic steering gear unit is 3452 Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system would be
necessary when _____________. indicated by _____________.
A. changing over to hand pump operation A. an improper rudder response
B. engaging the trick wheel B. hammering noises in the equipment or transmission lines
C. the system has been filled with new oil C. popping or sputtering noises
D. the rudder angle indicator does not match the helm position D. all the above
Ans: C Ans: D
3453 Regulations require hydraulic steering gear systems to be equipped 3454 According to Regulations ,which of the following statements is
with a means of steadying the rudder in an emergency. This may correct regarding the steering apparatus requirements for a vessel
be accomplished with ____________. over 75 metres in length?
A. a suitable arrangement of stop valves in the main piping A. Hydraulic structural rudder stops are mandatory.
B. a positive arrangement for stopping the rudder before the rudder B. On hydraulic type steering gears, a suitable arrangement of check
stops are reached valves in the main piping system may be considered as a means of
steadying the rudder.
C. a suitable arrangement of block and tackle powered by winches C. A separate auxiliary means of steering is not required where the
main gear is of the dual power hydraulic type, having two
independent pumps and connections.
D. buffer arrangements to relieve the gear from shocks to the rudder D. All of the above.

Ans: A Ans: C
3455 Regulations make certain requirementsregarding overcurrent 3456 Electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors are required by
protection. Steering gear feeder circuits shall be protected only by Regulations to be _____________.
_____________.
A. a circuit breaker with instantaneous trip A. protected by a circuit breaker and a thermal overload device
B. motor running overcurrent protection B. provided with a running motor overcurrent protection device
C. a nonrenewable link cartridge fuse C. served by a single two conductor cable
D. a renewable link cartridge fuse D. served by two feeder circuits
Ans: A Ans: D
3457 Of the equipment listed below, which equipment must be tested 3458 Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves,
NOT more than 12 hours prior to getting underway from a port utilized in a two ram hydraulic steering gear, serve to
when the voyage is to be of 48 hours or greater duration? ____________.

A. Steering gear A. allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition
thus developing immediate full torque
 Page 189

B. Emergency generator B. prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when
idle by cross pressure flow
C. All internal vessel power control communications and alarms C. prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result
in doubling the flow of oil and pressure leading to over
pressurization of the system
D. All of the above D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: B
3459 Which of the listed systems related to an engineer's signal alarm 3460 Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil
panel is required to be indicated by a continuously illuminated light pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by
while in operation? _____________.
A. Deaerating tank low level A. regulating the oil flow with the six-way valve
B. Shaft alley bilge high level B. moving the automatic differential valve
C. Port or starboard steering gear motor running C. moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the two-way valve

D. No. 1 diesel generator low lube oil pressure D. varying the angle of a tilting box or eccentricity of a floating ring

Ans: C Ans: D
3461 An AC synchronous transmission type remote steering control 3462 The purpose of the six-way valve used in an electro-hydraulic
system consists of a ______________. steering system is to _____________.
A. transmitter at the steering station and a receiver at the steering A. parallel rudder motion to the steering wheel
engine
B. reversible motor at the steering station geared to the steering B. take the pump off stroke when desired rudder angle is attained
pumps
C. small induction motor on the bridge which controls the rudder C. redirect hydraulic fluid flow when changing over pumps
through pulleys
D. variable displacement hydraulic pump driven by a reversible DC D. ensure positive contact between the Rapson slide and the rudder
motor post
Ans: A Ans: C
3463 According to Regulations , a power driven auxiliary steering gear 3464 A power-driven auxiliary steering gear is required by Regulations to
for a vessel capable of a 12 knot service speed, must be able to be capable of putting the rudder over from 15‚ on one side to 15‚
meet the rudder movement requirements at which of the minimum on the other side with the vessel running ahead. For a 20 knot
vessel speeds listed below? vessel, this test must be carried out at a speed of ____

A. 6 knots A. 7 knots
B. 7 knots B. 10 knots
C. 9 knots C. 15 knots
D. 12 knots D. 20 knots
Ans: B Ans: B
3465 Regulations require that electric andelectro-hydraulic steering gear 3466 Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the _____________.
motors shall be _____________.
A. served by two electric power feeder circuits A. rudder angle indicator
B. provided with a motor running overcurrent protection device B. follow-up gear
C. protected by a circuit breaker and a thermal overload device C. telemotor position
D. served by a single two conductor cable D. Rapson slide indicator
Ans: A Ans: A
3467 The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear 3468 In an electro-hydraulic steering gear, any change in relative
_____________. position between the synchronous receiver and the follow-up gear
will result in _____________.
A. relieves excessive fluid pressure A. the pump going to full stroke
B. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained B. closing of the six-way valve

C. synchronizes wheel position with the rudder position C. driving the rams up against the stops
D. returns the rudder to midposition when the wheel is released D. a corresponding slowing or increasing of the pumped flow rate

Ans: B Ans: D
3469 In an electro-hydraulic steering gear system, when will the variable
displacement pump be placed on stroke?
A. When the helm is at any angle other than amidships.
B. When the six-way valve is opened.
C. When the ram relief valves lift.
D. When the rudder angle is different from the position of the helm.

Ans: D
HYDRAULICS AND DECK MACHINERY
3470 In a radial piston pump, reversal and control of fluid flow are 3471 The usual number of single-acting pistons used in a variable
accomplished by moving the _____________. stroke axial-piston pump is _____________.
A. central valve A. 3 or 5
B. radial plunger B. 5 or 7
C. floating ring C. 7 or 9
D. cylinder body D. 9 or 11
Ans: C Ans: C
3472 Dryseal threads, typically used for tubing to pipe connectors, and 3473 The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is indicated by
threaded piping in hydraulic systems are ___________. _____________.

A. the same as National Pipe threads A. the inside diameter of the tube
 Page 190

B. different than NPT as the crest of a matching thread is in contact B. the numerical designation found on the "skin" of the hose
with the trough of the opposing thread
C. different than NPT as the flanks of the matching threads are in C. a color code on the armor
contact with the opposing threads
D. the same as National Fine threads D. the thickness of the tube wall
Ans: B Ans: B
3474 To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator ____________. 3475 Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with
accumulators, you should _____________.
A. remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic A. drain the accumulators and purge with oxygen
pressure to the accumulator preload pressure
B. remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic B. bleed off all stored energy from the accumulators
pressure to the system's design pressure
C. increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches C. completely charge the accumulators to prevent system energy loss
its design pressure
D. allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at D. pump the hydraulic fluid into the accumulators to prevent fluid loss
atmospheric pressure, shut off the air chamber, and add hydraulic
fluid until proper pressure is reached
Ans: A Ans: B
3476 In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to 3477 As a rule of thumb, when pressure is applied to hydraulic oil, the oil
an O-ring? will _____________.
A. V-ring A. not be compressed, as liquids are not compressible
B. Cup seal B. reduce in volume by 1% for every 7bar increment
C. U-ring C. increase in volume by 1% for every 70bar increment
D. Quad ring D. reduce in volume by 1/2% for every 70bar increment
Ans: D Ans: D
3478 The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to 3479 Obstructed suction passages in the casing or pintle of a radial
______________. piston hydraulic pump will cause the _____________.
A. collect any dirt in the system A. pump back pressure to decrease
B. collect fluid from any small leak B. pump return and discharge pressures to equalize
C. preheat the fluid during cold weather C. pumped fluid volume to decrease
D. store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure D. pump discharge flow to drop to zero
in the system
Ans: D Ans: C
3480 In which of the listed hydraulic system components could an O-ring 3481 Before performing any maintenance on a hydraulic system storing
seal be satisfactorily used in providing a seal? energy in an accumulator, you should _____________.

A. High pressure pump shaft casing A. pressurize the system to test for leaks
B. Low pressure pump shaft casing B. bleed off all pressure within the system
C. Linear actuator without nylon insert C. operate the machine until it reaches normal temperature
D. Relief valve spool D. disconnect the pump pressure control switch
Ans: D Ans: B
3482 When installing a hydraulic hose, which of the following precautions 3483 To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which
should be taken? of the following would have to be done?
A. The hose should not be twisted. A. Double the casing thickness.
B. The hose should be protected with a sleeve if it is subjected to B. Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
rubbing.
C. There should be some slack in the hose. C. Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane
slots.
D. All of the above. D. Provide one additional slot and vane.
Ans: D Ans: C
3484 A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to 3485 The amount of the cushioning effect developed within a hydraulic
store hydraulic oil. Another function is to _____________. cylinder is determined by the ____________.

A. act as a shock absorber A. position of the directional port in the cushion cavity
B. maintain the stored oil under pressure B. adjustment of the cushion cavity check valve
C. act as a base or foundation for the power unit C. design shape of the cylinder ends
D. eliminate pressure surges in the system D. setting of the cushioning adjustment needle valve
Ans: C Ans: D
3486 Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to 3487 A hydraulic system directional control valve fitted with "detent" will
___________. _____________.
A. protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants A. have an infinite number of valve positions
B. prevent solid particles from entering the pump B. usually be shifted into three specific positions
C. prevent solid particles from entering the filter C. be able to be varied through out the travel of the valve spool
D. protect the directional control valves D. have an offset, directional control only
Ans: B Ans: B
3488 An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak when it has 3489 Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when
lost its interference fit due to ____________. _______________.
A. compression set or wear A. adding small amounts of oil to the system
B. low fluid pressure B. the system has been overheated
C. high fluid flow C. the system has been drained and then filled with new oil
D. low fluid temperature D. the system has been idle for a long period of time
Ans: A Ans: C
3490 One function provided by a hydraulic accumulator is to_________. 3491 Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately
absorbed by the _____________.
A. provide an area where air can separate from the oil A. reservoir expansion chamber
B. provide an area to separate solid contaminants from the oil B. hydraulic piping flexibility
 Page 191

C. act as an oil and water separator C. atmosphere as heat

D. absorb shocks occurring in the system D. fluid as friction
Ans: D Ans: C
3492 The movement of heat within a fluid, caused by the application of 3493 How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased
thermal energy, is called ___________. when working on hydraulic systems?
A. radiation A. Clean the fittings before they are disconnected.
B. conduction B. Place drip pans under leaky fittings.
C. convection C. Seal any cracks in lines with Permatex.
D. condo-radiation D. Coat all threads with graphite oil.
Ans: C Ans: A
3494 The delivery rate of an axial-piston hydraulic pump is controlled by 3495 If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation,
varying the position of the ____________. the cause may be ____________.
A. sliding block A. an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the
reservoir
B. pintle B. low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid
C. reaction ring C. an oil leak across the pump shaft packing
D. tilting box or swash plate D. due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor
Ans: D Ans: A
3496 If the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling noise 3497 Which of the listed conditions will occur if the discharge pressure of
while in operation, this is a probable indication of a rotary pump is increased from the designed 3.50 kg/cm2 to 21.0
_______________. kg/cm2, while maintaining the same RPM?

A. internal system fluid leakage A. The pump capacity will be decreased.

B. air passing through the pump B. The pump capacity will be increased.
C. strained hydraulic fluid C. Pump efficiency will be increased.
D. excess internal slippage D. Internal liquid slippage will be reduced.
Ans: B Ans: A
3498 If the relief valve on the discharge side of a hydraulic pump lifts, the 3499 Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation
cause could be _____________. and can be caused by a/an _____________.
A. a low load on the unit A. high fluid level in the reservoir
B. a clogged pump suction strainer B. hydraulic fluid low floc point
C. a blockage in the line between the pump and hydraulic motor C. excessive discharge pressure from the pump
D. the hydraulic motor turning too fast D. clogged suction strainer in the reservoir
Ans: C Ans: D
3500 Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir 3501 An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction
should enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to strainers to help reduce the possibility of _______________.
_____________.
A. prevent foaming A. aeration of the oil
B. prevent moisture accumulation B. contamination of the oil
C. prevent vacuum formation C. pump cavitation
D. accommodate thermal expansion D. spongy actuator movements
Ans: A Ans: C
3502 Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of ______. 3503 A reservoir is used in a hydraulic system to _____________.

A. changing pump discharge pressure in response to normal load A. store fluid until required by the system
variations
B. a high oil level B. provide a place for air to separate out of the fluid
C. incorrect fluid viscosity C. provide a place for contaminants to settle out
D. continued slow recirculation of the oil D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
3504 An orifice-check valve placed in a hydraulic system is used to 3505 Hydraulic system reservoirs should be maintained at
______________. recommended normal levels to reduce ___________.
A. regulate the fluid flow in either direction A. condensation on inside walls
B. restrict movement of hydraulic fluid in one direction, but allow free B. heat retention of working fluid
movement in the other direction
C. allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions C. frequency of fluid changeover
D. allow a restricted fluid flow in one direction only D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
3506 In a typical hydraulic system, a baffle is installed in thereservoir to 3507 In a typical hydraulic system, a baffle is installed in thereservoir to
_______. I. insure proper lubrication of the hydraulic pump II. _______. I. provide a critical reduction in free surface effect
assist in the removal of Solid contaminants entrained in the hydraulic pump II. assist in retaining the hydraulic oil to provide
returning oil heat removal
A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. Both I and II C. Both I and II
D. Neither I and II D. Neither I and II
Ans: C Ans: B
3508 As a general rule of thumb, the reservoir used in a hydraulic 3509 Which of the following problems occurring in a hydraulic system can
system should have a capacity, when at the normal level, be caused by the use of an oil having a viscosity lower than
approximately equal to ____________. specified?
A. two to three times the normal flow rate through the system A. Seal deterioration
B. the flow rate through the system B. Fast response and hunting
C. ten times the flow rate through the system C. Increased power consumption
D. the pump gpm D. Oil film breakdown
Ans: A Ans: C
 Page 192

3510 Which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system 3511 Why is a hydraulic linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?
directional control valve?
A. Counterbalance valve A. To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length.
B. Offset, two position valve B. To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due
to hammering effects.
C. Sequencing valve C. To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above
the relief valve setting without lifting the relief valve.
D. Unloading valve D. All of the above.
Ans: B Ans: B
3512 A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator 3513 A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator
speed, with the pump operating below maximum operating speed during extension, with the pump operating at system
pressure is known as the ____________. pressure, is known as a ____________.
A. metered-in circuit A. metered-in circuit
B. metered-out circuit B. metered-out circuit
C. bleed-in circuit C. bleed-off circuit
D. bleed-off circuit D. bleed-in circuit
Ans: D Ans: A
3514 The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic 3515 The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of
hose is the _____________. hydraulic oil, are generally ____________.
A. external cover A. removed by cellulose type filters
B. synthetic rubber inner tube B. gums, varnishes, and acids
C. braided layer C. always neutralized by oil additives
D. teflon sleeve D. harmless and have no effect on system components
Ans: C Ans: B
3516 When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a 3517 If a radial piston hydraulic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume,
high-pressure system, the oil ____________. the cause can be _______________.
A. viscosity will increase A. contaminated fluid
B. viscosity will decrease B. pitted thrust rings
C. volume will increase C. worn pintle bearings
D. floc point will increase D. obstructed suctions passage
Ans: A Ans: D
3518 Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a 3519 An axial piston pump differs from a radial piston pump as the
hydraulic system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump pistons of an axial piston pump are positioned _____________.
discharge until the additional flow was required?
A. counterbalance valve A. radially from the shaft
B. unloading valve B. parallel to each other and to the shaft
C. compound, pressure-relief valve C. parallel to each other but at a right angle to the shaft
D. sequence valve D. at an angle to each other and to the shaft
Ans: B Ans: B
3520 Which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system 3521 The speed of a radial piston hydraulic MOTOR is controlled by
directional control valve? varying the _________.
A. three-position valve A. amount of cylinder block offset with respect to the rotor
B. sequencing valve B. fluid flow rate discharged to the motor
C. unloading valve C. length of the motor piston stroke on the power cycle
D. counterbalance valve D. pintle discharge rate to the suction side of the pump
Ans: A Ans: B
3522 Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent 3523 A check run on a hydraulic anchor windlass during long periods of
_____________. inactivity should be carried out to ____________.
A. overheating of the lube oil A. prevent chemical breakdown of hydraulic fluid
B. overspeeding of the motor B. remove condensation from the fluid reservoir
C. wear on the braking system C. prevent the anchor from seizing in the hawsepipe
D. damage to the teeth D. renew the internal coating of lubrication
Ans: D Ans: D
3524 A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes 3525 The torque rating of a fluid power motor is expressed in
capable of holding ________________. _______________.
A. half the breaking strength of the mooring line A. RPMs under a given load condition
B. the full breaking strength of the mooring line B. Newton-metre at a given pressure
C. the maximum expected tension of the mooring line C. Newton-metre per piston stroke
D. 50% over the working tension of the mooring line D. Newton-metre per rate of input flow
Ans: B Ans: B
3526 The delivery rate of a variable stroke axial piston hydraulic pump is 3527 When changing to a fire resistant hydraulic fluid in a system, it is
controlled by varying the position of the ______________. important to check the compatibility of the new fluid with the
system's _____________.
A. slide block A. seals
B. tilting box B. metals and plating
C. pintle C. paint
D. reaction ring D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
3528 Directional control valves used in hydraulic systems may be 3529 The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves
positioned ____________. to _____________.
A. manually A. reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction
B. mechanically B. minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines
entering the system
C. electrically C. minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line

D. all of the above D. all of the above

 Page 193

Ans: D Ans: D
3530 Which of the valves listed is not considered to be a hydraulic 3531 Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic
system directional control valve? system is stored in the ____________.
A. Two-position valve A. accumulator
B. Three-position valve B. actuator
C. Detented-position valve C. ram
D. Counterbalance valve D. reservoir
Ans: D Ans: A
3532 In a typical hydraulic system, return lines to thereservoir are 3533 Proper internal lubrication of a hydraulic anchor windlass left idle for
___________. I. terminated at or just above the normal level II. extended periods can be accomplished by _______________.
placed as far from the pump suction as possible
A. I only A. performing a check run on the unit at regular intervals
B. II only B. testing the hydraulic fluid for proper pH
C. Both I and II C. checking the reservoir for proper level
D. Neither I and II D. cleaning strainers at regular intervals
Ans: B Ans: A
3534 Which of the following devices is not considered to be a pressure 3535 Which of the devices listed is considered to be a hydraulic system
vessel? directional control valve?
A. Low pressure evaporator A. Unloading valve
B. Deaerating feed heater B. Counterbalance valve
C. Hydraulic fluid power cylinder C. Detented position valve
D. Fuel oil heater D. Sequencing valve
Ans: C Ans: C
3536 If an anchor windlass has been idle for some time, you should 3537 Which of the following is the most common type of valving element
_____________. used in hydraulic system directional control valves?
A. repack all valve stems A. Nutating disk
B. lubricate it prior to use B. Sliding spool
C. replace the foundation bolts C. Elongated ball or cone
D. balance the warping heads D. Restricted orifice poppet
Ans: B Ans: B
3538 A device incorporating a variable orifice placed in series with a 3539 Water allowed to accumulate in the hydraulic system oil will cause
check valve in a hydraulic system, is used to ________________. an oxidation process producing by-products which are normally
_______________.
A. allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions A. gums, acids, and varnishes
B. allow fluid flow in one direction only B. removed by cellulose type filters
C. allow throttled fluid flow in one direction only C. neutralized by oil additives
D. restrict hydraulic fluid flow in both directions D. not removed by absorbent filters
Ans: C Ans: A
3540 Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by 3541 The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch
contamination of the hydraulic fluid and _________. cover system, is to _____________.
A. fluid friction A. prevent oil backflow to the actuators
B. fluid turbulence B. prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating
C. component misalignment C. control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing
D. pressure surges D. restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use
Ans: C Ans: C
3542 Prolonged operation of a hydraulic pump in a cavitating condition 3543 The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be
can cause _____________. changed only by _______________.
A. the hydraulic fluid to become overheated A. changing the angle of the tilting plate
B. the fluid motor to become overloaded B. changing the speed of the pump
C. the relief valve to hum C. moving the slide block and rotor
D. a wide variation in fluid pressure surges D. moving the shaft trunnion block
Ans: A Ans: B
3544 When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal 3545 Which of the following problems will occur if the internal drain at
pipe size of the piping always indicates the ______________. either end of a hydraulic, two-way, spool-type directional control
valve cylinder were to become plugged?
A. actual inside diameter A. The reservoir would become vapor bound.
B. actual outside diameter B. The valve would be placed in hydraulic lock.
C. wall thickness C. The spring loaded relief ports would open.
D. size for threaded connections D. The buffering chambers would be unable to function.
Ans: D Ans: B
3546 Return lines to hydraulic systems reservoirs should________. 3547 If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a hydraulic deck crane,
which of the following problems will occur?
A. end the return line as far as practicable from the pump suction A. All the seals in the hydraulic lines will immediately blow out.

B. end the return line as close to the pump suction as possible
C. provide a "P" or "S" trap in the return line as close to the reservoir
as possible to trap sediment from entering the tank
D. connect the return lines directly to the cleanout and inspection
plates to limit the number of openings on the reservoir
B. The sheathing on the hydraulic lines will fracture.
C. The lifting capacity of the crane will be immediately reduced by
70%.
D. The internal parts of the pump and hydraulic motor will wear
excessively.

Ans: A Ans: D
3548 The delivery rate of an axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by 3549 A gradual decrease in the discharge pressure of an operating
varying the position of the _____________. hydraulic pump can be caused by _____________.
A. tilting box A. the four-way control valve failing to shift
B. slide block B. the bleeder valve sticking in the open position
C. pintle C. cold hydraulic fluid
 Page 194

D. reaction ring D. a clogged air vent filter on the oil reservoir

Ans: A Ans: D
3550 If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring 3551 Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a combined
winch, and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should filler/breather cap. If the breather element becomes fouled, the
_____________. _______________.
A. add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir A. reservoir will become pressurized
B. add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute B. reservoir will be subjected to a partial vacuum
C. add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid C. flow through the return lines will be stopped
D. check the winch manufacturer's instruction book D. actuator response time will be halved
Ans: D Ans: B
3552 The oil in a cargo winch gear box should be sampled periodically 3553 A filter used in a multi-operation hydraulic system would most likely
to _____________. be located ______________.
A. prevent the gear box from leaking A. at the pump suction
B. prevent the oil from becoming inflammable B. between the pump and the directional control valves
C. make sure it has not become contaminated C. between the control valves and the actuators
D. make sure the motor bearings are lubricated D. in the actuator return lines
Ans: C Ans: B
3554 Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic 3555 Flexible hose under pressure in a hydraulic system will
system directional control valve? _________________.
A. Sequencing valve A. tend to twist about its long axis
B. Two-position valve B. expand in length and in diameter
C. Three-position valve C. contract in length and expand in diameter
D. Spring-centered valve D. flex at right angles to the applied pressure
Ans: A Ans: C
3556 The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a 3557 Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to
pressure gauge, is a result of the fluid flow overcoming establish the maximum operating pressure of a hydraulic system?
_________________.
A. internal resistance to flow A. Pressure-reducing valve
B. resistance of the internal components B. Unloading valve
C. the load applied to the system C. Counterbalance valve
D. all of the above D. Pressure-relief valve
Ans: D Ans: D
3558 Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit 3559 Which of the listed pressure-control valves is used in a hydraulic
the completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second system to prevent the stray movements of a vertical load until
action would be permitted? required?
A. Counterbalance valve A. Pressure reducing valve
B. Unloading valve B. Counterbalance valve
C. Sequence valve C. Unloading valve
D. Pressure-reducing valve D. Sequence valve
Ans: C Ans: B
3560 Which of the following statements describes the functions of a 3561 Hydraulic system tubing should be anchored every three or four feet
reservoir used in a hydraulic system? to prevent ____________.
A. Dissipate heat A. excessive pump cavitation
B. Trap foreign matter B. expansion and contraction of the tubing
C. Separate air from the oil C. tube fitting leaks from vibration and pressure surges
D. All of the above D. tube flexing at right angles to the applied fluid pressure
Ans: D Ans: C
3562 When a linear actuator (cylinder) is being retracted without an 3563 If you install a new hydraulic hose in a hydraulic system, the hose
applied load, the pressure on the oil leaving the "cap end" will be must be long enough to allow for contraction to prevent
__________. _______________.
A. zero A. failure of the hydraulic hose
B. inversely proportional to the speed of retraction B. excessive flow through the line
C. inversely proportional to the flow rate at the rod end C. friction in other areas of the hydraulic system
D. increased as the speed of retraction increases D. overheating of the hydraulic fluid
Ans: D Ans: A
3564 Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on 3565 Sluggish response or action of the hydraulic actuators may be a
increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity? result of _____________.
A. Pour point A. insufficient load
B. Cloud point B. excessively high oil viscosity
C. Vacuum C. relief-valve pressure setting too high
D. Pressure D. reservoir level being maintained two inches above normal
Ans: D Ans: B
3566 The rubber bladder or separator bag installed in a hydraulic 3567 Flanged joints in hydraulic system piping are commonly made leak
accumulator should only be filled with __________. proof by _______________.
A. pure water A. seal welding the mating flange surfaces
B. pure oxygen B. installing suitable gaskets or O-rings
C. dry nitrogen C. leather wipers installed with the flange seals
D. dry hydrogen D. enclosing the flanged connection in a container
Ans: C Ans: B
3568 The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, 3569 The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be
dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an set up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only
_____________. when _____________.
A. accumulator A. excessive loads are placed on the winch
B. filter B. minimum pull is being exerted by the winch
C. separator C. automatic operation of the winch is desired
D. strainer D. wire is being retrieved at the maximum rate
 Page 195

Ans: B Ans: A
3570 New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be 3571 The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength,
safely degreased by using _________. is the _____________.
A. alcohol A. inner tube
B. a water-based detergent B. braided inner layer(s)
C. carbon tetrachloride C. outer cover
D. a special petroleum solvent D. outer armor
Ans: D Ans: B
3572 For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a 3573 An axial piston, variable stroke pump is used in a vessel's hydraulic
hydraulic system, the inside diameter can be determined if it is steering gear. Under pressure, oil continually leaks out from
remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter between the valve plate/ cylinder barrel and will ___________.
less _____________.
A. the wall thickness A. cause loss of hydraulic oil from the system
B. 1.5 times the wall thickness B. result in extreme damage to the pump
C. 2 times the wall thickness C. cause damage to the pump if not continually drained from the pump
casing
D. 2.5 times the wall thickness D. result in the system high side pressure to substantially drop off

Ans: C Ans: C
3574 When the tilting box of a variable stroke axial-piston pump is 3575 Which of the following problems may be encountered by using an
perpendicular to the pump shaft, which of the following conditions oil having a viscosity higher than that specified for an operating
will exist? hydraulic system?
A. The pistons reciprocate. A. External seal leakage.
B. The "B" end cylinder barrel rotates. B. Hunting due to fast response.
C. There is no fluid flow. C. Hydraulic oil film breakdown.
D. Power is transmitted hydraulically. D. Increased power consumption.
Ans: C Ans: D
3576 The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential 3577 The hydraulic oil most likely to thin out when hot and thick when
energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the cold would have a viscosity index of _________________.
_______________.
A. ram A. 20
B. accumulator B. 40
C. piping C. 60
D. pump D. 80
Ans: B Ans: A
3578 A bent axis, variable stroke, axial piston pump produces a greater 3579 Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable
capacity than a comparable tilting box-type axial piston pump, displacement radial piston pump are determined by the relative
because the ___________. positions of the ____________.
A. piston diameters are smaller A. pump shaft and central valve
B. length of stroke is greater B. pump shaft and horizontal ports
C. RPM is doubled C. floating ring and pump shaft
D. discharge/return line diameter are arranged differently D. floating ring and cylinder body
Ans: B Ans: D
3580 A hydraulic accumulator, used in a hydraulic system , is designed to 3581 What is the minimum permissible flashpoint of hydraulic fluid used
_________________. in a system which operates at 17.6 kg/cm2(250 psi)?
A. store fluid under pressure A. 93oC
B. act as the main fluid reservoir B. 102oC
C. provide the only means of overpressure relief C. 149oC
D. act as the singular source of fluid replenishment to a system D. 157oC
Ans: A Ans: D
3582 A valve installed in a hydraulic system to manipulate the reversal of 3583 A valve installed in a hydraulic system to control the reversal of
fluid flow, is called a _____________. fluid flow is called a _____________.
A. relief valve A. relief valve
B. reservoir valve B. reservoir valve
C. directional control valve C. directional control valve
D. regenative valve D. power valve
Ans: C Ans: C
3584 Compensated flow control, or constant flow valves are used in 3585 Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use
hydraulic systems to _____________. as _____________.
A. compensate for major leaks in the system A. main supply line throttle valves
B. maintain the original fluid viscosity B. variable flow control valves
C. allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system C. two position flow control valves

D. assure constant fluid temperature D. check and choke valves

Ans: C Ans: C
3586 Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by 3587 In the design of hydraulic piping and equipment consideration is
misalignment of the system components and by _____________. given to minimize turbulence in the hydraulic fluid, as this will cause
______________.
A. hydraulic fluid contamination A. molecular fluid vibration
B. excessive fluid friction B. energy losses
C. turbulent fluid flow C. wide pressure variations
D. fluid pressure surges D. mechanical damage to control valves
Ans: A Ans: B
3588 One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure- 3589 Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower
closed hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid flow to ____________. than the required operating pressure will result in
________________.
 Page 196

A. the reservoir A. accelerated action of the system components

B. a servo control circuit B. overheating of the system
C. position a manually controlled valve C. overspeeding of the hydraulic pump
D. the main system accumulators under all operating conditions D. extended system life
Ans: B Ans: B
3590 Leakage of hydraulic fluid from around the shaft of a hydraulic 3591 Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat
motor may be caused by _____________. brake becomes excessively worn?
A. permanent loss of pump suction A. The driving engine will overspeed.
B. worn shaft seals B. The anchor will immediately drop.
C. high level in the oil sump C. The clutch will overheat.
D. low motor RPM D. The brake's effectiveness will be reduced.
Ans: B Ans: D
3592 If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is overheating, the 3593 An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can
cause may be _____________. _____________.
A. excessive drive motor speed A. reduce or stop the output action of the actuator
B. excessive pump discharge pressure B. allow all metal particles to enter the power unit
C. too low of a tilting box angle C. rupture the pump discharge piping
D. insufficient drive motor speed D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: A
3594 Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic 3595 Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor
system directional control valve? windlass can result from a/an ____________.
A. Spring-centered valve A. overload on the pump motor
B. Unloading valve B. low fluid level in the reservoir
C. Three-position valve C. low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal
D. Two-position valve D. high oil level in the sump
Ans: B Ans: B
3596 As a general rule of thumb, the reservoir used in a hydraulic 3597 Hydraulic systems typically operated for intermittent service do not
system should have a capacity, when at the normal level, require the use of oil coolers and would include all of the following
approximately equal to ____________. except _________?
A. two to three times the normal flow rate through the system A. Constant tension mooring winch system
B. the flow rate through the system B. Hatch cover systems
C. ten times the flow rate through the system C. Watertight door system
D. the number of gallons a pump can circulate in one minute. D. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system
Ans: A Ans: A
3598 Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed 3599 In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil
________________. cooler be necessary?
A. only by the pump as its primary function A. Constant tension mooring winch system
B. by resistance to the fluid flow through the system B. Hatch cover system
C. by the thermal input to the system's fluid C. Watertight door system
D. solely by the charge applied by the accumulators D. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system
Ans: B Ans: A
3600 If you install a hydraulic hose on a unit and fail to leave sufficient 3601 When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a
room for expansion, which of the following problems will develop? hydraulic system, prior to installation the piping should be
_____________.
A. The hose may pull loose from its fittings. A. cleaned using a water-based detergent
B. The components connected by the hose will be damaged. B. descaled by using a pickling solution
C. The hydraulic unit will fail to acquire any power. C. hydrostatically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure
D. The hydraulic fluid will overheat and breakdown. D. all of the above
Ans: A
3602 While riding at anchor, the anchor chain should be secured by the 3603 If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is over heating, the
____________. cause may be ______________.
A. windlass brake only A. increased pump speed
B. chain stopper or riding pawl B. excessive pump discharge pressure
C. riding spindle C. too low of a tilting box angle
D. anchor shackle D. low pump speed
Ans: B Ans: B
3604 If a hydraulic pump is overheating, the cause may be 3605 When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil used
____________. in a high-pressure system, the oil _______________.
A. excessive internal slippage in the pump A. viscosity will decrease
B. low discharge pressure and fluid flow B. volume will increase
C. excessive fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir C. volume will decrease
D. operation of the pump at 100% efficiency D. pour point will be reduced
Ans: A Ans: C
3606 Increased internal leakage, in addition to poor hydraulic system 3607 At high pressures, an O-ring has a tendency to extrude into the
response, and inadequate lubrication, is the result of clearance space between the mating parts of a hydraulic actuator.
____________. Which of the listed components is used to prevent extrusion?

A. pump bearings in poor condition A. Double seal ring

B. excessively worn actuator-piston packing B. Lathe cut ring
C. broken directional control valve centering springs C. Backup ring
D. low hydraulic oil viscosity D. Static washer
Ans: D Ans: C
 Page 197

3608 A solenoid direct-acting three-position spring-centered directional 3609 A solenoid, direct-acting, three-position, spring-centered, directional
control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear
actuator. When the remote push button is depressed to extend the actuator. Midway through extension, the push button is released,
actuator it fails to move, even though the pump is in op but the actuator continues to extend slowly. Which of

A. A spring at one spool end has broken and jammed, preventing the
spool from shifting.
B. The "extend" solenoid coil has developed an open.
C. The pump coupling is damaged and pump is unable to turn at its
required speed.
D. Any one of the above will cause the actuator to not move.
Ans: D
3610 Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will
cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a
result of ________________.
A. the trapped air being compressed to a pressure above the
maximum pump discharge pressure, then re-expanding and
lowering in pressure after the actuator moves
B. the cyclic expansion and contraction of air due to the motion of the
actuator
C. air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid
D. air providing better lubrication of internal components, found in
Hydraulic Systems, than hydraulic fluids
Ans: B
3612 Which of the following precautions should be observed concerning
the introduction of a fire resistant fluid into a hydraulic system?
A. A centering spring has broken and jammed the spool movement
preventing the spool from recentering.
B. One of the two solenoids has sustained an open in its respective
coil.
C. The pump coupling has been damaged preventing the pump from
developing its required operating speed.
D. The detent mechanism has failed, preventing the valve from
operating.
Ans: A
3611 In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to
maintain adequate flow, the pump suction should ___________.
A. be provided with three to five 1/2 inch holes in the vertical, suction
line to prevent pump starvation should the strainer become fouled
B. be arranged to develop a maximum vacuum of approximately 10"
of mercury
C. be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable
vacuum
D. be taken directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or
strainers
Ans: B
3613 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding hydraulic
pumps in general?

A. Deterioration of paints, seals, metals, and electrical insulation may A. Variable volumes can be obtained with gear pumps only by
occur. variation of the pump drive speed.
B. Fluid viscosity always increases as a normal result of its use. B. A radial piston pump houses sliding pistons in a stationary cylinder
block through which passes a rotating pintle or ported shaft.

C. Decreased wear rates of components is an advantage of its use. C. The amount of fluid displaced per revolution of an axial piston rotary
pump is dependent on the angle formed between the cylinder block
and valve plate.
D. Only chemically active filters may be used. D. All of the above.
Ans: A Ans: A
3614 Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable 3615 Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor
the pump to be temporarily shutdown, and yet still provide an windlass, may indicate pump cavitation caused by _____________.
instantaneous source of hydraulic force?
A. Modulator A. overload of the pump motor
B. Pressure compensator valve B. low oil level in the reservoir
C. Accumulator C. low fluid viscosity existing only around the shaft seal
D. Sump actuator D. high oil level in the sump
Ans: C Ans: B
3616 When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the 3617 Hydraulic hose assemblies are permitted by regulation to be
neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive installed between two points of relative motion ______________.
shaft is _____________.
A. engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure A. provided proper releasing mechanisms are available to enable
quick disconnect capabilities
B. released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when B. but shall not be subjected to torsional deflection under any
the drum ceases rotating conditions of operation
C. engaged by spring action and is insured to be locked in place by C. provided the entire length of the device is visible to the operator at
hydraulic pressure all times
D. opened hydraulically and held open by spring action whenever the D. to prevent the formation of loading stresses
electrical supply is secured
Ans: A Ans: B
3618 Some fluid filters used in hydraulic systems are designed to cope 3619 Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before being
with increasing pressure differentials by ___________. operated because _____________.
A. diverting the flow automatically to the standby filter of the duplex A. warm-up allows the hydraulic system to become charged with oil
unit
B. automatically bypassing the fluid via an internal valve arrangement B. warm-up allows the relief valves to be properly tested

C. automatically securing the system C. hydraulic strainers operate only during the warm-up period
D. diverting the pump discharge directly back to the suction D. hydraulic fluid must be at the proper viscosity
Ans: B Ans: D
3620 Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems 3621 With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid
because the lint ___________. ___________.
A. can cause rusting of internal parts A. contracts
B. breaks down hydraulic fluid B. remains the same
C. can clog filters and promote component leakage C. remains constant if pressure decreases
D. solidifies and causes cracked lines D. increases
Ans: C Ans: D
 Page 198
3622 If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on
the system, you will ______________.
A. be successful every time
B. find that the pressure will prevent the components from being
tightened
C. cause the system to vibrate
D. dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system
Ans: B
3624 A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston
abruptly slows towards the end of its stroke, then continues to
creep to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following
represents the probable cause?
A. The cushion adjustment needle valve is open too far.
B. The cushion adjustment needle valve is not open sufficiantly.
C. The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose.
D. The rod wiper is jammed in the cushion spear.
Ans: B
3626 A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent axis variable
stroke pumps to ___________.
A. vent off any accumulated air from the system
B. drain off any accumulated water from the pump casing prior to its
being started
C. assist the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to
opening for major or minor repairs
D. prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil
accumulated in the casing as a result of minor internal leakage
Ans: D
3628 During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve, used in a
hydraulic system, the set point was reduced by 7bar. Which of the
following statements describes the result of the set point being
lowered?
A. The pump discharge pressure will remain at the same pressure
prior to the relief valve being repaired.
B. The solenoid controlled, three-position, spring centered control
valve response will be quicker.
C. The fluid viscosity will increase during operation.
D. The movement of any system actuator will now be slower.
Ans: D
3630 Which of the following statements describes the actions of an axial
piston motor with a full deflection variable position tilting box?
A. Control over speed, direction, and stopping would be better than
having the pump equipped with the tilting box.
B. Maximum speed when rotated in the "hauling in" direction would be
obtained with the tilting box just prior to neutral stroke, while "pay
out" would be the opposite.
C. Maximum torque, when rotated in the "pay out" direction would be
obtained with the tilting box just prior to neutral stroke, while
"hauling in" would be the opposite.
D. Maximum speed in either direction of rotation would be achieved
just beyond of neutral stroke, making reversal of direction difficult.
Ans: D
3632 A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch-cover
system and has developed a slight leak. To stop the leak you
should ____________.
A. keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut
B. replace both the tubing sections and the fitting
C. stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut
D. shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid
damaging the tubing when tightening
Ans: D
3634 A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system,
can be potentially dangerous if ___________________.
A. the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure
3623 A fluid power system is considered to be fail-safe if a component
failure will result in ____________.
A. continuous operation of the system
B. a safety interlock producing a regulated shutdown of the system
C. the guaranteed safe and efficient operation of the system at all
times
D. a slow and controlled release of the loading so as not to endanger
personnel
Ans: D
3625 When it is necessary to start an axial piston hydraulic motor under
conditions where the hydraulic fluid is colder than the lowest
temperature recommended for proper operation, you should
operate the system at _____________.
A. minimum speed until the normal operating pressure is reached
B. neutral stroke until all of the air has been vented
C. no load until the normal operating temperature is reached
D. maximum torque to attain rapid warm-up
Ans: C
3627 A fluid power system shall be so designed _________.
A. that proper functioning of any unit shall not be affected by the back
pressure in the system
B. to maintain a back pressure throughout the power cylinders
operating range
C. such that the operation of any unit in the system will provide for
sufficient back pressure
D. none of the above are correct
Ans: A
3629 Which of the following statements represents a
disadvantageassociated with a spool-type, solenoid direct
operating, directional control valves?
A. Back pressure on the outlet line must be steady to drain the lower
spool chamber.
B. The valve sealing surface is often damaged through excessive
throttling action.
C. The spool does not have hydrocushion capabilities to handle shock.
D. Close fitting spools occasionally stick due to the accumulation of
hydraulic oil residues.
Ans: D
3631 Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will
cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a
result of ________________.
A. the trapped air being compressed to a pressure above the
maximum pump discharge pressure, then re-expanding and
lowering in pressure after the actuator moves
B. the trapped air being compressed to operating system pressure,
then dropping in pressure as the actuator moves, allowing the air to
re-expand, then repeating the process
C. air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid
D. air providing better lubrication of internal components, found in
Hydraulic Systems, than hydraulic fluids
Ans: B
3633 If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped
with an air cooled heat exchanger, the fan should _____________.
A. be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover
is in operation
B. come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured
C. be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at
less than 87.8°C (190°F)
D. never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds
32.2°C(90°F)
Ans: A
3635 According to Regulations , nonmetallic flexible hoses used as
supply and return lines to hydraulic system components, must have
_________________.
A. the working pressure of the system stamped on one of the end
fittings
 Page 199

B. the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil B. the working pressure of the system stamped on both of the end
fittings
C. the bladder contacts the top of the poppet C. an inner tube constructed of seamless reinforced polyester braid

D. it is precharged with dry nitrogen D. a designed bursting pressure of at least four times the maximum
working pressure of the system
Ans: A Ans: D
3636 The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, 3637 When comparing a bent-axis, axial piston, variable stroke hydraulic
and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the pump, to a variable angle tilting box, axial piston pump where the
hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate number, diameters, and rotating speed of the pistons are the same,
_____________. the significant difference is the ___________.

A. the fluid level in the reservoir is too high A. maximum capacity

B. air trapped in the system B. maximum pressure
C. clogged suction line fluid filters C. minimum pressure
D. abrasive matter circulating in the oil D. minimum capacity
Ans: B Ans: A
3638 When fire safe or fire resistant fluid is to be used in a hydraulic 3639 Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by
system, it is important that _____________. _____________.
A. the resultant pressure, due to the increase in fluid viscosity, is not A. continuous, unnecessary, and excessive pump discharge pressure
excessive
B. the fluid does not dissipate too much heat B. an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers
C. the fluid be compatible with all seal materials used C. insufficient external pump slippage
D. separate lube oil supply be furnished for the hydraulic pump D. fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load
variations
Ans: C Ans: A
3640 In a fixed displacement axial piston hydraulic motor, the speed is 3641 After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what special
varied by _____________. attention should be given to the hydraulic system?
A. regulating the ratio between torque and speed via the torque limiter A. The relief valves in the system should be readjusted.
at the motor
B. directing the motor output flow through a bypass line B. The filters and strainers should be checked frequently.
C. maintaining a constant flow and pressure input C. All system pressure should be readjusted.
D. controlling the input flow rate D. The system should be drained and renewed with a fluid of different
operating characteristics.
Ans: D Ans: B
3642 A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator 3643 In a typical hydraulic system, return lines to thereservoir are
speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above terminated below the normal oil level toprevent _______. I. foaming
maximum pressure, is known as a ________. of the oil II. condensation of warm oil vapors upon return

A. metered-in circuit A. I only

B. metered-out circuit B. II only
C. bleed-in circuit C. Both I and II
D. bleed-off circuit D. Neither I and II
Ans: B Ans: A
3644 According to Regulations an accumulator is a/an ____________. 3645 Archimedes' principle states that the resultant pressure acting on a
body immersed in a fluid _________.
A. device in which bilge water may be stored prior to being pumped A. acts vertically upward through the center of gravity of the displaced
ashore fluid and is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced

B. unfired pressure vessel in which energy is stored under high
pressure in the form of a gas or a gas and a hydraulic fluid.
C. industry accepted term for the equipment which is used to collect
oily bilge liquids
B. will cause the body to have a reduction in mass equal in magnitude
to the effective mass of the structure located above the line of
floatation
C. is proportional in magnitude and direction, regardless of the
direction originally developed when the object was submerged

D. test procedure in which the relieving capacity of the safety valves D. is applied equal and in all directions throughout the vessel in which
are verified it is contained
Ans: B Ans: A
3646 Air trapped in one end of a hydraulic actutator may be indicated by 3647 The major source of chemical contaminants in hydraulic fluid is
____________. _________________.
A. erratic or jerky motion of the actuator A. microscopic steel shavings
B. a pump discharge pressure that is consistent, but higher than B. abrasive waste
normal
C. consistently faster response or movement of the actuator C. anti-oxidant compounds
D. over speeding of the pump D. oxidation by-products
Ans: A Ans: D
3648 While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that 3649 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific
hydraulic pressure does not develop in spite of the proper operation portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. A red
of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should painted detachable line would be found between the __________.
you take FIRST to restore pressure?
A. Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level. A. number 1 and 2 shots of chain

B. Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation. B. number 2 and 3 shots of chain

C. Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact. C. number 3 and 4 shots of chain
D. Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor. D. all of the above
 Page 200

Ans: A Ans: A
LUBRICATION AND ANTI-FRICTION BEARINGS
3650 The term "pour point" is defined as the lowest temperature at which 3651 Which of the following statements is used to describe the term
lubricating oils will flow ____________. "base" in reference to greases?
A. rapidly A. Texture of the grease under load.
B. by gravity B. Temperature at which the grease softens or melts.
C. through a standard orifice at a specified temperature C. Type of soap used in its production.
D. at a rate of 60cc per second D. Temperature below which the grease will be ineffective as a
lubricant.
Ans: B Ans: C
3652 A grease lubricated ball bearing or roller bearing will run cooler if the 3653 In a compression type grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the
grease _____________. bearing by ____________.
A. fills only 10% of all void spaces within the bearing A. gravity flow
B. has a high grease penetration number (is hard) B. spring force
C. is thinned with a suitable lubricating oil C. a pressure gun
D. is heated prior to packing the bearing D. a zerk fitting
Ans: B Ans: B
3654 Which of the processes listed consumes the greatest amount of 3655 The packing installed in the pump stuffing box is lubricated by
power while producing the greatest amount of heat? ____________.
A. Overcoming sliding friction A. gravity and feed oil cups
B. Overcoming rolling friction B. grease cups
C. Overcoming fluid friction C. hand during installation
D. Overcoming oil wedge friction D. leakage through the stuffing box
Ans: A Ans: D
3656 An organic solid lubricant, such as graphite, is suitable as an oil 3657 The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type
additive when used in _____________. that is running hot is to ____________.
A. machinery bearings subjected to high temperatures A. add grease through the zerk fitting
B. antifriction bearings on general service pumps B. allow the winch to run at slower speeds only
C. bearings subject to fluctuating loads C. replace the bearing with a new one
D. line shaft bearings D. apply a light oil to the bearing housing
Ans: A Ans: C
3658 Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel 3659 Although lube oils used in the main lubricating service systems
engine lubricating systems because they ____________. should have a relatively high flash point to avoid ignition, they can
create smoke and fire hazards when they __________.

A. utilize exotic and expensive filtering media making them too costly A. are exposed to a vacuum
for use.
B. are only effective at temperatures below 37.8°C B. come in contact with extremely hot surfaces
C. can adsorb no more than five times their weight in water C. are reduced in temperature to just above the pour point
D. remove additives from the lube oil D. become extremely agitated or aerated
Ans: D Ans: B
3660 The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil sump 3661 Design characteristics of lubricating oil sump tanks will include
should ________________. _____________.
A. have no plating joints of 90° A. installation of baffles to prevent excessive sloshing of oil
B. retain the lube oil as long as possible before it recirculates through B. sufficient capacity to contain all the lube oil in the system except for
the system the contents of the gravity tank
C. provide drain/return lines that are no greater than 600mm from the C. cooling coils made of welded seamless steel pipe
pump suction
D. be provided with only a perfectly horizontal bottom D. the bottom of the sump should be integral with the shell plating

Ans: B Ans: A
3662 The ability of lubricating oils to resist viscosity changes during 3663 Which of the additives listed is used to reduce the foaming
temperature changes is indicated by the ____________. tendency of lube oil?

A. American Petroleum Institute number A. Emulsifiers

B. viscosity index number B. Suppressants
C. Seconds Saybolt Furol number C. Depressants
D. Seconds Saybolt Universal number D. Extreme pressure
Ans: B Ans: B
3664 The flash point of most lube oils used in a main lubricating system 3665 Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating
should be approximately ____________. pump rod?
A. 27°C to 38°C A. Engine oil.
B. 60°C to 71°C B. Oil mixed with kerosene.
C. 121°C to 149°C C. Graphite and oil.
D. 177°C to 232°C D. Vegetable oil.
Ans: D Ans: C
3666 Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the 3667 Which of the additives listed will maintain the suspension of fine
element while leaving the system on the line? residue particles in lube oil?
A. Simplex A. Floc point
B. Duplex B. Suppressant
C. Canister C. Dispersant
D. Bypass D. All of the above.
Ans: B Ans: C
3668 The function of lubricating oil is to ____________. 3669 The function of lubricating oil is to ______________.
A. reduce friction between moving surfaces A. maintain even distribution of bearing wear
B. provide even distribution of bearing wear B. maintain a constant oil temperature
 Page 201

C. reduce the accumulation of harmful detergents C. maintain a pressurized fluid film between moving surfaces
D. maintain a constant oil temperature output at each bearing D. remove entrained water
Ans: A Ans: C
3670 The neutralization number of lube oil used in the machinery has 3671 With regards to the viscosity of lube oil in an operating system
exceeded its permissible range, therefore, it will be necessary to under normal load, the highest viscosity should occur
________________. _____________.
A. centrifuge the oil A. just prior to entering the lube oil cooler
B. add makeup oil B. at the lube oil cooler outlet
C. renew the entire oil supply C. at the main lube oil pump discharge
D. operate the machinery at reduced power D. at the narrowest point of the hydrodynamic wedge
Ans: C Ans: D
3672 A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a ____________. 3673 An example of an antifriction bearing is a _____________.
A. condensate pump ball bearing A. rubber cutlass strut bearing
B. main shaft bearing B. line shaft or spring bearing
C. main turbine bearing C. Kingsbury thrust bearing
D. diesel engine wrist pin bearing D. ball bearing
Ans: A Ans: D
3674 A graphite additive type grease is best suited for ________. I. low 3675 The lubrication of a precision high speed bearing depends upon a
temperature applications II. high temperature applications system that produces ________.

A. I only A. adequate quantity at sufficient pressure

B. II only B. high detergent oil with pressure additives
C. Both I and II C. constant viscosity lubrication
D. Neither I nor II D. a minimum of 15 psi to all parts of the system
Ans: B Ans: A
3676 Dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a greaselubricant 3677 The lubrication of a precision high speed bearing depends upon a
because the ______________. system that produces ________.
A. bearings will leak oil excessively A. high detergent oil with pressure additives
B. dirt will cause corrosion of bearing B. constant viscosity lubrication
C. grease will become inflammable C. a minimum of 15 psi to all parts of the system
D. dirt is very abrasive when mixed with grease D. adequate quanity at sufficient pressure
Ans: D Ans: D
3678 The tendency for lubricating oil to thin out at high temperatures and 3679 Which of the following conditions should be used to support the
thicken at low temperatures will be characterized by a need to change the lube oil when there has been an increase in the
________________. neutralization number?
A. low viscosity index A. A decrease in the viscosity of the oil
B. high viscosity index B. An increase in the viscosity of the oil
C. high neutralization number C. A change in the cloud point
D. low demulsibility quality D. A change in the floc point
Ans: A Ans: B
3680 Oil emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to 3681 Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically
________________. opposite to each other?
A. decrease sludge formation in lubricating oil A. Needle
B. cause water to separate from the oil B. Tapered roller
C. improve the lubricating oil viscosity C. Roller
D. displace lubricating oil required in areas of friction D. Ball
Ans: D Ans: D
3682 One characteristic of a lubricating oil adversely affecting the results 3683 In most pumps and pump motors, overpacking the ball bearings full
of centrifuging is ____________. of grease will result in ____________.
A. high TBN value A. moisture emulsification of the bearing grease
B. low oil floc point B. insufficient circulation and overheating of the bearing
C. low oil demulsibility C. proper grease circulation to cool the bearing
D. low oil neutralization number D. sliding friction between balls and races
Ans: C Ans: B
3684 Main propulsion engine lube oil sumps should be constructed 3685 The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is
____________. that absorbent filters ____________.
A. so as to never be integral with the main engine foundation A. will remove additives from the lube oil
B. with a sloped bottom B. soak up liquid contaminants directly into the filter media
C. only of nonferrous, noncorrosive metals C. do not create pressure drops in the lube oil system
D. with drain/return lines terminating just above or at the designed D. attract or have liquid contaminants stick to the surface of the filter
normal level media
Ans: B Ans: B
3686 Antifriction bearings should not be excessively lubricated because 3687 If a ball bearing for a centrifugal pump is completely packed with
____________. grease, _____________.
A. the bearings will require immediate flushing A. the bearing may heat up
B. dirt will accumulate inside the bearings B. grease may flow out of the seals
C. excess lubrication will result in slippage C. early failure may result
D. the bearing will overheat D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
3688 Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by 3689 An additive used to improve the ability of a lube oil to reduce friction
using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a________. is known as a/an ____________.

A. ring gage A. suppressant additive

B. split die B. dispersant additive
C. split washer or backup ring C. extreme pressure additive
D. jack screw D. viscosity improver additive
 Page 202

Ans: C Ans: C
3690 The graphite in a bearing lubricant compound of graphite grease, 3691 When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller
acts as a ___________. should be applied to the bearing _____________.
A. low temperature sealer A. outer race
B. moisture barrier B. raceway
C. filler to smooth surface irregularities C. inner race
D. coolant to carry away heat D. retainer plate
Ans: C Ans: C
3692 Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as _________________. 3693 Demulsibility of lube oil is defined as _____________.
A. the ability of oil to separate from water A. the temperature at which oil flows rapidly
B. the temperature at which oil flows rapidly B. a measure of the water in a lube oil system
C. a measure of the water in a lube oil system C. an emulsion of grades of oil
D. an emulsion of different grades of oil D. the ability of oil to separate from an oil and water emulsion
Ans: A Ans: D
3694 A lubricating oil with a high viscosity index number is most 3695 Which of the additives listed is used to lower the pour point of a
effectively used ____________. lubricating oil?
A. in only very high temperature installations A. Emulsifiers
B. as an additive to depress pour point B. Suppressants
C. as an additive to slow oxidation C. Depressants
D. where a wide range of temperature variations exist D. Extreme pressure
Ans: D Ans: C
3696 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the 3697 Additives commonly found in turbine lubricating oil include
viscosity of lubricating oil? _____________.
A. Viscosity will increase as temperature increases. A. antifoaming agents
B. Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's internal resistance to flow. B. oxidation inhibitors
C. Viscosity will decrease as temperature decreases. C. extreme pressure additives
D. Viscosity is not dependent on temperature. D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
3698 The amount of fluid friction or internal friction inherent in a mineral 3699 A lube oil filter can be used to remove most contaminants from lube
lubricating oil is reflected as a measure of its ______________. oil. A contaminant which will remain in the lube oil after filtering is
____________.
A. specific gravity A. acid
B. viscosity B. fuel oil
C. S.E. number C. sediment
D. hydrolytic stability D. water
Ans: B Ans: B
3700 Which indicator is used to determine the hardness of a grease? 3701 A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by
_____________.
A. Pour point A. water in the bearing
B. Drop point B. abrasives in the lubricant
C. Penetration number C. dirt in the bearing
D. Stability-consistency number D. vibration while the bearing is not in operation
Ans: C Ans: D
3702 If a ball bearing installed on a pump is completely packed full of 3703 Ball bearings may become overheated if they are ___________.
grease, this can result in ____________.
A. bearing failure A. packed with too much grease
B. smoother pump operation B. mounted on a misaligned shaft
C. reduced corrosion in the bearing C. not lubricated
D. increased pump capacity D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
3704 Overgreasing of ball bearings installed on pumps will result in 3705 Dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a greaselubricant
___________. because the ______________.
A. smoother pump operation A. dirt will cause corrosion of bearing
B. overheating of the bearing B. bearings will leak oil excessively
C. reduced corrosion in the bearing C. dirt is very abrasive when mixed with grease
D. increased pump capacity D. grease will become inflammable
Ans: B Ans: C
3706 The viscosity of an oil is a measure of its _______________. 3707 An oil fog lubrication system is recommended for __________.

A. weight A. gear shaft bearings

B. internal friction B. high speed continuous operation of roller bearings
C. demulsibility C. low and moderate speed ball bearings
D. S.A.E. number D. heavily loaded and high-speed ball bearings
Ans: B Ans: B
3708 The pour point of lubricating oils is affected the most by which of the 3709 Which of the listed characteristics of lube oil are the most important
following? to the engineer from an operational standpoint?
A. Extensive centrifuging A. Ash content, carbon residue, and gravity
B. Wax content B. Viscosity, acidity, and demulsibility
C. Water content C. Pour point, flash point, and precipitation number
D. Acid content D. Autoignition point, viscosity index, and film strength
Ans: B Ans: B
3710 Design characteristics of lubricating oil sump tanks include 3711 Which of the following base oils cannot be refined without
_____________. developing a change in chemical composition?
A. installation of baffles to prevent excessive sloshing of oil A. animal
B. sufficient capacity to contain all the lube oil in the system except for B. vegetable
the contents of the gravity tank
 Page 203

C. cooling coils made of welded seamless steel pipe C. mineral

D. insuring the bottom of the sump is integral with the shell plating D. both A and B

Ans: A Ans: D
3712 The main lube oil sump of a main propulsion engine should be 3713 The ability of an oil to separate cleanly from an oil and water mixture
constructed of ___________. is referred to as its ____________.
A. coated steel plating to reduce corrosion A. precipitation number
B. nonferrous metal plating to prevent corrosion B. neutralization number
C. clean steel plating C. pour point
D. pinchback plating D. demulsibility
Ans: C Ans: D
3714 When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should 3715 Oils are usually graded by their service classification and
_______________. _____________.
A. tap the outer race with a mallet A. fire point
B. apply even pressure to the outer race B. flash point
C. apply even force to the inner race C. neutralization number
D. apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races D. viscosity
Ans: C Ans: D
3716 Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings 3717 A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space
installed on pumps is true? cavity?
A. The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft. A. Less than 1/4
B. The outer race should be free to turn its housing. B. 1/3 to 1/2
C. Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation. C. 1/2 to 3/4
D. They are usually pressed on to their shafts. D. More than 3/4
Ans: D Ans: B
3718 The degree to which the viscosity of an oil will change with a 3719 A good quality oil used in main propulsion engine lubrication
change in temperature is indicated by the _______________. systems should be _____________.
A. weight designation A. free from all chemical additives
B. viscosity index B. quickly chemically oxidized
C. pour point C. resistant to permanent emulsification
D. thermal change value D. readily saponified with water
Ans: B Ans: C
3720 The pressure produced within the oil wedge of a rotating journal is 3721 Which of the filters listed will deplete the additives in lubricating oil?
____________.
A. the same as the pressure in the lubricating system A. Extended area membrane filter
B. less than the pressure in the lubricating system B. Cloth bag extractor
C. greater than the pressure in the lubricating system C. Absorbent filter
D. highest at the oil groove location D. Adsorbent filter
Ans: C Ans: D
3722 Which of the listed types of soap grease offers the maximum 3723 During operating temperature changes, the ability of a lubricating
chemical stability and resistance to separation at temperatures oil to resist viscosity changes is indicated by a/an ____________.
between 120°C and 150°C?
A. Lime soap grease A. API number
B. Calcium soap grease B. viscosity index number
C. Sodium soap grease C. seconds Saybolt Furol number
D. Lithium soap grease D. seconds Saybolt Universal number
Ans: D Ans: B
3724 Pipe friction during oil transfer will be the greatest during the 3725 A graphite additive type grease would be effectively usedfor
transfer of a lubricating oil at 55°C with a viscosity index of lubricating ________. I. a topping lift winch bearing II. a fuel oil
________. service pump bearing
A. 65 A. I only
B. 80 B. II only
C. 90 C. Both I and II
D. 100 D. Neither I nor II
Ans: D Ans: D
3726 In a disk-type lubricating oil purifier, __________________. 3727 The neutralization number obtained from a test sample of
lubricating oil will tell you precisely _____________.
A. the purifier driving gears are lubricated by the reclaimed oil as it A. the amount of mineral and metallic solids that will not burn
leaves the bowl
B. all dirt and sludge are automatically discharged with the cooling B. the number of milligrams of potassium hydroxide used to neutralize
water a measured sample
C. sealing water must never be supplied until after oil is fed to the unit C. what type of acid contaminants are present in a measured sample

D. deterioration of the bowl ring gasket will cause the purifier to lose D. how much sulfuric acid the oil has absorbed during operations
its water seal
Ans: D Ans: B
3728 The dimension of the thinnest hydrodynamic film developed within a 3729 To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating
full journal bearing, when all other factors remain constant, depends temperature, the recommended amount of grease in a ball or roller
upon the ___________. bearing is approximately _________________.
A. pour point of the lubricant A. 10-15% of the void space in the bearing
B. fluidity of the lubricant B. 35-40% of the void space in the bearing
C. dielectric strength of the lubricant C. 65-70% of the void space in the bearing
D. interfacial tension of the lubricant D. 90-95% of the void space in the bearing
Ans: B Ans: B
3730 Which of the following statements is true concerning the 3731 Frequent bearing replacement in a centrifugal pump, due to rapid
hydrodynamic wedge developed by lubricating oil? bearing wear, can be a result of ____________.
 Page 204

A. The wedge-shaped oil film's load carrying capacity is determined A. leakage through the pump stuffing box gland
by its length and thickness.
B. The load carrying capacity is inversely proportional to the velocity of B. high net positive suction head
the fluid.
C. Pressures throughout the oil wedge are uniform. C. long periods of cavitation
D. The load carrying capacity is directly proportional to the thickness of D. misalignment
the oil film.
Ans: A Ans: D
3732 Greases are generally produced by ____________. 3733 A ball bearing will overheat if ____________.
A. reducing the temperature of an oil below its cloud point to create the A. completely packed full of grease
gelatinous texture
B. saponifying a metal base, to which oil is then added and mixed B. filled with grease to 95% of the total open spaces within the bearing
under controlled temperature
C. reducing tallow 50°F below its pour point then mixing a base metal, C. in use for a long time
such as barium, into solution
D. saponifying an aluminum base, to which tallow and oil are mixed D. operated at designed high speed
into solution under a controlled temperature
Ans: B Ans: A
3734 With oil bath lubrication of ball bearings in a cargo pump, the oil 3735 Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause
level should ______________. _____________.
A. never be higher than the center of the lowest ball in the bearing A. excessive channeling of the grease
housing
B. cover the bottom of the pump shaft B. high temperatures to develop as result of churning
C. cover the top ball in the bearing housing C. emulsification of the thickener additive
D. be kept at the top of the oil reservoir D. gelling of the base oil
Ans: A Ans: B
3736 The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered 3737 Which of the following surfaces will not develop a hydrodynamic
roller bearings. When mounted, these bearings are given a "cold" film where motion is accompanied by any appreciable loading?
end clearance to _____________.
A. allow for crank web deflection A. Curved surfaces
B. allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms B. Flat nonparallel surfaces
up
C. prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft C. Flat inflexible parallel surfaces
D. reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft D. All of the above surfaces will sustain a hydrodynamic film while in
motion under a load
Ans: B Ans: C
3738 A good quality lubricating oil used in any machinery, should be 3739 Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half
___________. bearing?
A. acid free A. Piston pin bushing
B. capable of emulsifying B. Thrust bearing
C. a rapid oxidizer C. Spring bearing
D. additive free D. All of the above.
Ans: A Ans: C
3740 If a continuous and steady flow of lube oil is provided, which of the 3741 If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from the main
listed pressures represents the lowest supply pressure at which a propulsion machinery indicates an increased neutralization number
small high-speed bearing can be safely lubricated? the _______.

A. 0.1kg/cm2 A. acidity has increased

B. 0.3kg/cm2 B. viscosity has decreased
C. 0.6kg/cm2 C. demulsibility has improved
D. 1.kg/cm2 D. foaming is guaranteed to occur
Ans: A Ans: A
3742 Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball 3743 Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller
bearings? bearing from a shaft?
A. They are installed with tighter clearances. A. An arbor press
B. They are subject to less pitting and metal fatigue. B. A steel drift pin and hammer
C. They have a greater tolerance for high speed applications. C. An acetylene torch and hammer
D. They have a greater contact area. D. A tapered "come-a-long"
Ans: D Ans: A
3744 The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the 3745 A filler commonly mixed with grease, such as graphite, acts
___________. ______________.
A. rolling member size A. as a mild abrasive
B. inner race cone width B. to smooth surface irregularities
C. manufacturer's numerical code C. to lower the friction coefficient
D. outer ring width D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
3746 Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability 3747 A grease drop point is ______________.
of a fine mesh metal lube oil strainer?
A. A 200 mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a A. how far a standard metal cone will penetrate into the sample in five
100 mesh wire cloth. seconds when dropped
B. A 200 mesh screen has finer wires than a 100 mesh wire cloth. B. how uniform and thick the spread of an ounce of grease is when
dropped from a height of five feet
C. A 100 mesh wire cloth will prevent passage of smaller particles C. the temperature that a sample of grease begins to liquefy
than 200 mesh screen.
 Page 205

D. A 200 mesh screen and a 100 mesh wire cloth prevent passage of
the same size particles, but each allows a different number of
particles to pass through.
Ans: A
3748 After adding grease to a ball bearing with a handheld grease gun,
you should _____________.
A. run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a
short while
B. close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to
compensate for air pockets in the bearing
C. remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to
escape
D. save the used grease for chemical analysis
Ans: A
3750 A journal rotating in its bearing relies on hydrodynamic principles for
lubrication. Under steady load conditions, the journal rotating in the
bearing will assume a position _____________.
D. the length of time a 50 gram sphere will be held in place from the
underside of a surface coated with 25 millimeters of the grease
sample
Ans: C
3749 When refering to greases, penetration number is____________.
A. how many seconds was required for a cone to penetrate the
sample
B. the temperature at which a cone would begin to penetrate the
sample
C. the temperature at which the grease would become sufficiently
fluid to fill the voids of a standard ball bearing
D. the depth to which a cone would penetrate a sample of grease in 5
seconds
Ans: D
3751 Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease
should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is
being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has
been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that ______

A. at bearing bottom center A. a path of expansion is provided for the grease

B. concentric in the bearing B. all air pockets are vented from the grease
C. at bearing top center C. dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing
D. eccentric in the bearing D. the grease is properly distributed within the bearing
Ans: D Ans: A
3752 Solid contaminants are prevented from entering the main lube oil 3753 As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction,
system by way of the main engine sump, through the use of due to churning, generates heat and should be avoided by
______________. ________________.
A. fine mesh screening placed around the pump suction line in the A. adding more lubricant until the ball bearings are completely covered
sump with a layer of oil
B. baffles installed without limber or lightening holes to trap the B. reducing the quantity of lubricant until only a mist of oil is present on
particles the ball bearings
C. a suction inlet located approximately 10 inches (254 mm) above the C. maintaining a continuous fluid film of oil on the bearings
sump bottom
D. a 10 inch (254 mm) dome installed just below the suction inlet and D. installing oil rings on the ball bearings
provided with a pipe-opening within one inch of the dome

Ans: C
3754 Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction
bearings installed on pumps?
A. The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.
B. The outer race should be free to turn in its housing.
C. Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
Ans: B
3755 A drop test is carried out on a sample of grease by _______.
A. allowing a suspended cone to drop into a sample of grease for five
seconds and determining the depth of penetration
B. dropping a one ounce grease sample from one meter, and
observing the resulting spread pattern, uniformity of thickness, and
consistency of texture
C. allowing a sample of grease to drop into a cup at ambient
temperature and determining the time necessary for this to occur

D. They are usually pressed onto their shafts. D. determining the temperature at which a grease sample liquefies
when heated and drops from a cup through a bottom orifice

Ans: D Ans: D
3756 Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of 3757 Which of the following statements is correct regarding an oil with a
precision manufactured roller bearings? high viscosity index?
A. They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of A. A large change of viscosity occurs with a minor change in
time. temperature.
B. They have a relatively high power loss due to friction. B. No change in viscosity occurs with any change in temperature.

C. They are well adapted to variable speed operation. C. Very little change in viscosity occurs with a significant change in
temperature.
D. Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention. D. The viscosity of the oil increases with an increase in temperature.

Ans: C Ans: C
3758 Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered 3759 Which of the following problems will occur if a disk-type centrifugal
acceptable for use with today's high detergent additive type oils? lube oil purifier is not properly primed prior to admitting oil flow to the
bowl?
A. Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical A. Contamination of the lube oil by emulsification will result.
cartridges.
B. Cylindrical elements containing fullers earth combined with B. The lube oil will not be subjected to the proper centrifugal force.
cellulose.
C. Foamed polyurethane of the impingement type supported on C. The lube oil will overheat and flash.
perforated metal rings.
D. Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges. D. Oil will discharge from the heavy phase discharge port and be
wasted.
Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 206

3760 In a refrigeration system, the amount of refrigerant admitted to the 3761 In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (seawater) first absorbs
evaporator is directly related to _________. heat in the ___________.
A. the compressor discharge pressure A. vapor feed heater
B. condenser cooling water temperature B. air ejector condenser
C. the solenoid valve differential pressure C. saltwater heater
D. the superheat of the refrigerant in the tail coil D. distillate cooler
Ans: D Ans: D
3762 The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of
conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain, is known
as ____________.
A. set point
B. control point
C. deviation
D. offset Ans: B
SAFETY, ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, SHIP CONSTRUCTION AND NAVAL ARCHITECTURE
3763 A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as 3764 In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon
being "Safe for Men" and "Safe for fire." This condition may change dioxide, galley range, fixed extinguishing systems areautomatically
if___________. activated through the action of a stainless steel cable, spring and a
____________.
A. the ambient temperature changes A. fusible link
B. a product leaks into the certified tank B. stack switch
C. muck, sludge, or scale in the tank give off additional vapors C. thermostat
D. all of the above D. pyrostat
Ans: D Ans: A
3765 Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be suitable for 3766 The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called
use on an oil fire, but dangerous on an electrical fire? _______________.

A. CO2 A. yaw
B. Water fog B. sway
C. Halon C. heave
D. Dry chemical D. surge
Ans: B Ans: D
3767 Which of the following conditions will allow for a work vest to be 3768 What safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is
substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving posted or available in booklet form on your ship?
gear?
A. When it is approved by the Master A. Location of fire doors
B. When working near or over the water B. Location of the remote means of stopping fans
C. When stowed away from the ring buoys C. Particulars of the fire detecting system
D. A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: D
3769 When involved in fighting a fire aboard a ship with an aluminum 3770 The fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator
superstructure, it is important to remember that aluminum of a diesel electric drive vessel is usually a _____________.
structures exposed to the high heat _____________.

A. generate poisonous fumes A. fixed foam extinguisher

B. are more susceptible to collapse than steel structures B. fixed CO2 system
C. are susceptible to spontaneous ignition C. steam smothering system
D. all of the above D. carbon tetrachloride extinguishing system
Ans:
B Ans:
B
3771 When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing 3772 The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank
cycle should be repeated about ____________. vessels is _____________.
A. 12 to 15 times per minute A. carbon dioxide
B. 18 to 20 times per minute B. flue gas
C. 20 to 25 times per minute C. water
D. as fast as possible D. steam smothering
Ans: A Ans: C
3773 A disadvantage of using CO2 for firefighting is that 3774 Approved buoyant work vests may be carried aboard tank vessels
______________. and shall be worn by crew members ____________.
A. the CO2 does not cool the fire A. when working near or over the water under unfavorable working
conditions
B. the cylinders are regulated pressure vessels B. under the supervision and control of designated ship's officers

C. they are not effective on class "B" fires C. as substitutes for the approved life preservers during routine drills,
weather permitting, when a vessel is moored pierside

D. they are not effective on class "C" fires D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: B
3775 According to Regulations , all merchant vessels are required to 3776 When required to work where there may be explosive gases, you
have muster lists and are to be posted __________. should use tools which are _____________.
A. on the navigating bridge A. approved by the Coast Guard
B. in the engine room B. high carbon steel
C. in the crew accomodation spaces C. fixed with a ferrous cover
D. all of the above D. nonsparking
Ans: D Ans: D
3777 The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as 3778 An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil found in the
____________. pump room bilges is to ______________.
 Page 207

A. surge A. transfer the oil to the sea chest

B. sway B. pump the oil into the slop tanks
C. heave C. discharge the oil over the side on an outgoing tide
D. pitch D. pump the oil into a clean ballast tank
Ans: C Ans: B
3779 When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, 3780 Personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should
the sternum should be depressed about _____________. NOT follow which of the listed practices?

A. 1/2 inch or less A. Signaling that all personnel are clear before lifting or lowering
material.
B. 1/2 to 1 inch B. Examining material for sharp edges or protruding points before
handling.
C. 1 to 1 1/2 inches C. Closing, tagging, or securing valves that permit entrance of steam,
water, or air into a fitting or other equipment.
D. 1 1/2 to 2 inches D. Throwing materials from high places to the deck.
Ans: D Ans: D
3781 Halon extinguishers used on a class "C" fire should be directed at 3782 When taking tank soundings , coating the tape with chalk helps to
the ______________. ______________.
A. base of the equipment A. better identify the correct reading
B. top of the equipment B. show the depth of any water in an oil tank
C. power source C. make the tape roll easier
D. source of the fire D. reduce possibility of sparks
Ans: D Ans: A
3783 When completing the ballasting operation of a contaminated tank, 3784 To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must
which of the following problems must be guarded against? _____________.

A. Back flow of contaminated water A. pull the release lanyard

B. Loss of pump suction B. pull the hydraulic release
C. Excessive tank pressure due to closed vents C. push the release button
D. Motor overload due to high discharge head D. pull on the ratchet handle
Ans: A Ans: A
3785 Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about which axis? 3786 A segregated ballast system is a system where _____________.

