Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
ZZ
ALHCA
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
5. The CODE for this Booklet is ZZ.
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the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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seat.
9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
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conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.
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12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet
in the Attendance Sheet.
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
1. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in 4. The electrostatic force between the metal
a glass tube. The length of the air column in plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. C having a charge Q and area A, is
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive (1) Independent of the distance between the
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm plates
of column length. If the frequency of the (2) Linearly proportional to the distance
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in between the plates
air at 27ºC is
(3) Inversely proportional to the distance
(1) 330 m/s (2) 339 m/s between the plates
(3) 300 m/s (4) 350 m/s (4) Proportional to the square root of the
Answer ( 2 ) distance between the plates
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1] Answer ( 1 )
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2 S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
= 339.2 ms–1 Q2
Fplate
= 339 m/s 2A0
2. An electron falls from rest through a vertical F is Independent of the distance between
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward plates.
directed electric field E. The direction of
5. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
electric field is now reversed, keeping its
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
fall from rest in it through the same vertical applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in galvanometer is
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
(1) 40 (2) 25
(1) Smaller (2) 5 times greater
(3) 500 (4) 250
(3) Equal (4) 10 times greater
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Current sensitivity
1 eE 2
Sol. h t NBA
2 m IS
C
2hm
t Voltage sensitivity
eE
NBA
VS
t m as ‘e’ is same for electron and CRG
proton. So, resistance of galvanometer
∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take IS 51 5000
smaller time. RG 250
VS 20 103 20
3. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
6. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
sufficiently high building and is moving freely
between the poles of an electromagnet. When
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator.
the current in the electromagnet is switched
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
position. The time period of oscillation is rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
(1) 2 s (2) s work required to do this comes from
(3) 1 s (4) 2 s (1) The current source
Answer ( 2 ) (2) The magnetic field
S o l . |a| = 2y (3) The induced electric field due to the
20 = 2(5) changing magnetic field
= 2 rad/s (4) The lattice structure of the material of the
rod
2 2
T s Answer ( 1 )
2
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted 10. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,
into potential energy of the rod. are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E'
7. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in
resistor 50 are connected in series across
parallel to the same battery. Then the current
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of
loss in the circuit is
'n' is
(1) 0.79 W (2) 0.43 W
(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 1.13 W (4) 2.74 W (3) 9 (4) 20
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 1 )
2
⎛V ⎞ E
S o l . Pav ⎜ RMS ⎟ R Sol. I ...(i)
⎝ Z ⎠ nR R
2 E
⎛ 1 ⎞ 10 I ...(ii)
2
Z R ⎜ L 56 R
⎝ C ⎟⎠ n
R
12. In Young's double slit experiment the 14. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the plane surface of a material of refractive index
wavelength of the light used is 5896 Å and ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
distance D between the screen and slits is found that the reflected and refracted rays are
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of perpendicular to each other. Which of the
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe following options is correct for this situation?
angular width to 0.21° (with same and D) the (1) Reflected light is polarised with its
separation between the slits needs to be electric vector parallel to the plane of
changed to incidence
(1) 1.8 mm (2) Reflected light is polarised with its
(2) 1.9 mm electric vector perpendicular to the plane
of incidence
(3) 1.7 mm
⎛ 1⎞
(4) 2.1 mm (3) i tan1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝⎠
Answer ( 2 )
⎛ 1⎞
(4) i sin1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝⎠
S o l . Angular width
d Answer ( 2 )
S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
0.20 …(i) are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
2 mm with electric field vector perpendicular to the
plane of incidence.
0.21 …(ii)
d
i
0.20 d
Dividing we get, 0.21 2 mm
d = 1.9 mm
13. An astronomical refracting telescope will
have large angular magnification and high
angular resolution, when it has an objective Also, tan i = (Brewster angle)
lens of 15. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
(1) Small focal length and large diameter a velocity V Viˆ . The instantaneous
(2) Large focal length and small diameter oscillating electric field of this em wave is
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
(3) Small focal length and small diameter magnetic field of the em wave will be along
(4) Large focal length and large diameter (1) –z direction
Answer ( 4 ) (2) +z direction
(3) –x direction
f0
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification = (4) –y direction
fE
Answer ( 2 )
So, focal length of objective lens should be
large. Sol. E B V
D ˆ (B) Viˆ
Angular resolution = should be large. (Ej)
1.22
So, objective should have large focal length So, B Bkˆ
(f0) and large diameter D. Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
(1) 60° 1 1 1
– –
15 v1 40
(2) 45°
1 1 1
(3) Zero
v1 –15 40
(4) 30°
v1 = –24 cm
Answer ( 2 )
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be mirror.
normally incident on silvered face.
