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• Level of vena caval opening: T8
• Level of esophageal opening: T10
• Level of aortic opening: T12
• Caval opening is through: Central part
• Aortic opening is through: Osseo-aponeurotic opening (not a true opening)
• Esophageal opening is through: Muscular part of diaphragm
• Right phrenic nerve passes through: Vena caval opening
• Vagus nerve passes through: Esophageal opening
• Esophageal branch of left gastric artery passes through: Esophageal opening
• Azygous vein passes through: Aortic opening

• Formed by union of 2 vertebral arteries: Basilar A.

• Inferior vesical artery is a branch of: Anterior division of internal iliac artery
• Uterine A. is a branch of: Anterior division of internal iliac A.
• Inferior thyroid A. is a branch of: Thyrocervical trunk
• Ascending pharyngeal A. is a branch of: External carotid A.
• Internal pudendal A. is a branch of: Anterior division of Internal iliac A.
• Left gastro-epiploic A. is a branch of: Splenic A.
• Splenic A. is a branch of: Coeliac trunk
• Cystic A. is a branch of: Right hepatic A.
• Cilio-retinal A. is a branch of: Choroidal A.
• Middle meningeal A. is a branch of: Maxillary A.
• Anterior spinal A. is a branch of: Vertebral A.
• Ophthalmic A. is a branch of: Internal carotid A.
• Medially, superior thyroid artery is related to: External branch of superior laryngeal nerve


• Prochordal plate & primitive streak is seen on: 14th day

• Oogonia & germ cell are derived from: Yolk sac
• 1st polar body is formed during: Oogenesis
• 1st polar body is extruded: At the time of ovulation
• Y chromosome is: Acrocentric
• Sperms are stored in: Epididymis
• Length of human sperm: 50-60 microns
• Number of chromosomes are reduced down to half in: 1st meiotic division
• In humans, implantation begins on the: 6th day after fertilization
• Initiation and maintainance of primitive streak is because of: Nodal gene
• Primitive streak develops in which week: 3rd week
• Structure developed from cloaca:
• The cloaca develops into the rectum and upper 2/3 of the anal canal,
• While its anterior subdivision, the urogenital sinus, develops into the bladder and
• In the female, the urethra and vestibule,
• While in the male the prostatic urethra.

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• Anomaly of pancreas in which the parts of the pancreas derived from the dorsal & ventral buds fail to fuse
with each other: Divided pancreas


• Meckel's divertculum: Remnant of vitelline duct

• Ligamentum venosum: Remnant of ductus venosus
• Ligamentum arteriosum: Remnant of ductus arteriosus
• Median umbilical ligament: Remnant of urachus
• Medial umbilical ligaments: Remnant of 2 umbilical arteries


• Mesodermal in origin: Kidney, Muscle (EXCEPT musculature of iris), Bone etc.

• Trigone of bladder: Mesoderm
• Somites: Paraxial mesoderm
• Epithelial lining of biliary tract: Endoderm
• Tympanic membrane: All the 3 germ layers
• Derivatives of neural crest:
o Neurons of
 Dorsal root,
 Sensory &
 Autonomic/ sympathetic ganglia
o Schwann cells,
o Melanocytes,
o Mesenchyme of dental papillae etc.


• Collecting duct develops from: Ureteric bud

• Epithelium of ureter develops from: Mesonephros
• Uterus/ appendix testes develops from: Mullerian duct/ paramesonephric duct
• Ovary develops from: Genital ridge
• Scrotum develops from: Genital swelling
• Clitoris develops from: Genital tubercle


• Meckel's cartilage develops from: 1st pharyngeal arch

• Sphenomandibular ligament develops from: 1st pharyngeal arch
• Stapes develops from: 2nd pharyngeal arch
• Stylohyoid ligament develops from: 2nd pharyngeal arch
• Greater cornua of hyoid develops from: 3rd pharyngeal arch
• Posterior belly of digastric develops from: 2nd pharyngeal arch
• Anterior belly of digastric develops from: 1st pharyngeal arch
• Platysma develops from: 2nd pharyngeal arch


• Palatine tonsil develops from: 2nd pharyngeal pouch

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• Inferior parathyroid gland & thymus develops from: 3rd pharyngeal pouch
• Superior parathyroid gland & ultimobranchial body develops from: 4th pharyngeal pouch
• Parafollicular cells are derived from: Ultimobranchial body


• Muscle of tongue develops from: Occipital myotomes

• Muscles of tongue are: Both smooth & skeletal muscles
• Safety muscle of tongue: Genioglossus
• Pain of Ca base of tongue is referred to the ear through: Glossopharyngeal nerve
• Circumvallate papillae of tongue are supplied by: Glossopharyngeal nerve
• Anterior 2/ 3rd of tongue develops from:
o Lingual swellings &
o Tuberculum impar
• Tate sensation from anterior 2/ 3rd of tongue is by: Chorda tympani (facial)
• Posterior 1/3rd of tongue develops from: Hypobranchial eminence


• Mesothelium of pleura, peritoneum & pericardium is lined by: Simple squamous epithelium
• Nasal cavity, nasal air sinuses, nasopharynx, larynx (EXCEPT vocal cords), trachea & bronchi are lined by:
Ciliated pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium
• True vocal cords, cornea, tonsil & vagina are lined by: Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
• Epithelium with extra reserve of cell membrane: Transitional epithelium
• Calyces, ureter, ureterovesical junction & urinary bladder have: Transitional epithelium


• Brunners gland is present in: Duodenum

• Function of gap junctions: Exchange between cells
• Gustatory system has: Sensory type of neuro-epithelium
• Intercalated disc is present in: Cardiac muscle
• Nucleus in cardiac muscle: Central
• Reticuloendothelial cells of liver are: Kupffer cells
• Space of Disse & space of Mall are seen in: Liver
• Intrinsic factor (Castle) is secreted by: Parietal/ oxyntic cells
• Chief/ peptic/ zymogen cells lines the: Body of the gland (secrete pepsinogen)
• Paneth cells (intestine) are rich in: Rough ER
• Epiglottis is an example of: Elastic cartilage


• Nerve arising from the trunks of brachial plexus:

o Suprascapular nerve,
o Subclavius nerve
• Musculocutaneous nerve arises from: Lateral cord
• Subscapular nerve arises from: Posterior cord
• Erbs point is: Union of C5 & C6
• Erb's palsy involves: Upper trunk of brachial plexus
• Klumpke's paralysis is: Injury to lower trunk of brachial plexus


• Hypothenar area (medial third of palm) is supplied by: Ulnar nerve

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• Palmar & dorsal interossei are supplied by: Ulnar nerve
• Adductor pollicis (adduction of thumb) is supplied by: Ulnar nerve
• Froment sign/ Book test is done for: Ulnar nerve injury
• Thenar eminence is supplied by: Median nerve
• Lunate dislocation may injure: Median nerve
• Ape thumb deformity is seen in: Median nerve injury


• Nerve of medial/ adductor compartment of thigh: Obturator nerve

• Gluteus maximus is supplied by: Inferior gluteal nerve
• Gluteus minimus, G. medius & tensor fascia lata is supplied by: Superior gluteal nerve
• Action of sartorius & piriformis: Lateral rotation
• Superior & inferior gemelli action: Lateral rotation
• Abductors of the hip: Gluteus medius & gluteus minimus
• Function of ileofemoral ligament/ ligament of Bigelow: Prevents hyperextension at the hip
• Root value of pudendal nerve: S2, S3, S4
• Root value of obturator nerve: L2, L3, L4


• Extensor of the knee joint: Quadricep femoris

• Posterior dislocation of femur is prevented by: Anterior cruciate ligament
• Posterior dislocation of the tibia is prevented by: Posterior cruciate ligament


• Esophagus pierces diaphragm at a distance of: 15 inches (from incisor)

• Length of esophagus: 25 cm
• Esophagus commences at: Lower end of cricoid
• Epithelium of esophagus: Stratified squamous non keratinized
• Most common site for oesophageal obstruction: Crico-oesophageal junction


• Inferior surface of the heart is formed by: Both ventricles

• Base of heart is formed by: Both atrium
• Part of heart lying close to esophagus: Left atrium
• Trabeculae carnea is present in: Right ventricle
• Anterior wall of left ventricle is supplied by: Left anterior descending artery
• Right coronary artery arises from: Anterior aortic cusp
• In right dominance, posterior interventricular artery originates from: Right coronary artery
• SA node, AV node & AV bundle is supplied by: Right coronary artery
• Middle cardiac vein follows: Posterior interventricular artery
• SVC & IVC opens into: Right atrium
• Coronary sinus drains into: Right atrium


• Artery crossing optic nerve: Ophthalmic artery

• Cranial nerve having longest intracranial course: Trochlear
• Cranial nerve 3 & 4 have their nuclei in: Midbrain
• Cranial nerve 9, 10, 11, 12 have their nuclei in: Medulla
• Cranial nerve emerging from the dorsal aspect of brain: Trochlear
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• Muscles supplied by facial nerve:
o Platysma,
o Muscles of facial expression,
o Buccinator etc.
• Glands supplied by facial nerve:
o Submandibular,
o Lacrimal,
o Nasal glands
• Gustatory sensation to soft palate is carried by: Facial nerve
• Ganglion related to facial nerve:
o Pterygopalatine ganglion,
o Geniculate ganglion etc.
• Arterial supply to facial nerve: Ascending pharyngeal artery
• All palatal muscles (except tensor palati) are supplied by: Cranial part of Accessory nerve
• Right hypoglossal nerve palsy will deviate the tongue to: Right side
• Paralysis of 3, 4 & 6 cranial nerve indicates lesion of: Cavernous sinus (these nerve lies in lateral wall of
cavernous sinus)
• Afferent pathway of corneal reflex: Trigeminal nerve (nasociliary branch of ophthalmic/ V1 division)


• Contents of optic canal:

o Optic nerve &
o Ophthalmic artery
• Contents of foramen rotundum: Maxillary division of cranial nerve V
• Contents of foramen ovate:
o Mandibular division of cranial nerve V,
o Accessory meningeal artery etc.
• Contents of foramen spinosum:
o Middle meningeal artery,
o Meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve etc.
• Contents of foramen magnum:
o Accessory nerve,
o Vertebral & spinal arteries (NOT spinal cord) etc.
• Contents of jugular foramen:
o 9, 10 & 11 cranial nerves,
o Internal jugular vein,
o Inferior petrosal sinus
• Contents of internal auditory meatus:
o 7 & 8 cranial nerve,
o Labyrinthine artery
• Content of Dorellos canal: Cranial nerve 6


• Cartilages of larynx: 3 paired & 3 unpaired

• Sensory innervation above the level of vocal cords is by: Internal laryngeal nerve
• Sensory innervation of larynx below the level of vocal cords: Recurrent laryngeal nerve
• Nerve supply of cricothyroid: External laryngeal nerve
• Abductor of vocal cords: Posterior crico-arytenoid
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• Tensor of vocal cords: Cricothyroid


• Primary auditory area is in: Superior part of the temporal gyrus

• Primary visual area is in: Occipital lobe
• Loss of tactile localization & 2 point discrimination occurs in damage to: Somatosensory area 1
• Functions of limbic system:
o Emotions,
o Memory &
o Higher functions


• Lymphatics drainage of testis: Para-aortic node

• Clitoris & glans Penis: Cloquet node/ Rossenmullers node
• Labium majus: Superficial inguinal node
• Testis: Pre-aortic & para-aortic nodes
• Tip of tongue: Submental nodes
• Spongiform urethra: Deep inguinal nodes
• Lymphatics are not present in: Brain, choroid, internal ear, cornea


• Left gonadal vein drain into: Left renal vein

• Great cerebral vein (of Galen) is formed by the union of: Internal cerebral veins
• Great cerebral vein drains into: Straight sinus
• Portal vein is formed by: Union of splenic vein & superior mesenteric vein (behind neck of pancreas)
• Normal portal pressure is: 5-10 mm Hg


• All intrinsic muscle of larynx are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve except: Cricothyroid (external
laryngeal nerve)
• All muscles of tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve except: Palatoglossus (pharyngeal plexus)
• All muscles of pharynx are supplied by pharyngeal plexus except: Stylopharyngeus (Glossopharyngeal nerve)
• All muscles of the soft palate are supplied by pharyngeal plexus except: Tensor palati (nerve to medial

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Superior & inferior radioulnar joints are an example of: Pivot joint
2. Nerve supply of platysma: Facial nerve
3. Salivary gland, NOT supplied by facial nerve: Parotid
4. All palatal muscles are supplied by cranial accessory nerve through pharyngeal plexus EXCEPT: Tensor veli
5. Azygos vein passes through Aortic hiatus
6. Source of bleeding in extradural hemorrhage: Middle Meningeal artery
7. Haversian canal is a histological feature of: Compact bone/ cortex
8. Uterine artery is a branch of: Anterior division of Iliac artery
9. 1st polar body is extruded at the time of:Ovulation
10. Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of: Vitellointestinal duct
11. Structure derived from all the three germ layers: Tympanic membrane/ ear drum

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12. Stapes develop from Ilnd pharyngeal arch
13. Safety muscle of tongue: Genioglossus
14. Taste sensation from anterior 2/3rd of tongue is carried by: Chorda tympani
15. Epithelial lining of tonsil: Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
16. Peritoneal cavity is lined by: Simple squamous epithelium
17. Intercalated disc is a histological feature of: Cardiac muscle
18. Erb's point is: C5, C6
19. Injury to lower trunk of brachial plexus is known as: Klumpke's palsy
20. Adductor pollicis is supplied by: Ulnar nerve
21. Teres minor & deltoid muscle are supplied by: Axillary nerve
22. Nerve supply of gluteus maximus: Inferior gluteal nerve
23. Ligament preventing hyperextension at the hip joint: Iliofemoral ligament/ Ligamnet of Bigelow
24. Inversion & eversion occurs at Subtalar joint
25. Joint between epiphysis & diaphysis is: Primary cartilaginous
26. Vessels in umbilical cord:2 arteries & 1 vein (right vein disappears, left vein is LEFT)
27. Ligamentum arteriosum is derived from: Ductus arteriosus
28. Artery present in anatomical snuff box: Radial artery
29. Sperm are stored in:Epididymis
30. Hassal's corpuscles is seen in:Thymus
31. Peyer's patches are present in: Ileum
32. Nerve supply to hypothenar muscle is from: Ulnar nerve
33. Nerve passing deep to flexor retinaculum at wrist: Median nerve
34. Nerve related to spiral groove of humerus: Radial nerve
35. Azygos veins drain into: Superior Vena Cava
36. Housemaids knee is inflammation of Prepatellar bursa
37. Superficial inguinal ring is a defect in the: External oblique aponeurosis
38. Left testicular vein drains into: Left renal vein
39. Left gastro-epiploic artery is a branch of: Splenic artery
40. MC position of appendix: Retrocaecal
41. Nasolacrimal duct opens into inferior meatus
42. Parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to submandibular gland is through: Facial nerve
43. Opening of parotid duct:opposite upper 2nd molar
44. Abductor of vocal cord: Posterior cricoarytenoid
45. In adults spinal cord ends at the lower border of L1 vertebra (in children, it is at lower border of L3)
46. Muscle supplied by spinal part of accessory nerve: Sternocleidomastid & trapezi us
47. Unlocking of knee is done by: Popliteus
48. Type of cartilage in auricle of ear: Elastic
49. Nerve supply of superior oblique muscle: Trochlear
50. Muscle producing abduction, intorsion & depression of eyeball: Superior Oblique

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• Water constitutes about: 60% of body weight
• Sodium, chloride & bicarbonate ions are predominant in: Extracellular fluid
• Intracellular fluid is rich in: Potassium
• Endolymph is rich in: Potassium
• Measurement of total body water: Tritrated water, deuterium oxide
• Measurement of ECF: Inulin, mannitol
• Measurement of plasma volume: Evans blue, radiolabelled albumin
• Normal anion gap (cations - anions): 10-12 mmol/ L


• RMP of nerve fibre is: -70 Mv

• RMP is due to: Potassium ions
• RMP is close to isoelectric potential of: Chloride ions
• At synapse, nerve impulse flow is: Unidirectional
• Band which narrows during contraction: H band
• Active sites of actin are covered by: Tropomyosin
• Essential for smooth muscle contraction: Cellular calcium
• Order of susceptibility of nerve fibres to pressurea: Type A > type B > type c


• Resistance vessel: Artery/ arteriole

• Exchange vessel: Capillaries (maximum surface area)
• Capacitance vessel: Vein
• BP is calculated as: Cardiac output X peripheral resistance
• Small cuff, thick walled vessels & obesity will give a: High BP
• Ventricular end diastolic volume: Volume of blood in ventricular cavity at the end of atrial contraction (120
ml); determines preload
• Ejection fraction: Ratio of stroke volume to end diastolic volume (SD/ EDV); 50-70%
• Stroke volume: Volume of blood ejected with each heart beat (CO/ HR); 70-80 ml
• Cardiac index: Cardiac output/ Body surface area; 3.2 is the normal value


• QRS complex is due to: Ventricular depolarization

• Duration of QRS complex: 0.08 - 0.10 sec
• 3rd heart sound is hear during: Ventricular filling phase
• 'Y' wave in JVP is due to: Opening of AV valve & emptying of blood into ventricle


• CO2 is primarily transported in arterial blood as: Bicarbonate

• During inspiration, intrapleural pressure becomes: More negative
• Total lung capacity: Volume of air contained in the lung at the end of maximal inspiration; 6 L (male); 4.7 L

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• Total lung capacity depends upon: Lung compliance
• Tidal volume: Amount of air breathed in or out during normal breathing; 500 ml (male); 390 ml (female)
• At the apex of lung: V (ventilation) > Q (perfusion) [wasted ventilation]
• Volume of lung at the end of quite expiration, which can be expired with maximal effect: Expiratory reserve
• Minute alveolar ventilation is: 3.5 - 4.5 L
• Response to high altitude:
o Increased ventilation (earliest),
o Increased response to carotid bodies,
o Respiratory alkalosis etc.
• Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by: Type II pneumocytes
• Surfactant is: Dipalmitoyl lecithin
• Surfactant production is accelerated by: Glucocorticoids
• Respiratory distress syndrome is due to: Deficiency of surfactant
• Chloride shift: Bicarbonate diffuses into plasma & same quantity of chloride diffuses into RBC in venous
• Pneumotaxic centre is present in: Pons (dorsal)
• Shape of oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve: Sigmoid
• Decrease in temperature shifts the curve to: Left
• Increase in affinity of oxygen for hemoglobin shift the curve to: Left
• Increased pCO2 shift the curve to: Right
• Sickle cell hemoglobin presence shift the curve to: Right
• Respiratory distress syndrome shift the curve to: Right
• 2,3 DPG (increased in anemia) shift the curve to: Right
• MC type of hypoxia: Hypoxic hypoxia
• Hypoxia is defined as: Low pO2


• Action of renin: Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

• Factors stimulating renin secretion:
o Low BP,
o Hyponatremia etc.
• Major part of glomerular filtrate is absorbed in: PCT .
• Substances completely reabsorbed in PCT:
o Glucose,
o Bicarbonate,
o Water
• In presence of vasopressin, maximum reabsorption of water takes place in: PCT (even in absence of
vasopressin, maximum reabsorption of water takes place in PCT)
• Substances partially reabsorbed in PCT:
o Sodium,
o Potassium,
o Chloride
• Glucose transport occurs with: Sodium
• Macula densa is: Epithelial lining of distal tubule
• Tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by sensing: Sodium chloride in densa
• Loop of Henle does not handle: Urea
• Filtration fraction is calculated as: GFR/ RPF; 20%

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• GFR (inulin clearance) is: 125 ml/ min
• Normal creatinine level: 0.6-1.2 mg%
• Urea clearance: 88 ml/ min


• Site of absorption of iron: Duodenum

• Intrinsic factor is secreted by: Oxyntic/ parietal cells
• HCl is secreted by: Oxyntic/ parietal cells
• Gastrin is secreted by: G cells of stomach, duodenum etc.
• Action of gastrin:
o Stimulates secretion of gastric juice,
o Increases gastric motility etc.
• Action of secretin:
o Stimulates secretion of watery, alkaline & pancreatic secretions, Inhibit gastric secretion,
o Causes contraction of pyloric sphincter,
• Most potent stimulator of secretion of secretin is: Acidic chyme
• Action of cholecystokinin: Stimulates contraction of gallbladder
• CCK-PZ secretion is stimulated by: Proteins
• Gastric secretion is stimulated by:
o Gastrin,
o Histamine etc.
• Gastric phase of gastric secretion is mediated by: Hormones
• Intestinal motility is stimulated by:
o Distension,
o Acetylcholine etc.
• Fat is maximally absorbed in: Jejunum
• Calcium is maximally absorbed in: proximal intestine
• Electrolytes are absorbed in: Colon
• Effect of dietary fibres (e.g. pectin):
o Increases bulk of stool,
o Increases metabolism or sugar in GIT
• Largest reserve of energy in body: Fat
• Gastric lipase helps in digestion of: Fats
• Indicator of malabsorption: Fat in stool (> 6 gms/ day)


• Insulin increases:
o Glycogen synthesis,
o Fat synthesis,
o Protein synthesis etc.
• Insulin is a: Hypoglycemic hormone
• Insulin is secreted by: Beta cells of pancreas
• In fetus, secretion of insulin begins by: 3 months
• Insulin secretion is inhibited by: Epinephrine
• Delta cells of pancreas secrete: Somatostatin
• Hormones acting on intracellular nuclear receptors:
o Steroids,
o Thyroid hormones,
o Vitamin D etc.
• cAMP mediates action of:
o ADH,

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o PTH etc.
• cGMP mediates action of: NO (cellular signalling molecule)
• Insulin acts throught: Tyrosine kinase activity
• Hormones belonging to steroid receptor family:
• Vitamin D3,
• Thyroid
• Effect of parathormone:
o Stimulates osteoclastic activity,
o Augments absorption of calcium from the gut
• Effect of calcitonin:
o Opposite to that of PTH,
o Lowers serum calcium,
o Acts by decreasing osteoclasis (bone resorption)
• Active form of calcium: Ionized form
• A decrease in concentration of free calcium ions in plasma results in:
o Increased neuromuscular irritability & tetani,
o Chvostek's sign etc.
• ECG finding of hypocalcemia: Lengthening of the QT interval
• ACTH & TSH are secreted by: Anterior pituitary gland
• Vasopressin & oxytocin are released by: Posterior pituitary gland