A. Longitudinal A. all ballast is processed through the oily water separator

B. Transverse B. ballast is taken on and discharged through a separate main deck
riser
C. Vertical C. ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdams
D. Centerline D. all ballast lines, tanks, and pumps are independent of those used
for oil
Ans: B Ans: D
3787 What information must be entered on the muster list? 3788 The most essential element in the administration of CPR is
________________.
A. Names of all crew members. A. to have the proper equipment for the process
B. Use and application of special equipment. B. the speed of treatment
C. Listing of approved emergency equipment. C. the administration of oxygen
D. Duties and station of each person during emergencies. D. the treatment for traumatic shock
Ans: D Ans: B
3789 You should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to 3790 In addition to weighing the cartridge, what other routine
____________. maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical
extinguisher?
A. keep the liferaft from capsizing A. Weigh the powder in the canister.
B. navigate against the current B. Discharge small amount to see that it works.
C. keep personnel from getting seasick C. Check the hose and nozzle for clogs.
D. stay in the general location D. Check the external pressure gage.
Ans: D Ans:
C
3791 Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as 3792 Safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness. Order may be
_____________. maintained by ___________.
A. pitch A. storing all items in an assigned place
B. surge B. storing all items in a common storage container except those ready-
for-sea
C. sway C. tagging all items according to their age and then storing them
together
D. roll D. disposing of worn-out items
Ans: D Ans: A
3793 When administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost 3794 When entering a compartment which is on fire, _____________.
importance to ____________.
A. use the mouth-to-mouth method A. you must wear rubber gloves
B. clear airways B. the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog

C. use rhythmic pressure method C. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door
D. know all approved methods D. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters

Ans: B Ans: B
3795 There are two disadvantages to CO2 when used as a total flooding 3796 The maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is
firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available and indicated by the _______________.
the other is ____________.
 Page 208

A. the lack of cooling effect on heated materials A. Load Line mark

B. it cannot be used in a dead ship situation without electrical power B. Certificate of Inspection
available to the CO2 pump
C. it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases C. Muster List
D. there is no effect on a class "A" fire even in an enclosed space D. Tonnage mark

Ans: A Ans: A
3797 After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 3798 A fire extinguishing product produced by first mixing a foam
hours _______________. concentrate with water to produce a foam solution, then mixing the
foam solution with air is termed ____________.
A. will pass through the body with very little being absorbed by the A. light water
system
B. will help to prevent fatigue B. Halon 1301
C. will quench thirst for only two hours C. chemical foam
D. helps to prevent seasickness D. mechanical foam
Ans: A Ans: D
3799 Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is known as 3800 If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the
______________. coupling bolts, you should _____________.
A. yaw A. notify the Coast Guard of a potential oil spill
B. surge B. reduce pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate
C. sway C. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak
D. roll D. notify the terminal operator, then shutdown and repair the leak

Ans: A Ans: D
3801 Load line regulations are designed to insure that a vessel has 3802 The necessity for administering artificial respiration may be
adequate structural strength and sufficient ______________. recognized by the victim's ______________.
A. lifesaving equipment A. vomiting
B. stability B. blue color and lack of breathing
C. mooring tension C. irregular breathing
D. riser tension D. unconscious condition
Ans: B Ans: B
3803 The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is used in 3804 A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent
conjunction with a fire hose to produce which of the listed fire _______________.
extinguishing agents?
A. Chemical foam A. overpressurization of the space being flooded
B. Low velocity fog B. rupture of cylinder due to temperature increase
C. Mechanical foam C. overpressurization of the CO2 discharge piping
D. High velocity fog D. flooding of a space where personnel are present
Ans: C Ans: C
3805 An oceangoing ship of 350 gross tons, contracted for in January 3806 Drinking salt water will _____________.
1976, and not equipped with an oily water separator, all bilge slops
may be retained ________.
A. onboard in the ship's bilges A. be safe if mixed with fresh water
B. in the forward peak tank B. prevent seasickness
C. in the oil purifier reservoir C. promote urine excretion
D. in a cofferdam D. protect against heat cramps
Ans: A Ans: C
3807 "GM" cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of 3808 The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution occurring during
inclination because ______________. tanker operations is ______________.
A. "M" is not fixed at large angles A. due to collisions
B. there is no "M" at large angles B. routine discharge of oil during ballasting and tank crude oil washing

C. "G" is not fixed at large angles C. loading and discharging

D. there is no "G" at large angles D. due solely to groundings
Ans: A Ans: C
3809 Each fire pump on a cargo ship must have a pressure gage located 3810 If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate
______________. procedure to follow is ____________.
A. at the pump discharge A. ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation
B. at the manifold connection B. pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then
resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation
C. at each fire station discharge C. switch to mouth-to-mouth ventilation
D. at the pump station D. turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and
resume CPR
Ans: A Ans: D
3811 When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be 3812 Oil Pollution Regulations (MARPOL), require any transfer, or
aimed _____________. discharge of oil, or oily mixtures be recorded in the
_____________.
A. straight overhead A. Pollution Control Record
B. at the vessel whose attention you want to attract B. Bridge log
C. into the wind C. Oil Record book
D. at about 60 degrees above the horizon D. Masters log
Ans: D Ans: C
3813 Which of the listed firefighting agents and associated applications 3814 A vessel should normally behave as if all of its weight is acting
provide the largest shielding effect for the fire fighter? downward through the center of gravity and all of its support is
acting upward through the _____________.
A. Straight stream of water A. keel
 Page 209

B. Light water and foam mixture B. center of buoyancy

C. Low velocity water fog C. tipping center
D. Carbon dioxide interface D. amidships section
Ans: C Ans: B
3815 One of the uses for low velocity fog is to _____________. 3816 The value of the maximum righting arm is dependent upon the
position of the center of buoyancy and the ______________.
A. help produce mechanical foam A. longitudinal center of gravity
B. break apart class "A" combustibles B. transverse center of gravity
C. sweep burning liquids overboard C. downflooding angle
D. act as a heat shield to protect the fire fighter D. vertical location of the center of gravity
Ans: D Ans: D
3817 Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents? 3818 Repair of vital machinery and services related to an emergency on
a cargo ship should be accomplished (in sequence)
______________.
A. Unsafe actions A. after control of fire, flooding, and structural repairs
B. Orderliness B. immediately before emergency is under control
C. Frequent inspections C. after control of fire, but before control of flooding
D. Good work habit/practices D. after stability is restored
Ans:
A Ans: A
3819 Fire extinguishers designated by the Roman numerals I and II are 3820 Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible
______________. gases as a percentage of the ______________.
A. portable units A. flash point
B. semi-portable units B. upper explosive limit
C. fixed systems C. lower explosive limit
D. compact systems D. fire point
Ans: A Ans: C
3821 A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding only 3822 Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a _______.
_____________.
A. with puncture wounds A. cooling agent
B. when all other means have failed B. smothering agent
C. when the victim is unconscious C. barrier against radiant heat
D. to prevent bleeding from minor wounds D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
3823 Which of the firefighting foams listed would require the mechanical 3824 If a ship is supported on the crest of a wave amidships, the vessel
mixing of air and foam concentrate? is subjected to _______________.
A. Protein foam A. pitch poling
B. Synthetic and alcohol foams B. hogging stresses
C. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) C. sagging stresses
D. All of the above D. yawing stresses
Ans: D Ans: B
3825 To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing 3826 A fuel/air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too
process, due to the presence of water in the crude oil washing fluid, ______________.
the contents of any tank to be used as a source of crude oil for
washing must first reduce a portion of the tank conten

A. one-half meter A. rich to burn

B. one meter B. lean to burn
C. one and one-half meters C. cool to burn
D. two meters D. dense to burn
Ans:
B Ans: B
3827 Which of the listed conditions can be considered as the single 3828 A continual change in the list, or trim of any floating vessel indicates
greatest cause of accidents? ______________.
A. Speed A. negative "GM"
B. Excessive knowledge or skill B. progressive flooding
C. Human error C. structural failure
D. Excitement D. an immediate need to counterflood
Ans: C Ans: B
3829 The fire hydrant outlet may be positioned from the horizontal to any 3830 To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be
position pointing ______________. ______________.
A. 45° upward A. kept in nonmetal containers
B. vertically upward B. discarded as soon as possible
C. 90° upward C. cleaned thoroughly for reuse
D. vertically downward D. kept in the paint locker
Ans: D Ans: B
3831 Water fog is an effective fire extinguishing agent because it 3832 With regards to the metacentric height, which of the following
_____________. statements is true?
A. has a great cooling ability A. It is used to indicate the quality of initial stability.
B. will completely remove toxic fumes from the air B. It is located below the center of buoyancy.
C. will completely remove combustible vapors from the air C. It is measured vertically above the center of buoyancy.
D. does not leave a harmful residue on electrical machinery D. Its determination is the objective of the inclining experiment.
Ans: A Ans: A
3833 Regulations require inflatable liferafts to be equipped with 3834 In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be
_____________. controlled by ___________.
A. a first aid kit A. applying direct pressure
B. an instruction manual B. submerging the wound in lukewarm water
C. a sea anchor C. cooling the wound with ice
 Page 210

D. all of the above D. applying a tourniquet

Ans: D Ans: A
3835 Damage stability of a ship is the stability _____________. 3836 Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by
____________.
A. which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots A. allowing better access in an emergency
B. before collision B. eliminating potential fuel sources
C. after flooding C. eliminating trip hazards
D. at survival draft D. improving personnel qualifications
Ans: C Ans: B
3837 A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing 3838 Which of the listed initials is used to represent the indicator of initial
agent is its ability to ___________. stability?
A. alternate expansion and contraction as water in liquid state A. GM
becomes vapor
B. absorb smoke and gases as water is converted from liquid to vapor B. KG

C. rapidly contract as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor C. KM

D. vaporize and rapidly expand as water absorbs heat D. GZ

Ans: D Ans: A
3839 Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to 3840 Which of the following must be carried out in order to manually
_______________. launch an inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?

A. use all CO2 available to cool the surrounding area A. It will be easily launched by simply breaking the weak link.
B. standby with water or other agents B. Depress the hydrostatic release button.
C. thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2 C. It is easily launched by cutting the container securing straps.
D. jettison all burning materials D. It is only necessary to attach the weak link to the vessel.
Ans: B Ans: B
3841 Each fire hydrant is required to have at least one spanner wrench 3842 Forces within a mobile offshore drilling unit have caused a
and at least one _____________. difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is
__________.
A. hose rack or reel A. list
B. all-purpose nozzle B. heel
C. foam applicator C. trim
D. pick axe D. flotation
Ans: A Ans: A
3843 The size of the fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1 1/2 3844 First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds should be to
inches or _________. ___________.
A. 1 inch A. have the patient lie down and cover the wound when the bleeding
stops
B. 2 1/2 inches B. stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
C. 3 inches C. apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding
stops
D. 3 1/2 inches D. apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it

Ans: B Ans: B
3845 Which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of 3846 Heavy smoke is observed to be issuing from the partially open door
cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock? of the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting attack should be to
____________.
A. weak pulse at wrist or neck A. leave the door and vents open, but release the CO2 flooding
system
B. flushed face B. open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire
C. respiration is weak or has stopped C. enter and use a portable extinguisher
D. All of the above symptoms D. secure the door and vents, then manually release the CO2
Ans: C Ans: D
3847 #REF! 3848 If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability,
counterflooding into empty tanks may _______________.

A. #REF! A. increase the righting moment

B. #REF! B. cause an increase in the righting arm
C. #REF! C. bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position
D. #REF! D. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle
Ans: #REF! Ans:
D
3849 The important initial stability parameter "GM" is the 3850 On a cargo ship, a fire drill shall be conducted once every
______________. ____________.
A. metacentric height A. week
B. height of the metacenter above the keel B. month
C. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel C. crew change
D. height of the center of gravity above the keel D. other week
Ans: A Ans: A
3851 During a fire drill on a ship, which of the following actions is 3852 As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to _____________.
required to be carried out?
A. Each fire pump is to be started. A. hold a victim in a stretcher
B. The lifeboat is to be launched and operated. B. stop uncontrolled bleeding
C. An inventory of rescue and fire equipment is to be taken. C. hold a large bandage in place
D. An inspection and inventory of fire hoses is to be made. D. restrain a delirious victim
Ans: A Ans: B
 Page 211

3853 After using a CO2 fire extinguisher ,it should be ____________. 3854 You are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a
victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a
recommended procedure?
A. put back in service if some CO2 remains A. Placing the victim on his or her back and exposing the chest.
B. hydrostatically tested B. Giving cardiac massage without artificial respiration.
C. retagged C. Rocking so that a controlled amount of body weight goes through
your arms and hand to their breastbone.
D. recharged D. Placing one hand across victim's breastbone so that the heel of the
hand covers the lower part.
Ans: D Ans: B
3855 A slow and easy motion of a ship in a seaway is an indication of 3856 If a cargo ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown
__________. cause, you should first ____________.
A. small "GM" A. determine the cause before taking countermeasures
B. low center of gravity B. assume the shift is due to off center loading
C. a stiff vessel C. counterflood on the side opposite the list or trim
D. large "GZ" D. assume the cause is environmental forces
Ans: A Ans: A
3857 The abbreviation "GM" is used to represent the ___________. 3858 Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2
systems protecting the _____________.
A. height of the metacenter A. machinery spaces
B. righting arm B. cargo compartments
C. righting moment C. living quarters
D. metacentric height D. galley
Ans:
D Ans: A
3859 If a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb, you should 3860 You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking
____________. the _________________.
A. attempt to set the fracture A. Certificate of Inspection
B. prevent further movement of the bone B. muster list
C. apply a tourniquet without delay C. vessel's logbook
D. alternately apply hot and cold compresses D. vessel's documentation
Ans: B Ans: B
3861 Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of 3862 In the event of a fire, automatic activation of a fixed CO2
gravity and the ______________. extinguishing system can result in which of the following areas?

A. aft perpendicular A. Machinery space

B. center of buoyancy B. Paint locker
C. keel C. Cargo hold
D. center of flotation D. All of the above
Ans: B Ans: B
3863 Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a 3864 Where foam extinguishing systems are provided on a ship, each
vessel: The center of buoyancy and the ____________. machinery flat in the protected space must have a/an
________________.
A. metacenter A. coaming
B. geometric center of the water plane area B. alarm
C. center of gravity C. drain
D. center of flotation D. fire sensor
Ans: C Ans: A
3865 The muster list shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during 3866 You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower
abandonment, basic instructions, and _______________. arm. Which of the listed actions should you take?

A. all emergency signals A. Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and
splint.
B. instructions for lowering the survival capsule B. Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint and apply
a pressure dressing.
C. the time each weekly drill will be held C. Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding, and
splint.
D. work schedule D. Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then
apply a temporary splint and place the victim in bed.
Ans: A Ans: D
3867 In any major personal injury, first aid is to include the treatment of 3868 The use of which fire extinguishing agent involves covering the
the injury and what additional treatment? burning surface by deflecting the agent from a bulkhead to avoid
undue agitation?
A. Application of CPR A. Foam
B. Removal of any foreign objects B. Dry chemical
C. Administration of oxygen C. Carbon dioxide
D. Treatment for traumatic shock D. Halon 1301
Ans: D Ans: A
3869 Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock? 3870 A "class B" fire is extinguished using foam by ____________.

A. Keep the patient warm, but not hot. A. cooling the surface
B. Have the injured person lie down. B. replacing the fuel
C. Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation. C. smothering the fire
D. Relieve the pain of the injury. D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: C
 Page 212

3871 When entering the pumproom of a tank vessel to rescue an 3872 Which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock?
unconscious person, which items of the equipment listed are you
required to be using?
A. Protective clothing and explosion-proof flashlight A. Administer CPR
B. Flame safety lamp and resuscitation equipment B. Administer fluids
C. Combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask C. Open clothing to allow cooling of the body
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines D. Keep the victim in a sitting position
Ans: D Ans: B
3873 Flooding of any ship's compartment, resulting in a serious loss of 3874 A crew member has been overcome by toxic fumes in the
reserve buoyancy, will always _____________. pumproom. Which of the following actions should be taken before
entering the pumproom to rescue the victim?
A. increase the trim A. Put on an approved self-contained breathing apparatus.
B. change the free surface effect B. Have someone stand by the entrance.
C. decrease ship stability C. Wear a lifeline.
D. cause a serious list D. All of the above.
Ans: C Ans: D
3875 What is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to 3876 Which of the following is considered as the correct action for the
above the main deck? rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing
an unsafe atmosphere?
A. The stability is increased. A. Wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus.
B. The draft is increased. B. Attach a lifeline to the rescuer.
C. The stability is decreased. C. Have someone stand by outside the compartment.
D. The reserve buoyancy is decreased. D. All of the above.
Ans: C Ans: D
3877 If the result of loading a ship is an increase in the height of the 3878 If a vessel looses its reserve buoyancy, it will _____________.
center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the
__________.
A. metacentric height A. float upright with the main deck awash
B. righting arm B. capsize and float on its side
C. righting moment C. remain unaffected if the hull remains intact
D. vertical moments D. most likely sink
Ans: D Ans: D
3879 Since accumulations of hydrogen sulfide gas can be dangerous to 3880 The purpose of the inclining experiment on a ship is to determine
personnel, it is important to know that this gas is ____________. ____________.

A. lighter than air A. lightweight and lightweight center of gravity location

B. heavier than air B. the position of the center of buoyancy
C. a yellow gas that is easily recognized C. the position of the metacenter
D. mildly toxic D. the maximum load line
Ans:
B Ans:
A
3881 The fundamental treatment for preventing traumatic shock following 3882 Which of the following statements concerning Aqueous Film
an accident is to ___________. Forming Foam (AFFF) is correct?
A. have the victim exercise to increase circulation A. AFFF can be used effectively on live electrical equipment.
B. stay away from electrical equipment B. AFFF can be used to extinguish combustible metal fires.
C. keep the victim warm and dry while lying down C. AFFF may be used in a joint attack with dry chemical.
D. apply ice packs and avoid excitement D. AFFF is an effective chain breaking agent similar to Halon.
Ans: C Ans: C
3883 The reserve buoyancy of a ship consists of ____________. 3884 The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide
is ________________.
A. the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed A. heavy rain
and watertight
B. all cofferdams, double bottoms, and wing tanks that are slack B. gusty winds with rain

C. the part of the enclosed and watertight portion of a vessel above C. nearly calm, clear nights or early morning
the waterline
D. the percentage of the volume of a compartment which can be D. full sun with high winds
occupied by water if flooded
Ans: C Ans: C
3885 The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen 3886 The free surface effects of a partially filled liquid tank decrease with
sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed increased __________.
without adverse effects are called ______________.

A. exposure limits A. density of the liquid

B. concentration limits B. placement of the tank above the keel
C. threshold limit values C. displacement volume of the MODU
D. substance limit values D. size of the surface area in the tank
Ans: C Ans: C
3887 If there is no head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty 3888 Which of the listed firefighting agents produces a buoyant blanket to
breathing a patient in shock should be placed in which of the separate the burning vapors from air?
positions listed?
A. Head up and feet down A. CO2
B. Head down and feet up B. Low-expansion foam
C. Flat on back with head and feet at the same level C. Water fog
D. Arms above the head D. Steam
Ans: B Ans: B
 Page 213

3889 The recommended equipment for a pumproom rescue aboard a 3890 The major cause of shock in burn victims is _______________.
tank vessel is a lifeline, harness, and breathing apparatus. The
lifeline should be ______________.
A. new nylon line A. high level of pain
B. a minimum of two inch line B. emotional stress
C. longer than twice the depth of the pumproom C. increase in body temperature and pulse rate
D. led through a two sheave block D. massive loss of fluid through the burned area
Ans: C Ans: D
3891 If a fixed foam firefighting system on a MODU is not of the premix 3892 A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive
type, a sample of the foam liquid must be tested by damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of
_____________. what kind of burn?
A. a Coast Guard inspection officer A. Dermal burn
B. the safety man aboard the unit B. Third degree burn
C. the designated person-in-charge of the unit C. Second degree burn
D. the manufacturer, or his authorized representative D. Lethal burn
Ans: D Ans: B
3893 When a fire occurs in a ruptured oil cargo tank, caused by an 3894 The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is
explosion or collision, the best firefighting agent to use is called _______________.
__________.
A. water A. tonnage
B. CO2 B. reserve buoyancy
C. foam C. draft
D. carbon tetrachloride D. freeboard
Ans: C Ans: C
3895 What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of 3896 A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the
uncontaminated air? skin but no other apparent damage. This is an example of what
kind of burn?
A. 0.12 A. Minor burn
B. 0.15 B. Superficial burn
C. 0.18 C. Extremity burn
D. 0.21 D. First degree burn
Ans: D Ans: D
3897 Fuel oil tank vents must be fitted with corrosion resistant screens to 3898 Which of the following statements is true regarding the operational
prevent _____________. testing and inspecting of a cargo vessel's lifesaving equipment by
the ship's force?
A. escape of flammable vapors A. On all vessels, regardless of voyage duration, the entire steering
gear, whistle, and bridge-engine room communication systems
must be tested within 12 hours of departure.

B. entry of sea water B. All emergency lighting and power systems, regardless of source,
must be operated and tested at least once each week under load
for at least 2 hours.
C. flames entering the tank C. Where motor-propelled lifeboats are carried, regardless of length or
person capacity, each lifeboat motor must be operated ahead and
astern at least 3 minutes once a week.
D. damage to the ball check D. All of the above.
Ans: C Ans: C
3899 The Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors 3900 Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screens to
and air, is defined as ____________. prevent _____________.
A. the concentration above which just enough flammable vapor exists A. flames entering through the tank vent
to produce an explosion
B. the concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn B. escape of flammable vapors
C. the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in the air sufficient C. corrosion in the tank vent
to create an explosion
D. the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support D. damage to the ball check
combustion
Ans: B Ans: A
3901 A fire is considered "under control" when _____________. 3902 Which of the devices listed is designed to prevent flames from
entering through fuel tank vents?
A. all hands are at their fire stations A. Ball check
B. all firefighting equipment is at the scene B. Flame screen
C. the fixed systems are activated C. Spark arrester
D. the fire is contained and no longer spreading D. Flame inhibitor
Ans: D Ans: B
3903 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous to personnel 3904 The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a ship is used as a
safety in confined atmospheres, as it is absorbedby the blood 300 measure of __________.
times more quickly than oxygen?
A. Hydrogen A. stability at all angles of inclination
B. Carbon dioxide B. initial stability
C. Carbon monoxide C. stability at angles less than the limit of positive stability
D. Ammonia D. stability at angle less than the downflooding angle
Ans: C Ans: B
3905 Reserve buoyancy is the _____________. 3906 When making entries in the Oil Record Book, the date, operational
code, and item number shall be inserted in the appropriate
columns. Futhermore, the required particulars shall be
________________.
 Page 214

A. unoccupied space below the waterline A. recorded only for accidental oil discharges
B. volume of intact space above the waterline B. recorded only for operations involving discharge of oily waste

C. excess of the buoyant force over gravitational force C. signed by the oiler who enters them in the Oil Record Book
D. difference between buoyancy in salt and fresh waters D. recorded chronologically in the blank space
Ans: B Ans: D
3907 Surface burns should first be treated by ___________. 3908 The difference between the average of the forward and aft drafts is
_____________.
A. washing the area with a warm soap and water solution A. list
B. flooding, bathing, or immersing the area in cold water B. heel
C. covering the area with talcum power and bandaging tightly C. trim
D. leaving them exposed to the atmosphere D. flotation
Ans: B Ans: C
3909 Most fire and explosions occur in a fuel tank ____________. 3910 Spontaneous combustion is a result of ______________.
A. during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom A. an outside heat source heating a substance unit it ignites
B. during fueling when fuel strikes fuel already in the tank B. conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance

C. when underway as the fuel is moved by wave action C. chemical reactions within a substance
D. shortly after fueling when fuel vapors are released and D. All of the above.
accumulated
Ans: A Ans: C
3911 Flame screens must be maintained in good condition and fitted in 3912 To prevent the spread of fire by conduction, you should
the opening they protect in order to ____________. ____________.
A. prevent flammable vapors from entering the tank A. cool the bulkheads around the fire
B. allow the escape of flammable vapors B. remove combustibles from direct exposure
C. contain flammable vapors within the tank C. close all openings to the area
D. allow dissipation of heat from any flame D. shut off all electric power
Ans: D Ans: A
3913 According to the regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to 3914 The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by a
be marked _____________. transverse shift in weight is _______________.
A. on the muster list A. list
B. on a sign next to the liferaft B. heel
C. on the Certificate of Inspection C. trim
D. in the Operations Manual D. flotation
Ans: B Ans: A
3915 The light on a personal flotation device on a ship must be replaced 3916 In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to
______________. prevent the spread of fire by ____________.
A. when the power source is replaced A. ventilation
B. each year after installation B. radiation
C. every six months C. convection
D. when it is no longer serviceable D. conduction
Ans: D Ans: C
3917 Burning diesel oil should be treated as which class of fire? 3918 If your vessel has a starboard list after taking on fuel, you would
transfer fuel _____________.
A. Class "A" A. to starboard
B. Class "B" B. to port
C. Class "C" C. forward
D. Class "D" D. aft
Ans: B Ans: B
3919 A fire in the paint locker would probably be __________. 3920 It shall be insured that the fuel tank of each motor-propelled lifeboat
is emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once every
____________.
A. Class A A. three months
B. Class B B. six months
C. Class C C. twelve months
D. Class D D. twenty-four months
Ans: B Ans: C
3921 If a boiler has been laid up dry for an extended period, it will be 3922 When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area
unsafe to enter the steam and water drum immediately after it has for at least ____________.
been opened, as there may be _____________.
A. insufficient oxygen to support life A. five minutes
B. a heavy concentration of sewer gas B. ten minutes
C. excessive carbon dioxide in the drum C. fifteen minutes
D. toxic gases from organic decomposition D. twenty minutes
Ans: A Ans: A
3923 In addition to the lifejackets stowed in places that are readily 3924 Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level
accessible, lifejackets must be stowed at______________. should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to
fresh air?
A. the mess room A. 0.18
B. each lifeboat B. 0.198
C. each manned watch station C. 0.208
D. each fire station D. 0.218
Ans: C Ans: C
3925 The material or substance involved in a class "B" fire can be 3926 Which of the following precautions should be taken when treating
burning ____________. burns caused by contact with dry lime?
A. diesel oil A. Water should be applied in a fine spray.
 Page 215

B. magnesium B. The burned area should be immersed in water.

C. dunnage C. The entire burn area should be covered with ointment.
D. electrical insulation D. Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently.
Ans:
A Ans:
D
3927 The document certifying the correctness of the load line marks on a 3928 A load line is assigned to a ship to insure adequate stability and
ship is called the _____________. ______________.
A. Certificate of Inspection A. mooring tension
B. Load Line Certificate B. riser tension
C. Certificate of Documentation C. lifesaving equipment
D. SOLAS Certificate D. structural strength
Ans: B Ans: D
3929 Burning paint, turpentine, or grease would be an example of which 3930 The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate is valid for a
of the following classes of fire? period of _____________.
A. Class A A. one year from the date of issue
B. Class B B. two years from the date of issue
C. Class C C. three years from the date of issue
D. Class D D. four years from the date of issue
Ans: B Ans: D
3931 Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on 3932 After having activated the emergency position indicating radio
your rig's EPIRB? beacon, you should ______________.
A. On the Ship Station License. A. turn it off for five minutes every half-hour
B. On the side of the EPIRB transmitter. B. turn it off and on at five minute intervals
C. In the radio log. C. turn it off during daylight hours
D. On the Certificate of Inspection. D. leave it on continuously
Ans: A Ans: D
3933 A class "B" fire would most likely occur in the __________. 3934 With no alternative but to jump from a ship, the correct posture
should include _______________.
A. main switchboard A. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm crossing
the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet
together
B. engine room bilge B. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs

C. breathing compartment C. body straight and arms tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the
water
D. electric fresh water transfer pump D. both hand holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent and
legs crossed
Ans: B Ans: A
3935 Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur in the 3936 In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions
fireroom bilges? will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the annunciator
cabinet?
A. Class A A. A rise in temperature will activate the thermostat.
B. Class B B. The fire alarm test push-button is operated.
C. Class C C. A manual fire alarm box is activated.
D. Class D D. All of the above.
Ans:
B Ans: D
3937 On a tank vessel, which of the following substances would be 3938 Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to
burning in a class "B" fire? sense _____________.
A. Oil A. smoke
B. Wood B. rate of temperature rise
C. Rags C. ionized particles
D. Electrical wiring D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
3939 Dry chemical extinguishing agents are effective when used 3940 Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to
_____________. _____________.
A. with any foam extinguishing agents A. capsize
B. strictly in a cooling capacity B. run smoother
C. with any other dry chemical extinguishing agents C. run faster
D. on materials that contain their own oxygen D. sink
Ans: C Ans: A
3941 Radiation can spread a fire by ____________. 3942 Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke
____________.
A. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal A. cold and moist skin, high body temperature
B. burning liquids flowing into another space B. cold and dry skin, low body temperature
C. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems C. hot and moist skin, high body temperature
D. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space D. hot and dry skin, high body temperature
Ans:
D Ans: D
3943 Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire main in a manner 3944 When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air,
which will allow ____________. they are used for _____________.
A. all sections to be quickly connected A. personnel air supply
B. the nozzle end to be run out to the fire B. additional flotation
C. all sections to be quickly drained C. priming the sprinkler system
D. the nozzle and fittings to be easily and quickly inspected D. filling the self-righting bags
Ans: B Ans: A
3945 The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be 3946 A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the _____________.
activated _____________.
A. when there is no load on the cable A. hose sections disconnected
 Page 216

B. when there is a load on the cable B. foam nozzle attached

C. only the doors are closed C. all-purpose nozzle attached
D. when the engine is started D. hose sections rolled separately
Ans:
A Ans:
C
3947 If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see 3948 Small oil spills on deck may be prevented from entering the water
_____________. by _____________.
A. if the fuel valve is open A. keeping the drip pans empty
B. if the air supply system is open B. plugging all scuppers and drains
C. if the water sprinkler system is open C. placing floating booms alongside the ship
D. if the limit switch is on D. closing ullage openings between soundings
Ans: A Ans: B
3949 Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will ___________. 3950 To effectively treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you
should ____________.
A. reduce your drift rate A. administer artificial respiration
B. keep the survival craft from turning over B. put him in a tub of ice water
C. aid in recovering the survival craft C. give him sips of cool saline solution
D. increase your visibility D. take his blood pressure
Ans: A Ans: C
3951 To properly maintain fire hoses, you should _____________. 3952 During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station
to ______________.
A. keep them rolled tightly in the rack with female coupling protected A. release the towline in an emergency

B. keep exterior linings damp by periodic washdowns B. help the helmsman steer
C. thoroughly drain them after each use C. look for food and water
D. keep them partially filled with fresh water D. check water level in the bilge
Ans: C Ans:
A
3953 A class "C" fire would most likely occur in the ___________. 3954 When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop
the winch and check ____________.
A. engine room bilges A. that all personnel are seated in the craft
B. main switchboard B. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum
C. paint locker C. which way the wind is blowing
D. rag bin D. the hydraulic fluid level before lifting
Ans: B Ans: B
3955 When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you 3956 Releasing oil from the sea anchor of a survival craft may
should always _____________. __________.
A. direct the stream of chemical toward the base of the fire A. keep the propeller from being fouled
B. attack the fire from the leeward side B. increase propeller speed
C. bounce the chemical onto the fire from adjacent structural members C. help calm spray given off from the waves in the vicinity of the craft

D. spray the chemical across the tops of the flames D. increase the holding power of the sea anchor
Ans: A Ans: C
3957 If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first 3958 The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with
____________. ________________.
A. abandon the survival craft A. oxygen
B. check for cracks in the hull B. nitrogen
C. shift all personnel to the stern C. compressed air
D. check the bilge drain plug D. nitrogen and oxygen
Ans: D Ans: C
3959 Survival craft is manufactured with fire retardant ______________. 3960 Fire hose should always be stowed at the fire station in the hose
rack _____________.
A. foam A. after the hose has been completely drained
B. marine plywood B. with the nozzle in the solid stream position
C. steel C. so the hose can be connected quickly if a fire occurs
D. fiberglass D. so the nozzle is protected by the hose
Ans:
D Ans: A
3961 Which of the listed sources of ignition may cause fuel vapors to 3962 Which of the listed materials would be considered as a burning
ignite? class "C" fire?
A. Static electricity A. Fuel oil
B. An open and running motor B. Wood
C. Loose wiring C. Celluloid
D. All of the above D. Electrical insulation
Ans: D Ans: D
3963 A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of his right foot. 3964 For the best extinguishing effect, the discharge from a dry chemical
Which of the following is NOT an acceptable first aid measure? type fire extinguisher should be directed at the _____________.

A. Rub the toes briskly. A. base of a fire

B. Elevate the foot slightly. B. top and sides of a fire
C. Warm the frost bitten toes rapidly. C. middle of a fire
D. Give aspirin or other medication for pain if necessary. D. highest flames in a fire
Ans: A Ans: A
3965 A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of 3966 Which of the listed procedures should be followed when individuals
dangerous concentrations of _____________. are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

A. all flammable liquids A. Give them brandy

B. any combustible liquid B. Get them to a hot room
C. flammable or toxic gases C. Immerse them in a warm bath (104°F)
 Page 217

D. residues from cargo oil D. Cover with an electric blanket set for maximum temperature
Ans: C Ans: C
3967 The explosive range of benzene is 1.4% to 8% by volume in air. If 3968 A fire hose is subject to damage if the swivel on the female coupling
you sample an empty tank that had contained benzene and is lubricated with ____________.
obtained a reading of 50% L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator,
then the _____________.
A. vapor/air mixture is too lean to burn A. Graphite
B. vapor concentration at the sample point is 0.7% B. Grease
C. vapor/air mixture is not within the flammable range C. Soap
D. all of the above D. Talc
Ans: D Ans:
B
3969 A fire may be spread by which of the following means? 3970 When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam
will ____________.
A. Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces A. be dryer
B. Direct radiation B. be lighter
C. Convection C. be more heat resistant
D. All of the above D. cling to vertical surfaces
Ans:
D Ans: C
3971 The designation "Not safe for men - Not safe for fire" means 3972 A crew member suffering from generalized hypothermia should be
_____________. given ____________.
A. the gas or oxygen concentrations within a compartment is not within A. a small dose of alcohol
permissible limits
B. dangerous gases are present B. treatment for shock
C. the compartment was not tested due to the presence of ballast C. a large meal
slops or bunkers
D. all of the above D. a brisk rub down
Ans: D Ans: B
3973 The flammable limits of kerosene are 0.7% to 6.0% by volume in 3974 Which of the conditions listed make it difficult to indefinitely
air. The combustible gas indicator reading is 50% of the lower maintain fire hoses?
explosive level. The flammable vapor concentration at the sample
point is _____________.
A. too rich to burn A. Gasoline and oils act to dissolve the rubber or cement which holds
the inner jacket and lining together.
B. 0.0035 B. Heat causes the rubber lining to harden and crack.
C. 0.0265 C. Moisture will cause mildew to form on the jacket which destroys the
cotton fiber.
D. in the flammable range D. All of the above.
Ans: B Ans: D
3975 When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will 3976 Which of the listed classes of fire would apply to a main switchboard
____________. fire?
A. be drier A. Class "A"
B. be heavier B. Class "B"
C. be more heat resistant C. Class "C"
D. not cling to vertical surfaces D. Class "D"
Ans: A Ans: C
3977 Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive _______________. 3978 Lifejackets should be stowed in ____________.
A. loss of body temperature A. the forepeaks
B. loss of water and salt from the body B. the pumproom
C. gain in body temperature C. readily accessible spaces
D. intake of water when working or exercising D. locked watertight containers
Ans: B Ans: C
3979 Hose spanner wrenches should be used to connect ___________. 3980 You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft or lifeboat.
How much water per day should you permit each person after the
first 24 hours?
A. fire hoses to fire hydrants A. 1 can
B. hose spreaders for attaching new fittings B. 1 pint
C. two female hose couplings C. 1 quart
D. two male hose couplings D. 1 gallon
Ans: A Ans: B
3981 Which of the following statements defines the purpose of the 3982 An inflatable life raft has inflated on top of you in an upside down
lifeboat gravity davit limit switch? position. What should you do next?
A. To cut off power when the davits hit the track safety stops. A. Wait for others to lift the raft off of you.
B. To stop the davits from going too fast. B. Dive down to prevent your lifejacket from fouling as you come out.

C. To cut off power when the davits are about 30cms from the track C. Pull yourself out from under the raft in a face up position to keep
safety stops. your lifejacket clear of the raft.
D. None of the above. D. You should remove your lifejacket before attempting to right an
inflatable raft.
Ans: C Ans: C
3983 Which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has 3984 A galley grease fire would be classified as ___________.
fainted?
A. Get the person in the open air. A. Class A
B. Loosen the clothing. B. Class B
C. Lay the person with the head higher than the feet. C. Class C
D. Splash cold water in the face. D. Class D
Ans: C Ans: B
 Page 218

3985 Which statement concerning the collection of fresh water is 3986 The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with airis
FALSE? ____________.
A. Fresh water may be obtained from fish. A. 0% to 1% by volume
B. Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain before B. 1% to 6% by volume
drinking water is collected.
C. Fresh water may be collected from condensation inside the liferaft. C. 6% to 12% by volume

D. Freshwater cannot be produced from standing seawater. D. 12% to 20% by volume

Ans: A Ans: B
3987 Foam is effective in combating which of the listed classes of fire? 3988 The flammable limits of Benzene are 1.4% to 8% by volume in air. If
a combustible gas indicator is used to sample a tank that contains a
Benzene vapor/air mixture of 0.7% Benzene vapor by volume in
air, which of the listed indications will be observed

A. Class A A. The meter will deflect to the 70% explosive position.

B. Class B B. The meter will deflect to the 50% explosive position.
C. Classes A and B C. The meter will deflect full scale and return to zero.
D. Classes B and C D. The meter will be unable to detect a concentration of 0.7% Benzene
vapor in air.
Ans: C Ans: B
3989 When jumping into water upon which there is an oil fire, you should 3990 Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the
____________. engine room of a vessel?
A. break the water surface with your hands when diving head first A. Classes A and B

B. use your hands to hold your knees to your chest B. Classes B and C
C. cover your eyes with one hand while pinching your nose shut and C. Classes C and D
covering your mouth with the other
D. enter the water at the bow or stern, on the windward side of the D. Classes A and D
vessel
Ans: D Ans: B
3991 Which one of the following statements is true concerning the gas 3992 One of the methods NOT usually allowed in cleaning up oil spills in
free status of a compartment? the water is ____________.
A. The gas free status applies to the conditions of the compartment at A. skimmers
the time of the inspection.
B. The gas free status applies for the duration of the work inside the B. straw
compartment.
C. The gas free status applies for the 24 hour period following the C. dispersants
inspection.
D. The gas free status applies as long as the air temperature inside D. sawdust
the compartment remains at or below 25 degrees Celsius.

Ans: A Ans: C
3993 For the safety of personnel working with fire hoses, fire pumps are 3994 Handholds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are
fitted with a/an _____________. provided ____________.
A. butterfly valve on the discharge side A. to right the raft if it capsizes
B. air priming valve on the impeller housing B. to carry the raft around on deck
C. automatic suction valve shut off C. for crewmen to hang on to
D. pressure gage and relief valve on the discharge side D. to hang the raft for drying
Ans: D Ans: A
3995 Inflatable liferafts are provided with ____________. 3996 Fires involving combustible metals are classified as ______.
A. a Very pistol A. class "A" fires
B. a towing connection B. class "B" fires
C. a portable radio C. class "C" fires
D. canned milk D. class "D" fires
Ans: B Ans: D
3997 One of the common hazards onboard a vessel is represented by 3998 Which of the following should not be used as a treatment for a
the accumulation of harmful gases in tanks, holds, etc. Which of person who has received a head injury and is groggy or
the following gases is the most dangerous to personnel safety in unconscious?
confined atmospheres, as it is absorbed by the blood 300 times

A. Hydrogen A. Give a stimulant

B. Carbon dioxide B. Elevate his head
C. Carbon monoxide C. Stop severe bleeding
D. Ammonia D. Treat for shock
Ans:
C Ans: A
3999 Foam is a very effective smothering agent, in addition 4000 A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class _________.
____________.
A. it provides cooling as a secondary effect A. "A" fire
B. works well on extinguishing electrical fires B. "B" fire
C. can be used to combat combustible metal fires C. "C" fire
D. all of the above D. "D" fire
Ans: A Ans: D
4001 Which of the following conditions is an important consideration to 4002 If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it
remember when using a combustible gas indicator? is important for the crew members to ___________.
 Page 219

A. They detect vapor at the sample point only. A. separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being
rescued
B. They do not work properly in oxygen deficient atmospheres. B. get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the
vessel
C. Any movement of the needle indicates an unsafe condition C. immediately head for the nearest land
specifically related to the toxicity of petroleum vapors present.

D. All of the above. D. remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at
the vessel's last known position
Ans: D Ans: D
4003 What danger to personnel exists when a carbon dioxide fire 4004 Inflatable liferafts are provided with a ____________.
extinguisher is discharged in a small enclosed space?
A. Second degree burns A. jackknife
B. Electric shock B. towing connection
C. Suffocation C. lifeline
D. Burst eardrums D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
4005 To keep injured survivors warm in the water, after abandoning 4006 Shipboard oil pollution emergency plans must be reviewed
ship, they should ____________. ___________.
A. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other A. annually by the owner and a letter sumitted six months prior to
survivors in the water expiration
B. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure B. only once every five years and a letter submitted six months prior to
to the air expiration
C. remove their lifejackets and hold on to the uninjured survivors C. and the entire plan resubmitted for approval once every five years,
six months prior to expiration
D. sip water at fifteen minute intervals D. annually by the owner and submit a letter to the Administration
within one month of the anniversary date of the plan approval

Ans: A Ans: D
4007 A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes 4008 The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be
of fire? inflated ____________.
A. Class "A" A. only after two hours in the water
B. Class "B" B. only after four hours in the water
C. Class "C" C. before entry into the water
D. Class "D" D. upon entry into the water
Ans: A Ans: D
4009 If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not 4010 You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the
embedded, you can ____________. engine room with a CO2 extinguisher. Which of the dangers listed
should be prepared for next?
A. get him to rub his eye until the object is gone A. Complete lack of oxygen in the engine room.
B. remove it with a match or toothpick B. Chemical reaction of the CO2 and oil forming carbonic acid.
C. remove it with a piece of dry sterilized cotton rag C. Sudden stoppage of the main engine.
D. remove it with a moist cotton-tipped applicator D. Rekindling of the fire.
Ans: D Ans: D
4011 Records of garbage disposal are required to be maintained 4012 When using the hand crank to retrieve and stow a lifeboat on
_________. gravity davits, which of the listed precaution should always be
observed?
A. until each quad-ennial inspection A. Make certain the hand brake is disengaged.
B. until the end of each voyage B. Put the emergency disconnect switch in the "off" position.
C. for a minimum of one year C. Make certain the crank is in the locked position.
D. for a minimum of two years D. Disconnect the limit switch.
Ans: D Ans: B
4013 According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations , which of the 4014 Fires occurring in combustible metals, such as sodium or
following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment magnesium, are classified as a _________.
around loading manifolds?
A. They may be fixed or portable, depending upon the age of the A. class A
vessel.
B. The containment drains must have quick-closing valves to be B. class B
closed in the event of leakage or failure of any part of the transfer
connection.
C. All containment drains must lead to a common fixed drain tank. C. class C

D. Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank. D. class D

Ans: A Ans: D
4015 You are in the mess room when a shipmate suddenly begins to 4016 In which of the circumstances listed would a carbon dioxide fire
choke, is unable to speak and starts to turn blue. Which of the extinguishing agent be most effective?
following actions should you take?
A. Administer abdominal thrust in an effort to clear the airway. A. Within a closed space
B. Make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood to the B. On a magnesium fire
brain.
C. Immediately administer CPR. C. At a range of 5 metres
D. Do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious. D. As a cooling agent
Ans: A Ans: A
4017 If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you 4018 After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________.
should ___________.
 Page 220

A. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary A. serves as a sea painter

B. make the victim comfortable in a bunk B. detaches automatically
C. immediately start CPR C. is used to rig the boarding ladder
D. administer oxygen D. is cut immediately as it is of no further use
Ans:
C Ans: A
4019 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 4020 Pressure within a firemain system will vary from point to point due to
correct? ________.
A. All models will automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in A. leaky pilot valves
the water.
B. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection B. leaky pump suction valve
against hypothermia for weeks.
C. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while C. friction in the piping and valves
swimming through burning oil.
D. The suits provide for limited body movement such as walking, D. wear in the hydrant
climbing a ladder, and picking up small objects like a pencil.
Ans: D Ans: C
4021 The temperature at which a liquid, as listed on a Material Safety 4022 The lowest temperature at which a liquid, listed on a Material Safety
Data Sheet (MSDS), will change to a gas is called its __________. Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off enough vapor to ingnite in the
presence of an ignition source is called its _____________.

A. flash point A. boiling point

B. boiling point B. flash point
C. condensation point C. viscosity point
D. reactive point D. toxic point
Ans: B Ans: B
4023 Why is it necessary to warn engine room personnel before 4024 Hydrogen sulfide gives crude oil the sour odor of rotten eggs. A
activating the fixed CO2 system? hazard to personnel regarding hydrogen sulfide is _____________.

A. To make them aware there is a fire. A. dizziness

B. To let them know they should leave the engine room. B. asphyziation
C. To prevent possible injury from frostbite. C. death
D. To make them aware that ventilation will automatically stop. D. All of the above
Ans:
B Ans: D
4025 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 4026 To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is ____________.
correct?
A. All models will automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in A. bicarbonate of soda
the water.
B. The immersion suit reduces the rate of body cooling and greatly B. paregoric
increases the survival time in cold water.
C. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to a wearer C. aspirin
swimming in burning oil.
D. The suit provides a full range of body movement and is suitable for D. aromatic spirits of ammonia
routine wear on deck.
Ans: B Ans: C
4027 When taking samples of a tank atmosphere with an explosimeter, 4028 When whistle signals are used as commands for launching the
you should _____________. lifeboats, one short blast means ____________.
A. only sample around the deck longitudinals as gases are lighter A. use the float-free method only
than air
B. sample only near the ullage openings as all vapors accumulate B. lower all boats
there
C. avoid sampling in the vicinity of deep webs to prevent false C. raise all boats
readings
D. sample as much of the tank as possible, especially at the bottom D. drill is over, secure all boats

Ans: D Ans: B
4029 In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers 4030 The most important thing to remember when launching an
would be an example of which type of oil removal? inflatable liferaft by hand is to ____________.
A. Chemical agent removal A. open the CO2 inflation valve
B. Mechanical removal B. open the raft container
C. Absorbent removal C. ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel
D. None of the above D. inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side
Ans: C Ans: C
4031 What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's 4032 Symptoms of sugar diabetes include ____________.
certificate on a tank barge?
A. The number of fire extinguishers required onboard. A. increased appetite and thirst
B. The quality of the barge's cargo. B. decreased appetite and thirst
C. The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued. C. gain in weight

D. The barge's stability information. D. elevated temperature

Ans: C Ans: A
4033 Hydrocarbon vapors are usually detected by the use of the 4034 What statement about immersion suits is FALSE?
_____________.
A. flame safety lamp A. The suit should be worn only when abandoning ship.
B. combustible gas indicator B. The suit is received from the manufacturer in an outer storage bag
that should be used aboard ship for storing the suit.
 Page 221

C. gasometer C. The front zipper should be lubricated according to manufacturer's

specifications.
D. oxygen indicator D. Immersion suits provide protection against hypothermia even if
there is a small leak or tear.
Ans: B Ans: A
4035 An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the 4036 An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by ____________.
_________________.
A. sounding tube to either side of the tank A. pulling a cord
B. top of the tank down to the bottom of the tank B. cutting the wire restraining bands
C. top of the liquid down to the tank bottom C. removing the rubber packing strip
D. top of the sounding tube down to the surface of the liquid D. throwing the entire container overboard
Ans: D Ans: D
4037 If a person with diabetes has been injured, the symptoms of the 4038 The most effective method in the use of a CO2 fire extinguisher is
onset of a diabetic coma would include ____________. for the discharge to be directed at the _____________.

A. reduced appetite and thirst A. middle of a fire

B. sneezing and coughing B. top and sides of a fire
C. excessive thirst and fever C. base or nearest edge of a fire
D. slurred speech and loss of coordination D. highest flames of a fire
Ans: C Ans: C
4039 A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4040 When firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed
(MSDS) that can undergo a sudden and violent release of pressure ____________.
and heat is called _________________.
A. combustible A. into the wind
B. explosive B. straight ahead
C. flammable C. at the vessel whose attention you want to attract
D. toxic D. approximately 60° above the horizon
Ans: B Ans: D
4041 The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT 4042 Which of the following operations should be carried out when
required to contain _________________. launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?
A. the name of the person designated as the person in charge of A. Open the liferaft casing
transfer
B. a line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping B. Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation
C. special procedures for topping off tanks C. Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before
throwing it over the side
D. a description of the deck discharge containment system D. After inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft
Ans: A Ans: C
4043 Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that 4044 The most beneficial assistance for a person having an epileptic
violently self-reacts under commonly occurring conditions is called convulsion is to __________________.
_______________.
A. pyrophric A. give the victim artificial respiration
B. toxic B. completely restrain the victim
C. explosive C. give the victim one 30mg tablet of phenobarbitol
D. unstable D. keep him from injuring himself
Ans: D Ans:
D
4045 What is the purpose of an explosimeter? 4046 The bayonet catch on an all purpose nozzle is used to latch in place
the ____________.
A. To identify combustible gases. A. mechanical foam nozzle
B. To detect combustible gases. B. mechanical foam pick up tube
C. To indicate the absence of oxygen. C. high velocity fog tip
D. All of the above. D. chemical foam applicator
Ans: B Ans: C
4047 What term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to 4048 Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side facility. If oil
describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions
disabling health hazard ? should be taken FIRST?
A. Low toxicity A. Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank.
B. Recommended toxicity B. Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill.
C. Moderate toxicity C. Signal the shore control point to shutdown.
D. High toxicity D. Close the valve on the tank vent line.
Ans: D Ans: C
4049 What term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to 4050 Which health hazard term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
describe a chemical that produces only minor health effects that (MSDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body
usually heal with or without medical attention when exposure stops? tissue on contact?

A. Moderate toxicity A. Freeze hazard

B. Low toxicity B. Cyanosis
C. Lower exposure limit C. Freon hazard
D. Moderate exposure limit D. Cryogenic
Ans: B Ans: D
4051 A written document identifying chemical material, listing its physical 4052 The instrument shown in the illustration has not been used for
properties, describing health hazards, required controls, correct several weeks. Prior to its use for testing a compartment, you
procedures for firefighting, spill or leak cleanup, waste disposal, should _______.
and the safe handling and storage of the materi

A. MSC A. check or renew the batteries

B. MSDS B. purge the meter
 Page 222

C. DGC C. adjust the meter pointer to zero

D. HSC D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
4053 Which of the following symptoms would be indicated if a person's 4054 The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
appendix ruptured? describing whether a liquid is lighter or heavier than water is
____________.
A. Dilated pupils and shallow breathing A. solubility
B. Diarrhea and frequent urination B. specific gravity
C. Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen C. viscosity
D. Extreme sweating and reddening skin D. flotation point
Ans:
C Ans:
B
4055 The all-purpose, or combination nozzle is capable by itself of 4056 Which of the following conditions is NOT a function of the covered
producing a solid stream of water __________. lifeboat pressurized air supply?
A. only A. Provides combustion air for the diesel engine.
B. and high velocity water fog B. Pressurizes the water spray system.
C. and low velocity water fog C. Provides air for passenger respiration.
D. and high and low velocity water fog D. Prevents smoke and other noxious fumes from entering craft.
Ans: B Ans: B
4057 If you wish to remove an inflatable liferaft from its cradle, the best 4058 When you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on
way to free it is by ____________. fuel, you should FIRST ____________.
A. cutting the restraining strap A. stop loading
B. unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle B. notify the senior deck officer
C. lifting one end of the raft C. notify the terminal superintendent
D. pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release D. determine whether your vessel is the source
Ans: D Ans: A
4059 When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should 4060 Ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2.0% and an upper
be relieved by ____________. explosive limit of 100% by volume in air. This means
_____________.
A. keeping a ice bag over the location of the appendix A. there is no possible ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too
lean to burn
B. giving the patient a laxative B. there is no possible ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too
rich to burn
C. giving the patient morphine sulfate C. an ethylene oxide spill always results in an explosion
D. giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water D. a 2.0% concentration of ethylene oxide in air would give a reading
of 2.0% on a combustible gas indicator
Ans: A Ans: B
4061 According to Regulations , a person who discharges plastic or 4062 Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect
garbage mixed with plastic is liable for ______________. fluids in the ____________.
A. a civil penality A. stomach
B. a fine B. lower intestines
C. imprisonment for up to five years for each violation C. inner ear
D. All of the above D. bladder
Ans: D Ans: C
4063 A chemical that causes a substantial proportion of exposed people 4064 Progressive flooding on a ship may be indicated by ________.
or animals to develop an allergic reaction in normal tissue after
repeated exposure is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
(MSDS) as a ____________.
A. skin contact hazard A. ballast control alarms
B. physical hazard B. excessive draft
C. sensitizer C. excessive list or trim
D. skin absorption hazard D. a continual worsening of list or trim
Ans: C Ans: D
4065 Using a sea anchor will ____________. 4066 While taking on fuel, you notice oil on the water around the vessel.
Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?

A. reduce the drift rate of the liferaft A. Stop fueling

B. keep the liferaft from turning over B. Notify the dispatcher
C. aid in recovering the liferaft C. Notify the terminal superintendent
D. increase your visibility D. Determine if your vessel is the source
Ans: A Ans: A
4067 The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is 4068 The most practical method of extinguishing a class "A" fire,
_______________. involving burning dunnage, is to use _____________.
A. relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication A. chemical foam

B. avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling B. a hand portable CO2 extinguishers

C. preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the injury C. Purple K powder and light water

D. providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration D. water

Ans: B Ans: D
4069 In order to produce a high velocity water fog using an all-purpose 4070 Which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has
nozzle, you must _____________. fainted?
A. pull the nozzle handle halfway back A. Provide fresh air
B. push the nozzle handle completely forward B. Loosen clothing
C. insert an in-line fog applicator C. Elevate head
 Page 223

D. change to a small nozzle tip after changing the position of the D. Stimulate face with cold water
nozzle handle
Ans: A Ans: C
4071 If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record Book, youshould 4072 Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship, you
_____________. would use the ____________.
A. erase the entry and rewrite it A. towing bridle
B. notify the ship's officer-in-charge B. main weather cover
C. completely black it out and make the correct entry alongside C. external lifelines
D. draw a single line through the wrong entry and initial it D. righting strap
Ans: D Ans: A
4073 A crack, located in the shell plating or deck plating of a ship, may be 4074 Which of the following procedures can be used for checking for
temporarily prevented from increasing in length by ____________. spinal cord damage to an unconscious patient?

A. drilling a hole at each end of the crack A. Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks,
press the spine to find where it hurts.
B. installing welded brackets across both ends B. Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp
object to check for reaction.
C. V-grooving and welding from both sides of the crack C. Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to
see if he registers pain.
D. cutting a square notch at each end of the crack D. Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine
to check reaction.
Ans: A Ans: B
4075 First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns, especially in the 4076 Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?
eyes, includes _____________.
A. flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical A. SOLAS Regulations
attention ashore or by radio
B. wiping the affected area with a clean dry cloth and resting quietly for B. Certificate of Inspection
several hours
C. drying the acid or alkali with a rag followed by applying a light cream C. Muster list

D. all of the above may be acceptable treatments depending on the D. Ship's articles
severity of the burn
Ans: A Ans: C
4077 When off loading garbage to another ship, your records must 4078 The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water
identify that ship by name and _________. surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use _________.

A. home port A. water fog over the fire

B. operator's name of record B. solid water streams directly into the fire
C. official number C. dry chemical around the fire
D. master's name D. foam directed against the vessel's side
Ans:
C Ans:
D
4079 In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned, you should look 4080 After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by
at the _____________. ____________.
A. fire control plan A. opening the automatic drain plugs
B. certificate of inspection B. draining the water pockets
C. muster list C. using the electric bilge pump
D. ship's articles D. using the bailers and cellulose sponge
Ans: C Ans: D
4081 What is the required gas supply capacity of an inert gas system? 4082 An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank
explosions by _____________.
A. 125% of forced draft rate A. eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks
B. 125% of shore side loading rate B. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks
C. 125% of cargo pump capacity C. blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
D. 125% of fan capacity D. reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for
combustion
Ans: C Ans: D
4083 Firehose can be used for purposes other than firefighting service 4084 The three positions of an all-purpose fire nozzle are
when ____________. ____________.
A. used for portable water service A. forward: off, center: fog, back: solid stream
B. used for drills and testing B. forward: solid stream, center: fog, back: off
C. determined by the Chief Engineer C. forward: fog, center: solid stream, back: off
D. approved by Master D. forward: off, center: solid stream, back: fog
Ans: B Ans: A
4085 A vessel sailing through the specific special areas may discharge 4086 Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be
or dispose of __________. the FIRST to receive emergency treatment?
A. incinerated ash at anytime A. Major multiple fractures
B. fairly dense material that will sink, i.e. metal cans or glass bottles at B. Eye injuries
anytime
C. victual waste when at least 12 nautical miles from shore C. Back injuries with spinal cord damage
D. absolutely no garbage at anytime D. Airway and breathing difficulties
Ans: C Ans: D
4087 Were there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury 4088 The purpose of the four water pockets, located on the underside at
should be the first to receive emergency treatment? each corner of the raft, is to ____________.
A. Severe shock A. stow rainwater; these four spaces will not take up valuable space
 Page 224

B. Eye injuries B. act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated
and in an upright position
C. Burns C. hold the freshwater required by regulation to be provided in the raft
when packed
D. Major multiple fractures D. none of the above
Ans: A Ans: B
4089 In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must 4090 When an oil fire has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should
be able to ____________. be kept covered with foam to prevent ___________.
A. provide the necessary medication A. air from contacting the oil vapors permitting reignition
B. rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries B. boiling of the heated oil
C. accurately diagnose the ailment or injury C. spontaneous combustion below the oil surface
D. prescribe treatment for the victim D. toxic fumes from escaping to the surface
Ans: B Ans: A
4091 After an injury, which of the following can be determined by 4092 When fighting an oil or gasoline fire, which of the listed fire
examining the condition of a victim's pupils? extinguishing agents should NEVER be sprayed directly into the
fire?
A. The degree of pain being suffered. A. High velocity fog
B. The degree of vision impairment. B. Dry chemical
C. Whether or not the brain is functioning properly. C. Low velocity fog
D. Whether or not the victim's blood pressure is normal. D. Steam smothering
Ans: C Ans: B
4093 What is the primary purpose of a spint applied in first aid? 4094 Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________.

A. Reduce pain A. pinching the wound closed

B. Control bleeding B. applying direct pressure to the wound
C. Immobilize a fracture C. heavy application of a disinfectant
D. Reset the bone D. pouring ice water directly into the wound
Ans: C Ans: B
4095 On most makes of inflatable liferafts, the batteries to operate the 4096 Fires resulting from spontaneous combustion are usually caused
light on the inside of the rafts can be made to last longer by by the improper disposal of _____________.
____________.
A. unscrewing the bulb during the daylight A. cigarette butts
B. operating the switch for the light B. oily rags
C. taking no action as there is no way of preserving power C. burner torches
D. taking no action as they shut off automatically in daylight D. lighted matches
Ans:
B Ans: B
4097 Immediately after a class "B" fire has been extinguished by the use 4098 In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be
of foam, crewmen should _____________. controlled by ___________.
A. carefully apply a low velocity fog over the foam blanket A. applying a tourniquet
B. wade through the foam blanket to evenly distribute the foam B. cooling the wound with ice
C. be careful not to disturb the foam blanket C. submerging the wound in lukewarm water
D. sweep the foam blanket overboard and secure firefighting D. applying direct pressure to the wound
equipment
Ans: C Ans: D
4099 A person has suffered a larceration of the arm. Severe bleeding 4100 According to Regulations , a pressurer-demand, open cicuit, self
has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. contained breathing appratus shall have a minimum _______
What should you do next? minutes air supply.
A. Apply a torniqiuet to prevent the bleeding from restarting. A. 30
B. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. B. 45
C. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic C. 60
D. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. D. 90

Ans: B Ans: A
4101 Spontaneous combustion can occur in _____________. 4102 The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-
mouth resuscitation by pinching the vitim's nostrils and
____________.
A. paint thinner in an open can A. cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
B. fuel accumulated in the bilges B. keeping the head elevated
C. oily rags stored in an unvented compartment C. applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
D. gasoline stored in steel drums D. holding the jaw down firmly
Ans:
C Ans:
C
4103 Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be incorrect for 4104 Which of the following is classified as a grade "E" combustible
the direct use on a gasoline or oil fire? liquid?
A. A solid stream of water A. Benzene
B. Low velocity water fog B. Bunker "C"
C. High velocity water fog C. Very light naphtha
D. Mechanical firefighting foam D. Most commercial gasoline
Ans: A Ans: B
4105 Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguising 4106 Which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the garbage
agent? discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?

A. It is more effective than CO2. A. The garbage to be discharged will sink.

B. It leaves no residue. B. Garbage accumulation onboard has exceeded storage space.

C. It is noncorrosive. C. A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for
flotation.
 Page 225

D. It is always non-toxic. D. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage.

Ans: D Ans: C
4107 The most likely place for a fire to start through the process of 4108 When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that
spontaneous combustion is in _____________. the space _____________.
A. an electrical switchboard A. is properly vented
B. the pressure tanks B. contains no explosive fumes
C. the fuel oil tanks C. has no oil in the bilges
D. the oily rag bin D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
4109 You are fighting a class "B" fire with a potable dry chemical 4110 If a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room bilges, in which
extinguisher. The discharge should be directed ___________. of the following sequences should the fire extinguishing agents or
systems be used?
A. at the seat of the fire, starting near the edge A. Fixed CO2, semi-portable CO2, then hand portable CO2.
B. over the top of the fire B. Semi-portable CO2, fixed CO2, then hand portable CO2.
C. at the main body of the fire C. Hand portable, semi-portable CO2, then as a last resort the fixed
CO2 system.
D. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire D. Hand portable, fixed CO2, then as a last resort the semi-portable
CO2.
Ans: A Ans: C
4111 Which extinguising agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of 4112 You are about to enter a compartment to investigate a suspected
not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature? smoldering fire. If you're not wearing an self-contained breathing
apparatus, you should test the compartment's atmosphere to
determine if there is/are _____________.

A. Foam A. sufficient oxygen to sustain human life

B. CO2 B. an explosive mixture in the compartment
C. Water stream C. a toxic atmosphere in the compartment
D. Water foam D. all of the above
Ans:
B Ans:
D
4113 Liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their 4114 All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT
____________. ___________.
A. shape A. fuel
B. shallow draft B. oxygen
C. large sail area C. heat
D. all of the above D. electricity
Ans: D Ans: D
4115 A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY _________. 4116 The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is through the
use of a _____________.
A. with puncture wiounds A. dry chemical extinguisher and solid stream water
B. when the victim is unconscious B. foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog
C. when all other means have failed C. foam extinguisher and solid stream water
D. to prevent bleeding from from minor wounds D. foam and soda acid extinguishers
Ans:
C Ans: B
4117 The date of each fire and boat drill conducted on a ship must be 4118 To produce a low velocity water fog spray with an all-purpose fire
recorded _____________. hose nozzle, you must _____________.
A. in the official logbook A. push the nozzle handle completely forward
B. in the Operations Manual B. change the fire pump discharge pressure
C. on the Certificate of Inspection C. pull the nozzle handle completely back
D. on the muster list D. insert a low velocity fog applicator
Ans: A Ans: D
4119 Which of the practices listed should be avoided since it represents 4120 When administering mouth to mouth resucitation to an adult, you
a fire hazard? should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?

A. Smoking near the burner front A. 4

B. Smoking in the machine shop B. 8
C. Stowing oily rags in a paint locker C. 12
D. Stowing portable acetylene bottles in the vertical position D. 20
Ans: C Ans: C
4121 When taking on fuel it is important to remember that petroleum 4122 If you hear the sound of a gas escaping from the liferaft just after it
vapors are _____________. has inflated, you should ____________.
A. not volatile unless the ambient air temperature exceeds 32oC A. quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
B. lighter than air and dissipate rapidly B. check the sea anchor line for a tear if the seas are rough
C. unlikely to ignite except in the presence of an open flame C. check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial
opening
D. heavier than air and may enter the bilges and/or deckhouse D. not panic as the relief valves allow excess pressure to escape

Ans: D Ans: D
4123 The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment 4124 The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated to
which is not gas free is a lamp that is ______________. extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to
vent the combustible products from the engine room?
A. battery fed A. Immediately after the fire is extinguished.
B. self-contained B. One half-hour after the fire is extinguished.
C. approved explosion proof C. After the metal surfaces have cooled down.
D. All of the above D. Before any personnel in fireman outfits reenter the engine room.

Ans: D Ans: C
 Page 226

4125 Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after using a 4126 Petroleum vapors are heavier than air and _____________.
portable CO2 fire extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room
floor plates?
A. Possible suffocation from the CO2 gas. A. will normally dissipate rapidly
B. Forgetting to secure the engine room ventilation system. B. will always form explosive vapors below 0oC ambient
C. CO2 gas being drawn into nearby engine or air compressor intakes. C. may collect in ship's bilges

D. Rekindling of the fire. D. are of no concern if the wind is blowing

Ans: D Ans: C
4127 Which portable fire extinguiser is normally recharged in a shore 4128 Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
facilty?
A. Dry chemical (cartidge-operated) A. Foam
B. Water (cartidge-operated) B. CO2
C. Water (pump tank) C. Dry Chemical
D. Carbon dioxide D. Water fog
Ans: D Ans: B
4129 You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which of the following 4130 It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a
procedures should be used during a prolonged period in a liferaft? compartment where there is a fire in order to ___________.

A. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration. A. cool the metal below its ignition temperature
B. Get plenty of rest. B. form a dense coating of smothering steam
C. Keep the entrance curtains open. C. prevent oxygen from reaching the flames
D. All of the above. D. prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat
Ans:
D Ans:
D
4131 Which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT suitable for fighting 4132 As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil in the tanks will
a liquid paint fire? _____________.
A. Dry chemical A. remain the same
B. Foam B. increase
C. Water C. decrease
D. Carbon dioxide D. none of the above
Ans: C Ans: B
4133 If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is ____________. 4134 Combustible material stored in a compartment adjacent to a
compartment where there is a fire may be ignited. This ignition can
occur by ____________.
A. drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter A. heat convection through the adjacent bulkheads
B. find some wood for a fire B. combustion gases carried through the ventilation system
C. get the provisions out of the raft C. direct convection of the heat emitted by the adjacent fire
D. set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it D. heat radiated from the deck or bulkhead by the adjacent fire
Ans: A Ans: D
4135 The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a 4136 If the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should
vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by first ____________.
_____________.
A. conduction A. abandon the survival craft
B. convection B. check for cracks in the hull
C. radiation C. shift all personnel to the stern
D. windage D. check the bilge drain plug
Ans: B Ans: D
4137 Which of the listed type of fires would the fire extinguisher, shown 4138 The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon
in the illustration, be suitable for extinguishing? as possible after entering a liferaft is to ____________.

A. Mattress fire A. assist in sleeping

B. Fire in an electronics console B. reduce appetite by decreasing nausea
C. Small oil fire on the engine room floor plates C. prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting
D. Fire in an ullage opening D. prevent impaired judgement due to motion-induced deliriousness

Ans: C Ans: C
4139 If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel 4140 When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you
oil leak, you should FIRST _____________. should ____________.
A. secure the ventilation A. plot course for nearest land
B. find a soda acid extinguisher B. go only with the direction of the sea
C. shut off the fuel oil supply C. stay in the immediate area
D. secure the generator D. go one direction until fuel runs out
Ans: C Ans: C
4141 The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat, oxygen and a 4142 Which of the following statements holds true for both CO2 and
chain reaction. Which of the following statements best describes Halon 1301 fixed extinguishing systems?
what must be eliminated to extinguish a fire?
A. Any one component can be eliminated to extinguish a fire. A. A cylinder is considered satisfactory if its weight is within 10% of the
stamped full weight of the charge.
B. Any two components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a B. If a protected space is ventilated mechanically, the ventilation
fire. system must be automatically shutdown by the release of the agent.

C. Any three components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a C. To avoid confusion during an emergency situation, there should be
fire. only one action necessary (such as a single pull box) to activate the
system.
D. All four components must be eliminated to extinguish any fire. D. All of the above.
Ans: A Ans: B
 Page 227

4143 A sprinkler head activated by the melting of a fusible link is installed 4144 If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result of a leaking fuel line,
on a ship. Which of the following statements is true regarding these you should FIRST _____________.
devices?
A. Sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces would have a higher A. notify the engineer on watch
melting point fusible link than those installed in the galley.

B. Sprinkler heads installed in the galley would have a higher melting B. isolate and secure the piping
point fusible link than those installed in the living spaces.

C. Sprinkler heads installed in the galley and living spaces would have C. throw sand on the fire
the same fusible link melting point.
D. None of the above; sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited D. extinguish the fire using a combination nozzle with applicator
aboard vessels
Ans: B Ans: B
4145 A fire cannot exist if which of the listed elements is removed from 4146 Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of
the fire? petroleum products?
A. Oxygen A. Fire
B. Fuel B. Explosion
C. Heat C. Asphyxiation
D. All of the above. D. All of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
4147 Breathing petroleum vapors is hazardous and may cause 4148 When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should
_____________. be __________.
A. temporary blindness A. recorded as cubic meters with a conversion to barrels
B. permanent deafness B. verified by the Chief Engineer
C. severe internal bleeding C. recorded directly from the oil discharge monitor
D. unconsciousness and death D. consistently recorded through the Oil Record Book in one specified
unit (gallons, barrels, cubic meters)
Ans: D Ans: D
4149 When combating an oil fire in a deep tank aboard ship, water fog 4150 Which of the listed tanks presents the greatest potential for an
can be used to extinguish the fire and ____________. explosion?
A. contain the burning liquid A. A full tank of diesel oil
B. prevent any deformation of the tank top B. A partially filled tank of diesel oil
C. cool the surrounding metal C. A full tank of lubricating oil
D. eliminate flammable combustion gases D. A partially filled tank of hydraulic oil
Ans: C Ans: B
4151 On a vessel with lifeboats on both sides, the No. 2 lifeboat would be 4152 Which of the following conditions is true concerning a flammable
located ____________. liquid with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?

A. forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the starboard side A. The mixture is too lean to burn.
B. forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the port side B. The mixture is too rich to burn.
C. aft of lifeboat No. 1 on the starboard side C. The vapor is about to explode.
D. all of the above D. Conditions are perfect for combustion.
Ans: B Ans: B
4153 The No. 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found __________. 4154 The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil
tank is to _____________.
A. forward port side A. secure all openings to the tank
B. forward starboard side B. discharge an initial charge of CO2 with a hand portable
extinguisher
C. aft of No. 1 lifeboat port side C. direct a fire hose into the tank and energize the fire main
D. aft of No. 1 lifeboat starboard side D. spray the tank boundaries with a fire hose to promote cooling

Ans: A Ans: A
4155 While working in the engine room, you hear seven short blasts 4156 Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those
followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle, supplemented by who have boarded a lifeboat in an emergency situation?
the same signal on the general alarm bells. You should
_____________.
A. start the fire pump to charge the fire main A. Ration food and water supplies
B. standby the main console and await orders from the engineer on B. Take anti-seasickness pills
watch
C. go to your fire station C. Determine position and closest point of land
D. go to your lifeboat station D. Check pyrotechnic supplies
Ans: D Ans: B
4157 Before attempting to put out a class "C" fire involving an electric- 4158 Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are ___________.
driven centrifugal pump, you should FIRST ________.
A. insulate your shoes A. heavier than air
B. ground the fire hose B. toxic
C. secure its power supply C. highly explosive
D. start the fire pump D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
4159 To extinguish an electrical fire, your FIRST action should be to 4160 When fighting an electrical fire, you should first ________.
____________.
A. apply a low velocity fog A. stop ventilation to the area
B. secure the power B. stop the vessel
C. Completely discharge a 15 pound (6.8 kg) CO2 extinguisher C. secure electricity to the circuit
D. apply mechanical or chemical foam D. apply CO2 to the fire
 Page 228

Ans: B Ans: C
4161 If the buoyant force on a ship's hull is equal to or greater than the 4162 Diesel fuel is relatively safe to handle due to its low volatility, but the
displacement tonnage, the ship will _____________. fumes will self-ignite and continue to burn steadily if the fuel is
heated to the _____________.
A. require ballast added to only the port side tanks A. flash point
B. be down by the head B. autoignition point
C. sink C. volatility point
D. float D. upper explosive limit
Ans: D Ans: B
4163 When a vessel is inclined due to an external force, such as the 4164 Class C fires may be combatted using a _____________.
action of seas in which no cargo shifts, the tendency of the vessel
to return to its original position is caused by the shift in ______.

A. center of buoyancy A. dry chemical extinguisher

B. center of gravity B. carbon dioxide extinguisher
C. center of flotation C. halon extinguisher
D. metacentric radius D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
4165 Which of the following represents the emergency signal for fire 4166 Which of the listed fire extinguishers should be used on an electrical
aboard ship? fire aboard ship?
A. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle. A. Foam
B. Continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than B. Soda acid
10 seconds supplemented by the same signal on the general
alarm.
C. Three short blasts of the whistle supplemented by the same signal C. Carbon dioxide
on the general alarm.
D. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle D. Carbon tetrachloride
supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.
Ans: B Ans: C
4167 Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the safest to use 4168 If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less
when combating a class C fire? than 10 seconds; supplemented by a continuous ringing of the
general alarm bells for the same time period, you should
_____________.
A. CO2 A. go to your lifeboat station
B. Foam B. go to your fire station
C. Water fog C. standby for collision
D. Soda acid D. proceed to your man overboard muster station
Ans: A Ans: B
4169 A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 4170 Before making any welded repairs to the internals of a vessel's fuel
seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general tank in a port, the tank must be examined by _____________.
alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a
_____________.
A. fire A. the chief engineer
B. collision B. the master of the vessel
C. man overboard C. a certified marine chemist
D. flooded compartment D. the insurance underwriter
Ans: A Ans: C
4171 The principal effect of liquid free surface is dependent upon the 4172 A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is
volume of displacement of the vessel and the ____________. _____________.

A. height of liquid in the tank A. inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours
B. amount of liquid in the tank B. free of most flammable gas concentrations
C. dimensions of the liquid surface C. thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours
D. weight of liquid in the tank D. free of dangerous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases

Ans: C Ans: D
4173 Vessel stability is greatly affected when water or fuel tanks are 4174 Which of the following precautions are necessary when using any
partially filled as a result of the _____________. electrical equipment in a hazardous location, such as a cargo
pumproom?
A. free surface effect A. The pumproom is to be gas free.
B. free communication effect B. The adjacent compartments are to be gas free.
C. increase of buoyancy C. Each compartment where flammable gas is expected to
accumulate is to be closed and secured.
D. decrease in draft D. All of the above.
Ans: A Ans: D
4175 To prevent an explosion when the pumproom has not been 4176 Which of the following procedures should be used to examine a
certified gas free and repairs are to be carried out, the only type of cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher?
portable electric equipment allowed in the pumproom would be an
approved _____________.
A. explosion proof self-contained battery powered lamp A. Make certain that the pressure cartridge has not been punctured.

B. 1/2 HP electric hand drill B. Check to see that hose and nozzle are clear.
C. marine drop lamp and extension cords C. Ensure that dry chemical is not become caked.
D. portable hand grinder D. All of the above.
Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 229

4177 Proper maintenance of a dry chemical fire extinguisher will include 4178 A vessel whose fuel tanks are half full is subject to ____________.
_____________.
A. adding water to the powder A. free surface effect
B. painting the CO2 cartridge red B. serious loss of reserve buoyancy
C. puncturing the CO2 cartridge C. severe sagging
D. shaking the extinguisher to loosen the caked-up portions of the D. severe hogging
powder
Ans: D Ans: A
4179 When reentering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, 4180 Liquid petroleum products will become electrically charged as a
the investigating team should initially _____________. result of the _____________.
A. leave the access door partially open A. splashing or spraying of oil into a tank
B. enter from the lowest level B. movement of water droplets in an oil filled tank
C. enter from the highest level C. oil moving through the pipe lines
D. attempt to operate machinery D. All of the above are correct.
Ans: C Ans: D
4181 Fuel tanks should never be filled by cascading liquid through an 4182 When petroleum products are handled, static electricity can be
open hatch or manhole because _____________. generated by _____________.
A. excessive fuel vapors will be released A. splashing or agitation of the fluids
B. static electricity could be generated by fuel falling through vapor- B. excessive pressure on the fluids
laden air
C. spillage of fuel could occur with an open hatch C. low temperature fluids only
D. water contamination of the fuel could occur D. low viscosity fluids only
Ans: B Ans: A
4183 The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire 4184 When fueling, it is important to ground the ship with regard to static
extinguisher can be readily determined by ____________. electricity. Therefore, you must connect the _____________.