Now,
u2 = –20
1 1 1
30°
f v2 u2
M 60°
30° 1 1 1
i –
–15 v2 20
1 1 1
–
2 v2 20 15
v2 = –60 cm
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
1 v12 VCE = 0
4 v22 Vb = 0
20 V
v1 1
v2 2 IC RC = 4 k
23. In the combination of the following gates the
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A RB
Vi Vb
and B as Ib 500 k
A
B
Y
(20 0)
IC
4 103
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
(1) A B
Vi = VBE + IBRB
(2) A B A B Vi = 0 + IBRB
(3) A B 20 = IB × 500 × 103
(4) A B A B 20
IB 40 A
Answer ( 2 ) 500 103
IC 25 103
A 125
Sol. A AB Ib 40 106
B 25. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
B Y due to heating
A
(1) Affects only reverse resistance
AB
B (2) Affects only forward resistance
(3) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
Y (A B A B) p-n junction
24. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input (4) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
Answer ( 3 )
values of IB, IC and are given by
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
20 V will increase, so overall resistance of diode
will change.
RC 4 k
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
C biasing both are changed.
RB
Vi
500 k B 26. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
E symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
Which of the following physical quantities
would remain constant for the sphere?
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA, = 250 (1) Angular velocity
(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA, = 200 (2) Moment of inertia
(3) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA, = 125 (3) Angular momentum
(4) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA, = 250 (4) Rotational kinetic energy
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 3 )
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
A C 7
S mv2
10
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
32. Two wires are made of the same material and S o l . We know,
have the same volume. The first wire has
cross-sectional area A and the second wire max T constant (Wien's law)
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
the first wire is increased by l on applying a
So, max1 T1 max2 T2
force F, how much force is needed to stretch
3 0
the socond wire by the same amount? ⇒ 0 T T
4
(1) 9 F
4
(2) 6 F ⇒ T T
3
(3) F
4 4
P2 ⎛ T ⎞ ⎛4⎞ 256
(4) 4 F So, ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
P1 ⎝ T ⎠ ⎝3⎠ 81
Answer ( 1 )
34. At what temperature will the rms speed of
S o l . Wire 1 :
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
F escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
A, 3l
(Given :
Wire 2 :
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
F
3A, l Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
For wire 1, (1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 8.360 × 104 K
(3) 1.254 × 104 K (4) 5.016 × 104 K
⎛ F ⎞
l ⎜ ⎟ 3l …(i)
⎝ AY ⎠ Answer ( 2 )
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
dW nRdT 2 273 ⎞
Required ratio ⎛
dQ ⎛5 ⎞ 5 ⎜ 1 ⎟ 100
n ⎜ R ⎟ dT ⎝ 373 ⎠
⎝2 ⎠
⎛ 100 ⎞
36. The fundamental frequency in an open organ ⎜ ⎟ 100 26.8%
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed ⎝ 373 ⎠
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ 38. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
pipe is the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
(1) 13.2 cm diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
(2) 8 cm
(3) 16 cm
h B
(4) 12.5 cm
Answer ( 1 )
A
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
3
(1) D (2) D
3v 2
4l
5 7
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency (3) D (4) D
4 5
v Answer ( 3 )
2l
Sol.