• Functions of LH:
o Stimulates ovulation,
o Maintains corpus luteum
• FSH receptors are present in: Granulosa cells
• Hormonal status in menopause:
o Decreased estrogen,
o Raised FSH & LH
• Spermatozoa acquire motility in: Epididymis
• Capacitation occurs in: Female genital tract
• In female genital tract, sperm don't survive more than: 48 hours
• Testosterone is produced from: Pregnanolone
• Testosterone is produced by: Leydig cells
• Blood testis barrier is formed by: Sertoli cells
• Inhibin is secreted by: Sertoli cells
• Most useful physiologic marker of thyroid hormone action: TSH
• Hormones increased in stressful conditions:
o Adrenaline,
o Vasopressin,
o Cortisol,
o Glucagon,
• Insulin is NOT increased in stressful conditions
• Melatonin is a: Pineal hormone
• In darkness: Activity of serotonin-N-acetyl transferase is increased


• Theta waves (4-7 Hz) are seen in: Hippocampus

• Delta waves (3-5 Hz) are seen in: Deep sleep
• Nightmares are seen in: REM sleep
• HelmHoltz theory (of colour vision): There are 3 kinds of cones in retina, corresponding to 3 colour’s
Protanomoly is: Defect in red cones
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• Visible range of electromagnetic spectrum of human eye: 370-740 nm
• Function of amacrine cells: Regulates relative color & luminosity of photoreceptive input under changing
• Most sensitive (pathway) for stimulus of colour contrast: Parvocellular pathway (from lateral geniculate body
to visual cortex)
• Blobs of visual cortex are associated with: Colour processing
• Function of pacinian corpuscles: Senses rapidly adapting touch, pressure & vibration
• Region of CNS, which degenerate in Huntington's disease (GABAergic neurons): Caudate nucleus Cingulate
gyri amygdaloid nucleus are part of: Limbic system
• Wernickes aphasia is: Impaired comprehension of spoken & written language
• Broacas aphasia is concerned with: Word formation
• Broacaa area is present in: Inferior frontal gyrus
• Nuclei of hypothalamus controlling thirst & water balance: Supraoptic nucleus
• Nuclei of hypothalamus controlling circadian rhythm: Suprachiasmatic nucleus
• Nuclei of hypothalamus controlling shivering: Posterolateral hypothalamus
• Functions of hypothalamus:
o Food intake,
o Hypophyseal control,
o Non shivering thermogenesis (because of noradrenaline; mediated by beta 3 receptors)
• Hormone important for cold adaptation: Thyroxine (piloerection is NOT significant)
• Main excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS is: Glutamate
• Functions of cerebellum:
o Coordinates & smoothens the action of different muscle groups,
o Producing smooth & accurate movements
• Intention tremors are seen in: Lesions of cerebellum
• Function of basal nuclei/ basal ganglia: Planning & programming of movements
• Caudate nucleus & lentiform nuclei (corpus striatum) are a part of: Basal ganglia

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Sperms mature in: Epididymis

2. Vitamin K dependent clotting factors: 2, 7, 9 10
3. FSH is secreted by: Anterior pituitary
4. Oxytocin is synthesized in: Hypothalamus
5. Milk let down reflex is controlled by: Oxytocin
6. Resting membrane potential is due to: Potassium ions
7. Function of muscle spindle: Detects muscle tension
8. Function of basal ganglia: Programming of muscle movements
9. Intention tremors are seen in lesions of: Cerebellar lesions
10. Main excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS: Glutamate
11. Hormone important for cold adaptation: Thyroxine
12. Hypothalamic nuclei controlling thirst & water balance: Supraoptic
13. Broaca area is present in: Inferior frontal gyrus
14. Impaired comprehension of spoken & written language is known as: Wernickes aphasia
15. Nightmares are seen in: REM sleep
16. Most useful physiologic marker of thyroid hormone action: TSH
17. Blood testes barrier is formed by: Sertoli cells
18. Testosterone is produced by: Leydig cells
19. Capacitation occurs in: Female genital tract/ uterus
20. Sperms acquire motility in: Epididymis
21. Estrogen level after menopause: Reduced

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22. LSH is secreted by: Anterior pituitary
23. Chvostek sign is seen in: Hypocalcemia
24. Effect of calcitonin: Decreased serum calcium
25. Somatostatin is secreted by: Delta cells of pancreas
26. Hormone secreted by beta cells of pancreas: Insulin
27. Calcium is absorbed maximally in: Proximal intestine
28. Most potent stimulator of secretin release: Acidic chyme
29. Site of absorption of iron: Duodenum
30. Glucose transport occurs with: Sodium
31. Major part of glomerular filtrate is absorbed in: PCT
32. Decrease in pH shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to: Right
33. Pneumotaxic centre is present in: Dorsal pons
34. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by: Type II pneumocytes
35. Amount of air breathed in or out during normal breathing is known as: Tidal volume
36. Carbon di oxide is primarily transported in arterial blood as: Bicarbonates
37. Third heart sound is due to: Ventricular filling
38. QRS complex on ECG is due to: Ventricular depolarization
39. Cardiac index is calculated as: cardiac output/ Body surface area
40. Volume of blood ejected with each heart beat is known as: Stroke volume
41. Blood pressure readings in thick walled vessels & obesity: High
42. Active sites of actin are covered by: Tropomyosin
43. Intracellular fluid is rich in which cation: Potassiu
44. Site of ATP synthesis: Mitochondria
45. Cell shape & motility is due to: Tubulin
46. Size of action potential depends upon which ion: Sodium
47. Repolarization of a nerve is due to which ion: Potassium
48. Most abundant cation in extracellular fluid: Sodium
49. Fertilization takes place in which part of fallopian tube: Ampulla
50. Separation of 2nd polar body occurs at the time of: Fertilization
51. Milk ejection is controlled by: Oxytocin
52. Ovulation is due to surge of: LH
53. Gas, responsible for respiratory drive: Carbon di oxide
54. Temperature regulation is done by: Hypothalamus
55. Action potential follows which law: All or none
56. Platelets are stored at: 20-24 degree C
57. Dreaming is commoner in which phase of sleep: REM
58. Neurotransmitter depleted in Parkinson's disease: Dopamine
59. Law explaining phantom limb: Law of projection
60. Tract involved in Parkinson's disease: Nigro-striatal pathway
61. Function of Kupffer cells in liver: Phagocytosis
62. Chymotrypsinogen is activated into chymotrypsin by: Trypsin
63. Site of action of antidiuretic hormone/ ADH: Collecting duct & DCT
64. Normal GFR is 125 ml/ min
65. Reabsorption of water is maximum in: PCT
66. Effect of parathormone on calcium levels: Increase in calcium levels
67. Aortic valve closure marks the beginning of which phase of cardiac cycle: Phase of relaxation
68. Calcitonin is secreted by: Parafollicular/ C cells of thyroid
69. 1st heart sound is due to: Closure of AV valves
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70. Most useful for estimating total iron content of blood: Serum ferritin

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• DNA replication occurs in: S/ synthesis phase (Interphase)

• Bases in DNA:
o Adenine (A),
o Guanine (G),
o Cytosine (C) and
o Thymine (T)
• The double helix are bonded together by: Hydrogen bonds
• RNA differ from DNA in that:
o Deoxyribose sugar of DNA is replaced by a ribose moiety,
o Instead of thymine (T), Uracil (U) is present in RNA
• New synthesized strand is made in: 5' a 3' direction
• Restriction fragments can be analyzed using: Gel electrophoresis
• Cistron: Smallest fundamental unit coding for DNA synthesis
• Okazaki fragments: DNA fragments with RNA head
• Okazaki fragments are formed during: Replication
• Microsatellite sequence: Short sequence repeat DNA
• Proteins binding to DNA contains: Zinc
• Protein synthesis occurs mainly in: Ribosomes
• Function of helicase: Unwinding of DNA helix
• Fidelty enzyme in protein synthesis is: Amino acyl t RNA synthetase
• AMBER codon is: Termination codon
• Function of chaperones: Protein folding
• Transposons: Jumping genes


• Normal role of micro-RNA: Gene regulation

• Splicing activity is a function of: Sn-RNA
• Sigma subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase: Specifically recognizes the promoter site


• Northern blot: RNA

• Microarray: RNA/ complimentary-DNA
• FISH/ fluorescence in situ hybridization: Rapid method of chromosome identification


• Branched chain amino acid whose metabolism is abnormal in maple syrup urine disease/ MSUD:
o Valine,
o Isoleucine
• Essential amino acids:
o Methionine,
o Arginine,
o Threonine,
o Tryptophan,
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o Valine,
o Isoleucine,
o Leucine,
o Phenylalanine,
o Histidine
o Lysine
• Naturally occurring amino acids are: L isomers
• Most non polar amino acid is: Leucine
• Amino acid containing indole ring: Tryptophan
• Melatonin is synthesized from: Tryptophan
• Ammonia is produced in kidney from: Glutamine
• Ammonia is detoxified inn brain to: Glutamine
• Precursor of tyrosine: Phenylalanine
• Creatinine is synthesized from:
o Glycine,
o Arginine,
o Methionine
• Buffering action of blood is due to: Histidine


• Molybadenum act as co factor for:

o Xanthine oxidase,
o DMSO reductase,
o Sulfite oxidase, and
o Nitrate reductase.
• Enzyme activity is measured as: Micromoles/ min
• In competitive inhibition, Vmax is: Same (Km is increased)
• Coenzyme is: Non protein organic compounds
• Abzyme is: Antibody with catalytic activity
• Ribozymes are: RNA molecules with catalytic activity
• Km (Michaelis Menton) reflects: Affinity of enzymes to that substrate
• Fumarase belongs to: Lyase
• Tyrosinase belongs to: Oxidase
• Hexokinase belongs to: Transferase


• Features of vitamin A deficiency:

o Night blindness,
o Xerophthalmia,
o Follicular hyperkeratosis
• Vitamin which prevents lipid peroxidation: Vitamin E
• Vitamin needed for gamma carboxylation: Vitamin K
• Vitamin which is a post-translation modifier: Vitamin K


• Wernicke's Korsakoff syndrome is associated with deficiency of: Thiamine (B1)

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• Consumption of egg (containing avidin) may lead to deficiency of: Biotin
• Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in deficiency of: Vitamin B12/ extrinsic factor of castle
• Scurvy is seen in deficiency of: Vitamin C


• Branching enzyme takes part in: Converting glucose to glycogen.

• GLUT2 is found in cellular membranes of:
o Liver (Primary)
o Pancreatic b cell (Primary)
o Hypothalamus (Not overly significant)
o Basolateral and brush border membrane of small intestine
o Basolateral membrane of renal tubular cells
• Mature RBC lacks enzymes of: TCA cycle
• Cancer cells derives energy by: Glycolysis
• Anticoagulant added for estimating blood glucose (added to prevent glycolysis): Sodium fluoride
• Fluoride inhibits: Enolase
• Enzymes responsible for complete oxidation of glucose are present in: Mitochondria
• Substances which can prevent glycolysis:
o Potassium oxalate,
o Sodium fluoride
• Glycolysis is regulated at:
o Hexokinase,
o Phosphofructokinase,
o Pyruvate kinase


• First substrate of citric acid cycle is: Pyruvate

• Substrate level phosphorylation occurs in reaction catalyzed by enzyme: Succinyl-CoA-thiokinase


• HMP shunt is important as it produces: NADPH

• ATP produced in HMP shunt: No ATP is directly produced/ consumed


• NADPH is produced in: HMP shunt

• NADPH is used for:
o Fatty acid synthesis,
o Steroid synthesis etc.
• Important enzyme involved in NADPH synthesis: G-6-PD


• Stearic acid oxidation: 146 ATP (old); 129 (new)

• HMP shunt: 0
• Kreb's cycle: 12 ATP (per acetyl CoA; old); 10 (new)
• Aerobic glycolysis: 8 ATP (per glucose molecule; old); 5/ 7 (new)
• Anaerobic glycolysis: 2 ATP (per glucose molecule)


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• Enzyme deficient in von-Gierke's disease: Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
• Enzyme deficient in Andersons disease: Branching enzyme
• Enzyme deficient in McArdle's disease: Muscle phosphorylase
• Lactic acid and hyperuricemia is a feature of: Von-Gierke's disease (GST-I)
• Muscles are not involved in: Von-Gierke's disease (GST-I)
• Hypoglycemia, non-responsive to epinephrine is a feature of: Von-Gierke's disease (GST-I)


• Monosaturated fatty acids:

o Oleic acid,
o Elaidic acid
• Essential fatty acid:
o Linoleic acid,
o Linolenic acid,
o Arachidonic acid,
o Ecosa pantanoic acid,
o Docosa hexanoic acid
• Most essential fatty acid is: Linoleic acid


• Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis: HMG CoA reductase

• Bile acids are derived from: Cholesterol


• Synthesis of fatty acid occurs in: Cytosol

• Reducing equivalents for fatty acid synthesis are provided by: NADPH
• Rate limiting step in fatty acid synthesis: Acetyl CoA carboxylase (contains biotin)
• Fatty acid synthetase contains: Acyl carrier protein and pantothenic acid
• Beta oxidation of fatty acids produces: Propionyl CoA


• Ketone bodies are formed in: Liver

• Ketone bodies are product of: Fatty acids metabolism
• Ketone bodies are normally produced from: Acetyl CoA
• Normal excretion of ketone bodies is: 1 mg/ day
• Ketone bodies are utilized by conversion of acetoacetate to: Acetoacetyl CoA
• Important feature of starvation: Ketone body formation without glycosuria


• Activator of LCAT: ApoA

• Reduced/ absent lipoprotein levels in abetalipoproteinemia:
o Chylomicrons
• Activator of lipoprotein lipase: ApoC-II

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• Apoprotein associated with HDL: ApoA-1
• Apoprotein associated with LDL: B100
• Most atherogenic lipoprotein: LDL
• Lipoprotein with highest cholesterol content: LDL
• Lipoprotein with highest triglyceride content: Chylomicrons
• Lipoprotein which reverses cholesterol transport: HDL
• Chylomicrons have least: Electrophoretic mobility


• Phenylketonuria/ PKU is due to deficiency of: Phenylalanine hydroxylase

• Mousy/ musty odour of urine is present in: PKU
• Alkaptonuria is due to deficiency of: Homogentisate oxidase
• Homogentisic oxidase deficiency results in: Ochronosis
• Arthritis and urine turns black in: Alkaptonuria
• Maple syrup urine is due to deficiency of: Branched chain alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase


• First 2 reactions of urea cycle occurs in: Mitochondria

• Source of ammonia in urine is: Glutamine


• Aconitase: Fluoroacetate
• Succinate dehydrogenase: Malonate
• Enolase: Fluoride

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Northern blot is done for: RNA

2. Melatonin is synthesized from: Tryptophan
3. Precursor of tyrosine: Phenylalanine
4. Rotheras test is done for: Ketone bodies
5. Wernicke's Korsakoff syndrome is associated with deficiency of: Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
6. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in deficiency of: Vitamin B12
7. RBC Transketolase is associated with: Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
8. Alpha2, Gamma2 is which hemoglobin: HbF
9. Cancer cells derives energy by: Glycolysis
10. Agent added to blood for estimating blood glucose (added to prevent glycolysis): Sodium flouride
11. Fluoride inhibits which enzyme: Enolase
12. First substrate of citric acid cycle is: Pyruvate, which forms acetyl CoA, which starts Krebs cycle
13. In TCA, substrate level phosphorylation occurs in reaction catalyzed by enzyme: Succinyl CoA thiokinase
14. HMG CoA synthase is rate limiting enzyme for: Ketone body synthesis
15. Muscle cannot make use of glycogen as they lack: Glucose-6-Phosphatase
16. HMP shunt is important as it produces: NADPH
17. Number of ATP produced in HMP shunt: Zero
18. Enzyme deficient in von-Gierke's disease: Glucose-6-Phosphatase
19. In galactosemia, cataract occurs because of the accumulation of: Dulcitol/ Galactitol
20. Most essential fatty acid is: Linoleic acid
21. Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis: HMG CoA reductase
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22. Beta oxidation of fatty acids produces: Propionyl CoA
23. Ketone bodies are formed in: Liver
24. Important feature of ketosis in starvation: Ketosis without glycosuria
25. Most atherogenic lipoprotein: LDL
26. Western blotting is done for: Proteins
27. Final product of purine metabolism: Uric acid
28. Building block for fatty acid biosynthesis: Acetyl CoA
29. Deficiency of sphingomyelinase causes: Niemann Pick disease
30. Good cholesterol is: HDL
31. Element required for phosphofructokinase: Magnesium
32. Ammonia is detoxified in brain to: Glutamine
33. Thyroxine is synthesized from: Tyrosine
34. Niacin is synthesized from: Tryptophan
35. Source of nitrogen in urea cycle: Ammonia and aspartic acid
36. Limiting amino acids in wheat: Lysine and Threonine
37. Tyrosine becomes essential in which condition: Phenylketonuria
38. Mousy odour of urine is present in: Phenyloketonuria
39. Most direct precursor of taurine is: Cysteine
40. Precursor of adrenaline and noradrenaline: Tyrosine
41. Ochronosis is seen in: Alkaptonuria
42. Cycle occuring both in cytosol as well as mitochondria: Urea cycle
43. Andersen disease is due to deficiency of which enzyme: Branching enzyme
44. End product of anaerobic Glycolysis: Lactate
45. Rate limiting step in ketone bodies synthesis: HMG CoA synthase
46. Production of uric acid is by purine metabolism
47. Base present in RNA, but absent in DNA: Uracil
48. Malonate inhibits succinate dehydrogenase enzyme
49. DNA double helix is held by hydrogen bonds
50. Free fatty acids are transported bound to: Albumin
51. End product of aerobic Glycolysis: Pyruvate
52. Troponins are marker for: Myocardial infarction
53. Prostaglandin are derived from: Arachidonic acid
54. Urine turns dark on exposure to air in: Alkaptonuria
55. Enzyme deficient in Alkaptonuria: Homogentisate oxidase

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• Dystrophic calcification occurs in: Dying tissues

• Calcium level in dystrophic calcification is: Normal
• Red infarct (venous occlusion, seen in organ with dual blood supply) is seen in: Gut
• Most common type of necrosis is: Coagulative necrosis
• Features of irreversible injury:
o Flocculent, amorphous densities in mitochondria,
o Swelling & disruption of lysosomes etc.
• Features of apoptosis:
o Condensation of nuclear chromatin followed by fragmentation,
o Formation of cytoplasmic/ membrane blebs,
o Cytoplasmic chromophilia etc.
• Phagocytosis is inhibited by: bc12
• Examples of autoimmune diseases:
o SLE,
o Graves disease,
o Myasthenia gravis etc.
• Chronic venous congestion of liver is known as: Nutmeg liver
• Gamma Gandy bodies are seen in: Chronic venous congestion of spleen
• Leucotrienes (LTC4, LTD4, LTE4) causes: Vasoconstriction
• LTE4 causes: Adhesion of WBC
• Prostacyclins inhibit: Platelet aggregation
• C5a is: Important mediator of chemotaxis
• Wound contraction is mediated by: Fibroblast
• Epitheloid & multi-nucleated giant cells are derived from: Monocyte-macrophages
• ARDS/ diffuse alveolar damage is also known as: Shock lung
• Lines of Zahn are seen in: Thrombus
• Chicken fat clot is: Post mortem thrombus
• Heart failure cells are seen in: Lungs
• Cells first involved in tissue injury are: Neutrophils
• Procoagulant states:
o Protein C & protein S deficiency,
o Factor V/ Leidin mutation etc.
• Hyperviscosity is seen in:
o Multiple myeloma,
o Cryoglobinemia etc.


• t(8;14): Burkitts lymphoma

• t(9;22): CML
• t(11;22): Ewings sarcoma


• Endodermal sinus tumours: AFP/ alpha Fetoprotein

• Yolk sac tumours: AFP
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• Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours: Gastrin
• Ca cervix: Keratin


• Amyloid protein associated with primary amyloidosis/ myeloma: AL

• Amyloid protein associated with secondary amyloidosis (TB, RA): AA
• Amyloid protein associated with cardiac amyloidosis: ATTR
• MC site of amyloidosis: Kidney (followed by liver)
• Thyroid Ca showing amyloid stroma is Medullary thyroid Ca/ MTC
• Best diagnostic method for amyloidosis: Rectal biopsy
• Congo red stain in ordinary light gives: Pink colour
• Congo red stain in polarizing light gives: Yellow green birefringence


• Homocystinuria is: Autosomal recessive/ AR

• Von Willebrands disease is: Autosomal dominant/ AD
• Retinoblastoma is: Autosomal dominant/ AD
• Familial hypercholesterolemia is: Autosomal dominant/ AD
• Achondroplasia is: Autosomal dominant/ AD
• Hereditary spherocytosis is: Autosomal dominant/ AD
• Chromosome 4 is involved in: Huntingtons chorea
• Chromosome 7 is involved in: Cystic fibrosis
• Gene for major histocompatibility is located on chromosome: 6
• Gene for folate carrier protein is located on chromosome: 21
• Short arm of chromosome is designated as: p
• Long arm of chromosome is designated as: q
• Genes regulating morphogenesis: Homeobox genes (HOX)
• APC gene is located on chromosome: 5
• BRCA1 gene is located on chromosme: 17


• Aschoff bodies are a feature of: Rheumatic heart disease

• Anitschow cells/ caterpillar cells are seen in: Rheumatic heart disease
• Valve least commonly used in RHD: Tricuspid valve
• MC cause of mitral stenosis: Rheumatic fever
• MC cause of myocarditis: Viral (Coxsackie virus B)
• MC primary cardiac tumours: Myxoma (MC tumour is Secondaries)
• Libman Sacks endocarditis is seen in: SLE
• Dresslers syndrome is: Autoimmune


• MC involved artery in MI: Left anterior descending artery/ LAD

• Earliest change seen in MI: Waviness of fibres
• Change noticed within 1-3 days of MI:
o Coagulation necrosis,
o Neutrophilic infiltration
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• Change seen around 1 week after MI: Granulation tissue
• Scarring in MI is complete by: 3 months
• Troponin T: Marker of MI


• Charcot layden crystals are seen in: Asthma

• Curschmann spirals are seen in: Asthma
• Reid index is used for: Chronic bronchitis
• Alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with: Panacinar emphysema
• Important cause of emphysema: Smoking
• Non caseating granulomas with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is a feature of: Sarcoidosis
• Test used for sarcoidosis: Kveims test
• Features of sarcoidosis:
o Epitheloid cells with no caseation,
• Condition which may mimick sarcoidosis: Berrylium inhalation
• Egg shell pattern is seen in: Silicosis
• Intense fibrosis is a pathological feature of: Mesothelioma
• Particle size dangerous for pneumoconiosis: 1-3 microns


• Pipe stem colon is seen in: Ulcerative colitis

• Skip lesions is seen in: Crohns disease
• Transmural inflammation is seen in: Crohns disease
• Pseudopolyps are seen in: Ulcerative colitis
• MC site of involvement in Crohns disease: Ileum


• Mallory bodies are composed of: Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions

• Mallory bodies are seen in:
o Primary biliary cirrhosis,
o Alcoholism etc.
• Mallory hyaline is ABSENT in:
o Secondary biliary cirrhosis,
o Hepatitis etc.
• Acute infection of HBV:
o HBsAg +,
o IgM anti-HBc +
• MC cause of post transfusion hepatitis: HCV
• MC cause of sporadic cases of hepatitis in adults: HEV
• Hepatitis having worst prognosis in pregnancy: HEV
• MC route of spread of HEV: Feco-oral
• Angiosarcoma of liver is associated with:
o Vinyl chloride,
o Aflatoxin etc.