A. visual inspection of the pressure gage A. fuel hose before the bonding cable
B. weighing the cylinder B. bonding cable only if sparks are seen
C. removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical C. bonding cable before the fuel hose has been connected
D. weighing the CO2 cartridge D. bonding cable through a ground fault circuit breaker
Ans: A Ans: C
4185 To minimize the possibility of an explosion caused by the discharge 4186 The correct method for connecting a grounding or bonding cable is
of static electricity, the vessel should ____________. to _____________.

A. be electrically grounded to shore piping A. open switch, connect ground cable, close switch, and connect
cargo hose
B. have its electrical equipment insulated from its structure B. connect ground cable, open switch, and connect cargo hose
C. have crew members use flashlights rather than AC lamps in vapor C. close switch, connect cargo hose, open switch, and connect ground
filled areas cable
D. have crew members use flame safety lamps during entry to areas D. connect ground cable, connect cargo hose, open switch, and then
that may contain explosive fumes close switch
Ans: A Ans: A
4187 Which of the following statements describes the advantage of using 4188 You may improve a vessel's stability by ___________.
a Halon fire extinguisher versus a CO2 fire extinguisher?

A. Halon cools rather than smothers a fire. A. keeping the fuel tanks topped off
B. Halon is more effective than CO2. B. increasing the free surface effect
C. Halon can extinguish combustible metal fires. C. keeping the fuel tanks at least half full
D. Halon is not toxic and safe to breathe under all conditions. D. keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops
Ans:
B Ans:
A
4189 The inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the 4190 Which statement is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing
method for determining the exact location of the __________. equipment?
A. ship's displacement in seawater A. The agent is highly toxic under all conditions.
B. position of the ship's center of gravity B. The agent is less effective than CO2.
C. position of the ship's center of buoyancy C. Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering.
D. position of the ship's metacenter D. The agent is a colorless odorless gas.
Ans: B Ans: D
4191 If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are no movable or 4192 If weight is added at the keel, the ship's center of gravity will
moving weights onboard, the center of gravity will ____________. ______________.

A. move to port A. move down

B. move to starboard B. move up
C. move directly down C. merge with the metacenter
D. stay in the same position D. pass through the center of flotation
Ans:
D Ans:
A
4193 The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest when all fuel and 4194 If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to
water tanks are full because the _____________. _____________.
A. center of gravity is lowered A. hold the lifeboat's head up into the seas
B. center of buoyancy is lowered B. generate orange smoke
C. reserve buoyancy is unchanged C. seal leaks in rubber rafts
D. hull freeboard is increased D. send radio homing signals to searching aircraft
Ans: A Ans: D
4195 What is a major advantage of the demand-type self-contained 4196 To operate a CO2 fire extinguisher equipped with a squeeze grip
breathing apparatus? handle, you are to remove the locking pin and ________.
A. The equipment is lightweight and the wearer can work without A. raise the lower grip
difficulty in confined spaces.
 Page 230

B. The average operating time is over an hour. B. invert the extinguisher

C. The speed with which it can be put into operation is around 45 C. depress the upper grip
seconds.
D. The regulator is designed to provide the user with quick D. rotate the cutter disc valve wheel
adjustments to the air supply by a knob located near the high
pressure hose connection.
Ans: C Ans: C
4197 Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes 4198 While donning the demand-type self-contained breathing
_____________. apparatus, you discover that the air cylinder pressure gage and the
regulator pressure gage differ from each other by 35bar. Which of
the listed action should you consider as appropriate?

A. inspecting the pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within A. Replace the defective gauges with a new pair from the spare parts
operating range inventory.
B. weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of B. Replace the air cylinder with a full spare cylinder.
the weight of the charge
C. hydrostatic testing of the cylinder C. Assume that the lower reading is correct.
D. discharging, cleaning inside, and recharging D. Take the average of the two gauges as the correct pressure.
Ans: B Ans: C
4199 Which of the following statements describes the correct procedure 4200 Which of the fire extinguishers listed is to be weighed annually and
for closing a watertight door? sent ashore for recharging if the weight loss exceeds 10% of the
weight of a full charge?
A. Loosely set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinges, A. Foam
snugly set up two dogs on the hinge side, then evenly set up all the
remaining dogs.
B. Loosely set up two dogs adjacent to the hinges, snugly set up one B. Soda acid
dog on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the
remaining dogs.
C. Snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges, then C. Dry chemical
evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
D. Loosely set up one dog on the hinge side, snugly set up two dogs D. Carbon dioxide
on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the
remaining dogs.
Ans: A Ans: D
4201 Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers must be recharged 4202 With regards to the load line marks, the reason for the placement
_____________. of mark "WNA" is ______________.
A. when the remaining charge volume is less than 90% of the required A. more severe weather is expected in the North Atlantic in winter
volume
B. at each biennial inspection B. more freeboard is required in the North Atlantic in winter
C. at each annual inspection C. less draft is allowed in the North Atlantic in winter
D. when the remaining charge weight is 10% less than the required D. all of the above
weight
Ans: D Ans: D
4203 Water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the 4204 Which of the following statements is true concerning fire hose
_____________. stations used in the engine room of a tank or cargo vessel?

A. bow A. It must be marked in red letters two inches high

B. stern B. National Standard fire hose coupling threads shall be used having 9
threads per inch for 2 1/2 inch hose and 7 1/2 threads per inch for
1 1/2 inch hose.
C. keel C. In heavy weather, the hose may be removed temporarily from the
hydrant.
D. boot topping D. All of the above.
Ans: C Ans: A
4205 To prevent overpressurization when loading liquid petroleum 4206 Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should
products, cargo tanks should be fitted with a/an _________. be kept in good working order to prevent ___________.

A. pressure-vacuum valve A. escape of explosive vapors

B. ullage opening B. oil spillage on deck
C. overpressurization valve C. entry of burning substances
D. equalizing line D. damage to tank boundaries
Ans:
A Ans:
D
4207 Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on 4208 After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you
diesel fuel? close FIRST?
A. Secure all lighting to the main deck. A. Tank manifold filling valve
B. Provide a portable fan to blow away fumes. B. Pump discharge valve
C. Prohibit smoking in the area. C. Deck filling valve
D. Display a black triangle during daylight hours. D. Sea suction valve
Ans: C Ans: D
4209 During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to 4210 The "load on top" system used on many crude oil carriers, is to
your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source provide a method for _____________.
other than your vessel, you should _______.

A. secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined A. calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks
B. make an entry in the oil record book to that effect B. loading ballast by gravity
 Page 231

C. notify the Port control C. maintaining clean ballast cargo tanks, and the loading of new cargo
into the slop tank
D. All of the above D. calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank
Ans: C Ans: C
4211 If you are loading a low temperature petroleum cargo you must 4212 One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at
insure that __________. which bunker fuel may be received is by the _______________.

A. there is room for expansion A. type of fuel transfer pump

B. the vents are sealed B. size of the fuel storage tanks ashore
C. vapor baffles are installed C. distance to the fuel storage tanks ashore
D. all of the above D. number of tanks to be filled
Ans: A Ans: D
4213 Fire main outlet valves, or hydrants shall be installed 4214 Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether
_____________. or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should
_____________.
A. in screened enclosures in all passageways A. open the watertight door and take a quick look
B. where they are protected from the weather B. open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges
C. in a protected location to prevent cargo damage C. tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level
D. pointing downward or horizontal to prevent kinking of the fire hose D. feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot

Ans: D Ans: C
4215 If flammable liquids are being pumped with a centrifugal pump, you 4216 When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump,
should _____________. you should ____________.
A. stop the pump immediately if it becomes vapor bound A. lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation
B. throttle the discharge valve to assure positive pumping B. draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump
C. vent the pump casing continuously to expel vapors C. have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed

D. gag relief valves to prevent recirculating and heating of the liquid D. check for gland leakage and any fire hazard

Ans: A Ans: D
4217 Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with 4218 An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to
gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If detect methane leaks in the _____________.
the gas detector alarms sounds, this means _____________.

A. the detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor A. barrier spaces
concentration is 30 percent by volume
B. an explosion is about to take place B. cargo handling rooms
C. the detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the C. boiler burner supply piping
atmosphere is explosive
D. a flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is D. all of the above
too lean to burn
Ans: D Ans: D
4219 Which of the following statements describes how the main bank of 4220 During fueling operations, which of the listed precautions should be
CO2 bottles is released into an engine room from most fixed CO2 taken when topping off fuel tanks?
fire extinguishing systems?
A. Manually releasing the bottles in groups of four. A. Reduce the pumping rate by closing the deck filling valve.
B. CO2 pressure from the pilot cylinders. B. Close all overflow valves.
C. Steel wire trigger lines provided to all bottles in the main bank. C. Place 20 litre containers under all flange connections in the fuel line.

D. Remote pull cables provided to each group of four bottles in the D. Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently as the level
main bank. rises.
Ans: B Ans: D
4221 When a fuel oil tank is being topped off during bunkering 4222 The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel tank when fuel oil
operations, the tank valve should be closed ____________. is being received, is determined by the __________.
A. slowly to prevent surge stresses A. quantity of fuel to be received
B. to prevent gas from escaping through the pressure-vacuum relief B. flash point of the fuel as it is received
valves
C. after the shore pumps are stopped C. fuel temperature as it is received
D. rapidly to prevent overflow D. viscosity of the fuel being received
Ans: C Ans: C
4223 According to Regulations , when loading, or discharging oil in bulk 4224 According to Pollution Prevention Regulations , tank vessels are
at a dock, which of the following signals must be displayed? required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device
_____________.
A. A red flag (day), red light (night) A. shuts off the main propulsion plant
B. A yellow flag (day), red light (night) B. shuts off the firefighting foam systems
C. A green flag (day), green light (night) C. stops the flow of oil to shore facility or other vessel
D. A signal is not required for discharging oil, only gasoline D. secures electrical power to all motors
Ans:
A Ans:
C
4225 The emergency shutdown requirements of Pollution Prevention 4226 Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge
Regulations apply to _____________. into the water?
A. condensate pumps A. The vessel's Certificate of Inspection
B. air compressors B. The vessel's Oil Record Book
C. induced draft fans C. The vessel's Oil Transfer Procedures
D. cargo transfer systems D. The vessel's International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate
Ans: D Ans: C
 Page 232

4227 Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers should be sent ashore to 4228 Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be fitted with an alarm
be recharged _____________. to give an audible and visual warning when the oxygen content of
the inert gas exceeds ____________.
A. when the remaining charge volume is less than 90 percent of the A. 4% by volume
required VOLUME
B. at each inspection for certification B. 8% by volume
C. at each annual inspection C. 12% by volume
D. when the weight loss exceeds 10% of weight of charge D. 16% by volume
Ans: D Ans:
B
4229 What is the required combined capacity for all fans used in an inert 4230 Waste oil from the lube oil sumps of machinery may NOT be
gas system as related to the cargo pumps? _____________.
A. 0.5 A. drained into the vessel's bilges
B. 0.75 B. reclaimed for other uses
C. 1 C. held in a slop tank
D. 1.25 D. purified and then reused
Ans: D Ans: A
4231 The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent 4232 The Pollution Prevention Regulations state that a ship's oily bilge
________________. slops may be pumped in port only if the ______________.

A. flammable vapors from entering machinery space A. local port authority gives permission
B. flue gas escaping to atmosphere B. local port authority has completed the required pollution inspection

C. inert gas escaping to atmosphere C. discharge is led to a slop barge or shoreside tank
D. air entering inert gas system D. engineer on watch has signed the declaration of inspection
Ans: A Ans: C
4233 Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank 4234 According to regulation, a single layer flame screen of corrosion
soundings, you find that a fuel tank level has increased. You resistant wire is required to be of at least a mesh of ____________.
therefore should suspect _____________.
A. condensation in the fuel tank A. 8x8
B. a crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank B. 10 x 10
C. a load of bad fuel C. 20 x 20
D. contamination from the saltwater flushing system D. 30 x 30
Ans: B Ans: D
4235 A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative 4236 Which of the following statements represents the correct action to
oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by take when three crew members discover a fire?
_____________.
A. holding its slops onboard until they can be pumped into the city A. One man report the fire, and the other two men fight the fire.
sewer system
B. circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and B. One man report the fire, one man fight the fire, and one man
debris evacuate and secure the area.
C. holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a C. One man report the fire, one man fight the fire, and one man act as
shoreside reception facility a safety observer.
D. pumping them into a settling tank for separation before pumping D. All three men fight the fire and report it immediately after it is
the oily water residue overboard extinguished.
Ans: C Ans: B
4237 In an oil pumping operation where pumping connections are made 4238 While on watch in the engine room, you hear a continuous
up of flanged hoses the weakest link is the _________. sounding of the general alarm. Which of the following actions
should you take?
A. flange A. Make an entry in the official logbook.
B. hose B. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system.
C. stud C. Start the fire pump and check discharge pressure.
D. bolt hole D. Secure auxiliary condenser overboard discharge.
Ans: B Ans: C
4239 According to Pollution Prevention Regulations , no person may 4240 Which of the actions listed should be taken by the engineer on
connect or engage in any other critical oil transfer operation unless watch when the general alarm is sounded continuously for 10
_____________. seconds?
A. the designated person-in-charge is present A. Engine room ventilation should be started.
B. that person holds a tankerman endorsement B. Main engines should be secured.
C. that person holds a license as master, mate, or engineer C. The fire pump should be started.
D. that person holds a valid port security card D. The fixed CO2 system should be activated.
Ans: A Ans:
C
4241 Pollution Prevention Regulations specify that the person-in-charge 4242 According to Pollution Prevention Regulations , how much hose
of bunkering is responsible for the _____________. should you use in transferring oil in bulk?
A. vessel draft A. Twice the distance between ship and dock.
B. quantity of fuel received B. One and one half times the distance between ship and dock.
C. quality of fuel received C. Not over 300 feet (91.4 m) of hose.
D. communications with terminal operator D. Sufficient for maximum vessel movement without straining the
hoses.
Ans: D Ans: D
4243 The term "oily mixture", as defined in the Pollution Prevention 4244 Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen,
Regulations includes ______________. by volume, required to be achieved by a ship'sinert gas system,
prior to the commencement of crude oiltank washing?

A. sludge A. 0.06
B. oily ballast water B. 0.08
C. bilge slops C. 0.1
 Page 233

D. all of the above D. 0.12

Ans: D Ans: B
4245 Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut 4246 Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen
down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve indicators?
must close automatically upon ___________.
A. cargo pump failure A. The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate
reading of any space with no delay.
B. blower failure B. Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the
accuracy of the indicator.
C. deck seal low water level C. A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents
damaging the instrument when exposed to strongly acidic gases.

D. low inert gas temperature D. All of the above.

Ans: B Ans: B
4247 An inert gas system incorporating a separately fired inert gas 4248 Which of the following liquids can ordinarily be discharged
generator shall be provided with visual and audible alarms to overboard without being processed through an oily water
indicate failure of the power supply to the generator, the automatic separator?
control system, and _____________.
A. cooling water flow A. Cargo tank ballast
B. combustion air temp too low B. Segregated ballast
C. high sea water temperature C. Engine room bilges
D. insufficient fuel supply D. Cargo pumproom bilges
Ans: D Ans:
B
4249 People should be protected from the rotating parts of machinery by 4250 The word "discharge" as used in Pollution Prevention Regulations
_____________. applies to oil __________.
A. vents A. leaked into navigable waters
B. bright lights B. poured into navigable waters
C. reflective tape C. pumped into navigable waters through a fixed piping system
D. guards D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
4251 Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when 4252 The trim of a vessel is the _____________.
loading cold oil?
A. Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure, A. value of the mean draft
which increases the chance of a spill.
B. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole. B. degree of list

C. The change in its specific volume when heated may cause an C. amount of roll
overflow.
D. The fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil D. difference in fore and aft drafts
to spill before the valve can be opened.
Ans: C Ans: D
4253 Which of the following statements is true concerning a,Halon 1301 4254 Regulations require that lifejackets shall be _____________.
fixed extinguishing system?
A. The quantity of Halon supplied would be less than the quantity of A. provided for each person onboard
CO2 for the same space protected.
B. CO2 gas is used to propel the Halon to the space on fire. B. provided for all personnel on watch
C. The Halon must be agitated occasionally to ensure that it doesn't C. readily accessible to persons in the engine room
cake up.
D. All of the above. D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
4255 The most critical time for preventing an accidental oil spill during 4256 Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?
bunkering, is when the _____________.
A. tanks are being topped off A. Ship's articles
B. fuel begins to come aboard B. Muster List
C. hoses are being blown down C. Certificate of Inspection
D. hoses are being disconnected D. Manning Certificate
Ans: A Ans: B
4257 When administering only mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should 4258 Which of the listed classes of fires should be extinguished with a
continue the victim's ventilation rate at how many inflations per water fog?
minute?
A. 4 A. Class A and B
B. 8 B. Class A and C
C. 12 C. Class B and C
D. 20 D. Class A, B, and C
Ans: C Ans:
A
4259 The zipper of an immersion suit should be lubricated with 4260 The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to
_____________. _________.
A. paraffin A. the accumulation of explosive gases
B. oil B. faster cooling of the fire
C. graphite C. the fire spreading by way of the ventilation system
D. vegetable oil D. fixed foam systems to be ineffective
Ans: A Ans: C
4261 Topping lifts and runners supporting flexible cargo hoses should be 4262 The purpose of the vessel inclining experiment is to __________.
made fast to the ____________.
A. capstan A. determine the location of the metacenter
B. gypsy head B. determine the lightweight center of gravity location
 Page 234

C. cleats C. verify the hydrostatic data

D. manifold riser D. verify data in the vessel's operating manual
Ans: C Ans: B
4263 Atificial respiration to an adult should be administered 4264 Which of the firefighting agents listed is the least hazardous to
___________. personnel?
A. 4 to 6 times per minute A. CO2
B. 12 to 15 times per minute B. Steam
C. 20 to 30 times per minute C. Water
D. At least 30 times per minute D. Carbon tetrachloride
Ans: B Ans: C
4265 The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be 4266 The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers
inflated ____________. is ____________.
A. before you enter the water A. displacement of oxygen
B. after you enter the water B. skin irritation
C. after one hour in the water C. inhaling toxic vapors produced when exposed directly to a flame for
extended periods
D. after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy D. eye irritation produced immediately after discharge from cylinder

Ans: B Ans: C
4267 "Air gap" is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and 4268 Which of the listed conditions could cause a dangerous reduction
the __________. in oxygen in a shipboard compartment?
A. still water level A. Fire
B. wave crest B. Rusting or the drying of paint
C. wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal corrections C. Decomposing organic material

D. wave crest plus the charted water depth, plus tidal correction and D. All of the above conditions
storm surge
Ans: A Ans: D
4269 Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known as 4270 As a precaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you
____________. should _____________.
A. pitch A. close the deck filling valve to reduce the pumping rate
B. surge B. close all tank vents to prevent overflow
C. sway C. fill the tank to the bottom of the expansion trunk
D. heave D. notify the shore pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as
tanks near full capacity
Ans: C Ans: D
4271 The signal to man emergency stations is _________. 4272 When administering chest compression during CPR, at what part of
the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
A. a 30 second on - 30 second off alternating signal A. Lower half of the sternum
B. the continuous ringing of the general alarm signal B. Tip of the sternum
C. an intermittent ringing of the general alarm for not less than ten C. Top half of the sternum
seconds
D. announced over PA system D. Left chest over the heart
Ans: C Ans: A
4273 Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be effectively used on which of 4274 When removing the cap from a sounding tube ,the sound of air
the listed classes of fires? escaping indicates _______________.
A. Class "A" only A. the tank is full
B. Class "B" only B. the tank may be partially flooded
C. Class "B" and "C" only C. the tank level has dropped
D. Class "A" and "C" only D. the tank is completely flooded
Ans: C Ans: B
4275 When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the 4276 If a liferaft should capsize, _____________.
height of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to
______________.
A. height of the metacenter A. climb onto the bottom
B. height of the center of gravity B. swim away from the raft
C. same as half the height of the metacenter C. right the raft using the righting straps
D. zero D. inflate the righting bag
Ans:
D Ans: C
4277 A solid stream of water might be useful in fighting a burning oil fire 4278 Yawing is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
on deck when it is used ____________.
A. to wash burning oil over the side A. Longitudinal
B. to provide cooling for the fire fighters B. Transverse
C. in conjunction with chemical foam C. Vertical
D. to cool the main deck D. Centerline
Ans: A Ans: C
4279 If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution 4280 The signal for fire alarm on a vessel must be indicated
hazard during fuel transfer operations on a ship, which of the listed ____________.
actions should be taken first?
A. Wait for the person-in-charge to act. A. at each alarm bell
B. Notify the ballast control operator. B. at each alarm actuator
C. Shutdown the transfer operations. C. near all exits
D. Sound the fire alarm. D. on the station bill
Ans: C Ans: D
 Page 235

4281 Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted 4282 Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire
aboard liferafts to look for _____________. extinguisher is accomplished by ______________.

A. survivors in the water A. authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only

B. food and water B. replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder
C. land C. puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
D. bad weather D. recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder
Ans: A Ans: B
4283 Heave is the motion of a vessel along the _____________. 4284 Pollution Prevention Regulations (MARPOL) state that when a tank
vessel is discharging cargo, each sea suction valve connected to
the vessel's oil transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be
____________.
A. longitudinal axis A. sealed or lashed closed
B. transverse axis B. fitted with a blank flange
C. vertical axis C. fitted with an anti-siphon device
D. centerline axis D. lined up for immediate use
Ans: C Ans: A
4285 You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing 4286 Why should passageway fires be fought from one end only?
into the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the
lungs. Which of the following actions should you take?

A. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. A. This action will cause the passageway to become slippery and
difficult for fire fighters to stand.
B. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. B. So that one hose team does not push the flames heat and smoke
directly at the other hose team.
C. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any C. It is impossible for the fire main to handle two fully pressurized
obstruction. hoses.
D. Re-tip the head and try again. D. So that the extinguishing water can be trapped at the end of the
passageway.
Ans: D Ans: B
4287 CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads 4288 Keeping the draft of a vessel at, or below the load line mark, insures
will discharge automatically when ______________. the unit will have adequate _______________.
A. the discharge valve is open A. reserve ballast
B. the control box glass is broken B. reserve buoyancy
C. pressure from the control cylinders is initially detected C. lightweight displacement
D. the control cylinders have been completely discharged D. critical motion
Ans: C Ans: B
4289 In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be 4290 Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced by mechanically
given only to personnel who are ______________. mixing and agitating _____________.
A. thirsty A. soda acid and water
B. sick or injured B. dry chemical and water
C. wet C. foam chemical with air and water
D. awake D. bicarbonate soda with air and water
Ans: B Ans: C
4291 After you have put water on a burning mattress, and the fire 4292 When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the
appears to have been extinguished, you should then metacenter is called the ______________.
_____________.
A. dry the mattress in a warm area A. metacentric differential
B. make sure the fire is out with CO2 B. height of the baseline
C. pull the mattress apart to ensure no fire remains C. height of the metacenter
D. secure the mattress in a well ventilated area D. righting arm
Ans:
C Ans: C
4293 Which of the listed devices is required to be located on the 4294 Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of _______.
discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?
A. Pressure gage A. drowning
B. Strainer B. electrocution
C. Reduction valve C. poisoning
D. International shore connection D. All of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
4295 Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when the cylinder 4296 The discharge side of every fire pump must be provided with a
charge weight is less than what percent of the stamped full weight ______________.
charge?
A. 0.8 A. gate valve
B. 0.85 B. pressure gage
C. 0.9 C. check valve
D. 0.95 D. strainer
Ans: C Ans:
B
4297 When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, 4298 Which of the devices listed must be used in conjunction with the
the personnel on the raft should ______________. portable in-line foam proportioner to produce foam?
A. deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of capsizing A. A plain or common fire hose nozzle
B. inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability B. The mechanical foam nozzle
C. remove their lifejackets to prepare for the transfer C. Any low velocity applicator
D. take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling D. An all-purpose nozzle
Ans: A Ans: B
 Page 236

4299 The relief valve on a fire pump is set at 1.75kg/cm2 (25 psi )above 4300 The horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of
the pressure necessary to maintain the required fire hose streams, gravity and the buoyant forces is called the ___________.
or ___________.
A. 3.5kg/cm2 A. righting arm
B. 5.0kg/cm2 B. metacentric height
C. 8.8kg/cm2 C. metacentric radius
D. 10.5kg/cm2 D. height of the center of buoyancy
Ans:
C Ans:
A
4301 The amount of Halon remaining in a fire extinguisher cylinder is 4302 The order of importance in addressing damage control on a floating
determined by ______________. ship is ________________.
A. internal inspection A. control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage
B. checking the quantity indicating gauge B. restore vital services, control fire, control flooding
C. weighing the cylinder C. control fire, restore vital services, control flooding
D. checking the tag D. control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage
Ans: C Ans: D
4303 The use of flexible hose pipes to connect the crude oil washing 4304 Which of the following is NOT a recommended safe practice?
machines is permitted only on ________________.
A. product tankers A. Securing equipment against slipping or drifting.
B. crude oil tankers B. Operating machinery at its recommended speed.
C. combination OBO tankers C. Repairing loose handles on tools before using.
D. chemical tankers D. Using tools for purposes for which they are not designed.
Ans: C Ans: D
4305 Fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker shall be isolated from the 4306 If accidents are considered as an "unexpected contact", you will be
crude oil washing system by ____________. able to perform a better job by observing which of the following
practices?
A. spade blanks A. Looking for unsafe practices.
B. face blanks B. Inspecting for unsafe conditions.
C. nonreturn valves C. Analyzing jobs for safer methods.
D. automatic closing valves D. Doing all of the above.
Ans:
A Ans:
D
4307 Antiseptics are used principally to ___________. 4308 Low velocity water fog is very effective in _____________.
A. promote healing A. removing toxic fumes from the air
B. prevent infection B. controlling the movement of burning oil
C. reduce inflammation C. removing combustible vapors from the air
D. increase blood circulation D. shielding fire fighters from the fire
Ans: B Ans: D
4309 Which type of firefighting foam listed is supplied in both 3% and 6% 4310 What information can be obtained from a marine
concentrations? chemist'scertificate issued to a fishing vessel?
A. Mechanical foam A. The number of fire extinguishers required onboard.
B. Protein foam B. The quality of fuel in the vessel's tanks
C. Aqueous film forming foam C. The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued

D. All of the above D. The vessel's stability information

Ans: D Ans: C
4311 The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. 4312 Sufficient portable drive heads for a crude oil washing system must
The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as be provided in order to avoid one head being used during the tank
the center of ______________. washing procedure more than __________.

A. effort A. 2 times
B. flotation B. 3 times
C. gravity C. 4 times
D. buoyancy D. 5 times
Ans: D Ans: B
4313 If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course 4314 A seaman has sustained a small, gaping laceration of the arm
of action should be to ________________. requiring sutures to close if medical facilities were available. Which
of the following remedies can be done to temporarily close the
wound?
A. remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel A. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound.
B. head for the closest land B. Gently close the wound and while holding it closed apply a
compression bandage.
C. head for the closest sea-lanes C. Use temporary stitches of sail twine.
D. get a majority opinion D. Apply butterfly strips and cover with a sterile dressing.
Ans: A Ans: D
4315 No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal, in order 4316 Aqueous film forming firefighting foam is also known as
to _______________. _____________.
A. avoid kinking the hose A. chemical foam
B. avoid personal injury during connection B. high-expansion foam
C. make connecting easier C. mechanical foam
D. prevent spray on electrical equipment D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: C
4317 When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent, the fire is 4318 A person reports to you with a fishhook in their thumb. The
extinguished principally by the ____________. accepted procedure for removing it should be to ___________.

A. isolation of the fuel A. pull it out with pliers

B. absorption of heat B. cut the skin from around the hook
C. displacement of gases of combustion C. push the barb through, cut it off, and then remove the hook
 Page 237

D. extinguishment of incipient smoldering D. have a surgeon remove it

Ans: B Ans: C
4319 A vessel is subjected to "hogging" when it __________. 4320 Which of the actions listed and instituted on your part will have the
greatest lasting effect on the crew with respect to safety?

A. has its main deck under compressive stress A. Posting posters illustrating practices
B. has its bottom plating under tensile stress B. Showing video tapes of actual accidents
C. is supported on a wave whose crests are at the bow and stern C. Incorporating safety practices in daily routine

D. is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships D. Publishing comprehensive safety rules

Ans: D Ans: C
4321 At which of the listed tank locations should you obtain oxygen 4322 When a floating vessel inclines to an angle slightly greater than the
content readings prior to tank washing? angle of loll, it will ____________.
A. At the hatch coaming and tank bottom. A. capsize
B. At the hatch coaming and middle of the tank. B. incline further
C. At the middle and bottom of the tank. C. flop to the other side
D. At the center of the ullage and one meter below deck. D. return to the angle of loll
Ans: D Ans: D
4323 Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest 4324 Initial stability refers to the vessel's stability ________.
capacity for heat absorption?
A. Water fog A. at small angles of inclination
B. Dry chemical B. when loaded with minimum deck load
C. Chemical foam C. when at transit draft
D. Carbon dioxide D. when GZ is zero
Ans: A Ans: A
4325 Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include 4326 Which of the following must be carried out in order to launch and
_______________. inflate an inflatable liferaft?
A. opening dead spaces to check for fire or lingering sources of heat A. Pull on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter.

B. evacuation of the vessel B. Push on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter.
C. immediately sounding the "all clear" signal C. Push on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter.
D. operation of the emergency generator D. Pull on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter.
Ans:
A Ans:
B
4327 Which of the documents listed will describe lifesaving equipment 4328 The maximum draft to which a cargo ship may be safely loaded is
located aboard your vessel? called __________.
A. Station bill A. mean draft
B. Certificate of Inspection B. calculated draft
C. Forecastle card C. deep draft
D. Clearance papers D. load line draft
Ans: B Ans: D
4329 A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants for each 4330 The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by
accessible space to be reached with ______________. _____________.
A. a low velocity spray applicator A. applying direct pressure on the wound
B. a water spray or solid stream B. elevating the wounded area
C. at least two spray patterns of water C. applying pressure on a pressure point
D. at least 1.75kg/cm2 delivered pressure D. applying a tourniquet above the wound
Ans: C Ans: A
4331 With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration 4332 You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An
is the preservation of ________________. electric wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the
FIRST thing you should do?
A. bilge pumping capacity A. Shut off the power or remove the wire from the person.
B. reserve buoyancy B. Immediately begin artificial respiration.
C. level attitude C. Immediately begin cardiac massage.
D. instability D. Leave the accident scene and summon medical assistance.
Ans: B Ans: A
4333 Water applied as a "fog" can be more effective than water applied 4334 The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G)
as a "solid stream", because _____________. to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known
as the _________________.
A. a given amount of water can absorb more heat when it is in the A. metacentric height
form of fog
B. it reduces the total amount of water that must be pumped into the B. metacentric radius
ship to fight a given fire
C. it does not have to hit the seat of fire to be effective C. height of the metacenter
D. of all of the above D. righting arm
Ans: D Ans: A
4335 On a cargo ship, firefighting equipment must be inspected once 4336 Bleeding from a vein can be characterized as _____________.
every _______________.
A. three months A. dark red and slow
B. six months B. bright red and slow
C. twelve months C. bright red and spurting
D. eighteen months D. dark red and spurting
Ans: C Ans: A
4337 After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, 4338 Control valves for a CO2 fire extinguishing system may be located
the next immediate action is for the space to be ____________. within the protected space when _____________.

A. opened and burned material removed A. it is impractical to locate them outside

 Page 238

B. left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool B. there is also a control valve outside
C. checked for the proper oxygen level C. the CO2 cylinders are also in the space
D. opened and doused with water to prevent reflash D. an automatic heat sensing trip is installed
Ans:
B Ans:
C
4339 If the cause of severe list, or trim is due to off-center ballast, 4340 As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain
counterflooding into empty tanks will ____________. conditions as it can cause _____________.
A. increase the righting moment A. hallucinations
B. increase the righting arm B. burns and blistering
C. increase list or trim C. undulation
D. decrease list or trim D. carbon monoxide poisoning
Ans: D Ans: B
4341 The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the 4342 A quick and rapid motion of a floating vessel in a seaway is an
_______________. indication of ____________.
A. metacentric height A. large "GM"
B. height of the metacenter above the keel B. high center of gravity
C. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel C. excessive free surfaces
D. height of the center of gravity above the keel D. small "GZ"
Ans: D Ans: A
4343 A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries 4344 The object of plugging holes below the waterline on a ship should
should __________. be to ____________.
A. be assisted in walking around A. eliminate all water entering through the hole
B. be examined then walked to a bunk B. only plug holes in machinery or other vital spaces
C. not be moved, but made comfortable until medical assistance C. reduce the entry of water as much as possible
arrives, provided he is in a safe environment
D. not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or D. plug the largest holes first
bunk
Ans: C Ans: C
4345 What is the function of the small gas accumulator cylinder attached 4346 A CO2 fire extinguisher is checked by __________.
to the discharge piping of the engine room fixed CO2 system?

A. It absorbs the pressure shock to the piping resulting from the initial A. reading the gage pressure
release of carbon dioxide.
B. It delays the release of carbon dioxide into the engine room. B. weighing the extinguisher
C. It directly activates the warning siren in the engine room. C. discharging a small amount of CO2
D. It controls the rate of discharge of carbon dioxide into the engine D. checking for broken inspection seals
room.
Ans: B Ans: B
4347 Your assigned emergency stations aboard your vessel can be 4348 You should operate a fixed CO2 system by opening the control
found on the ship's ______________. valve to the space protected and ___________.
A. clearance papers A. visually checking to see that CO2 is discharging through the piping

B. permit to proceed B. operating a separate control to release CO2

C. certificate of inspection C. listening for the sound of the warning siren
D. muster list D. modulating the proper amount of CO2 from individual bottles
Ans:
D Ans:
B
4349 Operation of the release control valve on a fixed CO2 fire 4350 In order to release CO2 to the machinery spaces, you must
extinguishing system, must automatically ______________. physically open the engine room ____________.
A. release CO2 to the protected space A. control valve and actuate the alarm
B. secure all mechanical ventilation in the protected space B. CO2 releasing valve and actuate the alarm
C. sound the general alarm signal for a fire C. control valve, then open the CO2 releasing valve
D. sound an alarm in the ballast control room D. control valve, then shut off the engine room ventilation
Ans: B Ans: C
4351 How often must fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems be inspected 4352 Portable Halon fire extinguishers used may be charged with
to confirm the cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full charge _______________.
weight?
A. Quarterly. A. HALON 1301 only
B. Semiannually. B. HALON 22 only
C. Annually. C. HALON 1211 only
D. Biannually. D. HALON 1301 or 1211
Ans: C Ans: C
4353 Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a broken 4354 The most effective means for combating an oil fire on the water
bone should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and surrounding a vessel is to use _____________.
_______________.
A. the bone has been set A. high velocity fog over the fire
B. the fracture is immobilized B. solid streams of water directed at the edge of the fire
C. radio advice has been obtained C. dry chemicals over the fire
D. the wound has been washed D. foam directed against the side of the vessel
Ans:
B Ans:
D
4355 The usual method for effectively applying foam on a fire is by 4356 At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a vessel's stability is
___________. the _____________.
A. spraying directly on the base of the fire A. metacentric height
B. flowing the foam down a vertical surface B. displacement
C. sweeping the fire before you with the foam C. righting moment
D. spraying directly on the surface of the fire D. inclining moment
Ans: B Ans: C
 Page 239

4357 The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water 4358 The inspection of portable fire extinguishers must be
is equal to the _______________. _______________.
A. weight required to sink the vessel A. accomplished by an authorized servicing representative
B. total weight of the vessel B. recorded by the person-in-charge
C. displaced submerged volume C. completed every six months
D. reserve buoyancy D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: B
4359 When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the 4360 On a cargo ship equipped with a combination detection-carbon
center of gravity, a vessel has what type of stability? dioxide system, the presence of fire is indicated at the cabinet
simultaneously in two spaces: #3 hold upper between decks,
containing bagged coffee beans; and #4 lower hold containing
fertilize
A. Stable A. open the three-way valves to each space simultaneously
B. Neutral B. open the applicable three-way valve for #3 hold and fight the fire in
#4 hold with water
C. Unstable C. open the applicable three-way valve for #4 hold. After discharge,
secure the valve; then open the applicable valve for #3 hold.

D. Positive D. activate the pilot CO2 cylinders, directing the discharge to #3 hold,
then to #4 hold through the three-way valve
Ans: C Ans: C
4361 Foam extinguishes a fire by _____________. 4362 When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the
center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is
________________.
A. chemically absorbing the oxygen A. stable
B. smothering the burning material B. neutral
C. chemically absorbing the burning material C. unstable
D. releasing large amounts of carbon dioxide D. negative
Ans:
B Ans: B
4363 Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a person in 4364 Foam extinguishes a fire by ____________.
shock?
A. Warm and dry A. destroying the burning materials
B. Warm and damp B. chemical reaction with the burning material
C. Cold and dry C. absorbing the burning material
D. Cold and damp D. smothering the burning material
Ans: D Ans:
D
4365 Which of the following conditions is NOT a symptom of traumatic 4366 Extinguishing an oil fire when using foam is a result of
shock? _____________.
A. Slow deep breathing A. Cooling
B. Pale and cold skin B. Dampening
C. Weak and rapid pulse C. Smothering
D. Restlessness and anxiety D. Vapor absorbtion
Ans: A Ans: C
4367 Which of the following procedures is always recommended in the 4368 When treating a person for shock, you should wrap the victim in
rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing warm coverings to ____________.
an unsafe atmosphere?
A. Have the rescuers wear an approved self-contained breathing A. decrease body heat
apparatus.
B. Have the rescuers carry in a stokes basket for the victim. B. preserve present body heat
C. Have the rescuer carry an emergency first aid kit for the victim. C. avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic movement

D. Have the rescuers carry a combustible gas analyzer. D. protect the person from injury during transportation
Ans: A Ans: B
4369 A person who observes an individual fall overboard from a ship 4370 The reserve buoyancy of a vessel varies directly with changes in
should ______________. the vessel's _____________.
A. immediately jump into the water to assist the individual A. free surface
B. call for help and keep the individual in sight B. freeboard
C. run to the radio room to send an emergency message C. rolling period
D. go to the control room for the distress flares D. none of the above
Ans: B Ans: B
4371 Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of 4372 High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to
raising the ____________. personnel because they can _____________.
A. uncorrected "KG" A. cause involuntary skeletal muscle contractions
B. virtual height of the center of gravity B. paralyze your breathing system
C. metacenter C. cause eye inflammation
D. metacentric height D. cause dizziness
Ans: B Ans: B
4373 Which of the following statements is true concerning the actions of 4374 After an accident, the victim may go into shock and die. Which of
a properly organized rescue party for removing an unconscious the following actions should be taken to help prevent shock?
victim from a tank containing toxic vapors?
A. The victim should not be moved until the extent of his injuries is A. Slightly elevate the head and feet.
determined.
B. The victim should be fitted with a canister type OBA as soon as B. Keep the person awake.
possible.
C. The rescue party should provide the victim with oxygen or fresh air C. Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature.
immediately.
 Page 240

D. The tank vapors should be tested with an explosimeter before D. Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow.
personnel enter.
Ans: C Ans: C
4375 Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat? 4376 The empty weight of a "100 pound" (45.4 kg) cylinder in a fixed CO2
system is 130 pounds (58.9 kg). What is the minimum acceptable
total weight of the cylinder before recharging is required?

A. To prevent the davits from pulling up against the stops. A. 200 lbs (90.7 kg)
B. To assist in cranking in the lifeboat. B. 210 lbs (95.2 kg)
C. To keep the tricing lines from releasing or getting tangled. C. 220 lbs (99.8 kg)
D. To stop the lifeboat from being lowered. D. 230 lbs (104.3 kg)
Ans: A Ans: C
4377 The maximum concentration of hydrogen sulfide to which workers 4378 When the engine room fixed CO2 system is activated, which of the
may be regularly exposed without adverse effects is following actions should be taken FIRST if the automatic fuel oil and
_____________. ventilation shutoffs have failed to operate?

A. 10 ppm A. Manually operate the remote shutdown controls.

B. 20 ppm B. Activate an additional CO2 bottle to increase pressure on the
pressure switch plunger.
C. 40 ppm C. Send someone down to manually secure the fuel oil pumps and
ventilation fans.
D. 80 ppm D. Discharge extra carbon dioxide into the engine room.
Ans: B Ans: A
4379 Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam ________. 4380 The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after
a change in load has occurred is known as _____________.

A. penetrates to the bottom of the fire A. trim

B. is kept saturated with low velocity water fog B. change of trim
C. mixes with the burning fuel oil C. final trim
D. completely covers the top of the burning liquid D. change of draft
Ans: D Ans: B
4381 When fighting a fire on deck with foam, you should ________. 4382 A weathertight door on a ocean going ship must not allow water to
penetrate into the unit _____________.
A. play the foam stream directly on the burning oil A. in 50 knot winds
B. play the foam stream off nearby vertical vessel structures B. in 70 knot winds
C. only use the foam on flowing liquids C. in 100 knot winds
D. play the foam stream on the base of the fire with whirling motion D. in any sea condition

Ans: B Ans: D
4383 Which of the following machinery space operations is required to 4384 In firefighting, the term "protecting exposures" means
be logged in the Oil Record Book? _____________.
A. Ballasting or cleaning of fuel oil tanks. A. protecting fire fighters from direct exposure to the heat of the fire

B. Shifting suction of main fuel pump to reserve fuel oil tank. B. keeping flames from burning at the tank vents
C. Changing out sprayer plates to adjust for steam demand. C. protecting exposed areas of the superstructure from flames
D. Daily inspection of engine room bilges. D. taking measures to prevent the spread of fire from the involved
compartment to an adjacent compartment
Ans: A Ans: D
4385 Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire involving 4386 For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel
_____________. and the _____________.
A. oil A. waterline
B. burning insulation B. freeboard deck
C. hot bulkheads C. Plimsoll mark
D. electrical machinery D. amidships section
Ans: A Ans: A
4387 First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to 4388 Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as "light
____________. water", is especially suitable for fighting _____________.

A. area of the body burned A. oil fires in the engine room bilges
B. source of heat causing the burn B. class B fires in paint lockers
C. layers of skin affected C. any class D fire
D. size of the burned area D. all of the above
Ans:
C Ans:
A
4389 The approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan 4390 When treating a person for third degree burns, you should
expires after __________. ___________.
A. one year A. submerge the burn area in cold water
B. two years B. make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation
C. four years C. cover the burns with thick sterile dressing
D. five years D. break blisters and remove dead tissue
Ans: D Ans: C
4391 The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is _____________. 4392 The centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a lifeboat handling
winch is intended to _____________.
A. manually disengaged when hoisting a boat A. automatically stop the boat if electric power fails
B. applied by dropping the counterweighted lever B. mechanically stop the boat when the hand brake fails
C. controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism C. hold the load suspended during lowering operations
D. automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive D. automatically control the speed of lowering by gravity
 Page 241

Ans: B Ans: D
4393 A device for preventing sparks or flames from entering a tank, yet 4394 A shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required of _________.
permitting the free passage of gases is _____.
A. gas absorption detector A. all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application
B. pressure-vacuum relief valve B. any barge or other ship which is constructed or operated in such a
manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard
C. flame screen C. an oil tanker of 150 gross tons or above, or other ship of 400 gross
tons or above
D. sacrificial anode D. an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150
gross tons and above
Ans: C Ans: C
4395 A fine mesh wire screen is fitted to tank vent pipes to prevent 4396 Which of the toxic gases listed is a product of incomplete
_____________. combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed
compartment?
A. passage of flames into the tank A. Carbon dioxide
B. entry of rodents into the tank B. Hydrogen sulfide
C. debris stopping up the vent pipe C. Carbon monoxide
D. embers from a fire entering the tank D. Nitric oxide
Ans: A Ans: C
4397 Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a ship must be 4398 Why are flame screens an important safety device?
stowed _____________.
A. in a locked cabinet in the machinery space A. They provide a "dead air space" within a fuel tank.
B. in an unlocked cabinet in the machinery space B. They accelerate the dispersal of fuel vapors.
C. in a separate and accessible location C. They prevent the passage of flames from or into closed spaces.

D. at a fire hydrant location D. They smother flames once a fire has been started.
Ans: C Ans: C
4399 If a crewman suffers a second degree burn on the arm, you should 4400 On a ship, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for
____________________. the fixed firefighting system must be __________.
A. drain any blisters A. posted with instructions on the operation of the system
B. apply antiseptic ointment B. ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
C. scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infection C. painted with red and black diagonal stripes
D. immerse the arm in cold water D. equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting

Ans: D Ans: A
4401 On a ship, the locker or space containing the self-contained 4402 Each hand portable fire extinguisher carried on a ship must be
breathing apparatus must be _____________. marked with ____________.
A. located in close proximity to the main control station A. the name of the unit on which it is located
B. equipped with battery powered emergency lighting B. the date that it was installed on the unit
C. marked "SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS" C. the names of the individuals qualified to use it
D. all of the above D. an identification number different from other extinguishers on the
unit
Ans: C Ans: D
4403 In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items 4404 A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by _________.
are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by
a/an ____________.
A. number A. gently flooding with water
B. abbreviation B. warming the eye with moist warm packs
C. letter C. laying the person flat on his back
D. all of the above D. mineral oil drops directly on the eye
Ans: C Ans:
A
4405 Severe airway burns will cause _____________________. 4406 Which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous
combustion?
A. nausea A. Coal
B. reddening of cheeks B. Scrap rubber
C. complete obstruction of respiratory passages C. Leather
D. nosebleed D. All of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
4407 Which is the best way to ensure adequate oxygen is present for 4408 The FIRST action in the treatment of a person suspected of having
safe entry into a seldomly used cargo tank? airway burns is to ____________.
A. Test tank atmosphere with a combustible gas indicator. A. move him to a cool location
B. Observe the amount of rust deposited on the tank's surface. B. confirm and maintain an open airway
C. Ventilate the tank with fresh air and test with an oxygen indicator. C. apply cool damp dressing to his neck

D. Open the manhole cover for approximately ten minutes. D. have him drink cool liquids
Ans: C Ans: B
4409 A vessel would most likely develop a list if you were 4410 It shall be insured that each lifeboat on a cargo ship is lowered to
_____________. the water, launched, and operated at least once every
_____________.
A. burning fuel from a centerline tank A. month
B. using water from two equally sized tanks on either side of the B. two months
centerline simultaneously
C. using fuel from tanks on the port side only C. three months
D. using water from the fore peak tank D. six months
Ans: C Ans: C
 Page 242

4411 How should a Halon fire extinguisher be used to extinguish an 4412 Which of the following types of bearings is designed to limit end
electrical fire? movement and carry loads applied in the same direction as the
shaft axis?
A. Apply by bouncing agent off nearby bulkheads. A. Rigidly mounted reduction gear bearing
B. Use a quick sweeping motion towards the base of the fire. B. Segmental pivoted-shoe thrust bearing
C. Always direct discharge at the source of the fire. C. Self-aligning radial bearing
D. It shouldn't be used on an electrical fire. D. Spherically-seated radial bearing
Ans: C Ans:
B
4413 Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with 4414 Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon
___________. 1301 fire extinguishing agent?
A. acids or alkalies A. The agent is highly toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders.
B. diesel oil B. The agent is less effective than carbon dioxide.
C. acids, but not alkalies C. Halon extinguishes the fire by a chain breaking reaction.
D. alkalies, but not acids D. The agent can not be used on electrical fires because it leaves a
residue.
Ans: A Ans: C
4415 Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed uses a chain breaking 4416 The person on a ship who is responsible for maintaining the
action to put out a fire? engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the
_____________.
A. Halon 1211 A. master, or person-in-charge
B. Halon 1301 B. chief engineer, or engineer-in-charge
C. Purple K C. senior mechanic, or mechanic on duty if no senior mechanic
designated
D. All of the above D. senior electrician, or electrician on duty if no senior electrician
designated
Ans: D Ans: B
4417 Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a ship is the 4418 Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a ship must
responsibility of the ______________. be made at intervals not exceeding ____________.
A. Chief Officer A. 18 months
B. Chief Engineer B. two years
C. Officer in charge C. three years
D. Master D. five years
Ans: D Ans: D
4419 Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to electric shock, 4420 Halogenated fire extinguishing agents such as Halon 1301
the FIRST medical response is to check for ____________. extinguish fires by _____________.

A. indication of broken bones A. cooling

B. breathing and heartbeat B. producing excess CO2
C. location of burns C. breaking the chain reaction
D. bleeding injuries D. foaming action
Ans: B Ans: C
4421 What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio 4422 When a rescuer discovers a burn victim in the vicinity of electrical
beacon if you are in a liferaft during storm conditions? equipment or wiring, his first step is to ________________.

A. Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on. A. flush water over any burned area of the patient
B. Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes. B. apply ointment to the burned areas on the patient
C. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on. C. shutdown electrical power in the area
D. Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off. D. remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment
or wiring
Ans: A Ans: C
4423 After being launched from a ship, a totally enclosed survival craft 4424 Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to _________.
which has been afloat over a long period of time, requires
_______________.
A. frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air A. flood the burn with water for two minutes
B. regular checks of bilge levels B. brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area
C. use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise C. cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to
a medical facility
D. frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water D. apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean
cloth
Ans: B Ans: C
4425 The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to 4426 A patient has an electrical burn, after checking breathing and pulse,
______________. ____________.
A. right it in case of capsize A. look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the
current exiting the body
B. increase area for radar detection B. locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for
five minutes
C. act as a sail in case of a power loss C. remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn
D. steady the craft in heavy seas D. apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth
Ans: A Ans: A
4427 Normally fire hose should be stowed with the ___________. 4428 To prevent the spread of fire by convection ____________.
A. female end connected to the fire hydrant A. cool the bulkhead around the fire
B. male end attached to the fire hydrant B. remove combustibles from direct exposure
C. female end connected to the nozzle C. close all openings to the area
D. female end and nozzle arranged to be quickly run out to the fire D. shut off all electrical power

Ans: A Ans: C
 Page 243

4429 If an oil spill occurs on deck, you should _____________. 4430 Which of the listed burning materials would be described as a class
"B" fire?
A. cover the area with foam A. Acetylene
B. cover the area with absorbent material B. Lube oil
C. wash down immediately with a fire hose C. Grease
D. wash down immediately with an oil dispersing solvent D. All of the above
Ans:
B Ans: D
4431 Dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire by 4432 At a speed of six knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last
_____________. ________.
A. cooling the fuel below ignition temperature A. 8 hours
B. smothering and removing the oxygen from the fuel B. 12 hours
C. breaking up the molecular chain reaction C. 24 hours
D. removing the fuel by absorbing the heated vapors D. 48 hours
Ans: C Ans: C
4433 With the air supply on, the air pressure in the survival craft will be 4434 Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?
_____________.
A. changing in relation to the speed of the craft A. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, and skin
is cold and clammy.
B. less than outside air pressure B. Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, and skin is hot and
dry.
C. greater than outside air pressure C. Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, and skin is clammy.

D. equal to outside air pressure D. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, and skin is clammy.

Ans: C Ans: B
4435 Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to _____________. 4436 The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a
_____________.
A. start the engine in cold weather A. hydraulic system
B. aid in helping personnel breathe B. pneumatic system
C. prime the sprinkler system C. spare battery
D. prime the air supply D. hand crank
Ans: A Ans: D
4437 If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel 4438 When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas,
should be ______________. the person in charge of the survival craft should ______________.

A. loaded more on port side to forward A. tie up to the rescue vessel

B. loaded equally on both sides with more forward B. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
C. loaded equally on both sides with more aft C. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
D. allowed to sit anywhere D. transfer all personnel immediately
Ans: C Ans: C
4439 When an electrical fire has been extinguished with a dry chemical 4440 The survival craft engine is fueled with _____________.
agent, there is always a possibility of the _________.

A. machinery suffering thermal shock damage A. kerosene

B. fire being rekindled by spontaneous combustion B. unleaded gasoline
C. electrical contacts or relays being rendered inoperative C. diesel oil
D. chemical crystals suffocating the fire fighter D. liquefied gas
Ans: C Ans: C
4441 During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the 4442 Which of the following methods should be used to prevent a class
survival craft should _____________. "A" fire in a topside compartment, with steel bulkheads, from
spreading to the adjacent compartments?
A. pass out food and water to personnel A. Sweep all exterior surfaces with water water fog until the fire is
reportedly extingished.
B. open the doors and start the sprinkler system B. Sweep all exterior surfaces with a solid stream of water until the fire
is reportedly extinguished.
C. activate the emergency release handle C. Sweep all exterior surfaces with a solid stream of water until steam
is no longer produced, secure the nozzel, and repeat as necessary.

D. open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding D. Sweep all exterior surfaces with water fog until steam is no longer
produced, secure the nozzle, and repeat as necessary.

Ans: D Ans: D
4443 While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped 4444 When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct
____________. the crewman to __________.
A. when the craft clears the water A. check the fuel level
B. when the cable has been attached B. open the doors
C. on approach to the platform C. take the lifejackets off
D. at the embarkation D. check that hooks are fully locked in place
Ans: A Ans: D
4445 Small oil spills on deck can be kept from contaminating the 4446 A class "C" fire would occur in _____________.
surrounding waters by _____________.
A. driving wooden plugs into the vents A. bedding
B. closing the lids on the vents B. pipe insulation
C. plugging the scuppers C. paint
D. keeping plugs in the sounding pipes D. a generator
Ans: C Ans: D
 Page 244

4447 A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You 4448 The best way to effectively use a dry chemical type fire extinguisher
should __________. in fighting a fire, is to _____________.
A. immerse the feet in warm water A. discharge a stream horizontally and allow it to flow down evenly on
all burning surfaces
B. warm the feet with a heat lamp B. discharge a stream at the base of the fire, starting at the near edge,
and use side-to-side sweeping motions
C. warm the feet at room temperature C. play the stream off adjacent vertical surfaces until the area is
blanketed
D. rub the feet to restore circulation D. use concentrated amounts in small locations and put the fire out in
sections
Ans: A Ans: B
4449 When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue 4450 Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire
vessel, personnel onboard the craft should ____________. by ____________.

A. remove their lifejackets to make it easier to climb onboard the A. removing the heat
rescue vessel
B. climb on top of the survival craft while waiting for their turn to B. removing the oxygen
transfer to the rescue vessel
C. remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one C. removing the fuel
person at a time
D. enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel D. interrupting the chain reaction
Ans: C Ans: C
4451 The ventilation system aboard your vessel has fire dampers 4452 If a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle
restrained by fusible links. Which of the following statements shut off, the fire hose will ____________.
concerning the fusible links is true?
A. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and A. burst under pressure
reset the damper.
B. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification. B. lash about violently

C. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them. C. remain motionless
D. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is closed. D. become elongated by 125%
Ans: D Ans: C
4453 A health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), 4454 A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor,
that can cause cancer in exposed individuals is called a ________. is considered a ______________.

A. carcinogen A. class "A" fire

B. cryogenic B. class "B" fire
C. irritant C. class "C" fire
D. mutagen D. class "D" fire
Ans: A Ans: C
4455 Which of the listed methods, is the most effective to fight a fire on 4456 Fire dampers prevent the fire spreading through the process of
the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire ____________.
extinguisher?
A. Approach the fire from the windward side. A. convection
B. Direct the extinguisher discharge at the base of the fire. B. conduction
C. Move the discharge stream back and forth in a rapid sweeping C. radiation
motion.
D. All of the above. D. direct contact
Ans: D Ans: A
4457 Which of the following is least likely to cause the ignition of fuel 4458 If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper areaof a
vapors? fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments mayneed to be
____________.
A. Static electricity A. gas freed
B. An open running electric motor B. inerted
C. Loose wiring C. filled with water
D. Explosion proof lights D. all of the above as necessary
Ans: D Ans: D
4459 A fire in an electrical generator is considered to be ___________. 4460 The flammable limits of methane by volume is 5% to 15%. If the
combustible gas indicator reading is 50% when sampling a
compartment containing methane, the flammable vapor
concentration at the sample point is ____________.
A. Class "A" A. 0.5% by volume
B. Class "B" B. 2.5% by volume
C. Class "C" C. 7.5% by volume
D. Class "D" D. 50.0% by volume
Ans: C Ans: B
4461 Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning life- 4462 Besides heat, fuel, and oxygen, which of the following is necessary
jackets? for a fire to exist?
A. They come in two sizes, child and adult. A. Chain reaction
B. They are required to be of a highly visible color. B. Thermal action
C. The life jackect will always support an unconscious wearer in an C. Chemical occulsion
upright position.
D. They must be able to support the wearer in an upright position. D. Pyrotechnical reaction

Ans: C Ans: A
 Page 245

4463 In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you 4464 The symptoms of heat exhaustion are ____________.
should heave on the ____________.
A. lifelines A. slow and strong pulse
B. righting strap B. flushed and dry skin
C. sea anchor C. slow and deep breathing
D. towing bridle D. pale and clammy skin
Ans: D Ans: D
4465 The vapor explosive range of gasoline by volume is 1.0% to 6.0% 4466 Which type of wrench listed is used to disconnect fire hose
in air. If a gasoline tank is sampled with an explosimeter, and the couplings?
reading obtained is 30% L.E.L., the vapor concentration at the
sample point is ____________.
A. 0.3% by volume A. Locking wrench
B. 0.6% by volume B. Spanner wrench
C. 1.3% by volume C. Crescent wrench
D. 6.3% by volume D. Pipe wrench
Ans:
A Ans:
B
4467 The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to 4468 Extra chemicals maintained aboard the vessel for producing
extinguish the fire is ________. chemical foam, should be stored ____________.
A. class A A. in a freezer
B. class B B. in a cool dry place
C. class C C. at a temperature not less than 80°F
D. class D D. in open bins
Ans: B Ans: B
4469 If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs 4470 If a crew member faints, you should ___________.
should be ____________.
A. spread apart as far as possible A. lay him down with his head slightly raised
B. held as tightly against your chest as possible B. administer a liquid stimulant
C. in a kneeling position C. lay him down with his head lower than his feet
D. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles D. attempt to stand him upright to restore consciousness
Ans: D Ans:
C
4471 Which of the tools listed is designed for connecting and 4472 When should food or water be provided to survivors after boarding
disconnecting fire hose couplings? a lifeboat or liferaft?
A. Vise grips A. After 12 hours
B. Channel locks B. After 24 hours
C. Spanner wrench C. After 48 hours
D. Pipe wrench D. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then
not until 48 hours later
Ans: C Ans: B
4473 With no alternative but to jump from a vessel, the correct posture 4474 A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water ____________.
should include ____________.
A. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm crossing A. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder,
the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet holding the righting straps and leaning backwards
together
B. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around the B. should be righted by standing on the lifeline, holding the righting
legs straps and leaning backwards
C. body straight and arms tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the C. will right itself when the canopy tube inflate
water
D. both hands holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent D. must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself
and legs crossed
Ans: A Ans: A
4475 Which of the following conditions must be met before a marine 4476 The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an
chemist will issue a certificate for a compartment to be "safe for ___________.
workers, safe for hot work"?
A. The residues in the compartment must not be capable of A. vigorous shaking
producing any toxic gas under existing atmospheric conditions.

B. The concentration of combustible gases in the compartment's B. sequence of back blows

atmosphere must be less than 10 percent of the lower flammable
limit.
C. The toxic gases in the compartment's atmosphere must be within C. precardial thump
permissible concentrations.
D. All of the above. D. ammonia inhalant
Ans: D Ans: D
4477 If an inflatable life raft inflates upside down, you can right it by 4478 When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.
____________.
A. pushing up on one side A. a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt
free
B. standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing B. only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected
your weight backwards
C. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side C. it should be strained through a finely woven cloth
containing the CO2 cylinder
D. doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate D. chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable

Ans: B Ans: A
 Page 246

4479 When the concentration of gas vapor in the sample is above the 4480 If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by
100% explosive reading on the meter shown in the illustration, then ____________.
____________.
A. the atmosphere at the sample point consists of 100% flammable A. filling the stabilizers on one side with water
gas
B. the meter is defective B. releasing the CO2 cylinder
C. no further increase in vapor concentration at the sample point is C. pushing up from under one end
possible
D. the flammable vapor concentration at the sample point is above the D. standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the
lower explosive limit underside of the raft
Ans: D Ans: D
4481 If you must enter the water on which there is an oil fire, you should 4482 According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (MARPOL),
____________. which of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil
containment under the oil filling connection section?
A. protect your lifejacket by holding it above your head A. The containment may be fixed or portable depending upon the age
of the vessel.
B. enter the water on the windward side of the vessel B. The containment drains must have quick-closing valves to be
closed in the event of leakage or failure of any part of the transfer
connection.
C. keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface C. All containment drains must lead to a common, fixed drain tank.
when diving head first
D. wear very light clothing D. Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank.

Ans: B Ans: A
4483 Seawater may be used for drinking water ____________. 4484 Which of the following gases represents the greatest threat to
personnel safety in an engine room where the exhaust is leaking
from a diesel engine?
A. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day A. Carbon dioxide
B. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water B. Carbon monoxide
C. if gather during or immediately after a hard rain C. Carbon trioxide
D. under no circumstance D. Hydrogen sulfide
Ans: D Ans: B
4485 Combustible gas indicators measure the percentage of the 4486 Which of the following components provides a direct source of
concentration of the lower explosive limit of gases. If the seawater for the fire main system?
hydrocarbon content of the sample exceeds the upper explosive
limit ____________.
A. the needle will rise slowly to and remain at the maximum reading A. Rosebox

B. the needle will move rapidly to and remain at the maximum reading B. Sea chest or spool piece

C. the needle will move to the maximum reading and return to zero C. Sluice valve
immediately
D. it will not be detected D. Fire pump stuffing box
Ans: C Ans: B
4487 A small fire is reported in the forward cargo hold on a vessel 4488 When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the
equipped with a combination smoke detection/carbon dioxide fixed person in charge of the lifeboat should ____________.
fire extinguishing system. After ensuring the space is unoccupied
and properly sealed off, you should NEXT ____________.

A. operate the control heads mounted on the main pilot cylinders A. transfer all personnel immediately

B. close all three-way valve levers that are in the detecting position B. tie up to the rescue vessel
with the exception of the valve(s) to the involved space

C. open the three-way valve whose number (on the handle) C. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
corresponds with the line index chart number for the space on fire

D. lock the smoke detector indicator on the monitoring line, which D. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
automatically activates the CO2 extinguishing system
Ans: C Ans: C
4489 If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free, ______. 4490 A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and various symptoms
indicate a concussion. Proper treatment should include
____________.
A. entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the A. turning the victims's head to the side to keep his airway open
tank since petroleum vapors are heavier than air
B. a man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather B. positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body
as vapors are less volatile
C. breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as C. giving the victim water but no food
you would only be in the tank a short time
D. fresh air breathing apparatus should always be used D. placing a pillow only under the victim's head
Ans: D Ans: A
4491 One of the limitations of foam as a fire extinguishing agent is that 4492 A magnesium fire would be classified as a ________.
foam ____________.
A. cannot be made with salt water A. class A
B. is heavier than oil and sinks below it surface B. class B
C. is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters C. class C
 Page 247

D. conducts electricity D. class D

Ans: D Ans: D
4493 For a ship of 10,000 gross tons, constructed after 30 June 1974, a 4494 How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?
fixed container, or enclosed deck area, must exist under or around
each fuel oil tank vent. The container must have a capacity of at
least ______________.
A. 5 gallons (18.9 l) A. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when
the front zipper is at the top of zipper track.
B. 10 gallons (37.8 l) B. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped.
C. 21 gallons (79.5 l) C. It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube.
D. 42 gallons (158.9 l) D. It inflates by sea water bleeding into the flotation bladder and
reacting with a chemical.
Ans: D Ans: C
4495 Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by 4496 If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they
____________. should FIRST wash the eye with ____________.
A. the engineers, from a panel in the engine room A. boric acid solution
B. shutting off the current to the winch B. water
C. pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running C. baking soda solution
D. all of the above D. ammonia
Ans: C Ans: B
4497 There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than 4498 The use of sinking and dispersing agents for the removal of surface
is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following oil is ____________.
reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure?

A. Leaky pilot valve A. the most common method used in the United States
B. Leaky pump suction valve B. too expensive for common use
C. Friction in the piping and valves C. generally safe to sea life
D. Wear in the hydrant D. generally harmful to sea life
Ans: C Ans: D
4499 An inflatable liferaft is floating in its container, attached to the ship 4500 Which of the following statements is true concerning an immersion
by its painter, as the ship is sinking rapidly. Which of the actions suit and its use?
listed should be taken with respect to the liferaft container?

A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the life raft container down. A. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.

B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it B. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of
goes down. wearing a lifejacket.
C. Take no action as the pull on the painter will cause the liferaft to C. They should be tight fitting.
inflate and open the container.
D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand D. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
pump.
Ans: C Ans: B
4501 A tank which has been sealed for a long period of time can be 4502 For a victim who is coughing and gagging, as a result of a partial
dangerous because _____________. obstruction of the airway by a foreign body, a potential rescuer
should ____________.
A. steel surfaces consume oxygen by rusting A. encourage the victim to continue coughing. If the victim is unable to
expel the object, arrange for prompt transport to an appropriate
medical facility
B. sealed tanks usually form a vacuum B. wait for the victim to become unconscious then give four back
blows followed by four abdominal thrusts
C. moisture condenses in the tank, displacing the oxygen C. immediately give four abdominal thrusts
D. most tank coatings give off poisonous vapors in the presence of D. bend the victim over and give back blows
moisture
Ans: A Ans: A
4503 The reading on the combustible gas indicator, shown in the 4504 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is
illustration, is obtained by burning the vapor sample withinthe correct?
instrument. How is the flame prevented from ignitingthe vapor
within the space being tested?
A. The test burn occurs outside the tested space. A. Immersion suits should be worn during routine work on deck to
provide maximum protection.
B. A series of baffles within the instrument prevents a flashback. B. After purchasing, the suit should be removed from its storage bag
and hung on a hanger where it will be readily accessible.

C. The length and diameter of the sampling tube are designed to C. During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be
prevent a flashback. lubricated with paraffin or beeswax.
D. Flame arresters are placed at the inlet and outlet of the combustion D. Small leaks or tears may be repaired using the repair kit packed
chamber. with the suit.
Ans: D Ans: C
4505 The operating cord of the inflatable liferaft has a length of 4506 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is
____________. correct?
A. 6 fathoms A. Immersion suits should be worn while performing routine work on
deck.
B. 50 metres B. After purchasing, the suit should be stowed in the storage bag in
which it was received.
C. 100 feet C. During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be
lubricated using light machine oil or mineral oil.
 Page 248

D. 300 metres D. Any tear or leak will render the suit unserviceable and it must be
replaced.
Ans: C Ans: B
4507 When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, you should 4508 An example of class "A" fire is a/an _______________.
____________.
A. activate the signal on the downwind side A. electrical fire in the engine room
B. activate the signal on the upwind side B. oil fire in the engine room bilges
C. activate the signal inside the boat C. oil fire involving a grade "A" petroleum product
D. activate the signal at the stern D. mattress fire in a stateroom
Ans: A Ans:
D
4509 While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one 4510 A person suffering from a heart attack may show which of the
short blast of the whistle. This indicates ________. following symptoms?
A. abandon ship A. Shortness of breath
B. commence lowering boats B. Pain in the left arm
C. stop lowering boats C. Nausea
D. secure from boat stations D. All the above
Ans: B Ans: D
4511 Combustible gas indicators are used to detect flammable gases, or 4512 A vessel having a concentration of weight toward the top of the
vapors present in a tank. This is accomplished by an intricate vessel is said to be ____________.
instrument incorporating a/an ____________.
A. inflatable bag A. stiff
B. heated filament B. tender
C. sensitive liquid chemical C. buoyant
D. vapor detecting carbon compound D. neutral
Ans: B Ans: B
4513 An inflatable liferaft can be launched by ____________. 4514 Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an
____________.
A. the float-free method only A. sensitive liquid chemical
B. kicking the hydrostatic release B. vapor-detecting carbon compound
C. throwing the entire container overboard, then pulling on the C. Wheatstone bridge
operating cord to inflate the raft
D. removing the securing straps D. inflatable bag
Ans: C Ans: C
4515 Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide 4516 Hydrogen sulfide is the constituent giving sour crude oil the
when used as a fire extinguishing agent? characteristic odor of rotten eggs. One of the hazards associated
with hydrogen sulfide is _____________.
A. Carbon dioxide is corrosive when exposed to fire. A. chemical burning of the skin
B. Carbon dioxide should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire. B. irritation of the intestinal tract

C. Its total cooling effect is far greater than water. C. its high toxicity resulting in death
D. Its smothering effect is excellent for class B fires. D. dependency addiction to the highly toxic fumes
Ans: D Ans: C
4517 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 4518 The atmosphere of an empty fuel tank is tested and designated
correct? "gas free". Which of the following statements is correct concerning
this tank?
A. Some models will not automatically turn an unconscious person A. The concentration of flammable gas in the compartment is less than
face-up in the water. 10% of the lower flammable limit.
B. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection B. The tank should be frequently retested.
against hypothermia for weeks.
C. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while C. The gas free status is good as long as the initial conditions remain
swimming through burning oil. unchanged.
D. The wearer of the suit is not severely restricted in body movement D. All of the above.
and permits the wearer to perform any form of strenuous work.

Ans: A Ans: D
4519 A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a ___________. 4520 To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or
compartment, you should use a _____________.
A. class A A. flame scanner
B. class B B. halide torch
C. class C C. combustible gas indicator
D. class D D. detector filament
Ans:
A Ans: C
4521 The fire extinguishing action of CO2 is derived mostly from 4522 Which type of fire extinguisher is most prone to the freezing when
_____________. exposed to low temperatures?
A. a blanket of bubbles formed on the surface of the fire A. Halon 1211
B. smothering B. Carbon dioxide
C. cooling C. Foam
D. isolating the heat from the fuel D. Dry chemical
Ans: B Ans: C
4523 A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), having a 4524 If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should
flash point below 100‚F (37.78‚C) is called a/an __________. be given ____________.

A. viscous liquid A. soda crackers and water

B. explosive liquid B. orange juice or a candy bar
C. combustible liquid C. an ounce of whiskey
D. flammable liquid D. a glass of milk
 Page 249

Ans: D Ans: B
4525 An instrument used to detect explosive gas/air mixtures, usually 4526 A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all-purpose
measures the concentration in terms of the lower explosive limit, nozzle attached, should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to
and is known as a _____________. control when the handle position is changed from ____________.

A. toxic vapor meter A. solid stream to fog

B. flame safety lamp B. shut to solid stream
C. gas absorption detector C. low velocity to high velocity fog
D. combustible gas indicator D. fog to shut
Ans: D Ans: B
4527 Which of the following items is NOT required to be contained in the 4528 If a raft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord
vessel's oil transfer procedures? be attached before throwing the raft overboard?

A. A line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping. A. Do not attach the cord to anything but throw it overboard with the
raft container.
B. The number of persons on duty during oil transfer operations. B. To some fixed object on the ship.

C. Any special procedures for topping off tanks. C. Stand on it with your foot.
D. The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel. D. To the special pad eye on the "raft davit launcher".

Ans: D Ans: B
4529 Most lifeboats are equipped with ____________. 4530 The maximum lowering speed for a lifeboat on gravity davits must
not be more than ____________.
A. unbalanced rudders A. 21mtr per minute
B. balanced rudders B. 35mtr per minute
C. contraguide rudders C. 78mtr per minute
D. straight rudders D. none of the above
Ans: A Ans: C
4531 The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the ___________. 4532 A high velocity fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray
pattern when the water pressure is not less than _____________.

A. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self- ignite A. 2.5kg/cm2 (241.3 kPa)

B. upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an B. 4.2kg/cm2 (413.6 kPa)

atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
C. upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not C. 5.2kg/cm2 (517.0 kPa)
burn
D. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an D. 7kg/cm2 (689.4 kPa)
ignition source is present
Ans: B Ans: D
4533 For which of the listed classes of fire combinations would carbon 4534 The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted
dioxide be most suitable as the extinguishing agent? ____________.
A. Class "A" and class "B" A. in the pilothouse
B. Class "B" and class "C" B. in the officer's lounge
C. Class "A" and class "C" C. in the upper pumproom flat
D. Class "C", class "D", and class "E" D. where they can be easily seen or readily available
Ans: B Ans: D
4535 Which of the items in the lifeboat equipment listed would be the 4536 A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon? (MSDS), that can spontaneously burst into flames when exposed to
air at temperatures below 130‚F (55.5‚C) with no ignition source
needed, is called _______________.
A. A red parachute flare A. expolsive
B. A red handheld flare B. pyrophoric
C. A flashlight C. unstable
D. A lantern D. flammable
Ans: A Ans: B
4537 If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not 4538 A fire in a pile of linen is considered to be a class __________.
periodically serviced and becomes inoperable, it will fail to
____________.
A. set the water lights on immersion A. A fire
B. release the dyemarker from the liferaft B. B fire
C. free the liferaft from the vessel C. C fire
D. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder D. D fire
Ans:
C Ans:
A
4539 Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pain in the abdomen 4540 If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety
located in the ____________. Data Sheet (MSDS) identify?
A. lower left side A. Paints or coatings that are safe to use with it.
B. lower right side B. The name of each hazardous ingredient.
C. upper left side C. Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gases.
D. upper right side D. None of the above.
Ans: B Ans: B
4541 The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose firefighting 4542 Most enclosed lifeboats or covered survival capsules will
nozzle should always be _____________. automatically right themselves if they capsize. This will occur when
which of the following conditions exists?
A. stowed separately in a clip or rack at each fire station A. The lower ballast tanks are filled with water.
B. attached to the all-purpose nozzle by a chain B. The fuel tanks are not less than half full.
 Page 250

C. coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion C. The passengers are strapped to their seats.
D. painted red to be identified as emergency equipment D. The sea anchor is deployed to windward.
Ans: B Ans: C
4543 The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors and air lies 4544 A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft ____________.
between the lower and upper explosive limits. These limits are
specified as a percentage of _____________.
A. flammable vapor by volume in air A. must be wet before it will release
B. the lower limit of explosibilty of the mixture B. should be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergency
C. oxygen present to support combustion C. will inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manually
D. the temperature of the flash point D. must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically

Ans: A Ans: D
4545 The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 4546 In a closed container of liquid, the force exerted by vapor on the
that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier walls of the container above the liquid surface is called ________.
than air is called ___________.
A. vapor pressure A. storage pressure
B. vapor gravity B. vapor pressure
C. vapor level C. over-pressure
D. vapor density D. reactive pressure
Ans: D Ans: B
4547 A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4548 The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by
(MSDS) that reacts with water or moist air, and produces a health the high velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to
or physical hazard, is called __________. _____________.
A. water-reactive A. a difference in water pressure
B. toxic B. the method of breaking up the water stream
C. flammable C. the type of fire being fought
D. combustible D. the capacity of the fire pump
Ans: A Ans: B
4549 A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft ____________. 4550 The significant difference between the high velocity fog tip and the
low velocity fog applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is the
____________.
A. at the bow A. difference in available water pressure
B. at the stern B. number of personnel required to effectively use each of them
C. in the middle C. degree to which the water stream is broken up
D. all around D. ability to exclude free oxygen
Ans: D Ans: C
4551 A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4552 The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This
(MSDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after means a vapor/air mixture of _____________.
repeated exposure is ______________.
A. skin contact hazard A. 3 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn
B. sensitizer B. 20 percent methane by volume is too lean to burn
C. pyrophorichazard C. 10 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn
D. oxidizer D. 5 percent methane by volume will give a reading of 100 percent
L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator
Ans: B Ans: D
4553 A vessel which is subjected to "hogging" has its __________. 4554 Symptoms of seasickness include ________________.