Given,
h
3v v B
4l 2l
vL
4l 2l A
l
32 3 As track is frictionless, so total mechanical
2 20 energy will remain constant
13.33 cm
3 T.M.EI =T.M.EF
37. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working 1
between the freezing point and boiling point of 0 mgh mvL2 0
2
water, is
vL2
(1) 26.8% h
2g
(2) 20%
(3) 12.5% For completing the vertical circle, vL 5gR
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
39. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin 41. A moving block having mass m, collides with
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each another stationary block having mass 4m. The
have the same mass M and radius R. They all lighter block comes to rest after collision.
spin with the same angular speed about When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would (e) will be
satisfy the relation (1) 0.5
(1) WC > WB > WA (2) 0.25
(2) WA > WB > WC (3) 0.4
(3) WA > WC > WB (4) 0.8
1
2 1 e 0.25
WA : WB : WC MR2 : MR2 : MR2 4
5 2
42. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
inclined wedge ABC of inclination as shown
2 1 in the figure. The wedge is given an
= : :1
5 2 acceleration 'a' towards the right. The
relation between a and for the block to
= 4 : 5 : 10
remain stationary on the wedge is
WC > WB > WA A
m
40. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect?
a
(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
friction. C B
(2) Limiting value of static friction is directly g g
proportional to normal reaction. (1) a (2) a
cosec sin
(3) Coefficient of sliding friction has (3) a = g tan (4) a = g cos
dimensions of length.
Answer ( 3 )
(4) Frictional force opposes the relative Sol. N cos
motion.
Answer ( 3 ) N
f
⇒ s mg
a
N
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
In non-inertial frame, 44. The moment of the force, F 4iˆ 5 ˆj 6kˆ at
N sin = ma ...(i) (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
by
N cos = mg ...(ii)
(1) 8iˆ 4 ˆj 7kˆ
a
tan
g (2) 4iˆ ˆj 8kˆ
a = g tan
(3) 7iˆ 4 ˆj 8kˆ
43. A toy car with charge q moves on a
frictionless horizontal plane surface under (4) 7iˆ 8ˆj 4kˆ
the influence of a uniform
electric field E .
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases Answer ( 3 )
from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At Sol. Y
that instant the direction of the field is
reversed. The car continues to move for two
more seconds under the influence of this field. F
The average velocity and the average speed
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are A r r0
P
respectively
(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s r0
r
(3) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s (4) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
Answer ( 2 ) O X
a t=1 –a (r r0 ) F ...(i)
Sol. t = 0 t=2
A B ˆ (2iˆ 2 ˆj 2k)
ˆ
v=0 v = 6 ms
–1
v=0 r r0 (2iˆ 0ˆj 3k)
C –a
t=3 0iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ
–1
v = –6 ms
ˆi ˆj kˆ
60
Acceleration a 6 ms2 0 2 1 7iˆ 4 ˆj 8kˆ
1 4 5 6
For t = 0 to t = 1 s, 45. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
1
S1 6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i) 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
2
zero of circular scale division coincides with
For t = 1 s to t = 2 s, 25 divisions above the reference level. If
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
1
S2 6.1 6(1)2 3 m ...(ii) the correct diameter of the ball is
2
(1) 0.521 cm
For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
(2) 0.525 cm
1 (3) 0.529 cm
S3 0 6(1)2 3 m ...(iii)
2
(4) 0.053 cm
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m Answer ( 3 )
3 S o l . Diameter of the ball
Average velocity 1 ms 1
3 = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
Total distance travelled = 9 m = 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
46. The difference between spermiogenesis and S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
spermiation is pill. It contains centchroman and its
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
Receptor modulation.
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed. 49. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy are
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation spermatids (1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
are formed. (2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are (3) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa glucocorticoids
are released from sertoli cells into the (4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
cavity of seminiferous tubules. Answer ( 4 )
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation stimulates the Corpus luteum during
spermatozoa are formed. pregnancy to release estrogen and
Answer ( 3 ) progesterone and also rescues corpus
luteum from regression. Human placental
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
spermiation is the release of the sperms from pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous increasing uterine threshold to contractile
tubule. stimuli.
47. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived 50. Match the items given in Column I with those
from in Column II and select the correct option
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm given below :
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
51. All of the following are part of an operon 55. Among the following sets of examples for
except divergent evolution, select the incorrect
(1) an operator option :
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide (3) Adaptive radiation
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by (4) Convergent evolution
‘U’–Uracil in mRNA. Answer ( 1 )
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient 68. Match the items given in Column I with those
enrichment in Column II and select the correct option
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal given below:
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
70. Which of the following structures or regions is 73. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
incorrectly paired with its functions? help in erythropoiesis?