• MC cause of nephrotic syndrome in children: Lipoid nephrosis/ Minimal change disease

• Anti-GBM antibodies are seen in: Goodpasture's syndrome
• Diffuse involvement is seen in: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis/ PSGN

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• Sub-epithelial humps are seen in: PSGN
• FSGN having worst prognosis: Collapsing variety
• Sub-epithelial spikes (with M spike) is a feature of: Membranous GN
• Tram track appearance: Membranoproliferative GN
• Crescents (epithelial cells + fibrin + macrophage) are seen in: Rapidly progressive GN
• Alports syndrome:
o Hereditary nephritis,
o Nerve deafness &
o Eye disorders
• Lung involvement in Wegner's granulomatosis is: Bilateral nodular cavitary infiltrates (showing necrotizing
granulomatous vasculitis)
• Renal biopsy in Wegner's granulomatosis is that of: Pauci-immune necrotizing & crescentic GN
• Bilateral renal cell Ca may be seen in: Von Hippel Lindau disease
• Kimmelstein Wilson disease is seen in: Diabetic nephropathy
• MC gene defect in steroid resistant nephritic syndrome is: NPHS2
• Michaels Guttaman bodies are seen in: Malakoplakia
• Salt losing nephritis is seen in: Interstitial nephritis


• Thyroid Ca which spreads by lymphatics: Papillary Ca thyroid

• Psammoma bodies are seen in: Papillary Ca thyroid
• Orphan annie eyed nuclei are seen in: Papillary Ca thyroid
• Hurthle cell Ca is a variant of: Follicular Ca thyroid
• Tumour arising from parafollicular/ C cells: Medullary Ca thyroid
• Thyroid tumour which secretes calcitonin: Medullary Ca thyroid
• Thyroid Ca associated with MEN-II: Medullary Ca thyroid
• RET proto-oncogene is involved in: Medullary Ca thyroid


• Bite cells are seen in: G6PD deficiency

• Helmet cells are seen in:
o Hemolytic uremic syndrome
o Coombs positive;
• Schistocytes are seen in: Acquired spherocytosis Ring sideroblasts (iron granules in mitochondria around the
nucleus) are seen in: Sideroblastic anemia
• 'Tear drop' poikilocytes are seen in:
o Myeloid metaplasia &
o Myelofibrosis
• Post splenectomy changes includes:
o Howell jolly bodies,
o Heinz bodies etc.
• Burr cells are seen in: Uremia
• Acanthocytes are seen in: Abetalipoproteinemia
• Macroploycytes are seen in: Megaloblastic anemia
• Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in: Megaloblastic anemia
• Spur cells are seen in: Chronic liver disease

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• HS is chiefly due to: Ankyrin deficiency
• Basically HS is a: Cell membrane defect
• Proteins defective in HS:
o Ankyrin,
o Paladin,
o Anion transport protein


• Conditions associated with AML:

o Down syndrome,
o Bloom syndrome etc.
• Features of AML:
o Chloroma,
o Auer rods,
o Positive non-specific esterase etc.
• AML subtype which is NOT positive for non-specific esterase: M6
• AML with gum infiltration: M4
• DIC is associated with: APML
• t(15;17) is seen in: APML
• Basophilic leucocytosis occurs in: CML
• B cell neoplasms include:
o Hairy cell leukemia,
o Mantle cell lymphoma etc.


• Russel bodies & Flame cells are seen,

• Bence Jones proteins are: Light chains
• Urea level in MM are: Raised


• Malignant cells of Hodgkin's disease are: Reed Sternberg cells/ RS

• RS cells are positive for:
o CD15 &
o CD30
• Subtype of Hodgkin's disease, which is NOT positive for CD15 & CD30: Lymphocytic predominant (positive
for CD20)
• Lacunar cells are seen in: Nodular sclerosis type of lymphoma
• Hilar lymphadenopathy is a feature of: Nodular sclerosis type
• MC type of Hodgkins lymphoma: Nodular sclerosing
• MC type of Hodgkins lymphoma in India: Mixed cellularity
• MC site of extranodal non-Hodgkins lymphoma: Stomach
• Starry sky appearance is seen in: Burkitts lymphoma


• Macrophage of brain: Microglia

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• Complex granular corpuscles are produced by: Microglia
• CSF findings in pyogenic meningitis:
o Increased protein,
o Decreased sugar
o Increased neutrophils
• Features of tubercular meningitis:
o Increased protein,
o Decreased sugar,
o Increased lymphocytes


• MC primary brain tumour: Glioma

• MC brain tumour in adults: Astrocytoma
• MC type of glial tumours: Astrocytoma
• MC posterior fossa tumour in children: Cerebellar astrocytoma
• Pseudo-rosette are seen in: Neuroblastoma
• Enamel like structure is found in: Craniopharyngioma
• Glial fibrillary proteins are seen in: Astrocytoma


• MC bilateral breast tumour: Lobular Ca

• BRCA1 gene is located on: Chromosome 17
• MC tumours of ovary: Primary epithelial tumours (cystadenoma, clear cell Ca etc.)
• Call Exner bodies are seen in: Granulosa cell tumour
• Reinkes crystal are seen in: Hilus cell tumour
• Schiller Duval bodies: Endodermal sinus tumour
• Conditions associated with germ cell tumours/ GCT of testes:
o Cryptorchidism,
o Testicular feminization syndrome,
• Klinefelters syndrome is associated with: Mediastinal GCT
• Seminoma corresponds to: Dysgerminoma of ovary
• Window period: Time period between infection & detection of antibodies against HIV
• Hallmark of HIV:
o Profound immunodeficiency,
o Quantitative & qualitative deficiency of helper or inducer T cells
• AIDS related neoplasm:
o Kaposi sarcoma,
o B cell non-Hodgkins lymphoma
o Primary lymphoma of brain
• Kaposi sarcoma arises from: Cells lining lymph vessels or blood vessels
• Kaposi sarcoma is associated with:
o HIV,
o Immunosuppression/ organ transplants

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Congo red staining for amyloid under polarized light shows: Yellow green/ Apple green birefringence
2. Serum marker indicating active viral replication in HBV infection: HBeAg, HBV-DNA
3. Negri bodies are seen in which condition: Rabies

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4. Rheumatic fever MC affects Mitral valve
5. Heart failure cells are: Hemosiderin laden alveolar macrophages
6. Biomarker which rises earliest in MI: Myoglobin
7. Flask shaped ulcer are seen in: Amoebic liver abscess
8. Anti-gliadin antibodies are seen in: Celiac disease
9. MC site of gastrinoma: Duodenum
10. In AML, Auer rods are numerous in: M3
11. Increased osmotic fragility is characteristic of: Herediatry spherocytosis
12. Christmas disease is due to deficiency of: Factor IX
13. Adult polycystic kidney is inherited as: Autosomal dominant
14. Community acquired pneumonia is MC caused by: Streptococcus penumoniae
15. Disease caused by cotton inhalation: Byssinosis
16. MC type of lung Ca in non-smokers: Adenocarcinoma
17. Reactivation of pulmonary TB always occurs at: Apex of lungs
18. MC feature of sarcoidosis on chest X-ray: Bilateral hilar lymphadenoapthy
19. SLE is type III hypersensitivity reaction
20. HIV affects CD4 cells
21. Wilson disease is due to accumulation of: Copper
22. Autosplenectomy is associated with: Sickle cell disease
23. MC type of stomach malignancy: Adenocarcinoma
24. Organ MC involved in hydatid disease: Liver
25. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is classically associated with: Diabetes mellitus
26. Calcium levels in dystrophic calcification: Normal
27. Calcification seen in dead/ degenerated tissues with normal serum calcium levels: Dystrophic calcification
28. Heart failure cells are seen in: Lungs (alveoli)
29. t(9;22) translocation is seen in: CML
30. Tumour marker for endodermal sinus tumour: Alpha FetoProtein
31. Lepromin test is type IN hypersensitivity reaction
32. Best diagnostic method for diagnosing amyloidosis: Rectal biopsy
33. Retinoblastoma is inherited as: Autosomal dominant
34. Only immunoglobulin that crosses placenta: IgG
35. Immunoglobulin present in breast milk: IgA
36. Pathological feature of malignant hypertension: Fibrinoid necrosis
37. Aschoff bodies are seen in: Rheumatic heart disease
38. MC primary heart tumour: Myxoma
39. MC involved artery in myocardial infarction: Left Anterior Descending
40. Reid index is used for: Chronic Bronchitis
41. Longitudinal ulcers in GIT are seen in: Typhoid
42. Skip lesions are seen in: Crohn's disease
43. Hepatitis having worst prognosis in pregnancy: HEV
44. MC cause of nephrotic syndrome in children: Minimal Change Disease
45. Psammoma bodies are seen in Papillary Ca of thyroid
46. Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in: Megaloblastiic anemia
47. Malignant cells of Hodgkins disease: Reed Sternberg cells
48. MC bilateral tumour of breast: Lobular
49. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is seen in deficiency of: Zinc
50. Micro Munro abscesses is seen in: Psoriasis

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o PK/ Prusnitz reaction: Type I
o Casoni's test: Type I
o Asthma. Hay fever, atopy etc: Type I (IgE mediated)
o Contact dermatitis: Type IV (delayed hypersensitivity)
o Schick's test: Type III (Immune complex mediated)
o Serum sickness: Type III
o Arthus reaction: Type III
o Immune thrombocytopenic purpura/ ITP: Type II (IgM/ IgG mediated)
o Immune hemolytic anemia: Type II
o Blood transfusion reactions: Type II
o Good pastures syndrome: Type II
o Graves disease: Type II
o First antibody to be synthesized after primary immunization: IgM
o First antibody to be synthesized after exposure to new antigen: IgM
o First antibody to be synthesized by fetus: IgM
o Antibody which fixes complement: IgM
o Only immunoglobulin that crosses placenta: IgG
o Immunoglobulin found in mucous secretions (saliva, tears, colostrum etc.): IgA/ secretory antibody
o Immunoglobulin elevated in atopic diseases (asthma, hay fever etc.): IgE
o Immunoglobulin mediating reaginic hypersensitivity: IgE


• Opsonization: C3b
• Chemotaxis: C5a


• Culture media & bacteria

• Loefflers serum slope: Corynebacterium diphtheria
• Tellurite media: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
• Korthof media: Leptospira
• Skirrows media: Campylobacter jejuni
• Thayer martin media: N. gonorrhea
• Lowenstein jenson media: Mycobacterium TB
• Dorset egg medium: Mycobacterium
• BYCE medium: Legionella
• Bordet Gengou medium: B. pertusis
• Colony appearances & bacteria

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• Medusa head colonies: B. anthracis
• Frosted glass colonies: B. anthracis
• Swimming growth (fishy/ seminal smell): Proteus
• Fried egg colonies: Mycoplasma
• Draughtsman (concentric rings) colonies: Pneumococci
• Cigar bundle (globi) appearance: M. leprae
• Stalactite growth: Yersinia pestis
• Bacteria & associated keywords
• Chinese letter arrangement: C. diphtheriae
• Hemophilus ducreyi: School of fish
• Mycoplasma: Fried egg colony
• Pneumococcus: Draughtsman colony
• Proteus: Swarming motility
• Satellitism: H influenza
• Meta-chromatic staining: Corynebacterium
• Lancet shaped diplococci: Penumococci
• Bean shaped diplococci: Neisseria
• Bipolar staining: Yersinia


• Factor responsible for staph. aureus pathogenecity: Coagulase

• Food poisoning results due to: Preformed endotoxin
• IP of staphy. aureus food poisoning: Less than 6 hours
• Staphy. aureus food poisoning is seen after ingestion of: Dairy products
• Conditions caused by staph. aureus: Furuncle, Carbuncle, Sycosis barbae, Tropical polymyositis etc.


• Factor responsible for pathogenecity of streptococci: M protein

• Lancefield classification is based on: C-carbohydrate
• Special feature of streptococcus agalac-taciae: Group B streptococci, Gram positive, Bacitracin
• resistant, CAMP test positive
• MC cause of acute meningitis in neonates: Group B streptococci (also E. coli); (H. influenza in
• childrens)


• Most virulent type of pneumococcus: Type C

• Appearance of pneumococcal colonies: Draughtsman colonies
• Vaccine against pneumococcus is made from: Capsule
• Virulence of streptococcus is due to: Capsule
• Gross appearance of pneumococcus: Lanceolate, Flame shaped diplococcus
• Special feature: Gram positive, Quellung reaction seen


• Reactions shown by gonococcus: Ferments glucose, Don't ferment maltose

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• Condition caused: Urethritis, Meningitis, Arthritis, Endocarditis
• Special feature of gonococcus: Intracytoplasmic, Gram negative


• Toxin of C. diphtheriae is: Phage mediated

• Culture media for C. diphtheriae: Loeffler's serum slope, Tellurite media
• Special features of C. diphtheriae: Babes Ernest granules/ Volutin granules/ Metachromatic
• granules
• Daisy head colony is associated with: C. diptheriae gravis


• Clostridium difficile (normal gut commensal) causes: Pseudomembranous colitis (particularly after antibiotic
• Clostridium perfringenes causes: Gas gangrene/ myonecrosis, Gastroenteritis
• Clostridium tetani causes: Tetanus
• Arrangement of spores of C. tetani: Drum stick appearance; Spherical & terminal spores
• Motility of C. tetani: Motile with swarming tendency
• Effect of toxin of Clostridium botulinium:
o Blocks release of acetylcholine at neuro-muscular junction;
o CNS is NOT affected
• Feature of botulinism: Symmteric descending paralysis


• MC cause for traveller's diarrhea: ETEC/ Enterogenic E. coli

• Most of the cases of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) are caused by: EHEC/
• Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
• Important cause of infant diarrhea: EPEC/ Enteropathogenic E. coli
• Only EPEC affects paediatric population, rest all strains can affect any age group
• Sereny test is positive in: EIEC/ Enteroinvasive E. coli
• Special feature of EIEC: Non-motile, Non-lactose fermenting


• Odour associated with proteus: Seminal/ fishy

• Special feature of proteus: Dienes phenomenon; Urease positive
• Effect of urease, produced by proteus: Urease hydrolyzes urea to ammonia, which results in
• alkalinization of urine;
• Hence high prevalence of UTI in long-term catheterized individuals


• Factor needed for growth: Tryptophan

• Virulence factor: O antigen; Used for classification
• Most immunogenic antigen: H. antigen
• Carriers are detected by: Vi agglutination; Vi antigen is not seen in normal population
• Special feature: Diazo reaction


• Most cases of cholera are: Subclinical

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• Isolation of V. cholerae was done by: Koch
• Motility of V. cholerae: Darting motility
• Action of toxin of V. cholerae is mediated by: cAMP
• Reservoir of V. cholerae: Humans
• V. cholerae survives: Boiling for 30 seconds, Cold temperature (ice for 4-6 weeks)
• Special features: Non-halophilic, Ferments glucose, Transported in alkaline medium


• M. bacilli was discovered by: Robert Koch

• Factor responsible for acid fastness Mycolic acid & cell wall
• Stain used for rapid diagnosis of M. bacilli: Auramine Rhodamine stain
• Factor which promotes virulence: Cord factor
• Special feature: Production of niacin


• Generation time of M. leprae: 12 days

• M. leprae can be grown in: Foot pad of mice
• M. leprae spreads by: Skin to skin contact
• Lepra cells are: Histiocytes


• Minimum organism needed for detection in dark ground microscopy: 104 organisms
• Specific test for T. pallidum: FTA-ABS
• VDRL is a type of: Slide flocculation test
• VDRL is positive in: Secondary syphilis
• Special feature: Leviditti stain


• Also known as Eaton agent

• Smallest free living organisms
• Prokarotes, that are bounded by cell membrane
• As they lack cell wall, they show cellular pleomorphism & resistance to cell wall active antimicrobial agents
(penicillins & cephalosporins)
• Appearance of colonies: Fried eggs colonies
• MC forms of mycoplasma: L forms


• Motility of H. pylori is due to: Spiral shape, Flagellae

• Route of transmission of H. pylori: Man to man, Faeco-orally, Oro-gastric route
• Gram negative,
• Spiral, flagellate bacillus
• Produces Urease
• Urease protects it from acid by catalyzing conversion of urea to ammonia (buffer)

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• Rickettsial pox is caused by: R. akari

• Q fever is caused by: Coxialla burnetti
• Weil-Felix reaction: Tube agglutination test in which sera are tested for agglutinins to the 0 antigen of
proteus vulgaris strains OX-19 & OX-2 and proteus mirabilis (OX-K)


• Detected by: Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

• Obligate intracellular bacteria
• Gram negative
• Elementary body is metabolically inert (extracellular)
• Inclusion bodies in psittacosis: Levinthal Colles Lille bodies
• Inclusion bodies in conjunctivitis: Halber-staedter Prowazeki/ HP bodies


• Virions: Extracellular infectious particles

• Capsid: Protein coat, sorrounding nucleic acids
• Prions: Protein molecules, that can spread from cell to cell & effect changes in the structure of their normal
counterparts (cellular proteins)
• E.g. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru, Gerstmann-Straussler disease, Mad cow disease, Fatal familial insomnia
• Structures absent in virus: Ribosomes, Mitochondria, Nucleus (but DNA/ RNA is present), Motility
• Usually DNA viruses are double stranded (exception is parvovirus which is single stranded DNA) & RNA
viruses are single stranded (exception is reovirus/ rotavirus which is double stranded RNA)
• Smallest virus/ Virus with smallest genome: Parvo virus
• Virus with segmented RNA: Influenza virus
• Largest virus: Pox virus
• Largest RNA virus: Rhabdovirus
• Smallest :NA virus: Picorna virus


• Latent infection is characteristic of herpes group

• Viruses belonging to herpes group: HSV, Varicella zoster, EBV, CMV etc.
• HSV (herpes simplex virus) virus is a: Double stranded DNA virus
• MC cause of sporadic viral encephalitis: HSV
• Varicella zoster virus remains dormant in: Trigeminal (sensory) ganglion
• Infectivity of herpes zoster lasts: 6 days after the onset of rash
• Diseases caused by EBV: Oral hairy leukoplakia, Burkitt's lymphoma, Anaplastic nasopharyngeal carcinoma,
T-cell lyphoma, Thymoma
• HHV-8 causes: Kaposi sarcoma
• HHV-6 causes: roseola infantum & multiple sclerosis
• HFIV-2 causes: Genital lesions
• More than 50% of renal transplants with fever, 1-4 months after transplantation have: CMV infection


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• MC manifestation of polio is: Subclinical infection (90%)
• Inapparent infections are MC transmitted by: Feco-oral route
• Polio virus spreads by: Hematogenous route, Neural route
• Death in polio is mostly due to: Respiratory paralysis
• Most outbreaks are due to: Type 1 (most common)
• Most effective antigen (immunogenic): type 2
• Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis is caused by: Type 3


• Influenza virus type B causes: Reyes syndrome

• Feature of haemagglutinin & neuraminidase: Strain specific
• Antigenic variation seen with influenza virus: Antigenic drift & shift
• Antigenic drift (minor change): Small mutations in H & N
• Antigenic shift (major change)
• Bird flu virus is also known as: Avian flu influenza virus/ H5N1
• Swine flu (2009 outbreak) was due to: H1N1
• In influenza, virus antigen variation occurs mainly in: Type A
• Antigenic variation does not occur in: Type C (antigenically stable)


• Measles virus belongs to: Paramyxovirus

• Infectivity period of measles: 4 days before rash, 5 days after rash appearance
• Conditions associated with measles virus: Hechts pneumonia/ Primary giant cell pneumonia
• A rare, late complication: SSPE (subacute sclerosing panencephalitis)


• Rabies virus is: Enveloped virus with, ss RNA

• Rabies virus is inactivated by: Phenol, UV radiation, Beta propiono lactone
• Negri bodies are pathognomic of: Rabies encephalitis, They are present inside nerve cells
• Stains used for ante-mortem diagnosis: Fluorescent diagnosis


• Special feature of hepatitis A virus (previously known as enterovirus 72): No chronic course
• Hepatitis A virus is inactivated by: Boiling, Formalin, UV radiation
• Hepatitis B virus contains: DNA dependent DNA polymerase, RNA dependent reverse transcriptase
• Reverse transcriptase is coded by: P gene
• Dane particle is: HBV
• HBV strain in India: Ayw, Adr
• Maximum perinatal transmission risk: HBV
• Serological marker of acute hepatitis B infection: HBsAg, Core antibody
• Epidemiological marker of Hepatitis B infection: Core antibody
• REMEMBER: HBcAg is NOT demonstrable in blood but, core antibody, anti-HBe appear in serum a week or 2
after appearance of HBsAg
• Indicator of high infectivity of hepatitis B infection: HBeAg, HBV-DNA (indicator of intrahepatic viral
• Feature of hepatitis B vaccine: Cell fraction derived
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• Feature of hepatitis C virus: Linear, Single-stranded, Positive sense, Enveloped, RNA virus
• HCV belongs to: Flaviviridae
• MC cause of post-transfusion hepatitis: HCV
• HCV also causes: Chronic hepatitis
• HEV is transmitted: Feco-oral
• Highest mortality in pregnancy with hepatitis is with: HEV
• In pregnancy, HEV is also associated with: Hepatic encephalopathy
• Hepatitis viruses spreading by feco-oral route are: HAV, HEV


• HIV is: Single stranded, Positive sense, RNA virus

• HIV is found in: Blood, Semen, Saliva
• HIV consists of: 2 copies of ss RNA, RNA dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase) [compare with
HBV], Integrase, Protease
• Seroconversion takes: 4 weeks
• MC mode of transmission: Hetero-sexual
• In hetero-sexual transmission: Male to female is commoner (as compared to female to male)
• Chances of transmission with accidental needle prick: 0.3%
• Retroviral sequence in host cell: RNA-DNA-RNA
• p24 antigen (used for early diagnosis) disappears after: 6-8 weeks of HIV infection
• CD4/ CD8 ratio is: Reversed in HIV infection
• Reservoir of HIV infection: Macrophages
• Window period: Time period between, infection to appearance of antibodies in serum
• During window period, ELISA & western blot are: Negative
• MC cause of diarrhea in AIDS: Cryptosporodiosis (NOT cryptococcus)
• MC cause of meningitis in AIDS: Cryptococcus
• MC cause of oral ulcer in AIDS: Candida
• MC cause of TB in AIDS in tropical countries: Mycobacterium TB
• MC opportunistic infection in AIDS in India is: TB