A. main deck under compressive stress A. fever and thirst

B. main deck plating under strake stress B. nausea and dizziness
C. bottom plate under compressive stress C. stomach cramps and diarrhea
D. bottom and deck plating under compressive stress D. reddening of skin and hives
Ans: B Ans: B
4555 Carbon dioxide extinguishers must be recharged when the weight is 4556 What information can be obtained from a marine
less than? chemist'scertificate issued to an offshore supply vessel?
A. 0.8 A. The vessel's stability information
B. 0.85 B. The tanks which were safe to enter when the certificate was issued

C. 0.9 C. The number of fire extinguishers required to be aboard

D. 0.95 D. The quality of fuel in the vessel's tanks
Ans: C Ans: B
4557 Each personal flotation device light on a ship that has a non- 4558 An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel.
replaceable power source must be replaced ____________. Which of the following actions occurs automatically after the painter
trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?
A. every six months after initial installation A. The sea anchor is deployed.
B. every 12 months after initial installation B. The floor inflates.
C. every 24 months after initial installation C. If upside down, the craft will right itself.
D. on or before the expiration date of the power source D. The painter detaches from the raft.
Ans:
D Ans:
A
4559 Tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by using a 4560 The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to
_______________. the ______.
A. a multistage centrifugal pump A. shoreside loading rate
B. the load on top system B. maximum cargo pump discharge rate
C. the water displacement method C. boiler forced draft fan rate
D. a positive displacement pump D. size of the largest cargo tank
Ans: D Ans: B
 Page 251

4561 While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose begins leaking, causing a 4562 The sections of an Oil Record Book preceeding the log pages
sheen on the water. You should ____________. contain a ____________.
A. apply dispersants to the sheen A. damage control plan for isolating firemain valves
B. repair the leak with duct tape B. list of machinery space operation items
C. reduce the rate of transfer C. complete classification of hazardous materials
D. shut down operations D. detailed listing of all organizations to call in the event of an
accidental oil spill
Ans: D Ans: B
4563 Which of the following methods should be used to prevent a class 4564 The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on ____________.
"A" fire in a topside compartment, with steel bulkheads, from
spreading to the adjacent compartments?
A. Sweep the exterior bulkheads with a solid stream of water until the A. automatically as the liferaft inflates
fire is reportedly extinguished.
B. Sweep the exterior bulkheads with a solid stream of water until B. with a switch near the boarding handle
steam is no longer produced, secure the nozzle, and repeat as
necessary.
C. Sweep the exterior bulkheads with water fog until the fire is C. at night because the light has a photosensitive switch
reportedly extinguished.
D. Sweep the exterior bulkheads with water fog until steam is no D. by screwing the bulb in after the raft is inflated
longer produced, secure the nozzle, and repeat as necessary.

Ans: D Ans: A
4565 An effective method for lifting and carrying patients with spinal 4566 The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by
injuries is known as the ____________. _____________.
A. pack strap carry A. quenching and cooling
B. two man extremities carry B. using a sodium based dry chemical
C. fireman's drag C. blanketing and smothering
D. four man log roll D. using nonconducting extinguishers
Ans: D Ans: A
4567 Your assigned emergency stations aboard your vessel can be 4568 Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the
found on the ship's ______________. _____________.
A. muster list A. ship's articles
B. certificate of inspection B. muster list
C. clearance papers C. bunk card
D. permit to proceed D. forecastle card
Ans: A Ans: B
4569 Regulations stipulate that in addition to emergency signals, 4570 A vessel trimmed down by the bow has _____________.
muster lists must specify_____________.
A. actions to be taken by persons on board when each signal is A. a greater draft forward than aft
sounded
B. the order to abandon the vessel B. zero trim
C. the duties assigned to different members of the crew C. a low mean draft
D. all of the above D. a greater draft aft than forward
Ans: D Ans:
A
4571 The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records 4572 Which unit will provide excellent mobilty to the wearer in an unsafe
maintained by each ship and stated in __________. atmosphere and provide oxygen to sustain life?
A. cubic meters A. A fresh air breathing apparatus
B. barrels, measured in 55 gallon drums B. A self-contained breathing apparatus
C. weight in either kilogram or pounds C. An ammonia gas mask
D. cubic yards convertible to long tons D. All of the above
Ans: A Ans: B
4573 Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before 4574 A solid stream of water is produced by an all-purpose firefighting
entering a closed compartment to fight a fire? nozzle when the handle is _____________.
A. The fire produces carbon monoxide which causes an oxygen A. pushed all the way forward
deficiency in the brain and body, leading quickly to death.

B. The fire produces smoke, which contains toxic gases that cause B. pushed forward one notch
breathing difficulties and irritation of the respiratory tract.

C. The fire consumes oxygen which may lead to asphyxiation. C. pulled halfway back
D. All of the above. D. pulled all the way back
Ans: D Ans: D
4575 When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the 4576 How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent
operating cord is ____________. explosions in cargo tanks?
A. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel A. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.
B. not fastened to anything B. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the
flammable vapors.
C. secured to the hydrostatic release C. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank
spaces.
D. fastened to the raft container D. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to
keep them below the lower explosive limit.
Ans: A Ans: D
4577 The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical 4578 An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to _________.
reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is
known as _____________.
 Page 252

A. chemical ignition A. prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks

B. spontaneous combustion B. blow out cargo lines to prevent gas concentrations

C. chemical combustion C. dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the
lower explosive limit
D. radiation ignition D. prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing flammable
vapors
Ans: B Ans: C
4579 Water pockets on the under side of an inflatable liferaft are for 4580 Through which of the listed processes is heat produced in
____________. spontaneous ignition?
A. catching rain water A. Aeration
B. stability B. Anaeroboic decomposition
C. easy drainage C. Putrefaction
D. maneuverability D. Oxidation
Ans: B Ans: D
4581 In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to 4582 What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help
prevent the spread of fire by____________. prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?

A. convection A. Ballast bags

B. conduction B. A keel
C. radiation C. Strikes
D. ventilation D. Sea anchor
Ans: A Ans: A
4583 A wiper has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not 4584 During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to
bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed?
suturing to close the wound?
A. Apply a copression bandage. A. The designated person in charge
B. Use temporary stitches of sail twin. B. The tankerman
C. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. C. The senior able seaman
D. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing. D. The oiler
Ans: D Ans: A
4585 Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be 4586 You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow
done ____________. into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs.
What should you do?
A. at ten minute intervals A. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.
B. by not stopping the respiration for more than five minutes B. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
C. only with the help of two other people C. Re-tip the head and try again.
D. without losing the rhythm of respiration D. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any
obstruction.
Ans: D Ans: C
4587 The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable raft will provide protection 4588 Spontaneous combustion can result from _____________.
against ____________.
A. warm water temperatures A. water dripping on a running electric motor
B. cold water temperatures B. oil soaked rags stored in a closed compartment
C. tears in the outside skin of bottom of the raft C. smoking in a battery room or near a battery storage locker
D. all of the above D. an open flame near a fuel tank vent
Ans: D Ans: B
4589 Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective 4590 Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the most effectively
system of examining the body of an injury victim? used for putting out a paint locker fire?
A. Compare the corresponding parts of the body. A. Solid stream of water
B. Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body. B. Soda acid extinguisher
C. Look for discoloration of the patient's skin. C. Carbon dioxide
D. Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body. D. Carbon tetrachloride

Ans: A Ans: C
4591 Prior to inserting a low velocity fog applicator into the nozzle shown 4592 Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before
in the illustration, you must _____________. entering the engine room after the fixed CO2 system has been
discharged to combat a major fire?
A. move the handle to position "B" A. Because carbon dioxide dilutes the oxygen concentration in the
atmosphere and may cause asphyxiation.
B. remove the device indicated by the letter "E" B. Because carbon dioxide breaks down in a fire into carbon monoxide
which may cause blood poisoning in the person breathing this gas.

C. move the handle to position "A" C. Because carbon dioxide is a colorless and odorless gas that
becomes highly toxic in the presence of high temperatures and will
quickly incapacitate a person exposed to this gas.
D. remove the device indicated by the letter "D" D. This action is unnecessary as carbon dioxide is not poisonous nor
toxic but is a relatively harmless gas.
Ans: D Ans: A
4593 One feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary 4594 In which of the areas listed is a fire resulting from spontaneous
in rough weather is the set of ____________. combustion most likely to occur?
A. lashings on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feet A. Engine room bilges
B. straps hanging from the overhead B. Paint locker
C. safety straps on the inside of the raft C. Battery storage locker
D. ridges in the floor of the raft D. Fuel oil tank
Ans: C Ans: B
 Page 253

4595 If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of 4596 Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to
_______________. effectively combat a class B fire?
A. high fever A. Dry chemical
B. head injury B. CO2
C. broken limbs C. Foam
D. irregular breathing D. All of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
4597 To prepare a low velocity fog applicator for use, _________. 4598 Which statement is TRUE regarding Halon as a fire extinguising
agent?
A. replace the high velocity tip with the fog applicator and pull the A. It is more effective than CO2.
handle to the middle position
B. insert the applicator in the solid stream outlet of the all-purpose B. It leaves no residue.
nozzle and pull the handle back half way
C. replace the high velocity tip with the applicator and pull the handle C. It is noncorrosive.
back all the way back
D. insert the applicator in the solid stream outlet of the all-purpose D. All of the above.
nozzle and pull the handle back to the solid stream position

Ans: A Ans: D
4599 The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, 4600 Generally, which of the following gases is used to inflate liferafts?
and _____________.
A. lighter than air A. CO2
B. heavier than air B. Oxygen
C. odorless C. Hydrogen
D. nontoxic D. Compressed air
Ans: B Ans:
A
4601 If it becomes necessary to pump bilges while a vessel is in port, 4602 When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should
which of the following procedures should be followed? crouch as low as possible to __________.
A. Pump only if the discharge is led to a shore tank or barge. A. protect themselfs from smoke
B. Pump only during the hours of darkness. B. obtain the best available air
C. Pump only on the outgoing tide. C. allow the heat and steam to pass overhead
D. Pump only as much as is necessary. D. All of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
4603 If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the 4604 A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a
following actions would be the most hazardous thing to carry out? bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint
by _____________.
A. Opening switches in the space to de-energize circuits. A. water pressure
B. Closing switches in the space to operate vent fans. B. a locknut
C. Leaving electrical circuits energized in the space. C. a keeper screw
D. Securing all power to the space from a remote location. D. a spring-loaded catch
Ans: A Ans: D
4605 Diesel fuel vapors _____________. 4606 You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just
inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a
buoyancy tube. Which of the following statements identifies the
cause of this situation?
A. can not be ignited by a spark unless the vapor is in a confined A. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the
space canopy.
B. are nontoxic in all concentrations B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes full
inflated.
C. can not be ignited by a spark unless they are at their autoignition C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2.
temperature
D. are heavier than air D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.

Ans: D Ans: D
4607 Two people are administering CPR to a victim. How many times per 4608 You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on
minute should the chest be compressed? the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
A. 30 A. Tip of the sternum
B. 45 B. Top half of the sternum
C. 60 C. Lower half of the sternum
D. 80 D. Left chest over the heart
Ans: C Ans: C
4609 The MOST important element in administering CPR is 4610 Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with which of the
____________. following?
A. having the proper equipment for the process A. A hydraulic start diesel engine
B. treating for shock B. Tanks for the storage of drinking water
C. administering of oxygen C. Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing
D. starting the treatment quickly D. Auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear)
Ans: D Ans: A
4611 The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the 4612 A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in
___________. the paint locker, is to _____________.
A. the amount of oxygen in the atmoshere of a confined space A. label the fixed firefighting system
B. amount of combustible gas as a percentage of the lower explosive B. store paint cans on metal shelves only
limit in a confined space
C. concentration of CO2 as a percentage of oxygen in a confined C. not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space
space
 Page 254

D. None of the above D. place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker

Ans: A Ans: C
4613 A characteristic of most petroleum vapors is that they are 4614 If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk,
____________. ____________.
A. lighter than air A. each raft should go in a different direction in search of land
B. not explosive at low temperatures B. the possibility of a search aircraft finding you is increased by
spreading out
C. heavier than air C. reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible
into as few rafts as possible
D. inert in stable air D. tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
Ans: C Ans: D
4615 When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the 4616 An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible
water, one of the FIRST things to be done is __________. vapors,removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is
_____________.
A. separate the rafts as much as possible to increase chances of A. Halon 1301
detection
B. transfer all supplies to one raft B. dry chemical
C. transfer all the injured to one raft C. water fog
D. secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart D. carbon dioxide
Ans: D Ans: C
4617 During annual inspection, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must 4618 The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide from a portable
not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under a static liquid extinguisher to a fire is by _____________.
pressure of at least ____________.
A. 7bar A. forming a cloud cover over the flames
B. the pressure of the relief valve setting B. discharging the carbon dioxide into the heat of the flames
C. the pressure applied by the shoreside pump C. directing the gas at the base of the flame in a slow sweeping motion

D. 1 1/2 times the maximum allowable working pressure D. bouncing the discharge off an adjacent bulkhead just above the
burning service
Ans: D Ans: C
4619 Where should muster lists be posted? 4620 In the fire main system, quick cleaning strainers are located at the
_____________.
A. In crew's accommodation spaces A. pump suctions
B. On the navigating bridge B. pump discharge
C. In the engine room C. fire hydrants
D. All of the above D. hose nozzle
Ans:
D Ans: C
4621 While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather 4622 The heat generated by a fire will be transferred through a bulkhead
____________. or deck, as a result of _____________.
A. the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling A. conduction
breezes
B. the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent B. radiation
excessive air pressure
C. deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel C. convection
D. the entrance curtains should never be opened D. advection
Ans: C Ans: A
4623 Quick cleaning strainers are installed in the fire main system at 4624 What effect will transferring fuel oil from #1P double bottom to #3P
individual fire hydrants to _____________. double bottom have on the trim of a vessel?
A. prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the system piping A. The mean draft will increase.

B. prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the hoses and B. The mean draft will decrease.
nozzles
C. protect the fire pumps from becoming clogged with marine growth C. The forward draft will decrease.

D. filter out some of the salt in an effort to reduce pipeline scaling D. The after draft will decrease.

Ans: B Ans: C
4625 How are solid materials kept from fouling a fire hose nozzle? 4626 Which of the listed extinguishing agents could be used to fight a
class "B" fire involving the duct work for the galley stove?

A. Using a Cadium Chloride coating. A. CO2

B. Use of inline system strainers. B. Dry chemical
C. Replacement of valve seats at each fire main station. C. Halon
D. Periodic shutdown and backflush of fire main. D. All of the above
Ans:
B Ans:
D
4627 When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should 4628 One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have
_____________. boarded an inflatable liferaft is to ____________.
A. use only carbon dioxide A. stream the sea anchor
B. use only dry chemical B. take an anti-seasickness pill
C. extinguish the fire, then secure the source of gas C. open the pressure relief valve
D. secure the source of gas, then extinguish the fire D. drink at least one can of water
Ans: D Ans: B
4629 A fire can be extinguished by removing _____________. 4630 Which of the following conditions are true concerning shipboard
extinguishing systems?
 Page 255

A. the heat A. Carbon dioxide and Halon are both effective fixed systems that
protect against "class C" fires.
B. the fuel B. Flammable gas fires are not extinguished by fixed systems;
controlled burning is recommended until the fuel source can be shut
off.
C. the oxygen C. No fixed extinguishing system is approved for use against "class D"
fires involving combustible metals.
D. any of the above D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: D
4631 The FIRST step to take in fighting an engine room fire resulting 4632 Petroleum vapors are dangerous _____________.
from a ruptured fuel oil service line, is to _____________.

A. evacuate all engine room personnel A. only if the source of the vapor is above its flash point
B. fight the fire with hand portable extinguishers B. only if the vapor is between the upper and lower explosive limit

C. activate the main CO2 bank C. only if the oxygen concentration is below 16 percent
D. stop the flow of leaking fuel oil D. at all times due to their toxicity
Ans: D Ans: D
4633 Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate 4634 The three basic elements necessary for any fire are _______.
for how many hours?
A. 6 hours A. heat, gas, and flames
B. 12 hours B. fuel, heat, and oxygen
C. 18 hours C. heat, nitrogen, and fuel
D. 24 hours D. fuel oil, nitrogen, and oxygen
Ans: D Ans:B
4635 When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged 4636 When combating a deck fire due to a leaking cargo line, you should
____________. FIRST ____________.
A. before the gripes are released A. blanket the cargo spill with foam
B. before the boat is moved from the davits B. apply CO2 on the burning fuel at its source
C. at the embarkation deck C. stop the transfer of cargo
D. after the boat is in the water D. prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam
Ans: C Ans: C
4637 The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led ____________. 4638 An oxygen indicator will detect _____________.
A. forward and outside of all obstructions A. the amount of oxygen in a space
B. forward and inside of all obstructions B. the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide
C. up and down from the main deck C. concentrations of explosive gas
D. to the foremost point on the ship D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: A
4639 Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to ___________. 4640 Frapping lines ____________.
A. reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the A. secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position
embarkation level
B. secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position B. bring the lifeboat close alongside the rail in the embarkation
position
C. hold it to the ship's side until the tricing lines are passed C. give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered
from the embarkation level
D. be used as a safety line in an emergency D. reduce the swinging of the lifeboat at the embarkation level
Ans: A Ans: D
4641 When more than six short blasts and one long blast of the ship's 4642 In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt
whistle, accompanied by the same signal on the general alarm bell is to ____________.
is sounded, the signal is for __________.
A. fire and emergency A. secure all sources of fresh air to the tank
B. boat recall B. begin transferring the fuel to other tanks
C. man overboard C. top off the tank to force out all vapors
D. boat stations D. station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls
Ans: D Ans:A
4643 Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red? 4644 Which of the actions listed should be taken FIRST to control an oil
fire in a fuel oil tank?
A. Hatches A. Commence draining that tank as quickly as possible.
B. Releasing gear B. Seal off all vents to that tank.
C. Hooks C. Activate the CO2 system to that tank.
D. Compass D. Shut off the steam heating coils.
Ans: B Ans: B
4645 Why are lifeboats usually double-ended? 4646 In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly
____________.
A. They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach A. the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne
to.
B. They can go forward and backward more easily. B. the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly

C. They require less space for stowing aboard ship. C. there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube
D. There is no particular reason for this. D. the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned
counterclockwise
Ans: A Ans: B
4647 You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can 4648 If an electric motor catches fire, you should first _______.
see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search
pattern. You should ____________.
A. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode A. use a CO2 extinguisher
 Page 256

B. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the B. cool the motor with air
aircraft to your raft
C. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB C. remove the load
D. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB D. de-energize the circuit
Ans: D Ans: D
4649 Burning electrical insulation is best extinguished by 4650 If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of
_____________. insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should
_____________.
A. soda acid A. secure power to the cable
B. foam B. cut the cable with an insulated cable cutter
C. water fog C. separate the two ends
D. carbon dioxide D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans:
D
4651 Portable tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water 4652 When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original
supply from the _____________. position is caused by the ____________.
A. inert gas scrubber A. movement of the center of gravity
B. firemain B. movement of the center of buoyancy toward the low side of the
vessel
C. mucking supply system C. upward movement of the center of flotation
D. pumproom sea chest D. increased free surface in the buoyant wedge
Ans: B Ans: B
4653 To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or 4654 If a CO2 fire extinguisher is not readily available, which of the listed
_____________. fire extinguishers would be best suited to combat a small electrical
fire in a switchboard?
A. mechanical foam A. Dry chemical
B. dry chemical B. Halon
C. chemical foam C. Low velocity fog
D. chemically teated saw dust D. Steam
Ans: B Ans: B
4655 By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which 4656 Which of the following signals represents the emergency signal for
_____________. a fire aboard merchant vessel?
A. spontaneously ignite A. Rapid blowing of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10
seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the ship's bell.

B. are highly volatile with a flash point of 0°F B. Rapid ringing of the ship's bell for a period of not less than 10
seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.

C. have a flash point of 80°F or higher C. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10
seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general
alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.
D. give off flammable vapors at or below 80°F D. A rapid ringing of the ship's bell for a period of not less than 10
seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the ship's whistle.

Ans: C Ans: C
4657 Which of the listed fire extinguishers is recommended for use on an 4658 Which of the petroleum products listed has the lowest flash point?
electrical switchboard fire?
A. CO2 A. Hydraulic oil
B. ABC dry chemical B. Lubricating oil
C. CO2 propelled foam C. Diesel oil
D. All of the above D. Refrigeration oil
Ans: A Ans: C
4659 A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which 4660 What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with tank residue from a
of the listed conditions would develop the greatest adverse effect? cargo of leaded gasoline?

A. Tanks which are 95% full. A. Cover the affected area with petroleum jelly.
B. Tanks which have been pressed up to full capacity. B. Immerse the area in a solution of boric acid.
C. Tanks which have been completely emptied. C. Wash the area with soap and water immediately.
D. Tanks which are 40% full. D. Administer a strong stimulant and treat for shock.
Ans:
D Ans:
C
4661 Any single ship's compartment sustaining partial flooding with free 4662 A tank or compartment is considered gas free when it isfree of
communication to the sea will ____________. dangerous concentrations of _____________.
A. increase reserve buoyancy A. all flammable liquids
B. decrease the free surface effect B. any combustible liquid
C. seriously reduce stability C. flammable or toxic gases
D. result in the ship's sinking D. all cargo oil
Ans: C Ans: C
4663 The powder in a dry chemical fire extinguisher ____________. 4664 When any tank or compartment is partially filled with a liquid free to
move as the ship rolls, the free surface effect is present. This
condition will usually _______________.
A. is always ready for use and requires no attention A. increase reserve buoyancy
B. may cake up and fail to discharge properly if not occasionally B. reduce ship stability
agitated
C. deteriorates to an unusable condition within three years C. cause a permanent list
D. puts out the fire with its cooling action D. change the ship's trim
Ans: B Ans: B
 Page 257

4665 Adverse effects due to free surface will result when 4666 Before a shipboard fire can be declared completely out, which of
____________. the following steps is/are essential?
A. the vessel is trimmed by the stern A. The cause of the fire is to be known.
B. the vessel's draft is decreased exposing more surface area to the B. The fire area is safe for men to enter without a breathing apparatus.
wind and current
C. the vessel's draft is increased, thus increasing the vessel's wetted C. The fire area is sufficiently cooled so that accidental skin burns will
surface area not occur.
D. a portion of liquid is removed from a full tank D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: B
4667 If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it 4668 On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons,
may be unsafe to enter because of _____________. equipped with an approved 15 ppm oily water separator, and bilge
monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record must be
_______________.
A. unburned carbon particles A. kept readily available for 1 year only
B. excess nitrogen B. detached monthly for enclosure in the Oil Record Book
C. a lack of oxygen C. maintained onboard for not less than 3 years
D. excess hydrogen D. initialled after each engineering watch by the watch engineer

Ans: C Ans: C
4669 If you find that the pressure cartridge on a dry chemical fire 4670 Free surface effect occurring in tanks should be avoided to
extinguisher has been punctured, you must ____________. __________.
A. replace the pressure cartridge A. reduce hogging and sagging
B. replace the chemical agent B. maintain stability
C. have the unit hydrostatically tested C. prevent oil pollution
D. weigh the pressure cartridge to determine if it must be replaced D. all of the above

Ans: A Ans: B
4671 When handling petroleum products, static electricity is generated 4672 Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of
by moving machinery and _____________. producing an electrical spark?
A. a grounded person A. Using a cargo hose with a built in electrical bonding wire.
B. the flowing petroleum liquids B. Connecting a bonding wire between the shoreside piping and the
vessel.
C. stray electric currents C. Placing an insulating flange or a section of nonconducting hose in
the hose setup.
D. a short circuit D. All of the above.
Ans: B Ans: D
4673 One advantage of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire 4674 How can the build up of static electricity be prevented so that a
extinguisher, over that of a stored pressure dry chemical static spark does not ignite flammable vapors?
extinguisher is the former ____________.
A. can be easily recharged aboard ship A. Each machine and hose involved in the operation should be
grounded.
B. has a longer operating time B. All electrical circuits near and around the fueling operations should
be opened.
C. can be discharged further from the fire C. A dehumidifier used in spaces containing flammable liquids will
significantly reduce the possibility of static charges being generated.

D. is lighter in weight D. Static neutralizers can be used to reduce ionization in the air.
Ans: A Ans: A
4675 Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" on a tanker? 4676 An electrically "charged mist" will be found in a _____________.

A. In a common vent header during tank ballasting. A. diesel engine cylinder

B. In a cargo tank during "Butterworthing". B. cargo tank during Butterworthing
C. In a cargo tank during inerting operations. C. fuel tank vent outlet
D. In the overflow line while topping off. D. flash evaporator flash chamber
Ans:
B Ans: B
4677 In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned, you should look 4678 Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301?
at the _____________.
A. Certificate of Inspection A. The agent is extremely toxic in any concentration.
B. Muster list B. The agent leaves no residue.
C. Ship's Articles C. The agent extinguishes a fire by smothering.
D. Fire Control Plan D. All of the above.
Ans: B Ans:
B
4679 You can generally improve the vessel's stability in a hazardous 4680 Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire
situation by _______________. extinguishing equipment?
A. pumping double bottoms to the forepeak A. The agent is considered nontoxic at room temperature in low
concentrations.
B. ballasting deep tanks B. The agent is less effective than carbon dioxide.
C. transferring ballast athwartships C. Halon primarily extinguishes the fire by cooling.
D. deballasting double bottoms D. The agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a
residue.
Ans: B Ans: A
4681 A vessel's stability normally increases when tanks are ballasted 4682 In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may be lost if
because the vessel's _______________. _____________.
A. center of gravity is lowered A. the sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing
B. center of buoyancy is lowered B. the dogs on a manhole cover are secure
C. reserve buoyancy is increased C. you have recently replaced a gasket in a watertight door
 Page 258

D. freeboard is increased D. you operate the dewatering system from a flooded compartment

Ans: A Ans: A
4683 When checking the liquid level in a tank, you should position 4684 Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in
yourself ____________. low temperatures?
A. on the windward side of the opening A. Halon 1211
B. on the leeward side of the opening B. Carbon dioxide
C. at a right angle to the wind direction C. Foam
D. so that the obstruction of your body will protect you from the fumes D. Dry chemical

Ans: C Ans: C
4685 The bypass valve on a self-contained, demand-type, breathing 4686 To use a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you must FIRST
apparatus bypasses _____________. _____________.
A. the regulator in an emergency A. turn the tank upside down
B. a breathing bag containing excessive pressure B. pull the locking pin
C. oxygen to the atmosphere C. open the valve on the side of the tank
D. the regenerator in an emergency D. shake thoroughly
Ans: A Ans: B
4687 Which of the components listed are interchangeable between 4688 Which of the listed fire extinguishers cannot be easily recharged
different backpack demand-type self-contained breathing aboard ship?
apparatus produced by various manufacturers?
A. The facepiece A. Soda acid
B. The regulator B. Carbon dioxide
C. The air cylinder C. Dry chemical, cartridge-operated
D. All of the above D. Foam
Ans: C Ans: B
4689 The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a demand-type self- 4690 Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to
contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by _____________.
_____________.
A. the donning of the facepiece A. secure loose gear
B. the stowing of the facepiece B. move quickly about the ship
C. the maintenance of the facepiece C. increase lighting
D. all of the above D. shutdown auxiliary equipment
Ans: D Ans: A
4691 When the alarm bell on a demand-type breathing apparatus 4692 Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage
sounds, how much air supply remains? of using a pressure demand type self-contained breathing
apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or
health?
A. A 4-5 minute supply of air. A. The positive pressure in the facepiece prevents contaminated air
from entering the facepiece.
B. A 2-3 minute supply of air. B. The average operating time for most air cylinders is over an hour.

C. A 1 minute supply of air. C. The equipment used is lightweight and easy to wear by reducing
physical strain on the wearer.
D. Less than 1 minute supply of air. D. The equipment is compact and the wearer can work in confined
spaces without difficulty.
Ans: A Ans: A
4693 Which of the following statements is correct concerning fire hoses 4694 Special transportation hazards of bulk LPG include ________.
used within the machinery spaces of cargo vessels?
A. The fire hoses must be in 25mtr lengths. A. frost burns to flesh
B. The fire hoses must be 1 1/2 inches in diameter or less. B. high toxicity in small quantities
C. The fire hoses must be of the lined type. C. noxious odors
D. The fire hoses must all be fitted with approved 5/8 inch nozzles. D. all of the above

Ans: C Ans: A
4695 According to Regulations , which of the following conditions is true 4696 Fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall
concerning the construction and/or operation of pressure-vacuum be _____________.
relief valves?
A. Valve bodies, discs, spindles, and seats must all be made of A. behind glass or a suitably marked enclosure
bronze or a corrosion resistant material.
B. Pressure-vacuum valves for cargo tanks shall not be less than 2 B. protected against freezing or be fitted with cutout valves and drain
inches nominal pipe size. valves
C. Where springs are employed to actuate the valve discs, the springs C. opened up and internally examined at each Coast Guard biannual
are to be either plated or fabricated of a corrosion resistant material. inspection for certification

D. The design and construction of the valves is such that they must be D. all of the above
removed for overhauling, insuring there will be no vent blockage
which could occur during a repair period.
Ans: A Ans: B
4697 When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should 4698 When should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling
be ________________. hose?
A. blown down with inert gas A. When transferring LNG.
B. drained into drip pans or tanks B. When a bonding cable is employed.
C. stowed with their ends open for venting C. When static electricity is not expected to be a problem.
D. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water D. When the terminal is equipped with a cathodic protection system.
 Page 259

Ans: B Ans: D
4699 Which of the following operations must be personally supervised 4700 While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams open. You should
by the person-in-charge when taking on fuel? FIRST _____________.
A. Posting of the Declaration of Inspection in a conspicuous place A. unplug the deck scuppers
under glass.
B. Topping off any tanks being loaded. B. run out the vessel's fire hose
C. Overboard disposal of all waste oil or slops from drip pans. C. order the shore facility to shut down
D. Sampling performed periodically during loading to ensure D. call the chief engineer
uniformity.
Ans: B Ans: C
4701 A fire station located in the engine room, is required by regulations 4702 The safe rate of bunkering heavy fuel oil is directly related to the
to have ____________. ____________.
A. a spanner wrench suitable for the size of hose at that station A. type of fuel transfer pump aboard

B. lined or unlined hose, depending upon its location B. temperature of the fuel oil being received
C. a 2mtr or 3mtr low velocity fog applicator C. size of the fuel storage tanks ashore
D. all of the above D. distance from the fuel oil storage tanks ashore
Ans:
A Ans:
B
4703 In a compartment that has been completely flooded, the greatest 4704 When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be
pressure will be exerted _____________. disconnected when ____________.
A. along the bottom of any bulkhead A. the machine is inside the tank
B. at the center of all bulkheads B. the machine is not inside the tank
C. along the top of any bulkhead C. a sailor is standing by the machine
D. on the overhead of the compartment D. the hose has been partially drained
Ans: A Ans: B
4705 After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and 4706 After transferring fuel to another vessel, hoses should be drained
___________. __________.
A. draped over the fantail to dry out A. to the bilges
B. drained over the side and washed out B. over the side
C. drained into the bilges and washed out C. into a bucket
D. drained into buckets or fuel tanks D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: C
4707 Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to 4708 To prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due to expansion, you
_____________. should top off ____________.
A. inert the barrier spaces A. to the bottom of the expansion trunk
B. calibrate the gas leak detectors B. to within 1% to 3% of its capacity
C. odorize the cargo C. to within 3 to 8 cm of its capacity
D. detect leaks in cargo piping D. 3 to 8cm from top of the vent pipe
Ans: B Ans: B
4709 The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result 4710 After fuel tanks have been topped off, which of the listed
in an oil spill, is when the _____________. procedures should be followed next?
A. hose joints are made up A. The pressure-vacuum relief valve should be reset.
B. tanks are being topped off B. The tanks should be made seaworthy to prevent contamination.

C. system is being lined up C. The tanks should be sounded to make sure the levels are not rising.

D. pumping operation is first started D. The tanks should be marked

Ans: B Ans: C
4711 Regulations for carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing systems 4712 Regulations state that any space containing charged CO2
require __________. cylinders, shall be properly ventilated to prevent a temperature
higher than ___________.
A. a separate supply of CO2 be provided for each space protected A. 130°F (54.5°C)

B. the total supply of CO2 to be at least sufficient for the space B. 140°F (60.0°C)
requiring the greatest amount
C. the total supply of CO2 be equal to the gross tonnage of the vessel C. 150°F (66.6°C)
divided by 30
D. all of the above D. 160°F (71.1°C)
Ans: B Ans: A
4713 Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the 4714 The Pollution Prevention Regulations requires an emergency
day while loading fuel? means of stopping the flow of oil during oil transfer operations. That
emergency means may be a/an _____________.

A. A red flag A. manually-operated quick-closing valve

B. A yellow flag B. self-closing automatic disconnect fitting
C. A red and yellow flag C. emergency pump control on the cargo deck
D. A red light D. automatic pressure-sensitive oil flow regulator
Ans: A Ans: C
4715 Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an 4716 While your vessel is fueling, you notice that the transfer hose has
inert gas generation system? developed a large bulge. Which of the following actions should be
taken, according to Regulations , if you are the person-in-charge?

A. Cools the inert gas. A. Wrap the bulge area with nylon line.
B. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume. B. Stop the transfer of fuel.
C. Drains off static electricity in the inert gas. C. Report the incident to the Master
D. Maintains the water seal on the gas main. D. Simply order new hose for the next fueling operation.
 Page 260

Ans: A Ans: B
4717 Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for 4718 Prior to entering a shipboard compartment containing spilled
fire prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank sewage, you should test the atmosphere in thecompartment for
vessels? __________.
A. An inert gas system A. Hydrogen sulfide
B. The deck foam system B. Methane Gas
C. The fixed CO2 system C. Oxygen
D. A fixed water spray system D. All of the above
Ans:
A Ans:
D
4719 Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a 4720 The Pollution Prevention Regulations prohibit draining
flue gas system to the cargo tanks? _____________.
A. Exhaust gas pressure A. waste oil into the slop tank
B. High capacity fan B. lube oil purifiers into the bilge
C. Inert gas compressor C. fuel oil heaters into buckets
D. Natural aspiration D. lube oil strainers into drip pans
Ans: B Ans: B
4721 Open tank ullage holes which are not gas free, must be protected 4722 Bilges may be pumped _____________.
by _____________.
A. flame screens A. on the outgoing tide
B. warning signs B. overboard after dark
C. P.V. valves C. overboard through an oily water separator
D. stop-check valves D. anytime in an emergency, i.e. main engine lube oil failure
Ans: A Ans: C
4723 According to Regulations, new tank vessels enroute beyond the 50 4724 The device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed
mile limit may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a spaces is called a _____________.
cargo tank or cargo pump room unless __________.
A. the quantity of oil discharged into the sea does not exceed 1/30,000 A. flame relief valve
of the total quantity of cargo carried on board
B. anchored outside the breakwater B. flame stopper
C. discharging oil at a rate not exceeding 200 liters per nautical mile C. safety valve

D. the quantity of oil discharged into the surrounding waters does not D. flame arrester
exceed 1/600,000 of the total quantity of cargo carried onboard

Ans: A Ans: D
4725 A low velocity fog applicator is held in an all-purpose nozzle by a 4726 In port, after chemically cleaning a fuel oil tank, you should dispose
bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint of the waste oil by _____________.
by ___________.
A. water pressure A. pumping it into the sewer connection
B. a keeper screw B. centrifuging and reclaiming it
C. a spring-loaded catch C. circulating it through an oil and water separator
D. a locknut D. discharging it into a slop barge or holding tank
Ans: C Ans: D
4727 As soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal, you should 4728 Which of the following actions should be taken by the engine room
ensure that the _____________. watch when the general alarm is sounded continuously?

A. ring buoys are thrown overboard A. The fire pump should be started.
B. engines are stopped B. The boiler fires should be secured.
C. fire pumps are started C. The fixed CO2 system should be initiated into action.
D. life preservers have been issued to everyone D. The engine room ventilation should be secured.
Ans:
C Ans: A
4729 Which of the listed operations must be personally supervised by the 4730 During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be
person-in-charge while taking on fuel? personally supervised by the ____________.
A. Posting of the Declaration of Inspection in a conspicuous place A. terminal operator
under glass.
B. Topping off of any tanks being loaded. B. person-in-charge
C. Disposing overboard all waste oil or slops from drip pans. C. master
D. Periodic sampling during the loading to ensure uniformity. D. engineer on watch
Ans: B Ans:
B
4731 When bunkering operations are completed, the hoses should be 4732 The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations ,
_____________. means _____________.
A. drained into drip pans or tanks A. fuel oil only
B. blown down with nitrogen or inert gas B. crude oil only
C. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water C. liquefied petroleum gas
D. stowed with their ends open for venting D. petroleum oil of any kind
Ans: A Ans: D
4733 Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, 4734 An oxygen indicator will detect __________.
and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located?

A. Bridge and engine control consoles A. concentrations of explosive gas

B. Bridge and tank(s) being inerted B. an oxygen deficiency in a space
C. Main deck and engine control consoles C. the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide
D. Cargo control and engine control consoles D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: B
 Page 261

4735 During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the 4736 An International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate ceases
cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert gas system must to be valid on a Ship when _____________.
be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of
________________.
A. 150 millimeters of water pressure A. the ship changes its port of documentation
B. 125 millimeters of water pressure B. the certificate exceeds 2 years from the date of issue
C. 100 millimeters of water pressure C. an intermediate survey as required is not carried out
D. 75 millimeters of water pressure D. the vessel owners cease to belong to IMO (International Maritime
Organization)
Ans: C Ans: C
4737 Used engine oil may be properly disposed of by ___________. 4738 According to Regulations , all exposed and dangerous places, such
as gears and machinery shall be properly protected with
_____________.
A. draining it into the bilges A. covers
B. discharging it to a dockside oil waste station B. guards
C. pumping or throwing it over the side in port C. rails
D. dumping it in a gasoline fuel tank D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
4739 What safety precautions should be observed by the crew while 4740 According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations , which of the
working around machinery in an engine room? following qualifies as a discharge of oil?
A. They should wear safety shoes. A. Leakage of oil to the water by an improperly blanked transfer hose.

B. They should wear ear protection. B. Spilling oil on the main deck and having it flow over the side.
C. They should not wear jewelry. C. Pumping oil overboard through a fixed piping system.
D. All of the above. D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: D
4741 Vessel stability can be adversely affected by ___________. 4742 Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen,
by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system,
prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

A. increasing the free surface effect A. 0.06

B. decreasing the free surface effect B. 0.08
C. ballasting down by the bow C. 0.1
D. ballasting down by the stern D. 0.12
Ans: A Ans: B
4743 Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a corrosion resistant wire mesh 4744 You are alone and administering CPR to a an adult victim. How
screen to _____________. many chest compressions and how many inflations should you
administer in each sequence?
A. prevent dirt from entering the tank A. 5 compressions, then 1 inflation
B. dissipate fumes leaving the vent B. 15 compressions, then 2 inflations
C. prevent flames from entering the tank C. 20 compressions, then 3 inflations
D. prevent accidental overflow D. 30 compressions, then 4 inflations
Ans: C Ans: B
4745 A vessel which is subjected to "sagging" _____________. 4746 Automatically closed fire dampers installed in the vessel's
ventilation system are operated by the use of a ____________.

A. has its main deck under tensile stress A. remote operated valve
B. has its bottom plating under tensile stress B. fusible link
C. is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships C. CO2 system pressure switch
D. is said to be under a form of transverse bending D. heat or smoke detector
Ans: B Ans: B
4747 The horizontal port, or starboard movement of a vessel is called 4748 If a cup of oil is spilled during fueling and causes a sheen upon the
_____________. water it _____________.
A. yaw A. must be reported to the fire department
B. sway B. must be reported to the Port Control Authourities
C. surge C. must be reported to the harbour master
D. heave D. need not be reported since the spill was less than 250 barrels

Ans: B Ans: B
4749 In accordance with Regulations, approved buoyant work vests 4750 Prior to entering a cargo pumproom, you should ensure that
___________. ____________.
A. should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life A. the forced ventilating system is operating
preservers because they are less bulky and permit free movement
in confined spaces
B. may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during B. the cargo pumps are secured
routine drills, but never during an emergency
C. should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets C. no monocarbon gases are present
in an emergency
D. all of the above D. the oily water separator is de-energized
Ans: C Ans: A
4751 To safeguard the operator and other personnel working on or near 4752 Which of the following statements describes one of the functions of
a hoisting operation, which of the following precautions should be the ballasting system?
observed?
A. Keep a load on the hoist until all personnel are finished working. A. To permit flooding of any fuel oil storage tank on any class of ship.
 Page 262

B. Set the load on a movable dolly when transportation may be B. To use it as a secondary service system.
needed.
C. Have one man keep a hand on the load to steady it. C. To store reserve feed or potable water for extended cruises.
D. Insure that the lifting gear capacity is not exceeded. D. To stabilize the ship by flooding certain designed tanks with
seawater.
Ans: D Ans: D
4753 The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn 4754 To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through
from its bow to its stern is _______________. the cargo piping system, you should FIRST _________.

A. pitching A. open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
B. rolling B. start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
C. heaving C. open block valves, then start the cargo pump
D. swaying D. open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
Ans: B Ans: B
4755 The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to- 4756 Why is it necessary to cool the bulkheads, decks, and overheads
mouth ventilation by pinching the victim's nostrils and surrounding an involved compartment fire?
_____________.
A. cupping a hand around the patient's mouth A. Cool the metal below its ignition temperature
B. keeping the head elevated B. Form a dense coating of smothering steam
C. applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth C. Prevent oxygen from reaching the flames
D. holding the jaw down firmly D. Prevent the fire from spreading by heat conduction
Ans: C Ans:
D
4757 An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an ____________. 4758 Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be
directed _______________.
A. air bottle for breathing A. at the top of the flames
B. whistle and handheld flare B. at the base of the fire near the edge
C. whistle, strobe light, and reflective tape C. in short, quick bursts
D. whistle, handheld flare, and sea dye marker D. toward the upwind side of the fire
Ans: C Ans: B
4759 When taking soundings ,the tape should be lowered and brought 4760 Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time
back quickly to _____________. for setting off distress flares and rockets?
A. reduce the time the sounding tube is open A. Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels.

B. avoid creating a spark B. At half-hour intervals.

C. lessen the effect of roll or pitch on the reading C. At one hour intervals.
D. lessen the effect of heave on the reading D. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel.
Ans:
C Ans: A
4761 A straight stream of water should be used to extinguish 4762 Rolling is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
_____________.
A. galley grease fires A. Longitudinal
B. fuel oil fires B. Transverse
C. burning bedding materials C. Vertical
D. a fire in the paint locker D. Centerline
Ans: C Ans:
A
4763 Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be 4764 Which of the listed types of fires should be extinguished with a
done _______________. straight stream of water?
A. without losing the rhythm of respiration A. Bilge
B. only with the help of two other people B. Mattress
C. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes C. Galley range
D. at ten minute intervals D. Switchboard
Ans: A Ans: B
4765 When is it required for a dry chemical fire extinguisher to be 4766 You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your Ship. If you
recharged? close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the flow rate to the
other open tanks on the same line will _______________.

A. After each use A. increase

B. When the air temperature exceeds 32°C B. decrease
C. Every six months C. stop
D. Every 12 months D. stabilize
Ans: A Ans: A
4767 The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the Pollution Prevention 4768 For a floating vessel, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter
Regulations as ballast water introduced into a/an ____________. are in the line of action of the buoyant force ____________.

A. tank that is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil A. only when there is positive stability
systems
B. fuel settling tank for segregation from lighter fluids B. only when there is negative stability
C. oily water separator for segregation C. only when there is neutral stability
D. isolated tank for analysis because of its noxious properties D. at all times
Ans: A Ans: D
4769 Before CPR is started on the victim, you should ___________. 4770 When entering a burning compartment and equipped with a fire
hose and an all-purpose nozzle, you should first direct
_____________.
A. establish an open airway A. a straight stream into the center of the space
B. treat any bleeding wounds B. the high velocity fog into the center of the space
C. insure the victim is conscious C. the high velocity fog at the overhead to absorb heat
D. make the victim comfortable D. the high velocity fog at the deck to cool it for entry
 Page 263

Ans: A Ans: C
4771 The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a floating vessel 4772 A load line for a cargo ship is assigned by the ______________.
decrease with the _______________.
A. surface area of the tank A. P & I club
B. displacement volume B. Ministry of Surface Transport
C. draft of the MODU C. Corps of Engineers
D. height of the tank above the keel D. a recognized classification society approved by the Administration

Ans: B Ans: D
4773 Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has 4774 Mechanical foam used for firefighting, is produced by
been established, the drinking routine should include ____________.
______________.
A. small sips at regular intervals during the day. A. mechanically mixing and agitating foam chemical, water, and air

B. a complete daily ration at one time during the day. B. a chemical reaction of foam components and air
C. one-half the daily ration twice during the day. C. gas bubbles liberated when the foam chemical contacts fire
D. small sips only after sunset. D. chemical reaction of foam components and water
Ans: C Ans: A
4775 Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while underway is known as 4776 According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (MARPOL), if a cargo
______________. hose shows a small leak in its fabric, you may transfer oil after
_____________.
A. pitch A. the terminal foreman is notified
B. surge B. the hose is replaced
C. sway C. the hose leak is securely wrapped
D. roll D. a drip pan is placed under the leak
Ans: B Ans: B
4777 When two people are administering CPR to a victim, how 4778 To effectively and safely combat a passageway fire,
manytimes per minute should the chest be compressed? ___________.
A. 15 A. two hose teams should attack the fire from opposite directions

B. 30 B. the fire should be attacked from above if possible

C. 60 C. the fire should be attacked from one direction only
D. 80 D. water must not be used if the passageway is above the
metacentric height
Ans: C Ans: C
4779 Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be equipped with an 4780 What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for
alarm which is to sound ________________. progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?
A. for the first 20 seconds CO2 is being released into the space A. The integrity of the watertight boundaries.

B. for at least 20 seconds prior to release of CO2 B. The capacity of the water sprinkler system.
C. during the entire period that CO2 is being released C. The operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms.
D. if all doors and ventilation are not secured D. All of the above.
Ans:
B Ans: A
4781 If a leak in a fueling hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening 4782 When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST
the coupling joint, you should _____________. collection should be _____________.
A. reduce the pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate A. passed around so all can drink
B. stop the fueling operation and correct the leak B. poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
C. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak in order to C. saved to be used at a later time
confine it
D. notify the local port authority of a potential oil spill D. used to boil food
Ans: B Ans: B
4783 Low velocity fog extinguishes a fire by ____________. 4784 In small angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force
is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy
and through the _______________.
A. smothering and washing out A. center of gravity
B. smothering and cooling B. center of flotation
C. cooling and washing out C. metacenter
D. none of the above D. metacentric height
Ans:
B Ans:
C
4785 After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should 4786 A low velocity fog applicator is used in firefighting to
be ____________. _____________.
A. walked around until he is back to normal A. apply large droplets of foam
B. given several shots of whiskey B. cool and smother the fire
C. kept lying down and warm C. break up burning embers
D. allowed to do as he wishes D. extinguish hard to reach electrical fires
Ans: C Ans: B
4787 The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire 4788 The jettisoning of topside weight from a floating vessel serves which
extinguishing cylinder, to prevent its overpressurization is called a of the purposes listed?
____________.
A. safety valve A. It returns the vessel to an even keel.
B. relief valve B. It reduces free surface effect.
C. rupture disc C. It lowers the center of gravity.
D. control head D. It raises the center of gravity.
Ans: C Ans: C
 Page 264

4789 In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the 4790 Oil Pollution Regulations (MARPOL) require any transfer or
cargo tanks to be washed must be ______________. discharge of oil or oily mixtures to be recorded in the
____________.
A. opened to the atmosphere for ventilation A. bridge log
B. gas free B. Master's log
C. inerted C. engine room log
D. full of cargo D. oil record book
Ans: C Ans: D
4791 Where multiple fire pumps are installed, they may be used for other 4792 In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim, ____________.
purposes, provided that one pump is _____________.
A. on line and in operation at all times to the fire main A. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the
water
B. kept available for use on the fire main at all times B. drain water from the lungs before ventilating
C. capable of being quickly connected to the fire main with a suitable C. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations
pipe spool
D. rated at or above 125 psi D. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting
Ans: B Ans: C
4793 Inspection of a Halon fire extinguisher involves checking the hose, 4794 Which of the following is a correct statement with respect to
handle, nozzle, and _______________. inserting an airway tube?
A. each sight glass A. Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube.

B. weighing of the extinguisher B. A size #2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult.
C. the service technicians report C. The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat.
D. the last date it was charged D. Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting.
Ans:
B Ans:
A
4795 The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is used with a fire 4796 After using a portable Halon fire extinguisher, it shouldbe
hose to produce _____________. ____________.
A. high velocity fog A. put back in service if more than 50% of the charge remains
B. mechanical foam B. repainted
C. low velocity fog C. hydrostaticly tested before reuse
D. light water D. discarded
Ans: B Ans: D
4797 A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting 4798 In a crude oil washing system, according to regulations, each cargo
downward through the ____________. tank shall be fitted with a sufficient number of machines, such that
those areas unwashed by direct impingement shall not exceed
10% for horizontal areas, and ____

A. center of gravity A. 5% for vertical areas

B. center of buoyancy B. 10% for vertical areas
C. center of flotation C. 15% for vertical areas
D. metacenter D. 20% for vertical areas
Ans:
A Ans: C
4799 To turn over a liferaft that is floating upside down, you should pull 4800 Which of the following conditions can contribute to accidents?
on the _____________.
A. canopy A. Good housekeeping
B. manropes B. Inspections
C. sea painter C. Unsafe conditions
D. righting lines D. Intelligent work habits
Ans: D Ans: C
4801 Class "B" EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by 4802 Which of the following procedures is the generally accepted method
______________. of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is over
rich, explosive, or too lean to support combustion?

A. orbiting satellites in space A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken
from the tank.
B. commercial radio stations B. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
C. private, commercial, and military aircraft C. Enter the tank with a teledyne oxygen analyzer.
D. commercial fishing vessels D. Use an explosimeter.
Ans: C Ans: D
4803 The master or person in charge of a cargoship must record the 4804 In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating
date of each test of emergency lighting systems, power systems, vessel is located directly above the ___________.
the condition of each and the performance of the equipment
____________.
A. on the Certificate of Inspection A. metacenter
B. on the muster list B. amidships
C. in the Operations Manual C. center of flotation
D. in the official log D. geometric center of the displaced volume
Ans: D Ans: D
4805 A vessel which is subjected to "hogging" _____________. 4806 The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be ____________.

A. has its main deck under compressive stress A. free running on deck
B. has its main deck plating under tensile stress B. faked out next to the case
C. has its bottom plate under tensile stress C. secured to a permanent object on deck via a weak link
D. has its bottom plating under ductile stress D. stowed near the raft
Ans: B Ans: C
 Page 265

4807 Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but 4808 At all angles of inclination the metacenter is located
not water rinsed, shall be regarded as ________. ______________.

A. clean ballast A. vertically above the center of buoyancy

B. dirty ballast B. vertically above the center of gravity
C. segregated ballast C. at the intersection of the upright vertical centerline and the line of
action of the buoyant force
D. crude oil D. geometric center of the underwater volume
Ans: B Ans: A
4809 According to MARPOL Regulations , all ships are required to 4810 A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has
prepare, submit, and maintain a(an) __________. been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure.
Which of the following actions should be taken next?

A. synthetic plastic discharge plan A. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting.
B. oil discharge plan B. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.
C. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan C. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic.
D. vapor recovery procedures plan D. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood.
Ans: C Ans: B
4811 Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________. 4812 The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to
____________.
A. stowed safely at the work site until work is completed A. instantaneously extinguish the fire which triggered it
B. returned to the paint locker after each use B. limit the spread of the fire and control the amount of heat produced

C. covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources C. protect people in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed

D. continuously kept in closed containers at all times D. alert the crew to the fire
Ans: B Ans: B
4813 The term "arrival ballast" refers to ___________. 4814 The volume of a floating vessel above the waterline that can be
made watertight is its __________.
A. brackish water ballast A. displacement volume
B. dirty ballast B. reserve buoyancy
C. clean ballast C. gross tonnage
D. any form of sea water ballast D. net tonnage
Ans: C Ans: B
4815 When fire pumps are used for purposes other than firefighting 4816 Bleeding from a vein may ordinarily be controlled by ___________.
service, each pipe connection to the other service (except for
branch lines used for deck washing) must have a ___________.

A. check valve installed in the line A. applying direct pressure to the wound
B. shut off valve at a manifold near the pump B. heavy application of a disinfectant
C. quick disconnect union within ten feet of the pump C. pouring ice water directly onto the wound
D. regulator in the line set at 8.8kg/cm2 D. pinching the wound closed
Ans: B Ans:
A
4817 The stability existing after the unintentional flooding of a 4818 According to MARPOL regulations, the shipboard oil pollution
compartment on a cargo ship is called ______________. emergency plan must include __________.
A. intact stability A. all information ordinarily provided in the oil record book
B. initial stability B. an explanation and purpose of this plan
C. immersion stability C. a one-line schematic of the plan to be implemented
D. damage stability D. the operating instructions for any and all oily-water separators
installed aboard the vessel
Ans: D Ans: B
4819 When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog 4820 The quality of initial stability is indicated by __________.
_____________.
A. has the greatest ability to produce foam A. GM
B. has the greatest cooling ability B. KM
C. will completely remove toxic fumes from the air C. Deck load
D. will completely remove combustible vapors from the air D. Maximum allowed KG
Ans: B Ans: A
4821 An initial attempt to extinguish a galley grease fire may be made by 4822 Which of the following is the correct procedure to follow when
using ____________. launching an inflatable liferaft by hand from an ocean going vessel?

A. water A. Connect the stainless steel link (float free link) to the vessel.
B. a mechanical foam system B. Pull the line (painter) from the container and make it fast to the cleat
provided.
C. the range hood extinguishing system C. Open the canopy relief valves.
D. fire dampers only D. Remove the raft from the container to permit complete inflation.

Ans: C Ans: B
4823 The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may 4824 The angle to which a floating vessel, with a negative initial
prevent the tank from _____________. metacentric height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of
__________.
A. filling completely A. trim
B. developing free surfaces B. yaw
C. developing free surface moments C. heel
D. collapsing D. loll
Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 266

4825 On a cargo ship, size I and II fire extinguishers are considered 4826 The upward force of displaced water is known as __________.
____________,
A. fixed systems A. buoyancy
B. steam generated B. deadweight
C. hand portable units C. draft
D. semi-portable units D. freeboard
Ans: C Ans: A
4827 Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear _____________. 4828 One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is__________.

A. dark red with a steady flow A. contamination food with extinguishing agent
B. bright red with a steady flow B. spreading of fire through the engineering space
C. bright red and in spurts C. the loss of stability
D. dark red and in spurts D. the igniting of a grease fire in the range hood ventilation system

Ans: C Ans: D
4829 Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic 4830 The stamped full weight of a 45kgs CO2 cylinder is 142kgs. What is
shutdown of the ________________. the total minimum weight of the cylinder before it must be
recharged?
A. fuel supply only A. 128kgs
B. exhaust ventilation only B. 133kgs
C. supply and exhaust ventilation C. 136kgs
D. mechanical and natural ventilation D. 138kgs
Ans: C Ans: D
4831 During counterflooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated 4832 If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine
by an off center load, a cargo ship suddenly takes a list or trim to room, you should _____________.
the opposite side. You should ____________.

A. continue counterflooding in the same direction A. leave the space immediately

B. continue counterflooding, but in the opposite direction B. start the fire pump
C. immediately stop counterflooding C. make certain that the CO2 starts flowing into the space
D. deballast from the low side D. immediately assist the fixed system by discharging all portable
units as well
Ans: C Ans: A
4833 Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of 4834 How often are fire hoses required to be tested ?
buoyancy?
A. BK A. Once a week.
B. KB B. Once a month.
C. CB C. Once a year.
D. BM D. During each drill.
Ans: B Ans: C
4835 What is the primary purpose for applying a splint in first aid? 4836 A Crude Oil Wash (COW) system is considered as ____________.

A. Control bleeding A. a water operated Butterworth system

B. Reduce pain B. a mechanism which filters and purifies crude oil
C. Immobilize the fracture C. a Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water as the
cleaning medium
D. Reset the bone D. a cleanup for pump room bilges
Ans: C Ans: C
4837 A CO2 fire extinguisher provided aboard has lost 10% of its 4838 Before releasing CO2 into the machinery space, the alarm for a
charge. It now must be _______________. fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system must sound for at least
______________.
A. used at the earliest opportunity A. 20 seconds
B. hydrotested B. 30 seconds
C. recharged C. 40 seconds
D. weighed again in one month D. 60 seconds
Ans:
C Ans:
A
4839 A CO2 fire extinguisher must be weighed ____________. 4840 A compound fracture is a fracture _____________.
A. monthly A. in which more than one bone is broken
B. quarterly B. in which the same bone is broken in more than one place
C. semiannually C. which is accompanied by internal bleeding
D. annually D. which causes external bleeding at the site of the fracture
Ans: D Ans: D
4841 Which of the listed of fractures would be considered as the most 4842 Which of the following statements concerning chemical foam is
serious? true?
A. Compound A. It is formed as a result of the reaction between dry powder and
water.
B. Greenstick B. It is recommended for use on fires in main propulsion electric
motors.
C. Closed C. It is formed as a result of the rapid mixing of foam liquid, water, and
air.
D. Crack D. It is useful in fighting only chemical fires.
Ans: A Ans: A
4843 When positive stability exists, "GZ" represents the _______. 4844 In a fixed CO2 system, the "pilot" cylinders are used to
____________.
A. righting moment A. direct CO2 to the pilot house
 Page 267

B. center of gravity B. activate individual groups of CO2 bottles in a predetermined time

delay sequence
C. righting arm C. activate the main bank all at once
D. metacentric height D. automatically activate the main bank if an abnormal heat rise is
detected
Ans: C Ans: C
4845 To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning a 4846 If you have to jump into the water when abandoning a ship, your
ship, they should _____________. legs should be ____________.
A. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other A. spread apart as far as possible
survivors in the water
B. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure B. held as tightly against your chest as possible
to the air
C. remove their lifejackets and hold on to the uninjured survivors C. in a kneeling position

D. sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes D. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles
Ans: A Ans: D
4847 When discharging the main bank of fixed CO2 into a major engine 4848 When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be
room fire, CO2 pressure is used to _____________. activated after abandoning a ship?
A. discharge each bottle A. Immediately
B. sound the general alarm B. After on hour
C. secure the ventilation fan dampers C. Only when another vessel is in sight
D. All of the above. D. Only after sunset
Ans: A Ans: A
4849 Flooding of any compartment in a ship, resulting in a serious loss 4850 Which of the equipment listed is required to be included in the
of reserve buoyancy, will always _____________. fireman's (emergency) outfit?
A. increase ship stability A. Chemical protection face shield
B. reduce ship stability B. Approved work vest
C. cause a serious permanent list C. Self-contained breathing apparatus
D. decrease the heeling moment D. 5 cell approved flashlight
Ans: B Ans: C
4851 Smoking in bed on a ship is prohibited _______________. 4852 The order to abandon a ship should only be given by the
___________.
A. at all times A. Chief Officer
B. during evening hours B. Chief engineer
C. unless another person is present C. Master
D. during drilling operations D. Head office
Ans:
A Ans: C
4853 When the height of metacenter is greater than the height of the 4854 If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning
center of gravity, a vessel has what type of stability? a ship it will ____________.
A. Positive. A. weigh you down
B. Neutral. B. preserve body heat
C. Unstable. C. reduce your body heat
D. Negative. D. make it more difficult to breathe
Ans: A Ans: B
4855 The lowest temperature at which the vapor formed from a liquid 4856 Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the
ignites and continues to burn steadily in the presence of an ignition _____________.
source is called the ___________.
A. flash point A. ship's articles
B. fire point B. bunk card
C. upper explosive limit C. forecastle card
D. lower explosive limit D. muster list
Ans:
B Ans:
D
4857 When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the stream of 4858 Reducing the free surface of a liquid within a tank has the effect of
foam is most effective when directed _________. lowering the _______________.
A. at the overhead A. uncorrected "KG"
B. at a vertical surface B. virtual height of the center of gravity
C. onto the deck C. metacenter
D. directly into the bilge water D. metacentric height
Ans: B Ans: B
4859 The sense of smell cannot be depended upon to detect hydrogen 4860 Which of the following is NOT a mandatory requirement part of the
sulfide because _______________. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?
A. it has a smell similar to petroleum products A. reporting requirments
B. the gas is odorless in any concentration B. diagrams
C. of paralysis to the olfactory nerves C. steps to control a discharge
D. it is better to rely on eye irritation as a detector D. national and local coordination
Ans: C Ans: B
4861 The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the 4862 When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the ship
surface area dimensions of the free liquids andthe __________. are the same, __________.

A. volume of liquid in the tank A. synchronous rolling occurs

B. volume of displacement of the ship B. the roll period decreases
C. location of the tank in the ship C. the roll period increases
D. height of the center of gravity of the ship D. the roll amplitude is dampened
Ans: B Ans: A
4863 Which of the following statements is true concerningAqueous Film 4864 Reducing the free surfaces within a vessel, reduces the
Forming Foam (AFFF)? ____________.
 Page 268

A. The agent cannot be used in conjunction with dry chemicals. A. natural roll period
B. AFFF can only be produced from fresh water. B. metacentric height
C. Because AFFF works through surface tension, it cannot be broken C. waterplane area
up if it is agitated.
D. AFFF controls the vaporization of flammable liquids by means of a D. uncorrected height of the center of gravity
water film.
Ans: D Ans: A
4865 The minimum concentration of hydrogen sulfide that can result in 4866 While you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of
death if a person is exposed for even an instant is _____________. your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases
breathing. Your FIRST response should be to __________.

A. 200 ppm A. remove him from the compartment

B. 400 ppm B. begin artificial respiration
C. 600 ppm C. control the bleeding
D. 1000 ppm D. treat for shock
Ans: D Ans: A
4867 Which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil 4868 The lethal concentration of hydrogen sulfide that will result in death
pollution emergency plan? with short-term exposure is a minimum of _____________.

A. reporting requirements A. 100 ppm

B. removal equipment list B. 200 ppm
C. plan exercises C. 400 ppm
D. list of individuals required to respond D. 700 ppm
Ans: A Ans: D
4869 Which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the 4870 Which of the listed fixed fire extinguishing systems is most effective
appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? for use in the cargo holds?

A. a list of agencies or officials of Coastal State administrations A. Sprinkler

responsible for receiving and processing incident reports

B. a list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports. B. Chemical foam

C. a list which specifies who will be responsible for informing the C. Dry chemical
parties listed and the priority in which they must be notified.

D. a list of personnel duty assignments D. CO2

Ans: D Ans: D
4871 Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of 4872 A man has suffered a burn on his arm characterized by reddening
exposure to H2S can tolerate ___________. of the skin, blistering, and swelling. This is an example of what kind
of burn?
A. unusually large concentrations of H2S A. Major burn
B. smaller than normal concentrations of H2S B. Third degree burn
C. moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions C. Second degree burn
D. longer exposure to H2S concentrations D. Blister burn
Ans:
B Ans:
C
4873 Which of the devices listed below is designed to prevent flames 4874 Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat includes
from entering through fuel tank vents? _____________.
A. Safety cap A. a boathook
B. Flame screen B. life preservers
C. Spark arrester C. a sea painter
D. Flame inhibitor D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
4875 Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be 4876 An explosive mixture containing air with a maximum concentration
recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according of vapor, is capable of ignition when it is at the ____________.
to MARPOL Regulations?
A. Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage. A. flammable range
B. The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water B. rich point limit
accumulated in machinery spaces.
C. The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo. C. autoignition point
D. All of the above. D. upper explosive limit
Ans: D Ans: A
4877 After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the 4878 The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for
center of flotation will ____________. ______________.
A. change, depending on the location of the LCG A. not less than 3 years and be readily available for inspection
B. increase B. 6 months and then submitted to the nearest Marine Safety Office for
review
C. decrease C. an annual inspection
D. remain the constant D. the duration of the ship's active employment
Ans: D Ans: A
4879 According to Regulations , a bulkhead capable of preventing the 4880 The average of the observed drafts is known as ____________.
passage of smoke and flame for one hour would be classified as
a/an ____________.
A. A-60 A. mean draft
B. B-60 B. true mean draft
C. C-60 C. mean of the calculated drafts
D. D-60 D. draft at the center of flotation
Ans: A Ans: A
 Page 269

4881 For small first degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to 4882 When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy
__________. ______________.
A. immerse the burn in cold water A. decreases
B. administer aspirin B. remains the same
C. apply petroleum jelly C. increases
D. apply a bandage to exclude air D. shifts to the low side
Ans: A Ans: A
4883 An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using 4884 A victim has suffered a second degree burn to a small area of the
____________. lower arm. Which of the following statements represents the proper
treatment for this injury?
A. the single hook at the top of the raft A. Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn ointment,
and bandage.
B. two lines passed under the raft B. Open any blisters with a sterile needle, apply burn ointment, and
bandage.
C. the towing bridle C. Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material, and insure that
nothing is in contact with the burn.
D. all of the above D. Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any blister,
and apply burn ointment.
Ans: C Ans: A
4885 On a ship, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant 4886 Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in _________.
line attached?
A. One ring life buoy. A. rags soaked in linseed oil
B. One ring life buoy on each side of the MODU. B. overloaded electrical circuits
C. Three ring life buoys. C. dirty swabs and cleaning gear
D. Two ring life buoys on each side of the MODU. D. partially loaded fuel tanks
Ans: B Ans:
A
4887 The spread of fire can be prevented by ____________. 4888 A branch line valve of a fixed fire extinguishing system on a ship
must be marked with the ____________.
A. cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire A. maximum pressure allowed at that branch
B. removing combustibles from the endangered area B. name of the space or spaces which it serves
C. shutting off the oxygen supply C. date of the last maintenance inspection
D. all of the above D. pressure needed to maintain an effective stream at that point
Ans:
D Ans: B
4889 In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a 4890 Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by
floating vessel, will cause the vessel to ____________. the ____________.
A. heel until the angle of loll is reached A. engineer on watch
B. list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center B. Chief Engineer
of gravity
C. trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal C. Chief Mate
D. decrease draft at the center of flotation D. Master
Ans: B Ans: D
4891 Each emergency light on a ship must be marked with ________. 4892 In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal
burns it is important to prevent or reduce _____________.

A. the letter "E" A. disfigurement

B. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit B. infection
C. a no smoking symbol C. pain
D. the word "DANGER" D. asphyxia
Ans: A Ans: C
4893 With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of 4894 For each passenger vessel, the minimum number of immersion
gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the suits to be carried for each lifeboat is at least ____________.
______________.
A. longitudinal centerline A. 1
B. center of flotation B. 2
C. original vertical centerline C. 3
D. metacenter D. 4
Ans: C Ans: C
4895 With no environmental forces present, the center of gravity of an 4896 How are line shaft bearings usually lubricated?
inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the ____________.

A. longitudinal centerline A. Gravity feed

B. center of flotation B. Pressure feed
C. original vertical centerline C. Oil lubricating disks
D. center of buoyancy D. Oil lubricating rings
Ans: C Ans:
D
4897 Halon 1301 enters the fire area as a _____________. 4898 If the metacentric height is large, a floating vessel will
______________.
A. powder A. be tender
B. gas B. have a slow and easy motion
C. pellet C. be stiff
D. glassy slag D. have a tendency to yaw
Ans: B Ans: C
4899 The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to 4900 Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon
immediately ____________. 1301 fire extinguishing agent?
A. apply ointment to burned area A. The agent is highly toxic at normal room temperature.
B. flood the affected area with water B. The agent by weight is more effective than CO2.
 Page 270

C. wrap the burn with sterile dressing C. Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering.
D. apply an ice pack to the burned area D. The agent can not be used on electrical fires as it leaves a residue.

Ans: B Ans: B
4901 A fire in a fuel oil settling tank is a ____________. 4902 If fuel oil is burned from the port side tanks alone, the ship will
_____________.
A. Class A fire A. go down by the head
B. Class B fire B. list to starboard
C. Class C fire C. trim by the stern
D. Class D fire D. list to port
Ans: B Ans: B
4903 Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be 4904 If a line shaft bearing begins to overheat the shaft speed should be
replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or from the reduced. If overheating persists, you should then _____________.
date of manufacture, not later than ___________.
A. 12 months A. increase lube oil pressure to the bearing
B. 24 months B. decrease lube oil pressure to the bearing
C. 36 months C. apply emergency cooling water externally to the bearing
D. 42 months D. flood the bearing with a higher viscosity oil to provide emergency
lubrication and cooling
Ans: B Ans: C
4905 Which of the following would be considered a Class "B" fire? 4906 Convection spreads a fire as a result of ____________.
A. Electrical fire in a motor A. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
B. Waste rag fire in the engine room B. burning liquids flowing into another space
C. Oil fire in the engine room bilges C. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
D. Fire in the main switchboard D. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
Ans: C Ans: C
4907 If a person is unconscious as a result of an electric shock, you 4908 Fire fighting agents, such as Halon and Purple K, suppress the fire
should first remove the victim from the electrical source and then by ______________.
____________.
A. administer ammonia smelling salts A. dissipating heat
B. check for serious burns on the body B. breaking the chain reaction
C. determine if he/she is breathing C. removing the fuel
D. massage vigorously to restore circulation D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: B
4909 The master or person-in-charge of a MODU is required to submit a 4910 Which of the following substances is to be considered as fuel for a
casualty report of an intentional grounding when ______________. class "B" fire?

A. it creates a hazard to the vessel A. Wood

B. it will last longer than 24 hours B. Rags
C. it will last longer than 48 hours C. Electrical insulation
D. it occurs in international waters D. Fuel oil
Ans: A Ans: D
4911 Which of the listed precautions should be taken when testing a line 4912 You are in a survival craft boadcasting a distress message. What
throwing gun? information would be essential to your rescuers?
A. Never remove the line from the rocket. A. The nature of the distress.
B. Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon. B. The time of day.

C. Wear asbestos gloves. C. Your radio call sign.

D. All of the above. D. Your position by latitude and longitude.
Ans: A Ans: D
4913 Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the 4914 A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided
lifeboats and/or liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling units? that all personnel ____________.

A. Rig superintendent A. are seated with seatbelts on and doors shut

B. Toolpusher B. are seated with seatbelts on and doors open
C. Company man C. are to shift to one side to right it
D. Designated person-in-charge D. escape from the craft
Ans: D Ans: A
4915 When abandoning a ship, following the launching of the survival 4916 When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you
craft you should _____________. should _____________.
A. plot a course for the nearest land A. remove scuppers and wash fuel overboard with water
B. take a vote on which direction you should go B. use absorbent material, such as sawdust, to clean up the spill

C. stay in the immediate area C. remove scuppers to allow the spill to run overboard and wipe the
area dry with rags
D. go one direction until fuel runs out D. remove scuppers and wash the fuel overboard with a solvent

Ans: C Ans: B
4917 If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned a 4918 Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of ____________.
ship in a survival craft, you should __________.

A. go in one direction until the fuel runs out A. moving to a shaded area and laying down
B. plot course for the nearest land B. bathing with rubbing alcohol
C. take a vote on which direction you should go C. placing patient in a tub of cold water
D. shutdown the engines and set the sea anchor D. All the above
Ans: D Ans: A
 Page 271

4919 In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always 4920 Properly stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack with
connected ____________. the _____________.
A. in parallel A. male and female ends connected together to prevent damage
B. in series B. female end available to be quickly connected to the hydrant
C. to the detecting cabinet C. male end attached to the adjacent fire hydrant
D. to the trouble alarm supervising resistor D. nozzle end arranged to be easily run out to the fire
Ans: C Ans: D
4921 In the event of a small bunker oil spill on deck occurring while 4922 The source of power for the CO2 alarm is obtained from
fueling, you should _____________. ___________.
A. wash down the area immediately with a fire hose A. the emergency power and lighting bus
B. wash down the area with kerosene B. the general alarm 24 volt DC bus
C. cover the area with absorbent material C. the flow of CO2 under pressure
D. cover the area with foam D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: C
4923 An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable 4924 Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any
can be released ______________. waters by _____________.
A. only when the load is taken off the cable A. plugging all scuppers and drains
B. only there is a load on the cable B. placing floating booms around the ship
C. only when activated by the controls at the lowering station C. regularly emptying all drip pans
D. at any time D. thoroughly draining all bunkering hoses
Ans: D Ans: A
4925 Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of ____________. 4926 In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the
CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the
extinguisher _____________.
A. cooling, removing to shaded area and having the victim lay down A. with the squeeze grip trigger on top of the container

B. bathing with rubbing alcohol B. by squeezing the control valve carrying handle
C. drinking ice water C. by turning the activating handle on the bottom of the container

D. All of the above D. with the squeeze-grip on/off nozzle at the end of the hose
Ans: A Ans: D
4927 Fire hoses located at protected fire stations, must always be 4928 When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a survival craft, the other
_____________. individuals in the craft should __________.
A. connected to the fire hydrant A. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling

B. capped on the ends for protection B. stand on the outside of the craft to assist the person being lifted

C. supplied with a smooth bore nozzle C. remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter

D. open to the air to prevent rot D. remain seated inside the craft to provide body weight for stability

Ans: A Ans: D
4929 Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn? 4930 The sprinkler system of a survival craft is used to ____________.