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration (1) Chief cells
and cardiovascular
(2) Mucous cells
reflexes.
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre (3) Parietal cells
tracts that (4) Goblet cells
interconnect
Answer ( 3 )
different regions of
brain; controls S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and
movement. intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in
(3) Corpus callosum : band of fibers diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
connecting left and be absorbed easily and used during
right cerebral erythropoiesis.
hemispheres. Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
(4) Hypothalamus : production of of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
releasing hormones pernicious anaemia.
and regulation of 74. Match the items given in Column I with those
temperature, in Column II and select the correct option
hunger and thirst. given below :
Answer ( 2 )
Column I Column II
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
all emotions in our body but not movements.
71. The transparent lens in the human eye is held b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
in its place by c. Albumin (iii) Defence
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body mechanism
(2) ligaments attached to the iris a b c
(3) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary (1) (iii) (ii) (i)
body
(2) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(3) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer ( 1 )
(4) (i) (iii) (ii)
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary Answer ( 3 )
body.
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during
72. Which of the following hormones can play a coagulation. These strands forms a network
significant role in osteoporosis? and the meshes of which are occupied by
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
(3) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin of plasma proteins which means globulins are
involved in defence mechanisms.
(4) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
Answer ( 4 )
responsible for BCOP.
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female 75. Which of the following is an occupational
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of respiratory disorder?
estrogen. Parathormone promotes (1) Anthracis (2) Silicosis
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood.
(3) Emphysema (4) Botulism
Excessive activity of parathormone causes
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis. Answer ( 2 )
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica 78. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone (1) Proteins and lipids
breaking industries.
(2) DNA and RNA
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious (3) Free ribosomes and RER
lung damage. (4) Nucleic acids and SER
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused Answer ( 3 )
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a even extend into the dendrite but absent in
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are axon and rest of the neuron.
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased. Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused protein synthesis.
by Clostridium botulinum.
79. Which of these statements is incorrect?
76. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
contraction because it (1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
of active sites on actin for myosin. (2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to (3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
it. outer mitochondrial membrane
(3) Prevents the formation of bonds between (4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
the myosin cross bridges and the actin supplied with NAD that can pick up
filament. hydrogen atoms
Sol. Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level 80. Which of the following events does not occur
many folds in the sarcoplasm. in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents 81. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
chromosomes simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
(2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes termed as
(3) Polytene – Oocytes of (1) Polysome (2) Polyhedral bodies
chromosomes amphibians (3) Nucleosome (4) Plastidome
(4) Submetacentric – L-shaped Answer ( 1 )
chromosomes chromosomes
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
Answer ( 3 ) ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
glands of insects of order Diptera. ergasomes.
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
82. Which of the following terms describe human 85. Which of the following features is used to
dentition? identify a male cockroach from a female
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont cockroach?
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont (1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
9th abdominal segment
(3) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(2) Presence of caudal styles
(4) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(3) Presence of anal cerci
Answer ( 2 )
(4) Forewings with darker tegmina
S o l . In humans, dentition is
Answer ( 2 )
Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
styles which are absent in females.
Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
segment in male cockroach.
replaced by a set of permanent or adult
teeth. 86. Which of the following organisms are known
as chief producers in the oceans?
Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
of different types of teeth namely incisors, (1) Dinoflagellates
canine, premolars and molars. (2) Diatoms
83. Identify the vertebrate group of animals (3) Euglenoids
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
(4) Cyanobacteria
digestive system
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Amphibia
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
(2) Reptilia
87. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
(3) Osteichthyes
(1) using flagella for locomotion
(4) Aves
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing
Answer ( 4 ) excess water
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional (3) having two types of nuclei
chambers in their digestive system as crop
and Gizzard. (4) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
Answer ( 3 )
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
having two types of nuclei.
crush food grain.
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
84. Which one of these animals is not a
macronucleus & micronucleus.
homeotherm?
88. Which of the following animals does not
(1) Macropus
undergo metamorphosis?