• Human papilloma virus (HPV) causes: Warts & genital warts, Cervical Ca, Vulval Ca, Penile Ca, Anal Ca,
Perianal Ca
• HPV with 1 igh oncogenic potential: HPV 16, HPV 18, HPV 31, HPV 33


• Candidiasis is an: Endogenous infection

• MC fungal infection in neutropenic patients: Candidiasis
• Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by: Candida
• Thrush is caused by: Candida (thrush is also known as oral candidiasis)


• Capsule of cryptococcus: Polysacchride capsule

• Cryptococcus has predilection for: Brain
• Rapid & sensitive test for capsular polysaccharide in CSF cryptococcal infection: Latex particle agglutination
• India ink (microscopy) wet mount is used for diagnosis of: Cryptococcus
• MC cause of acute meningitis in AIDS: Cryptococcus

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Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. MC cause of diarrhoea in AIDS: Cryptosporodium

2. MC cause of meningitis in AIDS: Cryptococcus
3. MC cause of infantile diarrhea: Rotavirus
4. Micro-organism which require sterol for growth: Mycoplasma
5. Both intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusion bodies are seen in: Measles
6. Endoscopes are best sterilized by: 2% Glutaraldehyde/ Cidex
7. Phenol coefficient indicates: Efficacy of a disinfectant
8. Immunoglobulin involved in anaphylaxis: IgE
9. Earliest Ig synthesized by fetus in response to infection: IgM
10. VR media is used for: Vibrio cholerae
11. LJ medium is used for culturing: Mycobacteriumm tuberculosis
12. Culture media used for corynebacterium diphtheria: Loefller serum slope, Tellurite medium
13. Organism having no cell wall, bounded by membrane containing sterols: Mycoplasma
14. Paul Bunnel test is done for: Infectious mononucleosis
15. Example of yeast like fungi: Candida
16. Southern blot test is done for: DNA
17. Significant bacteriuria is present if bacterial count in urine is: 105
18. MC cause of gas gangrene: Clostridium perfringenes
19. Organism seen in dark ground microscopy: Spirochaetes
20. Secretory immunoglobulin: IgA
21. Contact dermatitis is type IV hypersensitivity reaction
22. Travellers diarrhoea is caused by: ETEC
23. MC cause of acute bacterial endocarditis: Staphylococcus aureus
24. Most immunogenic antigen in typhoid: H antigen
25. VDRL is a type of: Slide flocculation test
26. Burkitts lymphoma is caused by: Epstein Barr virus
27. Schik's test is type I Hypersensitivity reaction
28. Immunoglobulin mediating secondary response: IgG
29. Process of coating of pathogen for efficient phagocytosis is known as: Opsonization
30. Immunoglobulin present in breast milk: IgA
31. Immunoglobulin produced after primary immunization: IgG
32. Immunoglobulin that provides natural passive immunity to newborn: IgG
33. Transfusion reactions are type II hypersensitivity reaction
34. Mantoux test is type IV hypersensitivity reaction
35. Dorset egg medium is used for: Mycobacterium
36. Draughtsman colonies are seen in culture of: Pneumococcus
37. Tryptophan is an important growth factor for: Salmonella
38. Virulence of mycobacterium TB depends on: Cord factor
39. Bacteria, which is known as Eaton agent: Mycoplasma
40. Metachromatic staining is a feature of: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
41. Cholera red reaction & Indole formation is shown by: Vibrio cholerae
42. Motility shown by proteus: Swarming
43. Typical feature of botulinism: Symmetric descending paralysis
44. Factor responsible for acid fastness of mycobacterium TB: Mycolic acid in cell wall
45. Leptospirosis is transmitted by: Rat urine
46. Sulfur granules in actinomycosis consist of: Organism
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47. Q fever is caused by: Coxiella burnetti
48. Swine flu was due to HiN, strain
49. Negri bodies are seen in: Nerve cells
50. Retroviral sequence of HIV virus in host cell: RNA-DNA-RNA

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• Gametocytes are seen in peripheral blood smear

• Parasitemia is highest
• Most virulent plasmodium species
• Exo-erythrocytic stage is absent
• Multiple infections of RBC's
• Splenic rupture is common


• NNN (Novy, Neal & Nicolle) medium is used

• Aldehyde test is positive in 12 weeks
• Hyper-gamma-globulinemia is seen


• Wuchereria bancrofti causes: Lymphatic filariasis

• Habitat of wuchereria bancrofti: Lymph vessels & lymph nodes


• Hydatid disease/ Echionococciosis is caused by: E. granulosus

• Definitive host for hydatid disease: Dog
• ARA C-5 is used in diagnosis
• Hydatid cyst (& trichuriasis) are caused by ingestion of infected egg via feco-oral route from contaminated

• Features of cyst of entamoeba histolytica: Cyst has glycogen mass, Chromidial bars, Eccentric nucleus a
• Extra-intestinal infection by E. histolytica most often involves: Liver (amoebic liver abscess)

• Caused by: Ascaris lumbricoides/ Common roundworm
• Location in host: Small intestines, Larvae through lungs
• Mode of transportation: Eatable viable eggs from feces-contaminated soil or food
• DOC: Mebendazole, Pyrantel pamoate

• Caused by: Clonorchis sinensis (T)/ Chinese liver fluke
• Location in host: Liver (bile ducts)
• Mode of transportation: Undercooked freshwater fish o DOC: Praziquantel, Albendazole

• Caused by: Dracunculus medinensis/ Guinea worm
• Location in host: Subcutaneous (Usually leg & foot)
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• Mode of transportation: Drinking water with cyclops
• DOC: Mechanical or surgical extraction; Metronidazole, Mebendazole


• Caused by: F. hepatica/ Sheep liver fluke; F. buski/ Giant intestinal fluke
• Location in host: Liver (after migration through parenchyma), Small intestine
• Mode of transportation: Watercress, Aquatic vegetation
• DOC: Bithionol, Triclabendazole


• Caused by: Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus

• Location in host: Small intestine; larvae through lungs
• Mode of transportation: Through skin, infected soil, from drinking contaminated water (ancylostoma)
• DOC: Mebendazole, Pyrantel pamoate, Albendazole


• Caused by: Ancylostoma braziliense

• Location in host: Subcutaneous, migrating larvae
• Mode of transportation: Contact with soil contaminated by dog or cat feces
• DOC: Thiabendazole, Albendazole, Ivermectin


• Caused by: Toxocara species

• Location in host: Liver, Lung, Eye, Brain
• Mode of transportation: Ingesting soil contaminated by dog or cat feces
• DOC: Diethylcarbamazine, Mebendazole, Albendazole


• Caused by: Onchocerca volvulus

• Location in host: Subcutaneous; Microfilariae in skin, eyes
• Mode of transportation: Bite of black fly Simulium
• DOC: Surgery, Ivermectin


• Caused by: Strongyloides stercoralis

• Location in host: Duodenum, Jejunum; larvae through skin„ lungs
• Mode of transportation: Through skin and rarely by internal autoinfection
• DOC: Thiabendazole (experimental), Ivermectin


• Caused by: T. saginata/ Beef tapeworm

• Location in host: Small intestine
• Mode of transportation: Uncooked beef
• DOC: Praziquantel


• Caused by: T. solium/ Pork tapeworm

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• Location in host: Small intestine
• Mode of transportation: Uncooked pork
• DOC: Praziquantel


• Caused by: T. solium (larval)

• Location in host: Subcutaneous; eye, meninges, brain
• Mode of transportation: Ingestion of eggs or regurgitation of gravid proglottid from lower GI tract
• DOC: Surgical excision, Albendazole, Praziquantel

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Adult worm in lymphatic filariasis resides in: Lymphatics

2. Microfilariae in lymphatic filariasis resides in: Blood
3. Schuffner dot's are seen in: Plasmodium vivax
4. Dot's seen in Plasmodium falciparum: Maurer dots
5. Stage of falciparum NOT seen in peripheral blood smear: Schizont
6. Giardia lamblia infestation can lead to: Malabsorption
7. Infective form of malarial parasite: Sporozoites
8. Highly specific & sensitive test for diagnosing Kala-azar: Immunoflourescent antibody test
9. LD bodies are associated with: Kala-azar
10. MC parasitic infestations in HIV: Cryptosporodium, Strongyloides
11. Cyclops is a part of life cycle of: Dracunculiasis
12. Kala-azar is transmitted by: Sandfly
13. Diphyllobothrum latum causes: Megaloblastic anemia
14. Q fever is caused by: Coxiella burnetti
15. Babesiosis is MC transmitted by: Ticks
16. Most virulent plasmodium species: Falciparum
17. CLM/ Cutaneous larva migrans is associated with: Ancylostoma brazileinse
18. VLM/ Visceral larva migrans is associated with: Toxocara
19. Visceral leishmaniasis is caused by: L. donovani
20. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is caused by: L. tropica
21. DOC for Kala-azar: Sodium stibgluconate
22. Oral drug for Kala-azar: Miltefosine
23. Prmastigote formof Leishmania is found in: GIT of sandfly
24. Sabin Feldman dye test is done for diagnosing: Toxoplasmma
25. Crescentic macrogametocyte are associated with plasmodium: Falciparum

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• Phenytoin
• Phenobarbitone
• Rifampicin
• Ritonavir


• First pass metabolism (Metabolism of drug in liver, intestinal wall or portal blood) + excretion of drug into
bile is known as first pass elimination
• First pass metabolism is seen with: Oral route, Rectal route
• Drug showing high first pass metabolism are: Lignocaine, propranolol, salbutamol


• Time taken for amount of drug in the body to decline by 50%

• Amount of drug excreted in 4th t1/2: 93.7%
• t1/2 can determine: Elimination time, Steady state plasma concentration, Dosing rate, Maintenance dose


• Constant AMOUNT is excreted

• Rate of elimination INDEPENDENT of plasma concentration
• Variable t1/2
• Phenytoin
• Ethanol
• Salicylates


• Constant FRACTION of drug is eliminated

• Rate of elimination is directly DEPENDENT on plasma concentration
• t1/2 is constant


• Phase I: Human pharmacology and safety

• Phase II: Therapeutic exploration and dose ranging, Determines efficacy
• Phase III: Therapeutic confirming
• Phase IV: Post marketing surveillance, No ethical clearance required
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• Good clinical practice is not required for pre-clinical trials but is needed for phase I -IV


• Carbamazepine: Cleft lip, cleft palate

• Valproic acid: Neural tube defects
• Thalidomide: Phocomelia
• Chloramphenicol: Grey baby syndrome


General facts

• Acetylcholine release is inhibited by: Botulinium

• Acetylcholine use is not possible because: It is rapidly degraded
• Acetyl-cholinesterase inhibitors
• Edrophonium (diagnosis of myasthenia gravis)
• Neostigmine/ Pyridostigmine (treatment of urinary retention, ileus, reversal of neuromuscular bockade)

Organophosphate poisoning

• Pupils in Organophosphate poisoning: Pin point pupils

• Treatment of organophosphate poisoning: Atropine and Pralidoxime (reactivates cholinesterase)


Alpha 1 agonist:

• Phenylephrine
• Methoxamine

Alpha 2 agonist:

• Clonidine
• Methyldopa

Beta 1agonist:

• Isoproterenol (betal = beta2)

• Dobutamine (betal > beta2)

Beta2 agonist:

• Salmeterol
• Terbutaline
• Ritodrine

Alpha1 blockers:

• Prazosin
• Tamsulosin

Alpha 2 blockers:
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• Yohimbine
• Mirtazapine (antidepressant)

Beta 1blocker:

• Acebutolol
• Atenolol
• Betaxolol
• Bisoprolol
• Esmolol
• Metoprolol

Beta1 and Beta2 blocker:

• Dilevelol
• Labetalol
• Carvedilol (alpha1, beta1, beta2 blocker)


• Mainly used for glaucoma

• No miosis
• It can precipitate asthma
• Contraindicated in: Asthma, Heart block


• Cardioselective
• No intrinsic activity
• Shortest acting beta blocker (10 minutes)


• Aspirin inhibits: Cox inhibitor (irreversible)

• Selective Cox2 inhibitor (they lack anti-platelet actions): Coxibs i.e. Lumiracoxib, valdecoxib
• Preferential Cox2 inhibitors: Nimesulide, Namebutone
• NSAID with good tissue penetration: Ketorolac
• NSAID with good concentration in synovial fluid: Diclofenac
• Drug used in acetaminophen toxicity: N-acetyl cysteine


• Mechanism of action of thiazides: Inhibit Na+/Cl- transporter n DCT

• Side effects of thiazides (chlorthiazide, indapamide): Hyperglcemia, Hypercalcemia
• Thiazides are used in the treatment of hypercalciuria but they themselves cause hypercalcemia and renal

• MOA of loop/ high ceiling diuretics (frusemide, ethacrynic acid): Inhibit Na+/ K+/ 2C1- transporter on thick
ascending limb of loop of Henle
• Frusemide is a: Sulphamoyl derivative
• Uses of frusemide:
o DOC for acute hypercalcemia
o Acute pulmonary edema (Along with Morphine)
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• Side effects of frusemide:
o Hyperuricemia
o Hypocalcemia
o Hyperlipidemia
• Main side effect of ethacrynic acid: Ototoxicity


• They (spironolactone, triamterene) acts on: Distal tubule and collecting duct
• Spironolactone antagonizes the (sodium retaining) effect of: Aldosterone
• Active metabolite of spironolactone is: Caneronone
• Side effects of spironolactone:
o Fatal hyperkalemia (particularly when administered with other potassium sparing diuretics),
o Gynaecomastia


• Effect of metformin (biguanide) on glucose metabolism:

o Increased glycolysis
o Decreased gluconeogenesis
• Feared complication of metformin: Lactic acidosis
• Metformin is C/I in: Renal failure
• Special feature of metformin:
o It does not cause weight gain (so particularly used in obesity
o Obesity is NOT a C/I)


• MOA of Acarbose and Miglitol (alpha glucosidase/ starch inhibitor):

o Decreases progression of impaired glucose tolerance to overt disease
o Reduces fibrinogen level also
• Special feature of Acarbose and Miglitol:
o They are euglycemics
o They does not cause hypoglycemia


• T1/ 2 of Insulin: 5 minutes

• Effect of Insulin on potassium: Promotes entry of potassium into the cell
• Difference between human and pork insulin: Human insulin differs from pork insulin by 1 amino acid
• Humulin is: Human insulin


• Maximum mineralo-corticoid activity is shown by: Aldosterone

• Maximum gluco-corticoid activity is shown by: Dexamethasone
• Androgen receptor blocker is: Cyproterone
• Anti-estrogen drug is: Clomiphene
• MOA of tamoxifen:
o Oral selective estrogen receptor modulator
o Decreases FSH
• Agents used for Ca breast:

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o Tamoxifen
o Exemastine
o Latrazole (aromatase inhibitor)
• S/E of danazol are:
o Acne
o Weight gain
o Occasionally hot flushes


• MOA of theophylline and doxophylline:

o Inhibits phospho-di-esterase 4 (PDE4)
o Increases cAMP concentration,
o Blocks adenosine receptors
o Beta2 agonist
o Stimulator of mucociliary movement
• Factors decreasing theophylline levels:
o Smoking
o Microsomal enzyme inducers
• Factors which increases plasma levels of theophylline:
o Erythromycin
o Ciprofloxacin,
o Cimetidine


• MOA of Monteleukast (leukotriene receptor antagonist/ LTRA):

o CysLT1 antagonist;
o Blocks action of leukotriene D4 on the cysteinyl leukotriene receptor (CysLT1) in the lungs
• Uses of monteleukast:
o Used in maintenance therapy of asthma
o Relief of seasonal allergies
o NOT useful in acute attacks
• Steroids in asthma (NO role in acute attacks/ status asthmaticus) acts by:
o Anti-inflammatory/ reduces airway inflammation,
o Increases lipocortin levels,
o Blocks phospholipid breakdown
• Commonly used steroids in asthma:
o Budesonide,
o Fluticasone,
o Triamicinolone
• S/E of inhaled steroids: Oropharyngeal candidiasis
• S/E of topical steroids: Glaucoma
• S/E of parenteral steroids: Posterior subcapsular cataract
• MOA of sodium chromoglycate (used for prophylaxis): Inhibitor of mast cell degranulation
• Zafirlukast (LTRA) is taken: Once daily
• Zileuton inhibits: 5 Lipo-oxygenase
• Anticholinergic bronchodilators:
o Ipratropium
o Tiotropium

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• Penicillinase-resistant (resist degradation by staphylococcal penicillinase) drugs:
o Methicillin (acid labile),
o Cloxacillin
• Quinupristin and Dalfopristin are used in (bacteriostatic): Vancomycin resistant enterococcus faecium (VREF)
• Imipenem is inhibited by: Dehydropeptidase (hence given along with cilastatin)
• Special feature of aztreonam: Can be safely used in patients allergic to penicillin and related group of drugs
(because of lack of cross reactivity)
• Linezolid is used in:
o Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA);
o No effect on gram negative bacteria


• Cephalosporin effective against gram negative enterobacteriacea (3rd generation):

o Cefoperazone (anti-pseudomonal activity)
o Cefixime
• 4th generation cephalosporin:
o Cefipime,
o Cefpirome


• MOA of tetracycline: They binds to 30s ribosomal subunit

• Complication arising due to use of outdated tetracycline: Fanconi's syndrome
• S/ E of doxycycline: Photo-dermatitis
• Tetracycline group drug causing pigmentation: Minocycline
• S/E of tetracycline:
o Teratogenic
o Super-infections
o Tooth discoloration


• MOA of aminoglycosides:
o Inhibit translation
o Bactericidal
o Distributed only extracellularly
• Framycetin, sisomycin belongs to: Aminoglycosides
• Streptomycin is used in: Plague/ tularemia
• S/E of aminoglycosides:
o Teratogenic
o Ototoxic
o Vestibulotoxic
o Nephrotoxic
o Causes neuromuscular blockade (should not be used in myasthenia gravis)
• One of the most resistant aminoglycoside to bacterial inactivating enzyme: Amakacin
• Longest acting quinolone: Sparfloxacin
• Most phototoxic quinolone: Sparfloxacin
• Quinolone are avoided in: Children (causes arthropathy)


• DOC in cholera: Doxycycline

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• DOC in toxoplasmosis: Cotrimoxazole
• DOC in MRSA: Vancomycin
• DOC in syphilis: Penicillin G
• DOC in legionella: Azithromycin/ Levofloxacin
• DOC in LGV: Azithromycin
• DOC in gonorrhea: Ceftriaxone
• DOC in P. carinii: Co-trimoxazole
• DOC in actinomycosis: Penicillin-G
• DOC in plague: Streptomycin
• DOC in kala-azar: Sodium stibgluconate
• Oral drug for kala-azar: Miltefosine


• Chemoprophylactic agent for cholera: Tetracycline

• Chemoprophylactic agent for Rheumatic fever: Benzathine penicillin


• Halofantrine is effective against: Chloroquine resistant plasmodium falciparum and plasmodium vivax
• Lumefantrine and pyronaridine acts as: Antimalarial
• S/E of chloroquine:
o Retinal toxicity
o Corneal deposits
o Blurred vision
o Pigmentary bulls eye retinopathy
o Myopathy


• Primaquine is effective for: Radical cure of plasmodium vivax

• Primaquine is ineffective against: Plasmodium falciparum
• S/E of primaquine: Hemolysis in G6PD deficients


• DOC for cerebral malaria: Quinine

• S/E of quinine: Hypoglycemia
• Special feature of quinine: Can be given safely in pregnancy (chloroquine can also be given in pregnancy)


• MOA of ketoconazole:
o Inhibits fungal lanosterol 14-demethylase
o Impairing ergosterol synthesis


• MOA of amphtericin B: Forms micropores in fungal cell membrane (it has affinity for ergosterol)

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• Amphotericin B intravenously, is given along with: Glucose solution
• S/E of amphotericin B: Hypokalemia
• Parenteral amphotericin B is indicated in the treatment of:
o Cryptococcosis (caused by cryptococcus neoformans C)
o Fungal septicemia
o Cryptococcal meningitis (cryptococcus neoformans)


• Antiviral more active against CMV: Ganciclovir

• Structurally idoxuridine is:
o Thymidine analogue
o Cannot be given orally


• Abacavir belongs to: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

• Nevirapine and Efavirenz belongs to: Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
• Saquinavir and Nelfanavir belongs to: Protease inhibitor
• Peripheral neuropathy is commoner with:
o Stavudine
o Didanosine
o Zalcitabine
• S/E of zidovudine:
o Myelosuppression,
o Megaloblastic anemia
• S/E of didanosine: Pancreatitis


• S/E of ethambutol: Retrobulbar optic neuritis

• Tuberculocidal anti-TB drugs:
o Rifampicin
o Pyrazinamide
o Streptomycin


• MOA of Isoniazid/ INH: Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

• S/E of INH:
o Peripheral neuritis (common in slow acetylator)
o Hepatotoxicity (common in elderly and alcoholics; rare in children)
• Anti-TB drug showing maximum resistance in India: INH
• Special feature about activity of INH:
o Bacteriostatic against resting bacilli;
o Bacteriocidal against rapidly multiplying organism (both intracellularly and extracellularly)
• INH associated hepatitis is more with:
o Daily alcohol consumption,
o Concomitant rifampin administration
o Slow INH acetylators
• Treatment of INH related peripheral neuritis:

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o Peripheral neuritis with INH administration is due to interference with pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
o So 10-50 mg of pyridoxine is to be administered daily


• S/E of rifampicin:
o Respiratory syndrome
o Abdominal syndrome
o Flu like syndrome
o Cutaneous syndrome


• S/E of pyrazinamide:
o Hepatotoxicity,
o Hyperuricemia,
o Hyperglycemia
• Pyrazinamide is used for: Short course therapy for TB
• Special features of pyrazinamide: Levels in CSF are high;
• MOA of pyrazinamide: Similar to INH (inhibition of mycolic acid cell wall synthesis), but intracellular action


• Most rapidly acting drug against leprosy bacillus: Rifampicin

• Most potent drug against leprosy bacillus: Rifampicin
• S/E of clofazimine:
o Reddish black discoloration of skin,
o Acneform eruptions


• DOC for leprosy: Dapsone

• S/E of dapsone: Hemolysis in G6PD deficient

• ACE inhibitors causes cough because of: Bradykinin
• C/I of ACE inhibitors:
o Patients with single kidney,
o Bilateral renal artery stenosis,
o Pregnancy,
o Phaeochromocytoma