A. The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire A. cool the craft in a fire
point.
B. The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity. B. cool the engine
C. The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range." C. spray oil on the sea to calm it

D. All of the above. D. spray personnel during a fire

Ans: D Ans: A
4931 The MAIN objection to the use of a dry chemical fire extinguisher 4932 The scuppers should be plugged ____________.
on an electrical fire is that the __________.
A. extinguishing action is not as good as with soda acid A. only if fixed containment is not used
B. powder conducts electricity back to the fire fighter B. only if portable containment is not used
C. dry chemical leaves a powder residue which may render electrical C. only if fixed containment drains are open
equipment inoperative
D. extinguisher will need to be recharged D. whenever the vessel is being fueled
Ans: C Ans: D
4933 Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems to 4934 Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold
____________. water can ___________.
A. stop the winch just before the craft reaches final stowage position A. be the best thing to try if there were no rescue in sight

B. limit the amount of cable on the drum B. increase survival time in the water
C. limit the ascent rate C. increase the rate of heat loss from the body
D. stop the winch in case the craft weighs too much D. not affect the heat loss from the body
Ans:
A Ans:
C
4935 All ship's personnel should be familiar with the survival craft 4936 Which of the following statements concerning fire hose couplings is
__________. true?
A. boarding and operating procedures A. Fire hose couplings are strong and not easily damaged.
B. maintenance schedule B. Fire hose couplings must be lubricated with oil.
C. navigational systems C. Fire hose couplings can be easily damaged by dropping.
D. fuel consumption rates D. Fire hose couplings should be painted red.
Ans: A Ans: C
4937 With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, 4938 A class "C" fire is burning _____________.
the survival craft will be protected from ___________.
 Page 272

A. a nuclear environment A. diesel oil

B. a fire and toxic environment B. magnesium
C. a hurricane C. dunnage
D. a drop greater than ten feet D. electrical insulation
Ans: B Ans: D
4939 Treatment of frostbite is to _________. 4940 When using a dry chemical fire extinguisher to fight a fuel oil fire,
you should ___________.
A. rub with ice or snow A. attack the fire from the leeward side
B. rub briskly to restore circulation B. direct the chemical discharge into the center of the burning fuel
surface
C. wrap tightly in warm cloths C. sweep the chemical discharge back and forth across the burning
fuel surface
D. warm exposed parts rapidly D. invert the dry chemical extinguisher before starting to fight the fire

Ans: D Ans: C
4941 On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held within24 hours 4942 The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker
of leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced is more than would be ____________.
____________.
A. 0.05 A. in the midships house
B. 0.1 B. at the main deck manifold
C. 0.25 C. at the vent header
D. 0.4 D. in the pumproom
Ans: C Ans: D
4943 When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it 4944 Fusible link fire dampers are operated by ____________.
should be washed with a solution of mild soapy freshwater and
_____________.
A. a soft-bristled brush A. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct
B. a holystone B. electrical controls on the bridge
C. a canvas wiper C. the heat of a fire melting the link
D. cornstarch D. a break-glass and pull-cable system
Ans:
A Ans: C
4945 When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will 4946 A burning AC motor would be considered what class of fire?
____________.
A. be wetter A. Class "A"
B. be lighter B. Class "B"
C. be more heat resistant C. Class "C"
D. not cling to vertical surfaces D. Class "D"
Ans: B Ans:
C
4947 The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering 4948 When using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in a windy
from hypothermia is ____________. location, you should direct the stream from _____________.
A. running or jumping to create heat A. downwind
B. lying in the sun B. upwind
C. a warm water bath C. across the wind
D. mouth-to-mouth resuscitation D. directly above
Ans: C Ans: B
4949 If the threads and gasket of a fire hose coupling are in good 4950 A fire and boat drill on a tank vessel shall, by regulation, include
condition, the minimum mechanical advantage necessary for ____________.
making a watertight connection to another hose coupling, can be
developed with ______________.
A. your hands A. starting the fire pumps
B. a hose wrench B. bringing all rescue and safety equipment from the emergency
equipment lockers
C. a monkey wrench C. demonstrations of rescue and safety equipment by designated
persons
D. a coupling wrench D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
4951 When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam 4952 Which of the listed classes of fire is considered as one involving
will ____________. electrical equipment?
A. be dryer A. Class "A"
B. be lighter B. Class "B"
C. be less heat resistant C. Class "C"
D. not cling to vertical surfaces D. Class "D"
Ans: D Ans: C
4953 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning lifejackets? 4954 Fires are grouped into which of the listed categories?

A. Buoyant vests may be substituted for lifejackets. A. Class A, B, C, and D

B. Lifejackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear B. Type 1, 2, 3, and 4
of the water.
C. Lifejackets must always be worn with the same side facing C. Combustible solids, liquids, and gases
outwards to float properly.
D. Lightly stained or faded lifejackets will fail in the water and should D. Flammable solids, liquids, and gases
not be used.
Ans: B Ans: A
 Page 273

4955 Which of the following events shall be conducted during a fire and 4956 If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not
boat drill? within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either
present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety
designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate?

A. All watertight doors which are in use while the vessel is underway A. Safe for Men - Safe for Fire
shall be operated.
B. All lifeboat equipment shall be examined. B. Safe for Men - Not Safe for Fire
C. Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets opened. C. Not Safe for Men - Safe for Fire
D. All of the above. D. Not Safe for Men - Not Safe for Fire
Ans: A Ans: D
4957 If the liferaft you are in should capsize, all personnel should leave 4958 When using the combustible gas indicator to test a cargo tank, and
the raft and ____________. the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the upper
explosive limit (UEL), _____________.
A. climb onto the bottom A. the needle will move to zero and stay there
B. swim away from the raft B. the needle will move to the maximum reading and stay there
C. right the raft using the righting straps C. the needle will move to the maximum reading and return to zero
immediately
D. inflate the righting bag D. an audible beeping will be heard
Ans: C Ans: C
4959 Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will be 4960 An oil fire would be classified as a _________.
____________.
A. locked up A. class A
B. readily accessible for use B. class B
C. inaccessible to passengers C. class C
D. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times D. class D
Ans: B Ans: B
4961 A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Date 4962 A compartment is tested and found to contain 20.8% oxygen by
Sheet (MSDS), that can cause genetic changes in sperm or egg volume, permissible concentrations of toxic materials, and
cells is called a ___________. concentrations of flammable gas just below the lower flammable
limit. If the residues are not capable of producing toxic materials or

A. cyrogenic A. Safe for men - Safe for Fire

B. carcinogen B. Safe for men - Not Safe for Fire
C. teratogen C. Not safe for men - Safe for Fire
D. mutagen D. Not safe for men - Not Safe for Fire
Ans: D Ans: B
4963 The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8.0% by volume in air. 4964 After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, the davit
If a reading of 50% of the lower explosive limit isobtained, using the arms begin moving up the tracks until the movement is stopped by
meter shown in the illustration, thevapor concentration at the the ____________.
sample point is __________.
A. 3.3% by volume A. hoist man
B. in the flammable range B. limit switch
C. too rich to burn C. brake handle
D. too lean to burn D. preventer bar
Ans:
D Ans: B
4965 Which of the following procedures is NOT recommended when it is 4966 If ignited, which of the listed materials would be a class "B" fire?
necessary to swim through an oil fire?
A. Wear as much clothing as possible. A. Magnesium
B. Enter the water feet first and legs together. B. Paper
C. Swim in the same direction as the wind is blowing. C. Wood
D. Cover your eyes with one hand when entering the water. D. Diesel Oil
Ans: C Ans: D
4967 The function of the lifeboat davit limit switch is to ____________. 4968 To determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse, the
rescuer should check for the pulse at the ___________.
A. control the descent rate of a lifeboat A. carotid artery in the neck
B. control the ascent rate of a lifeboat B. femoral artery in the groin
C. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed C. brachial artery in the arm
position
D. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit D. radial artery in the wrist
bumpers
Ans: C Ans: A
4969 Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body 4970 You will find a limit switch on a ____________.
moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally
possible to survive without stored quantities of water?

A. Up to 3 days A. liferaft cradle

B. 8 to 14 days B. radial davit
C. 15 to 20 days C. sheath-screw davit
D. 25 to 30 days D. gravity davit
Ans: B Ans: D
4971 A class "D" fire would be considered as burning __________. 4972 The flammable limits of kerosene is 0.7% to 6.0% by volume in air.
If a tank having contained kerosene is tested with the combustible
gas indicator, shown in the illustration, and a reading of 50% is
obtained, this means _____________.
A. wood A. insufficient oxygen exists in the space to support life
 Page 274

B. oil B. the atmosphere contains 50% kerosene vapor by volume in air

C. electrical equipment C. the sample is below the lower explosive limit

D. magnesium D. the sample contains approximately 3.0% kerosene vapor by volume

Ans: D Ans: C
4973 An unconscious person should NOT be _____________. 4974 Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing
system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?

A. placed in a position with the head lower than the body A. The fire may warp the CO2 piping.
B. given an inhalation stimulant B. To keep the fire from spreading through the bulkheads.
C. given something to drink C. Updraft from the fire tends to carry the CO2 away.
D. treated for injuries D. Carbon dioxide takes a long time to disperse to all portions of a
space.
Ans: C Ans: C
4975 When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the 4976 Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire
other individuals in the boat should ____________. damage, associated with a class C fire?

A. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling A. Susceptible to reflash

B. stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted B. Electrocution or shock

C. remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter C. Explosion

D. remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability D. Deep seated fire
Ans: D Ans: B
4977 The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the 4978 The fire main system should be flushed with fresh water whenever
percentage of the _____________. possible to _____________.
A. concentration of flammable gas in a compartment A. help destroy marine growth
B. lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration B. identify loose pipe joints
C. upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration C. prevent corrosion of valve stems
D. concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment D. eliminate cracking of fire hose linings

Ans: B Ans: A
4979 One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a 4980 Inflatable liferafts are provided with ____________.
fire in an enclosed space is _____________.
A. the "snow" which is sometimes discharged along with the gas is A. a portable radio
toxic
B. prolonged exposure to high concentrations of CO2 gas causes B. an oil lantern
suffocation
C. rapid dissipation of the CO2 vapor C. canned milk
D. the CO2 gas is lighter than air and a large amount is required to D. a towing bridle
extinguish a fire near the deck
Ans: B Ans: D
4981 A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that all tanks 4982 In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, which
and pumprooms are potentially dangerous. You should immediately of the following treatments would you AVOID using?
leave an area whenever _______________.
A. you have irritation of the eyes, nose, or throat A. Giving stimulants
B. you smell an unusual odor B. Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating atmosphere

C. you experience an abnormal bodily sensation C. Determine the need for, and administer CPR if appropriate
D. any of the above conditions occur D. Keeping him warm and comfortable
Ans: D Ans: A
4983 When testing the atmosphere of a compartment with a 4984 Lower level fire main stations in the engine room should undergo
combustible gas indicator, the operator must remember that regular routine maintenance, including ____________.
_____________.
A. most petroleum vapors are lighter than air and accumulate around A. operating the self-cleaning strainers once a day
deck longitudinals
B. the indicator guarantees a safe atmosphere for a maximum of two B. flushing out the hydrants with full fire main pressure
hours
C. the meter scale indicates only the upper explosive range C. repacking valve stems at three month intervals
D. the indicator tests only the atmosphere at the end of the suction D. a weekly replacement of fire hose fittings
tube
Ans: D Ans: B
4985 When any fire has been extinguished with carbon dioxide, there is 4986 A safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts is ____________.
always the danger of the _____________.
A. fire being reignited by residual heat A. overhead safety straps
B. machinery suffering thermal shock damage B. built in seats
C. dry ice crystals clogging the machinery C. internal releasing hooks
D. atmosphere containing a dangerous charge of static electricity D. the use of water stabilizing pockets

Ans: A Ans: D
4987 When operating gravity davits, ____________. 4988 Which of the following can result in an oxygen deficiency in a closed
space?
A. the gripes should be released after the boat is moving A. Rusting
 Page 275

B. the davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into B. Cargo residue
the final stowed position
C. the boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around C. Fuel oil residue
cruciform bits
D. the tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the gripes D. All of the above

Ans: B Ans: D
4989 Combustible gas indicators are used to detect flammable gases or 4990 Which of the following conditions would be true if a serious leak
vapors in the atmosphere. As a safety feature, they are equipped developed in the main line of a horizontal, looped, fire main system?
with _____________.
A. an audible signaling devices A. It would not be possible to provide water beyond the point where
the break occurred.
B. an inflatable bag B. The ruptured section could be isolated allowing water to be
delivered to all other parts of the system.
C. a pressure relieving devices C. The capability of the system would be greatly reduced due to the
drop in line pressure but still remain operational through the use of
the alternate loop.
D. flame arrestors D. Full fire main pressure could be maintained but only on one side of
the vessel through the use of either the fore or aft isolation valve.

Ans: D Ans: B
4991 If you continue to wear extra clothing when entering the water after 4992 The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as a
abandoning your vessel, it will ____________. ____________.
A. weigh you down A. lifeline
B. preserve body heat B. painter
C. reduce your body heat C. drogue
D. make it more difficult to breathe D. marker
Ans: B Ans: B
4993 The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads 4994 A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time.
is to ____________. Which of the following conditions does this indicate?
A. keep the movement of the davits at the same speed A. The tank is safe to enter.
B. keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position B. The tank is especially dangerous to enter.

C. prevent vibration during lowering of the boat C. Carbon monoxide is present.

D. support the manropes D. Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized.

Ans: D Ans: B
4995 The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the 4996 Which of the following signals is used to report for boat stations or
water is the use of ____________. boat drill?
A. straw A. More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle.

B. booms B. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10
seconds.
C. skimmers C. One long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle.
D. chemical dispersants D. Three short blasts of the whistle.
Ans: B Ans: A
4997 Combustible gas indicators detect flammable gases, or vapors 4998 How may a cargo tank atmosphere be tested for explosive gases?
present in the atmosphere by an intricate system which includes
____________.
A. burning the vapors A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken
from the tank.
B. metering the vapors B. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
C. measuring the vapor volume C. Enter the tank with a teledyne oxygen analyzer.
D. weighing the vapor D. Use an explosimeter.
Ans:
A Ans: D
4999 Before you initiate the engine room fixed CO2 system to extinguish 5000 After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water,
a serious fire, you would _____________. the liferaft is inflated by ____________.
A. start the emergency diesel A. pulling on the painter line
B. stop the main engine B. forcing open the container which operates the CO2
C. evacuate all engine room personnel C. hitting the hydrostatic release
D. turn off electrical power D. using the hand pump provided
Ans: C Ans: A
5001 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 5002 Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are
correct? given large quantities of warm, soapy water or warm salt water to
____________.
A. All models will automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in A. induce vomiting
the water.
B. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection B. absorb the poison from the blood
against hypothermia for weeks.
C. The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 seconds) exposure C. neutralize the poison in the blood
to flame and burning.
D. The wearer of the suit is no way restricted in body movement and D. increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison
the suit may be donned well in advance of abandoning ship.

Ans: C Ans: A
 Page 276

5003 In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical agents would 5004 If fuel is burned from only the starboard tanks, the ship will
____________. _____________.
A. absorb the oil for easy removal A. go down by the head
B. remove the oil from the water B. list to starboard
C. disperse or dissolve the oil in the water C. trim by the stern
D. not affect the oil D. list to port
Ans: C Ans: D
5005 A raft should be manually released from its cradle by 5006 A fire in a pile of canvas would be classified as a ______.
____________.
A. cutting the straps that enclose the container A. class A
B. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container B. class B
C. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap C. class C
D. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release D. class D
Ans: D Ans: A
5007 Which of the following best defines First Aid? 5008 Which of the following terms is the minimum temperature at which a
liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off
sufficient vapor concentration to ignite in the presence of an ignition
source?
A. Medical treatment of internal injuries A. Explosion point
B. Setting of broken bones and transport of victim B. Flash point
C. Emergency treatment of the injury at the scene. C. Fire point
D. Dosage of medications and application of bandages D. Danger point
Ans: C Ans: B
5009 While at your lifeboat station, a signal consisting of two short blasts 5010 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is
of the ship's whistle is sounded. This indicates _______. FALSE?

A. abandon ship A. They should be worn while working on deck if the possibility exists
of being washed overboard.
B. commence lowering boats B. The suit is received from the manufacturer in a bag intended to be
used for storage of the suit onboard ship.
C. stop lowering boats C. During the annual inspection and maintenance, the zipper should
be lubricated with beeswax or paraffin.
D. secure from boat stations D. A small leak of water into the suit will destroy the protective
qualities against hypothermia.
Ans: C Ans: D
5011 To launch a liferaft by hand, you should ____________. 5012 A fire involving trash and paper waste would be classified as a
_______.
A. cut the casing bands, throw the liferaft over the side and it will then A. class A
inflate
B. detach the operating cord, throw the raft over the side and it will B. class B
then inflate
C. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and pull the C. class C
operating cord
D. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord D. class D
Ans: D Ans: A
5013 A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) having a 5014 If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown
flash point at or above 100‚F is called a/an ____________. on a tank vessel, it must stop the flow of oil through __________.

A. explosive liquid A. the main deck manifold

B. combustible liquid B. the facility
C. flammable liquid C. the pump
D. viscous liquid D. a means that is not dependant on electrical power
Ans: B Ans: C
5015 When should distress flares and rockets be used? 5016 Physical data on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) which
describes chemicals that produce health effects requiring medical
attention where damage may be permanent but is neither life-
threatening nor seriously disabling, is called ________.

A. Only when there is a chance of them being sighted by rescue A. moderate exposure level
vessels.
B. They should be set off at half-hour intervals. B. high toxicity
C. They should be set off at one-hour intervals. C. high exposure level
D. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel. D. moderate toxicity
Ans: A Ans: D
5017 Burning wood is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire? 5018 A specific document identifies a chemical, listing its physical
properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting
procedures, clean up methods, waste disposal, and the safe
handling and storage requirements. This document is a
____________.
A. Class A A. Hazardous Chemical Information Sheet
B. Class B B. Physical/Chemical Characteristics Document
C. Class C C. Material Safety Data Sheet
D. Class D D. Hazardous Chemical Loading Document
Ans: A Ans: C
 Page 277

5019 Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by 5020 Which of the following statements describes the correct method to
______________. use when applying CO2 from a portable fire extinguisher?

A. severe nausea and cramps A. Bounce the CO2 off the bulkhead.
B. muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of B. Apply CO2 to the base of the flames in a sweeping motion.
consciousness
C. sudden thirst and craving for candy C. Apply the CO2 to the center of the flames with a beating motion.

D. severe agitation and desire to get out of close spaces D. Direct the CO2 in as near a vertical upward direction as possible.

Ans: B Ans: B
5021 When using a handheld smoke signal in a lifeboat, you should 5022 A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
____________. (MSDS) that supplies oxygen required to start or support fire is
called a/an ____________.
A. activate the signal on the downwind side A. irritant
B. activate the signal on the upwind side B. polymerization hazard
C. activate the signal inside the boat C. oxidizer
D. activate the signal at the stern D. toxin
Ans: A Ans: C
5023 As a vessel sinks to a depth of 5 metres, the hydrostatic trip 5024 Which of the statements listed is accurate concerning fires involving
releases the liferaft container from its cradle by ____________. carbon tetrachloride?

A. breaking the weak link A. It will explode if exposed to a flame.

B. releasing the tie-down strap B. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal.

C. pulling the operating cord C. It will burn rapidly once ignited.

D. releasing the CO2 canister D. You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the
carbon tetrachloride.
Ans: B Ans: B
5025 Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the 5026 While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is
____________. most important to ____________.
A. oars A. move a patient to a comfortable bed
B. sail B. get professional medical advice for further medical care
C. boat plug C. keep the patient awake and make him walk if necessary to keep
him awake
D. life preservers D. remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed
Ans: C Ans: B
5027 A combustible gas indicator is used to determine __________. 5028 Which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for
daylight use only?
A. if there is sufficient oxygen to support life A. Handheld red flare
B. the toxicity of flammable gases or vapors B. Self-contained rocket propelled parachute red flare
C. the amount of CO2 present in flue gas C. Orange smoke signal
D. the presence of flammable gases or vapors in the air D. Red aerial pyrotechnic flare
Ans: D Ans: C
5029 Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak develops in the 5030 What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic release?
hose and you have ordered the pumping stopped. Before
resuming pumping you should ____________.
A. notify the terminal superintendent A. To release raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks
B. place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers B. To inflate the raft automatically
C. repair the hose with a patch C. To test rafts hydrostatically
D. replace the hose D. None of the above
Ans: D Ans: A
5031 According to Regulations , grinders orcomminutors used for the 5032 Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) referring to
discharge of garbage between 3 and12 nautical miles from the more than one chemical is called a _____________.
nearest land must be ________.
A. provided with flush back capabilities insuring the passage of all A. mixture
ground particles through a final control element
B. provided on all vessels that may operate on the Great Lakes and B. combination
shall discharge under the highest load line of the vessel
C. capable of reducing the size of garbage so that it will pass through C. multi-material
a screen with openings no greater than 25 millimeters

D. capable of processing all garbage generated onboard the vessel D. toxin

including all deck and engine department refuse
Ans: C Ans: A
5033 While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. 5034 Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be
Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST? checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an ______________.

A. Search the vessel for leaks A. Orsat apparatus

B. Notify terminal superintendent B. flame safety lamp
C. Stop loading C. Halide torch
D. Notify the Port authorities D. combustible gas indicator
Ans: C Ans: D
5035 When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary 5036 The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors
action is to ____________. and air is defined as _____________.
 Page 278

A. give patient a laxative to relieve pain A. that concentration above which there is just enough flammable
vapor to produce an explosion
B. give patient morphine sulfate to relieve pain B. that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn
C. evacuate patient to a hospital C. the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to
create an explosion
D. give patient aspirin with a glass of water D. the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support
combustion
Ans: C Ans: B
5037 Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the 5038 Victual waste is __________.
following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in
flames?
A. The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links. A. the final discharge of sewage treatment plants

B. The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to B. any garbage that comes from food or food provisions
prevent asphyxiation of the crew.
C. A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by C. the resultant sludge that is collected after waterwashing a boiler
a high-volume manual pump.
D. A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air D. the final waste product of a manufacturing process
for the survivors and the diesel engine.
Ans: D Ans: B
5039 Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with _________. 5040 According to Regulations , which of the following statements is
accurate concerning the discharge of garbage?
A. tanks for the storage of drinking water A. The discharge of plastic or garbage mixed with plastic into any
waters is permitted.
B. ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing B. The discharge of dunnage, lining, and packing materials that do not
float is prohibited within 25 nautical miles of the nearest land.

C. buoyant oars and paddles C. The discharge of all garbage is prohibited in the navigable inland
waters and in all other waters within three nautical miles of the
nearest land.
D. auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear) D. All of the above are correct.
Ans: C Ans: C
5041 Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from 5042 If you detect oil in the water around your vessel while discharging
being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 35mtr fuel, the FIRST thing to do is ____________.
deep?
A. The hydrostatic release A. try to find out where the oil is coming from
B. A shear pin B. call the Master
C. A rottmer release C. have the pumpman check the discharge piping
D. A weak link in the painter D. shutdown operations
Ans: D Ans: D
5043 Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire 5044 A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be
by __________. ______________.
A. removing the fuel A. placed in a sitting position with the head lowered to the knees
B. removing the heat B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously

C. interrupting the chain reaction C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of
rest
D. removing the oxygen D. directed to move to a cool space unassisted
Ans: A Ans: D
5045 When the height of the metacenter is less than the heightof the 5046 If the metacentric height is small, a floating ship will
center of gravity, a vessel has what type ofstability? _______________.
A. Stable A. be tender
B. Neutral B. have a quick and rapid motion
C. Negative C. be stiff
D. Positive D. yaw
Ans: C Ans: A
5047 If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution 5048 A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be
hazard during fuel transfer operations, which of the following actions ______________.
should be taken FIRST?
A. Close the valves at the transfer manifold. A. given a mild seawater solution to drink to replace salt and fluids

B. Notify the person in charge of the shore facility. B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously

C. Shut down the transfer operation. C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of
rest
D. Sound the fire alarm. D. moved to a cool room and told to lie down
Ans: C Ans: D
5049 The symptoms of a fractured back are ____________. 5050 To fight a large class "A" fire contained in a closed compartment,
the nozzleman should open a door enough to insert the hose
nozzle and initially ____________.
A. leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legs A. sweep a straight stream around the compartment
B. pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms B. hold the nozzle steady while applying a straight stream in the area
where he suspects the source of the fire to be
C. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement C. sweep a fog stream around the compartment
D. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis D. hold the nozzle steady and direct a fog stream in the area where he
below the injury suspects the fire
 Page 279

Ans: D Ans: C
5051 Which statement regarding garbage disposal is correct? 5052 When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas,
__________.
A. Records for ground garbage disposal are not required when A. the Port State Control must be notified for each occurence
disposal into the sea occurs more than 25 miles offshore.
B. Discharging or transfer of garbage while in port to a shore facility B. records must be provided and maintained for two years
must be recorded.
C. Maintaining records for the incineration of garbage aboard ship is C. an entry into the official log book must be made
not required.
D. The recording of garbage disposal should include the approximate D. no record is required if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles
weight. offshore and there is no included plastic material
Ans: B Ans: B
5053 How much warning must be provided by the CO2 warning alarm 5054 CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________.
before CO2 is discharged into a space?
A. 5 seconds A. a blanket of bubbles formed on the surface of the fire
B. 10 seconds B. smothering
C. 15 seconds C. cooling
D. 20 seconds D. isolating the heat from the fuel
Ans: D Ans:
B
5055 You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking 5056 The lights on the outside of the canopy of an inflatable liferaft
the _________________. operate ____________.
A. vessel's logbook A. by turning the globe clockwise
B. vessel's documentation B. by a switch at each light
C. muster list C. by a light sensor
D. Certificate of Inspection D. automatically when the raft is inflated
Ans: C Ans: D
5057 When administering first aid you should avoid ____________. 5058 The best extinguishing agent for fighting a burning mattress fire is
the use of _____________.
A. any conversation with the patient A. carbon dioxide
B. instructing bystanders B. water in a solid stream
C. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty C. foam
D. touching the patient D. dry chemical
Ans: C Ans: B
5059 Normal mouth temperature is ________________. 5060 Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is best suited for
use on a large class "B" fire occurring on the open deck of a
vessel?
A. 96.4°F A. CO2
B. 97.5°F B. Aqueous film forming foam
C. 98.6°F C. Dry chemical
D. 99.7°F D. Steam smothering system
Ans: C Ans: B
5061 The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their 5062 In each inflatable raft, what piece of equipment is provided to make
injuries is called ____________. quick, emergency, temporary repairs to a cut, or rip in a raft?

A. evaluation A. There is no equipment provided

B. triage B. Glue and rubber patches
C. surveying C. Several various-sized repair clamps
D. prioritizing D. Self-adhesive rubberized canvas patches
Ans: B Ans: C
5063 The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is 5064 You are wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus while fighting
_______________. a fire in an enclosed space. If sudden strong resistance to
breathing is experienced, your first action should be to
____________.
A. the righting arm couple A. tug twice on your lifeline and slow your breathing until help arrives

B. longitudinal stability B. retreat immediately to outside air

C. metacentric height C. take a deep breath and remove your apparatus for adjustment

D. transverse inclination D. give two or three strong exhalations to increase the flow through the
apparatus
Ans: B Ans: B
5065 The addition of weight at the longitudinal center of flotation will 5066 When you are wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus, you
____________. should immediately return to fresh air if you feel _____________.

A. increase the forward draft and decrease the after draft A. heat in the canister or hose
B. decrease the forward draft and increase the after draft B. excess air flow in the mask
C. have no effect on the trim C. two pulls on the safety line
D. have no effect on the stability D. nauseous, dizziness or high breathing resistance
Ans: C Ans: D
5067 The low velocity fog applicator used in conjunction with the all- 5068 What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained
purpose firefighting nozzle, should always be _____________. breathing apparatus sounds?

A. stored in the rack when not in actual use A. Immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
B. attached to the nozzle by the chain B. Open the bypass valve on the regulator and immediately evacuate
the contaminated area.
 Page 280

C. coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion C. Move the reserve lever to the "reserve" position on the regulator
and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds
again.
D. left in place in the all-purpose nozzle D. Move the tank selector lever to the full tank position and reset the
alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.

Ans: A Ans: A
5069 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the fog 5070 While wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus, the user must
applicators used in conjunction with the combination nozzle? be aware of the bulkiness of the unit in order to avoid confined
spaces. Of what other limitations should the user be aware?

A. All cargo and miscellaneous vessels must be equipped with high A. The weight of the unit changes the user's center of gravity.
velocity fog applicators for use with the required combination
nozzle at each station.
B. In machinery spaces, the applicators should be 3 to 4 mtrs. in B. The lens of the facepiece reduces the user's peripheral vision.
length to insure all portions of the bilge can be effectively reached.

C. On container ships, an applicator termed a bayonet or piercing C. The attached lifeline limits the user's mobility.
type utilizes a sharp tip for cutting and penetrating the metal skin
of a container.
D. All of the above. D. All of the above.
Ans: C Ans: D
5071 Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous 5072 A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries
combustion when ____________. should ___________.
A. oil soaked rags are stowed in the machine shop A. be examined then walked to a bunk
B. powdered aluminum is stowed dry B. be assisted in walking around
C. dry metal turnings accumulate C. not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or
bunk
D. all of the above D. not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance
arrives
Ans: A Ans: D
5073 When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening 5074 The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________.
situation, the person giving first aid must ____________.

A. pull the victim by the feet A. harder it is to extinguish

B. avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance during B. easier it is to extinguish
movement
C. not move the victim to a another location until all injuries have been C. less chance there is of reignition
assessed
D. place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal D. easier it is to control
Ans: B Ans: A
5075 To safely enter a closed compartment, where CO2 has been 5076 First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to _________.
released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should
_____________.
A. test the air with an Orsat apparatus A. stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
B. wear a self-contained breathing apparatus B. lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops

C. wear a canister type gas mask C. apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding
stops
D. test the air with an explosimeter D. apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it

Ans: B Ans: A
5077 Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment 5078 Which of the following statements is true concerning a low velocity
with insufficient oxygen? fog tip?
A. Cascaded air tanks. A. It is usually kept in the nozzle when stowed.
B. Self-contained breathing appratus. B. It sprays large droplets.
C. Canister type mask. C. It is chained to the combination nozzle.
D. Dust or gas mask. D. It sprays a fine mist.
Ans: B Ans: D
5079 Antiseptics are used principally to ___________. 5080 The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide
protection against ____________.
A. speed healing A. asphyxiation from CO2
B. prevent infection B. loss of air in the sides of the raft
C. reduce inflammation C. rough seas
D. increase blood circulation D. cold water temperatures
Ans: B Ans: D
5081 A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration 5082 When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct
MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the primary and secondary surveys in addition to __________.
nearest land is at least ____________.
A. 3 nautical miles A. which medications to prescribe
B. 5 nautical miles B. how to diagnose an illness from symptoms
C. 12 nautical miles C. the limits of your capabilities
D. 25 nautical miles D. how to set broken bones
Ans: C Ans: C
5083 Before inserting a low velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose 5084 A squeeze-grip type carbon dixide portable fire extinguisher has
combination nozzle, you must _____________. been partially discharged. It should be ____________.
 Page 281

A. tighten the high velocity fog tip A. replaced in its proper location reguardless of weight
B. put the control handle in the solid steam position B. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15%

C. put the control handle in the fog position C. labled empty and recharged as soon as possible
D. remove the high velocity fog tip D. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25%

Ans: D Ans: C
5085 By definition, an example of a combustible liquid is 5086 The canopy of your liferaft should ____________.
______________.
A. lube oil A. go into place as the raft is inflated
B. gasoline B. be put up after everyone is aboard
C. butane C. be put up only in severe weather
D. benzene D. be used as a sail if the wind is blowing
Ans: A Ans:
A
5087 To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should 5088 The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations,
__________. means ____________.
A. remove combustibiles from direct exposure A. spilling
B. cool the bulkhead around the fire B. leaking
C. close all openings to the area C. dumping
D. shut off electrical power D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
5089 The chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard tankers is 5090 Fire prevention during welding or burning aboard any vessel should
_____________. include _____________.
A. JP4 cargo A. posting a fire watch in the immediate area
B. gasoline cargo B. providing an extinguisher which is ready for immediate use
C. kerosene cargo C. requiring the fire watch to remain on post for 30 minutes after the
completion of welding or burning
D. oil soaked rags or rubbish D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: D
5091 You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the 5092 The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are heavier than air and are
engine room with a portable CO2 extinguisher. Which of the listed _____________.
dangers should you now be preparing to handle?
A. Reflashing of the fire. A. odorless
B. Sudden stoppage of the main engine. B. explosive
C. Complete lack of oxygen in the engine room. C. nontoxic
D. Chemical reaction of the CO2 and oil forming carbonic acid. D. visible
Ans:
A Ans:
B
5093 In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator 5094 A person reports to you with a fishook in his thumb. To remove it
must FIRST ___________. you should _________.
A. open the discharge valve A. have a surgen remove it
B. remove the locking pin B. pull it out with pliers
C. invert the CO2 extinguisher C. cut the skin from around the hook
D. squeeze the two trigger handles together D. push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook
Ans: B Ans: D
5095 You are along and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many 5096 Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an
chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading?
in each sequence?
A. 5 compressions then 1 inflation A. Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening.
B. 15 compressions than 2 inflations B. Keeping the duct interior clean.
C. 20 compressions then 3 inflations C. Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening.
D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations D. Keeping the duct exterior clean.
Ans: B Ans: B
5097 Which of the following statements is true concerning Bunker "C" 5098 You have just abandoned ship and boarded a liferaft. After the raft
vapors? is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a
safety valve. You should ____________.
A. They can not be ignited by a spark unless the vapors are in a A. not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
confined space.
B. They are nontoxic in all concentrations. B. plug the safety valve
C. They can not be ignited by a spark unless vapors are at their C. unscrew the deflation plugs
autoignition temperature.
D. They are heavier than air. D. remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
Ans: D Ans: A
5099 The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be ___________. 5100 A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil
only _____________.
A. made of steel or bronze wire rope A. if applied promptly
B. corrosion resistant B. if applied in connection with foam
C. not less than 16mtrs in length C. to prevent rekindling
D. All of the above D. if attempts to extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed

Ans: D Ans: A
5101 You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitutes, the greatest 5102 You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s)
danger is ___________. should be used during a prolonged peroid in a raft?

A. collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures A. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perpiration.
B. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed B. Get plenty of rest.
C. hypothermia caused by cold temperature C. Keep the entrance curtins open.
 Page 282

D. starvation D. All of the above.

Ans: C Ans: D
5103 Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from 5104 A crewmember has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not
being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to
(30.48 m) deep? suturing to close the wound?
A. The hydrostatic release A. Apply a copression bandage.
B. A shear pin B. Use temporary stitches of sail twin.
C. A rottmer release C. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound.
D. A weak link in the painter D. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing.
Ans: D Ans:
D
5105 When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield 5106 The best method of extingquishing a class A fire is to
firefighters from the fire by using _____________. _____________.
A. low-verlocity fog A. remove oxygen from the area
B. high-velocity fog B. smother fire with foam
C. a straight stream of water C. smother fire with CO2
D. foam spray D. cool fuel below igition temperature
Ans: A Ans: D
5107 Which of the listed fire extinguishing agent combinations is the best 5108 The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil is _____________.
for simultaneous use on a large oil fire?
A. A solid stream of water in conjunction with CO2. A. approximately 1% for each 13.9°C(25°F) temperature rise
B. Water fog used in conjunction with foam. B. calculated in British Thermal Units
C. CO2 applied in conjunction with foam. C. measured by weight
D. CO2 applied in conjunction with dry chemical. D. also called absolute viscosity
Ans: B Ans: A
5109 On a tanker, the most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur 5110 If you see an individual fall overboard, you should
would be ____________. ______________.
A. in the midships house A. throw them a life ring
B. at the main deck manifold B. hail "Man overboard"
C. at the vent header C. pass the word to the bridge
D. in the pumproom D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
5111 When abandoning ship in an emergency situation, you should 5112 The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil varies with the
_____________. _____________.
A. jump off feet first from the windward side A. conductivity
B. dive head first from the bridge B. viscosity
C. dive head first from the main deck C. volume
D. follow directly behind another person on the leeward side D. specific gravity
Ans: A Ans: D
5113 A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively 5114 The greatest danger in cold temperatures, when at sea in an
fought using _____________. inflatable liferaft is ____________.
A. dry chemical A. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
B. soda acid B. hypothermia caused by the cold temperature
C. foam C. collapsing of the raft due to the cold temperature
D. high velocity fog D. starvation
Ans: C Ans: B
5115 Which of the following statements is true concerning an inflatable 5116 Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be
liferaft? found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?
A. The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water. A. Nitrogen
B. Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it. B. Hydrogen
C. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated. C. Carbon dioxide
D. All of the above. D. Carbon monoxide
Ans: D Ans: D
5117 Fires resulting from escaping liquefied flammable gases are 5118 A class "B" fire develops on the weatherdeck amidships of moored
generally extinguished by _____________. tank vessel. The fire party should man the _______.
A. cooling below the ignition point A. leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while
applying a solid stream of water to wash residual fuel over the side
away from the pier
B. cutting off the oxygen supply B. leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while
applying water fog to protect the monitor operator
C. stopping the flow of gas C. windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while
applying water fog to the fire
D. interrupting the chemical chain reaction D. windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while
standing by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator
with water fog if needed
Ans: C Ans: D
5119 If a fire occurs in the fireroom as a result of fuel oil leaking from the 5120 If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should
boiler fuel oil manifold, the FIRST action taken should be to ____________.
_____________.
A. pressurize the fire main A. remain in the immediate vicinity
B. activate the CO2 system B. head for the nearest land
C. secure the fuel supply C. head for the closest sea-lanes
D. sound the general alarm D. vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

Ans: C Ans: A
5121 If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning ship in a 5122 The four basic components of a fire are chain reaction, heat, fuel,
lifeboat, you should ____________. and _____________.
 Page 283

A. go in one direction until the fuel runs out A. carbon monoxide

B. plot course for the nearest land B. oxygen
C. plot a course for the nearest sea lane C. carbon dioxide
D. shut down the engines and set the sea anchor D. any gaseous substance
Ans:
D Ans:
B
5123 When fighting a spreading fire resulting from a broken fuel line, you 5124 When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a
should FIRST _____________. good practice is to rig frapping lines ____________.
A. look for a CO2 extinguisher A. on only the forward falls
B. use a soda acid extinguisher B. on only the after falls
C. shut off the fuel supply C. fore and aft with a lead of about 45‚ to the boat
D. smother the fire with rags D. from the falls to the tricing gear
Ans: C Ans: C
5125 The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a 5126 The rekindling of a fire can occur when a fire, extinguished by
person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the smothering, is resupplied with oxygen. Which of the fire
____________. extinguishing agents listed, when properly used on an oil fire, will
prevent rekindling?
A. odor threshold A. Low velocity fog
B. threshold limit value B. High velocity fog
C. vapor pressure C. Chemical foam
D. tolerance point D. Dry chemical
Ans:
B Ans:
C
5127 The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of a liquid to 5128 Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat into the vessel while
_____________. boarding passengers are called ____________.
A. ignite A. lifelines
B. explode B. frapping lines
C. asphyxiate C. tricing lines
D. vaporize D. tripping lines
Ans: D Ans: B
5129 Vessel bilge keels are designed primarily to ____________. 5130 Which of the following emergency signals are used to report for
boat stations or boat drills?
A. assist in reducing rolling A. Three short blasts of the whistle along with the same signal on the
general alarm bells.
B. improve vessel steering response B. More than six short blasts and one long blast of the whistle, along
with the same signal on the general alarm bells.
C. reinforce the bilge knuckle in way of double bottom tanks C. Steady rapid ringing of the ship's bell for at least 10 seconds, along
with the same signal on the general alarm bells.

D. provide strengthening of the bilge plating through the mid-body D. Less than five short blasts and one long blast of the whistle, along
with the same signal on the general alarm bells.
Ans: A Ans: B
5131 The No. 3 lifeboat would be ____________. 5132 To extinguish a fire in an unruptured cargo tank, you should FIRST
_____________.
A. the forward boat on the starboard side A. cool nearby decks, bulkheads and, equipment with high velocity
fog
B. behind boat No. 1 on the port side B. shut off the air supply by closing tank tops, ullage plugs, P.V.
valves, and other openings
C. behind boat No. 1 on the starboard side C. activate the fixed CO2 system
D. behind boat No. 2 on the port side D. activate the portable CO2 system
Ans: C Ans: B
5133 If you hear more than six short blasts, followed by one long blast on 5134 All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats ____________.
the whistle, and supplemented by the same signal on the general
alarm, you should _____________.
A. start the fire pump A. boarding and operating procedures
B. go to your man overboard station B. maintenance schedule
C. go to your lifeboat station C. navigational systems
D. stand by for collision D. fuel consumption rates
Ans:
C Ans: A
5135 When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main 5136 By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is ________.
consideration is _____________.
A. reducing the possibility of electrical shock to personnel A. kerosene
B. preventing a total loss of electrical power B. gasoline
C. preventing saltwater damage to electrical equipment C. caustic potash
D. eliminating the toxic fumes from burning insulation D. animal and vegetable oils
Ans: A Ans: B
5137 If the diesel fuel vapors present are within the flammable range 5138 You are transferring fuel from the storage tanks to the day tanks by
_____________. means of an electric fuel oil transfer pump. If the pump motor
catches fire, you would FIRST ___________.
A. the vapor air mixture is too rich to burn A. secure the fuel manifold
B. an explosion may occur if a source of ignition is present B. shut off power to the pump
C. the vapor air mixture is too lean to burn C. shut off the power ventilation
D. the upper explosive limit has been exceeded D. spray water on the fire
Ans: B Ans: B
5139 When combating a class C fire, which of the following dangers may 5140 The most important property of any extinguishing agent used in
be present? fighting class "C" fires is the agent's _____________.
A. Flooding of the vessel A. cooling capacity
B. Increased surface area of the burning fluid B. ability to suppress rekindling
 Page 284

C. Water damage to machinery not involved in the fire C. nonconducting property

D. Toxic fumes from burning insulation D. lack of fumes
Ans: D Ans: C
5141 The center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the 5142 The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be
____________. used on electrical fires is for the agent to be _____________.

A. center of flotation A. nonconducting

B. metacentric height B. flame resistant
C. center of buoyancy C. easily removable
D. center of gravity D. wet
Ans: C Ans: A
5143 If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure 5144 To extinguish an electrical fire, you should use __________.
the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand
portable fire extinguishers?
A. Soda acid A. mechanical foam
B. Dry chemical B. chemical foam
C. CO2 C. carbon dioxide
D. Foam D. soda acid
Ans: C Ans: C
5145 Which of the listed fire extinguishers would be most effective to use 5146 A continuous sounding of the vessel's whistle, supplemented by a
on a fire in a small electric motor? continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for a period of not less
than 10 seconds, is the signal for ____________.
A. Soda acid A. man overboard
B. Foam B. boat stations
C. CO2 C. fire stations
D. Light water D. secure from all drills
Ans: C Ans: C
5147 A continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 5148 If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less
10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous sounding of the than 10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous ringing of the
general alarm for a period of not less than 10 seconds, is the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, you should go to
_______________. your _____________.
A. boat stations signal A. boat station
B. secure from boat stations signal B. fire station
C. fire alarm signal C. man overboard station
D. lower lifeboats signal D. collision station
Ans: C Ans: B
5149 A class "D" fire would involve the burning of ____________. 5150 While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried
out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last
contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures
should be followed when a certified marine chemist is no

A. diesel oil A. It is solely the chief engineer's responsibility to ensure all safety
precautions are observed, and all entries are to be made in the
engine room log.
B. magnesium B. The repair work cannot be done at this time due to the lack of the
chemist's certificate.
C. dunnage C. Prior to any hot work, an inspection must be made by the senior
officer present, and an entry made in the official logbook.

D. electrical insulation D. Repairs should proceed as scheduled since a chemist's certificate

is not required for that type of work.
Ans: B Ans: C
5151 Excessive free surface occurring in tanks carrying liquid cargo 5152 Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher
should be avoided in order to _____________. aboard ship would include ensuring that the ____________.

A. maintain hog and sag A. pressure gage is within the operating range
B. maintain good stability B. powder is not caked and there is a full charge
C. prevent oil pollution C. cartridge weight is not less than 1/4 ounce of weight stamped on
cartridge
D. all of the above D. recharge of weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of charge

Ans: B Ans: B
5153 After a fire has been extinguished in a closed space, personnel 5154 Ships are less stable when water or fuel tanks are partially filled
may safely enter the space when ____________. because of the ____________.
A. smoke density has been decreased sufficiently to see the A. free surface effect
bulkhead opposite the compartment's entrance
B. a lifeline and explosion proof flash light are used B. increase in buoyancy
C. all smoke and toxic fumes are removed and an adequate oxygen C. decrease in draft
supply is present
D. overhaul has been completed to remove any possible source of D. reduction in trim
reignition
Ans: C Ans: A
5155 According to Regulations , pumproom ventilation on a tanker may 5156 Regulations require electric hand lamps, approved for use in fuel
be accomplished by _____________. tanks, to be battery powered and _____________.
A. steam or air actuated gas ejectors A. flame resistant
B. power blowers B. explosion proof
 Page 285

C. natural ventilators C. corrosion resistant

D. all of the above D. moisture proof
Ans: D Ans: B
5157 Vessel stability can be adversely affected by ________. 5158 Regulations stipulate that in addition to emergency signals, muster
lists must specify_____________.
A. decreasing the laden draft A. actions to be taken by persons on board when each signal is
sounded
B. increasing the free surface effect B. the order to abandon the vessel
C. ballasting down by the bow C. the duties assigned to different members of the crew
D. ballasting down by the stern D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
5159 When you hear three short blasts on the ship's whistle and the 5160 Following an engine room bilge fire, believed to be extinguished,
same signal on the general alarm bells, you ___________. and properly fought using a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system; the
investigating team should reenter the closed space ____________.

A. are required to be at your liferaft A. no sooner than 15 minutes after the fire is believed extinguished

B. are dismissed from drills B. via the lowest access door

C. should point to the man overboard C. via the lowest access door and equipped with SCBA's no sooner
than 30 minutes after the fire is believed extinguished

D. should start the fire pump D. via the highest access door and equipped with SCBA's
Ans: B Ans: D
5161 To initially combat a fire the ventilation to a compartmentshould be 5162 An insulating flange should be used in a cargo hose connection
secured to ____________. instead of a bonding wire _____________.
A. allow the exhaust fans to remove the smoke A. when pumping LNG only
B. lower the carbon monoxide smothering capabilities B. when static electricity may be generated
C. reduce the amount of available oxygen to the fire C. when the terminal is equipped with a cathodic protection system

D. protect the fire fighters from smoke D. during cold weather

Ans: C Ans: C
5163 The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is 5164 Bonding cables are used to reduce the possibility of accidental
_____________. spark discharge when _____________.
A. permanent extinguishment regardless of the reignition sources A. transferring flammable liquids to or from a vessel

B. its excellent cooling ability B. transferring dry mud to or from a vessel

C. its good stability and nontoxicity C. transferring fuel oil from storage to day tanks
D. all of the above D. securing drill pipe on deck
Ans: C Ans: A
5165 Any liquid with a flash point above 26.7°C is a __________. 5166 Any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or below 26.7°C, as
determined by flash point from an open cup tester, describes a
_____________.
A. flammable liquid A. flammable liquid
B. combustible liquid B. combustible liquid
C. coal base oil C. nonflammable liquid
D. synthetic base oil D. noncombustible liquid
Ans: B Ans:
A
5167 What is the usual effect of moving weight from the main deck to a 5168 Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire
position lower in the vessel? extinguishing equipment?
A. The stability of the vessel is increased. A. The agent is highly toxic at normal room temperature.
B. The trim of the vessel is changed substantially. B. For portable extinguishers, the agent is only available in a 2½
pound unit.
C. The stability of the vessel is significantly decreased. C. Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering action.
D. The vessel will list in proportion to the volume of the cargo shifted. D. The agent can not be used on electrical fires because it leaves a
residue.
Ans: A Ans: B
5169 Which of the listed conditions will occur to the ship's center of 5170 Which of the listed effects will occur when an operating diesel
gravity if 200 tons of steel is transferred to the ships cargo hold engine ingests Halon 1301?
from shore side?
A. The reserve buoyancy will rise. A. The high engine combustion temperatures liquefy the Halon.
B. The center of gravity will remain in the same position. B. The engine absorbs the Halon into its cooling system.
C. The center of gravity will be lowered. C. The engine decomposes the ingested Halon.
D. The reserve buoyancy will remain the same. D. The engine will stall regardless of how little Halon has been taken in
through the air intake.
Ans: C Ans: C
5171 A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the __________. 5172 Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an
approved EPIRB. An EPIRB ____________.
A. freeboard is increased A. must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel
sinks
B. tanks are ballasted B. must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use

C. reserve buoyancy increases C. is a device that transmits a radio signal

D. trim is increased D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
5173 If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it 5174 To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head
_____________. shown in the illustration, you would ____________.
 Page 286

A. is now higher than 300mm above the deck A. open valve, pull pin, and pull up on release lever
B. does not block access to the fire station hydrant B. pull pin, open valve, and pull up on release lever
C. will cover no more than 25 percent of deck space C. open valve and pull pin
D. will be easily visible from the bridge D. pull pin and open valve
Ans: B Ans: D
5175 Prior to entering a compartment containing an atmosphere 5176 A safety "ring pin" is usually inserted in the handle of a CO2 fire
potentially dangerous to life or health, you should don an approved extinguisher to prevent _____________.
self-contained breathing apparatus. Which one of the listed devices
is a self-contained breathing apparatus?
A. A demand-type breathing apparatus A. the cylinder valve from coming loose
B. A fresh-air breathing apparatus B. the handle from contacting the cylinder
C. A canister-type gas mask C. contamination of the valve parts
D. All of the above D. accidental discharge from the extinguisher
Ans: A Ans: D
5177 The knife edges and gaskets of watertight doors should be 5178 A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher has been partially discharged,
_____________. and should be immediately _____________.
A. clean and uncoated A. tagged and restowed properly in its rack
B. lightly coated with tallow B. weighed and the charge loss recorded
C. coated with petroleum jelly C. given to the chief engineer for recharging
D. painted to prevent weathering D. tagged "empty" and stowed separately from charged extinguishers

Ans: A Ans: D
5179 While wearing a demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus 5180 You are replacing a section of heavy piping on deck and using a
the alarm bell begins ringing. Which of the following conditions chain fall to lift the pipe. Which of the following precautions should
does this indicate? be taken to prevent personal injury?
A. There is a 4-5 minute supply of air remaining in the air cylinder. A. Position several men under the pipe so they can catch it if it falls.

B. There is approximately 35bar (3.5 MPa) of pressure left in the air B. Attach lines to the ends of the pipe and have your helpers steady
cylinder. the load.
C. The wearer should immediately leave the contaminated area. C. Place an old mattress under the hoist to prevent the load from
hitting the deck.
D. All of the above. D. Have a first aid kit at the job site.
Ans: D Ans: B
5181 When is it required for carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be 5182 A flat block placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of
recharged? distributing pressure is referred to as a ____________.
A. At least once each year. A. strong back
B. Each time the vessel drydocks. B. butt piece
C. When the charged weight decreases by 10%. C. shore foot
D. When the trigger seal has been broken. D. shole
Ans: C Ans: D
5183 If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must 5184 According to Regulations , which of the following statements
be of a type approved by the _____________. concerning fire main shore connections for a 20,000 gross ton
cargo vessel on an international voyage is correct?
A. Ship owner A. There must be at least one shore connection to the fire main
system on each side of the vessel.
B. Administration B. Shore connections must be in an accessible location and fitted with
cutoff and check valves.
C. Class C. There must be at least one portable international shore connection
available to each side of the vessel.
D. P & I club D. All of the above.
Ans: B Ans: D
5185 Which of the following pressures represents the normal pressure 5186 Fire doors are released by a/an _____________.
setting of a pressure-vacuum relief valve?
A. +1bar a, - 76cm Hg A. hydraulic directional valve that automatically releases the door in
the event of a disruption to the control power system
B. +2500mm WG, -750mmWG B. spring-loaded catch that automatically lifts to release the door in the
event of the presence of a fire
C. +1250mmWG -300WG C. method that automaticly releases the door in the event of a
disruption of control system power
D. +1bar g 0 bar g D. pneumatic heat sensor
Ans: D Ans: C
5187 To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during 5188 For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with
bunkering, you should ____________. a means in which the vessel's designated person-in-charge may
stop the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the
event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. This me

A. close the tank filling valves quickly A. electrically

B. top off all tanks at the same time B. pneumatically or mechanically
C. fill completely all tanks to less than 95% full C. via a communications device used for no other purpose
D. reduce the loading rate when topping off D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: D
5189 Prior to loading or discharging bulk cargo, all sea valves should be 5190 If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the
_____________. coupling bolts, you should ____________.
A. secured and lashed A. notify the Master of a potential pollution incident
B. secured and locked B. reduce the pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate
C. opened and lashed C. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak
 Page 287

D. opened and locked D. stop transfer operations and renew the gasket
Ans: A Ans: D
5191 According to Regulations , each fire hydrant must have at least 5192 One precaution to take prior to working in a freshly painted
_____________. compartment where there are an excessive amount of paint fumes,
is to _____________.
A. one length of fire hose A. take shallow breaths of air
B. a spanner wrench B. ventilate the area
C. a hose rack or other device for stowing hose C. wear a breathing apparatus while working
D. all of the above D. keep a charged fire hose handy
Ans: D Ans: B
5193 A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank when 5194 Which of the listed pumping arrangements will be hazardous when
discharging cargo, this would indicate that the ___________. two similar centrifugal pumps are used to discharge a cargo of
flammable liquid?
A. tank liquid is too viscous A. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a
common line.
B. pump discharge pressure is excessive B. Both pumps operating at the same speed and taking suction from a
common line.
C. pump is sucking air C. Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a
common line.
D. tank foot valve is partially clogged D. Each pump operating at a different pressure and discharging into a
common line.
Ans: C Ans: D
5195 If your vessel is to carry ten portable foam fire extinguishers, you 5196 A portable foam fire extinguisher carried aboard a tank vessel must
must maintain a supply of at least ____________. be recharged every _____________.

A. one spare extinguisher A. 3 months

B. one spare charge B. 6 months
C. five spare charges C. 9 months
D. ten spare charges D. 12 months
Ans: C Ans: D
5197 In order to release CO2 to the machinery spaces from a fixed fire 5198 Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off at the inner
extinguishing system, you must _____________. bottom level when loading on a cold day?
A. actuate an alarm and open the engine room control valve A. Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure,
which increases the chances of a spill.
B. actuate an alarm and open the engine room CO2 releasing valve B. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole.

C. open the engine room control valve and shut off engine room C. The temperature rise of the fuel will cause an overflow.
ventilation fans
D. open the engine room control valve and then the CO2 releasing D. Fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil to
valve spill before the valve can be opened.
Ans: D Ans: C
5199 If the overflow tank high-level alarm sounds while the fuel oil tanks 5200 To avoid shock pressures in the fuel oil filling hoses while you are
are being topped off, the engineer should _____________. topping off tanks, the ____________.

A. close the static leg filling valve A. loading rate should be decreased
B. close the overflow tank filling valve B. oiler should sound all tanks continuously
C. reduce the fuel oil pumping rate C. hoses should be looped
D. stop the fuel oil pumping operation D. tank vent valves should be clear
Ans: D Ans: A
5201 A cylinder used for storing CO2 in a fixed firefighting system, must 5202 Which of the following statements is correct concerning fixed
be hydrostatically retested and restamped every _____________. carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems?

A. once in every calendar year A. A separate supply of carbon dioxide must be provided for each
space protected.
B. 5 years B. The piping shall be used for no other purpose except that it may be
incorporated with the fire-detecting system.
C. 8 years C. Distribution piping within the space shall be proportioned from the
supply line to give the proper throttling to the outlets.
D. 12 years D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: B
5203 The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of 5204 The fire extinguishing action of CO2 comes mostly from
solid and sulphur combustion products, while simultaneously _____________.
cooling the inert gas, is called the _____________.

A. filter A. breaking the fire chemical chain reaction

B. cooler B. smothering
C. scrubber C. cooling
D. purifier D. isolating the heat from the fuel
Ans: C Ans: B
5205 The lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may 5206 A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be
be prevented by ________. found in which of the locations listed?
A. welding brackets across both ends of the crack A. Fireroom bilges where hydrazine has accumulated.
B. chipping out and slot welding the entire crack B. Sewage compartment bilges where leaked sewage has
accumulated.
C. drilling a hole at each end of the crack C. Engine room bilges where chemical cleaners and solvents have
accumulated.
 Page 288

D. cutting a square notch at each end of the crack D. Emergency battery storage compartment where discharge gases
have accumulated.
Ans: C Ans: B
5207 The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will 5208 When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior to
be automatically secured if _____________. entering the cargo pumproom to repair a leaking pump?

A. normal water supply at the water seal is lost A. Benzene

B. the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks B. Carbon monoxide
is more than 65°C
C. the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost C. Hydrogen sulfide
D. all of the above D. Tetrathyl lead
Ans: D Ans: C
5209 After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of 5210 The Pollution Prevention Regulations prohibits draining
an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any ____________.
cargo tank, with a minimum of ____________.

A. 50 millimeters of water A. fuel oil burners into buckets

B. 100 millimeters of water B. oil transfer hoses into buckets
C. 150 millimeters of water C. fuel oil strainers into the ship's bilges
D. 200 millimeters of water D. lube oil strainers into fixed drip pans
Ans:
B Ans:
C
5211 Flame screens used on ullage openings prevent flames from 5212 Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel
entering a tank by _____________. oil tank has been holed by _____________.
A. reducing the cross-sectional area of the opening A. sounding the tank
B. restricting the flow of gases through the opening B. waiting for the vessel to list
C. creating turbulence in the exiting gas stream C. examining tank boundaries
D. dissipating heat from the flame into the surrounding metal D. checking fuel oil strainers
Ans: D Ans: A
5213 When cargo oil tanks are cleaned by crude oil washing while in 5214 At the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel, you must FIRST
port, _____________. _____________.
A. provision should be made for a shoreside holding tank or an A. locate the fire
onboard slop tank
B. water should be allowed to settle before discharge overboard B. determine which type of fire is burning

C. filters should be installed in bilge strainers to absorb oil before C. sound the alarm
discharge overboard
D. the dock supervisor need not be notified before discharging oily D. fight the fire
mixtures overboard
Ans: A Ans: C
5215 A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels, must have a 5216 While on watch in the engine room, you hear a continuous
_____________. sounding of the general alarm. Which of the following actions
should you take FIRST?
A. canister-type gas mask A. Secure the burners then proceed to your assigned boat station.

B. fresh-air breathing apparatus B. Start the fire pump and establish flow to the fire main.
C. self-contained breathing apparatus C. Open the guardian valve and standby to maneuver.
D. combustible gas indicator D. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system.
Ans: C Ans: B
5217 Pollution Prevention Regulations state that no person may transfer 5218 When the general alarm is sounded continuously, the engine room
oil to or from a vessel unless _____________. personnel should _____________.
A. hoses are supported so that couplings have no strain on them A. proceed to their man overboard stations

B. a sample has been taken from the oil being received B. start the fire pump
C. an oil containment boom is available for immediate use C. put on lifejackets and go to their abandon ship stations
D. each part of the transfer system is blown through with air D. secure the propulsion diesel engines and evacuate the engine
room
Ans: A Ans: B
5219 As soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal, you should 5220 When fuel tanks are being topped off, the person-in-charge of
ensure that _____________. bunkering is directly responsible for the _____________.
A. the ring buoys are thrown overboard A. loading rate
B. the engines are stopped B. vessel draft readings
C. the fire pumps are started C. quality of fuel received
D. everyone is suited in an approved life preserver D. temperature of fuel received
Ans: C Ans: A
5221 The term "oil" as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 5222 Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks
means: ____________. with a gas, or mixture of gases, that has an oxygen content by
volume of ____________.
A. petroleum in any form A. 5% or less
B. animal or vegetable based oil B. 10% or less
C. noxious liquid substances designated under Annex II of MARPOL C. 15% or less
73/78
D. All of the above D. 20% or less
Ans: A Ans: A
 Page 289

5223 Each inert gas system must be equipped with the following 5224 To determine that a compartment contains sufficient oxygen to
instruments: oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure sustain life, you should use a/an _____________.
indicator and recorder, and temperature indicator. The point of
measurement for these instruments must be located
____________.
A. after the gas regulating valve A. explosimeter
B. downstream of the blowers B. oxygen indicator
C. scrubber outlet C. fresh air indicator
D. upstream of the liquid filled breaker D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: B
5225 Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable 5226 The upper limit of sulphur dioxide permitted to be maintained in the
instruments to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert gas should not exceed ___________.
inert atmospheres and also to measure ____________.

A. nitrogen A. 0.0008
B. oxygen B. 0.0006
C. carbon dioxide C. 0.0004
D. water vapor D. 0.0002
Ans: B Ans: D
5227 If fuel tank levels are found to have increased after a grounding, 5228 Regulations require gears, couplings, flywheels, and all machinery
you should suspect _______________. capable of injuring personnel shall be ____________.

A. a damaged pneumercator line A. protected with adequate covers or guards

B. a puncture, crack, or hole in the skin of the vessel B. identified by yellow and black warning signs
C. improper record keeping of fuel transfer activities C. conspicuously identified as to their particular hazard
D. contamination of the contaminated steam supply system D. located where they may not be easily contacted
Ans: B Ans: A
5229 The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors is specified 5230 What operational limitation should the user of a self-contained
as a percentage of ________. breathing apparatus be concerned with when using the device?

A. flammable vapor by volume in air A. The weight of the unit changes the user's center of gravity.
B. oxygen present to support combustion B. The lens of the facepiece reduces the user's peripheral vision.

C. the temperature of the flash point C. The attached lifeline limits the user's mobility.
D. the lower limit of explosibility of the mixture D. All of the above are correct.
Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 290

ELECTRO - TECHNOLOGY
5231 The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch functions to 5232 When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, "loading effect" can
_____________. be minimized by using a voltmeter with a/an
___________________.
A. act as a backup brake in the event the mechanical brake should A. input impedance much greater than the impedance across which
fail the voltage is being measured
B. automatically hold the load as soon as current to the machine is B. input impedance much less than the impedance across which the
shut off voltage is being measured
C. automatically govern the lowering speed of the load C. sensitivity of less than 1000 ohms/volt
D. automatically govern the hoisting speed of the load D. sensitivity of more than 1000 volts/ohm
Ans: B Ans: A
5233 An electric tachometer receives the engine speed signal from a 5234 A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in
_______________. temperature is known as a _____________.
A. small generator mounted on the engine A. resistor
B. bimetallic sensing device B. thermistor
C. stroboscopic sensing device C. diode
D. vibrating reed meter generating a voltage proportionate to engine D. thermopile
speed
Ans: A Ans: B
5235 Which of the listed devices may be installed on a large turbo- 5236 Moisture damage, as a result of condensation occurring inside of
electric alternating current propulsion generator? the cargo winch master switches, can be reducedby
__________________.
A. Temperature detector coils inserted in the stator slots for measuring A. installing a light bulb in the pedestal stand
stator temperature.
B. A CO2 fire extinguishing system. B. coating the switch box internals with epoxy sealer
C. Electric space heaters to prevent condensation of moisture. C. venting the switch box regularly
D. All of the above. D. using strip heaters inside the switch box
Ans: D Ans: D
5237 The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz, AC generator is 5238 Any electric motor can be constructed to be _____________.
controlled by the _____________.
A. prime mover speed A. short proof
B. exciter output voltage B. ground proof
C. load on the alternator C. explosion proof
D. number of poles D. overload proof
Ans: B Ans: C
5239 The electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery is distilled water 5240 Which of the damages listed can occur to the components of a
and ______________. winch master control switch, if the cover gasket becomes
deteriorated?
A. diluted sulfuric acid A. Overheating of the winch motor.
B. potassium hydroxide B. Contamination of lube oil.
C. lead sulfate C. Sparking at the winch motor brushes.
D. zinc oxide D. Rapid corrosion of switch components.
Ans: B Ans: D
5241 While starting a main propulsion synchronous motor, the ammeter 5242 The purpose of a short circuit forcing module (short time trip)
pegs out at maximum and then returns to the proper value after installed in a branch line is to provide ____________.
synchronization. This indicates the _____________.

A. motor has started properly A. high speed clearance of low impedance short circuits in the branch

B. field windings are grounded B. continuity of service on main bus under short circuit conditions in a
branch
C. slip rings are dirty C. isolation of short circuits by selective tripping of branch circuit
breakers
D. power transmission cables are grounded D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
5243 Autotransformer starters or compensators are sometimes usedwith 5244 In an AC synchronous motor electric propulsion plant,propeller
polyphase induction motors to _____________. speed is controlled by varying the _____________.

A. reduce the voltage applied to the motor during the starting period A. prime mover speed

B. increase the voltage for "across-the-line starting" B. electric coupling field strength
C. provide a backup means of voltage regulation for emergency C. number of energized main motor poles
starting
D. allow the voltage to be either stepped up or down, depending on D. propulsion generator field strength
the application, to ensure full torque
Ans: A Ans: A
5245 Grounds occurring in electrical machinery as a result of insulation 5246 The amount of voltage induced in the windings of an AC generator
failure may result from _____________. depends on ____________.
A. deterioration through extended use A. the number of conductors in series per winding
B. excessive heat B. the speed at which the magnetic field passes across the winding

C. extended periods of vibration C. the strength of the magnetic field

D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
 Page 291

5247 The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of 5248 A tubular fuse should always be removed from a fuse panel with
electromagnetic induction is the _____________. _____________.
A. diode A. a screwdriver
B. transformer B. a pair of insulated metal pliers
C. transistor C. any insulated object
D. rheostat D. fuse pullers
Ans: B Ans: D
5249 Which of the following statements concerning analog anddigital 5250 The number of cells in a 12 volt lead-acid battery is
devices are correct? ________________.
A. The variables in digital systems are fixed quantities, and the A. three cells
variables in analog systems are continuous quantities.
B. There are no basic differences between the two systems. B. four cells
C. Analog devices are superior in accuracy compared to digital C. six cells
devices.
D. Operations in a digital device are performed simultaneously. D. twelve cells
Ans: A Ans: C
5251 The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip 5252 Protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case
may be decreased by raising the plunger further into the magnetic circuit breakers is provided by a/an __________.
circuit of the relay. This action ___________.
A. reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to A. overvoltage release
trip the relay
B. reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to B. thermal acting trip
trip the relay
C. increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current C. thermal overload relay
to trip the relay
D. increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to D. current overload relay
trip the relay
Ans: D Ans: B
5253 Regarding an AC generator connected to the main electrical bus; 5254 In an induction motor, rotor currents are circulated in therotor by
as the electric load and power factor vary, a corresponding _____________.
change is reflected in the generator armature reaction. These
changes in armature reaction are compensated for by the
_________
A. governor speed droop setting A. slip rings and brushes
B. voltage regulator B. an armature and brushes
C. balance coil C. inductive reaction of the rotating stator field
D. phase-balance relay D. external variable resistors
Ans: B Ans: C
5255 Electrical leads and insulation on a motor should be painted with 5256 Voltage generated by most AC generators is fed from the machine
____________. to the bus by means of ____________.
A. heat-resisting acrylic A. brushes on a commutator
B. heat-resisting aluminum B. brushes on slip rings
C. insulating varnish C. slip rings on a commutator
D. insulating white lead D. direct connections from the stator
Ans: C Ans: D
5257 The alarm system for an engine order telegraph uses small selsyn 5258 As a general rule, the first troubleshooting action to be taken in
motors attached to the indicators. The alarm soundswhen the rotors checking faulty electric control devices is to _____________.
are _____________.
A. in synchronous position, no current is flowing, and the relays are A. draw a one line diagram of the circuitry
open
B. in synchronous position, no current is flowing, and the relays are B. test all fuses and measure the line voltage
closed
C. not synchronized, current is flowing, and the relays are open C. take megger readings
D. not synchronized, current is flowing, and the relays are closed D. insulate the apparatus from ground

Ans: D Ans: B
5259 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the circuits 5260 The first requirement for logical troubleshooting of any system is the
in a sound powered telephone system? ability to ______________.
A. The ringing circuit is composed of only one common wire to ground. A. collect all available data on a casualty

B. The common talking circuit is composed of two ungrounded wires. B. recognize normal operation

C. The ringing circuit has two grounded wires connected to each C. identify the probable cause of a symptom
station.
D. The talking and calling circuits are electrically dependent upon each D. isolate the faulty component
other.
Ans: B Ans: B
5261 AC circuits possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and 5262 A low voltage source is being used for testing armature coils. A coil
capacitance. The capacitive reactance of acircuit is expressed in short circuit will be indicated by a _______.
_____________.
A. ohms A. high voltage reading, while the other coil readings will have an equal
or lower value
B. mhos B. low or zero voltage reading, while the other coils will have higher
readings
C. henrys C. fluctuating voltmeter reading, while the other coil readings are
steady
 Page 292

D. farads D. steady voltmeter reading, while the other coil readings are
fluctuating
Ans: A Ans: B
5263 The electrical energy necessary to transmit a person's voice over a 5264 Which of the listed procedures should be carried out to prevent
sound-powered telephone circuit is obtained from _____________. moisture damage to electrical apparatus during extended periods
of idleness?
A. dry cell batteries A. Fill the motor housing with CO2 to inert the space.
B. the ship's service switchboard B. Strap silica gel around the commutator.
C. the emergency switchboard C. Place heat lamps in the motor housings.
D. the speaker's voice D. Cover the equipment with a canvas tarpaulin.
Ans: D Ans: C
5265 Which of the listed conditions is an advantage of a PNdiode over a 5266 The freezing point of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead-acid
vacuum diode? battery will be _____________.
A. Longer life. A. higher than in a discharged battery
B. No warm up time. B. lower than in a discharged battery
C. Less delicate. C. the same as in a discharged battery
D. All of the above. D. higher than in a discharged battery, but the specific gravity will be
less
Ans: D Ans: B
5267 A shading coil used in an AC magnetic controller, functions to 5268 In a cartridge-type fuse, the metal element is contained in a
_____________. ___________________.
A. reduce vibration and noise in the contactor A. porcelain window
B. prevent flux buildup in the operating coil B. thermal cut out
C. eliminate arcing when the contacts close C. fiber tube
D. energize the operating coil and "pull in" the contacts D. flasher device
Ans: A Ans: C
5269 Time delayed or delayed action-type fuses are designed to 5270 Silicon diodes designed for a specific reverse breakdown voltage,
_____________. become useful as an electronic power supply voltage regulator,
called _____________.
A. prevent grounds in branch circuits A. tunnel diodes
B. prevent opens in motor circuits B. hot-carrier diodes
C. permit momentary overloads without melting C. compensating diodes
D. guard lighting and electronic circuits D. Zener diodes
Ans: C Ans: D
5271 To effectively clean a commutator in good physical condition, you 5272 What will be the phase angle relationship of a six-pole, three-phase,
should use ____________. rotating field generator?
A. trichloride ethylene A. 60°
B. kerosene B. 120°
C. a canvas wiper C. 180°
D. a commutator stone D. 360°
Ans: C Ans: B
5273 When charging lead-acid batteries, you should reduce the charging 5274 Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC power
rate as the battery nears its full charge capacity to systemsindicate which of the following values of the waveforms
______________. measured?
A. prevent excessive gassing and overheating A. Peak value
B. allow equalization of cell voltages B. Root-mean-square value
C. reduce lead sulfate deposits C. Average value
D. increase lead peroxide formation D. Maximum value
Ans: A Ans: B
5275 Since fuse elements are made of zinc or any alloy of tin and lead, 5276 Which of the following statements correctly applies to transistors?
the melting point of the fuse element must be _____________.

A. higher than that of copper A. NDN and PNP are the two basic types of transistors.
B. lower than that of copper B. The three terminals are called the emitter, base, and collector.

C. equal to that of copper C. The emitter separates the base and collector.
D. reached when the conductor it is protecting becomes "white hot." D. The collector separates the emitter and base.

Ans: B Ans: B
5277 Fuses are rated in _____________. 5278 Which of the following statements comparing transistors and
vacuum tubes is correct?
A. voltage A. Both transistors and vacuum tubes have a cathode that must be
heated to give off electrons.
B. amperage B. A vacuum tube must have a heated cathode, where transistors do
not.
C. interrupting capacity C. Neither transistors nor vacuum tubes require heat for electrons to
flow.
D. all the above D. The anode of both transistors and vacuum tubes must be heated
to give off electrons.
Ans: D Ans: B
5279 A damper winding is designed as part of a synchronous motor to 5280 The type of control circuit that will not permit automatic restarting
____________. after power is restored, following a power failure is called
_____________.
A. increase efficiency A. low voltage protection
B. provide starting torque B. low voltage release
C. provide excitation C. overload lockout
 Page 293

D. eliminate slippage D. reduced voltage restart

Ans: B Ans: A
5281 Which of the following types of motors is often designedfor use in 5282 Electric cables are formed of stranded wire to ____________.
correcting power factor?
A. Polyphase A. increase the current carrying capability for a given size wire
B. Wound-rotor B. increase their flexibility
C. Induction C. decrease the weight for a given size wire
D. Synchronous D. assure good conductivity at junction points
Ans: D Ans: B
5283 The purpose of amortisseur windings in a synchronous motor is to 5284 A lead-acid battery is considered fully charged when the
______________. ______________.
A. reduce eddy current losses A. electrolyte gasses freely
B. produce a higher power factor B. battery charger ammeter indicates a positive reading
C. provide a means for starting C. terminal voltage reaches a constant value at a given temperature

D. eliminate arcing between the stator and the rotor D. specific gravity of all cells reaches the correct value and no longer
increases over a period of 1 to 4 hours
Ans: C Ans: D
5285 High vacuum diodes, gas-filled diodes, and germanium 5286 Local action in a dry-cell, or lead-acid storage battery is the process
semiconductor diodes may all be used as _____________. whereby ________________.
A. potentiometers A. hydrogen gas is liberated
B. rectifiers B. the electrolyte compensates for overcharging
C. power sources C. potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide from the air
D. photocells D. the battery becomes discharged without being connected to a load

Ans: B Ans: D
5287 Large cable sizes are formed as individual conductors that may be 5288 The conversion of the throttle command voltage to thesignal
comprised of several smaller strands to __________. necessary to achieve the desired shaft RPM isaccomplished by the
_____________.
A. obtain the flexibility required for easy handling A. ahead or astern function generator of the throttle control circuit

B. reduce the overall weight of the wire run B. feedback resistor of the summing amplifier circuit
C. reduce the number of supports needed for a horizontal overhead C. operational amplifiers in the autorotation circuit
run
D. all of the above D. long time constant amplifier circuit
Ans: A Ans: A
5289 A hydrometer indicates specific gravity by comparing the 5290 The unit of apparent power in a purely inductive circuit is called the
_____________. _____________.
A. density of a substance in water with the density of the same A. kva
substance in air
B. differences in weight between water and the liquid measured B. var

C. mass of substance measured with the density of the same C. emf

substance
D. buoyancy of an object in water with the buoyancy of the same D. watt
object in the liquid being measured
Ans: D Ans: B
5291 A common type of protective covering used on electrical 5292 The main difference between an electron tube and a transistor is
conductors is _____________. the _____________.
A. plain paper A. type of function they can perform
B. fibrous braid B. reaction of electron flow through a gas or vacuum in a transistor

C. silver sheathing C. reaction of electron flow through a semiconductor when placed in a

tube
D. babbitt sheathing D. reaction of electron flow through a semiconductor used to form a
transistor
Ans: B Ans: D
5293 An across-the-line starter is typically used for which of the following 5294 The multiple prefix "kilo" means ____________.
applications?
A. Reduced-current starting of large motors A. thousand (10 to the 3rd power)
B. Low torque starting of small motors B. million (10 to the 6th power)
C. Low resistance starting of DC motors C. billion (10 to the 9th power)
D. Full-voltage starting of motors D. trillion (10 to the 12 power)
Ans: D Ans: A
5295 Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings of large 5296 A double squirrel-cage motor is designed to have__________.
machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes just prior to the
test, because the ___________.
A. static charge of the machine may give a false reading A. low starting torque
B. armature will have a greater number of leakage paths B. low starting current
C. insulation may be damaged C. high starting voltage
D. insulation may be covered with moisture D. low starting resistance
Ans: A Ans: B
5297 Which of the methods listed is used to maintain equal load sharing 5298 The rotor slots of a repulsion-type motor are generally skewed
between two compound wound DC generators operating in (placed nonparallel to the rotor axis) to _________.
parallel?
A. The shunt fields are interconnected. A. produce a constant starting torque
 Page 294

B. The shunt field rheostats are interconnected. B. permit a greater air gap with the starter
C. The series fields of both generators are connected in series. C. permit a smaller air gap with the starter
D. The series fields of both generators are connected in parallel. D. reduce eddy current losses

Ans: D Ans: A
5299 When using a megohmmeter to test insulation, good insulation will 5300 A three-phase, induction-type motor experiences an open in one
be indicated by _____________. phase. Which of the listed automatic protective devices will prevent
the machine from being damaged?
A. slight kicks of the needle down scale A. Overspeed trip
B. a downward dip followed by a gradual climb to the true resistance B. Thermal overload relay
value
C. a gradual rise in the pointer reading at the outset C. Three-pole safety switch
D. the initial dip of the pointer D. Magnetic blowout coil
Ans: B Ans: B
5301 The process, whereby electrons gain sufficient energy to 5302 Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings of large
bereleased from the surface of a thin, heated metal plate, isknown machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes just prior to the
as _____________. test as the ______________.
A. photo electric emission A. insulation may be damaged
B. secondary emission B. insulation may be covered with moisture
C. thermionic emission C. armature windings will have a greater number of leakage paths

D. regressive emission D. larger machines may acquire a charge of static electricity during
operation
Ans: C Ans: D
5303 The multiple prefix "tera" (T) means ____________. 5304 Most conducting materials such as copper, aluminum, iron, nickel,
and tungsten _____________.
A. thousand (10 to the 3rd power) A. increase in resistance with increased temperature
B. million (10 to the 6th power) B. increase in resistance with decreased temperature
C. billion (10 to the 9th power) C. decrease in resistance with increased temperature
D. trillion (10 to the 12th power) D. increase in conductance with increased temperature
Ans: D Ans: A
5305 In a series circuit, which value will remain unchanged at all places in 5306 If the pointer fails to return to zero when a megger is disconnected,
the circuit? the _____________.
A. Voltage A. pointer is stuck
B. Current B. hair springs are burned out
C. Resistance C. megger is out of calibration
D. Inductance D. megger is operating normally
Ans: B Ans: D
5307 Which of the listed conditions describes the effect on intrinsic 5308 In electronic circuits, DC voltages can be positive (+) or negative (-)
semiconductor operation as a result of a temperature increase? when measured with respect to the _________.