(2) Chelone
(1) Earthworm (2) Tunicate
(3) Psittacula
(3) Starfish (4) Moth
(4) Camelus
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain larva into adult.
constant body temperature, irrespective of
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
surrounding temperature.
to have indirect development.
Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
In earthworm development is direct which
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia means no larval stage and hence no
which is Poikilotherm or cold blood. metamorphosis.
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94. In which of the following forms is iron 99. The two functional groups characteristic of
absorbed by plants? sugars are
(1) Ferric (1) Hydroxyl and methyl
(2) Ferrous (2) Carbonyl and methyl
(3) Both ferric and ferrous (3) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
(4) Free element (4) Carbonyl and phosphate
Answer ( 1 * ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
ions. (According to NCERT) carbohydrate.
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++) ketone or their derivatives, which means they
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
95. Double fertilization is
100. Which of the following is not a product of light
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen reaction of photosynthesis?
tube with two different eggs
(1) ATP (2) NADH
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
(3) Oxygen (4) NADPH
nuclei
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Syngamy and triple fusion
S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
(4) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
reaction, while NADH is a product of
Answer ( 3 ) respiration process.
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon 101. Stomatal movement is not affected by
that occur in angiosperms only.
(1) Temperature
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization (2) Light
96. Which of the following elements is responsible (3) CO2 concentration
for maintaining turgor in cells?
(4) O2 concentration
(1) Magnesium (2) Sodium
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Calcium (4) Potassium
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2
Answer ( 4 ) affect opening and closing of stomata while
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of they are not affected by O2 concentration.
cells. 102. The Golgi complex participates in
97. Pollen grains can be stored for several years (1) Fatty acid breakdown
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of (2) Formation of secretory vesicles
(1) –120°C (2) –80°C (3) Activation of amino acid
(3) –160°C (4) –196°C (4) Respiration in bacteria
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
(Cryopreservation)
103. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
98. Which among the following is not a
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
prokaryote? cells
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Mycobacterium (2) It is a membrane-bound structure
(3) Oscillatoria (4) Nostoc (3) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
Answer ( 1 ) synthesis
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote (4) It takes part in spindle formation
(unicellular fungi) Answer ( 3 )
Mycobacterium – a bacterium S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria. and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
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104. Stomata in grass leaf are 108. In India, the organisation responsible for
assessing the safety of introducing
(1) Dumb-bell shaped
genetically modified organisms for public use
(2) Kidney shaped is
(3) Barrel shaped (1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(4) Rectangular (2) Council for Scientific and Industrial
Research (CSIR)
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell
(GEAC)
shaped stomata in their leaves.
(4) Research Committee on Genetic
105. The stage during which separation of the Manipulation (RCGM)
paired homologous chromosomes begins is
Answer ( 3 )
(1) Pachytene
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
(2) Diplotene such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee) which will make decisions
(3) Zygotene
regarding the validity of GM research and
(4) Diakinesis safety of introducing GM-organism for public
Answer ( 2 ) services. (Direct from NCERT).
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S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent 114. The experimental proof for semiconservative
rights on Basmati rice through the US patent replication of DNA was first shown in a
and trademark office that was actually been (1) Fungus
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
(2) Bacterium
The diversity of rice in India is one of the
(3) Virus
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
of Basmati are grown in India. (4) Plant
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf Answer ( 2 )
varieties and claimed as an invention or a S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
novelty. shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
of wheat. 115. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
112. Select the correct match matched?
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus (1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination. (2) Punnett square was developed by a British
scientist
Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
pollen grain known as intine made up (3) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
cellulose & pectin. (4) Spliceosomes take part in translation
Oil content – No role is pollen preservation. Answer ( 2 )
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S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British 121. What type of ecological pyramid would be
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. obtained with the following data?
– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative Secondary consumer : 120 g
mode of replication. Primary consumer : 60 g
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder Primary producer : 10 g
and Laderberg.
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
– Spliceosome formation is part of post-
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes (2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Upright pyramid of biomass
118. Which of the following flowers only once in its
life-time? (4) Upright pyramid of numbers
(1) Bamboo species Answer ( 1 )
(2) Jackfruit Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
pyramid of biomass, usually found in
(3) Papaya
aquatic ecosystem.