• DOC for malignant hypertension: Nitroprusside (as it dilates both arterioles and veins)
• Special feature of nitroprusside:
o Increase guanylate cyclase,
o No central effects
o Raised nitric oxide level with nitrates and hydralazine co-administration


• Lignocaine is classified as: Class Ib antiarrythmic

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• Potassium channel blockers are classified as: Class III antiarrythmic agents

• DOC for ventricular arrythmias: Lidocaine
• DOC for PSVT: Adenosine
• DOC for WPW syndrome: Procainamide, Amiodarone

• Therapeutic level of digoxin: 0.5 to 1.5 ng/ ml
• Toxic level of digoxin: More than 2.4 ng/ ml
• MOA of digoxin:
o Inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase;
o Increases ventricular contractile force
• Route of excretion of digoxin: Kidneys
• C/I of digoxin: HOCM
• Digoxin toxicity consists of:
o Hypokalemia (classical finding)
• Hypomagnesemia


• Statins: Decrease cholesterol synthesis by inhibition of rate Limiting HMG-CoA reductase
• Bile acid Sequestrants: Decrease bile acid absorption, increased hepatic conversion of cholesterol to bile
• Fibric acid derivatives, Gemfibrozil: Increased activity of lipoprotein lipase, Decreased release of fatty acids
from adipose tissue
• Nicotinic acid: Decrease production of VLDL, Decrease lipolysis in adipocytes

• Uses of cetumixab: Acts against epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) positive colorectal cancer (as a
single agent)
• Trastu-zumab/ Herceptin is used for: Breast Ca
• Drug used in CML and GIST (gastro-intestinal stromal tumours): Imatinib (tyrosine kinase inhibitor)

• Structurally, heparin is a: Polysacchride
• S/E of heparin:
o Osteoporosis,
o Hyperkalemia
• Drug used in heparin overdose: Protamine sulphate
• Anticoagulant of choice in HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia) is: Argatroban (Direct Thrombin
• Anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy is: Heparin

• Warfarin inhibits: Vitamin K dependent clotting factors (2,7,9,10)
• Warfarin induced skin necrosis is due to: Protein C deficiency
• Monitoring of warfarin is done by: INR


• Allopurinol inhibits: Xanthine oxidase

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• DOC in chronic gout: Allopurinol


• Early features of overdose of TCA manifests as: Anticholinergic activity (dry mouth, dilated pupils, sinus
tachycardia, blurred vision)
• Akathisia (restlessness) is commonly caused by:
o Haloperidol;
o May respond to beta blockers (propranolol)


• Most serious adverse effect of clozapine: Agranulocytosis

• Extrapyramidal side-effects are rare with: Clozapine


• Apart from epilepsy, carbamazepine is also indicated in:

• Maniac depressive psychosis,
• Trigeminal neuralgia,
• Atypical pain syndromes
• S/E of carbamazepine: Increased ADH secretion (hyponatremia)


• DOC for myoclonic epilepsy: Valproate

• DOC for partial seizures: Carbamazepine


• MOA of cyclosporin (immunosuppressant): Decreases clonal proliferation of T-cells by reducing IL-2 release
• Cyclosporin acts on: CD4 + T-cells
• S/ E of cyclosporin:
o Nephrotoxicity,
o Hypertension,
o Hyperkalemia,
o Hypertrichosis,
o Tremors


• MOA of Tacrolimus:
o Inhibits IL-2 (same as cyclosporin);
o Acts mainly on T-cells
• Tacrolimus belongs to: Macrolide antibiotic
• Use of tacrolimus: Organ transplantation
• S/E of tacrolimus:
o Glucose intolerance
o Nephrotoxicity


• Octreotide is used in:

o Varices/ esophageal bleeding;

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o May be used in AIDS patients with secretory diarrhea (who have failed to respond to antimicrobial or
antimotility agents)


• Less potent
• Safe in pregnancy
• t1/2 of 1-2 hr
• No active metabolites
• Peripheral conversion of t4t3 prevented
• Useful in thyroid storm

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Treatment of Zollinger Ellison syndrome: Proton pump inhibitors

2. Baclofen is used in: Spasticity
3. Flumazenil is an antidote for: Benzodiazepines
4. Dopamine is preferred over dobutamine in treatment of renal shock because of: Renal vasodilatory effects
5. Therapeutic index of a drug signifies: Safety
6. Optimal effect is exerted over a narrow range by a drug. This is known as: Therapeutic window phenomenon
7. If a constant AMOUNT of drug is excreted, it is known as Zero order reaction
8. Drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis: Buslphan
9. Shortest acting beta blocker: Esmolol
10. 5HT3 antagonist: Ondansetron
11. Drug used in acetaminophen toxicity: N-acetyl cysteine
12. 2 Side effects of spironolactone: Gyanecomastia, Hyperkalemia
13. DOC for diabetes insipidus: Demeclocycline
14. Feared complication of metformin: Lactic acidosis
15. Oral hypoglycaemic agent causing cholestatic jaundice: Chlorpropamide
16. Effect of insulin on potassium: Intracellular entry
17. Nevirapine belongs to: NNRTI
18. Enzyme inhibited by theophylline: Phospho-di-esterase 4
19. 2 factors which decrease theophylline levels: Smoking, Microsomal enzyme inducer drugs (rifampin)
20. Side effect of parenteral steroids: Posterior subcapsular cataract
21. MOA of sulfonamides and trimethoprim: Inhibits Dihydro Folate Reductase enzyme
22. DOC for MRSA infection: Vancomycin
23. DOC for pseudomembranous colitis: Metronidazole
24. DOC for toxoplasmosis and pneumocytis carinii: Co-trimoxazole
25. Chemoprophylactic agent for rheumatic fever: Benzathine penicillin
26. DOC for malaria in pregnancy: Chloroquine
27. DOC for NSAID induced ulcer: Proton pump inhibitors
28. Anti TB causing retrobulbar neuritis: Ethambutol
29. Most rapidly acting drug against M. leprae: Rifampin
30. Anti hypertensive absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy: ACE inhibitors
31. MOA of allopurinol: Inhibits Xanthine Oxidase
32. Orally taken drug for scabies: Ivermectin
33. Drugs which lowers lipid levels by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase enzyme: Statins
34. Mast cell stabilizer drug is: Cromolyn sodium
35. Antihypertensive agent of choice in pregnant lady: Methyl-dopa
36. Drug indicated for hyperthyroidism during pregnancy: Propyl Thiouracil
37. Hemorrhagic cystitis is a complication of: Cyclophoshphamide
38. To treat methotrexate toxicity, which drug is used: Folinic acid
39. Retroperitoneal fibrosis is caused by: Methysergide
40. Monitoring tool for low molecular weight heparin: Anti Factor Xa
41. Anti-TB drug safer in liver disease: Ethambutol and streptomycin
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42. DOC for cerebral malaria: Quinine
43. DOC for herpes zoster: Valaciclovir
44. MOA of penicillin: Inhibit cell wall synthesis
45. DOC for chylamydia trachomatis: Azithromycin
46. Anti-TB causing gout: Pyrazinamide
47. Anti-TB combination safer in patient who develops hepatitis while on ATT: Ethambutol and streptomycin
48. Mechanism by which Acetazolamide lowers intraocular pressure: Reduced aqueous formation
49. Antidote for dicoumarol poisoning: Vitamin K
50. Dose of warfarin is managed by: INR

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• Investigation into cause of death (conducted in cases of murder, suicide, accidents & suspicious deaths):
• Coroner's inquest was done in: Mumbai
• Commonest type on inquest done in India: Police inquest
• In case of death in lock-up, inquest is carried out by: Magistrate
• Written document issued by the court (served on the witness under a penalty in all cases by the police
officer to attend the court for giving evidence on a particular day & time): Subpoena


• Exhumation is done after a written order from: 1st class judicial magistrate
• It is conducted in: Day-light
• Maximum time limit for exhumation in India: NO time limit


• 193: Punishment of false evidence (perjury)

• 197: Signing/ issuing false certificates
• 304A: Causing death by negligence
• 304B: Dowry death
• 320: Grievous hurt
• 377: Un-natural offences


• It is a best method to study age upto: 14 years

• Factor delaying dentition: Hypothyroidism
• Eruption of primary teeth is completed by: 2-2.5 years
• Mixed dentition is seen in: 6-11 years
• First permanent molar appears at: 6 years
• Gustafsons method: Age estimation of adult over 21 years depending upon physiological age changes in
dental tissue


• Study of fingerprints is known as: Dalton system of dactylography

• First used in India by: Sir William Heschle
• REMEMBER: Even 2 identical twins don't have identical finger prints
• MC type of fingerprints: Loops
• Permanent loss of finger prints occur in: Leprosy, Electrical injury


• Post-mortem hypostasis starts as: Blotchy discoloration

• After death, post-mortem hypostasis gets fixed after: 5-6 hours
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• Postmortem staining in cyanide poisoning: Bright/ cherry red


• Muscles affected in rigor mortis: All muscles (voluntary/ involuntary)

• Rigor mortis first appears in: Involuntary muscle (heart); upper eyelid is the earliest voluntary muscle


• Late sign of death: Putrefaction, Adipocere formation, Mummification

• First sign of putrefaction:
o EXTERNALLY: Greenish discoloration of flank over caecum
o INTERNALLY: Greenish discoloration of undersurface of liver
• Last organ to putrefy in males: Prostate, Testis
• Last organ to putrefy in females: Non-gravid uterus, Ovaries
• Putrefactive changes in liver: Honey coombing, Foamy liver
• Putrefaction is delayed by: Arsenic, Carbolic acid


• MC type of abrasions: Graze

• Brush burn/ Friction burn: Dragging over ground; A type of graze
• Patterned abrasion: Pressure injury


• Tentative cuts/ Hesitation marks: Suicidal attempts

• Gaping of wound is determined by: Langerhan's lines
• Healing of clean, incised wound is by: Primary intention
• Incised looking wounds: Lacerated wounds over scalp
• Depth is maximum in: Stab wound


• Choking (firearm): Constricting device at the muzzle end of a shotgun

• Contents of black gun powder: Potassium nitrate, Sulfur, Charcoal
• Smokeless powder: Nitrocellulose
• Tandem bullets: 2 bullets in succession
• Abraded collar/ Grease collar/ Dirt collar: Entrance wound of gun shot
• Dermal nitrate test detects: Gun powder/ gun shot residues


• Constricting force in hanging: Weight of the body

• Partial hanging: Bodies are partially suspended
• Le facies sympathique is associated with: Hanging
• Ligature marks are a type of: Printed abrasion
• Special feature of hanging: Saliva may be found dribbling from the angle of mouth
• Cause of death in judicial hanging: Fracture dislocation at C2-C3 or C3-C4
• Signs of drowning: Fine copious frothy discharge from mouth & nose, Diatoms in bone marrow, Goose skin/
cutis anserina, Paultaf's haemorrhage
• MC type of drowning: Accidental

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• Gettlers test is done for: Drowning, It estimates the chloride content of the blood in both sides of heart
• Emphysema aquosum signifies: Wet drowning
• Edema aquosum is seen in drowning of unconscious
• Diatoms: Unicellular algae, suspended in water, Their presence in bone marrow & brain signifies drowning


• Arborescent burns: Filigree/ Litchenbergs burns

• Joule burns: Electricity burns
• Crocodile skin appearance of skin: Suggestive of high voltage electric burns
• Pugilistic attitude is due to: Protein coagulation
• Pugilistic attitude is seen in: Burns
• Heat hematoma: Occurs between skull & duramater
• Features of antemortem burns: Line of redness present (line of redness is absent in postmortem burns),
Vesicles contain chloride, albumin (Postmortem vesicles contains air), Soot in upper respiratory passage
(Soot is absent in upper airways ht postmortem burns), Carboxyhemoglobin in blood (Carboxyhemoglobin in
blood is absent in postmortem burns), Enzymes are increased (enzymes are not increased in post mortem


• Chronic mercury poisoning:

• Erethism,
• Shaking palsy,
• Acrodynia (pinkish rash starting from tips of fingers)
• Acute mercury poisoning mainly involves: Kidney (PCT)


• Arsenic poisoning:
o Aldrich Mee lines (nail),
o Mimicks cholera poisoning,
o Rain drop pigmentation,
o Golden hair
• Arsenophagists: People who can tolerate high doses of arsenic
• Special feature of arsenic poisoning:
o Retardation of putrefaction,
o Detected in completely decomposed bones, ash & charred bodies and
o Delayed rigor
• Tests for arsenic poisoning:
o Marsh's test,
o Reinsch's test and
o Gutzeit test


• Features of lead poisoning:

o Anemia,
o Basophilia (punctate),
o Burtonian line,
o Constipation,
o Death
• Burtonian line is: Appears at the gingiva-tooth border after prolonged high level exposure
• Early manifestation of chronic lead poisoning: Facial pallor

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• Effect of sulphuric acid poisoning:
o Stomach mucosa is stained black,
o Perforation of stomach is common
• Fatal period for sulphuric acid: 12-16 hours
• Special feature of sulphuric acid: Vitriolage (Throwing of H2SO4 on other individual)


• Russels viper venom is: Hemolytic

• Cobra krait venom is: Neurotoxic
• Sea snake venom is: Myotoxic

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Joule burns are also known as: Electrocution burns

2. MC type of fingerprints: Loops
3. Rigor mortis first appears in: Myocardium (involuntary)
4. Brush burn is a type of: Graze/ abrasions
5. Tentative cuts are seen in: Suicidal wounds
6. Lacerated wounds over bony prominences are known as: Incised looking wounds
7. Abraded collar/ grease collar is associated with: Gunshot entry wounds
8. Cause of death in café coronary: Asphyxia and cardiac arrest
9. Le facies sympathique is seen in: Hanging
10. Gettlers test is done for: Drowning
11. Pugilistic attitude is seen in: Burns
12. Widmark formula is employed for: Alcohol
13. Shaking palsy is associated with which poison: Mercury
14. Poison which retards putrefaction: Arsenic, carbolic acid
15. Marsh test is done for which poisoning: Arsenic poisoning
16. Burtonian line is associated with which poison: Lead poisoning
17. Sea snake venom is: Myotoxic
18. Last organ to putrefy in females: Non-gravid uterus
19. Most important sign of strangulation: Ligature mark
20. Magnan symptom is seen with which poison: Cocaine posoning
21. Inquest in dowry death is carried out by: Magistrate
22. Travel expenses paid to witness is known as: Conduct money
23. Arborescent burns are seen in: Lightening burns
24. Best agent to treat methanol poisoning: Ethanol
25. Arsenic poisoning mimics: Cholera

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• Prevention of the emergence/development of the risk factors, in the population, in which they have not
appeared yet: Primordial prevention
• Disability limitation & Rehabilitation: Tertiary prevention
• Action halting the progress of disease at early stage & preventing its complication (includes early diagnosis &
treatment): Secondary prevention
• Action taken prior to onset of disease, which lessens the possibility of occurrence of the disease (health
promotion & specific protection-immunization, chemoprophylaxis): Primary prevention


• Infant mortality rate, Life expectancy at ONE year, Literacy rate: Physical Quality of Life Index/ PQLI
• Average achievements in basic dimensions of human development: Human Poverty Index (HPI)
• Expectation of life free of disability: Sullivan's index
• Life expectancy at BIRTH, but includes an adjustment for time spent in poor health: Health Adjusted Life
Expectancy/ HALE
• Burden of disease & effectiveness of interventions/ Years of life lost to premature death: Disability Adjusted
Life Year/ DALY
• Education, Purchasing power, Life expectancy: Human Developmental Index/ HDI
• Education, Occupation, Income: Kuppuswamy's index


• Suitable for rare diseases,
• Rapid,
• Inexpensive,
• Yields Causal association, Odd's ratio


• Yields incidence,
• Attributable & relative risk


• Disinfectant kills all pathogenic micro-organisms
• Antisepsis: Inhibits growth of bacteria in wounds/ tissues
• Bacteriostatic agent: Agent, added to colony, inhibits growth & vice versa
• Pasteurization by flash method: 72 deg C, 15-20 sec
• Most resistant to sterilization: Prions
• Hot air oven is used for: Glass ware, Liquid paraffin, Dusting powder, Forceps, scissors, scalpel
• Endoscopes are sterilized by: Glutaraldehyde
• Cidex is: 2% glutaraldehyde
• Disposable syringes are sterilized by: Gamma rays
• Vaccines are sterilized by: Heat inactivation
• Hospital dressings are best disinfected by: Incinerator (not done for sharp)
• Reidel walker coefficient: Determines germicidal efficiency of disinfectants (as compared to phenol)
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• Tyndalization: Intermittent sterilization Bacterial spores are destroyed by: Autoclaving
• Cold sterilization is by: Gamma rays


• Propagative: Plague bacilli in rat flea

• Cyclo-propagative: Malaria parasite in mosquito
• Cyclodevelopmental: Microfilaria in mosquito


• Ring immunization: Given around 100 yards of a case detected

• Live vaccines:
o Long duration of immunity,
o Contains major & minor antigen,
o Immunoglobulins can be given 2 weeks after live vaccine,
o BCG, Yellow fever (17D) etc.
• Killed vaccine: Salk polio, Pertusis etc.
• Fragment vaccine: Hepatitis B
• Freeze dried vaccine: Yellow fever, Measles, BCG
• Strain used in BCG: Danish 1331
• Strain used in OPV: Sabin strain
• Strain used in Chicken pox: Oka strain
• Reconstituted vaccines: BCG, Measles, Yellow fever
• Vaccine C/I in pregnancy: MMR
• Preservative in DPT: Thiomersal
• BCG (live attenuated vaccine) is given: Intradermally
• TY21 A (vaccine) is given for: Typhoid
• There is NO vaccine for Dengue fever yet
• Influenza vaccine is administered as: Nose drops
• HPV vaccine is: Both bivalent & quadravalent


• Caused by: RNA paramyxo virus (measles virus)

• Special feature: Kopliks spot
• Incubation period: 10-14 days
• Rash appears on: 4th day
• Rare complication of measles: SSPE
• Measles vaccine is produced in India by: Serum institute, Pune
• Protective effect of measles vaccine is exerted within: 7 days of administration Measles vaccine has high
• Contamination of measles vaccine can cause: TSS (toxic shock syndrome)


• Risk to fetus is maximum if mother gets infected during: 6-12 weeks of pregnancy
• Congenital rubella syndrome: Deafness, Cardiac malformations, Cataracts
• Rubella vaccine is given: To girls, between 11-14 years of age
• Recommended vaccination strategy for rubella vaccine: 15-49 years women


• Symptoms appear in: About 10 days (4 days - 8 weeks)

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• "Fixed strain" of virus: It has got short, fixed & reproducible IP, when injected intracereberally
• Immunofluorescence is used for diagnosing Rabies
• Vaccine recommended by WHO: HDC vaccine
• Post exposure schedule (cell culture vaccine): 6 doses; 0, 3, 7, 14, 28 days; Booster on 90th, day


• Caused by: Flavivirus

• Status in India: Absent (virus is absent)
• In YF, quarantine is done for: 6 days


• IM injections & tonsillectomy should be avoided during polio epidemic because: Risk of paralytic polio
• Cause of death in polio: Respiratory paralysis
• Pulse polio was introduced in India in: 1995
• Pulse polio is given to children below: 5 years
• A country is said to be polio FREE if there is no case confirmed for last: 5 years
• In AFP/ acute flaccid paralysis, examination for residual paralysis should be done after: 60 day


• Subtype most prevalent in India: C

• Seroconversion takes: 4 weeks
• MC mode of transmission of HIV: Heterosexual mode (male to female)
• Risk of transmission by accidental needle prick: 0.3%
• Retroviral sequence in host cell: RNA-DNA-RNA
• p24 antigen disappears after: 6-8 weeks of HIV infection
• Cells attacked in HIV: CD4 cells
• CD4: CD8 ratio is: Reversed
• Cells acting as reservoir of infection: Macrophages
• 0 Window period: Time period between infection to appearance of antibodies in serum During window
period, both ELISA & western blot are: Negative


• Dengue is caused by: Aedes (prefers stagnant water)

• Size of RBC is increased in: Vivax malaria
• Infective agent of malaria is: Sporozoite
• Not seen in peripheral blood smear of falciparum: Schizont

P. falciparum

• Splenic rupture is common,

• Parasitemia is highest,
• Most virulent species of malaria,
• Exo-erythrocytic stage is absent,
• Multiple infection of RBC's are seen,


• Mycobacterium TB was.discovered by: Robert Koch

• Acid fastness is due to: Mycolic acid & cell wall
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• Prevalence of TB in community is assessed by: Tuberculin test
• Ghon focus is related to: Primary pulmonary TB
• Primary TB may be associated with:
o Fibrocaseous lesion,
o Phylectenular conjunctivitis
• Category II of DOTS includes: Previously treated smear positive (relapse, failure, default)
• Defaulter is: Has not taken drugs for more than 2 months consecutively any time after starting treatment
• Case finding in RNTCP is based on: Sputum microscopy
• Standard dose of PPD for Mantoux test: 1 TU
• DOTS means:
o Short term treatment under supervision;
o Alternate day treatment given


• Generation time of lepra bacilii: 12 days

• Lepra bacilli can be grown in: Foot pad of mice
• Spreads by: Skin to skin contact
• Lepra cells are: Histiocytes
• Leprosy is a public health problem when prevalence is: 1:10,000
• Classification system/ index related to leprosy:
o Ridley Joplings classification;
o Dharmendra's index
• Lepromin test indicates: Prognosis


• Brill Zinser disease is: Delayed manifestation of epidemic typhus

• Vector for Epidemic typhus (R. prowazeki): Louse
• Vector for Endemic typhus (R. typhi): Rat flea
• Vector for Scrub typhus (R. tsutsugmashi): Mite


• Indices for obesity:

o BMI (Quetlet's index),
o Corpulence index
• BMI is calculated as: Weight/ height 2
• Abdominal fat accumulation is assessed by: Waist/ hip ratio


• IUCD acts by:

o Causes aseptic endometritis,
o Prevents fertilization,
o Interferes implantation
• CuT 200 is inserted postnatally after: 8 weeks
• CuT200 should be replaced after every: 4 years
• If CuT 200 is implanted in myometrium, treatment is: Hysteroscopic removal
• Contaceptive 'TODAY' contains: 9 nonoxynol
• MINERA is: Progesterone IUCD


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• OCP of choice in lactating females: Minipill
• After discontinuing OCP, fertility returns after: 6 months
• Levonorgestrel/ NORPLANT mechanism of action: Makes endometrium unreceptive
• OCP are protective against:
o Endometriosis,
o Uterine Ca,
o RA,
o Ovarian Ca,
o Ectopics (indirectly)
• Natural family planning methods:
o Symptothermic method (most effective),
o Cervical mucus method/ Billing method