A. Additional heat sinks will be required A. printed circuit board "common" trace
B. Conductivity will increase B. chassis, console frame or hull "ground"
C. Conductivity will decrease C. analogue or digital circuitry "common" bus
D. Resistivity will increase D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
5309 To minimize magnetic field interaction between electrical 5310 Capacitors are used on the output of the power supply in today's
conductors in physical proximity, it is best to keep them consoles to _____________.
___________________.
A. parallel and as close as possible to each other A. filter out "ripple"
B. at right angles and as close as possible to each other B. prevent overloads
C. parallel to and as far as practicable from each other C. act as a permanent load
D. at right angles and as far as practicable from each other D. decrease the average value of the output voltage
Ans: D Ans: A
5311 The purpose of a motor undervoltage protection device is to 5312 Which of the following components are used to assemble a
_____________. fluorescent lighting system?
A. prevent high armature current when power is restored A. Lamp
B. start the motor at a very low voltage B. Starter
C. trip the load off the motor in case of fire C. Ballast
D. protect personnel from low voltage shocks D. All of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
5313 Low voltage releases as used in some shipboard motor starter and 5314 The schematic symbol for an operational amplifier in an analog
control equipment will have which of the following characteristics? circuit is a _________.

A. They trip circuit contactors when the motor starts to overspeed. A. circle

B. They require manual resetting upon restoration of normal voltage. B. square

C. They use a phase sensitive relay to trip contacts in series with the C. trapezoid
holding coil of the starter.
D. They allow the motor to restart upon restoration of normal voltage. D. triangle

Ans: D Ans: D
5315 A motor controller contains three selector push buttons labeled 5316 For more complete vessel protection when using an impressed
"start", "jog", and "stop". When the "jog" button is pushed, the current cathodic system _____________.
motor _____________.
 Page 295

A. will run continuously after the "jog" button is released A. all ship's service alternators have additional temperature sensing
devices and a thermal recorder installed
B. will run until the "jog" button is released B. machinery on deck and in the engineroom is first coated with zinc
chromate before final painting
C. will not start until both the "jog" and "start" buttons are pushed C. the hull's magnetic fields are aligned with a solid-state degaussing
circuit using SCR's
D. will not stop unless the "stop" button is pushed D. straps connect the rudder with the hull and the propeller shaft is
grounded through a slip ring/brush arrangement
Ans: B Ans: D
5317 When you are making a high potential test on a piece of repaired 5318 What is the function of the interpoles installed in DC motors?
electrical machinery, a rise in leakage current indicates
____________.
A. good insulation A. To provide greater torque by strengthening the main field.
B. bad insulation B. To provide sparkless commutation without having to shift the
brushes.
C. high insulation power factor C. To limit the production of counter-electromotive force.
D. a high slot discharge factor D. To limit the starting surge current.
Ans: B Ans: B
5319 Regarding an induction motor, the power developed by the rotor 5320 You are testing the insulation in an AC generator with a
automatically adjusts itself to the _____________. megohmeter. The resistance value of a dry, clean winding will
____________.
A. power required to drive the load A. continue to rise as the test potential is maintained, becoming fairly
steady as the leakage current stabilizes
B. speed required to drive the load B. remain constant as the temperature of the windings increases

C. current flow in the motor stator C. continue to drop as the potential is maintained, becoming fairly
steady after 5 to 7 minutes
D. torque developed by the rotating field D. stabilize after approximately 2 to 4 minutes of fluctuation
Ans: A Ans: A
5321 Routine maintenance of dry-type transformers should include 5322 The sub-multiple prefix "micro" (Greek letter 'mu') means
____________. ____________.
A. cleaning the windings, if accessible, with a vacuum cleaner or very A. thousandth (10 to the -3rd power)
low pressure air
B. measuring and recording the winding temperature with an accurate B. millionth (10 to the -6th power)
mercury thermometer
C. periodic cleaning of the winding insulation with an approved solvent C. billionth (10 to the -9th power)

D. making sure that the units are close to bulkheads or corners to D. trillionth (10 to the -12th power)
protect them from damage
Ans: A Ans: B
5323 The part of the shipboard electrical system used to control the 5324 The amount of current flow required for the cathodic protection of a
distribution of power to the branch circuits, is the _____________. vessel is dependent upon the _________.

A. bridge control panel A. amount of bare steel surface

B. disconnect links B. speed of the ship through the water
C. governor relay box C. temperature of the water
D. main switchboard D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
5325 A switchboard for an AC electrical system requires the use of which 5326 When replacing a power transistor fitted with a heat sink in a circuit,
of the following devices? a coating of silicone grease is applied between the transistor case
and the heat sink. This is done to ____________.

A. Frequency meter. A. lubricate the transistor

B. Ohmmeter. B. lubricate the heat sink
C. Induction voltage regulator. C. aid in the removal of the heat sink
D. Current transformer governor. D. provide maximum heat transfer
Ans: A Ans: D
5327 One function of the movable cams in a drum-type motor controller 5328 The point of operation for a saturable reactor in a power circuit is
is to _____________. that at which _______________.
A. regulate the speed of the motor A. a large change in control current results in small change in load
current
B. maintain resistance contacts in clean condition B. a small change in load current results in a large change in control
current
C. insulate the operating handle C. a small change in control current results in a large change in load
current
D. limit the amount of load put on the motor D. a large change in load current causes a small change in control
current
Ans: A Ans: C
5329 Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during 5330 What precaution should be taken with a vessel's impressed current
operation due to _____________. cathodic protection system after a drydocking period during which
the hull has been painted?
A. an open coil A. Output currents should be carefully monitored to assure operation
at nearly 100 % capacity for proper curing.
B. low contact pressure B. Reference cell voltages should be maintained at half the normal
range for approximately 48 hours.
 Page 296

C. excessive ambient temperature C. The unit should remain off for the specified amount of time so as
not to disturb curing.
D. excessive magnetic gap D. A slight (10-15%) overcurrent to the anodes should be allowed in
order to speed drying.
Ans: B Ans: C
5331 Possible phase relationships between voltage and current in an 5332 A suspected "open" in a motor field can be tested by using a/an
alternating current circuit include which of the following conditions? ____________.

A. Current and voltage may be in phase. A. potentiometer

B. Current may lead the voltage. B. megger
C. Current may lag the voltage. C. wattmeter
D. All of the above. D. ammeter
Ans: D Ans: B
5333 Which of the procedures listed could result in damaging a transistor 5334 Basically, a magnetic amplifier is a saturable reactor withthe
beyond repair? addition of _____________.
A. Applying incorrect polarity to the collector circuit. A. AC to the bias winding
B. Applying excessive voltage to the input circuit. B. variable capacitance to all windings
C. Careless soldering which would overheat the transistor. C. eddy current protectors
D. All of the above. D. a rectifier in the load circuit
Ans: D Ans: D
5335 If the contacts of a motor starter or controller fail to drop out when 5336 A capacitor discolored due to excessive heat should be
the "stop" button is depressed the ____________. _____________.
A. contacts are carrying excessive current A. calibrated
B. contacts have become welded together B. replaced
C. shading coil is broken C. cooled
D. shading coil is loose D. soldered
Ans: B Ans: B
5337 Grease coatings on electrical contact surfaces increase contact 5338 A ground in an electrical circuit outside the engine room
resistance and should be removed with a/an _______________. _____________.

A. small wire brush A. cannot be detected under normal conditions

B. compressed air jet B. is of no consequence to engineering personnel
C. clean dry cloth C. is indicated at the branch circuit breaker panel
D. 10% solution carbon solvent and water D. is indicated by the ground detecting lamps on the main switchboard

Ans: C Ans: D
5339 Controller contacts should be routinely cleaned by ________. 5340 The third color band on a resistor is used to indicate the
______________.
A. blowing with compressed air A. tolerance of the resistor
B. filing with a bastard file B. number of zeros following the first two significant figures in the
resistance value
C. wiping with a clean dry cloth C. first significant figure of the resistance
D. dressing with crocus cloth D. second significant figure of the resistance
Ans: C Ans: B
5341 When troubleshooting AC motors, a portable growler can be used 5342 Impressed current cathodic protection is used on vessels instead of
for locating ____________. _________________.
A. open field coils A. fire alarm systems
B. grounded field coils B. repeated painting
C. grounded stator coils C. sacrificial zincs
D. shorted stator coils D. vacuum tube degaussing systems
Ans: D Ans: C
5343 When charging a nickel-cadmium battery, ____________. 5344 Common basic applications for the operational amplifier include
____________.
A. the charging rate should be lessened when gassing commences A. counting, pulsing and clocking amplifiers

B. overcharging should be avoided B. summing, scaling and difference amplifiers

C. the specific gravity of the electrolyte will be unaffected by the state C. step-up, step-down and rectifying amplifiers
of charge
D. add distilled water just prior to charging to insure proper mixing D. all of the above

Ans: C Ans: B
5345 Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a reduction in 5346 The timer element found in a reverse power relay obtains its
voltage and restart it when the voltage is restored to normal? operating torque via _____________.

A. Low voltage protection circuit A. line voltage

B. Non-renewable link fuse B. the main bus
C. Renewable link fuse C. electromagnets
D. Low voltage release circuit D. a separate battery source
Ans: D Ans: C
5347 The difference between the synchronous speed of an induction 5348 The set point current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends
machine and its operating speed (slip) may be correctly expressed to trip may be increased by turning the dashpot in the "lower"
_____________. direction. This action _____________.
A. as a percent of synchronous speed A. reduces magnetic force on the plunger and requires more current
to trip the relay
B. as a decimal fraction of synchronous speed B. reduces magnetic force on the plunger and requires less current to
trip the relay
 Page 297

C. directly in revolutions per minute C. increases magnetic force on the plunger and requires more current
to trip the relay
D. as all of the above D. increases magnetic force on the plunger and requires less current
to trip the relay
Ans: A Ans: A
5349 Which of the listed statements is correct when using an analog 5350 Kilowatt load is divided between two AC generators operating in
multimeter as an ohmmeter? parallel by _____________.
A. The pointer should be adjusted to zero each time a new resistance A. adjusting the governor controls
range is selected.
B. The pointer will move to infinity when the meter is not in use. B. varying the excitation voltage
C. Ohmmeters are not sufficiently sized to measure conductor C. increasing both prime mover speeds simultaneously
insulation resistance.
D. All of the above. D. decreasing both prime mover speeds simultaneously
Ans: D Ans: A
5351 When a nickel-cadium battery begins gassing while connected to 5352 The frequency of an alternator at a given RPM is determined by the
the battery charging circuit, you should _____________. _____________.

A. do nothing as this is a normal condition when charging A. number of turns of wire in the armature coil
B. add distilled water to each cell to reduce the specific gravity of the B. number of magnetic poles
electrolyte
C. add potassium hydroxide to each cell to increase the specific C. strength of the magnets used
gravity of the electrolyte
D. decrease the charging rate D. output voltage
Ans: A Ans: B
5353 In a three-phase circuit, the phase voltages are _____________. 5354 A solid-state circuit is inoperative; the FIRST action that should be
taken is to ____________.
A. 120‚ apart A. wiggle all the components to check for loose connections
B. 160‚ apart B. check all the resistors
C. 180‚ apart C. change all transistors
D. 360‚ apart D. check the DC supply voltage
Ans: A Ans: D
5355 When troubleshooting electronic equipment, the FIRST step to be 5356 When charging a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery, ___________.
taken before testing the circuit voltage is to _________.
A. set the meter to the lowest range A. the temperature of the electrolyte should not be allowed to exceed
32oC
B. check the voltage supply from the power source B. the charging rate should be no greater than 125% of the battery
amp-hour rating
C. remove the suspected component C. the source of power for charging should be 2.5 volts per cell
D. check the current flow through the circuit D. gassing within the battery decreases when nearing full charge and
it will be necessary to reduce the charging current to a low finishing
rate
Ans: B Ans: C
5357 The charging of lead-acid storage batteries will always result in 5358 When the current flow through a power transmission line is doubled,
__________. the power loss _____________.
A. dangerous acid burns A. is halved
B. a dangerously explosive gas being liberated B. is doubled
C. the danger of lead poisoning C. is quadrupled
D. all of the above D. remains the same
Ans: B Ans: C
5359 Transformers are used onboard ships with AC generators to 5360 A full-wave rectifier has one diode burned out in an open condition,
_____________. what will be the output characteristic of the device?

A. change frequency A. Zero

B. increase power output to modulating frequency controllers B. Half-wave rectified
C. decrease power output to modulating frequency controllers C. Full-wave rectified
D. permit higher voltage for electric motor operation and low voltage D. Equal to the AC input
for lighting circuits
Ans: D Ans: B
5361 The function of the autotransformers used with the starters of large 5362 When lead-acid batteries are charging, they always give off
AC motors is to provide _____________. hydrogen gas that is _____________.
A. increased voltage for starting A. considered inert
B. increased torque for starting B. highly explosive
C. reduced voltage for starting C. extremely toxic
D. speed control D. heavier than air
Ans: C Ans: B
5363 Reversing any two of the three rotor leads on a wound-rotor 5364 Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if a single
induction motor will _____________. element fuse were used to replace a blown dual element fuse in a
motor controller circuit?
A. increase motor performance A. The fuse will blow when the motor is started.
B. decrease motor performance B. The fuse works, but overheats at high motor loads.
C. reverse the motor rotation C. The motor runs at reduced voltage.
D. have no effect on the direction of rotation or motor performance D. The motor runs normally.

Ans: D Ans: A
 Page 298

5365 As load is added to an AC generator provided with constant field 5366 A characteristic of an induction motor with a low resistance rotor
excitation, the prime mover slows down with the effect of winding is _____________.
____________.
A. lowering frequency and lowering generated voltage A. high starting voltage
B. increasing frequency and increasing generated voltage B. high starting current
C. increasing frequency and lowering generated voltage C. high slippage
D. lowering frequency and increasing generated voltage D. low starting voltage
Ans: A Ans: B
5367 The most inefficient method of voltage reduction from the stand 5368 Which is a function of the voltage regulators used with
point of power loss, is a/an _____________. ACgenerators?
A. capacitor in series with the load A. To cut out generators when they are no longer required.
B. inductor in series with the load B. To cut in additional generators automatically as required.
C. capacitor and inductor in series with the load C. To divide the KW load equally between generators operating in
parallel.
D. resistor in series with the load D. To divide reactive current between generators operating in parallel.

Ans: D Ans: D
5369 A transformer works on the basic principle of ____________. 5370 Before measuring an unknown resistance with an ohmmeter, you
should _____________.
A. self impedance A. adjust the meter's pointer to mid-scale
B. attraction and repulsion B. short the test leads and calibrate the meter reading to "zero"
C. mutual induction C. change the meter's batteries
D. increasing power D. center the meter's pointer at infinity
Ans: C Ans: B
5371 An ohmmeter can be used to measure ____________. 5372 Under normal conditions, the speed of a two-speed squirrel cage
induction motor is changed by varying the ____________.

A. current flow in a circuit A. frequency of the applied voltage

B. voltage between two points in a circuit B. resistance in the rotor circuit
C. circuit continuity C. number of field poles
D. power D. amplitude of the applied voltage
Ans: C Ans: C
5373 The basic operating principle of a transformer is attributedto 5374 Which of the meters listed should only be used after a circuit has
______________. been electrically disconnected?
A. electromagnetic induction A. Wattmeter
B. variance of a conductor in a magnetic field B. Frequency meter
C. mutual reaction C. Ammeter
D. thermionic emission D. Ohmmeter
Ans: A Ans: D
5375 When using an ohmmeter to test a semiconductor diode, you find a 5376 The capacity of a storage battery is measured in
low resistance in both the forward and reverse bias directions. This ______________.
indicates that the diode has a/an ____________.

A. open A. volts
B. short B. ampere-hours
C. good resistive quality C. farads
D. good capacitive quality D. amps
Ans: B Ans: B
5377 The pitting of controller contacts can be caused by 5378 A transformer in an electric circuit serves to ____________.
_____________.
A. excessive spring pressure A. generate its own electrical power
B. insufficient contact pressure B. transform electrical energy into mechanical energy
C. continuous motor overload C. increase or decrease circuit voltage as required
D. all of the above D. convert AC current to DC current
Ans: B Ans: C
5379 The main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large 5380 The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor is determined by the
AC generator is to _____________. ____________.
A. prevent the windings from becoming brittle A. diameter of the stator
B. prevent moisture from condensing in the windings during shutdown B. number of stator poles

C. prevent acidic pitting of the slip rings C. rotor winding resistance

D. keep the lube oil warm for quick starting D. rotor conducting bars resistance
Ans: B Ans: B
5381 Prior to starting an AC generator prime mover, the voltage regulator 5382 A loud buzzing noise at the contacts of a magnetic controller could
cutout switch should be placed in the __________. indicate _____________.
A. manual position A. weak contact spring pressure
B. bus neutral position B. misalignment of the magnet faces
C. raise voltage position C. excessive line current
D. transfer position D. mechanical binding
Ans: A Ans: B
5383 When securing an AC generator, you should FIRST___________. 5384 The speed of a squirrel-cage motor is usually changed by
_____________.
A. open the generator circuit breaker A. varying the frequency to the machine
B. switch the voltage regulator to "manual" B. adding resistance in series with the stator windings
C. decrease the field excitation to minimum C. adding resistance in parallel with the stator windings
D. reduce the load on the unit D. changing the number of connected poles in the stator
 Page 299

Ans: D
5385 Which of the following actions must be carried out before a voltage
tester can be used to test the three line fuses to a three-phase
motor?
A. The fuses must be removed from the circuit.
B. The starter must be placed in the STOP position to stop the motor.
Ans: D
5386 The cycles per second developed by the alternator aboard your
vessel is determined by _____________.
A. the speed of the engine driving the alternator
B. the resistance applied to the field rheostat

C. The three line connections in the motor terminal box must be C. the synchronous speed of induction
disconnected and tagged.
D. Nothing need be done as long as the motor is running under a light D. the adjustments made to the voltage regulator
load.
Ans: B Ans: A
5387 The existing resistance of a conductor is dependent upon its length, 5388 The frequency of an AC generator is adjusted by means of the
cross-sectional area, _____________. ____________.
A. temperature and insulation A. main alternator field rheostat
B. material and insulation B. exciter field rheostat
C. resistive coefficient and material C. prime mover governor control
D. material and temperature D. equalizing reactor
Ans: D Ans: C
5389 In a simple DC circuit, the resistance is held constant while the 5390 When measuring AC current flow, you must always connect the
applied voltage is halved. Current flow, therefore, will meter _____________.
______________.
A. double A. in series with the power source and load
B. remain the same B. in parallel with the power source and load
C. be divided by two C. insuring correct polarity
D. be divided by four D. using the lowest range possible to prevent instrument damage

Ans: C Ans: A
5391 To conduct an in-circuit test of a transistor, you should use a/an 5392 The specific gravity of the electrolyte solution in a lead acid battery
____________. _____________.
A. voltmeter or transistor tester A. is not effected during charging
B. impedance meter B. remains the same during discharge
C. ohmmeter or transistor tester C. would read close to 1.830 when discharged
D. wattmeter D. gives an indication of the state of charge of the battery
Ans: A Ans: D
5393 Normally, the FIRST step in troubleshooting a transistor circuit card 5394 During discharge of a lead-acid storage battery, which of the
is to _____________. following actions occurs?
A. carefully remove the transistors from the card A. The acid becomes stronger.
B. give the circuit an initial test with a signal generator B. Both plates change chemically to ammonium chloride.
C. test for continuity with a low voltage DC supply C. The acid becomes weaker.
D. visually inspect the card D. Hydrogen gas is liberated.
Ans: D Ans: C
5395 If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become 5396 A bus disconnect link is used to isolate _____________.
short circuited, the coil _____________.
A. temperature will drop A. one bus bar from another
B. will probably burn out immediately B. the generator circuit breaker from the bus
C. will continue to operate C. different phases from the equalizer connection
D. will operate on reduced current D. positive and negative buses from the neutral
Ans: B Ans: B
5397 Which of the following operating characteristics for DC motors is 5398 If a magnetic controller contactor fails to pick up when the coil
considered to give high starting torque? voltage is applied to the contactor coil, the cause may be
_____________.
A. series A. overload
B. shunt B. misalignment of the affected contactor contacts
C. cumulative-compound C. low spring pressure
D. differential-compound D. an open contactor coil
Ans: A Ans: D
5399 Equal power factors on paralleled AC generators are maintained 5400 If a lower than normal resistance is applied to the shunt field of a
by an automatic _____________. DC compound motor, the motor speed will _____________.

A. voltage regulator A. decrease

B. reverse power relay B. increase
C. reverse current relay C. remain constant
D. governor control switch D. brake down to a stop
Ans: A Ans: A
5401 As load is added to a shunt motor, the motor will _________. 5402 Which of the processes listed occurs during the charging ofa lead-
acid storage battery?
A. speed up A. Negative plates change to lead peroxide.
B. continue to operate at the same speed B. Positive plates change to lead peroxide.
C. slow down slightly C. Both plates change to lead peroxide.
D. stop D. Both plates change to lead sulfate.
Ans: C Ans: B
5403 Which of the listed devices may be installed on a large diesel- 5404 The total power consumed in a parallel circuit is __________.
electric alternating current propulsion generator?
A. Temperature detector coils inserted in the stator slots for measuring A. the sum of the powers used in each load (resistor) divided by the
stator temperature. number of loads
 Page 300

B. A CO2 fire extinguishing system. B. always less than the power used in the smallest load
C. Electric space heaters to prevent condensation of moisture. C. the sum of the powers used in each individual load
D. All of the above. D. never more than the power used in the largest load
Ans: D Ans: C
5405 The arc resulting from the tripping of a circuit breaker is prevented 5406 When a lead-acid battery begins gassing freely while receiving a
from damaging the contacts by _____________. normal charge, the charging current should _____________.

A. designing the contacts to open slowly A. be increased

B. directing the arc into an arc chute B. remain unchanged
C. an inverse timed thermal trip for short circuit currents C. be decreased
D. instantaneous magnetic trip for overload currents D. shut off
Ans: B Ans: C
5407 When the voltage remains constant, and the resistance increases 5408 A DC ammeter is always connected ______________.
in a series circuit, current flow _____________.
A. decreases A. in series with a circuit
B. remains the same B. in parallel with a circuit
C. increases C. with internal shunts only
D. increases by the square D. without regard to polarity
Ans: A Ans: A
5409 An operational amplifier, as used in today's consoles, may have a 5410 Under which of the following conditions will a lead-acid battery be
calculated gain of 5. This means that as the input changes by given a "test discharge"?
______________.
A. 1 volt, the output changes 5 volts A. To determine its capacity.
B. 5 volts, the output changes 1 volt B. Whenever a cell cannot be brought within 10 points of full charge
specific gravity.
C. 5 volts, the output changes 10 volts C. When one or more cells is found to have less than normal voltage
after an equalizing charge.
D. 10 volts, the output changes 5 volts D. All of the above.
Ans: A Ans: D
5411 Nickel-cadmium batteries are superior to lead-acid batteries at high 5412 When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in
discharge rates because they _______________. the mid-position, the circuit breaker is indicated as being
____________.
A. deliver a large amount of power and can be recharged in a shorter A. in the "closed" position
time
B. need fewer cells in connected series and less mounting space B. in the "opened" position

C. have higher output voltages and require no maintenance C. tripped

D. all of the above D. reset
Ans: A Ans: C
5413 Which of the following represents a characteristic of an ungrounded 5414 What is the approximate voltage per cell produced by the nickel-iron
electrical distribution system? (Edison) battery?
A. Accidental contact between one line and ground does not cause A. 0.85 volts
an outage.
B. Double ground faults on different phases will not cause an outage. B. 1.35 volts

C. Ground detection systems are unnecessary. C. 2.20 volts

D. Accidental contact between one line and ground will always cause D. 6.05 volts
an outage.
Ans: A Ans: B
5415 Part of the insulation of practically all electrical machinery is in the 5416 When the current in a power transmission line is increased, the
form of organic compounds which containsome amount of power loss _____________.
______________.
A. asbestos A. increases as the square of the current
B. water B. decreases as the square root of the current
C. fibre C. remains the same, as it is independent of current flow
D. plastic D. increases in direct proportion as the current
Ans: B Ans: A
5417 The standard method of controlling the output voltage of a 440 volt, 5418 The air gap provided in induction motors should be checked
60 Hz, AC generator is accomplished by adjusting the periodically with a feeler gage to detect an unequal air gap and
____________. _____________.
A. prime mover speed droop A. decreased motor magnetizing current
B. number of poles B. hysteresis loses
C. alternator field excitation C. increased power factor
D. load on the alternator D. mechanical damage to the rotor
Ans: C Ans: D
5419 An accidental path of low resistance which passes an abnormal 5420 A milliammeter, with a full scale deflection reading of 100 milliamps,
amount of current is known as a/an _____________. is known to have an accuracy of + or - 2%. A meter reading of 10
milliamps would indicate a line current of between _____________.

A. polarized ground A. 8.0 and 10.0 milliamperes

B. short circuit B. 8.0 and 12.0 milliamperes
C. ground reference point C. 9.8 and 10.0 milliamperes
D. open circuit D. 9.8 and 10.2 milliamperes
Ans: B Ans: B
5421 An instantaneous-trip-type fuse will _____________. 5422 Basic electrical motor action depends on _______________.
A. open as soon as the load current exceeds its set point A. a conductor rotated within a magnetic field
 Page 301

B. allow a preset delay between overcurrent and melting B. a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
C. open a circuit by using a time delay element with a magnetic trip C. the relative force of the commutator and commutating poles

D. reset itself when the overcurrent is corrected D. the relative force of the armature and interpoles
Ans: A Ans: B
5423 Upon failure of the normal power supply, the emergency generator 5424 Routine maintenance of a ship's service alternator should include
is placed on the line by the _____________. ______________.
A. main bus tie feeder A. changing the pedestal bearing insulation yearly
B. automatic bus transfer device B. megger testing of all rectifying diodes
C. line connection feeder C. lubricating excitation slip rings
D. power failure alarm bus D. periodic cleaning of the air filters or screens
Ans: B Ans: D
5425 The speed of a multi-speed, squirrel-cage, induction motor 5426 In the construction of D.C. motors, parts of both theseries and shunt
operating in a fixed frequency system can be changed by fields are wound on the _____________.
_____________.
A. reconnecting stator windings for different numbers of poles A. opposite main pole
B. changing the RPM of the rotor flux B. rotor core
C. changing the phase sequence of the applied voltage C. interpole
D. reconnecting the stator so that no poles have the same polarity D. same main pole

Ans: A Ans: D
5427 Inductance is the property of an electric circuit that 5428 An important factor in reducing D.C. motor commutator wear is
_____________. _______________.
A. opposes any change in the applied voltage A. keeping the ambient humidity as low as possible
B. opposes any change in the current flow through the circuit B. ensuring a very low brush current density
C. aids any changes in the applied voltage C. establishing the copper oxide surface film
D. aids any changes in the current through the circuit D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: C
5429 Capacitance is the property of an electric circuit opposinga change 5430 A megohmmeter is connected to each end of an individual motor
in the _____________. winding. A low ohm reading indicates ____________.
A. current in the circuit A. an open coil
B. voltage in the circuit B. a loose coil
C. inductance in the circuit C. good continuity
D. resistance in the circuit D. a dirty coil
Ans: B Ans: C
5431 At high discharge rates, nickel-cadmium storage batteries are 5432 A megohmmeter can be used to test for _____________.
superior to lead-acid batteries because they __________.
A. require fewer cells for the same voltage and less mounting space A. an open field coil

B. are able to produce higher voltages and do not have to be charged B. a shorted field pole
as often
C. can be charged and discharged many times without much damage C. undercut mica

D. have no individual cells to replace at the end of useful life D. reversed polarity
Ans: C Ans: A
5433 In an AC circuit, the inductive reactance of a coil varies with the 5434 Complete maintenance of electrical motors should include periodic
_______________. checks for machine _____________.
A. resistance of the circuit A. vibration
B. frequency of the circuit B. watertight integrity
C. voltage of the circuit C. speed droop
D. current of the circuit D. reactive power
Ans: B Ans: A
5435 Sparking of D.C. motor brushes can be caused by __________. 5436 A hydrometer is used to measure the ____________.

A. an open commutating winding A. specific gravity of a battery electrolyte

B. many mechanical, electrical or operating faults B. water pressure in a deck pipeline
C. an open interpole C. amount of potable water a vessel is taking on
D. all of the above D. power developed by a salt water service pump
Ans: B Ans: A
5437 Electrical insulation is classed by the _____________. 5438 In D.C. motor construction, commutating windings are wound on
_________________.
A. International Association of Electrical Manufacturers A. opposite main poles
B. approximate operating voltage and current expected B. interpoles
C. IEEE C. adjacent main poles
D. temperature stability of the manufacturing material(s) D. the rotor core
Ans: D Ans: B
5439 Electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor. The 5440 If the pointer on a megger fails to return to "zero" when not being
rate of this flow is measured as ___________. used, the _____________.

A. volts/watt A. megger is out of calibration

B. amperes/centimetre B. megger is operating normally
C. coulombs/second C. hairsprings are burned out
D. ohms/volt D. pointer probably stuck in that position
Ans: C Ans: B
5441 Voltage will always lead current in a/an ______________. 5442 The need for insulation cleaning may be determined by _____.
 Page 302

A. capacitive circuit A. visual inspection for dirt accumulation

B. inductive circuit B. high megger readings
C. magnetic circuit C. low operating temperature
D. resistive circuit D. the time period since the last cleaning
Ans: B Ans: A
5443 When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being 5444 Four lamps are connected in parallel in a single circuit. If one of the
faulty, first check operating voltages, clean the card and then lamp burns out, the others will _____________.
_________________.
A. make sure wired connections and push-on connectors are tight A. all go out

B. test each resistor and capacitor on the card with an ohmmeter B. become dimmer

C. check the continuity of all printed circuit traces with an ohmmeter C. burn with their original intensities

D. measure the gain of each transistor or integrated circuit D. become brighter

Ans: A Ans: C
5445 Discharge switches are often located on hand-driven meggers. The 5446 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the
purpose of these switches is to discharge capacitive charges stored synchroscope pointer stops at a position other than 0‚ prior to
in the _____________. closing the circuit breaker. This indicates ___________.
A. megger hand generator A. the frequency of the incoming machine is the same as the bus
frequency
B. megger movement coils B. the incoming machine is in phase with the bus, but the frequency is
not the same
C. tested equipment while conducting test C. the circuit breaker may be closed after breaker has been reset

D. tested equipment after testing D. there is an existing cross current between generators
Ans: D Ans: A
5447 A megohmmeter can be used to test for ____________. 5448 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the
synchroscope pointer is revolving slowly in the fast direction. You
should _____________.
A. an open field coil A. use the governor control switch to adjust the incoming voltage so it
is equal to the bus voltage
B. synchronous speed B. use the governor control switch to increase the speed of the
machine on the line only
C. undercut mica C. close the circuit breaker when the synchroscope pointer
approaches the 0° position
D. reversed polarity D. use the field rheostat to adjust the speed of the incoming machine

Ans: A Ans: C
5449 When changing fuses and the spring clips are found to have lost 5450 Which of the substances listed should be applied to battery
their grip, they should be replaced or _____________. terminals to help prevent corrosion?
A. tightened firmly with insulated pliers A. Zinc chromate
B. clip clamps should be used B. Naval jelly
C. wired closed with uninsulated, varnished copper wire C. Lead peroxide
D. carefully bent back to their original shapes D. Petroleum jelly
Ans: B Ans: D
5451 The direction of rotation of a DC propulsion motor can be reversed 5452 Motor controllers are seldom troubled by grounds because
by __________. ________________.
A. reversing the field connections A. cabinet heaters always keep internal components dry
B. reversing the field and the armature connections B. special insulation is used on wire for vital circuits
C. wiring the field and armature in parallel C. shock mounts on controller panels greatly reduce vibration
D. wiring the field and armature in series D. contactors and relays are mounted on nonconducting panels
Ans: A Ans: D
5453 When the voltage and the current developed in an AC circuit reach 5454 Which of the instruments listed is used to check insulation
their peak values at the same time, the power factor is considered resistance?
to be _____________.
A. lagging A. Magneto
B. leading B. Megohmmeter
C. unity C. Dynamometer
D. infinity D. Rheostat
Ans: C Ans: B
5455 The direction of propeller shaft rotation in a turbo-electric 5456 When voltage and current developed in an AC circuit reach their
synchronous propulsion drive motor is changed by reversing the peak values at the same time, the power factor is _____________.
_____________.
A. polarity of the propulsion motor A. lagging
B. polarity of the propulsion generator B. leading
C. phase sequence of power to the motor C. maximum
D. phase sequence of power to the generator D. minimum
Ans: C Ans: C
5457 Compressed air should not be used to clean motor controller 5458 Which of the following problems is indicated if a lead-acid battery
equipment because ________________. begins to gas violently when it is first placed on charge?

A. it may force metallic particles into coil insulation A. Insufficient compartment ventilation is being provided.
B. the surrounding area may need additional cleaning B. A short circuit exists in one of the battery cells.
C. the air blast dries out insulation quickly C. The battery is undergoing its normal charging rate.
D. a mask and respirator would be required D. An excessive charging rate is being applied to the battery.
 Page 303

Ans: A Ans: D
5459 Temporary repairs to an open DC propulsion armature coil can be 5460 When shore power is being connected to a ship in dry dock,
made by _____________. _____________.
A. connecting the coil ends directly to a pair of negative brushes A. the ship's generators are paralleled with the shore power to provide
continuous power
B. disconnecting coil ends, insulating each, and short circuiting the B. proper phase sequence must be established
two commutator bars
C. grounding the coil ends and short circuiting the commutator bar C. exactly 450 volts must be supplied from the shore

D. removing the sparking brushes D. exactly 60 Hz must be provided by the terminal

Ans: B Ans: B
5461 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the 5462 The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized
synchroscope pointer stops at a position other than 0‚. If you close unless _____________.
the circuit breaker at this moment _____________.
A. the incoming machine will accept all of the load A. the power flow is the same as the tripping direction
B. the incoming machine will trip out on low voltage release B. the power flow is the opposite to the tripping direction
C. a hazardous condition will be created by the cross current between C. the movement of the disk is damped by a permanent magnet
the machines
D. a hazardous condition will be created by the incoming machine D. one generator is motorized
being at a higher frequency than the bus
Ans: C Ans: A
5463 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the 5464 A "dielectric" is a/an ________________.
synchroscope pointer is revolving fast in the clockwise direction.
This indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is
_____________.
A. higher than the bus frequency A. electrical insulator
B. lower than the bus frequency B. current flow
C. the same as the bus frequency and the circuit breaker may be C. good conductor
closed at any pointer position
D. the same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it D. semiconductor material
Ans: A Ans: A
5465 A galvanometer is an instrument used to measure ___________. 5466 Using a fuse whose rating is higher than necessary ________.

A. thickness of galvanized metal A. endangers the apparatus it is supposed to protect

B. resistance of electrical wiring insulation B. reduces the possibility of short circuits
C. very small amounts of current or voltage C. increases the efficiency of the equipment by allowing more current
to be used
D. quantity of galvans in an electric circuit D. wastes money because they are more expensive
Ans: C Ans: A
5467 A device which can be used to check the calibration of a circuit 5468 Propulsion DC motor brush pressures can be calculated by
breaker is a _________________. _____________.
A. 500 volt megohmmeter A. dividing the brush contact area by the spring pressure
B. portable low voltage high current testing unit B. subtracting the brush contact area from the spring pressure
C. standard digital multimeter C. dividing the spring force by the brush contact area
D. clamp-on voltmeter D. subtracting the spring pressure from the brush contact area
Ans: B Ans: C
5469 The operating torque of the upper induction disc-type element, or 5470 Which of the following statements represents the action of a
timer element, of an AC reverse power relay is obtained from megohmmeter when testing a small capacitor in good condition?
____________.
A. the main bus A. The meter pointer should immediately swing to the maximum
resistance value for the capacitor.
B. a separate battery source B. The meter pointer should first swing quickly to zero and then
gradually move up the scale as the capacitor charges.
C. line voltage C. The meter pointer should immediately swing to infinity and then
drop in sharp jerks as the voltage increases.
D. electromagnets D. The meter pointer should immediately swing to a high reading and
gradually decrease.
Ans: D Ans: B
5471 Which of the listed transformer uses a single winding to produce 5472 A capacitor is to be tested with a megohmmeter. If the meter is
voltage transformation? connected to a shorted capacitor, the meter pointer should
_____________.
A. Stepup transformers immediately swing to the maximum resistance value
A.
B. Stepdown transformers deflect to zero and remain at that position
B.
C. Autotransformers swing to a high reading and gradually decrease
C.
D. Isolation transformers swing to zero then gradually increase with slight pointer movements
D.
down scale
Ans: C Ans: B
5473 The hook-on AC volt-ammeter consists essentially of a split-core 5474 Which type of flux should be used when soldering electrical wire
and a rectifier-type instrument connected to the secondary winding connections and electronic components?
of a _____________.
A. potential transformer A. Silver flux
B. control transformer B. Rosin flux
C. current transformer C. Solid flux
D. reactance transformer D. Acid flux
Ans: C Ans: B
 Page 304

5475 An internal resistance is placed in series with the meter movement 5476 When paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps,
of which of the following instruments? the flickering of all three lamps becomes progressively slower and
slower. This means the ______________.
A. AC ammeter A. frequency of the incoming generator is approaching that of the bus

B. DC ammeter B. frequency of the incoming alternator is less than that of the bus

C. DC voltmeter C. phase rotation of the incoming alternators is opposite to that of the

bus
D. Frequency meter D. terminal voltage of the incoming alternator is approaching that of the
bus
Ans: C Ans: A
5477 AC voltmeters are generally calibrated to read the ________. 5478 When paralleling two AC generators, the synchroscope selector
switch and frequency meter switch should be set upto sense the
frequency of the _____________.
A. instantaneous voltage A. bus
B. average voltage B. generator on the line
C. RMS voltage C. oncoming generator
D. peak voltage D. bus transfer relay
Ans: C Ans: C
5479 If a small electric motor has been submerged in saltwater for a 5480 How will a molded-case circuit breaker react after it has tripped, as
short period of time, you should _____________. a result of an overloaded circuit?
A. send it ashore for rewinding A. The breaker will trip again if immediately reset.
B. rinse it with warm freshwater and bake it dry in an oven B. The breaker handle will lock in the OFF position.
C. soak it in a bucket of commercial solvent and bake with internal C. The breaker handle will lock in the tripped position until the thermal
heat element cools down.
D. clean it with carbon tetrachloride and blow it out with compressed D. The breaker handle cannot be moved to the OFF position until the
air thermal element cools down.
Ans: B Ans: A
5481 When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it 5482 One of the generator or motor bearings is generally insulated from
should be replaced immediately, or the resultant flashing may the end housing in order to prevent ________.
_____________.
A. blow the lamp's circuit breaker A. rapid brush wear
B. explode, causing glass to fly in all directions B. current leakage from the shaft
C. short circuit the ballast transformer C. excessive field winding heat
D. damage the starter and the ballast D. circulation of shaft currents induced in the machine's frame
Ans: D Ans: D
5483 Electrostatic forces in high voltage circuits cause indicating 5484 If a circuit breaker that utilizes built-in, current limiting fuses (CLF's)
instruments to give ____________. cannot be closed, the problem may be traced to __________.

A. parallax readings A. a blown CLF plunger holding the trip bar in the open position
B. highly intuitive readings B. a missing CLF
C. highly accurate readings C. a misaligned limiter housing assembly
D. inaccurate readings D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
5485 Which of the following procedures should be used to maintain a 5486 In replacing a defective transformer with a new one, which of the
large electric motor during periods of inactivity? following actions must be carried out to insure proper operation of
the equipment it serves?
A. A thin layer of air-drying varnish should be applied on the windings. A. The secondary leads must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove
static charges.
B. Compressed air should be blown over areas where dust is B. The transformer connections must be made as before with regard
deposited. to the indicated polarity.
C. Spraying a solvent periodically to remove carbon dust. C. The iron core of the transformer must be flashed to pre-magnetize
it.
D. Space heaters should be used to prevent condensation of D. The iron core must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove any
moisture. residual magnetism.
Ans: D Ans: B
5487 The speed of a synchronous motor is varied by _____________. 5488 When working on electrical circuits containing large capacitors, in
addition to de-energizing the circuit, which of the listed precautions
should also be taken?
A. interchanging any two of the three live leads A. Keep all radio equipment away.
B. changing the voltage of the system B. Measure capacitor insulation resistance.
C. changing the input frequency C. Ground the capacitor terminals.
D. increasing the field excitation D. Check capacitor circuit polarity.
Ans: C Ans: C
5489 Seating the brushes on a D.C. motor is first accomplished using 5490 The basic type of D.C. motor speed control where a generator
________________. armature directly feeds the motor armature and the motor and
generator fields are excited by a separate D.C. source is called
___________________.
A. a file for cutting the approximate curvature followed by sandpaper A. Burmeister-Wain
for the final fit
B. sandpaper with the motor not operating and then a seating stone B. Ward-Leonard
while running the machine
C. emery paper for the initial cut and crocus cloth for the finishing cut C. Sperry-Rand
 Page 305

D. course lapping compound, followed by a medium and then a fine D. Atlas-Copco

grade
Ans: B Ans: B
5491 Which of the following problems will most likely occur if the starting 5492 When insulation failure produces a low resistance current path
winding of a split-phase induction motor failed to cutout once the between two conductors, the resulting condition is known as
motor was in continuous operation? ____________.
A. The motor will overspeed. A. an open
B. The motor will run at a reduced speed. B. a short circuit
C. A time delay will stop the motor. C. a ground
D. The winding will burn out. D. a surge
Ans: D Ans: B
5493 A single-phase induction motor fails to start. The rotor is spun 5494 When disassembling motors for maintenance or overhaul,
rapidly with the line switch closed. Having started by this method it ________________.
is noted that the motor fluctuates between a very slow speed and
half speed. The problem probably lies in the _________.

A. starting winding A. punch mark frame and end bells for proper assembly
B. centrifugal mechanism B. wrap bearings in lint free cloths if they are to be reused
C. centrifugal switch C. tag and store small parts in a box
D. running winding D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
5495 The true power indicated by a wattmeter depends on the current 5496 When paralleling two AC generators, the frequency of the machine
flow through the load, the magnitude of the potential across the coming on-line, immediately prior to closing its breaker, should be
load, and the _____________. ____________.
A. power factor of the load A. slightly less than the oncoming generator frequency
B. angle of coil displacement B. the same as the bus frequency
C. inertia of the movable coil C. slightly greater than the bus frequency
D. high resistance from the load D. the same as the bus voltage
Ans: A Ans: C
5497 A multimeter can be used to directly measure _____________. 5498 The kilowatt load can be adjusted on a paralleled generator by
using the _____________.
A. watts A. field rheostat
B. field flux B. governor control
C. current C. automatic voltage regulators
D. all of the above D. hand tachometer
Ans: C Ans: B
5499 A volt-ohm-millimeter can be used to check for ____________. 5500 When paralleling two AC generators, the frequency (cycles) of the
incoming generator, just prior to closing the circuit breaker, should
be _____________.
A. continuity A. slightly less than the frequency of the generator on the line
B. grounds B. the same as the frequency of the generator on the line
C. voltage C. slightly more than the frequency of the generator on the line
D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: C
5501 When paralleled, AC generators must have the same _________. 5502 Discoloration of the rotor bars in a squirrel-cage motor is typical
evidence of _____________.
A. frequency A. moisture
B. number of phases B. overheating
C. phase rotation C. vibration
D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: B
5503 A voltmeter located on a control panel has been operating correctly 5504 Which of the following should be the FIRST step in removing a
for six months, suddenly burns out. After removing it, it is found generator from parallel operation?
that neither side of the meter has been grounded. When installing
the new meter it should be __________.

A. grounded to the negative side A. Trip the generator off the switchboard.
B. connected to a large resistor between the positive side and the B. Turn off all electrical equipment.
ground
C. installed exactly as the old installation C. Remove the load from the "off going" generator.
D. grounded to the positive side D. Increase the cycles of the generator staying on the line.
Ans: C Ans: C
5505 If a synchronous motor begins to vibrate severely and pull out of 5506 Accidental grounds in a shipboard electrical system must be
synchronism, the cause may be ____________. repaired as soon as possible as they will ____________.
A. an overload A. result in immediate power outages
B. an open in the field coils B. damage circuit breakers
C. no exciter voltage C. appear on the ground detection system
D. all of the above D. damage insulation and may cause outages
Ans: D Ans: D
5507 A device used in an electrical circuit to change alternating current to 5508 Two AC generators of the same capacity are operating in parallel.
direct current, is known as a _____________. One with a zero speed droop setting and the other with a 5% speed
droop. If its capacity is not exceeded, the unit whose governor has
the zero speed droop setting will _____________.

A. current transformer A. assume the smaller share of the load

B. rectifier B. maintain the frequency of the system
 Page 306

C. condenser C. have poor sensitivity characteristics

D. shunt D. have poor power response
Ans: B Ans: B
5509 An alternator is being paralleled with one on the line. At the 5510 If a three-phase induction motor is operated under a light load and
INSTANT the circuit breaker is closed, the frequency of the it develops an open in one of its supply lines, the motor will
incoming alternator will normally _____________. _____________.
A. increase A. continue to run, but will vibrate and have reduced torque
B. not change B. speed up due to the reduced number of poles
C. decrease C. run cooler due to reduced current flow
D. be exactly 60 hertz D. stop
Ans: C Ans: A
5511 Battery capacities are given in _____________. 5512 When a low input voltage is imparted to a device which then
delivers a high output voltage, the device is known as a
_____________.
A. volts A. primary transformer
B. volt-amperes B. secondary transformer
C. volt-hours C. stepdown transformer
D. ampere-hours D. stepup transformer
Ans: D Ans: D
5513 The twisting force developed by a motor and applied to a shaft is 5514 If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in
called _____________. parallel, that alternator will _____________.
A. magnetism A. supply excessive current to the bus
B. electromotive force B. operate at the same load, but with reduced voltage
C. torque C. lose its load and tend to overspeed
D. voltage D. become overloaded and slow down
Ans: C Ans: C
5515 The unit of electrical power is the _____________. 5516 If the energy input is significantly reduced to the prime mover of one
shipboard alternator operating in parallel with others, that alternator
will _____________.
A. ampere A. continue to operate at no load
B. kilovolt B. lose its load and overspeed
C. watt C. begin to motorize and then trip out
D. farad D. slow down and operate at reduced load
Ans: C Ans: C
5517 Some large A.C. motors are equipped with with heaters. 5518 The unit of electrical resistance is the _____________.
Thesecould be ___________. I. resistance heaters bolted directly
to the frame II. low voltage windings embedded in the motor
windings
A. I only A. ampere
B. II only B. volt
C. either I or II C. watt
D. neither I or II D. ohm
Ans: C Ans: D
5519 A current-carrying conductor making electrical contact with a wiring 5520 Maintenance of alkaline batteries should include _________.
conduit will be indicated by a _____________.
A. high switchboard wattmeter reading A. checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer
B. totally dark switchboard ground detecting light B. replacing the electrolyte every 5 years
C. low switchboard wattmeter reading C. trickle charging
D. all of the above D. replacment when the volts per cell drops below 1.8 VDC
Ans: B Ans: C
5521 If air gap readings for an electical generating machine have 5522 In the event of a power failure during cargo loading operations, the
changed significantly from the last reading, you should check movement of an electric powered cargo winchwill be stopped by
_________. ____________.
A. the bearings A. a manual override switch
B. insulation readings and machine cleanliness B. the weight of the load on the boom
C. the prime mover thrust bearing C. a spring set brake
D. the field coil bolts for the proper torque values D. a hand operated band brake
Ans: A Ans: C
5523 A circuit that has one of two wires in contact with the hull of a ship, 5524 Attempting to parallel an AC generator which is out of phase with
is called a _____________. the bus will result in which of the following problems?
A. grounded circuit A. The breaker should trip.
B. short circuit B. The KVA will decrease.
C. series circuit C. The synchronizing lamps will burn out.
D. closed circuit D. The power factor will be unitized.
Ans: A Ans: A
5525 Which of the following statements is true concerning transformer 5526 To remove an alternator operating in parallel with another unit from
operation? the main electrical bus, you must FIRST _________.
A. The inductance on the primary side is the same as the inductance A. adjust the power factor on both units
on the secondary side.
B. The voltage to the primary side is the same as the voltage from the B. set the desired voltage on the outgoing alternator
secondary side.
C. The current to the primary side is the same as the current from the C. open the circuit breaker on the outgoing alternator
secondary side.
D. The power to the primary side is greater than the power from the D. remove the load from the outgoing alternator
secondary side.
Ans: D Ans: D
 Page 307

5527 Maintenance of alkaline batteries should include _________. 5528 One item listed on the name plate of a cargo pump motor is
"degrees centigrade rise." This number is based on
_____________.
A. checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer A. normal temperature change from cold to hot
B. replacing the electrolyte every 5 years B. an ambient temperature of 40°C
C. top off with sulfuric acid as needed C. minimum heat rise from no load to full load
D. making certain connections are tight and clean D. maximum degrees centigrade rise from absolute zero
Ans: D Ans: B
5529 If your multimeter gives a reading in ohms when testing each end of 5530 What is the rotor speed of a four pole, 60 cycle, induction motor
each conductor of a three-conductor cable, this indicates operating at full load with 3% slip?
______________.
A. continuity of the conductor A. 270 RPM
B. an infinite resistance B. 540 RPM
C. the presence of a partial ground C. 873 RPM
D. that the conductor is not short circuited D. 1746 RPM
Ans: A Ans: D
5531 Which of the methods listed is used to start a AC generator 5532 When a megohmmeter is being used on a alternating current
turning? machine, the meter pointer will dip toward "zero" and then gradually
rise to the true resistance value if the motor insulation is
_____________.
A. Residual magnetism remaining in the field poles. A. grounded
B. Residual magnetism remaining in the field coils. B. good
C. Residual magnetism remaining in the armature. C. shorted
D. Rotation by a mechanical prime mover. D. dirty
Ans: D Ans: B
5533 The most effective method of locating a loose commutator bar in a 5534 An open armature connection in a DC propulsion motor could be
D.C. motor is by _____________. caused by ____________.
A. visual inspection A. low-load operation
B. jiggling each by hand B. clogged ventilation ducts
C. sounding each bar with a light weight hammer C. sparking at the brushes
D. checking with a calibrated torque wrench D. a grounded shunt field coil
Ans: C Ans: B
5535 An equalizing connection between two compound-wound DC 5536 If a D.C. motor hums, but does not run when energized, which of
generators when paralleled, serves to _____________. the listed conditions could exist?
A. reverse the polarity of the incoming generator as the series field A. Incorrect lead connections
weakens
B. automatically equalize the power factors B. Incorrect brush setting
C. reverse the direction of current in the series field of the incoming C. A dirty commutator
generator
D. parallel the series fields of the generators D. All of the above are correct.
Ans: D Ans: D
5537 Which of the following represents the corrected specific gravity of a 5538 A shorted armature coil in a DC motor can be detected by
lead acid battery, with a temperature of 90‚F,and a hydrometer _____________.
reading of 1160?
A. 1150 A. sparking at the brushes
B. 1156 B. shiny armature coil
C. 1160 C. worn grooves in the armature
D. 1164 D. undercut mica
Ans: D Ans: A
5539 A short in the shunt field of a DC motor is best located by 5540 In a three-wire, 230/115 volt DC system, the potential between
_____________. neutral and negative is _____________.
A. visual inspection of the commutator A. 0 volts
B. applying AC voltage to each field coil and measuring the voltage B. 115 volts
drop across each field coil
C. using a growler and hacksaw blade C. 230 volts
D. isolating each coil from the others and using a megohmmeter D. 460 volts
Ans: B Ans: B
5541 Sparking at the brushes of a running motor could be an indication 5542 Electrical failures in motors are caused by the breakdown of
of _____________. insulation, which may be caused by _____________.
A. normal operation A. penetration of moisture
B. a dirty commutator B. accumulation of dirt
C. increased brush capacity C. overheating
D. water vapor absorption D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
5543 A four-pole 60-hertz induction motor has a synchronous speed of 5544 The speed of a squirrel-cage, multi-speed, induction motor, as used
1800 RPM and a slip of 4 percent at full load. What will be its full aboard ship, is varied by changing the __________.
load speed?
A. 1728.0 RPM A. number of connected poles in the stator
B. 1730.7 RPM B. frequency to the motor
C. 1800.0 RPM C. excitation voltage
D. 1872.0 RPM D. resistance of the rotor circuit
Ans: A Ans: A
5545 What is the main function in the use of a capacitor forstarting a 5546 The most practical method of controlling the RPM of a step-speed
single phase motor? AC motor is to _____________.
A. Reduce radio interference A. change input voltage
B. Split the phase to establish a rotating magnetic field B. vary the number of poles
 Page 308

C. Reduce the phase angle C. vary power factor

D. Prolong the life of the starting contacts D. change the number of brushes
Ans: B Ans: B
5547 Which of the following is a characteristic of fractional horsepower 5548 A vessel is equipped with two ship's service generators. Generator
repulsion start motors? #1 is rated at 900 kw and generator #2 is rated at 600 kw. During
parallel operation, with a load of 1,000 kw, what should be the kw
load on generator #2?
A. They start with a rotating stator field. A. 100 kw
B. The short circuiting ring is removed from the commutator while B. 400 kw
starting.
C. The brushes are removed from the commutator while starting. C. 500 kw

D. They have a low starting torque. D. 600 kw

Ans: B Ans: B
5549 Which statement is true concerning a split-phase inductionmotor? 5550 Which of the following statements, concerning the general
maintenance of a brushless generator, is correct?
A. Motor rotation can be reversed without changing the windings or A. Paint should be applied to insulating surfaces on an annual basis.
leads.
B. Motor speed can be readily adjusted from zero to full speed. B. Alcohol should be used to remove dust and grime from windings.

C. The motor will run as a generator with the proper wiring. C. High pressure air should be used to blow out carbon dust.
D. Motor rotation can be reversed by reversing the leads on the D. Accessible generator parts should be wiped with a clean dry rag on
starting winding. a periodic basis.
Ans: D Ans: D
5551 A lead-acid battery can deliver 20 amperes continuously for 10 5552 An advantage of DC motors over AC motors is that they
hours with an ampere-hour rating of ____________. _____________.
A. 20 A. are less expensive
B. 40 B. require less maintenance
C. 200 C. offer infinite speed variation
D. 400 D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: C
5553 An increase in the amount of current flow through the armature of 5554 The torque produced by a DC motor armature is the productof the
a shunt motor is the final result of a/an _____________. force acting at the armature surface multiplied by _____________.

A. increase in the load on the motor A. work done by the armature in one revolution
B. decrease in the load on the motor B. effective armature diameter at which the force acts
C. increase in counter EMF C. maximum moment arm at the center of rotation of the armature

D. decrease in armature torque D. perpendicular distance to its center of rotation

Ans: A Ans: D
5555 A four pole, 60 Hz, three-phase synchronous motor comes up to 5556 In preparing to take insulation resistance readings on a main
1760 RPM when started as an induction motor. What is the percent generator, the windings should be grounded for about 15 minutes
slip after the rotor field is energized? prior to the test to _____________.
A. 0 A. allow accurate zeroing of the meter
B. 1.1 B. help the windings to cool to ambient temperature
C. 2.2 C. release any residual capacitive charge from the windings
D. 3.3 D. help the windings to cool to the same temperature as the ground
test connection
Ans: A Ans: C
5557 Chattering of the collector ring brushes on a generator may be 5558 When the current flow in a power transmission line is halved, the
remedied by _____________. power loss _____________.
A. lubricating brush holders A. is halved
B. reinsulating the brushes B. is doubled
C. cleaning the collector rings C. is divided by four
D. increasing length of pigtail D. remains the same
Ans: C Ans: C
5559 If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel is decreased 5560 Motorization of an alternator is undesirable because
below normal, its _____________. _____________.
A. power factor will change in the lagging direction A. the alternator will be damaged
B. power factor will change in the leading direction B. it puts an additional load on the bus
C. ampere load will be greatly increased C. high voltage pulses are induced in the bus
D. kilowatt load will be greatly decreased D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: B
5561 Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation 5562 An alternator switchboard has a synchroscope and synchronizing
of two alternators in parallel? lamps. If the synchroscope is broken, which of the steps listed is the
most essential before an alternator can be paralleled with the bus?

A. The cycles per second of each alternator are the same.
B. Both alternator governors must be set with the same amount of
speed droop.
C. The number of field poles must be the same on each alternator.
D. The load must always be divided equally between alternators.
Ans: A
A. The breaker should be closed when one synchronizing lamp is dark
and the other is bright.
B. The breaker should be closed when both synchronizing lamps are
bright.
C. The frequency meter should be used to determine that the incoming
alternator frequency is slightly higher than the bus.
D. A portable phase sequence indicator must be used to verify the
information from the lamps.
Ans: C
 Page 309

5563 Sparking at the brushes of a DC propulsion motor can be the result 5564 When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt field coil is
of ____________. grounded in a DC machine, you must ____________.
A. improper brush pressure A. insulate the field frame from the ship's hull
B. improper brush seating B. disconnect each shunt field coil before testing
C. reversed interpole polarity C. use a motor driven high capacity megohmmeter
D. all of the above D. remove all main line lead connections before testing
Ans: D Ans: B
5565 The main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large 5566 In a 60 Hz AC system, the current will pass through one complete
AC generator is to _____________. cycle in _____________.
A. keep the lube oil warm for quick starting A. 60 seconds
B. prevent moisture from condensing in the windings when the B. 6 seconds
machine is shutdown
C. prevent the windings from becoming brittle C. 1 second
D. prevent acidic pitting of the slip rings D. .016 of a second
Ans: B Ans: D
5567 The most common type of AC service generator found aboard ship 5568 The load sharing characteristics of two diesel alternators operating
is the stationary _____________. in parallel are directly related to the setting of their governors'
____________.
A. electromagnetic field, revolving armature type A. load limit
B. electromagnetic field, oscillatory armature type B. idle speed
C. armature, oscillatory electromagnet field type C. speed limit
D. armature, rotating electromagnetic field type D. speed droop
Ans: D Ans: D
5569 Regulations state that a continuous trickle charge, supplied from 5570 Regulations require manual contactors for operating the general
the ship's service power system, is required for batteries supplying emergency alarm on tank vessels tobe located in the navigating
power to the ___________. bridge, engine room and the____________.
A. emergency diesel starting system A. deck officers' quarters furthest from the engine room
B. emergency power system for the radar B. galley / dining room areas
C. portable radios for the lifeboats C. crew accommodations and sleeping spaces
D. radios installed in the lifeboats D. engineering officers' quarters furthest from the bridge
Ans: A Ans: A
5571 The shipboard general alarm system must receive its main source 5572 All electric cables passing through watertight bulkheads must be
of power from _____________. _____________.
A. a storage battery A. installed with watertight stuffing tubes
B. the emergency generator B. grounded on both sides of the bulkhead
C. an auxiliary generator C. fitted with unions on each side of the bulkhead
D. the ship's service generator D. welded on both sides of the bulkhead
Ans: A Ans: A
5573 When maintenance personnel are working on electrical equipment, 5574 When changing fuses, you should always _____________.
all supply switches should be secured in the open position and
tagged specifically by the _____________.
A. watch engineer A. wear rubber boots
B. chief engineer or first assistant B. use a fuse puller
C. chief electrician C. stand on a rubber mat
D. person performing the repair D. wear safety glasses
Ans: D Ans: B
5575 Wire in general, when used aboard vessels must meet minimum 5576 Which of the following is/are true concerning electric power
requirements. Which of the following statements is/are correct? operated watertight door systems?

A. Each wire must be 14 AWG or larger, regardless of locations and
use.
B. Wire must be stranded.
C. The only wire that does not have to be in a suitable enclosure or
cover is the ground wire used with portable tools and lights.
A. Each motor driven door must use the main bus as its source of
power.
B. Each distribution panel for the system must be on the lowest level
where berthing quarters are located.
C. Distribution panels must not be provided with a means of locking in
order to permit quick activation of the system.

D. All of the above. D. Each system must have a separate branch circuit.
Ans: B Ans: D
5577 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding 5578 An emergency generator, driven by an internal combustion engine,
requirements for receptacle outlets aboard vessels? shall be tested under load for a minimum of 2 hours at least once
every _____________.
A. Each receptacle outlet operating at 100 volts or more must have a A. week
grounding pole.
B. Outlets connecting a lifeboat and the vessel's electrical system B. 2 weeks
must have threaded plugs.
C. Machinery spaces must contain sufficient outlets for lighting all C. month
machinery with a portable light having a 50 foot flexible cord.

D. All of the above. D. 3 months

Ans: A Ans: C
5579 Which of the following methods of finish applications is/are 5580 When working on a high voltage circuit, you should always have
considered to be satisfactory for resisting corrosion? another person present with you. This person should have a good
working knowledge of _____________.
A. Electroplating with cadmium A. the circuit being worked on and the location of all switches and
circuit breakers controlling it
B. Sherardizing B. first-aid techniques for treating electrical shock
 Page 310

C. Galvanizing C. cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

D. All of the above D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
5581 Which of the listed features open the power circuit to a motor due 5582 In accordance with Regulations , each diesel engine driven
to low voltage and re-close when the voltage is restored to normal? generator prime mover must have an overspeed device,
independent of the normal operating governor, and adjusted so
that the speed cannot exceed the maximum rated speed by more
than
A. Low voltage protection A. 0.1
B. 6 volt non-renewable link fuse B. 0.15
C. 12 volt renewable link fuse C. 0.2
D. Low voltage release D. 0.25
Ans: D Ans: B
5583 Transformer windings must be resistant to ___________. 5584 If a steering motor becomes overloaded, the _____________.
A. moisture A. overload condition of 5% will trip the motor off the line immediately

B. sea atmosphere B. overload condition will be indicated visually in the engine room

C. oil vapor C. motor running indicator will begin to flash "on" and "off" in response
to the sustained overload condition
D. all of the above D. standby steering pump will start automatically and come on the line

Ans: D Ans: B
5585 Regulations state that a normal source for emergency loads and 5586 A storage battery for an emergency lighting and power system must
power on a cargo vessel must be supplied from ____________. have the capacity to _____________.

A. emergency generator supply to the emergency switchboard
B. emergency generator supply to the main switchboard
C. battery supply to the main switchboard
D. ship's service generator via the emergency switchboard
Ans: D
5587 Regulations require the emergency diesel generator on a cargo
vessel of over 1600 gross tons sailing international voyages to be
able to supply power to the _____________.
A. close all watertight doors twice
B. open all watertight doors four times
C. open and close all watertight doors in six consecutive cycles within
a 20 second period
D. none of the above
Ans: A
5588 While on watch in the engine room at sea with only one ship's
service turbine alternator on line, the entire plant suddenly blacks
out without warning. After restoring power, the cause for this
casualty was attributed to which of the following faults?

A. smoke detector system A. The micro switch at the generator throttle trip vibrated open,
allowing the main breaker to open via the under voltage trip.
B. emergency loudspeaker system B. Someone pushed the trip button to the "shore power" breaker.

C. daylight signaling light system C. The main air compressor suddenly stopped.
D. all of the above D. The standby generator started automatically and became
motorized.
Ans: D Ans: A
5589 On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the following 5590 On some diesel-electric ships, the DC propulsion motor will only
conditions would indicate that the propulsion motor had dropped attain half speed when the generator fields are fully excited. Speeds
out of synchronization with the propulsion generator? above this are obtained by _____________.

A. Excessive vibration of the vessel A. rotating brush alignment

B. Tripped main motor interlocks B. raising the generator engine speed
C. Overheated crosstie busses C. lowering the generator engine speed
D. Closed contact in the field circuits D. decreasing excitation
Ans: A Ans: B
5591 The shunt used in an ammeter should be connected in 5592 Brushless generators are designed to operate without the use of
____________. ___________.
A. series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement A. brushes
B. parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement B. slip rings
C. parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement C. commutators
D. series with the load and in series with the meter movement D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
5593 Which of the following conditions will occur if thesolenoid coil burns 5594 Which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to maintain a
out on a cargo winch with an electricalbrake? wet-cell, lead-acid, storage battery in a fully charged state during
long periods of disuse?
A. The brake will be set by spring force. A. Normal charging circuit
B. The motor will overspeed and burn up. B. Quick charging circuit
C. The load suspended from the cargo boom will fall. C. Trickle charging circuit
D. Nothing will happen; the winch will continue to operate as usual. D. High ampere charging circuit

Ans: A Ans: C
5595 Which of the following statements represents the main difference 5596 Which of the following statements is true concerning a polyphase
between a relay and a contactor? synchronous propulsion motor?
A. Contactors control current and relays control voltage. A. The motor is started as an induction motor.
B. A relay is series connected and a contactor is parallel connected. B. Resistance is gradually added to the rotor circuit.

C. Contactors can handle heavier loads than relays. C. The starting current is held below the rated current.
 Page 311

D. Contactors are made from silver and relays are made from copper. D. The field winding is energized for starting purposes only.

Ans: C Ans: A
5597 An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage of abnormal 5598 A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested using the
amount of current is known as a/an ____________. voltmeter/ammeter method. Therefore, the meters should be
connected with _____________.
A. open circuit A. both meters in series with the resistance
B. short circuit B. both meters in parallel with the resistance
C. polarized ground C. the ammeter in series and the voltmeter in parallel with the
resistance
D. ground reference point D. the ammeter in parallel and the voltmeter in series with the
resistance
Ans: B Ans: C
5599 Which of the following electric motors would be the safestand most 5600 A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron
reliable to use on the main deck of a vesselin foul weather core is the description of a simple ____________.
conditions?
A. Sealed motors A. magnetic shield
B. Drip proof motors B. electromagnet
C. Enclosed motors C. piezoelectric device
D. Watertight motors D. electromagnetic domain
Ans: D Ans: B
5601 A molded-case breaker provides protection against short circuits 5602 The method used to produce electron emission in most
by using a/an ____________. vacuumtubes is known as ____________.
A. shading coil A. photoelectric emission
B. arc quencher B. secondary electric emission
C. electromagnet C. cold cathodic electric emission
D. holding coil D. thermionic emission
Ans: C Ans: D
5603 A motor using a rheostat in the motor circuit to vary the speed is 5604 Which of the following precautions should you take when securing
called a ____________. propulsion generators and motors for an extended period of time?

A. squirrel-cage induction motor A. Disconnect the brush pigtails from their contacts and circulate air
through the units.
B. regenerative braking motor B. Disconnect the brush pigtails from their contacts and discharge
carbon dioxide into the units to keep them dry.
C. wound-rotor induction motor C. Lift the brushes from commutator collector rings and use the built-in
heater to prevent moisture accumulation.
D. synchronous motor D. Lift the brushes from commutator collector rings and circulate cool
dry air through the units.
Ans: C Ans: C
5605 One factor that determines the frequency of an alternator is the 5606 The variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-rotor
____________. induction motor provides for __________.
A. number of turns of wire in the armature coil A. speed control
B. number of magnetic poles B. frequency control
C. strength of the magnets used C. voltage control
D. output voltage D. use as a split-phase motor
Ans: B Ans: A
5607 The Wheatstone bridge is a precision measuring instrument utilizing 5608 The greatest detrimental effect on idle electrical equipment, such
the principle of changes in _____________. as cargo pump motors, is the _____________.
A. inductance A. loss of residual magnetism
B. capacitance B. absorption of moisture in the insulation
C. resistance C. insulation varnish flaking
D. amperage D. dirt collecting on the windings
Ans: C Ans: B
5609 Which of the listed logic gates is considered to be a BASIC building 5610 When choosing a battery for a particular application, major
block (basic logic gate) used in logic diagrams? consideration should be given to the battery's ____________.
A. NAND A. amp-hour capacity
B. OR B. terminal polarity
C. NOR C. stability under charge
D. All of the above. D. ambient temperature rise
Ans: B Ans: A
5611 An electrical device which prevents an action from occurring until all 5612 A circuit breaker and a fuse have a basic similarity in that they both
other required conditions are met is called a/an ___________. _____________.

A. limit A. can be reset to energize the circuit

B. monitor B. should open the circuit when overloaded
C. modulator C. will burn out when an over current flow develops
D. interlock D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: B
5613 A degree of control over the speed of a slip ring inductionmotor can 5614 A circuit breaker differs from a fuse in that a circuit breaker
be obtained by _____________. _____________.
A. adjusting governor linkage A. melts and must be replaced
B. changing the number of phases to the motor B. is enclosed in a tube of insulating material with metal ferrules at
each end
C. inserting resistance into the stator circuit C. gives no visual indication of having opened the circuit
D. inserting resistance into the rotor circuit D. trips to break the circuit and may be reset
 Page 312

Ans: D Ans: D
5615 An electrical device which employs a stationary armature and a 5616 The main purpose of the auxiliary winding on a split-phase,single-
rotating electromagnetic field is used aboard ship as a phase motor is to _____________.
____________.
A. magnetic amplifier A. limit the starting voltage
B. ship's service alternator B. increase the starting current
C. three-wire DC generator C. start the motor
D. saturable core reactor D. keep the motor running in the event the main winding should fail

Ans: B Ans: C
5617 The load sharing characteristics of two diesel generators operating 5618 What type of rotor is used in split-phase motors?
in parallel are mostly dependent on their governor ____________.

A. load limit settings A. Drum

B. idle speed settings B. Salient pole
C. speed limit settings C. Squirrel-cage
D. speed droop settings D. Wound-rotor
Ans: D Ans: C
5619 In an AC generator, direct current from a separate sourceis passed 5620 The purpose of a cage rotor winding placed on the rotor of a
through the windings of the rotor _____________. synchronous motor is to _____________.
A. by means of slip rings and brushes A. provide excitation to the DC field
B. by means of a commutator B. start the machine as an induction motor
C. by means of rotating bar magnet C. contribute extra torque at synchronous speed
D. to minimize the danger of arc over D. prevent the machine from falling out of step
Ans: A Ans: B
5621 A constant output voltage from an AC generator is maintained by 5622 Amortisseur windings are installed in a synchronous motor to
the _____________. _____________.
A. prime mover governor A. reduce eddy current losses
B. exciter generator B. produce a higher power factor
C. voltage regulator C. provide a means for starting
D. reverse power relay D. eliminate arcing between the stator and the rotor
Ans: C Ans: C
5623 The heating of conductors as a result of resistance in a distribution 5624 To repair a small electrical motor that has been submerged in
circuit causes a power loss expressed as _____________. saltwater, you should _____________.

A. line droop A. wash it with fresh water and apply an external source of heat

B. line loss B. renew the windings

C. IR drop C. send it ashore to an approved service facility
D. hysteresis D. rinse all electrical parts with a carbon tetrachloride cleaning solvent
and then blow dry the motor with compressed air
Ans: B Ans: A
5625 In process control terminology values which can change without 5626 The proper way to apply plastic electrical tape to an electric cable
distinct increments, such as temperature, pressure, or level are splice is to _____________.
called ____________.
A. binary values A. apply tape to the braided cover, but avoid touching it
B. digital values B. wind the tape so that each turn overlaps the turn before it
C. bumpless values C. apply the tape in one non-overlapping layer only
D. analog values D. heat the tape with a soldering iron for good bonding
Ans: D Ans: B
5627 Which of the following statements best describes the material 5628 A synchronous motor maintains synchronism with the rotating field
known as varnished cambric? because _____________.
A. Felted asbestos sealed with varnish. A. field strength varies directly with rotor slip
B. Cotton cloth coated with insulating varnish. B. DC current applied to the rotor coils causes the rotor magnets to
lock in with the rotating flux of the stator
C. Rubber insulation coated with a layer of tin. C. the stator poles are dragged around due to the flux created by the
excitation current
D. Paper impregnated with mineral oil, specially wrapped with D. the stator flux rotates in the opposite direction
nonmetallic tape, and coated with varnish.
Ans: B Ans: B
5629 The function of amortisseur, or damper windings in a synchronous 5630 The main difference between a motor control circuit containing low
motor is to _____________. voltage protection and low voltage release is that the latter contains
_____________.
A. eliminate slippage A. a magnetic operating coil
B. provide excitation B. normally open line contacts
C. provide starting torque C. thermal-overload protection
D. increase efficiency D. a momentary-contact start button
Ans: C Ans: D
5631 Before reassembling any machinery, you should _____________. 5632 The purpose of the commutator and brushes on a DC generator is
to _____________.
A. replace all bearings regardless of length of service A. transfer generated direct current voltage from the armature to the
line
B. apply a heavy coat of oil to all mating surfaces B. convert the alternating voltage generated within the armature to a
direct voltage
C. clean any corroded surfaces and file all burrs smooth C. provide a sliding contact method to excite the field
 Page 313

D. coat all parts with alemite grease D. reduce sparking between the armature and the carbon brushes

Ans: C Ans: B
5633 The basic measuring unit of inductance is the _________. 5634 Which of the listed precautions should be taken when cleaning the
internals of a motor with compressed air?
A. coulomb A. Open the machine on both ends so as to allow the air and dust to
escape.
B. ohm B. Be certain that the circuit breaker is opened and tagged on the
feeder panel.
C. farad C. Be certain that the air is clean and as dry as possible.
D. henry D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: D
5635 Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium 5636 Power transformers are rated in _____________.
batteries is true?
A. When mixing electrolyte always add acid to the water. A. kilowatts
B. Nickel-cadmium batteries can be charged and discharged only a B. ampere-turns
limited number of times without damage to the cells.
C. Nickel-cadmium batteries can be stored for a long time and still C. kilowatt-volts
keep a full charge without additional charging.
D. The electrolyte of an idle nickel-cadmium battery must be replaced D. kilovolt-amperes
monthly to maintain battery condition.
Ans: C Ans: D
5637 Local action in a nickel-cadmium battery is offset by 5638 Alternating current circuits develop resistance, inductance and
_____________. capacitance. The inductance of a coil is expressed in
_____________.
A. separating the positive and negative plates with plastic spacers A. ohms

B. separating the positive and negative plates with resin impregnated B. mhos
spacers
C. adding a small amount of lithium hydroxide to the electrolyte C. henrys
D. trickle charging D. farads
Ans: D Ans: C
5639 A device which prints out a permanent record of the plant operating 5640 Alternating current circuits develop resistance, inductance, and
conditions is known as the _____________. capacitance. The capacitance of individual capacitors is expressed
in _____________.
A. analogger A. ohms
B. bell logger B. mhos
C. alarm logger C. henrys
D. data logger D. farads
Ans: D Ans: D
5641 The opposition to the establishment of magnetic lines of force in a 5642 The insulation resistance of electric equipment and machinery
magnetic circuit is called the circuit's_______. should be tested for the lowest normal insulation values
_____________.
A. resistance A. immediately after shutting down the machine
B. reluctance B. every time the brush rigging is adjusted
C. impedance C. immediately after starting up the machine
D. inductance D. every 30 days whether the machine is in use or not
Ans: B Ans: A
5643 The RMS value of a sine-wave current may also be expressed as 5644 On tank vessels with an electrically-driven capstan, the motor
the _____________. should be meggered periodically to test _____________.