(4) Mango
• Pyramid of energy is always upright
Answer ( 1 )
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower are not possible, as the data depicts
generally only once in its life-time after 50- primary producer is less than primary
100 years. consumer and this is less than secondary
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic consumers.
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in 122. Which of the following is a secondary
their life-time. pollutant?
119. Niche is (1) CO
(1) all the biological factors in the organism's (2) CO2
environment
(3) O3
(2) the physical space where an organism
lives (4) SO2
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125. Match the items given in Column I with those Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
in Column II and select the correct option where asexual spores and gametes are
non-motile or non-flagellated.
given below:
• Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
Column I Column II matched
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a 127. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
collection of preserved are produced exogenously in
plants and animals
(1) Neurospora
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates (2) Alternaria
methodically all the
species found in an area (3) Saccharomyces
with brief description (4) Agaricus
aiding identification
Answer ( 4 )
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried Sol. In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
and pressed plant basidiospores or meiospores are
specimens mounted on produced exogenously.
sheets are kept
Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a produces ascospores as meiospores but
list of characters and endogenously inside the ascus.)
their alternates which Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
are helpful in
does not produce sexual spores.
identification of various
taxa. Saccharomyces (Unicellular
ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
a b c d endogenously.
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 128. Winged pollen grains are present in
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S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
• Form secondary xylem towards its inside
form the wings of pollen. It is the
and secondary phloem towards outsides.
characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
not winged shaped. produced than secondary phloem.
Sol. Halophytes like mangrooves have (4) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
pneumatophores. structures in Sporozoans
Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots Answer ( 4 )
having lenticels called pneumathodes to
uptake O2. S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
sarcodines (Amoeboid)
130. Plants having little or no secondary growth
are 134. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Grasses (1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
(2) Deciduous angiosperms gymnosperms
(3) Cycads (2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
(4) Conifers Salvinia is homosporous
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136. The correct order of N-compounds in its 140. Which of the following statements is not true
decreasing order of oxidation states is for halogens?
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl (1) All form monobasic oxyacids
• •
• •
Sol. F
• •
Elements B Ga Al In Tl
• •
F Cl
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170 • •
• •
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148. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by 151. Which of the following molecules represents
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous left to right atoms?
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon (1) HC ≡ C – C ≡ CH
atoms. (A) is
(2) CH2 = CH – C ≡ CH
(1) CH ≡ CH (2) CH2 = CH2
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(3) CH4 (4) CH3 – CH3
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
Br2/hν
S o l . CH4 CH3Br
sp2 sp2 sp sp
(A) Na/dry ether S o l . CH2 = CH – C ≡ CH
Wurtz reaction
Number of orbital require in hybridization
CH3 — CH3
= Number of σ-bonds around each carbon
Hence the correct option is (3) atom.
149. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following 152. Which of the following carbocations is
reactions: expected to be most stable?
(3) p-bromotoluene Y H Y H
(4) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
NO2 NO2
Answer ( 1 )
H ⊕
CH3 CCl3 CCl3
(3) Y (4) H
3Cl 2 Br2
Sol. Δ
Y ⊕
Fe
Br
(C7H8) (A) (B) Answer ( 4 )
Zn HCl S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
with increase in distance. In option (4)
CH3 positive charge present on C-atom at
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
is minimum and stability is maximum.
Br 153. Which of the following is correct with respect
(C) to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
So, the correct option is (1)
(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
150. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
(2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
due to natural and human activity? (3) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(1) N2O5 (4) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(2) NO2 Answer ( 1 * )
(3) NO S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
(4) N2O electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
Answer ( 1 )
*Most appropriate Answer is option (1),
S o l . Fact however option (2) may also be correct answer.
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Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 2 )
Cl Reduction
+7 +3 +4
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
3 2 2
Cl Cl Oxidation
−
1, 2–H
n-factor of MnO4 ⇒ 5
δ+ δ+ δ–
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3 n-factor of C2 O24− ⇒ 2
(Incipient carbocation)
Cl −
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24− is 5 : 2
δ– So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
AlCl3
∴ The balanced equation is
Now,
CH3 2MnO−4 + 5C2 O24− + 16H+ → 2Mn2 + + 10CO2 + 8H2 O
160. Which one of the following conditions will
CH – CH3
favour maximum formation of the product in
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2 the reaction,
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H (2) Low temperature and low pressure
O
+
H /H2O
(3) High temperature and low pressure
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide (4) High temperature and high pressure
Rearrangement
(R) (Q) Answer ( 1 )
158. Which of the following compounds can form a X2 (g); ΔH = −x kJ
S o l . A2 (g) + B2 (g)
zwitterion?