• Recommended level of fluoride in drinking water is- 0.5-0.8 mg/ litre

• Recommended fluorine concentration in water: 1.5 ppm
• Hardness level of water which requires softening: 3-6 (150-300)
• Ortho-toluidine test: Determines both free & combined chlorine
• Horrock's apparatus: Measures chlorine demand of water


• Example of EFA:
o Linoleic acid,
o Linolenic acid,
o Arachidonic acid
• Rich source of linoleic acid:
o Safflower oil,
o Sunflower oil
• Source of omega-3 Poly Unsaturated FA:
o Mustard oil,
o Ground nut oil,
o Fish oil

• Earliest sign of vitamin A deficiency: Conjunctival xerosis;
• Effect of fat on absorption of vitamin A: Increases
• Vitamin A deficiency is a child health problem if prevalence of night blindness in children's aged 6 months to
6 years is: 1%
• Vitamin which prevents lipid peroxidation: Vitamin E
• Vitamin which is required for gamma carboxylation: Vitamin K
• During pregnancy, IFA tablets contains (specific protection): 100 mg elemental iron & 500 microgram of FA
(daily) [Amount is 1/5th for paediatric population (under RCH)]


• Highest biological value is: Egg
• Egg is poor in: Carbohydrate, Vitamin C
• Energy yielded from egg: 70 Kcal (NPU is 96%)
• Pasteurization of milk is: Precurrent disinfection

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• Pasteurization kills: 90% of bacteria in milk, including heat resistant tubercle bacillus & Q fever (does'nt kill
thermoduric bacteria, nor the bacterial spores)
• Tests for pasteurization of milk: Phosphatase test
• Methylene blue reduction test in milk is done to: Detection of micro-organism in the milk

• Jaggery has high concentration of: Iron
• Ragi, dates are rich source of: Calcium
• Pulses are deficient in: Methionine
• Cereals are deficient in: Lysine
• Maize is deficient in: Tryptophan/ Lysine


• Bagassosis: Inhalation of sugar cane dust

• Thermoactinomyces sachharii causes: Bagassosis
• Farmers lung is caused by: Micropolyspora faeni
• Byssinosis: Textile industry
• Monday fever is associated with: Byssinosis
• Snow storm appearance is seen in: Silicosis


• Yellow colour: Human anatomical waste (treated by incineration, deep burial)

• Black colour: Discarded medicine, Plastic wrapers etc. (Treated by chemical treatment & disposal in secured
land fills)


• Kata thermometer: Assess cooling power of air & air velocity

• Sling pshycometer: Humidity
• Venturimeter: Measuring bed strength in slow sand filter


• Chaddah committee: NMEP

• Kartar singh committee: MPHW
• Bhore committee: PHC/ primary health centre concept


• 1 village health guide caters to a population of: 1000

• Population covered by PHC in hilly area is: 20, 000
• 1 subcentre caters to a population of: 5,000
• Recommended population for 1 PHC subcentre for tribal area: 20,000 & 3,000 respectively
• A trained birth dai caters to a population of: 1000
• As per RCH, first referral unit is: CHC
• Under NTCP (National TB control programme), PHC is said to be PHC-R if: Microscopy + Radiology facility


• Central tendency s given by: Mean , mode, median

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• Most commonly used statistical average: Mean
• Normal/ Bell curve is:
o A graph representing the density function of the normal probablility distribution
o Smooth,
o Bell shaped,
o symmetrical curve
o Normal standard deviation has variance = 1
• 2SD = 95% of values
• Chi Square test:
o Used to compare non-continuous data in 2 groups/ association between 2 variables;
o both samples should be mutually exclusive
• True positive (sensitivity): A positive result in the presence of the disease
• True negative (Specificity): A negative test in the absence of the disease


• UNICEF: New York, USA

• UNESCO: Paris
• FAO: Rome, Italy


• First stage- high stationary: High birth rate and a high death rate which cancel each other and the population
remain stationary
• Second stage-early expanding: Death rate begins to decline while birth rate remains remains unchanged
• Third stage-late expanding: Death rate decline still further and the birth rate tends to fall, population
continues to grow as births exceed deaths
• Fourth stage-low stationary: This stage is characterized by low birth and low death rate the population
becomes stationary

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Black colour code in triage system stands for: Dead/moribund

2. Reversed cold chain is used for: Transport of stool sample from periphery to lab
3. Kata thermometer is used for: Air velocity & cooling power of air
4. First step in investigating an epidemic is: Verification of diagnosis
5. Population covered by PHC under tribal area: 20, 000
6. 3 months training in PSM was proposed by: Bhore committee
7. Expectation of life, free of disability is Sullivan index
8. Community health centre covers a population of: 1.2 Lakhs
9. Disinfecting action of chlorine (chlorination) is due to: Hypochlorous acid
10. Most reliable bacteriological indicator of water pollution: E. coli
11. Active form of vitamin D is: 1, 25-dihydroxy-Cholecalciferol/ Calcitriol
12. Cereals provided in mid day meal is: 75 mg
13. Wernicke's encephalopathy results due to deficiency of: Thiamine (B1)
14. Vitamin K is required for: Post-translation modification of clotting factors
15. Bitots spots are due to deficiency of: Vitamin A
16. Pellagra is due to deficiency of: Niacin
17. Exclusive breast feeding should be carried upto: 6 months
18. Most common cause of maternal mortality in India: Hemorhhage
19. Incubation period of measles: 10-14 days

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20. Causative agent for kala azar: Leishmania donovani
21. Dengue is transmitted by aedes mosquito
22. Diluent for BCG vaccine: Normal saline
23. Case fatality rate indicates severity of disease
24. Sentinel surveillance is done to detect missing cases
25. Sensitivity of a test indicates: True positive
26. Education, occupation & income are considered in Kuppuswamy Index
27. Repeatedly occurring value (biostatistics) is known as: Mode
28. Smoking regulation in cancer prevention comes under primordial prevention
29. Bleaching powder contains 33% of available chlorine
30. Residual chlorine is found out by Ortho-tolu dine test
31. In problem village, water is available at a depth below 15 meters
32. Acceptable level of noise in hospital is 20-35 dB
33. Sling psychrometer is used for measuring: Humidity of air
34. Number of flea per rat is known as: Total flea index
35. Rich source of calcium: Ragi, Dates
36. Mottling of teeth's can be a manifestation of excess fluoride in water
37. Epidemic dropsy is due to adulteration of mustard oil with argemone oil
38. Relative risk can be calculated from Cohort studies
39. Vaccine stored in freezer compartment of fridge: Measles, Yellow fever
40. Food poisoning after consumption of fried rice is due to: Bacillus cereus
41. Acrodermatitis enteropathica responds dramatically to: Zinc
42. Major changes in antigenicity of influenza virus is known as: Antigenic shift
43. Schuffner's dots is a feature of plasmodium vivax
44. Infective form of malaria: Sporozoite
45. Causative agent for cutaneous leishmaniasis: Leishmania tropica
46. Anton test is done for: Listeria monocytogenes
47. Epidemic typhus is spread by: Louse
48. Malignant pustule is associated with: Cutaneous anthrax
49. Headquarter of UNICEF: New York
50. Toxin in kesari dal/ Lathyrus sativus: BOAA

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• Parts of tympanic membrane: 2 parts:

o Pars tensa &
o Pars flaccida (Sharpnell's membrane)
• Location of cone of light: Antero-inferior
• Nerve supply of tympanic membrane:
o Auriculotemporal nerve,
o Auricular branch of vagus
• Normal appearance of tympanic membrane: Pearly white
• Functional area of tympanic membrane: 55 m2


• Attic/ Epiiympanum is:

o Part superior to the level of tympanic membrane;
o Prussacks space lies in the epitympanum
• Narrowest part of middle ear: Mesotympanum
• Location of mesotympanum: Directly medial to the tympanic membrane
• Location of tegmen/ roof of the tympanum: Opposite the middle cranial fossa
• Hyperacusis is prevented by: Stapedius


• Location of inner ear: Petrous part of temporal bone

• Nerve which gets injured in inner ear (transverse fractures of temporal bone): Facial nerve
• Bony labyrinth is: Cancellous bone
• Location of organ of Corti: Organ of Corti (with its hair cells) rests on Basilar membrane
• Content of perilymph:
o Resemble ECF;
o Low K+ & high Na+
• Angular acceleration is sensed by: Semi-circular canal


• Development of eustachian tube: 1st pharyngeal pouch

• Special feature of eustachian tube: Opens during swallowing (Tensor palati)


• Diffuse otitis externa is also known as: Singapore ear/ Tropical ear/ swimmers' ear/ Telephonists' ear
• Commonest causative agent of otitis externa is: Staphylococcus aureus
• Investigation of choice in malignant otitis externa is: Gallium CT scan


• Mastoid reservoir phenomenon is associated with: Acute suppurative otitis media (ASOM)
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• Special features of serous otitis media/ secretory otitis media/ glue ear:
o Marginal perforation,
o B shaped tympanogram,
o Medical treatment ineffective
o Myringotomy with Ventilation tube insertion
• Location of perforation in CSOM:
o Safe CSOM: Central,
o Unsafe CSOM: Marginal
• Complications of CSOM:
o Mastoiditis (MC complication of CSOM),
o Brain abscess (MC cause of brain abscess is CSOM),
o Bezolds abscess (Sternocleidomastoid),
o Gradiengo's syndrome: (Retro-orbital pain, photophobia & lacrimation, V & VI (ipsilateral) cranial nerve
involvement) and otitis media
• Special feature of cholesteatoma/ epidermosis/ keratoma:
o Basically a bony erosion,
o Usually found in apex of petrous temporal bone,
o Attic/ posterior-superior marginal region is usually involved,
o Modified radical mastoidectomy is done (spares the tympanic membrane & ossicles)
• Pathognomic sign of lateral sinus thrombosis (LST):
o Tenderness & edema over mastoid process (Grisinger's sign),
o Tobey-Ayer test is done for LST
• MC procedure done for CSOM: Modified radical mastoidectomy
• Radical mastoidectomy is done for: Attico-antral cholesteatoma


• Otosclerosis begins in: Fossula ante-fenestrum

• MC site of otosclerosis: Oval window
• MC bone affected in otosclerosis: Stapes
• Presenting feature of otosclerosis:
o Positive family history,
o Reversible conductive deafness,
o Paracusis Willsii (ability to hear better in nosiy environment)
• Appearance of tympanic membrane in otosclerosis: Flammingo pink tympanic membrane
• Audiometric finding of otosclerosis: Carhart's notch at 2000 Hz
• Stapedectomy (Surgical procedure of choice)
• Sodium fluoride


• Also known as Endolymphatic hydrops/ Ear glaucoma

• Triad of meniere's disease:
o Hearing loss (low frequency sensori-neural),
o Tinnitus (non pulsatile) &
o Recurrent prostrating vertigo
• Pathologic change in the inner ear in meniere's disease: Generalized dilatation of the membranous labyrinth


• They arise from: Vestibular division of the eight nerve

• MC involved structure: Superior vestibular nerve
• Earliest symptom: Deafness (Retrocochlear type)
• Other features:
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o V cranial nerve involvement,
o Loss of corneal reflex
• Most sensitive & specific test: Gadolinium enhanced MRI (head)


• Tobey Ayer test: Lateral sinus thrombosis

• Hallpike test: Used to diagnose Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
• Recruitment test: Meniere's disease
• Caloric test: Vestibular function


• Malignant otitis externa: P. aeruginosa

• Perichondritis: P. aeruginosa
• Hemorrhagic otitis externa: Influenza
• Bullous myringitis: Influenza virus
• Ramsay Hunt syndrome: Herpes Zoster virus
• Furuncle: Staph. aureus
• Otomycosis:
o Aspergillus niger,
o Candida


• Arterial supply to nasal mucosa: Branches of external carotid artery

• Functions of nasal cavity:
o Warming,
o Filtration &
o Moistening of air
• Opening of nasolacrmial duct: Inferior meatus
• Openings in middle meatus:
o Maxillary sinus,
o Anterior ethmoidal sinus,
o Naso-frontal ducts
• Opening in spheno-ethmoid recess: Sphenoid sinus


• MC site:
o Keisselbach's plexus (plexus of vessels);
o In Littles area (Antero-inferior part of nasal septum)
• Arteries contributing to Little area:
o Sphenopalatine artery,
o Greater palatine artery,
o Superior labial artery,
o Anterior ethmoidal artery
• Recurrent epistaxis is seen in:
o Deviated nasal septum
o Atrophic rhinitis,
o Maxillary Ca
• MC cause of epistaxis in pubescent male: Angiofibroma
• MC cause of epistaxis in children: Trauma
• Commonest cause of epistaxis in elderly is hypertention
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• Features:
o Benign,
o Vascular neoplasm (Biopsy contra-indicated),
o Millers sign
• MC site: Posterior part of nasal cavity (close to spheno-palatine foramen)
• Investigation of choice: Contrast enhanced CT scan
• Treatment of choice: Surgery; (they are responsive to radiotherapy)


• MC age group affected: Bimodal

• MC site: Lateral wall of nasopharynx (Fossa of Rosenmuller)
• Associated with:
o EBV infection,
o Serous otitis media
• Trotter's triad:
o Conductive deafness,
o Palatal paralysis,
o Temporo-parietal neuralgia


• Primary function of larynx: Protection of the lower airways

• Abductor of vocal cord: Posterior crico-arytenoid
• Adductor of vocal cord:
o Lateral crico-arytenoid,
o Transverse crico-arytenoid
• Epithelial lining of true vocal cords: Stratified squamous
• Nerve supply of cricothyroid: External laryngeal nerve


• Premalignant conditions:
o Keratosis,
o Papilloma etc.
• MC type: Squamous cell Ca
• Supraglottic Ca:
o Pain is the MC manifestation,
o Early lymphatic spread
• Glottic Ca:
o Hoarseness is the earliest & MC manifestation,
o Best prognosis,
o No lymphadenopathy
• Post-cricoid Ca: Metastasis to both sides of the neck is common
• Verrucous Ca is treated by: Endoscopic surgery

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. MC cause of malignant otitis externa: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

2. Hyperacusis is prevented by: Stapedius
3. Eustachian tube develops from: pharyngeal pouch
4. Angular acceleration is judged by: Semicircular canals
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5. Surgical procedure for serous otitis media: Myringotomy with Grommet tube insertion
6. MC complication of CSOM: Mastoiditis
7. Bezolds abscess lies in relation to Sternocleidomastoid muscle
8. Paracusis willisi is a feature of: Otosclerosis
9. Audiometric finding of otosclerosis: Carhart's notch at 2 MHz
10. Triad of deafness, vertigo and tinnitus is suggestive of: Meniere's disease
11. MC involved structure in acoustic neuroma: Superior vestibular nerve
12. Sinus opening in spheno-ethmoid recess: Sphenoid sinus
13. Mikulicz cells are seen in: Rh inoscleroma
14. Apple jelly nodules on nasal septum is seen in: Lupus vulgaris
15. CSF rhinorrhoea is seen in fracture of: Fracture cribriform plate of ethmoid bone
16. MC site of epistaxis: Little's area/ Keisselbach's plexus
17. MC cause of epistaxis in children: Trauma
18. MC site of nasopharyngeal carcinoma: Fossa of Rossenmuller/ Lateral wall of nasopharynx
19. MC causative agent of quinsy: Streptococcus pneumoniae
20. Nerve supply of cricothyroid: External laryngeal nerve
21. Epithelial lining of vocal cords: Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
22. Nerve supply of posterior Cricoarytenoid: recurrent laryngeal nerve
23. MC cause of stridor of newborn: Laryngomalacia
24. Management of laryngomalacia: Reassurance/ Wait & watch
25. Virus causing nasopharyngeal carcinoma: Epstein Barr virus
26. Ramsay Hunt syndrome involves which cranial nerve: Facial
27. Malignancy is MC in: Maxillary sinus
28. Pneumatocoeles are MC due to: Staphylococcal aureus
29. Earliest nerve involved in acoustic neuroma: Cranial nerve V
30. Glue ear is also knonwn as: Secretory otitis media
31. IOC for acoustic neuroma is: Gadolinium enhanced MRI
32. Mucocoele is MC in: Frontal sinus
33. IOC for angiofibroma: Contrast enhanced CT scan
34. Drug used to progression of otosclerosis: Sodium flouride
35. Periodicity is a feature of: Frontal sinusitis
36. Muscle which reduces the amplitude of oscillation of the stapes: Stapedius
37. In lower motor type of facial nerve palsy, pattern of involvement of facial muscles: Half of the face on same
38. In upper motor type of facial nerve palsy, pattern of involvement of facial muscles: Opposite side, lower half;
forehead spared
39. Ear glaucoma is alos known as: Meniere's disease
40. Eustachian tube opens into: Nasopharynx
41. Otosclerosis has predilection for: Stapes
42. Rhinoscleroma is caused by: Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
43. Saddle nose deformity is seen in: Congenital syphilis, leprosy, trauma
44. Rhinosporodium is caused by: Rhinosporodium seeberi
45. Pott's puffy tumour results due to: Chronic frontal sinusitis
46. MC type of nasopharyngeal carcinoma: Squamous
47. MC presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma: Neck mass/ enlarged lymph nodes of neck
48. Heimlich manoeuvre is done for: Expulsion of foreign body from respiratory tract
49. Caloric test assess: Vestibular function
50. Killians dehiscence is also known as: Gateway of tears
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• Snowflake cataract: DM
• Rossette cataract: Trauma
• Christmas tree pattern: Myotonic dystrophy
• Sunflower cataract: Wilsons disease
• Oil drop cataract: Galactosemia


• Intortors of the eye:

o Superior oblique &
o Superior rectus
• Action of superior oblique:
o Abduction,
o Inortion &
o Depression
• Nerve supply of superior oblique: Trochlear (4th cranial nerve)
• Levator palpebrae superioris is supplied by: 3rd cranial nerve (oculomotor)
• Muscle attached to posterior tarsal margin: Muller's muscle


• Argyll Robertson pupil (ARP):

o Small pupils,
o Irregular in shape,
o No reaction to light,
o Accomodation reflex present (ARP)
• Marcuss Gunn pupil (pupillary escape):
o Affected pupil may paradoxically dilate, when light source is swung from eye to eye (normally
o Defect anterior to optic chiasma


• Structures derived from mesoderm:

o Corneal stroma & endothelium,
o Only smooth muscles of iris,
o All muscles (EXCEPT iris muscle)
• Structures derived from surface ectoderm:
o Conjunctival epithelium,
o Lens
• Structures derived from neuroectoderm:
o Epithelium of iris & ciliary body,
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o Muscles of iris (constrictor & dilator pupillae)


• Visual angle: Angle subtended by object at nodal point of lens

• Alpha angle: Between visual axis & optical axis
• Kappa angle: Between pupillary axis & visual axis


• Direct ophthalmoscopy:
o Image is virtual & erect,
o Magnified 15 times
• Indirect ophthalmoscopy:
o Image is real & inverted;
o Magnified 5 times;
o It is done for examination of periphery of retina (upto orra serrata)
• Keratometry: Measures curvature of cornea
• Electronystatogram: Graph of movement of eye
• Anomoloscope: Detects colour blindness
• Retinoscopy: Objective assessment of refractive state of eye
• Gonioscopy: Measures angle of anterior chamber
• Tonometry:
o Measures intraocular pressure;
o Best is applanation tonometry
• Swinging flash test: Tests pupil
• Snellen chart tests: Vision
• Ishihara plates, Hardy Rand Rattler plates: Color vision
• Landolt's rings: Visual acuity in illiterates, children
• Macular function tests:
o Card board test (2 point discrimination test);
o Amsler grid test;
o Maddox rod test etc.