A. average value A. insulation resistance

B. maximum value B. eddy currents
C. effective value C. capacitance
D. instantaneous value D. armature reactance
Ans: C Ans: A
5645 The apparent power in a purely inductive circuit is also known as 5646 The multiple prefix "giga" (G) means ____________.
_____________.
A. true power A. thousand (10 to the 3rd power)
B. lead power B. million (10 to the 6th power)
C. induced power C. billion (10 to the 9th power)
D. reactive power D. trillion (10 to the 12th power)
Ans: D Ans: C
5647 A grounded switch or cable will be indicated by a megohmmeter 5648 Regarding battery charging rooms, ventilation should be provided
reading of _____________. __________.
A. infinity A. at the lowest point of the room
B. "zero" B. horizontally near the batteries
C. being unsteady in the high range C. at the highest point of the room
D. being unsteady in the low range D. only when charging is in progress
Ans: B Ans: C
5649 Which of the following statements concerning the specific gravity of 5650 The ratio of the effective value of the counter EMF in volts, to the
a battery electrolyte is true? effective value of the current in amperes is called _____________.

A. The electrolyte becomes less dense when it is cooled. A. impedance factor

B. The specific gravity reading is lowered when the electrolyte is B. capacitive reactance
heated.
 Page 314

C. The most accurate hydrometer reading is obtained immediately C. inductive reactance

after water is added.
D. The temperature does not affect the specific gravity of the D. root mean square
electrolyte.
Ans: B Ans: C
5651 An adjustable resistor, whose resistance can be changed without 5652 The purpose of a heat sink, as frequently used with transistors, is
opening the circuit in which it is connected, is called a to ____________.
_____________.
A. bleeder resistor A. prevent excessive temperature rise
B. rheostat B. compensate for excessive doping
C. bridge C. increase the reverse current
D. variable shunt strip D. decrease the forward current
Ans: B Ans: A
5653 In a DC series circuit, all the conductors have the same 5654 Battery charging rooms should be well ventilated because the
____________. charging process produces_____________.
A. power expended in them A. highly poisonous gas
B. voltage drop across them B. highly combustible oxygen
C. resistance to current flow C. explosive gases
D. current passing through them D. corrosive gases
Ans: D Ans: C
5655 Shading coils are installed on AC full-voltage starters to 5656 A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a solid state device used to
_____________. change ________________.
A. eliminate contact chatter A. DC to AC and control relatively low load current
B. dissipate opening contact arcs B. AC to DC and control relatively high load current
C. delay current build up in the holding coil C. DC to AC and control relatively high load current
D. protect the motor windings from momentary starting current D. AC to DC and control relatively low load current
overload
Ans: A Ans: B
5657 Most three-phase induction motors used for driving engine room 5658 When electrical cables penetrate watertight bulkheads,
auxiliaries are started by _____________. _______________.
A. resistor starters A. they should be grounded on either side of the bulkhead
B. across-the-line starters B. they must be bent to a radius of six diameters
C. impedance starters C. a watertight stuffing tube capable of accepting packing should be
employed
D. reactor starters D. they should be secured by a clamp
Ans: B Ans: C
5659 A variable shunt, connected across the series field coils of a DC 5660 Across-the-line starters are used with AC motors to provide
compound wound generator, to permit adjustment of the degree of _____________.
compounding, is called a _____________.
A. divider A. reduced starting current
B. diverter B. regulated starting current
C. converter C. high starting torque
D. rheostat D. controlled starting acceleration
Ans: B Ans: C
5661 The electrician reports to you that he has obtained low (but above 1 5662 In a faceplate-type motor starter, the starting arm is held in the
megohm) megger readings on the windings of a deck winch motor. "OFF" position by a/an _____________.
Upon checking the records of that motor, you find the readings
have consistently been at that level for the last six years.

A. motor be replaced A. cotter pin

B. windings be dried B. magnet
C. windings be cleaned C. electrical circuit
D. readings are acceptable D. strong spring
Ans: D Ans: D
5663 Which of the following components are used to convert alternating 5664 In electronic circuitry, the abbreviation "PCB" commonly means
current produced in the generator windings to direct current? ______________.

A. Armature and equalizer A. pulse coded binary

B. Commutator and brushes B. printed circuit board
C. Rotor and interpoles C. poly-coated braid
D. Field and exciter D. personal computer bits
Ans: B Ans: B
5665 The final step in testing a circuit for a ground involves the use of a 5666 Which of the following statements is true concerning the cleaning of
megohmmeter. A grounded switch or cable will be indicated by a electrical contacts?
megohmmeter reading of ____________.
A. "zero" A. Compressed air should be used to blow out metallic dust.
B. infinity B. Magnetic brushes should be used to remove metallic dust.
C. steady in the high range C. The contact surfaces should be greased to increase contact
resistance.
D. unsteady in the low range D. Delicate parts should be cleaned with a brush and an approved
safety solvent.
Ans: A Ans: D
5667 A nickel-cadmium battery is receiving a normal charge and gases 5668 Reduced voltage applied to a motor during the starting period will
freely. The charging current should _____________. _____________.
A. be increased A. result in decreased acceleration time only
B. be decreased B. lower the starting current and increase accelerating time
 Page 315

C. be cut off and the battery allowed to cool C. cause a greater starting torque
D. remain the same D. increase the starting current and pump capacity
Ans: D Ans: B
5669 A saturable-core reactor operates on the principle of controlling a 5670 Operational amplifiers, used primarily in analog circuits, are
load winding's inductance by varying the core's _____________. characterized by ____________.

A. dielectric A. high input impedance, high gain and low output impedance
B. permeability B. high input impedance, high gain and high output impedance
C. reactance C. low input impedance, low gain and high output impedance
D. inductance D. low input impedance, high gain and low output impedance
Ans: B Ans: A
5671 The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always ____________. 5672 Which of the following expresses the relationship of the input and
output frequencies in a full wave rectifier?
A. larger than the greatest branch resistance A. The output frequency is the same as input frequency.
B. smaller than the lowest branch resistance B. The output frequency is one-half the input frequency.
C. equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances C. The output frequency is twice the input frequency.
D. one-half the sum of the individual branch resistances D. The output frequency is four times the input frequency.
Ans: B Ans: C
5673 A "dead front" switchboard is one _____________. 5674 Mercury filled thermometers should never be used to determine
the temperature of the battery electrolyte because accidental
breakage of the thermometer can cause __________________.

A. without switches on it A. severe sparking and explosions

B. with insulated switches and no exposed terminals B. rapid oxidation of battery plates
C. without circuit breakers C. contamination of the electrolyte
D. without safety hand rails nor rubber mats D. corrosion on the battery terminals
Ans: B Ans: A
5675 The purpose of a main switchboard circuit breaker's reverse- 5676 A temperature instrumentation system for an engine room console
power trip is to _____________. consists of a resistance temperature detector (RTD), a measuring
bridge circuit, and a meter (or alarm circuit).Which of the following
statements is true concerning the measuring bridge circu

A. prevent main circuit overload A. The input voltage varies in a linear fashion with temperature.
B. protect the circuit breaker blowout coil B. The voltage across the center of the resistance bridge is always
constant.
C. prevent alternator motorization C. The resistance bridge is said to be balanced when its output voltage
is zero.
D. prevent low voltage tripout D. The input voltage of the resistance bridge is the constant
temperature signal.
Ans: C Ans: C
5677 Modern DC generators are fitted with commutating poles to 5678 The purpose of a magnetic relay is to _____________.
_____________.
A. prevent motorizing A. open a circuit only in the event of overload
B. reduce sparking B. remotely open and close contacts
C. reduce the load on the main poles C. provide overcurrent protection during starting
D. reduce spring pressure on the brushes D. relay voltages at increased power
Ans: B Ans: B
5679 A semiconductor is a material with a _____________. 5680 A capacitor can be tested using a megohmmeter or an ohmmeter.
If the meter is connected to a shorted capacitor, the meter pointer
should _____________.
A. conductivity higher than a normal conductor A. immediately swing to the maximum resistance value for the
capacitor
B. conductivity higher than a normal insulator B. first swing quickly to "zero", then gradually move up the scale as the
capacitor charges
C. high conductivity at low temperatures C. immediately deflect to and remain at zero
D. low conductivity at high temperatures D. immediately swing to a high reading and then gradually decrease

Ans: B Ans: C
5681 When mixing electrolyte for a lead-acid storage battery, you should 5682 To carry out an insulation resistance test, one terminal of the
pour the ___________. megohmmeter should be connected to the winding, with the other
terminal being connected to the ____________________.

A. distilled water into the acid in a zinc-plated container A. power supply

B. distilled water into the acid in a glass container B. variable resistor
C. acid into the distilled water in a zinc-plated container C. frame of the machine
D. acid into distilled water in a glass container D. armature
Ans: D Ans: C
5683 The charge of a lead-acid battery can be restored by ______. 5684 The resistance of a conductor varies _____________.

A. passing an alternating electric current through the cell A. directly as its length and inversely as its cross-sectional area
B. passing a direct electric current through the cell B. inversely as its length and directly as its cross-sectional area
C. adding acid to the electrolyte C. directly as its length and directly as its cross-sectional area
D. all of the above D. inversely as its length and inversely as its cross-sectional area

Ans: B Ans: A
 Page 316

5685 In order to check the performance of a transistor removed from its 5686 To test the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery, you should
circuit, the instrument to be used should be a/an ____________. use a/an ____________.

A. voltmeter or transistor tester A. ammeter

B. impedance meter B. voltmeter
C. ohmmeter or transistor tester C. hydrometer
D. sensitive potentiometer D. potentiometer
Ans: C Ans: B
5687 On a switchboard, if all three ground detection lamps remain 5688 Which of the following actions can be carried out in order to prevent
burning at half intensity when the test button is depressed, which of thermal runaway in a transistor?
the listed conditions is indicated?
A. No grounds exist. A. Increase the current through the collector-base junction.
B. All three phases are grounded. B. Install a heat sink.
C. The test switch is grounded. C. Shift the "Q" point to increase collector current.
D. The current transformers are shorted. D. Increase the potential difference between the emitter and the base.

Ans: A Ans: B
5689 Insufficient brush pressure on a DC motor may cause _______. 5690 Burning of controller contacts, when opening, is prevented by
_____________.
A. generator overload A. coating the contact surfaces lightly with petroleum jelly
B. excess residual magnetism B. magnetic blowout coils
C. water vapor absorption C. an overvoltage release
D. sparking of the brushes D. an overcurrent release
Ans: D Ans: B
5691 Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same for 5692 Which of the listed instruments can be best used to locate a
each component in a parallel circuit? grounded field coil in a synchronous motor?
A. Impedance A. Frequency meter
B. Current B. Megohmmeter
C. Resistance C. Voltmeter
D. Voltage D. Multimeter
Ans: D Ans: B
5693 The standard procedure for maintaining the charge in an 5694 A replacement wire having twice the length and one-half the cross-
emergency diesel starting battery is to trickle charge the battery sectional area of the original wire will have a resistance that is
_____________. _____________.
A. continuously A. four times that of the original wire
B. at least once each week B. twice that of the original wire
C. whenever the charge falls to 75% of full charge C. the same as that of the original wire
D. whenever the electrolyte specific gravity falls to 1.250 or lower D. one-half that of the original wire

Ans: A Ans: A
5695 If a delicate component must be soldered into a circuit, the 5696 If you disconnect and arrange both ends of a three conductor cable,
component may be protected from the heat of the soldering without any contact between the individual conductors, an
process by _____________. indicated ohmic value between the ends of a single conductor
would indicate ______________.
A. operating the soldering gun not more than 60 seconds at a time A. continuity of the conductor

B. using a thermal shunt B. an infinite resistance

C. pre-oxidizing the leads to be soldered C. the presence of a partial ground
D. coating the leads to be soldered with a light oil film D. that the conductor is not short circuited
Ans: B Ans: A
5697 Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering iron when 5698 Which of the following temperatures represents the maximum
soldering or desoldering components on a printed circuit board? allowable temperature for the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery?

A. The circuit board will blister and warp. A. 100°F

B. The foil wire bonded to the board may come loosened from the B. 125°F
board.
C. The circuit board has a low melting temperature. C. 145°F
D. The solder is kept to a dull heat dissipating finish. D. 212°F
Ans: B Ans: B
5699 Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of 5700 A lead-acid battery may become hotter than normal during a charge
silver-plated contacts? if the _________.
A. Filing A. battery has a shorted cell
B. Burnishing B. charging voltage is too low
C. Sanding with 0000 sandpaper C. specific gravity is too high
D. All of the above are correct. D. battery room door is secured
Ans: C Ans: A
5701 Which of the substances listed can be used to shield sensitive 5702 Handheld phase sequence indicators are useful when ________.
equipment from static magnetic fields?
A. Glass A. preparing to parallel alternators
B. Mica B. connecting lighting branch circuits
C. Bakelite C. troubleshooting DC motors
D. Permeable iron D. connecting shore power lines to the ship
Ans: D Ans: D
5703 When soldering a printed circuit board component, you should be 5704 To determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery, you
careful to prevent damage by _________. should ___________.
A. quickly heating the joints, using a high wattage iron A. check the electrolyte with a hydrometer
 Page 317

B. using the soldering iron tip sparingly B. use the constant specific gravity method
C. using only acid cord solder C. use a nonbreakable mercury thermometer
D. applying mechanical pressure to the joints being soldered D. connect a voltmeter to the battery terminals
Ans: B Ans: D
5705 The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized 5706 Before touching a small capacitor connected to a de-energized
unless _____________. circuit, or even one that is completely disconnected, you should
____________.
A. one generator is fully motorized A. gently tap the body with a screwdriver
B. the movement of the disk is damped by a permanent magnet B. tag it with a de-energized tag
C. the power flow is the same as the tripping direction C. be equipped with an insulated fuse puller
D. the power flow is the opposite to the tripping direction D. short circuit the terminals to make sure that the capacitor is
discharged
Ans: C Ans: D
5707 An increase in which of the listed conditions will increase the speed 5708 Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch or
of a synchronous motor? controller, you should _____________.
A. Frequency A. spray the gasket surface with a solvent
B. Voltage B. drain condensate from the box
C. Armature current C. open the circuit breaker in the power supply and tag
D. Inductance D. heat the switch box to remove any moisture
Ans: A Ans: C
5709 Which of the following methods should be used to test for an "open" 5710 If a three-phase induction motor malfunctions and drops to a single-
coil in an AC motor stator? phase (one supply line open) ____________.
A. Test with an ohmmeter, one test lead on the shaft, and the other A. the motor will continue to run if it is not heavily loaded
test lead to the stator leads.
B. Test with an ohmmeter with the test leads between the stator leads. B. more torque will be developed

C. Use a growler, listening for noise and vibration to diminish when C. the motor will immediately stop and not be able to be restarted
over an open coil.
D. Use a growler, listening for noise and vibration to increase when D. the motor will immediately stop and can only be restarted at no load
over an open coil.
Ans: B Ans: A
5711 Which of the problems listed will occur if a lead-acid battery is 5712 The division of the kilowatt load between two AC generators
allowed to remain in a discharged condition for a long period of operating in parallel is controlled by the settings and characteristics
time? of the _____________.
A. The battery may be unable to accept a full charge. A. voltage regulators
B. The electrolyte will change to lead sulfate. B. field rheostats
C. The concentrated sulfuric acid will attack the lead peroxide plates. C. reverse power relays

D. The separators will harden. D. prime mover governors

Ans: A
5713 When testing a capacitor with an analog type ohmmeter, a good
capacitor will be indicated when _____________.
A. there is no meter deflection
B. the meter deflects to a low resistance value and remains there
Ans: D
5714 The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators is
determined by the _____________.
A. amount of field excitation of the leading machine
B. load-speed characteristics of the governors

C. the meter deflects to a low resistance value and slowly increases C. amount of field excitation to the lagging machine
towards infinity
D. the meter deflects to a low resistance value and increases rapidly to D. type of alternator
a higher value, but stays fairly low
Ans: C Ans: B
5715 While troubleshooting a circuit in an engine room central control 5716 Which of the following procedures should be used to determine
console, a resistor is suspected of being faulty. Which of the the load of a three-phase, delta wound, AC generator?
following precautions must be observed if an ohmmeter is to be
used to check its value?
A. Correct polarity must be observed because reverse bias will A. Multiply the amperage in one phase by three.
damage the component.
B. Meter leads must not be twisted so as to cancel out the individual B. Divide the total amperage in all phases by three.
magnetic fields.
C. Resistor's circuit must be de-energized and at least one end of the C. Multiply the amperage in one phase by the square root of three.
component isolated.
D. The meter case must be grounded prior to attaching the leads. D. Divide the total amperage in all phases by the square root of three.

Ans: C Ans: C
5717 The full load torque of an electric motor is the __________. 5718 Prior to using an analog type ohmmeter, the leads are purposely
shorted together. Which of the following actions should be taken if,
when adjusting to "zero" ohms, the indicating needle can not be
returned to "zero" on the scale?
A. minimum torque developed by the motor accelerating from stop to A. The lead clips should be replaced.
full speed
B. turning moment exerted by the motor at rated load and speed B. The batteries should be replaced.
C. maximum torque developed by the motor with rated voltage and C. The test reading should be added to each final reading.
frequency
D. turning moment exerted by the motor from any rotor angular D. The test reading should be subtracted from each final reading.
position at any load
Ans: B Ans: B
 Page 318

5719 The transmit and receive elements of a sound-powered telephone 5720 The resistance of most conducting materials will change as a result
handset are _____________. of temperature change. The resistance of copper will
_____________.
A. identical and can be used for either function A. increase as temperature decreases
B. of similar construction but different enough to be used only for its B. decrease as temperature decreases
own function
C. of very different construction and MUST be used only for its own C. remain the same between -7°C and 44°C
function
D. constructed so that each can fit only in its own recess D. remain the same between 20°C and 110°C
Ans: A Ans: B
5721 The function of a stepdown potential transformer is to reduce the 5722 To avoid damaging the components of a printed circuit board when
load _____________. testing it with a DC volt-ohmmeter, you should _______.

A. voltage and current A. ground the board

B. voltage and increase line current B. avoid reversing the polarity of the leads
C. current and increase line voltage C. isolate sensitive components with heat sinks
D. power D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: B
5723 A loud buzzing noise in an AC controller is probably caused by 5724 Increasing the load to the secondary windings of a transformer will
_____________. cause a/an ____________.
A. poor contact with the overload relay A. decrease in the primary voltage
B. an incorrectly sized heater B. increase in the primary voltage
C. a broken shading coil C. decrease in the primary current
D. abnormal starting current D. increase in the primary current
Ans: C Ans: D
5725 If an induction motor were to be operated at 90% rated voltage, 5726 When troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found that the
_____________. contacts are welded together. The most probable cause is
_____________.
A. there would be an increase in starting torque A. excessive operation at low load
B. starting current would increase slightly B. high ambient temperature
C. synchronous speed would decrease slightly C. low voltage on the operating coil
D. the slip would increase D. high voltage on the operating coil
Ans: D Ans: C
5727 The instantaneous reduction in voltage of an AC generator, 5728 A characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high
resulting from an increase in load, and prior to the automatic resistance rotor winding, is _____________.
voltage regulator correcting the situation, is called voltage
____________.
A. droop A. low starting torque
B. drop B. high starting torque
C. dip C. high speed
D. regulation D. low starting voltage
Ans: C Ans: B
5729 Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during 5730 If a transformer is connected to a DC source, the transformer will
operation because of _____________. overload at the ____________.
A. excessive magnetic gap A. contacts
B. low contact pressure B. primary coil
C. an open coil C. secondary coil
D. excessive ambient temperature D. core
Ans: B Ans: B
5731 The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 Hz AC generator is controlled 5732 In a three-phase, squirrel-cage type, induction motor the rotating
by the ______________. magnetic field is established by the _____________.
A. load on the alternator A. current induced in the rotor windings
B. load on the prime mover B. application of a three-phase voltage supply to the stator windings

C. speed of the prime mover C. laminated steel core and aluminum conductors in the rotor
D. exciter output voltage D. interaction of the magnetic field caused by the induced current in
the squirrel-cage bars with the magnetic field of the stator

Ans: D Ans: B
5733 When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed will 5734 Before measuring an unknown resistance with an ohmmeter, you
maintain the highest permeability? should _____________.
A. Glass A. adjust the meter's pointers to mid-scale
B. Bakelite B. change the meter's batteries
C. Soft iron C. center the meter's pointer at infinity
D. Aluminum D. short the test leads and calibrate the meter
Ans: C Ans: D
5735 One diode of a full-wave rectifier has burned out in a shorted 5736 The charge of a lead-acid battery is checked with a/an
condition. Therefore, the output will be ____________. ____________.

A. zero A. manometer
B. a rectified half-wave B. hydrometer
C. a rectified full-wave C. voltmeter
D. equal to the AC input D. ohmmeter
Ans: D Ans: B
5737 Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during 5738 When a transformer is used to step down voltage, the low voltage
operating conditions as a result of _____________. winding is _____________.
 Page 319

A. high spring pressure A. part of the core

B. high ambient temperature B. the primary coil
C. an open coil C. not insulated
D. low voltage on operating coil D. the secondary coil
Ans: D Ans: D
5739 An AC circuit has capacitance arranged in series. If the line voltage 5740 The total voltage of a series circuit is the _____________.
remains constant, the capacitive reactance value can be varied by
changing the _____________.
A. line frequency A. sum of the individual voltage drops
B. resistance B. total resistance divided by the total current
C. number of commutating poles C. sum of the individual currents multiplied by the number of resistors

D. number of interpoles D. total current divided by the total resistance

Ans: A Ans: A
5741 Excessive humming of AC contactors may be caused by 5742 Decreasing the frequency in a capacitive circuit while maintaining a
______________. constant circuit voltage, will result in a/an _____________.

A. burnt arc shields A. increase in apparent power

B. shorted armature coils B. decrease in circuit current
C. a broken shading coil C. decrease in capacitive reactance
D. high voltage D. decrease in total impedance
Ans: C Ans: B
5743 The counter EMF produced in the windings of a DC motor is "zero" 5744 A loud buzzing noise coming from the contacts in a magnetic
when the ____________. controller can be caused by ____________.
A. armature has just begun to turn A. excessive current
B. armature is not turning B. excessive magnet gap
C. motor is almost up to rated speed C. bouncing of contacts
D. motor is at rated speed D. dirt on magnet faces
Ans: B Ans: D
5745 The function of the commutator in a DC motor is to ________. 5746 Humming or buzzing of electric contacts is a symptom of
____________.
A. reverse the flow of current through the armature A. low voltage on the operating coil
B. reverse the flow of current in the field poles B. power failure to the operating coil
C. reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path through the motor C. a control circuit ground
D. shift the neutral running plane of the brushes to prevent sparking D. a control circuit overload

Ans: A Ans: A
5747 To increase the frequency of an operating AC generator, you 5748 The counter EMF of a DC motor is maximum when the _________.
should ____________.
A. increase the field excitation A. motor is at rated speed
B. decrease the field excitation B. armature is not turning
C. increase the number of magnetic poles C. motor is almost up to rated speed
D. increase the speed of the prime mover D. armature has just begun to turn
Ans: D Ans: A
5749 In the flow of one cycle of single phase AC current past any given 5750 AC and DC generators are similar in that they _____________.
point in a circuit, the maximum current peak occurs
_____________.
A. one time A. both generate alternating voltages
B. two times B. both rectify the voltage before delivery
C. three times C. are constructed at the same physical size for the same kilowatt
rating
D. four times D. both supply three-phase power
Ans: B Ans: A
5751 If the length of a wire is halved and the cross-sectional area is 5752 Prior to taking a resistance reading with a volt-ohm-milliammeter,
doubled, the resistance will be _____________. the "zero" setting must be adjusted. After clipping the two leads
together, you find the adjustment knob will not return the pointer to
"zero". This is most likely an indication of _

A. quartered A. an improper resistance range setting

B. unchanged B. weak batteries
C. doubled C. a faulty zero ohms knob
D. quadrupled D. a faulty meter movement
Ans: A Ans: B
5753 When correcting specific gravity readings of a lead-acid battery for 5754 Relative to the secondary winding of a step-up transformer, the
existing temperature conditions, you should ______________. primary winding will have _____________.

A. add 10 points for each 2.2° above 26.7°C A. more turns

B. subtract 10 points for each 2.2° above 26.7°C B. fewer turns
C. add 4 points for each 4.5° above 26.7°C C. half as many turns
D. add 4 points for each 4.5° below 26.7°C D. twice as many turns
Ans: C Ans: B
5755 The total power used up in a series circuit is ___________. 5756 When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in
the mid-position, this indicates that the circuit breaker is
_____________.
A. the sum of the powers used in each load (resistor) divided by the A. on
number of loads
 Page 320

B. the sum of the powers used in each load B. off

C. always less than the power used in the smallest load C. reset
D. never more than the power used in largest load D. tripped
Ans: B Ans: D
5757 If a magnetic controller contact fails to pick up when the operating 5758 Which of the listed forms of water should be added to a lead-acid
coil is energized, one possible cause may be _______________. battery?

A. low spring pressure A. saltwater

B. low voltage to the coil B. brackish water
C. the residual magnetism of the contact faces C. distilled water
D. dirty contact faces D. light water
Ans: B Ans: C
5759 The primary function of an electric motor is to ___________. 5760 Current measuring instruments must always be connected in
_____________.
A. develop torque A. series with a circuit
B. generate high voltages B. parallel with a circuit
C. produce a magnetic field C. series-parallel with a circuit
D. generate high electrical resistance D. delta with the shunt
Ans: A Ans: A
5761 The resistance of electric wire will decrease as its 5762 Which of the instruments listed should always be connected in
_______________. series with a circuit?
A. length increases A. Ammeter
B. cross-sectional area increases B. Megohmmeter
C. temperature increases C. Wattmeter
D. percent of metallic purities increases D. Voltmeter
Ans: B Ans: A
5763 When the voltage remains constant and the resistance is 5764 An ammeter should be used to measure ___________.
increased in a series circuit, the flow of current _____________.

A. increases by the square of the original value A. the voltage between two points in a circuit
B. increases B. circuit continuity
C. remains the same C. current flow in a circuit
D. decreases D. total or partial circuit resistance
Ans: D Ans: C
5765 The voltage output of an AC generator is accurately controlled by 5766 In a compound-wound motor, a portion of the line current flows
_____________. through the _____________.
A. changing the sensitivity of the prime mover to large changes in A. inertial poles
voltage
B. varying the reluctance of the air gap B. stator
C. varying the DC exciter voltage C. shunt field coils
D. shorting out part of the armature windings D. frame
Ans: C Ans: C
5767 Which of the formulas listed is correct for determining power? 5768 Which of the listed meters uses a shunt connected in series with the
load, but parallel with the meter movement?
A. P = (E)(E)/R A. Voltmeter
B. P = (I)(R)(R) B. Power factor meter
C. P = (I)(I)/R C. Ammeter
D. P = E/R D. Wattmeter
Ans: A Ans: C
5769 When a console indicating lamp burns out, attempts to renew it 5770 The rate at which heat is produced in a direct current circuit is
should not be made while maneuvering because equal to ____________.
_______________.
A. the new lamp may be of a higher wattage and cause heat damage A. P divided by R
to the lens
B. removing a faulty lamp usually causes an alarm to sound on the B. I squared times R
bridge
C. attention should be paid only to engine orders C. E divided by I
D. a socket/wiring fault may cause a ground or short circuit to shut D. I times R divided by T
down a vital function
Ans: D Ans: B
5771 One horsepower is equal to _____________. 5772 An ammeter reads slightly above "zero" when its leads are
disconnected, this is a result of ___________.
A. 500 watts A. mechanical misalignment of the meter pointer
B. 663 watts B. a poor ground for the meter case
C. 746 watts C. static electricity in the air
D. 1,000 watts D. resistors inside the meter storing charges
Ans: C Ans: A
5773 Modern handheld digital tachometers operate by counting light 5774 To determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery, you
pulses returned to the unit by ______________. would use a/an _____________.
A. the tach generator A. voltmeter
B. either the coupling or shaft B. hydrometer
C. a small bulb attached to the shaft C. ammeter
D. a piece of reflective tape D. potentiometer
Ans: D Ans: A
5775 When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, a weak or dead 5776 Common nickel-cadmium and nickel-iron storage batteries utilize
cell is best detected by _________________. _______________.
 Page 321

A. measuring and comparing all cells' specific gravity A. acid primary cells
B. taking an open circuit voltage test of individual cells B. alkaline primary cells
C. visually inspecting the electrolyte levels of each cell C. acid secondary cells
D. taking each cell's temperature with a calibrated mercury D. alkaline secondary cells
thermometer
Ans: A Ans: D
5777 The amount of voltage induced in the windings of an AC generator 5778 Which of the following materials is a good electrical insulator?
depends mainly on _____________.
A. the number of field poles energized A. wood
B. the speed at which the stator windings rotate through the magnetic B. silver
field
C. the strength of the magnetic field C. copper
D. all of the above D. gold
Ans: C Ans: A
5779 When mixing electrolyte, which of the following precautions should 5780 Which of the following statements represents the correct method of
always be observed? connecting the shunt of an ammeter prior to taking a reading?

A. Add the acid to the water. A. In series with the load and in series with the meter movement.

B. Use a heavy duty aluminum pail. B. In series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement.

C. Add the water to the acid. C. In parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement.

D. Mix the solution outdoors. D. In parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement.

Ans: A Ans: B
5781 Nickel-cadmium storage batteries are superior to lead-acid batteries 5782 The force that causes free electrons to move in a conductor as
because they __________. electric current flow is called a/an _____________.
A. put out higher voltages and require no maintenance A. resistant force
B. can remain idle and keep a full charge for a long time B. electromotive force
C. need fewer cells in series and use less mounting space C. inductive force
D. all of the above D. dielectric force
Ans: B Ans: B
5783 A handheld digital tachometer could give a bad reading if 5784 Which of the listed sections of an emergency switchboard is used to
___________________. supply power for alarm signals under emergency conditions?

A. aimed directly at the shaft A. The generator and bus transfer section
B. partially aimed at a 60 Hz. fluorescent light B. The 450 volt, 60 cycle, 3 phase bus
C. positioned 10-25 cms from the shaft C. The 120 volt, 3 phase, 60 cycle bus
D. the tape is too shiny D. The 24 volt DC bus
Ans: B Ans: D
5785 When removing ball or roller bearings from the shaft of a motor, you 5786 The rotation of a three-phase induction motor can be reversed by
should use a _____________. _____________.
A. rawhide hammer A. interchanging any two of the three line leads to the stator
B. brass mallet B. disconnecting one of the three line leads to the stator
C. wheel puller C. switching the shunt field coil leads
D. soft iron pry bar D. permanently disconnecting any two of the three line leads to the
stator
Ans: C Ans: A
5787 The frequency of an AC generator is controlled by the 5788 The 24 volt DC bus on the emergency switchboard is used to
_____________. supply power to the _____________.
A. rheostat A. general alarm system
B. governor B. gyrocompass power failure alarm system
C. exciter C. smoke detection system
D. capacitor D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
5789 The frequency of an alternator is controlled from the main 5790 The reversal of an AC, three-phase, induction motor is
switchboard by adjusting the _____________. accomplished by ______________.
A. frequency meter A. changing all three motor leads
B. voltage regulator B. reversing the position of the slip rings
C. governor control C. interchanging any two of the three motor leads
D. sychroscope switch D. interchanging any two brushes
Ans: C Ans: C
5791 In order to take a current reading with a "clamp-on" ammeter, the 5792 The number of cycles per second occurring in AC voltage is known
instrument's jaws _________________. as the _____________.
A. should remain open A. phase angle
B. cannot touch the adjacent conductor B. frequency
C. must be fully closed C. wave form
D. will act as a transformer primary D. half mode
Ans: C Ans: B
5793 When troubleshooting an alkaline storage battery a weak or dead 5794 When a megohmmeter is used to test the dielectric strength of wire
cell is best located by ____________. insulation, the initial dip of the pointer toward "zero" is caused by
_____________.
A. checking the specific gravity of each cell A. good insulation
B. visually inspecting each cell's electrolyte level B. the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation
C. testing each cell with a voltmeter C. the capacitance of the circuit
 Page 322

D. measuring the electrolyte temperature with an accurate mercury
thermometer
Ans: C
5795 Which of the following statements concerning AC circuits is correct?
A. The power factor of a resistive circuit is always zero.
B. True power in an inductive circuit always equals apparent power.
D. the dielectric absorption effect of the insulation
Ans: C
5796 When troubleshooting motor controllers, a shorted relay or
contactor coil is often indicated by _______________.
A. a resistance reading of "infinity" on an ohmmeter
B. charred insulation and/or a blown control fuse

C. Inductive reactance varies directly with the frequency and the
inductance.
D. Total opposition to the flow of alternating current depends upon the
amount of reactive power.
Ans: C
5797 If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, 5798
creates pulsations when coupled with a synchronous generator
operating in parallel; the generator rotor may beperiodically pulled
ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. This hunt
C. a reading of "zero" on a megger from one of the coil's leads to
ground
D. a higher-than-normal voltage reading across the winding
Ans: B
Which of the following statements represents the FIRST step in
seating new brushes on slip rings?

A. amortisseur windings A. Wrap sandpaper around the slip rings and slide it back and forth
between the brushes and the slip rings.
B. direct coupling B. Press the brushes against the slip ring with a wood block.
C. increase governor speed droop C. Increase brush pressure and run at no load for 3 to 4 hours.
D. decreasing governor speed droop D. Apply seating compound under the brushes and run at no load for 2
hours.
Ans: A Ans: A
5799 Motor name plate data includes "‚°C rise". This indicates the 5800 When using a megohmmeter to test the dielectric strength of wire
_____________. insulation, a continuous series of slight downscale kicks by the
pointer is result of ____________.
A. actual running temperature of the winding from no load to full load A. good insulation

B. permissible temperature rise of the windings above the designed
ambient temperature
C. maximum allowable temperature rise above normal full load
operating temperature
D. maximum allowable temperature rise for continuous no load service
B. the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation
C. the capacitance of the windings
D. the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation

Ans: B Ans: B
5801 A commutator's protective oxide film can be destroyed by 5802 When the electrolyte level of a lead-acid storage battery has
_________________. decreased due to normal evaporation, the level should be
reestablished by adding _____________.
A. periods of low humidity A. distilled water only
B. very low brush current density B. sulfuric acid only
C. improper brush grade C. a weak solution of sulfuric acid and distilled water
D. all of the above D. a strong solution of sulfuric acid and distilled water
Ans: D Ans: A
5803 When shipboard electrical distribution circuits are connected in 5804 Which of the listed classes of electrical insulation is suited for the
parallel, additional parallel circuits will cause the total circuit highest operating temperature?
resistance to _____________.
A. increase, causing a drop in the line current A. Class 90 (O)
B. increase, causing a decrease in the line voltage B. Class 105 (A)
C. decrease, causing an increase in the line voltage C. Class 130 (B)
D. decrease, causing an increase in the line current D. Class 180 (H)
Ans: D Ans: D
5805 When the control handle is in the "off" position, thesolenoid 5806 In D.C. motor construction, the armature coils' ends are
actuated brake of the electric winch is _________. _______________.
A. de-energized and the brake is released A. soldered to the commutator bar risers
B. energized and the brake is released B. imbedded into core slots
C. energized and the brake is set by a spring C. crimped together with brush pigtails
D. de-energized and the brake is set by a spring D. spliced with the field windings
Ans: D Ans: A
5807 When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being 5808 The armature cores of the D.C. motors are constructed with
faulty, the last step would be to _______________. laminations to ___________.
A. check the fuses and voltage levels of all power supplies in the A. eliminate hysteresis
console
B. clean dust and debris from the card and burnish the sliding B. minimize brush sparking
connections
C. make sure all connections are tight including wire wrappings and C. reduce eddy current losses
push-on types
D. substitute a new or repaired spare card and check the operation of D. compensate for armature reaction
the circuit
Ans: D Ans: C
5809 Which of the listed groups of electrical insulation materials is best 5810 Capacitors can be used in electric distribution systems to improve
suited for the highest operating temperatures? power factor. This is accomplished by seesawing energy between
the capacitor and the _____________.
A. impregnated cotton and silk A. generator
B. unimpregnated paper and cotton B. inductive loads
 Page 323

C. pure glass and quartz C. resistive loads

D. mica and porcelain with bonding agents D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: B
5811 You are paralleling two alternators. The synchronizing lamps grow 5812 If you reverse both the field and the armature connections to a DC
dim and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer propulsion motor, _____________.
approaches the 0‚ position. This indicates that the ____________.

A. alternator voltages are 180‚ apart A. the direction of motor rotation will change
B. circuit breaker can be closed B. the brushes will become overheated
C. incoming alternator is running too slowly C. a magnetic lock will occur in the motor
D. synchroscope is defective or broken D. the direction of motor rotation will remain the same
Ans: B Ans: D
5813 The leads from a megohmmeter are attached to the leads of an AC 5814 The direction of rotation of a DC propulsion motor can be changed
motor field coil. A reading of infinity is obtained indicating a/an by reversing the _____________.
____________.
A. open field coil A. brush holder position
B. shorted field coil B. polarity of the field poles
C. grounded field coil C. brush staggered order
D. shunted field coil D. motor interpole connections
Ans: A Ans: B
5815 Moisture absorbed in the windings or condensed on the surface of 5816 The voltage developed by an AC generator is controlled by varying
electrical machinery insulation ________. the ____________.
A. is good for long term preserving since most insulation is organic A. speed of the prime mover
and contains some amount
B. lowers the insulation value and is a common cause of fault grounds B. AC excitation to the field
in idle machines
C. will enhance insulation resistance only if it is fresh water and C. DC excitation to the field
contains no salt
D. reduces the amount of current supplied or drawn by the machine D. DC excitation of the voltage regulator
so horsepower is limited
Ans: B Ans: C
5817 If a fuse of correct size and type blows frequently, 5818 If violent gassing occurs when a lead-acid storage battery is first
________________. placed on charge, the _____________.
A. try the next higher amperage rating A. battery must be given an emergency charge
B. try the next lower amperage rating B. charging rate is too low
C. look for trouble within the circuit C. charging rate is too high
D. reduce the applied voltage 10% D. specific gravity of the electrolyte solution is too low
Ans: C Ans: C
5819 What type of electric motor is commonly used to start small auxiliary 5820 Violent gassing developed by a lead-acid battery during charging
diesel engines? indicates that the ____________.
A. synchronous A. plate separators are grounded
B. series B. cell voltages are excessive
C. shunt C. specific gravity in insufficient
D. cage D. charging rate is excessive
Ans: B Ans: D
5821 All of the following items can be used in the maintenance of a D.C. 5822 A reverse-current relay will prevent AC generator motorization by
propulsion motor's commutator EXCEPT _______________. ____________.

A. a canvas wiper A. automatically redirecting the load

B. safety solvent B. automatically speeding up the prime mover
C. abrasive dressing stones C. tripping the panel board main switch
D. sandpaper D. tripping the generator circuit breaker
Ans: B Ans: D
5823 Complete controller maintenance includes _____________. 5824 If a loaded shunt motor's field were weakened by rheostat
resistance or by an open circuit, the motor would _________.
A. periodic testing of protective devices A. overspeed due to reduced CEMF
B. checking for loose or worn contacts and weak springs B. stop because of low flux
C. maintaining a sufficient supply of spare parts C. continue to run at base speed
D. all of the above D. slow down and overheat
Ans: D Ans: A
5825 How is a wattmeter electrically connected in a circuit? 5826 An AC generator panel is fitted with both synchronizing lamps and
a synchroscope. When the synchroscope pointer reaches the noon
position, one synchronizing light is bright and the other is dark. This
means _____________.
A. In series A. there is a ground on the phase with the dark lamp
B. In parallel B. the phase sequence is incorrect
C. In series-parallel C. the phase sequence is correct
D. Inductively D. the generator breaker may be closed
Ans: C Ans: B
5827 A wattmeter is used to determine ____________. 5828 Which of the following statements is true concerning a stepdown
transformer in an operating AC power circuit?
A. the power being consumed by electrical equipment A. Voltage and current will both be increased.
B. partial circuit resistance B. Voltage and current will both be decreased
C. current flowing in a circuit C. Voltage decreases as current increases.
D. voltage existing between two points in a circuit D. Voltage increases as current decreases.
Ans: A Ans: C
 Page 324

5829 The RPM of an AC generator can be measured with a/an 5830 The "dielectric constant" is a numerical value indicating the
_____________. effectiveness of a dielectric material in comparison to that of a
standard, which is _______________.
A. ammeter A. paper or cloth
B. voltmeter B. glass or mica
C. vibrating reed meter C. plastic or Teflon
D. synchroscope D. dry air or a vacuum
Ans: C Ans: D
5831 If the pointer of the synchroscope is rotating in the slow direction 5832 The air gap in an induction motor should be checked periodically
when you are preparing to parallel two alternators, the with a feeler gage to detect ____________.
_____________.
A. incoming machine is turning faster than the load alternator A. rotor contact with the laminations
B. loaded alternator is turning faster than the incoming machine B. changes in armature magnetic strength
C. load on the loaded alternator is ready to split C. excessive bearing wear
D. incoming machine is beginning to pick up some of the load D. electrical damage to the rotor
Ans: B Ans: C
5833 The following air gap readings were obtained from a horizontally 5834 The "dielectric constant" of dry air or a vacuum is _______.
mounted, bilge pump, induction motor, equipped with sleeve
bearings: FWD END AFT END Top
.045 .049Right Side .045 .047Left Side .
A. The aft bearing should be realigned or replaced. A. 1
B. Shims should be removed from the aft bearing. B. 10
C. The forward bearing should be lowered. C. 100
D. The aft bearing should be lowered. D. 1000
Ans: A Ans: A
5835 When the operating handle of a molded case circuit breaker is in 5836 During maintenance of circuit breakers, _______________.
the mid-position, it indicates the circuit breaker is _____________.

A. in the "opened" position A. always smooth roughened contact surfaces with a file
B. in the "closed" position B. never pass more than rated breaker current through the overload
heater element
C. tripped C. inspect for wear and misalignment of main contacts
D. reset D. assume heater elements installed are of correct size
Ans: C Ans: C
5837 In a three-phase, open-delta connected transformer, the line 5838 Most AC voltmeters are calibrated to indicate __________.
current is equal to _____________.
A. the phase current A. peak-to-peak voltage
B. three times the phase current B. root-mean-square voltage
C. the sum of any two phase currents C. average voltage
D. the difference of any two phase currents D. peak voltage only
Ans: A Ans: B
5839 To limit the current flow through a DC voltmeter to as low a value as 5840 Encrusted dirt accumulated inside a motor should be removed with
possible, the moving coil circuit is provided with a/an a _____________.
_____________.
A. high series resistance A. fiber scraper
B. high parallel resistance B. pointed welding rod
C. series inductor C. hammer and chisel
D. external shunt D. paint scraper
Ans: A Ans: A
5841 To check the three line fuses of a three-phase system consisting of 5842 If the voltage applied to a moving disk frequency meter decreases,
a three-phase motor, you must _____________. while the applied frequency remains the same, the frequency
indication will _____________.
A. place the starter in the "stop" position A. increase
B. make sure the motor is operating at full load to guard against a B. decrease
false reading
C. place the leads across the "hot" ends of the fuses C. remain the same
D. place the leads across the bottom ends of the fuses D. oscillate
Ans: A Ans: C
5843 Which of the listed conditions could indicate the need for cleaning 5844 The reactive power drawn by a motor from an AC generator is the
electrical insulation? power which is _____________.
A. Low ambient temperature A. used to establish the magnetic field of the motor
B. Low operating temperature B. lost in overcoming friction in the bearings
C. High dielectric strength C. strictly converted to heat generated by current flow through the
windings
D. Low megger readings D. transmitted directly through the rotor shaft to perform useful work

Ans: D Ans: A
5845 The most inefficient method of voltage reduction, from the 5846 When using a multimeter for resistance measurements, it should
standpoint of power loss, even when placed in series with the load, be calibrated by clipping the loose ends of the leads together and
is the use of a/an ____________. _____________.
A. capacitor A. setting the instrument pointer at "zero" ohms
B. inductor B. adjusting the line voltage to calibrate the instrument
C. resistor C. plugging each end of one test lead into the plus and minus
terminals
D. transistor D. using a special purpose resistance measuring instrument (a bridge)
 Page 325

Ans: C Ans: A
5847 Which of the following statements regarding the use of a current 5848 How many possible states does a binary logic circuit have?
measuring instrument is correct?
A. It must be connected in series with the circuit. A. One
B. You should always start with the lowest range until a suitable B. Two
reading is obtained.
C. The indicating needle is deflected from left to right regardless of C. Three
polarity.
D. An external shunt is generally utilized where current is less than 10 D. Four
amperes.
Ans: A Ans: B
5849 Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators? 5850 In a logic circuit, the NOT gate function _____________.

A. copper and aluminum A. does not alter a logical input

B. glass and mica B. serves to amplify a given signal level
C. dry air and a vacuum C. must be accomplished with a common collector transistor
arrangement
D. doped silicon and germanium D. reverses an input logic condition
Ans: B Ans: D
5851 In a logic circuit the NOR and NAND gate functions 5852 Conductor resistance may be INDIRECTLY measured by using
____________. a/an _____________.
A. must be accomplished with a common base transistor A. voltmeter only
arrangement
B. are available in diode form B. ammeter only
C. are exact opposites with the same NOR and NAND inputs C. voltmeter and an ammeter
D. have output conditions that are exact opposites to the output D. ohmmeter only
condition for OR and AND, respectively
Ans: D Ans: C
5853 A three-phase, squirrel cage, induction motor will run hot due to 5854 The ground indicating light on the main electrical switchboard is
_____________. indicating a ground. The best procedure for locating the grounded
circuit is to _____________.
A. open stator coils A. trace the circuit paths while looking for burned spots
B. high power factor B. check circuit resistances with a megohmmeter connected between
the grounded line and the distribution panel framework

C. dirty or corroded slip rings C. open the circuit breakers on the distribution panel, one at a time,
until the lights no longer indicate a ground
D. reversed commutating poles D. check all circuits for continuity
Ans: A Ans: C
5855 A three-phase, squirrel cage, induction motor will run hot due to 5856 Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators?
a/an ______________.
A. improper brush position A. dry air and a vacuum
B. reversed commutating pole B. tin and lead
C. shorted stator C. doped silicon and germanium
D. high power factor D. paper and oil
Ans: C Ans: D
5857 A split-phase induction squirrel-cage motor will not come up to 5858 A ground is indicated by the ground-detecting system on the main
speed, even though the rated voltage, rated frequency, and rated electrical switchboard. The FIRST step in locating the actual ground
load are applied. The suspected trouble could be due to is to _____________.
_____________.
A. a faulty centrifugal switch A. close all circuit breakers in the distribution panel until the ground
detector indicates normal
B. broken rotor bars B. open the individual circuit breakers, one by one until the ground
detection system indicates normal
C. worn bearings C. change over generators
D. all of the above D. check each circuit with a megohmmeter
Ans: D Ans: B
5859 Multiple grounds have developed and were initialy indicated by the 5860 To protect the rotor of a motor disassembled for maintenance or
ground-detecting system as one ground. The FIRST step in overhaul, it should be ___________________.
locating the grounds is to _____________.
A. examine the main bus bars for signs of overheating A. suspended by wire slings in one corner of the shop
B. eliminate the individual circuits one by one until the ground B. wrapped in several layers of heavy paper or cardboard
detecting system no longer indicates any grounds
C. change over generators C. supported by flat wood blocks on the workbench
D. check each circuit with a megohmmeter D. returned to the frame as soon as the bearings are removed
Ans: B Ans: B
5861 An overload in which of the listed motors will result inthe illumination 5862 A current-carrying conductor makes accidental contact with a wiring
of an indicating light at the propulsion control station alarm panel? conduit. This will be indicated by a _____________.

A. Fuel pump motor A. low switchboard wattmeter reading

B. Steering motor B. high switchboard wattmeter reading
C. Condensate pump motor C. darkened switchboard ground detecting lamp
D. Forced draft blower motor D. darkened switchboard synchronizing lamps
Ans: B Ans: C
5863 A change in field excitation of an alternator operating in parallel will 5864 The effect of carrying field excitation excessively high on a
cause a change in its _____________. synchronous motor will result in a _____________.
 Page 326

A. alternator frequency A. tendency for the motor to fall out of step

B. kilowatt load B. tendency for the motor to overspeed
C. voltage output C. tendency for the motor to overheat
D. all of the above D. loss of motor speed regulation
Ans: C Ans: C
5865 A fuse will "blow" if _____________. 5866 The inductance of a coil is measured in _____________.
A. an electric motor is stopped suddenly by opening a switch A. ohms
B. the flow of current to the protection device is reversed B. volts
C. the electrical current exceeds the rated value of the fuse C. henries
D. unequal resistors are connected in parallel D. amperes
Ans: C Ans: C
5867 When a fluorescent lamp fails to light, the trouble can be in the 5868 Electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor; the
_____________. rate of this flow is measured in ___________.
A. lamp A. volts
B. starter B. amperes
C. ballast C. coulombs
D. all of the above D. ohms
Ans: D Ans: B
5869 Which of the following conditions can lead to the failure of a 5870 A circuit with a blown fuse would be described as a/an
resistor? _____________.
A. Excessive vibration A. short circuit
B. Insufficient ventilation B. open circuit
C. Corrosion C. bonded circuit
D. All of the above D. grounded circuit
Ans: D Ans: B
5871 Which of the conditions listed will indicate the need to clean the 5872 Which of the listed devices may be used as a digitaldevice?
insulation on the windings of an electric motor?
A. Higher than normal operating temperature. A. variable resistor
B. Excessive vibration at normal speed. B. diode
C. Sparking at the brushes. C. strain gauge
D. High megger readings. D. thermistor
Ans: A Ans: B
5873 Which of the listed procedures is the best way to tell if a motor has 5874 If a small electric motor is imersed in salt water itshould be
become overloaded? _________. I. washed in fresh water II. dried in an oven
A. Measure the current flow and compare it with the motor full load A. I only
current flow as shown on the nameplate.
B. Feel the motor and judge by the temperature. B. II only
C. Watch for telltale signs of smoke coming from the motor. C. both I and II
D. Periodic opening of the O/L relay coil D. neither I or II
Ans: A Ans: C
5875 On some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing 5876 When an AC or a DC motor fails to start, the FIRST step in
pedestal is insulated from the bedplate. To check this insulation troubleshooting should be to check the ____________.
with the machine assembled you should use a____________.

A. ohmmeter with the machine secured A. motor windings for obvious opens
B. millivolt meter and a jumper with the machine running B. motor controller leads for continuity
C. megohm meter with the machine running C. fuse or circuit breaker
D. voltmeter and ampmeter with the machine running D. motor controller leads for grounds
Ans: B Ans: C
5877 If deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of 5878 Ambient temperature is the _____________.
time you should____________.
A. have electrical safety gloves available in case of electrical shock A. amount of temperature rise with no load
before running
B. perform a "high pot" test to determine the condition of the insulation B. amount of temperature developed by an operating motor

C. water wash the motor and controller to remove any salt that may C. temperature of the compartment where the motor is located
interfere with smooth operation
D. check run at regular intervals to inusre correct operation and to D. normal operating temperature, less the room temperature
renew the internal coating of lubrication
Ans: D Ans: C
5879 A switchboard ammeter indicates a reading slightly above "zero" 5880 Air gap readings should be periodicly taken for electrical generation
when the leads are disconnected, this is caused by equipment. The best tool to use to take these measurements is a
_____________. ___________.
A. mechanical misalignment of the meter pointer A. cloth (non-metalic) tape measure
B. a poor ground for the meter case B. dial indicator
C. static electricity in the air C. inside micrometer
D. capacitors inside the meter storing charges D. tapered, long blade, feeler gage
Ans: A Ans: D
5881 Brush sparking during commutation may be caused by ________. 5882 Air gap readings for electrical generating equipment should be
taken periodicly. This is to _______. I. determine the condition of
the bearings II. prevent damage to the rotor and stator

A. eddy currents in the armature core A. I only

B. laminations in the generator field pieces B. II only
C. induced current opposite to coil inductance C. both I and II
D. coil inductance discharge occurring at commutation D. neither I or II
 Page 327

Ans: D Ans: C
5883 The following air gap readings were obtained from a horizontally 5884 A ground on a particular phase of a three-phase low voltage
mounted, bilge pump, induction motor, equipped with sleeve distribution system would be indicated by a _____________.
bearings: FWD END AFT END Top
.045 .049Right Side .045 .047Left Side .
A. both the aft and foward bearings should be replaced. A. high switchboard wattmeter reading
B. Shims should be removed from the aft bearing. B. low switchboard wattmeter reading
C. The forward bearing should be lowered. C. dark or dim switchboard ground detecting light
D. The aft bearing should be lowered. D. bright switchboard ground detecting light
Ans: A Ans: C
5885 As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery, you 5886 Which of the listed conditions will occur if the polarity of the field
should ___________. poles and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor
were both reversed?
A. inspect electrical wiring and pushbutton switches for evidence of A. The motor would not start.
corrosion or burned insulation
B. disassemble pushbutton switches and drain water each week B. The direction of rotation of the armature would be reversed.

C. remove motor covers and ventilate as weather permits C. The direction of rotation of the armature would be unchanged.

D. Check drum switch contact pressure every three months D. The field pole windings would become overheated.
Ans: A Ans: C
5887 The armature cores of the D.C. motors are constructed with 5888 Equalization of the power factors of two alternators operating in
laminations to ___________. parallel is accomplished _____________.
A. eliminate hysteresis A. manually, by adjusting the governor controls
B. minimize brush sparking B. automatically, by automatic voltage regulators
C. reduce eddy current losses C. manually, adjusting the output of current transformers
D. compensate for armature reaction D. automatically, by the designed action of the governors
Ans: C Ans: B
5889 DC generator voltage is decreased by cutting _____________. 5890 In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps
are provided. If all three lamps REMAIN at half-brilliance when the
ground detecting test switch is operated, ______________.

A. in field resistance A. there is a slight ground on all three phases

B. out field resistance B. the switch must be replaced
C. in armature resistance C. there are no grounds present
D. out armature resistance D. the light bulbs are of improper voltage
Ans: A Ans: C
5891 An open coil in a transformer will be indicated by which ofthe listed 5892 A four-pole induction motor, operating on three-phase 60 cycle
conditions? current will operate at approximately ___________.
A. "zero" resistance accompanied by high inductance A. 850 RPM
B. no resistance accompanied by stray inductance B. 1,150 RPM
C. infinite resistance in addition to no inductance C. 1,750 RPM
D. infinite resistance in addition to normal inductance D. 3,550 RPM
Ans: C Ans: C
5893 An open in the armature of a DC motor is suspected, but is not 5894 An autotransformer is equipped with a 50% tap, a 65% tap, and an
found by visual inspection of the commutator. The next step in 80% tap. Which of the following statements is true concerning a
troubleshooting this problem is to ________________. load connected to the 50% tap?
A. conduct a bar to bar test of the armature A. The load is receiving minimum voltage and minimum current.
B. visually inspect the armature windings B. The load is receiving minimum voltage and maximum current.
C. conduct an insulation resistance test of the armature C. The load is receiving maximum voltage and minimum current.
D. test the commutator for a ground D. The load is receiving maximum voltage and maximum current.
Ans: A Ans: B
5895 A battery is connected to a circuit containing three resistors in 5896 When two generators are on the line and are sharing the load
parallel. The values of the three resistors are 2 ohms, 3 ohms, and equally, they are said to be operating in _____________.
6 ohms. What is the voltage of the battery if the total circuit current
is 12 amps?
A. 2 volts A. frequency
B. 6 volts B. series
C. 12 volts C. parallel
D. 24 volt D. resonance
Ans: C Ans: C
5897 If a DC motor runs hot, the cause may be _____________. 5898 Which of the methods listed is used to maintain the division of load
between two compound-wound, DC generators operating in
parallel?
A. high mica condition A. The shunt fields are interconnected.
B. low ambient temperature B. The shunt field rheostats are interconnected.
C. clogged ventilation ducts C. The series fields of both generators are connected in series.
D. an open in the shunt field D. The equalizer connection parallels the series fields of all machines.

Ans: C Ans: D
5899 An operational amplifier, as used in today's consoles, has a 5900 Damp armature windings in a D.C. motor may lead to
calculated gain of 5. This means that when the input changes ____________.
_____________.
A. 5 volts, the output changes 10 volts A. reduced voltage
B. 10 volts, the output changes 5 volts B. reduced current
C. 2 volts, the output changes 10 volts C. increased resistance
 Page 328

D. 10 volts, the output changes 2 volts D. overheating

Ans: C Ans: D
5901 When the length and cross sectional area of a wire are both tripled, 5902 Universal motors will operate on AC or DC current, and are
the resistance _____________. generally found in _____________.
A. increases nine fold A. portable tools
B. increases three fold B. large pump motors
C. remains the same C. turbo electric main motors
D. decreases six fold D. forced draft fans
Ans: C Ans: A
5903 A diesel driven emergency generator is prevented from being 5904 The energy consumed by an AC motor, as strictly reactive power, is
paralleled with the ship's service generators by __________. _____________.
A. an electrical interlock system A. used to do mechanical work
B. an automatic paralleling trip switch B. used to establish the magnetic field of the motor
C. the synchronizing oscilloscope C. lost as heat generated by the windings
D. the reverse current relay D. lost in doing work to turn the motor itself
Ans: A Ans: B
5905 Which of the listed motors will operate at the highest RPM, 5906 On large generators, space heaters are used to ____________.
assuming that each operates at the same frequency?
A. A four-pole synchronous motor under normal load. A. keep the machine at ambient tmperature of the machinery space

B. A four-pole induction motor under no load.
C. A six-pole synchronous motor under normal load.
D. A six-pole induction motor under full load.
Ans: A
5907 Which of the listed colors properly describes a DC motor
commutator when correct commutation is taking place?
B. maintain rotor and stator winding temperatures above the dew point
to prevent the formation of condensation
C. prevent condensation in the lube oil
D. prevent electrolysis due to condensation in the bearings
Ans: B
5908 An AC generator produces 60 Hz at 1800 RPM. If the generator
speed is increased to 1830 RPM, the cycles will _____________.

A. Shiny blue A. remain at 60 Hz

B. Burnished green B. increase to 61 Hz
C. Brick red C. decrease to 59 Hz
D. Chocolate brown D. increase to 63 Hz
Ans: D Ans: B
5909 A twelve volt lead-acid battery is constructed of _________. 5910 Moisture accumulating in electric motors and generator windings
having a cold insulation resistance greater than 50,000 ohms may
be baked out with internal heat. This heat can be developed by
____________.
A. one cell A. feeding current into the windings at low voltage
B. three cells B. short circuiting the armature and field windings
C. six cells C. short circuiting the field windings and passing current through the
armature
D. twelve cells D. obtaining current from a DC source such as an electric welder and
feeding it into the armature while running the motor at full speed

Ans: C Ans: A
5911 In order to safely carry out repairs to a generator circuit breaker, it 5912 Three 12 volt, lead-acid, batteries connected in series will develop
must be isolated from the bus. This is accomplished by opening __________.
the _____________.
A. reverse power relay A. 12 volts
B. bus disconnect link B. 24 volts
C. generator bus fuse connections C. 36 volts
D. power directional relay D. 48 volts
Ans: B Ans: C
5913 The removal of paint from electrical equipment, such as 5914 An alternator will fail to produce line voltage as a result of
generators, should be cautiously undertaken because _____________.
____________.
A. the mechanical shock of paint removal lessens the dielectric A. a closed circuit breaker
strength of the insulation
B. the paint dust is composed of abrasive and semi-conducting B. oxidized slip rings
materials which impair insulation
C. paint dust buildup has a tendency to cause corrosion C. improperly staggered brushes
D. phase windings frequently become isolated from each other due to D. exciter generator failure
dust interference at the terminals
Ans: B Ans: D
5915 An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate severely and 5916 Severe vibration, accompanied by flashover at the collector rings of
eventually trips out on the reverse power relay. The cause of the an alternator operating in parallel, is a symptom of _____________.
vibration was a result of ______________________.

A. the dropping of load by that alternator A. reverse current motorization

B. overspeeding of the vibrating alternator B. loss of synchronism
C. the alternator was operating out of synchronism C. destructive overspeeding
D. flashover at the alternator collector rings D. reversed polarity
Ans: C Ans: B
5917 Which of the following problems will occur if the circuit breaker of 5918 Voltage failure of an AC generator may be caused by
the incoming alternator is closed and it is 180° out of phase with the ____________.
loaded alternator when paralleling?
 Page 329

A. The rotor of the loaded alternator will hunt. A. failure of the exciter generator
B. Severe cross currents will occur which could cause damage. B. a tripped bus circuit breaker

C. The rotor of the incoming alternator will stop. C. high mica segments on the stator bus bar
D. Both alternators will parallel 180° out of phase. D. excessive prime mover speed
Ans: B Ans: A
5919 According to Regulations , which of the following systems must be 5920 Hysteresis in a direct current generator is indicated by
arranged so as to be energized by the final emergency power _____________.
source?
A. at least one light in the steering gear room A. arcing at the brushes
B. each power operated watertight door system B. pulsating terminal current
C. each charging panel for temporary emergency batteries C. heating of the armature core
D. all of the above D. hunting and over control
Ans: D Ans: C
5921 The most practical method used for resurfacing a ship's service 5922 An open shunt field in a direct current machine may be located by
motor commutator is to _____________. connecting the field circuit to an external power source, equal to the
rated field voltage or less, and tested with a voltmeter from
_____________.
A. turn it down in the ship's lathe A. one line terminal to each coil lead in succession
B. use a grinding rig B. one field coil to each adjacent field coil in turn
C. use a hand stone C. any suitable ground to any available line lead
D. burnish it with commutator stones D. any field pole to each field coil lead
Ans: B Ans: A
5923 Three factors responsible for the change in voltage as load is 5924 The division of the reactive KVA load between paralleled AC
applied to an AC generator are: 1) the drop inresistance in the generators is initiated by the ______________.
armature circuit, 2) the change in flux,and 3) the ____________.

A. armature winding speed A. prime mover governors

B. inductance load drop B. voltage regulators
C. coil pitch factor C. phase balance relay
D. armature reactance voltage drop D. proportioner
Ans: D Ans: B
5925 Which of the following statements about a three-phase wye 5926 According to Regulations , the talking and calling circuits of a sound
connection is correct? powered telephone system must be _____________.
A. The line current is 1.73 times the phase current. A. intrinsically safe
B. The phase current is 1.73 times the line current. B. independent of each other
C. The line voltage is 1.73 times the phase voltage. C. independently grounded
D. The phase voltage is 1.73 times the line voltage. D. connected to a common ground
Ans: C Ans: B
5927 Regulations require that lighting fixture globes must be protected 5928 The emergency electrical power source on tank vessels over 500
by guards if the fixtures are located in the ____________. GT on an international voyage, should be capable of continuous
operation under emergency load for _____________.

A. steering gear room A. 6 hours

B. galley B. 12 hours
C. living quarters C. 18 hours
D. wheelhouse D. 24 hours
Ans: A Ans: C
5929 Which of the following statements concerning electrical cables is 5930 From the standpoint of safety, you should never allow salt water to
correct? enter a lead-acid storage battery or come in contact with sulfuric
acid because ______________.
A. Where they pass through watertight bulkheads, they should be A. the resulting gas is extremely flammable
fitted with watertight stuffing boxes.
B. Electric cable coverings should never be grounded. B. the resulting gas is a respiratory irritant that can be fatal
C. Electrical cables must be rigidly held in place by welding of armored C. the primary constituent, sodium, reacts lethally with lead peroxide
cable, or glued in place where nonmetallic insulation is used.

D. All of the above. D. combining salt water with lead-acid creates an invisible gas
resulting in severe corrosion
Ans: A Ans: B
5931 If overloading a DC machine becomes necessary in an 5932 Which of the following statements of Regulations concerning battery
emergency, you should ____________. installations is correct?
A. cool the machine with portable blowers and fans A. Sign, permanently secured to the battery trays, indicating that
"naked lights or smoking is prohibited in the vicinity" is not
necessary to be posted if trickle charging is used.
B. hold thermal overload relays open with blocks of wood B. When power ventilation is required, blower blades must be
nonsparking and the system must be interlocked with the battery
charger to prevent simultaneous operation.
C. inject small amounts of CO2 into the windings for cooling C. Trays should be chocked with wood strips or equivalent to prevent
movement and each tray should be fitted with nonabsorbent
insulating supports on the bottom.
D. increase the residual magnetism value of windings to reduce eddy D. Power and lighting batteries must be of the lead-acid type only.
currents
Ans: A Ans: C
 Page 330

5933 Unless it can be shown that a 45°C ambient temperature willnot be 5934 Regulations require each switchboard to have mechanical
exceeded, motors within a machinery space must be designed for protection including _______.
an ambient temperature of _____________.
A. 45°C A. closed sides
B. 50°C B. a dripshield
C. 55°C C. a door at each entrance to a rear working space
D. 60°C D. all the above
Ans: B Ans: D
5935 Regulations require that each alternating current generator 5936 When supplying emergency lighting loads, the storage battery initial
arranged for parallel operation shall be provided with voltage must not exceed the standard system voltage by more than
_____________. _____________.
A. more than one means of excitation A. 0.02
B. individual circuit fuses B. 0.03
C. a high back-pressure trip C. 0.05
D. a reverse-power trip D. 0.1
Ans: D Ans: C
5937 When there is a fire in a large electric motor, normally the very 5938 According to Regulations , which of the following statements is the
FIRST step is to ____________. ONLY method allowed to ease the starting of emergency diesel
generator engines?
A. secure the electric supply A. Bayonet-type electrical oil heaters
B. ventilate area to remove smoke B. Steam or hot water lube oil heaters
C. start the fire pump and lead out hose C. Thermostatically controlled electric jacket water heaters
D. apply foam D. Electric resistance heaters in the air intake manifold
Ans: A Ans: C
5939 Which of the following devices for a lifeboat winch electrical circuit 5940 Regulations require that automatic starting emergency diesel
automatically prevents the davit arms of a gravity-type unit from generators assume emergency power loads as soon as
over traveling their tracks when raising the lifeboat? ____________.

A. Master cutout switch A. it is started

B. Emergency disconnect switch
C. Limit switch
D. Clutch interlock switch
Ans: C
5941 Which of the following safeguards can be built into the control 5942
circuit of a remotely operated fire pump to ensure that the pump is
not started with the suction valve closed?
A. The fire pump starting circuit is completed by a limit switch when
the suction valve opens.
B. A normally closed contact opens in the suction valve starter circuit,
and the pump starts immediately upon the pushing of the pump
start button.
C. A normally open contact closes in the fire pump suction valve
starter circuit, and the pump starts immediately upon the pushing of
the pump start button.
D. A time delay relay is de-energized when the "ON" button is pushed,
and the pump starts after a predetermined time delay.
B. the electric potential of the ship's service generators drops 15 to 40
percent below normal value
C. the potential from the emergency generator reaches 85 to 95
percent of its normal value
D. the electric potential of the ship's service generators drops to 15 to
40 percent of normal value
Ans: C
Regulations require that each electrical receptacle is to have a
grounding pole, but only if it ____________.
A. operates at 100 volts or more
B. is in a location exposed to the weather
C. is in a location accessible to other than qualified personnel
D. is connected to a DC source

Ans: A Ans: A
5943 Regulations require a continuous trickle charge is to be supplied 5944 Regulations require that the emergency generator fuel tank on an
from the ship's service power system for batteries supplying power ocean going cargo vessel must be capable of supplying fuel to a
to the _________________. fully loaded engine for a time period of at least ____________.

A. emergency power system for the radar A. 2 hours

B. portable radios for the lifeboats B. 4 hours
C. radios installed in the lifeboats C. 6 hours
D. emergency power and lighting system D. 18 hours
Ans: D Ans: D
5945 In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator's field excitation will 5946 Electric propulsion coupling excitation is reduced at slow speeds to
cause the DC propulsion motor to ________. ___________.
A. increase in speed A. increase speed control
B. decrease in speed B. increase shaft torque
C. affect generator speed only C. prevent coupling overheating
D. affect main motor speed if done in conjunction with higher D. prevent coupling slippage
generator engine speeds
Ans: A Ans: C
5947 An operating characteristic appearing on the name plates of 5948 Low horsepower, polyphase, induction motors can be started with
shipboard AC motors is _____________. full voltage by means of _____________.
A. the type of winding A. compensator starters
B. input kilowatts B. autotransformer starters
C. temperature rise C. across-the-line starters
D. locked rotor torque D. primary-resistor starters
Ans: C Ans: C
 Page 331

5949 A ground can be defined as an electrical connection between the 5950 External shunts are sometimes used with ammeters to_______.
wiring of a motor and its ____________.
A. shunt field A. increase meter sensitivity
B. circuit breaker B. permit shunts with larger resistances to be utilized
C. metal framework C. prevent damage to the meter movement from heat generated by
the shunt
D. interpole D. enable the construction of a compact meter with a virtually unlimited
range
Ans: C Ans: C
5951 Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in anarea of 5952 Which of the following statements represents an application of a
unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating temperatures, an silicon controlled rectifier?
ambient compensating element must be used.This element
consists of a ______________.
A. cylindrical spring on the contact arm A. To provide DC power for a main propulsion motor.
B. conical spring on the contact arm B. For use as a voltage reference diode.
C. second bimetal element C. For sensing flame in an automated burner.
D. second electromagnet D. To eliminate power supply hum.
Ans: C Ans: A
5953 In general, polyphase induction motors can be started on full line 5954 Which of the following statements concerning the maintenance of
voltage by means of ______________. solid-silver contacts in relays and auxiliary control circuits is correct?

A. compensator starters A. When necessary, they should always be dressed with a wire wheel.

B. autotransformer starters B. They should be filed with a fine-cut file when projections extend
beyond the contact surface.
C. across-the-line starters C. When black silver oxide is present, it should always be removed
from the contact surface with coarse sandpaper.
D. primary-resistor starters D. If necessary, they should be held together with moderate pressure
while emery paper is drawn between the contacts.
Ans: C Ans: B
5955 To properly use a hook-on-type volt/ammeter to check current flow, 5956 The use of four diodes, in a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit, will
you must FIRST _____________. __________.
A. de-energize the circuit to allow connection of the instrument in A. provide unidirectional current to the load
series
B. hook the jaws of the instrument around the insulated conductor B. allow a very high leakage current from the load

C. connect the voltage test leads to the appropriate terminals C. convert direct current to alternating current
D. short the test leads and calibrate the instrument to zero D. offer high opposition to current in two directions
Ans: B Ans: A
5957 When troubleshooting electronic equipment, you should use ahigh 5958 Which of the listed devices is used to measure pressure andconvert
impedance multimeter ________________. it to an electrical signal?
A. to prevent excess current flow through the meter that would A. Transducer
damage it
B. for AC measurements only and a low resistance meter for DC B. Reducer
measurements
C. whenever a low impedance meter is not available, regardless of the C. Transformer
components being tested
D. so as not to load down the circuit and obtain erroneous voltage D. Rectifier
readings
Ans: D Ans: A
5959 When reading electrical motor controller diagrams, it helps to know 5960 Which of the following precautions should be taken when
that ____________. troubleshooting various power circuits using a common solenoid-
type mechanical voltage tester (wiggins)?
A. current paths in the control circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in A. Never use this tester on circuits greater than 60 Hz, as the coil's
the power circuit as lighter lines resultant high impedance lowers current and magnetic pull. The
tester may not register dangerous voltages.
B. current paths in the power circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in B. Always remember that the unit is polarity sensitive and if used on
control circuit as lighter lines DC circuits reversing the leads may result in high temperatures
within the tester.
C. circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as heavy lines and C. Never connect the device to circuits where potentials greater than
below 500 volts as lighter lines 120 volts may be present, as the coil's extremely fine wire cannot
withstand more than a few amps.
D. circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as light lines and D. Always pre-set the meter to the next higher range than the amount
below 500 volts as heavy lines of voltage expected in the circuit in order to prevent damage from
an off-scale reading.
Ans: B Ans: A
5961 Which of the motors for the devices listed below is fitted with an 5962 A molded-case circuit breaker provides protection against short
instantaneous overload relay? circuits by using a/an ________________.
A. Fan A. electromagnet
B. Pump B. shading coil
C. Winch C. arc quencher
D. Machine tool D. burn away strip
Ans: C Ans: A
5963 The frequency output of an operating alternator is controlled by the 5964 Which of the following physical characteristics does a wound-rotor
_____________. induction motor possess that a squirrel cage motor does not?
 Page 332

A. relative speed of the rotor poles A. Slip rings

B. number of turns of wire in the armature coil B. End rings
C. strength of the magnets used C. A centrifugal switch
D. output voltage D. End plates
Ans: A Ans: A
5965 The rated temperature rise of an electric motor is the 5966 Which of the following represents the accepted method of cleaning
_____________. dust and foreign particles from electrical equipment while limiting
damage to electric components?
A. average temperature at any given latitude A. Carefully wiping off the components with a soft cotton rag.
B. normal temperature rise above the standard ambient temperature B. Blowing a high velocity stream of compressed air rapidly across the
at rated load components.
C. average temperature rise due to resistance at 10% overload C. Using a vacuum cleaner to remove debris from the components.