(1) Aniline (2) Acetanilide On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
direction where pressure decreases i.e.
(3) Glycine (4) Benzoic acid forward direction.
Answer ( 3 ) On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
⊕ ⊕
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
–
So, high pressure and low temperature
(Zwitterion form) favours maximum formation of product.
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
161. When initial concentration of the reactant is
H2N – CH2 – COO– doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction
159. For the redox reaction
(1) Is halved
MnO−4 + C2 O24− + H+ ⎯⎯
→ Mn2 + + CO2 + H2 O (2) Is doubled
(3) Remains unchanged
The correct coefficients of the reactants for
(4) Is tripled
the balanced equation are
Answer ( 2 )
MnO−4 C2 O24− H+ S o l . Half life of zero order
(1) 16 5 2 [A0 ]
t 1/2 =
(2) 2 5 16 2K
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= NA
1s2 2s2 2p3
0.18
(2) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
OR 18
= 10–2 NA
(3) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p
∴ Option (4) violates Hund's Rule. 0.00224
(4) Moles of water = = 10–4
22.4
168. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not 170. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
depend on reactant concentrations; the character is
rate of a second-order reaction does (1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
depend on reactant concentrations
(2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(2) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
(3) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
second-order reaction does depend on (4) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
[A]0 Answer ( 1 )
(3) The rate of a first-order reaction does S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
depend on reactant concentrations; the group metallic character of metals increases
rate of a second-order reaction does not so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
depend on reactant concentrations Hence the option (1) should be correct option.
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171. Consider the change in oxidation state of 173. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
Bromine corresponding to different emf values different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
as shown in the diagram below : different concentrations :
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V M M
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
–
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
Then the species undergoing 10 10
disproportionation is
M M
(1) BrO3− c. 75 mL
5
HCl + 25 mL
5
NaOH
(2) BrO−4
M M
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
(3) HBrO 10 10
(4) Br2 pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
Answer ( 3 ) (1) b (2) a
+1 0 (3) c (4) d
o
S o l . HBrO ⎯⎯
→ Br2 , EHBrO/Br = 1.595 V
2
Answer ( 3 )
+1 +5
1
→ BrO3− , Eo
HBrO ⎯⎯ = 1.5 V Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75 × × 1 = 15
BrO3− /HBrO 5
o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO, 1
• Meq of NaOH = 25 × × 1 = 5
5
o o
Ecell = EHBrO/Br − Eo
2 BrO3− /HBrO
• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
= 1.595 – 1.5 • Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
= 0.095 V = + ve
10 1
Hence, option (3) is correct answer. = =
100 10
172. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product ⎡ 1⎤
pH = –log[H+] = − log ⎢ ⎥ = 1.0
(Ksp) will be ⎣ 10 ⎦
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
174. On which of the following properties does the
(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2 coagulating power of an ion depend?
(2) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2 (1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
(3) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2 alone
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175. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 178. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and transition and paramagnetism as well?
3.59, which one of the following gases is most
(1) CrO42–
easily liquefied?
(2) Cr2O72–
(1) NH3
(2) H2 (3) MnO42–
(4) O2 Answer ( 3 )
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms 179. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
present in a complex, they are classified complex [Ni(CO)4] are
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and (1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
so on.
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear (4) Square planar geometry and
paramagnetic
Hence, option (2) should be the right
answer. Answer ( 2 )
177. The type of isomerism shown by the complex S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
[CoCl2(en)2] is ∵ CO is a strong field ligand
(1) Geometrical isomerism Configuration would be :
(2) Coordination isomerism
3
(3) Linkage isomerism sp -hybridisation
Ni
CO
OC
• As per given option, type of isomerism is
geometrical isomerism. CO
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