• Homonymous hemianopia: Lesions of optic tract (incongruous defects)

• Homonymous quadrantaopia: Lesion of temporal lobe (superior)
• Bitemporal hemianopia: Lesions of optic chiasm


• Optic pathway: Receptors: Rods & cones (retina)

• Thalamic nucleus for vision: Lateral geniculate body
• Light reflex: Excess Light  retina  optic nerve  optic chiasma  optic tract Some fibres from optic tract
 Reach pretectal nucleus (part of superior colliculus)  Each pretectal nucleus sends fibres to Edinger
Westphal nucleus (EW), part of 3rd cranial nerve  Finally constriction of pupil (sphincter pupillae)
• Corneal reflex: Light touching of the cornea/ conjunctiva, results in blinking of the eyelids
• Most sensitive part of eye: Fovea (contains photoreceptors)


• 3rd cranial nerve:

o Supplies all extra-ocular muscle EXCEPT superior oblique & lateral rectus,

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o Complete paralysis results in external ophthalmoplegia (Inability to move the eye upward, inward &
o Drooping of the upper eyelids due to paralysis of levator palpabrae superioris (ptosis),
o Pupillary sparing is a feature of DM
• 4th cranial nerve:
o Weakness/ paralysis of superior oblique muscle;
o Which normally moves the eye downwards & inwards
• 6th cranial nerve:
o Weakness/ paralysis of lateral rectus;
o Which normally rotates the eye laterally


• Rays of light are focussed in front of retina

• Size of eyeball is big
• Complications of myopia:
o Lattice & snail degeneration,
o Peripheral retinal degeneration
• Treatment:
o Radial keratotomy (small degree),
o Soft lens,


• Physiological insufficiency of accomodation;

• Loss of power of accommodation
• Due to loss of elasticity of lens capsule
• Treatment is by convex lens


• Haemorrhagic conjunctivitis:
o Enterovirus,
o Adenovirus,
o Coxsackie virus
• Phylectenular conjunctivitis: TB
• Giant papillary conjunctivitis: Contact lens
• Angular conjunctivitis: Moraxella


• Horner trantas spots on bulbar conjunctiva,

• Cobble stone appearance of palpebral conjunctiva,
• Papillary hypertrophy,
• Type I hypersensitivity,
• Maxwell Lyon sign:
o Stringy,
o Ropy discharge


• Characterized by the presence of:

o Limbal follicles/ Herbert's pits (formed on cornea, near limbus)
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o Arlts line (conjunctival scarring in sulcus subtarsalis),
o Pannus (infiltration of cornea with vascularization)
• SAFE strategy
o Surgery,
o Antibiotics,
o Facial cleanliness,
o Environmental improvement
• DOC:
o Tetracycline (local) concentration: 1%
o Azithromycin (Oral)


• Elastatoic degeneration with proliferation of vascularized granulation tissue,

• Stocker's line is seen


• Mostly asymptomatic OR
• Progressive painless loss of vision,
• Genes implicated in pathogenesis:
o Optineurin gene &
o MYOC gene,
• Early visual field defect:
o Isopteric contraction
o Barring of blind spot
• 1st line of treatment: Timolol (beta blocker)
• Surgical procedure: Argon LASER trabeculoplasty


• Predisposing factor: Shallow anterior chamber

• May present as:
o Painful, red eye with
o Headache, nausea, vomiting
• Pupil is:
o Semi-dilated,
o Vertically oval &
o Fixed
• Surgical procedure:
o LASER irodotomy,
o Surgical iridectomy


• Protrusion of central part of cornea with thinning,

• Corneal nerves are visible,
• Associated features:
o Munsen's sign,
o Fleischer sign


• Seen in raised intracranial tension (intracranial infections like cavernous sinus thrombosis, cerebral abscess)
• Clinical features:
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o Headache, nausea,
o Projectile vomiting
• Visual field changes:
o Enlargement of the blind spot,
o Progressive contraction of the visual field
• Disc findings:
o Blurring of the margins of optic disc,
o Hyperemia of disc,
o Elevation of the disc (mushroom/ dome shaped)


• Pseudopapillitis is seen in: Hypermetropia

• Features: Relative afferent pupillary defect (Marcus Gunn pupil)
• Complete afferent pupillary defect: Optic nerve lesion


• Anterior uveitis is associated with:

o Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis &
o Anklyosing spondylitis
• Miotic pupil
• Treatment:
o Steroids (DOC) followed by
o Mydriatics,
• Steroids reduces inflammation & scarring;
• Dilation of the pupil by atropine:
o Reduces pain &
o Prevents synechiae formation
• Posterior uveitis is associated with:
o Sarcoidosis,
o Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome (disease of melanocyte containing tissue),
o Behcet's syndrome


• Ciliary body is injured,

• Seen after penetrating injury in ciliary region (dangerous region)
• 1st sign of SO: Keratic precipitates/ Retrolental flare
• May present as: Difficulty in reading from one eye after 3-4 weeks of injury to other eye


• May be bilateral in 30-40% cases (particularly familial ones),

• Knudsons hypothesis is related to Rb
• MC manifestation of Rb: Leukocoria/ Amaurotic cat's eye reflex
• Treatment of diffuse Rb: Enucleation (removal of eyeball with portion of optic nerve from orbit)
• Treatment of small Rb: Brachytherapy
• Treatment of bilateral Rb & metastatic disease: Chemotherapy


• Fundus examination in DM:

o NIDDM: As early as possible
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o IDDM: 5 years after diagnosis of DM
• Incidence of diabetic retinopathy increases with disease duration


• MC abnormal finding on fundoscopic examination: Cotton wool spots

• Most devastating consequences of HIV infection on eye: CMV retinitis


• MC cause of ocular morbidity in India: Refractive error

• MC cause of blindness in children in India: Vitamin A deficiency
• WHO definition of blindness: Visual acuity of less than 3/ 60 (Snellen)
• MC cause of blindness in adults in India: Cataract


• Features of trauma to eye:

o Vossius ring (concussion of lens),
o Commotio retinae/ Berlin's edema (concussion injury),
o D shaped pupil (iridodialysis)


• Shortest & quickly acting mydriatic: Tropicamide

• Mydriatic with no cycloplegia: Phenylephrine
• Mydriatic used as a ointment in children: Atropine
• MC complication of topical steroid: Glaucoma


• Bulls eye maculopathy: Chloroquine

• Whorled keratopathy: Amiodarone
• Arcus senilis: Old age
• Schwalbes ring: Descemet membrane
• KF rings: Wilson disease
• Angioid streaks: Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
• Ring scotoma: Retinitis pigmentosa
• Scintillating scotoma: Migraine
• Dalen Fuch's nodule: Sympathetic ophthalmitis
• Epibulbar dermoids: Goldenhars syndrome
• Roth spots: Bacterial endocarditis
• Sago grains, Arlt's line: Trachoma
• Fleischer ring: Keratoconus
• Candle wax spots: Sarcoidosis
• Macular toxicity: Gentamycin

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Rossette cataract is seen in: Blunt trauma

2. Anteroposterior length of eyeball: 24 mm
3. Nerve supply of inferior oblique muscle: Cranial nerve III
4. Epithelium of cornea: Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium

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5. Sphincter & dilator pupillae muscles are derived from: Neuroectoderm
6. Device used to measure curvature of cornea: Keratometry
7. Bitemporal hemianopia is seen in lesion of: Optic chiasm
8. Most sensitive part of retina: Fovea
9. Angular conjunctivitis is caused by: Moraxella catarrhalis
10. Ropy discharge is suggestive of: Spring catarrh/ Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
11. Herberts pits are seen in: Trachoma
12. Pupil in angle closure glaucoma is: Mid-dilated, vertically oval & fixed
13. Munsen sign is seen in: Keratoconus
14. Laser used in after cataract: Nd-YAG laser
15. Relative afferent pupillary defect is seen in: Optic neuritis
16. Drug of choice for acute anterior uveitis: Steroids
17. Most common intraocular malignancy in children: Retinoblastoma
18. Irregular black deposits of clumped pigment in the peripheral retina is seen in: Retinitis pigmentosa
19. Most devastating complication of HIV infection of eye: CMV retinitis
20. Muscle commonly affected in thyroid ophthalmopathy: Inferior oblique
21. MC cause of blindness in children in India: Vitamin A deficiency
22. Shortest & quickly acting mydriatic: Tropicamide
23. KF rings are seen in: Chalcosis/ Wilson disease
24. Roth's spots are seen in: Subacute bacterial endocarditis
25. Dalen Fuch's nodule are seen in: Sympathetic ophthalmitis
26. Oral drug for trachoma: Azithromycin
27. Schirmer test is done for: Dry eyes
28. The ability of eye to see two distant points distinctly is known as: Visual acuity
29. Epithelial lining of conjunctiva: Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
30. Nummular keratitis is commonly seen in: Herpes zoster
31. NeuroTrophic keratitis involves: Trigeminal nerve
32. Recurrent corneal erosions are seen in: Corneal dystrophy
33. Acanthamoebic keratitis is usually associated with: Contact lens users
34. HLA associated with anterior uveitis: HLA B-27
35. Most serious complication seen in one eye after traumatic injury to other eye: Sympathetic ophthalmitis
36. Vertically oval, mid dilated & shallow anterior chamber is seen in: Primary angle closure glaucoma
37. Dislocation of lens in Marfan's syndrome: Bilateral supero-temporal
38. Second sight phenomenon is seen with: Nuclear cataract
39. Cataract-in diabetes is due to accumulation of: Sorbitol
40. Characteristic feature of diabetic retinopathy: Microaneurysm
41. Visual field defect seen in pituitary tumour with suprasellar extension: Bitemporal hemianopia
42. Flexner Wintersteiner rosettes on microscopy are seen in: Retinoblastoma
43. MC cause of hemorrhagic conjunctivitis: Enterovirus-70
44. MC cause of recurrent vitreous hemorrhage: Eale's disease
45. Afferent limb of light reflex is through: Cranial nerve II
46. Lens used to correct presbyopia: Convex
47. A pupil responds to accommodation but light reflex is absent. This is: Argyll Robertson pupil
48. Latanoprost acts by: Increasing uveo-scleral outflow of aqueous
49. Inability :o completely close the palpebral aperture is known as: Lagopthalmos
50. Drug used for preventing recurrence of Pterygium: Mitomycin-C

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• MC to produce hypercalcemia: Squamous cell Ca

• MC cavitating lung Ca: Squamous cell Ca
• MC type of lung Ca: Adeno Ca
• 2nd MC lung Ca: Squamous cell Ca
• Lung Ca with worst prognosis: Small cell Ca
• Best prognosis among lung Ca: Squamous cell Ca
• MC metastasizing to opposite lung: Adeno Ca
• Lung Ca most responsive to radiotherapy: Small cell Ca
• Lung Ca most sensitive to chemotherapy: Small cell Ca
• MC type in non-smokers: Adeno Ca
• MC in peripheral location: Adeno Ca
• MC in young patient: Adeno Ca
• MC in females: Adeno Ca


• Koplik spots: Measles

• Roth spots: SABE
• Bitot's spots: Vitamin A deficiency
• Herald spot: Pityriasis rosea


• Serum potassium more than 5.5 mEq/ L,

• Pseudohyperkalemia:
• Hemolysis of blood sample or the release of potassium from RBC, WBC and platelets
• Hyperkalemia is associated with:
o Digitalis intoxication,
o Beta blockers,
o Acute intravascular hemolysis,
o Acute oliguric states
 Severe crush injury,


• Type I:
o Parenchymal disease,
o Pneumoniae,
o Emphysema
• Type II:

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o Flail chest etc.


• Increased leukotrienes,
• Hyper-responsive airways,
• Constriction of small airways,
• Curschmann's spirals seen,
• FEV1 improves maximum with bronchodilator therapy,


• Smoking is an important predisposing factor,

• Alphal antitrypsin deficiency is associated with: Panacinar emphysema
• Breathlessness is a characteristic feature,
• Diurinal variation in peak expiratory flow rate is seen


• Nodular bronchiectasis is seen in infection with: Mycobacterium avium

• Chest x-ray shows: Tram track lines
• MC site: Left lower lobe
• Clubbing is seen
• Investigation of choice: HRCT scan
• Bronchiectasis does NOT predispose to lung Ca


• Situs inversus,
• Bronchiectasis and sinusitis
• Infertility


• Exudative pleural effusion is seen in:

o RA,
o Bronchogenic Ca etc.
• Blood stained pleural effusion:
o Pulmonary infarction,
o Metastatic Ca etc.
• Low glucose in pleural fluid:
o RA,
o Empyema
• Increased amylase in pleural fluid:
o Pancreatitis,
o Esophageal perforation
o Burns,
o Adrenal insufficiency
• ECG changes:
o Shortening of QT interval,
o PR interval prolongation,
o Tall, peaked T wave
• Acute emergency treatment:
o Calcium gluconate,
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o Sodium bicarbonate,
o Insulin etc.


• Associated with:
o Inadequate intake,
o Alcohol,
o Impairment of gut/ renal absorption,
o Oftenly with hypocalcemia and hypophosphataemia
• EMG studies: Myopathic potentials


• Pseudohypoparathyroidism: No deficiency of parathormone, but target organ (bone and kidney) are
unresponsive to its action
• Chvostek's sign: Contraction of facial muscles, elicited by light tapping of the facial nerve
• ECG changes: Prolongation of QT interval


• Respiratory acidosis:
o Raised CO2 and
o Raised HCO3- (reduced pH)
• Metabolic alkalosis:
o Raised HCO3-,
o CO2 unchanged (raised pH)
• Metabolic acidosis is seen in:
o Lactic acidosis,
o Diabetic KetoAcidosis,
o Renal tubular acidosis,
o Ethylene glycol, etc.


• Paradoxical breathing is seen in: Diaphragmatic palsy

• Amphoric breathing: Pneumothorax
• Cavernous breathing: Cavity
• Tubular breathing: Consolidation


• Obstructive lung disease: Reduced FEV1/ FVC

• Restrictive lung disease:
o Reduced FVC,
o Raised FEV1/ FVC
• Cholesterol in pleural fluid:
o RA,
o TB,
o Hypothyroidism


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• Causes atypical pneumonia in younger patients,
• Chest radiography: Bilateral consolidation
• Serology is helpful in diagnosis
• Treatment: Erythromycin


• Farmers lung: C
o Caused by micropolyspora faeni;
o Associated with moldy hay
• Bagassosis:
o Caused by Thermoactinomycetes sacchrii;
o Associated with: Sugar cane dust


• Acid fastness of mycobacterium TB is due to: Mycolic acid and cell wall
• Assmans focus: Infraclavicular lesion of chronic pulmonary TB


• Peripheral lesion,
• Accompanied by hilar/ paratracheal lymphadenopathy
• Ghon's focus (healed primary pulm TB),
• Associated with:
o Fibrocaseous lesion/ phylectenular conjunctivitis,
o Unilateral lymphadenopathy usually


• Pop corn calcification,

• Hemorrhagic pleural effusion and
• Cavitation can occur


• Opportunistic pathogen,
• Fungus causing pneumonia in AIDS,
• Damage of type I pneumocytes
• Hypertrophy of type II pneumocytes,
• Interstitial pneumonitis,
• Seen with immunologic deficiencies:
o Defects in cell mediated immunity,
o Hematologic malignancies
• X-ray of P. carinii pneumonia shows:
o Bilateral diffuse infiltrates in perihilar region
o Eosinophilic infiltrates,
• P. Carinii pneumonia in adults, mainly presents as: Alveolar predominant (interstitial in children)
• Treatment: Co-trimoxazole


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• MC Ca causing superior vena caval syndrome,
• Causes paraneoplastic syndrome
o Cushing syndrome,
• Treated by chemotherapy


• MC and earliest manifestation: Dyspnea

• ECG findings: S1Q3T3
• Signs seen on Chest X-ray:
o Hampton's sign,
o West marks sign
• Plasma D-dimer ELISA level is elevated (> 90%),
• IOC: CT scan
• Gold standard investigation: Pulmonary angiography
• Wells grading is done


• Hypoxia,
• Hypocapnia,
• Acute onset of respiratory failure,
• Ground glass appearance,
• Air bronchogram sign is positive
• Associated with:
o Pancreatitis,
o Trauma,
o Multiple blood transfusions etc.


• Pulsus bisferiens (collapsing and slow rising): Aortic stenosis with aortic regurgitation
• Water hammer pulse: Aortic regurgitation
• Pulsus paradoxus:
o Asthma,
o Pericarditis,
o Cardiac tamponade


• 'a' wave is due to: Atrial systole

• 'c' wave is due to: Isometric contraction phase causing bulging of AV valves into atrium


• Soft S1: Mitral stenosis (long standing, calcified) etc.

• Loud Sl: Mitral stenosis (prolonged flow through AV valve) etc.
• Wide split S2:
o ASD,
o Pulmonary stenosis etc.
• Reverse splitting of S2:
o Left bundle branch block,
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o Aortic stenosis etc.
• S3 is heard in:
o Children,
o Hyperdynamic states etc.
• Causes of S4:
o Hypertension,
o HOCM etc.


• P wave is due to: Atrial depolarization

• QRS complex is due to: Ventricular depolarization
• Duration of QRS complex: 0.08-0.10 seconds


• ECG changes:
o Short PR interval,
o Wide QRS complex etc.
• Management:
o Procainamide/ Amiodarone
o Radiofrequency ablation


• Ventricular arrhythmia: Lidocaine

• Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: Adenosine
• WPWS: Procainamide/ Amiodarone


• Major criteria:
o Subcutaneous nodule,
o Erythema marginatum,
o Syndenham's chorea,
o Carditis and
o Migratory polyarthritis
• Associated terms:
o Aschoff bodies,
o Anitschow cells/caterpillar cells,
o Pancarditis,
o McCallum patch (subendocardial)


• Features:
o Atrial fibrillation,
o Hemoptysis,
o Pulmonary hypertension,
o Hoarseness of voice
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• Most important differential diagnosis: Left atrial myxoma
• Investigation of choice for MS: Echocardiography
• Mitral valve area less than 0.6 cm2 is incompatible with life (Normal is 4-6 cm2)


• Myxomatous degeneration,
• More common in: Females
• Murmur: Mid systolic murmur
• Sudden death can be there (rare complication)


• ECHO may show mitral regurgitation

• Murmur of HOCM: Ejection systolic murmur
• Sudden death may be a complication
• Avoid digoxin


• MC cause of sub acute endocarditis: Streptococccus viridans (acute endocarditis is caused by Staphylococcus
• MC cause in 1/V drug abusers: Staph aureus (esp. with acute presentation)
• Endocarditis with destruction of underlying myocardium: Libman-sack's endocarditis
• Oslers nodes: Painful, pea-sized nodules in pulp of fingers
• Janeways lesions: Non-tender lesions in soles/plam
• Spots in retina: Roth's spot
• Condition with low risk of IE: ASD


• Risk factors:
o Low HDL,
o Raised apolipoprotein A,
o Smoking etc.
• Amino acid associated with atherosclerosis: Homocysteine Organism associated with coronary
o H. pylori,
o Chlamydia etc.


• ECG change in hyperacute phase: ST elevation

• ECG changes in anterolateral infarct:
o V4-6,
o I,
o aVL (left main stem)


• In stable angina, enzyme levels are: Normal

• Enzyme to raise at the earliest: Myoglobin; followed by CK-MB
• Sensitive marker for MI: Troponin T
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• Rises at 4-8 hours,

• Peaks at 16-24 hours and
• Returns to normal at 3-4 days


• Begins to rise at 4-6 hours,

• Peaks at 12-24 hours and
• Returns to normal at 7-10 days


• Precipitating factors:
o Hypokalemia (classically),
o Hypomagnesemia,
o Hypercalcemia,
o Hypernatremia etc.
• Features:
o Yellow green vision,
o Arrythmias etc.
• Management:
o Withdrawl of digoxin,
o Potassium supplement,
o Correct arrythymia etc.


• Features:
o Pulsus paradoxus,
o Electrical alterans,
o Raised JVP
o 'x' descent is prominent
• Chest X-ray findings: Big globular heart
• Beck's triad:
o Hypotension,
o Silent heart and
o Raised JVP


• Features:
o Right heart failure occurs,
o Raised JVP,
o Prominent 'x' descent,
o Kussmaul sign seen


• Commonest cause of anemia in India

• Increased iron absorption is seen in: Iron deficiency anemia, pregnancy, hypoxia, acidic pH of stomach,
ferrous iron salts
• Causes of IDA: Hookworms, celiac sprue, carcinoma colon

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• Features diagnostic of IDA: Decreased serum ferritin, increased TIBC
• Earliest sign of IDA: Decrease in serum ferritin
• Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosing IDA: Serum ferritin levels
• Hypochromia may be preceded by microcytosis


• Causes:
o Orotic aciduria,
o Liver disease,
o Fish tapeworm infestation etc.
o Drugs:
 Folate antagonists,
 Phenytoin etc.
• Hematological findings:
o Multisegmented nuclei,
o Anisocytosis (increased variation in size of RBC),
o Poikilocytosis (abnormal shaped RBC),
o Pancytopenia etc.
• Associated with: SACD of spinal cord
• Tongue in vitamin B12 deficiency:
o Macroglossia,
o Atrophic glossitis etc.


• Features:
o Increased reticulocyte count,
o Increased serum LDH level,
o Decreased serum haptoglobin level etc.


• Pathology: Replacement of glutamate by valine at 6 beta chain of HbA

• MC symptom (acute presentation): Bone pain
• Other features:
o Cardiomegaly,
o Fish mouth vertebra etc.
• Hematological findings:
o Hemosiderinuria,
o Leucocytosis,
o Target cells
• Thrombotic crisis/painful crisis/vaso-occlusive crisis is precipitated by:
o Infection,
o Dehydration,
o Deoxygenation
• Aplastic crisis is caused by infection with: Parvovirus


• Assessed by: Raised osmotic fragility of the RBC

• Basic pathology:
o Defect in ankyrin (50%) (Binds protein 3 and spectrin)
o Mutation in protein 3 and
o Mutations of spectrin,
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o Pallaidin defect
• Management: Splenectomy


• Hyperviscosity (thrombosis),
• Bleeding,
• Normal erythropoietin levels and
• Raised LAP score
• Prognosis: May progress to acute leukemia
• Tumours associated with polycythemia:
o Hypernephroma,
o Hepatoma


• MC inherited bleeding disorder,

• Features:
o Prolonged bleeding time,
o Normal PT
• Management: Cryoprecipitate


• EBV may be causative in some cases,

• Malignant cell is: Reed sternberg cell
• RS cell are positive for:
o CD 15,
o CD 30 (EXCEPT lymphocytic predominant)
• CNS involvement is uncommon,
• Cerebellar degeneration is seen
• MC type: Nodular sclerosis
• MC type in India: Mixed cellularity
• Histogenitically diferent subtype: Lymphocytic predominant (negative for CD15, CD30; positive for CD20)
• Features of lymphocytic predominant:
o Popcorn cells,
o Best prognosis
• Regimes used:


• Musculoskeletal finding: Non-erosive arthritis

• Renal manifestations:
o Papillary necrosis,
o Wire loop lesions
• MC cause of death: Renal involvement
• Haematologic manifestations:
o Autoimmune hemolytic anemia,
o Cold antibodies,
o Mild thrombocytopenia,
o Pancytopenia etc.
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• Pulmonary system findings:
o Cavitation,
o Pulmonary fibrosis,
o Shrinking lung syndrome
o Polyserositis
o Specific antibody for SLE:
o Anti-ds DNA,
o anti-Sm


• No involvement of extraocular and facial muscles,

• No cutaneous manifestations,
• Proximal limb muscles are involved,
• Pharyngeal muscles are involved,
• Pain is a feature,
• Raised CPK


• Inheritance: X linked recessive

• Defect lies in:
o Dystrophin gene,
o Sarcolemmal protein defect
• Features: Pseudohypertrophy of muscles
• Gowers sign: Patient, while standing, tries to climb on himself


• Decreased myoneural junction transmission

• Features:
o Dysarthria,
o Dysphagia,
o Proximal muscle weakness,
o Sensory modalities and deep tendon reflexes are NORMAL
• MC used cl-,olinergic drugs: Pyridostigmine/ neostigmine
• Surgical procedure (should be done in all cases): Thymectomy


• More prevalent in developing countries,

• Urel is: pH gated urea channel in H. pylori
• Associated condition:
o Gastritis,
o Gastric Ca,
o Peptic ulcer disease and
o Gastric lymphoma
• Extra gastric diseases:
o Coronary atherosclerosis,
o Iron deficiency anemia
• Test for documenting eradication: Urea breath test
• Test for epidemiology: Serology


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• MC site of cushings ulcer: Distal duodenum
• MC site of peptic ulcer: 1st part of duodenum
• Curlings ulcer: Stress ulcer after burns
• MC complication of peptic ulcer: Hemorrhage


• Sensitivity to protein gluten

• Associated with: Myasthenia gravis
• Diagnosed by: Immunology and jejunal biopsy
• Findings on jejunal biopsy:
o Villous atrophy,
o Crypt hyperplasia,
o Thickness of mucosa unaltered

• Associated terms
• Toxic megacolon,
• Pseudopolyps etc.
• Associated terms
o Skip lesions,
o Creeping fat,
o Antisachromyces cerevisae antibody etc.
• Mainstay of therapy for inflammatory bowel disease: 5 amino salicylic acid

• Reverse transcriptase of HBV is coded by: P gene
• Hepatitis spreading by feco-oral route: HAV, HEV
• First viral marker to appear after HBV infection: HBsAg
• Indicator of intrahepatic viral replication/ presence of which marker indicates high infectivity: HbeAg, HBV
• Recent infection of HBV is indicated by: IgM anti-HBcAg
• HBV is associated with: Polyarteritis Nodosa
• Agents used treating for HBV:
o Interferon,
o Lamuvidine,
o Adefovir
• MC cause of sporadic hepatitis in adults: HEV
• Worst prognosis in pregnancy: HEV
• Treatment of HCV: Interferon + ribavarin
• Most prone to chronicity: HCV
• Conditions associated with HCV:
o Cryoglobinemia,
o Glomerulonephritis,
o Arthritis etc.
• Inheritance: Autosomal recessive
• Diagnostic criteria:
o S. Ceruloplasmin level < 20 mg/ dl + KF rings OR

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o S. Ceruloplasmin level < 20 mg/dl + concentration of Cu in liver biopsy sample > 250 microgram/ gram
dry weight Urinary excretion of Cu in most symptomatic patients: > 100 microgram Cu/ day
• Features:
o Hepatic dysfunction,
o Eye changes (KF rings in descemets membrane of cornea; they do not interfere with vision)
o Neurologic manifestations (NO sensory changes)
• Drug used in penicillamine sensitive patients: Trientine
• Drug for maintenance therapy: Zinc acetate/gluconate

• IDDM presentation: Usually <25 years
• HLA link of NIDDM: No links
• Ketoacidosis commoner in: IDDM
• Dawn phenomenon: Glucose level rise in early morning
• Somogyi effect: Rebound hyperglycemia may appear after 1-24 hours after moderate to severe
• Leading cause of end stage renal disease/ ESRD: Diabetic nephropathy
• Absence of chest pain in DM patients is: Silent ischemia (due to neuropathy)
• Parameter used to monitor DM control: HbA1c
• Early test for DM nephropathy: Persistent albuminuria (>300 mg/ d or >200 mcg/ min) oon at least 2
occasions, 3-6 months apart
• Kimmelstiel Wilson nodule: Characteristic histological feature of DM nehropathy


• Severe proteinuria,
• Increased fibrinogen,
• Platelet activation,
• Decreased HDL etc.