D. permissible difference in the ambient temperature of the motor due D. Using carbon tetrachloride as a cleaning solvent to clean the
to existing weather conditions components.
Ans: B Ans: C
5967 The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of distilled 5968 The torque produced by a motor when its shaft will not turn, even
water and _____________. though rated voltage is applied to the stator, is known as
_____________.
A. hydrogen chloride A. locked-rotor torque
B. calcium chloride B. pullout torque
C. sulfuric acid C. breakdown torque
D. muriatic acid D. torque margin
Ans: C Ans: A
5969 Heat sinks are frequently used with _____________. 5970 Incandescent lamps are classified according to __________.
A. power transistors A. shape of bulb and type of service
B. vacuum tubes B. size and style of base
C. tunnel rectifier diodes C. operating voltage and wattage
D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
5971 Which of the following statements describes the significance of 5972 The state of charge of a lead acid storage battery is best indicated
ambient temperature in relation to the service life of electronic by the _____________.
components?
A. Ambient temperature should be as high as possible to drive off A. testing of the individual cell voltages
moisture.
B. Increased ambient temperature decreases the service life of B. ampere hour capacity of the battery
electronic components.
C. Ambient temperature is not significant as long as the relative C. specific gravity of the electrolyte
humidity is kept low.
D. A reduced ambient temperature causes a corresponding reduced D. total cell voltages
service life.
Ans: B Ans: C
5973 Tightly knit metal braid wire can be used with a printed circuit board 5974 The open-circuit voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is
when ___________. _____________.
A. conductor flexibility is required A. 1.5 volts
B. desoldering components in the circuit B. 1.8 volts
C. electrically produced magnetic fluxes would cause inaccuracies in C. 2.0 volts
adjacent components
D. reactance in the circuit must be kept to a minimum D. 2.3 volts
Ans: B Ans: C
5975 Motor controllers are seldom troubled with grounds because 5976 A delayed-action fuse is most frequently used in which of the listed
_____________. circuits?
A. the auxiliary contacts have a high resistance connection A. Lighting circuit
B. the contactors and relays are mounted on a nonconducting panel B. Motor circuit

C. the resistor banks are composed of individual series-connected C. Electric heater circuit
units
D. there are separate switches for the motor and the control D. Radar circuit
Ans: B Ans: B
5977 Electric strip heaters are used in motor controllers to 5978 A fuse that blows often should be replaced only with a fuse of
_____________. _____________.
A. prevent freezing of movable contacts A. the recommended current and voltage rating
B. keep the components at their design ambient temperature B. higher current and voltage rating
C. prevent condensation of moisture C. higher current and lower voltage rating
D. minimize resistance in internal circuits D. lower current and higher voltage rating
Ans: C Ans: A
5979 The output voltage of a three-phase alternator is regulated by the 5980 The function of damper windings in a synchronous motor is to
_____________. _____________.
A. AC voltage to the armature A. eliminate slippage
B. AC voltage to the field B. provide excitation
C. DC voltage to the armature C. provide starting torque
D. DC voltage to the field D. increase efficiency
Ans: D Ans: C
5981 Which of the following statements is true concerning all three-phase 5982 A low-voltage protection circuit is used in electric motor starting
alternators? equipment to _____________.
 Page 333

A. Each has three separate but identical armature windings acted on A. trip circuit contactors when the motor overspeeds due to low
by one system of rotating magnets. voltage
B. Each has one armature winding acted on by three identical but B. trip circuit contactors when the motor develops a short circuit due
separate systems of rotating magnets. to low voltage
C. All three-phase alternators are designed to operate with a 0.8 C. allow the motor to restart automatically on restoration of voltage
leading power factor. without manually resetting
D. The three phases always provide power to the load through three D. prevent the motor from restarting automatically on restoration of
sets of slip rings and brushes. voltage
Ans: A Ans: D
5983 The part of a fuse that melts and opens the circuit is made of 5984 The cross-sectional area of shipboard electrical cable is expressed
_____________. in _____________.
A. copper and antimony A. millimeters
B. steel and babbitt B. gage numbers
C. aluminum or beryllium alloy C. centimeters
D. zinc or an alloy of tin and lead D. circular mils
Ans: D Ans: D
5985 Fuses placed in series with a thermal trip-type circuit breaker are 5986 On an engine throttle control system, the auxiliary control circuits
used for _____________. are provided with devices to prevent excessive overtravel of the
pilot valve by the synchronous motor. These devices are called
_________________.
A. time-delay protection A. overlap sensors
B. short-circuit protection B. limit switches
C. short duration surge protection C. overtravel relays
D. sustained overload protection D. proximity switches
Ans: B Ans: B
5987 The most common source of excitation for synchronous motors is 5988 The type of feature afforded auxiliaries vital to the operation of
a/an _____________. propelling equipment, where automatic restart after a voltage failure
would not create a hazard, is termed _____________.

A. low voltage battery A. low voltage protection

B. motor attenuator set B. high amperage protection
C. DC exciter generator C. low voltage release
D. AC supply D. high amperage release
Ans: C Ans: C
5989 The purpose of DC generator brushes is to _____________. 5990 The most common source of excitation for synchronous motors is
a/an ______________.
A. neutralize armature reaction A. stepup transformer
B. conduct electric current to an outside circuit B. half-wave rectifier
C. convert DC current to AC current C. DC supply
D. provide excitation to a DC generator D. AC supply
Ans: B Ans: C
5991 Which of the listed precautions should be observed before spraying 5992 The simplest method of controlling the terminal voltage of
liquid solvent on the insulation of an electric motor? compound-wound DC generator is with a _____________.
A. Slow the motor down to low speed. A. hand-operated field rheostat connected in series with the shunt field
circuit
B. Disconnect the motor from the power source. B. separate exciter in a series with the shunt field
C. Secure all ventilation in the area. C. carbon pile regulator in series with the load
D. Preheat the insulation to assist in cleaning. D. balance coil diverting neutral current through the shunt field
Ans: B Ans: A
5993 An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular piece of 5994 A compound generator has a no-load voltage of 250 volts anda full-
electric equipment. In addition to the resistance reading, what load voltage of 230 volts, and therefore, is considered to be
information listed below should be entered in the electrical log? _____________.

A. The maximum allowable operating temperature of the machine. A. flat compounded

B. The temperature of the machine at the time the resistance reading B. over compounded
was taken.
C. The normal temperature rise of the machine. C. under compounded
D. The complete nameplate data from the resistance test instrument D. terminal compounded
used to obtain the reading.
Ans: B Ans: C
5995 One method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a DC 5996 Which of the following statements represents the important factor
generator or motor is by connecting the field to a direct current that must be considered when replacing a faultydiode in the exciter
source, at reduced field rated voltage, and test for polarity using rectifier assembly?
a/an ____________.
A. iron bar across each field A. Be certain that the replacement diode is the same polarity as the
one removed.
B. magnetic compass placed near each field B. Never alter the diode alignment to cause a change in the neutral
plane.
C. test lamp across adjacent fields C. Replacement of a diode also requires balancing of the rotor with a
one-piece rotor lamination to be shrunk fit and keyed to the shaft.

D. copper jumper across the interpole connections D. The replacement diode must be dipped in varnish prior to
installation to protect against humidity.
Ans: B Ans: A
 Page 334

5997 Which of the terms listed best describes a compound-woundDC 5998 The purpose of squirrel-cage windings in a synchronous motor is to
generator having a higher voltage at no load than at fullload? ______________.

A. Flat compounded A. provide more precise balancing

B. Over compounded B. produce a higher power factor
C. Under compounded C. eliminate arcing between the stator and the frame
D. Terminal compounded D. provide a means for starting
Ans: C Ans: D
5999 A triac thyristor functions as a control device and is basically 6000 The speed of a squirrel cage induction motor is determined by the
________________. _____________.
A. two NPN transistors in parallel with a common base lead A. diameter of the stator
B. a diode in series with a temperature sensitive capacitor B. number of stator poles
C. two back-to-back SCR's with a common gate lead C. rotor winding resistance
D. a triode tube with an extra heavy grid element D. bar resistance of the conducting rotor
Ans: C Ans: B
6001 Copper is often used as an electrical conductor because it 6002 Under which of the listed conditions can the engine room retake the
_______________. throttle control from the bridge?
A. has high resistance at low temperatures A. Any time it is deemed necessary.
B. has a highly polished surface B. Only with the master's permission.
C. is able to pass current with little opposition C. After a 10 minute delay to the input command.
D. holds insulation together well D. Only after the throttle has been placed in stop.
Ans: C Ans: A
6003 In a 11kw induction-type motor with a cage rotor, the current 6004 A single-phase induction motor having a relatively high starting
required at standstill to produce starting torque is approximately torque, is the ___________.
____________.
A. half the full load current A. shaded pole motor
B. equal to the full load current B. wound-rotor motor
C. five times the full load current C. capacitor-start motor
D. ten to twenty times the full load current D. resistance-start motor
Ans: C Ans: C
6005 A generator has been exposed to water and is being checked for its 6006 The speed of a three-phase squirrel-cage induction-type motor
safe operation. Therefore, it is necessary to _______________. operating in a fixed frequency system is varied by changing the
_____________.
check for shorted coils with a growler
A. A. number of phases to the motor
take moisture readings with a hydrometer
B. B. number of stator poles
test insulation values with a megger
C. C. locked rotor current
ground the commutator, or slip rings and run it at half load for 12
D. D. resistance of the rotor winding
hours
Ans: C Ans: B
6007 Batteries used for diesel engine starting should __________. 6008 The combined effect of inductive reactance, capacitive reactance,
and resistance in an AC series circuit is known as _____________.

A. be located in a locker on the weather deck A. reactance

B. be located as close as possible to the engine B. total reactance
C. have sufficient capacity to provide at least 50 starts consecutively C. impedance
without recharging
D. only be of the nickel alkaline type D. resonance
Ans: B Ans: C
6009 AC circuits develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance. The 6010 When a megohmmeter is used to test insulation, the gradual rise of
inductive reactance of a circuit is expressed in _____________. the pointer reading as a result of continued cranking, is caused by
_____________.
A. ohms A. good conductor resistance
B. mhos B. the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation
C. henrys C. the inductive reactance of the windings
D. farads D. the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation
Ans: A Ans: D
6011 The basic control action of a magnetic amplifier depends upon 6012 During the charging process of storage batteries, the charging
_____________. rooms should be well ventilated because __________.

A. variations in the load capacitance A. without ventilation excessive gassing will occur
B. changes in inductance B. highly poisonous gases are released
C. type of core material C. highly explosive gases will otherwise accumulate
D. construction of the core D. without ventilation the battery will not take a full charge
Ans: B Ans: C
6013 The purpose of an impressed current cathodic protection system 6014 Routine maintenance of lead acid batteries should include
aboard ship is to _______________. _____________.
A. prevent corrosion of the hull, propeller, rudder and line shafting A. keeping the terminals clean

B. neutralize the vessel's stray magnetic fields which would interfere B. coating cable connections with petroleum jelly
with radar
C. protect engine room and deck machinery from oxidation in the C. maintaining a trickle charge
presence of salt air
D. maintain a minimum constant alternator load to prevent D. all of the above
overheating
Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 335

6015 Electrical circuits are protected against overheating bymeans of 6016 The function of a rectifier is similar to that of a _______.
a/an ______________.
A. circuit breaker A. trap
B. amplifier B. regulating valve
C. diode C. check valve
D. capacitor D. filter
Ans: A Ans: C
6017 A circuit is protected from overheating by a/an ___________. 6018 Which of the following devices should be used to measure the
temperature of a battery electrolyte?
A. pyrometer A. Mercury thermometer
B. thermal overload relay B. Alcohol thermometer
C. magnetic contactor C. Thermocouple pyrometer
D. overload transformer D. Potentiometer
Ans: B Ans: B
6019 The seven segment arrangement for numerical display on 6020 Line losses in a distribution circuit are kept to a minimum by
consoles, test meters and other applications can be either __________.
________________.
A. UJT or BJT A. adding rubber insulation conductors to the circuit
B. BCD or OCD B. using higher current and lower voltage
C. JFET or IGFET C. increasing the number of thermal relays in the circuit
D. LED or LCD D. using higher voltage and lower current
Ans: D Ans: D
6021 Which of the following describes the action when the handleis 6022 The multiple prefix "mega" (M) means ____________.
moved to the start position of a drum-type motor controller used
with a compound motor?
A. Full current is supplied to the shunt field, series field, and armature. A. thousand (10 to the 3rd power)

B. Full line current is supplied to the shunt and series fields, and B. million (10 to the 6th power)
reduced current is supplied to the armature.
C. Full line current is supplied to the shunt field, and reduced current C. billion (10 to the 9th power)
is supplied to the series field and the armature.
D. Reduced line current is supplied to the shunt field, series field, and D. trillion (10 to the 12th power)
armature.
Ans: C Ans: B
6023 Armature cores in a DC generator are made of laminated steel 6024 The item referred to as a pigtail on a DC motor brush rigging is a/an
sheets to _____________. ______________.
A. fit the curvature of the frame A. feather spring
B. increase the hysteresis effect B. uninsulated wire
C. reduce eddy current losses C. flexible spring adjuster
D. allow for easy assembly D. brush holder
Ans: C Ans: B
6025 Reversing the current flow through a coil will ___________. 6026 In testing a three-phase delta winding for an open circuit using a
megohmmeter, you must ______________.
A. reduce the amount of flux produced A. test each phase with all connections intact
B. have no effect on the eddy currents produced B. measure the voltage across the open connections while testing

C. reduce the power consumed C. test the windings as parallel groups to avoid short circuiting
D. reverse its two-pole field D. open the delta-connections to avoid shunting the phase being
tested
Ans: D Ans: D
6027 The direction of rotation of an induction motor is ________. 6028 An insulation resistance reading is taken at 20°C and found to be
10 megohms. What would you expect the resistance reading to be
at 40°C?
A. opposite the rotating field direction A. 2.5 megohms
B. the same as the direction of the rotating field B. 10 megohms
C. determined by the number of poles C. 15 megohms
D. determined by the staggering of the brushes D. 20 megohms
Ans: B Ans: A
6029 The sub-multiple prefix "milli" (m) means ____________. 6030 When a solid-state component of an electronic circuit is mounted to
a metallic mass, the general purpose of that mass is to
____________.
A. one thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) A. prevent vibration damage to delicate components
B. one millionth (10 to the -6th power) B. prevent mechanical damage to solid-state components
C. one billionth (10 to the -9th power) C. dissipate stray magnetic currents
D. one trillionth (10 to the -12th power) D. act as a heat sink
Ans: A Ans: D
6031 When charging lead-acid batteries, the charging rate should be 6032 One feature of the operational amplifier is that it can have
reduced as the battery nears its full charge to ____________. ____________.

A. prevent damaging battery plates A. up to ten outputs

B. allow equalization of cell voltages B. binary coded decimal inputs
C. reduce lead sulfate deposits C. several hundred amps at the output
D. increase lead peroxide formation D. inverting and non-inverting inputs
Ans: A Ans: D
6033 A saturable reactor uses relatively small DC currents to control 6034 A signal derived from a controlled function and returned to the
_______________. initiating point is called a/an ____________.
 Page 336

A. high frequency low power loads A. monitoring signal

B. low frequency low power loads B. inverse signal
C. high frequency high power loads C. reverse signal
D. low frequency high power loads D. feedback signal
Ans: D Ans: D
6035 A shaded-pole motor is a ____________. 6036 To provide its unique characteristics to analog circuits, the
operational amplifier is made up of a/an______________.
A. synchronous motor A. voltage amp, current amp and output amp
B. three-phase induction motor B. input amp, power amp and output amp
C. compound-wound motor C. scaling amp, power amp and voltage amp
D. single-phase induction motor D. differential amp, voltage amp and output amp
Ans: D Ans: D
6037 The mica used in the commutators of DC machinery is 6038 When starting a DC propulsion motor the variable rheostat must
_____________. FIRST be turned ____________.
A. harder than copper A. all the way to the run position then quickly back to slow
B. softer than copper B. to the slow position then gradually moved to full speed
C. the same hardness as the copper C. to the mid position
D. softer than copper but wears away at a slower rate D. quickly to the run position
Ans: A Ans: B
6039 To determine if a stator coil is grounded, you should use a/an 6040 In an impressed current cathodic protection system, the anode is
_____________. ____________.
A. ammeter A. connected to the hull and deteriorates with time
B. ground detection lamp B. insulated from the hull and does not waste away
C. magneto C. connected to the hull but does not waste away
D. megger D. insulated from the hull but deteriorates with time
Ans: D Ans: B
6041 When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, 6042 Which of the following types of DC motors has its field connected in
current leakage along the surface of the insulation is indicated by parallel with its armature?
the megohmmeter's pointer _____________.

A. dipping toward zero then raising slowly A. Counter EMF

B. continually rising as test voltage is applied B. Shunt
C. kicking slightly down scale as voltage is applied C. Salient pole
D. fluctuating around a constant resistance reading D. Series
Ans: C Ans: B
6043 When checking the specific gravity of the battery electrolyte with a 6044 Basic operating characteristics of the operational amplifier such as
hydrometer, you should be aware that ________________. gain and stability are the function of its _____________.

A. the battery is fully charged when the float sinks deepest into the A. differential input stage
electrolyte
B. the battery is discharged when the float is highest in the electrolyte B. power output stage

C. a hydrometer reading is accurate if taken immediately after water is C. feedback circuit

added to the cell
D. warm temperatures will lower the specific gravity of the electrolyte D. supply voltages

Ans: D Ans: C
6045 The sub-multiple prefix "nano" (n) means ____________. 6046 A switchboard, for a AC electrical distribution system, will be
provided with which of the following components?
A. thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) A. Frequency meter.
B. millionth (10 to the -6th power) B. Ammeter
C. billionth (10 to the -9th power) C. Voltmeter
D. trillionth (10 to the -12th power) D. All of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
6047 A generator is prevented from becoming motorized by the use of 6048 Which type of AC single-phase motor will also operate on direct
a/an _____________. current?
A. overspeed trip A. Split-phase
B. reverse power relay B. Series-wound
C. back pressure trip C. Shaded-pole
D. governor controls D. Repulsion-start
Ans: B Ans: B
6049 Aboard ship, a grounded field coil in an AC motor can be 6050 The electrical energy necessary to power a sound-powered
determined by using a _________________. telephone's small vibrating bell is obtained from _________.
A. portable growler A. the emergency batteries for the general alarm
B. galvanometer B. each station's hand-cranked generator
C. visual inspection C. the emergency switchboard
D. megohmmeter D. normal 115 volt DC supplies
Ans: D Ans: B
6051 A testing device called a "growler" is being used to locate a shorted 6052 A DC shunt generator has its field windings connected in
coil in the stator of an AC electrical machine. When the "feeler" is _____________.
moved over a slot containing the shorted coil _____________.

A. a loud growling noise will be heard A. series with the series windings
B. any vibration within the feeler will cease B. parallel with the field rheostat
C. the meter needle will be deflected to zero C. series with the armature windings
D. the meter needle will be deflected to full-scale D. parallel with the armature windings
 Page 337

Ans: A Ans: D
6053 The sub-multiple prefix "pico" (p) means ____________. 6054 Which of the following statements concerning a simple parallel
resistance circuit is correct?
A. thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) A. The voltage drop across each resistor is the same.
B. millionth (10 to the -6th power) B. The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the
individual currents.
C. billionth (10 to the -9th power) C. The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistances.

D. trillionth (10 to the -12th power) D. The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across
each resistance.
Ans: D Ans: A
6055 The resistance value of a resistor in a circuit can best be 6056 On AC vessels, which of the following statements represents the
determined by the _____________. most difficult problem involved in obtaining a DC potential suitable
for use by computer components?
A. single solid body color of the resistor A. A stepdown transformer is always required.
B. band markings on the resistor B. Vessel vibrations affect the voltage source.
C. amperage value written on the resistor C. The voltage must be rectified and made ripple free.
D. physical size of the resistor D. Rectifiers cannot operate with voltage regulators.
Ans: B Ans: C
6057 A shunt-wound DC generator is one in which the shunt field 6058 The rotor of a synchronous motor operates in synchronism with the
windings are in parallel with the _____________. rotating field because ______________.
A. commutator A. of the amortisseur windings
B. brushes B. the rotor is magnetically locked into step with the rotating magnetic
field by the excitation current
C. armature C. the field strength varies directly with rotor slip
D. all of the above D. the stator flux rotates in the opposite direction
Ans: D Ans: B
6059 Hand-portable phase sequence indicators should be used when 6060 The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators is
____________. determined by the _____________.
A. installing a new synchroscope A. amount of field excitation to the leading machine
B. preparing to make the shore power connection B. load-speed characteristics of the governors
C. replacing a defective solenoid C. amount of field excitation to the lagging machine
D. all of the above D. number of field poles per alternator
Ans: B Ans: B
6061 A breakable, mercury-filled thermometer should not be used in a 6062 Which of the following statements is true concerning simple parallel
lead-acid battery to measure electrolyte temperature, as an resistance circuits?
accidental breakage can cause ____________.
A. severe sparking and explosions A. The total current flow equals the sum of the individual currents.

B. rapid oxidation of battery plates B. The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the
individual currents.
C. violent gassing at the positive plates C. The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistance.

D. corrosion on the battery terminals D. The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across
each resistance.
Ans: A Ans: A
6063 The pushbutton on the handset of a ship's sound-powered 6064 When troubleshooting an electronic circuit, a cold solder joint can
telephone must be depressed to ______________. be located with the aid of an ohmmeter. Once the problem has
been located, you should _________________.
A. talk then released to listen A. reheat the circuit in an oven to an even temperature and recheck
with an ohmmeter
B. listen then released to talk B. reheat the connection with a match and recheck with an ohmmeter

C. both talk and listen C. reheat connection with a soldering tool and recheck with an
ohmmeter
D. ring the station being called D. do nothing as this is the normal condition
Ans: C Ans: C
6065 During its operation, loud buzzing and resultant welding of contacts 6066 Although saturable reactors are extremely useful in some
of a magnetic relay may be caused by __________. applications, their gain is low because of ____________.
A. overheating of the contactor coil A. core hysteresis losses
B. low voltage on the operating coil B. inductive reactance in the control winding
C. low insulation resistance to ground C. IR drop throughout the load winding
D. lubrication of the contact bearing points D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: A
6067 Most three-phase induction motors of five horsepower or less, are 6068 If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out when the coil voltage
started by _____________. is removed from the relay, the probable cause may be
_____________.
A. autotransformer starters A. excessive spring tension
B. resistor starters B. overvoltage
C. across-the-line starters C. excessive current
D. reactor starters D. welded contacts
Ans: C Ans: D
6069 The synchronous speed of an induction motor is the ________. 6070 In a simple series circuit, the entire source voltage will drop across
______________.
A. speed at which the rotor turns A. the resistor next to the negative terminal
B. speed of the rotating field B. a short circuit
 Page 338

C. frequency of the rotor current C. the resistor next to the positive terminal
D. slip in per cent of rotor RPM D. an open circuit
Ans: B Ans: D
6071 An across-the-line starter provides ___________________. 6072 Excessive heat in an operating motor controller can result from
_____________.
A. maximum torque A. a closed starter contact
B. slow starting power B. loose connections
C. high speed C. missing arc chutes
D. reduced voltage D. low motor starting torque
Ans: A Ans: B
6073 The speed of a wound-rotor induction motor _____________. 6074 If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a magnetic motor
controller, you should ____________.
A. will be fixed by the number of field poles A. assume that the motor is operating at a full load
B. can be varied by a rheostat-type control B. assume that the controller is operating normally
C. can only be synchronous speed at full load C. notify the electrician or watch engineer of the problem
D. can only attain synchronous speed at no load D. feel the outside of the casing with your hand to see if it is hot
Ans: B Ans: C
6075 Which of the following conditions indicates a short circuited 6076 Which of the following will happen to the alternator frequency if the
capacitor when checking its condition with an ohmmeter? load is removed from a turbogenerator, whose governor has a 3%
speed droop?
A. The capacitor shows charging, but the final resistance reading is A. It will remain unchanged.
appreciably less than normal.
B. The reading is practically zero and remains there. B. It will decrease by approximately 3%.
C. The capacitor shows no charging action, but indicates a very high C. It will become variable.
resistance.
D. The pointer moves quickly to the low resistance side of the scale, D. It will increase.
then slowly recedes toward infinity.
Ans: B Ans: D
6077 A resistor placed in parallel to the output of a power supply 6078 With both ends of a three conductor cable disconnected and
_____________. arranged without the conductors touching each other, an
ohmmeter reading of "zero" ohms between the ends of one
conductor would indicate _____________.
A. is a temperature compensator A. continuity
B. corrects power factor B. a partial ground
C. prevents excessive currents C. the resistance is infinite
D. aids in output voltage regulation D. a short circuit
Ans: D Ans: A
6079 In troubleshooting a circuit in a console, you find that a resistor may 6080 The state of charge of a lead-acid battery is best indicated by the
be faulty. Which of the precautions listed must be observed when ____________.
using an ohmmeter to carry out this test?
A. Correct polarity must be observed, connecting the red lead to the A. individual cell voltage
banded end of the resistor.
B. Meter leads must be twisted to cancel the leads' magnetic fields. B. ampere-hour capacity

C. The meter must be placed in series with the resistor and the circuit. C. electrolyte specific gravity

D. The resistor's circuit must be de-energized and at least one end of D. total cell voltage
the component isolated.
Ans: D Ans: C
6081 For practical purposes, in a simple series circuit, the source 6082 If both the "high level" and "low level" alarms come on for the same
voltage will be dropped across one resistor if it has address of a centralized control console, the most likely problem is
______________. a/an ____________.
A. half the resistance of the other resistor A. sensor failure
B. a resistance equal to the other B. failed alarm
C. at least ten times the resistance of the other C. low level
D. a partial short circuit D. extremely high level
Ans: C Ans: A
6083 You have installed a Zener diode in parallel with a load. While 6084 Violent gassing from a lead-acid battery while it is being charged,
measuring the voltage across the Zener diode it is found that it indicates that the _____________.
does not change as the current through the load increases. This
means that the Zener diode __________.
A. is working as it should A. plate separators are grounded
B. is shorted B. battery compartment ventilation is inadequate
C. is open C. electrolyte specific gravity is too low
D. does not regulate as it should D. charging rate is too high
Ans: A Ans: D
6085 A burned-out LED should be indicated by _____________. 6086 When a lead-acid battery begins gassing freely while receiving a
normal charge, the charging current should be _____________.

A. excessive output A. increased

B. a slight glow in the crystal B. shut off
C. excessive illumination C. decreased
D. no illumination D. unchanged
Ans: D Ans: C
6087 Motor controller or starter contacts may become pitted and welded 6088 Transformer cores are laminated to reduce _____________.
together if the contacts _____________.
 Page 339

A. open under loaded conditions A. eddy currents

B. close slowly with light pressure B. secondary flux
C. open too quickly and arc C. leakage flux
D. close quickly with proportionate pressure D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: A
6089 The governor control switch of an alternator is moved to the "raise" 6090 Which of the following statements is true concerning the operating
position. This action will _____________. characteristics of a squirrel-cage motor?
A. raise the no-load speed setting of the governor A. Rotor slip is dependent upon the motor load.
B. raise the percentage of speed droop B. An increase in motor load results in less slip.
C. lower the no-load speed setting of the governor C. A decrease in rotor speed results in less generated current.
D. lower the percentage of speed droop D. A decrease in rotor speed produces a weaker magnetic field.
Ans: A Ans: A
6091 As an armature revolves within a magnetic field, friction 6092 To test fuses in an energized circuit, you should use a
isdeveloped between the rotated magnetized particles as they pass ____________.
through each magnetization cycle. This results in ____________.

A. copper loss A. low voltage light bulb

B. eddy-current loss B. megohmmeter
C. hysteresis loss C. voltmeter
D. armature reaction D. resistance meter
Ans: C Ans: C
6093 The proper way to mix the electrolyte for a battery is to add 6094 In order to increase its range of measurement, a resistancewould
_____________. be placed in series with which of the following instruments?

A. acid to alkaline water A. DC voltmeter

B. acid to distilled water B. DC ammeter
C. alkaline water to acid C. frequency meter
D. distilled water to acid D. power factor meter
Ans: B Ans: A
6095 When mixing electrolyte for a lead-acid storage battery, 6096 If the approximate voltage to be measured in a circuit isnot known,
______________. you should _____________.
A. stirring should always be avoided A. use the lowest voltage range on the voltmeter
B. a lead container should always be used B. connect the meter in series with the circuit
C. always pour the water into the acid C. only have to calibrate the meter before using it
D. always pour the acid into the water D. use the highest voltage range on the voltmeter
Ans: D Ans: D
6097 Caution must be exercised during the charging of lead-acid storage 6098 When the current flow through a copper wire increases, its
batteries as _____________. _____________.
A. the acid will become weaker A. resistance will decrease
B. hydrogen gas is being continuously liberated B. insulation will burn
C. both plates are changing chemically to lead sulfate C. temperature will increase
D. lead peroxide in the negative plate is poisonous D. conductivity will increase
Ans: B Ans: C
6099 While testing a semi-conductor diode with an ohmmeter, both the 6100 The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery is
forward and reverse readings are almost in the infinity range. This measured by a _____________.
would indicate that the unit is _____________.
A. good A. gould plate
B. open B. titration pipette
C. grounded C. hydrometer
D. shorted D. litmus paper test
Ans: B Ans: C
6101 Capacitance in an AC circuit will _____________. 6102 Which of the following activities occurs during the charging process
of a lead-acid storage battery?
A. stop current flow once the capacitor is fully charged A. The specific gravity of the acid increases.
B. allow current flow in only one direction B. Both plates change chemically to lead sulfate.
C. oppose any change in circuit voltage C. The specific gravity of the acid decreases.
D. rectify the current D. Hydrogen gas is absorbed.
Ans: C Ans: A
6103 Magnet chatter or "pumping" occurring in a magnetic contactor 6104 Which of the following characteristics is most critical in determining
can be caused by ______________. the size of the cable to be used in a particular circuit?

A. dirt or grease on pole faces A. voltage rating

B. mechanical interference in the contacts B. weight per unit length
C. chattering contacts on the control relay C. current rating
D. magnetic lock out of the contacts D. inductance per unit length
Ans: C Ans: C
6105 Shunt, series, and compound wound motors, are all DC motors 6106 Motor starter or controller contacts may become welded together if
designed to operate from _____________. the contacts _____________.
A. constant potential, variable current DC sources A. open too quickly and arc
B. variable potential, constant current DC sources B. close under excessive pressure
C. variable potential, variable current DC sources C. open or close too quickly
D. constant potential, constant current DC sources D. close under excessive starting current
Ans: A Ans: D
6107 Which of the following devices are protected from being motorized 6108 An advantage of DC motors over AC motors is that they
by a reverse-power relay? _____________.
A. Alternators A. are less expensive
 Page 340

B. Wave guides B. require less maintenance

C. Exciters C. can be started across the line
D. Amplidynes D. offer a more effective means of controlling speed
Ans: A Ans: D
6109 Before using a volt-ohmmeter to measure resistance readings, you 6110 To equalize the power factor of two alternators operating in parallel,
should _____________. the ____________.
A. replace all batteries A. field excitation of both units is adjusted
B. test the insulation resistance of the leads B. governors of both units are adjusted
C. make sure the test leads do not touch C. phase sequence is altered
D. hold the leads together and "zero" the meter D. kilowatt load is evenly divided
Ans: D Ans: A
6111 When you check the specific gravity of the battery electrolyte with 6112 The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always ____________.
a hydrometer, it should be kept in mind that ____________.

A. the battery is fully charged when the indicator floats low in the
electrolyte
B. any water that has been previously added to the cells will dilute the
solution and give a false reading
C. a hydrometer reading is inaccurate if taken immediately after water
is added to the cell
D. temperature has no effect on hydrometer readings
Ans: C
6113 If the resistance of a circuit is cut in half and the applied voltage is
kept constant, the current flow will be _____________.
A. larger than that of the branch with the greatest resistance
B. smaller than that of the branch with the lowest resistance
C. equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances
D. equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances divided by the
number of branches
Ans: B
6114 The power factor at which a paralleled AC generator operates is
usually adjusted by the _____________.

A. doubled A. connected load

B. quadrupled B. prime mover speed
C. unchanged C. field excitation
D. cut in half D. generator's rated voltage
Ans: A Ans: C
6115 If the excitation is increased to one of two alternators operating in 6116 In a series wound motor, the current passing through the field
parallel, the _____________. windings is also passing through the _____________.
A. power factor will change in the lagging direction A. armature
B. power factor will change in the leading direction B. shunt field
C. kilowatt load will be greatly increased C. reactance comparator
D. ampere load will be greatly decreased D. laminations
Ans: A Ans: A
6117 The power factor of an AC generator operating singularly is 6118 The speed of a series wound winch motor is controlled by
determined by the __________. ____________.
A. connected load A. varying the voltage applied to the motor
B. prime mover speed B. the weight of the load on the cargo boom
C. field excitation C. overcurrent protection devices in the motor
D. generator's rated voltage D. a hydraulic speed-limiting governor
Ans: A Ans: A
6119 Why is it desirable to operate paralleled AC generators at the same 6120 The charge of a lead-acid battery is checked with a
power factor? _____________.
A. Circulating currents are kept to a minimum. A. manometer
B. Field excitation losses are kept to a minimum. B. hydrometer
C. Generator rotors will have a lesser tendency to hunt. C. viscosimeter
D. Because a power factor increase will decrease kilowatt output. D. ohmmeter

Ans: A Ans: B
6121 If a 6 volt battery were connected in series with a 24 volt battery by 6122 You can determine if a circuit breaker has tripped by
putting their negative terminals together, what would be the result? ________________.

A. "Zero" volts A. examining the position of the handle

B. 12 volts of the opposite polarity B. checking for which of the breakers is warm
C. 18 volts, positive on the 24 volt battery C. looking for a burned-out link
D. 30 volts, negative on the 24 volt battery D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: A
6123 Which of the following statements describes what will happen when 6124 A slow continual loss of electrolyte level from one cell of a storage
both the polarity of the field poles, and the direction of current to the battery could be due to _______________.
brushes of a DC motor are reversed?

A. The motor will not start. A. a cracked casing

B. The direction of rotation of the armature will be reversed. B. too low a charging rate
C. The direction of rotation of the armature will remain the same. C. the specific gravity being higher than normal
D. The field pole windings will become overheated. D. one filler cap installed too tightly
Ans: C Ans: A
6125 The basic meter movement responds to the flow of current through 6126 When power is restored after a complete power failure, a steering
its coil. Therefore, this meter movement may be used as a/an gear pump motor will ____________.
_____________.
A. voltmeter by placing a resistance in parallel with the coil A. have to be restarted
B. ohmmeter by placing another meter movement in parallel with the B. have to be reset
coil
 Page 341

C. wattmeter by placing a battery in parallel with the coil C. restart automatically

D. ammeter by placing a low resistance in parallel with the coil D. trip its overload relays
Ans: D Ans: C
6127 When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days 6128 Proper storage battery maintenance includes ____________.
_________________.
A. lift the brushes and disconnect the pigtails A. keeping connections tight and casing surfaces clean
B. insulate the collector rings with strips of cardboard B. making sure electrolyte level is below the separator plates
C. energize the heater circuit C. insulating the terminals with naval jelly
D. open the equalizing bus disconnect switch D. maintaining a high charging rate at all times
Ans: C Ans: A
6129 The true power indicated by the pointer movement of a wattmeter 6130 The shunt of a DC ammeter should be connected in __________.
depends on the current flow through the load, the magnitude of the
potential across the load, and the ____________.

A. power factor of the load A. series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement
B. angle of coil displacement B. parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement
C. inertia of the movable coil C. parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement
D. high resistance from the load D. series with the load and in series with the meter movement
Ans: A Ans: A
6131 Due to the operating characteristics of the system, time lag fuses 6132 Loss of or weak residual magnetism in an alternator or generator
(or dual-element fuses) are necessary for use in _____________. can be corrected for by _________________.

A. main lighting circuits A. running the rotor in the opposite direction for 5 minutes
B. motor starting circuit B. allowing the generator to run at 10% of normal speed for 5 minutes

C. emergency lighting circuits C. running the generator at normal speed with the field rheostat fully
counterclockwise
D. general alarm circuits D. using a storage battery or battery charger to "flash" the field
Ans: B Ans: D
6133 Cleaning of electrical insulation should be _____________. 6134 The plates of a NiCad storage battery are made of ________.
A. done every six months A. potassium hydroxide with a small amount of sulfuric acid
B. accomplished every 12 months B. lead and lead peroxide
C. determined by need and not the calendar C. silver oxide and lead sulfate
D. performed whenever the electrician is not otherwise busy D. combinations of nickel powder and nickel & cadmium salts
Ans: C Ans: D
6135 Relative to the direction of rotation, a D.C. motor commutating 6136 One method of troubleshooting digital circuits in a console is to
pole has the same polarity as the _____________. ___________.

A. main pole following A. supply alternate logic levels at the input(s) and test for change of
state conditions at the output
B. interpole following B. ground all inputs and test for a logic "1" at the output
C. main pole preceding C. open all inputs and test for a logic "0" at the output
D. interpole preceding D. vary each input smoothly from 0-10 volts and test for similar
variance at the output
Ans: C Ans: A
6137 Which of the following meters uses a shunt connected in series 6138 Electrical machinery insulation will break down more rapidly due to
with the load, but parallel with the meter movement? _________________.
A. voltmeter A. low loading of motors and generators
B. power factor meter B. frequent megger testing
C. wattmeter C. high temperatures and vibration
D. ammeter D. high operating frequencies
Ans: D Ans: C
6139 Which of the listed ranges represents specific gravity corrected for 6140 The operator of electrical motors should keep a constant check on
temperature for the electrolyte of a fully charged portable lead-acid the loads they carry because _____________.
battery?
A. 1.100 to 1.150 A. low loads necessitate frequent insulation cleaning
B. 1.180 to 1.200 B. exceeding nameplate values shortens useful life
C. 1.280 to 1.300 C. energy is wasted if full loading is not utilized
D. 1.750 to 2.000 D. power factor correction methods are load dependent
Ans: C Ans: B
6141 When troubleshooting a console circuit card which is suspected of 6142 The amount of mechanical force or torque produced by an electric
being faulty, the first step would be to _____. motor depends on the ________________.
A. pull the card and measure the value of all resistors A. strength of its magnetic field
B. check for the correct value and polarity of all power connections to B. amount of armature current flow
the card
C. pull the card and visually inspect for burned components C. length of conductor in the field
D. check for continuity of circuit board traces and then the gain of each D. all of the above
transistor
Ans: B Ans: D
6143 The life expectancy of electrical insulation, is approximately halved 6144 Under normal conditions, storage batteries used for starting the
for an increased operating temperature of _______________. emergency diesel generator are maintained in a charged state by
which of the following methods?
A. 10° C A. Trickle charging
B. 25° C B. Fast charging
C. 50° C C. Equalizing charge
D. 100° C D. Reverse charging
 Page 342

Ans: A Ans: A
6145 When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being 6146 A useful instrument for checking A.C. motor performance by
faulty, first check for proper voltages to the card and then measuring possible unbalanced currents is the _____________.
_______________.
A. test transistors or integrated circuits for gain and compare with A. hand or battery-operated megger
manufacturer's specifications
B. blow any accumulated dust from the card with at least 2kg/cm2 air B. vibrating-reed frequency meter
from the ship's service air system
C. pull the card, clean the sliding connections with a pencil eraser, and C. hook-on voltmeter-ammeter
remove accumulated dust
D. de-energize the card and check the printed circuit traces for D. D'Arsonval iron-vane probe
continuity with an ohmmeter
Ans: C Ans: C
6147 What is the approximate voltage produced by a nickel-cadmium 6148 You are using a mechanical voltage tester to check the fuses in a
battery cell? three-phase circuit supplying an electric motor. For which of the
following reasons must the motor be stopped during the test?

A. 1.25 volts A. Testing an energized circuit presents a hazard to the testing

personnel.
B. 1.50 volts B. A faulty fuse could go undetected with the motor energized.
C. 2.20 volts C. Reversed polarity of the circuit would be indicated by the voltage
tester with the circuit energized.
D. 6.05 volts D. All of the above.
Ans: A Ans: B
6149 The voltage of an operating AC turbogenerator is raised or lowered 6150 To properly seat the brushes on slip rings, you should use
by adjusting the _____________. ____________.
A. exciter generator governor controls A. sand paper
B. synchronizing switch B. crocus cloth
C. phase sequence switch C. emery cloth
D. generator field exciter D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: A
6151 When a battery-charging panel is being used, the batteries will 6152 Routine A.C. motor maintenance should include periodic
discharge if _____________. ______________.
A. DC voltage is supplied A. thermometer readings at normal loads to detect abnormal
temperature rises
B. the polarity is reversed B. inspection of the motor's internals for loose rotor bars or field poles

C. the voltage fluctuates C. bearing replacement each year using sealed units if available

D. too little current is supplied D. all of the above

Ans: B Ans: A
6153 When replacing fuses, always make sure _______________. 6154 Periodic testing of circuit breakers is necessary to assure that a
correctly rated and properly installed unit _________________.

A. to stand on a rubber mat and use rubber gloves A. can trip faster as it increases in age
B. to use insulated pliers or screwdriver B. will continue to provide the original degree of protection
C. the fuse clips are straight, tight, and in good contact C. does not exceed its interrupting capacity
D. to increase the fuse rating 10% to guard against "nuisance blowing" D. be able to withstand at least 125% of applied voltage

Ans: C Ans: B
6155 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the 6156 Periodic testing by a shoreside support technician using a special
synchroscope pointer is revolving in the slow direction. This camera which can detect potentially dangerous loose or corroded
indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is bus bar and controller connections is termed ______________.
_____________.
higher than the bus frequency
A. A. heat sensitive thermography
lower than the bus frequency
B. B. visual pyrotronics
the same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it
C. C. corrosion electrolysis
the same as the bus frequency, and the circuit breaker may be
D. D. electric vibroanalysis
closed at any pointer position
Ans: B Ans: A
6157 When troubleshooting a motor controller, all indications are that a 6158 Materials that retain a large part of their magnetization, after the
relay coil should be energized. If there were no magnetic pull, with magnetizing force is removed, are said to have _____________.
rated voltage measured across the coil, the most probable cause
would be that the _________________.

A. coil is open A. low hysteresis loss

B. control fuse is open B. high flux density
C. auxiliary contact in series with the coil is defective C. high permanence
D. relay armature is stuck D. high permeability
Ans: A Ans: C
6159 Which of the following procedures represents the best method to 6160 Ambient temperature is the _____________.
prevent the freezing of batteries continuously exposed to low
temperatures?
A. The battery caps should be removed. A. amount of temperature rise with no load
B. The battery cap vents should be sealed. B. temperature of the compartment where the motor is located
C. The battery should be kept in a fully charged condition. C. normal operating temperature, less the room temperature
 Page 343

D. The battery should be disconnected from its charging source. D. amount of temperature developed by an operating motor

Ans: C Ans: B
6161 Electric circuits are protected against overloads and short circuits 6162 In addition to testing the calibration of a circuit breaker,
by means of a/an ______________. maintenance should include all of the following EXCEPT
______________.
A. circuit breaker A. changing out of magnetic elements and thermal heaters yearly

B. amplifier B. checking for corrosion, accumulation of dirt and thermal fatigue

C. diode C. inspecting for loose or missing parts

D. capacitor D. making sure foreign matter does not block tripping element
Ans: A Ans: A
6163 When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, 6164 While paralleling two (2) AC generators using synchronizing lamps
current leakage along the surface of the insulation is indicated by only, both lamps will go dark when the generators are
the megohmmeter pointer _____________. ____________.

A. fluctuating around a constant resistance reading A. running at the same speed

B. dipping towards "zero", then rising slowly B. grounded
C. kicking slightly downscale as voltage is applied C. of the same polarity
D. continually rising as the test voltage is applied D. in phase
Ans: C Ans: D
6165 A lead-acid battery cell sustaining a short circuit _______. 6166 The propeller shaft speed in a turbo-electric, synchronous,
propulsion drive motor is changed by varying the __________.

A. will be indicated by lime accumulation on the terminal posts A. turbine speed

B. will have unusually high cell voltage B. number of motor poles
C. will become excessively heated while being charged C. field strength of the generator
D. cannot be completely discharged under load D. field strength of the motor
Ans: C Ans: A
6167 A fuse will blow for all the listed reasons EXCEPT ________. 6168 Two contributors of electronic console failures are heat and
vibration. To combat some of their effects, preventive maintenance
procedures should include ______________.
A. excessive vibration A. systematic rotation of circuit cards with those from spares to allow
component cooling
B. extremely hot surroundings B. periodic changing or cleaning of console ventilation and control
room air conditioning filters
C. loose fuse clips C. weekly tightening of console foundation bolts and changing of the
air in the control room
D. low contact resistance within the fuse D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: B
6169 In general, D.C. propulsion motor brush sparking can be caused by 6170 Automatic voltage regulators provided on switchboards function to
_______________. _____________.
A. incorrect brush grade, pressure or position A. regulate the AC load on the generator
B. a concentric commutator B. protect the switchboard from high voltage
C. a dark chocolate colored commutator C. govern prime mover speed to control voltage
D. all of the above D. vary the field excitation to the generators
Ans: A Ans: D
6171 In which of the situations listed will a megohmmeter give the most 6172 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the
accurate readings? synchroscope pointer is revolving in the fast direction. This indicates
that the frequency of the incoming machine is _____________.

A. While the machine is in operation. A. higher than the bus frequency

B. While the machine is discharging static electricity. B. lower than the bus frequency
C. Immediately prior to restarting the machine. C. the same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it
D. When the machine has been shut down and grounded for a period D. the same as the bus frequency and the circuit breaker may be
of 15 minutes. closed at any pointer position
Ans: D Ans: A
6173 The most practical way to control the voltage output of an AC 6174 Which of the instruments listed could be use to locate a grounded
generator is to vary the _____________. field coil in a synchronous motor?
A. number of windings A. Ammeter
B. speed of the rotating field B. Voltmeter
C. strength of the rotating magnetic field C. Megohmmeter
D. power factor of the load D. Frequency meter
Ans: C Ans: C
6175 One important difference between wye-connected and delta- 6176 A megohmmeter is used to measure _____________.
connected generators is that delta connections have
____________.
A. line voltages equal to the vector sum of the phase voltages A. voltage
B. phase voltages 90° out of sync B. dielectric strength
C. line current equal to the phase current C. current
D. line voltage equal to the phase voltage D. power
Ans: D Ans: B
6177 If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become 6178 When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperatures, the
short circuited, the coil _____________. best procedure to keep it from freezing is to _________.
A. will continue to operate A. remove the battery caps
 Page 344

B. will probably burn out immediately B. securely cover the battery

C. will operate on reduced current C. keep the battery fully charged
D. temperature will drop D. disconnect the battery
Ans: B Ans: C
6179 The purpose of the reverse power relay, provided on a ship's 6180 Which of the following conditions indicates that a lead-acid battery is
service alternator panel, is to trip the circuit in the event of being charged too rapidly?
______________.
A. main circuit overload A. Sparks occurring at the positive terminal.
B. high power transfer B. Unusually high electrolyte specific gravity.
C. generator overspeeding C. Low plate potentials being developed.
D. alternator motorization D. Excessively high temperatures and gassing rates.
Ans: D Ans: D
6181 Which of the listed faults cannot be eliminated, EXCEPT by turning 6182 The dielectric strength of a vacuum or dry air is approximately
or grinding a commutator with a rigidly supported tool? ________________.

A. Sparking brushes A. 450 volts/inch

B. Eccentricity B. 1000 volts/inch
C. High mica C. 20-kv/inch
D. Blackened commutator D. 50-kv/inch
Ans: B Ans: C
6183 When a megohmmeter is used to test the insulation of a large 6184 For routine cleaning of a commutator, you should apply
motor, the initial dip of the pointer toward "zero" is caused by _____________.
____________.
A. good insulation A. course sandpaper in a slow back and forth motion across the
commutator slots
B. the capacitance of the windings B. an emery cloth parallel to the axis of the machine
C. the leakage of the current along the surface of dirty insulation C. a canvas wiper to the machine while running

D. the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation D. cotton swabs between the commutator bars
Ans: B Ans: C
6185 The air gap in an induction motor should be periodically checked 6186 Undervoltage trips are frequently installed on switchboard circuit
with a feeler gage to prevent possible ___________. breakers to trip ____________.

A. rotor contact with the stator A. out generators in the event of severe arcing or sparking
B. axial misalignment of the rotor B. out generators when there is reversal of power in the main circuit

C. damage to the motor bearings C. the breaker if the generator overspeeds by 5%, but continues to run

D. electrical damage to the bearings D. out generators when there is low voltage in the main circuit
Ans: A Ans: D
6187 A shore power circuit breaker should be closed only 6188 When a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with
_____________. a meter movement coil, it will provide _____________.

A. when the ship's generators have been paralleled to those on shore A. a measurement of circuit resistance

B. in a shipyard B. an increased accuracy of approximately 1.5 percent

C. if a quick disconnect coupling is used C. an extended meter range
D. when the ship's generators have been removed from the bus D. none of the above
Ans: D Ans: C
6189 You can determine if a circuit breaker is tripped by ______. 6190 In addition to undercutting the mica, proper maintenance of a D.C.
motor's commutator includes _______________.
A. examining the position of the handle A. side-cutting the copper segments and insulating the slots
B. checking for the warm breaker B. coating the copper surface with light machine oil for the first four
hours of operation
C. looking for a burned-out link C. baking the armature in an oven at a maximum of 95‚ C for not over
8 hours
D. looking for the tripped breaker light D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: A
6191 If there is a reduction in the normally supplied frequency to a 6192 Which of the following electric meter movements uses a stationary
120/240 volt, three-phase AC current motor from 60 hertz to 55 permanent magnet and movable coil?
hertz, the motor would _____________.
A. run at a slower speed A. D'Arsonval
B. operate at a lower current B. Electrodynamometer
C. overheat C. Moving iron-vane
D. trip off the line D. Inclined coil iron-vane
Ans: A Ans: A
6193 When paralleling two alternators the synchronizing lamps grow dim 6194 D.C. motor brush adjustment includes attention to _________.
and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches
the 0‚ position. This indicates the ____________.

A. alternator voltages are 180‚ apart A. angle with the commutator and clearance within the holder
B. incoming alternator is running too fast B. brush length and pigtail tightness
C. incoming alternator is in phase with the bus voltage C. grade of material and surface dirt conditions
D. synchroscope pointer is defective or broken D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
 Page 345

6195 If all three ground-detection lamps continue to burn at equal 6196 One of the generator bearing shells is generally insulated from the
intensity after the test button is depressed and released, which of end housing in order to prevent _____________.
the listed conditions is indicated?
A. No grounds exist A. rapid brush wear
B. All three phases are grounded B. residual magnetism leak off
C. The test switch is faulty C. excessive field winding heat
D. The current transformers are shorted out D. circulation of shaft currents
Ans: A Ans: D
6197 You are calibrating a multimeter using internal batteries to supply 6198 When paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit
power for resistance measurements. However, you are unable to as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0°. This indicates the
adjust the pointer to "zero" using the adjustment knob. Therefore, _____________.
you should _____________.
A. replace the batteries in the instrument A. incoming alternator is running too fast
B. measure resistance by dividing the voltmeter indication by the B. alternator voltages are 180 degrees apart
ammeter indication
C. set the pointer using a bridge C. synchroscope is defective or broken
D. change scales to the R X 100 scale and adjust using the "zero D. alternator power factors are in phase
ohms" adjusting knob
Ans: A Ans: C
6199 A multimeter may be damaged by taking a _____________. 6200 When two AC generators are being paralleled, the breaker should
be closed with the synchroscope pointer rotating in the
____________.
A. voltage reading while in the ammeter mode A. "slow" direction, just before the 12 o'clock position
B. current reading while in the voltmeter mode B. "fast" direction, just after the 12 o'clock position
C. resistance reading while in the ammeter mode C. "fast" direction, just before the 12 o'clock position
D. resistance reading while in the voltmeter mode D. "slow" direction, just after the 12 o'clock position
Ans: A Ans: C
6201 If two AC generators have just been placed in parallel, the true 6202 Which of the following types of insulation will begin to deteriorate
power load is initially distributed evenly by _____________. FIRST as a result of the heat generated in the conductor it
surrounds?
A. a balance coil A. Varnished cloth
B. changing field excitation B. Rubber
C. adjusting the governor control settings C. Silicon
D. a rheostat D. Asbestos
Ans: C Ans: B
6203 A multimeter can be used to measure _____________. 6204 The KW load is evenly distributed between two alternators just
placed in parallel by adjusting _____________.
A. resistance A. a balance coil
B. voltage B. the governor settings
C. current C. the field excitation
D. all of the above D. a rheostat
Ans: D Ans: B
6205 Before using an all-purpose electric measuring instrument 6206 When paralleling two AC generators, the frequency of the incoming
(multimeter) utilizing internal batteries to supply power for resistance machine immediately prior to closing its breaker should be
measurements, you should FIRST ____________. ____________.
A. remove one of the batteries A. controlled by placing the governor switch in the automatic position

B. remove all the batteries B. adjusted with the voltage regulator

C. calibrate using a known external resistance C. slightly greater than the bus frequency
D. select the proper resistance range D. slightly less than the bus frequency
Ans: D Ans: C
6207 If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting 6208 A flickering ground detection lamp on a DC system would indicate
winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to open once the a _____________.
motor is in operation, the _____________.
A. motor will overspeed A. multiple-ground condition in the distribution system
B. starting winding will burn out B. ground in an armature coil of an operating machine
C. motor will immediately stall under load C. ground in a motor accompanied with a short
D. motor torque will be above normal at rated speed D. short between two adjacent bars of the generator commutator

Ans: B Ans: B
6209 D.C. propulsion motor brush pressure depends on the brush grade 6210 The unit "hertz" is equivalent to _____________.
used and in practice is set with a ______________.
A. multimeter A. coulombs per second
B. manometer B. revolutions per second
C. spring scale C. revolutions per minute
D. compound gauge D. cycles per second
Ans: C Ans: D
6211 A current carrying conductor making an electrical contact with a 6212 A DC generator is used to supply direct current in order to maintain
wiring metal conduit is indicated by a _____________. an AC generator field and is known as a/an _____________.

A. low switchboard wattmeter reading A. rotor

B. reading of 1.0 on the power factor meter B. stator
C. high switchboard voltmeter reading C. exciter
D. totally darkened switchboard ground-detecting light D. armature
Ans: D Ans: C
 Page 346

6213 Fuses are usually rated in _____________. 6214 When used for taking resistance measurements, a volt-ohm-
milliammeter is normally powered by _____________.
A. watts A. a hand cranked generator
B. amps only B. internal storage batteries
C. volts only C. the current in the circuit being tested
D. amps and volts D. a step down transformer
Ans: D Ans: B
6215 Which of the following materials is a good insulator? 6216 Electrical power is expressed in _____________.
A. steel A. ohms
B. aluminum B. volts
C. glass C. amps
D. copper D. watts
Ans: C Ans: D
6217 An electrical connection between the wiring of an electric motor and 6218 Prior to closing the breaker when paralleling two AC generators,
its metal frame is known as a/an _____________. the recommended practice is to have the frequency of the
incoming machine _____________.
A. eddy current A. slightly less than the line frequency
B. ground B. the same as the line frequency
C. impedance C. slightly greater than the line frequency
D. flux leakage D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: C
6219 In addition to short circuits and sustained overloads, fuses are likely 6220 The greatest single cause of electrical failures is ______.
to blow due to _____________.
A. loose fuse clips A. the breakdown of insulation
B. low ambient temperatures B. overcurrent
C. low contact resistance C. high inductance
D. all of the above D. too frequent testing
Ans: A Ans: A
6221 You are reconnecting a three-phase induction motor to the supply 6222 Current flowing in only one direction is called ___________.
line. To prevent possible damage to the load, due to the wrong
direction of rotation, you should ____________.
A. connect the motor and then use the "jog" button to determine the A. alternating current
direction of rotation
B. connect the phase indicator to the motor leads, rotate the motor by B. omnidirectional current
hand and then connect to the supply voltage
C. connect the phase indicator to the supply voltage then connect the C. direct current
motor
D. check the supply line phase sequence and motor rotation with D. sinusoidal current
appropriate indicators, then connect correspondingly marked leads

Ans: D Ans: C
6223 Why is it a good practice to have the frequency of the incoming 6224 In an alternating current electrical system, a low system power
alternator adjusted slightly higher than that of the loaded alternator factor is a direct sign of _____________.
when paralleling two alternators?
A. This allows the oncoming machine to accept load immediately. A. wasted energy

B. This prevents the machine from floating on the line. B. efficient operation
C. The reverse power relay is prevented from activating. C. a short in the exciter field windings
D. All of the above. D. an excessive number of minor system grounds
Ans: D Ans: A
6225 Two paralleled alternators are operating near rated load. If one trips 6226 Routine maintenance of dry-type transformers should
out mechanically, which of the listed actions should be taken include______________.
FIRST?
A. Restart the tripped machine immediately. A. preventing the entrance of water from broken pipe lines steam lines

B. Strip the board of all non-vital circuits. B. keeping protective surfaces and insulating bushings free of dirt and
conductive debris
C. Start the emergency generator. C. periodic testing of insulation resistance with a megger
D. Transfer all vital loads to the emergency bus. D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
6227 If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal brilliance, 6228 A capacitor discolored due to excessive heat should be
whether the test button is depressed or released, then _____________.
___________.
A. no grounds exist A. calibrated using a capactance wheatstone bridge
B. all phases are grounded B. replaced and the reason for the overheating found
C. all lamps show a ground C. cooled with a spray can of refrigerant approved for this purpose

D. all of the above D. resoldered with care taken to insure that the origional cold solder
joint is repaired
Ans: A Ans: B
6229 In order to change the direction of rotation of a 6230 In an A.C. generator, pitting of collector rings will
D.C.motor_________. I. the field leads must be changed II. the cause__________. I. sparking II. chattering
input leads must be changed
A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only
C. either I or II C. both I and II
 Page 347

D. neither I or II D. neither I or II
Ans: A Ans: D
6231 Air gap readings should be taken periodicly on electrical generation 6232 On some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing
equipment to __________. pedestal is insulated from the bedplate. This should be checked
with a millivolt meter and a jumper. With the millivolt meter connectd
between the shaft and the bedplate how should the jumper be

A. determine the amount of varnish that can be applied to correct A. It should be placed from one end of the shaft to the other to
insulation problems eliminate shaft currents.
B. determine the condition of the bearings B. It is used to short the + and - in a D.C. generator or Phase A and
Phase C in an alternator to eleminate the effects of CEMF.

C. provide for the correct proper tightening of the field coil bolts and C. It should be placed across the insulating block to increase the shaft
correct lateral adjustment of the field coils current to a point where it can be measured with the millivolt meter.

D. increase machine efficiency D. It should be placed from the shaft to the pedestal while one reading
is taken, then removed to take a second reading. This eliminates
the insulating effect of the bearing.
Ans: B Ans: D
6233 After closing the circuit breaker to place two similar alternators in 6234 The failure of ball bearings used in electric motors can result from
parallel, the NEXT step is to balance the _____________. _____________.

A. power factor A. failure to clean the bearing before repacking

B. voltage load B. failure to maintain proper alignment
C. kilowatt load C. excess lubrication forcing the bearing full of grease and eliminating
all areas of expansion
D. ampere load D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D
6235 Air gap readings should be taken on electrical generation 6236 On some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing
equipment periodicly to ________. I. check machine effeciency II. pedestal is insulated from the bedplate. To check this insulation with
determine the need for cleaning the machine assembled you should use a____________.

A. I only A. millivolt meter and a jumper

B. II only B. ohmmeter
C. both I and II C. megohm meter
D. neither I or II D. high potential tester
Ans: D Ans: A
6237 Air gap readings should be taken on electrical generation 6238 If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine,
machinery periodicly to _________. I. determine the need for creates pulsations when coupled with a synchronous generator
cleaning II. check the condition of the bearings operating in parallel; the generator rotor may beperiodically pulled
ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. This cond

A. I only A. hunting
B. II only B. direct coupling
C. both I and II C. peaking
D. neither I or II D. harmonic coupling
Ans: B Ans: A
6239 If the bearings of an electrical generator are failing more frequently 6240 On electrical generators one of the bearings is isolated from the
than expected and the lubricating oil is sludging then you should bedplate. This insulating block should not be painted and must be
______________. kept clean to ___________.
A. check the connections to the output leads A. protect operating personnel from shock
B. check the bearing insulating block on one end of the unit B. create an isolated ground for the instrumentation
C. replace the bearing with a sealed roller type C. allow for the expansion of the generator away from the prime mover
as it warms up
D. replace the thrust bearing of the prime mover D. eliminate shaft currents to prevent damaging the bearings
Ans: B Ans: D
6241 A single-phase induction motor will only start if you spin the rotor 6242 When testing for blown fuses in a three-phase supply circuit to a
rapidly with the line switch closed. After starting, its speed fluctuates motor, you should first ___________________.
between very slow and half-speed. The problem probably lies in the
________.
A. starting winding A. apply the megger across the tops of the line fuses
B. centrifugal mechanism B. apply an ammeter diagonally across the top of the first line fuse and
the bottom of the third line fuse
C. centrifugal switch C. apply the voltage tester across the bottoms of the line fuses
D. running winding D. ensure the circuit is de-energized, and then use a continuity tester

Ans: D Ans: D
6243 A short circuit in the armature of a DC motor will cause the motor to 6244 In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps
_____________. are provided. One lamp goes dark and the others increase in
brightness. When the test button is pushed, all lamps have equal
illumination. You should conclude that ____________.

A. run fast A. there is a ground on the line with the dark lamp
B. hum when energized B. the dark lamp must be replaced
C. spark at the brushes C. there are grounds on the lines with the bright lamps
D. fail to start D. this is a normal condition
 Page 348

Ans: C Ans: A
6245 Which of the listed conditions will occur if dirt and grease are 6246 A three-phase electrical system is equipped with ground detecting
allowed to accumulate between the commutator segments of a lamps. If one of the lamp goes dark and the other two burn normally
motor? before and after the test switch is operated, this indicates
_______________.
A. A partial short circuit. A. the dark lamp must be replaced
B. A dead short circuit. B. there is a ground in the line with the dark lamp
C. Misalignment of the motor shaft. C. there are grounds in two of the three phases
D. Overspeeding of the motor. D. the voltage to the dark lamp is less than that of the system
Ans: A Ans: A
6247 Which of the listed conditions could cause a DC motor to have 6248 Which of the following statements identifies the difference between
excessively hot windings and sparking at the brushes? the primary windings and the secondary windings of a 2:1 stepdown
transformer?
A. High bar-to-bar voltage A. The secondary windings have twice as much resistance as the
primary windings.
B. Reversed interpole polarity B. The secondary windings give off twice as much heat as the primary
windings.
C. Loose brushes C. The secondary windings require half as much current as the
primary windings.
D. Excessive humidity D. The secondary windings have half as many turns as the primary
windings.
Ans: A Ans: D
6249 When troubleshooting an amplifier, you measure an output of 30 6250 If an electric motor fails to start, you should FIRST check the
volts. If the gain of the amplifier is 2, what must the input voltage be _____________.
for the amplifier to work properly?
A. 32 volts A. phase sequence
B. 30 volts B. ampere load
C. 28 volts C. fuse or circuit breaker
D. 15 volts D. line frequency
Ans: D Ans: C
6251 If a DC motor runs faster than designed, with all other conditions 6252 The formula for computing impedance in a series circuit containing
being normal, the possible cause could be a/an ______________. resistance, capacitance, and inductance is _____________.
[ NOTE: the symbol * stands for 'multiplied by' ]

A. shorted shunt field coil A. Z = RT + XL + XC

B. open armature coil B. Z = R + XL - XC
C. reversed commutating pole C. Z * Z = R * R + (XL - XC) * (XL - XC)
D. overload D. Z = R * R + (XL * XC) - (XL * XC)
Ans: A Ans: C
6253 Which of the listed conditions might contribute to very rapid 6254 The prime mover of an AC two pole main propulsion generator
wearing of a DC machine's commutator bars? drives the generator at 3600 RPM. If the main propulsion motor has
80 poles, what will be the propeller speed?

A. A grounded commutator bar A. 45 RPM

B. Using improper carbon brushes B. 80 RPM
C. Aligning the front and rear mica V-rings improperly C. 90 RPM
D. An open circuit in the armature D. 180 RPM
Ans: B Ans: C
6255 If a single-phase induction motor fails to start, the problem may be 6256 A single-phase induction motor starts, comes up to about 75%
_____________. rated speed, slows down to a lower speed, and accelerates again.
The problem is most likely in the ____________.

A. an open in the main winding A. starting winding

B. a shorted shunt field B. running winding
C. a closed centrifugal switch C. starting capacitor
D. low circuit frequency D. running centrifugal switch
Ans: A Ans: B
6257 A motor enclosure which protects against falling liquids is classified 6258 As a result of a mechanical malfunction in one of the ship's service
as ____________. generators operating in parallel, you must secure that generator. In
order to prevent a possible overload to the remaining generator,
which of the following sequential courses of action

A. waterproof A. Trip the malfunctioning generator's circuit breaker and prime mover
throttle trip.
B. drip proof B. Trip all nonvital distribution feeder circuit breakers, the
malfunctioning generator's circuit breaker, and the prime mover
throttle trip.
C. spray tight C. Trip the malfunctioning generator's circuit breaker and distribution
feeder circuit breakers.
D. spray proof D. Trip all nonvital distribution feeder circuit breakers, the
malfunctioning prime mover turbine throttle trip, and the generator
circuit breaker.
Ans: B Ans: B
6259 A turbogenerator has a rated output of 1200 KW at 60 Hertz, with a 6260 If an alternator is to be inactive for a considerable period of time,
no load frequency of 61.5 Hertz. What is its speed droop? which of the following actions should be taken?
 Page 349

A. 0.01025 A. It should be disconnected from the prime mover and raised off its
bearing supports.
B. 0.015 B. Insulation resistance readings should be taken weekly to ensure
resistance is not deteriorating.
C. 0.02439 C. The brushes should be lifted off the slip rings to prevent pitting of
the metal by electrolytic action.
D. 0.025 D. The windings and collector rings should be protected with a thin
coat of grease or oil.
Ans: D Ans: C
6261 Which of the following materials is recommended for finishing the 6262 A megger is being used to test the insulation of an AC generator.
slip rings after grinding or turning? The resistance value of a dry, clean winding will _____________.

A. grade 00 sandpaper A. continue to rise as test potential is maintained, becoming fairly

steady as the dielectric-absorption effect of insulation stabilizes

B. canvas wiper B. remain constant as the temperature of the windings increases

C. crocus cloth C. continue to drop as test potential is maintained, becoming fairly

steady after 5-7 minutes
D. smooth file D. stabilize after approximately 2-4 minutes of fluctuation
Ans: C Ans: A
6263 Brushes in a generator must be positioned in the neutral plane to 6264 If the connections for the field and the armature on a DC motor are
avoid sparking between the brushes and the _____________. reversed, _____________.

A. yoke A. the motor will run as a generator

B. armature windings B. the motor will not run
C. field pole windings C. the direction of rotation will be the same
D. commutator D. the direction of rotation will be reversed
Ans: D Ans: C
6265 A series wound DC motor has its armature and field connected in 6266 Uneven wear of the commutator surface on a direct current
series with a resistor. When the motor is disconnected from its propulsion motor can be caused by _____________.
power supply, this motor will exemplify __________.

A. the proper connections for across the line starting A. rapid change in load
B. the proper connections for an automatic strip heater B. excessive operation at light load
C. a reversing controller circuit C. incorrect brush staggering
D. dynamic braking D. unequal pole spacing
Ans: D Ans: C
6267 Unnecessary and frequent applications of varnish to the generator 6268 The insulation of electric generators during short idle periods
windings to repair defective insulation will result in ____________. should be _____________.

A. heavy coatings of varnish interfering with heat dissipation A. allowed to cool slowly to ambient temperatures
B. deficient air gap clearance and eventual damage to the casing B. flashed with direct current to remove any residual magnetism

C. failure of the rectifier assembly C. kept warm by using strip or space heaters
D. a built-up of varnish without changing generator operation D. relieved of all capacitive charge by grounding the conductors

Ans: A Ans: C
6269 If an AC generator experiences voltage failure, the cause may be 6270 A wire is being used as a replacement having twice the length and
_____________. one-half the cross-sectional area of the original wire. The resistance
of this new wire, when compared to that of the original wire, is
_____________.
A. an open in the field circuit A. four times as great
B. the brushes shifting out of the neutral plane B. twice as much
C. excessive locked-rotor current C. the same as the original resistance
D. a rotating slip ring D. one-half of the original resistance
Ans: A Ans: A
6271 An open occurring within the field rheostat of an AC generator can 6272 If three AC generators are operating in parallel, and one of them
be detected by short circuiting its terminals and observing a were to "pull out" of synchronism with the other two generators, the
____________. ____________.
A. negative deflection of the wattmeter pointer A. normally operating AC generators will vibrate severely
B. positive deflection of the wattmeter pointer B. AC generator pulling out of synchronism will vibrate severely
C. buildup of alternator voltage C. normally operating AC generators will overspeed and unload
D. low, but constant alternator voltage D. AC generator pulling out of synchronism will become motorized

Ans: C Ans: B
6273 A loss of field excitation to an AC generator while operating in 6274 An AC generator operating in parallel loses its excitation without
parallel will cause it to ____________. tripping the circuit breaker. This will __________.
A. absorb more and more load due to decreased armature reaction A. not affect the faulty generator due to the compensation of the other
generators
B. lose its load due to the inherent speed droop built into the governor B. cause the slip rings to melt

C. smoke and overload due to field flashover as residual field flux C. cause a low voltage differential to develop between the armature
changes polarity and the bus
D. lose its load, begin to motorize, trip out on reverse power relay, and D. cause high currents to be induced in the field windings
possibly overspeed
 Page 350

Ans: D Ans: D
6275 Etched or burned bands on the contact faces of the brushes in a 6276 If only one brush on a commutator is sparking excessively, you
direct current generator can be caused by ____________. should look for _____________.

A. high mica segments A. a high commutator bar

B. copper drag on the commutator B. copper imbedded in the brush
C. brushes improperly positioned C. a loose commutator bar
D. copper embedded in the brushes D. flux in the commutating zone
Ans: C Ans: B
6277 Which of the following statements describes the effects of ambient 6278 Diesel generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel at near full
temperature on local action within lead-acid storage batteries? load capacity. Diesel generator #1 suddenly trips out mechanically
due to low lube oil pressure. The reverse power relay functions
properly and trips generator #1 electrically off the boa

A. Increasing ambient temperature increases local action. A. Start the emergency generator.
B. Increasing ambient temperature decreases local action. B. Ascertain cause of the low lube oil pressure.
C. Ambient temperature has no effect on local action. C. Strip the board of all nonvital circuits.
D. At 32°C all local action virtually ceases. D. Secure alarms, reset reverse power relay, and restart #1 engine.

Ans: A Ans: C
6279 Which of the following losses is/are present in every direct current 6280 Upon failure of the normal power supply, the emergency generator
generator armature? is placed on the line by the _____________.
A. Winding copper loss A. bus tie feeder
B. Core eddy current loss B. automatic bus transfer device
C. Magnetic hysteresis loss C. line connection feeder
D. All of the above. D. power failure alarm bus
Ans: D Ans: B
6281 Which of the spaces listed is defined as a "locationrequiring an 6282 The source of emergency lighting and power at loss of normal
exceptional degree of protection" whenconsidering the installation ship's power on a cargo vessel should be obtained from the
of shipboard electricalequipment? ______________.
A. Machinery space A. emergency generator supply to the emergency switchboard
B. Chart room B. emergency generator supply to the main switchboard
C. Console room C. battery supply to the main switchboard
D. Accommodation space D. turbogenerator supply to the emergency switchboard
Ans: A Ans: A
6283 Which of the following statements represents the FIRST precaution 6284 Which of the listed safety features should be provided in small
to be taken prior to working on any installed electrical component? rooms or lockers where batteries are stored?

A. Wear rubber gloves and boots. A. Installation of a fixed CO2 system.

B. Use only approved nonconducting tools. B. An exhaust duct is to be provided and led from within three inches
of the deck.
C. Ground the case of the machine before beginning any repairs. C. Power ventilation is to be provided if trickle charging is utilized.

D. Open the supply circuits and tag the switches. D. An exhaust duct is to be provided and led from the top of the locker
to the open air.
Ans: D Ans: D
6285 Which of the following precautions should be taken when a blown 6286 Before any work on electrical or electronic equipment is performed,
fuse, rated at 10 amperes, is replaced? which of the following precautions should be carried out?

A. Short out the fuse before removing it from the circuit. A. De-energize the applicable switchboard bus.
B. Use needle-nose pliers to remove fuse from the circuit. B. Bypass the interlocks.
C. Replace blown fuse with one of equal voltage and ampere C. Secure and tag the supply circuit breaker in the open position.
capacity.
D. Fuses of 10 ampere rating and less are virtually harmless when D. Station a man at the circuit supply switch.
energized and may be handled freely.
Ans: C Ans: C
6287 Receptacle outlets aboard ship should be designed so those 6288 Regulations require that an indicating light at the propulsion control
mounted have _____________. station will operate if overloading or overheating occurs in a
_______________.
A. there must be a sufficient number of receptacle outlets in the crew A. forced draft blower motor
accommodations for an adequate level of habitability
B. each receptacle outelt must be compatible with the voltage and B. steering gear motor
current of the circuit in which it is installed
C. a receptacle outlet must not have any exposed parts with the plug C. fuel pump motor
opening uncovered
D. all of the above D. condensate pump motor
Ans: D Ans: B
6289 According to Regulations , which of the following is an acceptable 6290 According to Regulations, the motor controller for a submersible
lining for battery trays containing alkaline batteries? electric motor driven bilge pump should be installed
_____________.
A. Brass A. in the shaft alley
B. Lead B. at the submersible bilge pump
C. Steel C. above the uppermost continuous deck
D. Zinc D. at the engine room emergency control panel
Ans: C Ans: C
 Page 351

6291 In accordance with Regulations , a steering gear feeder circuit from 6292 In accordance with Regulations , the capacity of each branch circuit
the emergency switchboard or alternate power supply must have providing power to a fire detection or alarm system must not be less
the capacity for continuous operation of the rudder 15‚side-side in than what percent of the maximum load?
not more than 60 seconds for a period of

A. 1/4 hour A. 0.5

B. 1/2 hour B. 1
C. 1 hour C. 1.25
D. 2 hours D. 1.5
Ans: B Ans: C
6293 Regulations require the minimum number of ships service 6294 Regulations require overcurrent protection for steering gear feeder
generators for ocean vessels to be _____________. circuits and shall be protected by _____________.
A. 1 A. circuit breaker with an instantaneous trip only
B. 2 B. motor-running overcurrent protection only
C. 3 C. nonrenewable link cartridge fuse only
D. 4 D. renewable link cartridge fuse only
Ans: B Ans: A
6295 When power ventilation is required in a battery compartment, 6296 Regulations require each motor controller to have a wiring diagram
Regulations require _____________. located ____________.
A. the power ventilation system to be separate from ventilation A. on the inside of the controller door
systems for other spaces
B. electric ventilation motors to be inside the vent duct B. in the engineering department office
C. electric ventilation motors to be inside the compartment C. in the spare parts locker
D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: A
6297 In accordance with Regulations , receptacles for refrigerated 6298 Regulations require that the emergency lighting and power system
containers must ____________. _____________.
A. have a switch near the receptacles that disconnects all power to A. emergency generator must be tested under load before sailing
those receptacles
B. have a sign stating that the switch should be opened before cables B. must be tested and inspected weekly and the date recorded
are disconnected from the receptacles
C. be designed for circuit breaking service C. batteries must be tested annually and the date recorded
D. all of the above D. must be capable of sustaining the emergency load for 48 hours

Ans: D Ans: B
6299 Regulations require emergency diesel engine starting systems to 6300 Which of the following statements is a Regulation concerning
have sufficient capacity to provide power for at least emergency generator diesel engines?
____________.
A. three continuous starting sequences A. The fuel must have a flash point not less than 24°C.
B. six consecutive cranking cycles B. Emergency diesel engines must be capable of operating under full
load in not less than 30 seconds after cranking.
C. nine repeated starts under load C. The starting battery must produce 12 consecutive cranking cycles.

D. twelve cranking periods of 5 seconds D. Emergency diesel engines must operate satisfactorily up to a 22.5°
list.
Ans: B Ans: D