• Causes:
o Idiopathic,
o HIV,
o Hodgkins disease etc.
• Responds well to: Steroids
• Deposition of: IgA
• Electron microscopy findings: Fusion of foot process
• Changes on light microscopy: No change


• Benign HTN: Hyaline arteriosclerosis

• Malignant HTN: Fibrinoid necrosis
• Renin dependent HTN: Renovascular HTN
• MC cause of paroxysmal HTN: Phaeochromocytoma


• Features:

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o Carpal tunnel syndrome,
o Subnormal body temperature,
o Increased sleep,
o Cold intolerance
• TSH level: Increased
• Drugs associated with hypothyroidism:
o Lithium,
o Amiodarone etc.
• MC cause of congenital hypothyroidism: Thyroid agenesis
• Treatment of childhood hypothyroidism: Levothyroxine


• MC cause: Solitary adenoma (80%)

• Features:
o Bones (brown tumour),
o Stones (renal calculi),
o Abdominal groans (peptic ulcer) and
o Psychic moans (depression)
• Blood chemistry:
o Raised Ca,
o Low phosphate and
o Normal/ raised alkaline phosphatase


• Pathology: Primary adrenocortical insufficiency

• Metabolic effects: Hyperkalemia,
• Hyponatremia and
• Hypoglycemia
• Increased pigmentation (EXCEPT in secondary adrenal insufficiency due to pituitary failure)
• Definitive investigation: Short ACTH test
• Drug associated with addisonian like features: Busulfan


• MC cause of dementia in eldelry: Alzhiemers disease

• Presenile dementia occurs before the age of: 60 years
• Useful screening test for dementia: Mini mental status examination
• Maximum score in mini mental status examination: 30


• Ascending type of motor paralysis,

• Arreflexia,
• Flaccidity,
• Albumino-cytological dissociation
• Treatment:
o Plasmapheresis and
o Immunoglobulin

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• Manifestation:
o Ataxia asynergia (inability to do movements smoothly and accurately),
o Hypotonia,
o Intention tremor (NOT resting ones),
o Nystagmus etc.


• MC cause of neonatal meningitis: Gram negative bacilli/Group B streptococci

• MC cause of meningitis in eldery adults: S. pneumonia (In young, Neisseria is the commonest cause)


• Purulent exudate,
• Cloudy CSF,
• Decreased glucose (<2.2 mmol/ L) and
• Increased protein concentration (>0.45 g/ L)
• Increased neutrophils


• MC caused by: Enterovirus (80-90%)

• Features:
• Lymphocytic pleocytosis,
• Normal glucose level,
• Normal/ mildly elevated pressure
• Test: CSF PCR test


• Tract involved: Dorsal column

• Features:
o Sensory loss,
o Argyll Robertson pupil and
o Bladder dysfunction
• Associated term: Tabes dorsalis


• MC cause of neuropathic joint disease: DM

• MC joint affected by DM: Tarsal joints
• Other associated conditions:
o Leprosy,
o Syringomyelia,
o Tabes dorsalis etc.
• Condition resembling charcoat's joint: CPPD deposition


• Features:
o Tremor (at rest; worsens with emotional stress),
o Festinating gait,

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o Bradykinesia,
o Decreased blinking etc.
• Symptoms of parkinsonism are due to: Loss of nerve cells in
o Substantia nigra,
o Pars compacta and the
o Locus coeruleus (midbrain)
• Drugs causing parkinsonism:
o Methyl dopa,
o Reserpine,
o Thiazides,
o Metoclopramide etc.
• Clinical presentation:
• 60 year old patient with severe headache and neck stiffness of abrupt onset. She had never such a severe
headache before. She may have photophobia and nausea
• Most aneurysm presents as: Sudden SAH
• Occipital and posterior cervical pain may indicate: Posterior/anterior inferior cerebellar artery aneurysm
• Cause of clinical deterioration in a week following: Rebleed and vasospasm

• MC brain tumours: Astrocytoma

• MC glial tumors: Astrocytoma
• MC intracranial tumour: Glioma
• MC posterior fossa tumour: Astrocytoma
• Conditions associated with brain tumour:
• Von Hippel Lindau syndrome,
• Tuberous sclerosis etc.
• MC tumour associated with neurofibromatosis-I: Optic nerve glioma
• Feature of neurofibroblastoma-II: Bilateral acoustic neuroma
• Craniopharyngiomas are derived from: Rathkes pouch

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Radiosensitive lung carcinoma: Small cell carcinoma

2. Lung carcinoma found in peripheral location: Adenocarcinoma
3. Koplik spots are seen in: Measles
4. Increased neuromuscular irritability is a feature of: Hypocalcemia
5. Paradoxical breathing is seen in: Diaphragmatic palsy
6. Curschmann spirals are seen in: Asthma
7. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with: Panacinar emphysema
8. IOC for Bronchiectasis: High resolution CT scan
9. DOC for mycoplasma pneumoniae: Erythromycin
10. Pneumoconiosis associated with sugarcane dust: Bagassosis
11. IOC for aortic dissection: MR1
12. Ground glass appearance on chest X-ray is a feature of: ARDS
13. MC carcinoma causing superior vena cava syndrome: Lung carcinoma
14. MC manifestation of pulmonary embolism: Dyspnoea
15. Barrel shaped chest is a feature of: Emphysema
16. In JVP, a wave is due to: Atrial contraction
17. In ECG, p wave is due to: Atrial depolarization
18. DOC for PSVT: Adenosine
19. MacCallum patch is seen in: Rheumatic heart disease
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20. IOC for mitral stenosis: Echocardiography
21. Austin flint murmur is heard in: Severe aortic regurgitation
22. Drug contraindicated in HOCM: Digoxin, ACE inhibitors
23. DOC for acute pulmonary edema: Furosemide
24. Becks triad is associated with: Cardiac tamponade
25. Earliest feature of iron deficiency anemia: Reduced serum ferritin
26. SACD of spinal cord is associated with: Vitamin B12 deficiency
27. Erythropoietin levels are normal in polycythemia rubra vera
28. Reduced osmotic fragility of RBC is seen in: Thalassemia
29. Haptoglobin levels are low in hemolytic anemia
30. Basic defect in hereditary spherocytosis: Defect in ankyrin
31. Best prognosis among Hodgkins: Lymphocytic predominant
32. MC type of Hodgkin lymphoma: Nodular sclerosis
33. Wireloop lesions are seen in: SLE
34. Shrinking lung syndrome is seen in: SLE
35. Pseud ohypertrophy of muscles is a feature of: Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
36. Surgical procedure done in myasthenia gravis: Thymectomy
37. MC site of peptic ulcer: 1st part of duodenum
38. Specific test for diagnosing Whipple disease: Biopsy
39. Mainstay of therapy for inflammatory bowel disease: 5-amino Salicylic acid
40. First viral marker to appear after HBV infection: HBsAg
41. IgM anti-HBc indicates: Recent infection
42. Marker denoting immunity in HBV infection: anti-HBs
43. KF rings in Descemet membrane of cornea is seen in: Wilson disease
44. Transmural involvement is a feature of: Crohns disease
45. MC complication of peptic ulcer: Bleeding
46. Anti-endomysial antibody is associated with: Celiac sprue
47. Standard treatment of Kawasaki disease: I/V immunoglobulin
48. Necrotizing vasculitis of small and medium sized muscular arteries is a feature of: Polyarteritis nodosa
49. Lab findings of von Willebrand disease include increased BT and normal FT
50. Haemophilia A is low levels of factor VIII

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• Rarest: Anaplastic Ca
• Worst prognosis: Anaplastic Ca
• Best prognosis: Papillary Ca
• Associated with MEN II: Medullary Ca
• Developing in thyroglossal cyst: Papillary Ca
• Least malignant: Papillary Ca
• Developing in Hashimoto's thyroiditis: Papillary Ca
• MC type: Papillary Ca
• Associated with psammoma bodies: Papillary Ca


• MC cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm: Atherosclerosis

• Cirsoid aneurysm commonly involves: Superficial temporal artery
• Pseudoaneurysm usually follow: Trauma
• IOC for peripheral aneurysm: Doppler USG
• MC cause of mycotic aneurysm: Staphylococcus


• TAO affects:
o Small & medium sized arteries,
o Young,
o Smokers
• Treatment of TAO:
o Lumbar sympathectomy,
o Xanithol nicotinate is used


• Clinical presentation:
o Unilateral leg swelling,
o Local warmth,
o Erythema &
o Pain
• Non-invasive test to diagnose DVT: Duplex venous USG
• Drug used for DVT prophylaxis: Heparin
• Treatment:
o Thrombolytic therapy,
o Bandaging etc.
• Homan's sign in DVT: Forced dorsiflexion of foot causes calf pain

• Gold standard method of diagnosing VV: Duplex imaging
• Sclerosant used in VV: Ethanolamine oleate
• Test to demonstrate sapheno-femoral incompetence: Brodie-Trendelenburg test
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• MC complication of stripping: Ecchymosis
• Cocket & Dodds's operation: Subfascial ligation


• Physiological effects of AVF:

o Enhanced venous return &
o Increased cardiac output,
o May cause overgrowth of limb later (if in young) etc.
• Nicoladoni/ Branham sign:
o Pressure on the artery proximal to fistula causes
o Swelling to reduce in size,
o A thrill/ bruit to cease,
o Fall in pulse rate &
o Pulse pressure returns to normal


• TPN is used as a primary therapy in:

o Severe burns,
o Short bowel syndrome etc.
• Complications of TPN:
o Air embolism,
o Weight loss in 7 days etc.
• Metabolic changes in TPN:
o Essential fatty acid deficiency,
o Electrolyte disorder etc.


• Healing by primary/ 1st intention:

o Closed wounds,
o Edges approximated
o e.g. clean skin incision closed with sutures
• Factors delaying wound healing:
o Vitamin C deficiency,
o Presence of vitamin E (inhibitory role),
o Deficiency of trace metals (zinc, copper etc.),
o Absence of oxygen (reduced perfusion),
o Anemia,
o Infection etc.


• Appears after few days of surgery,

• May be familial,
• Rarely subsides,
• Recurrence is common,
• May turn malignant,
• MC site is: Sternum
• Treatment of keloid:
o Intralesional steroid,
o Excision & repair

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• Partial thickness skin grafts/ Theirsch graft: Consist of epidermis & variable thickness of dermis
• Full thickness/ Wolfes graft: Consists of epidermis & all of the dermis
• Composite grafts: Consist of skin & some underlying tissue (fat, cartilage etc.)


• MC site of BCC: Face

• MC type of BCC: Nodulo-ulcerative type
• Mode of spread: Direct
• Excision procedure done: Moh's micrographic excision


• Mode of spread of MM: Lymphatic channels or hematogenous

• Cutaneous melanoma arises from: Epidermal melanocytes
• MC site involved in lentigo maligna (least common): Face
• MC type of MM: Superficial spreading
• Most malignant type of MM: Noduar melanoma


• MC benign parotid gland tumour: Pleomorphic adenoma

• Treatment of pleomorphic adenoma: Superficial parotidectomy (Patey's operation)
• Warthins tumour (2nd MC benign parotid tumour) consists of: Epithelial & lymphoid elements
• Treatment of Warthins tumour: Superficial parotidectomy
• Adenoid cystic Ca/ cylindroma/ treacherous tumour invades: Perineural space & lymphatics
• Muco-epidermoid Ca arises from: Mucin secreting cells & epidermal cells
• MC benign salivary gland tumour: Pleomorphic adenoma
• Most of the minor salivary gland tumours are: Malignant
• Calculi are MC in: Submandibular duct


• Peau'd orange is due to: Lymphatic permeation

• Risk factors for breast Ca:
o Positive family history,
o Nullipara,
o Fatty food intake,
o Mammary dysplasia/ atypical hyperplasia/ sclerosing adenosis
• Management of stage I & II of breast Ca: Lumpectomy/ breast conservative therapy + axillary clearance +
• Mondor's disease is: Thrombophlebitis of breast (superficial veins)
• Cystosarcoma phylloides:
o Serocystic disease of Brodie,
o Benign breast tumour
• Fluid filled lesions of lymphatic origin (lymphangioma),
• Brilliantly translucent,
• Cough impulse is positive,
• Associated with:
o Turners syndrome,
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o Trisomies etc.,
• Treatment of choice: Excision


• MC site: Upper part of neck,

• Wall is made of: Lymphoid tissue

• Retention cyst of sublingual glands


• MC site:
o Beneath the hyoid,
o Occupies the midline usually (except in the region of thyroid cartilage),
• Swelling moves upwards on protrusion of the tongue as well as on swallowing (attachment with foramen
• Painless


• Due to viral infection,

• Increased ESR,
• Self limiting


• MC in female,
• Investigation of choice is: FNAC
• Hemi-thyroidectomy is done for solitary nodule


• MEN-I:
o Parathyroid neoplasm,
o Pancreas neoplasm &
o Pituitary (anterior) adenoma
o Medullary Ca (thyroid),
o Phaeochromocytomas &
o Parathyroid hyperplasia
• MEN-11B:
o Medullary Ca (thyroid),
o Phaeochromocytomas &
o Mucosal neuromas (with distinctive marfanoid habitus)


• 80% cases are sporadic,

• 20% are familial (MEN-I1a or MEN-IIb),
• MTC is the first abnormality expressed in MEN-I1a/ Ilb,
• Stroma of MTC shows material with staining properties of amyloid,
• MTC can be diagnosed by demonstrating calcitonin within the MTC cells (on immuno-histochemical studies),
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• Total thyroidectomy is the TOC


• MC thyroid tumour,
• Encapsulated,
• Psammoma bodies are seen,
• Multifocal,
• Least malignant,
• Follicular type is a variety of papillary Ca


• MC cause of esophagitis: Reflux esophagitis

• Young women with koilonychias, iron deficiency anemia & dysphagia: Plummer-Vinson syndrome/ Brown
Kelly Syndrome/ Sideropenic dysphagia
• Schatzki's ring:
o Circular submucosal ring in the distal esophagus,
o Usually at squamo-columnar junction:
• Barium study of a lady with non-progressive dysphagia (for solids) shows: Dilated esophagus with narrowing
of lower part of esophagus
• Diffuse esophageal spasm, on barium swallow: Cork screw appearance
• Dysphagia lusoria: Secondary to vascular anomalies (double aortic arch, right aortic arch etc.)
• Zenker's diverticulum:
o Presents with intermittent dysphagia, regurgitation, gurgling sounds etc.,
o Managed by: Excision of pouch/ cricopharyngeal myotomy
• Mallory Weiss syndrome:
o Common in alcoholics,
o MC site is cardia of stomach (NOT esophagus)
• Boerhaave's syndrome:
o Forceful vomiting may produce perforation of the esophagus,
o Presents with acute chest pain


• Dysphagia is the presenting symptom

• Increased difficulty in swallowing both solids & liquids,
• Failure of relaxation of lower esophageal sphincter,
• Increased pressure,
• X-ray shows bird beak appearnce


• Metaplasia is seen at lower end of esophagus,

• Squamous to columnar epithelial metaplasia is seen,
• As a result of prolonged GERD,
• MC type is intestinal metaplasia,
• May lead to development of
o AdenoCa,
o Barret ulcer,
o Stricture etc.


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• Presents within 2 - 4 weeks after birth,
• Weight loss,
• Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
• Fluid of choice: Isotonic normal saline


• Predisposing factors:
o Smoking,
o Chronic achalasia,
o Tylosis,
o Barret's esophagus etc.
• MC type: Squamous cell Ca
• MC site: Lower end of esophagus
• MC site of adenoCa: Lower end
• MC site of squamous cell Ca: Middle 1/3rd
• Chemotherapeutic agents used: Cisplatin, bleomycin & 5-FU


• MC site: Antrum & pylorus

• Predisposing factors:
o H. Pylori (causes gastritis, gastric atrophy),
o Blood group A etc.,
• MC feature: Weight loss
• Early gastric Ca:
o Primary lesion limited to mucosa & submucosa,
o Excellent prognosis
• Sister Mary Joseph's nodule: Metastatic involvement of para-umbilical nodes from intrapelvic/ intra-
abdominal malignan-
• cies (stomach)
• Gastro-intestinal stromal tumours/ GIST: MC in stomach


• MC site of duodenal ulcer: Duodenal cap

• Curling's ulcer: GI ulcers in severe burns
• Site of bleeding in duodenal ulcer: Gastroduodenal artery
• Treatment of perforated peptic ulcer:
o Exploratory laparotomy,
o Nasogastric suction,
o Acid suppression,
o Antibiotics etc.
• Management of duodenal ulcer:
o Highly selective vagotomy (least chances of diarrhea/ dumping syndrome)
o Truncal vagotomy & antrectomy (lowest chances of recurrence)
• Cause of early dumping syndrome: Due to rapid emptying of hyperosmolar gastric contents into the small


• Acute appendicitis: Left sided appendicitis is diverticulosis

• Enlarged lymphoid follicles associated with:
o Viral infections,

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o Inspissated barium etc.
• Pelvic & post-ileal appendicitis presents as: Diarrhea al Surgery ME
M I &
• USG is helpful in diagnosis,
• USG & CT are confirmatory
• Mucocoele of appendix: Retention cyst/ benign tumour
• Appendicular carcinoid: MC malignant tumour of appendix


• True congenital diverticulum,

• Vestigeal remnant of omphalomesenteric duct/ vitelline duct,
• 2 feet from ileocaecal valve,
• 2 types of ectopic tissue are common:
o Gastric &
o Pancreatic
• Torsion may lead to obstruction, ischemia & necrosis,
• IOC to diagnose Meckel's diverticula: Technetium-99m pertechnetate (99mTc),
• It can be a leading point of intussusception


• MC site: Rectum,
• MC site in colon: Sigmoid colon
• MC type: AdenoCa
• Presentation of right sided tumour: Anemia
• Left sided tumour presents as: Obstruction/ pain
• Risk factors:
o Increased dietary fats & oil,
o Elevated serum cholesterol,
o Ulcerative colitis & Crohns disease,
o Familial adenomatous polyps
• MC site of metastasis: Liver (33% patient may have metastasis)
• Treatment of choice: Surgery


• Spigelian hernia: Interparietal hernia (sub-umbilical/ level of arcuate line)

• Littres hernia: Hernia of Meckel's diverticulum
• Morgagni's hernia: Hernia between costal & sternal parts of diaphragm
• Hernia en glissade/ sliding hernia:
o Content on left side are sigmoid colon & mesentry;
o Right side content is caecum
• Femoral hernia:
o MC in Female,
o MC on Right side,
o MC strangulates


• MC site of heterotopic pancreatic tissue: Stomach

• Annular pancreas:
o 2nd part of duodenum is surrounded by a ring of pancreatic tissue,
o Managed by duodeno-duodenostomy
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• MC cause: Gallstones
• Investigation which can cause acute pancreatitis: ERCP
• Grey turner sign: Blue-red-purple or green-brown discoloration due to catabolism of hemoglobin
• Diagnosis: Fecal fat estimation,
• CT scan is the diagnostic modality
• Best prognosis: Gall stone pancreatitis
• Recurrent pancreatitis occurs in: Methyl malonic acidemia
• Conditions with raised serum amylase:
o Pancreatitis,
o Renal failure,
o Ruptured ectopic pregnancy etc.
• Most consistent risk factor: Cigarette smoking
• MC site: Pancreatic head (70%)
• MC symptom: Weight loss & pain


• MC site: Duodenum
• Non beta cell tumour,
• Neuro-endocrine tumour/ NET secreting: Gastrin
• Most important investigation: Secretin injection test
• DOC for ZES: Proton pump inhibitors
• Hepatic metastasis occurs (33%)


• MC endocrine tumours of pancreas (from beta cells),

• Usually single,
• Whipple's triad is seen,
• Distributed equally throughout pancreas,
• Total capsule removal is ensured to prevent tumour recurrence


• Characteristic sign of splenic rupture: Kehr's sign (referred pain) in left shoulder
• Kehr' sign may also be seen in:
o Diaphragmatic lesions,
o Hemoperitoneum etc.
• X-ray features of splenic injury:
o Obliteration of splenic shadow,
o Obliteration of psoas shadow,
o Elevation of left diaphragm


• Done in:
o Hereditary spherocytosis,
o Portal hypertension,
o Hypersplenism etc.
• Splenectomy is not done in:
o Hereditary hemolytic anemia,
o Porphyria etc.
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• Splenectomy increases risk for:
o Pneumococcal infections,
o H. Influenzae infections etc.


• Formed behind neck of pancreas,

• By union of splenic vein & superior mesenteric vein
• Portal hypertension: More than 10 mm Hg
• Sites of porto-systemic anastomosis:
o Rectum & anal canal (hemorrhoids),
o Lower end of esophagus (varices) etc.


• MC site: Right lobe (postero-superior surface),
• Anchovy sauce pus (choclate coloured pus due to RBC lysis)
• Complication of amoebic liver abscess:
o Pleuro-pulmonary involvement,
o Rupture into pleural space etc.


• Usually single & large,

• MC route of infection: Infection through bile duct (hematogenous route is 2'd MC route)
• MC organism: E. coli


• ELISA is sensitive,
• No role of blood culture,
• Crumbled egg appearance,
• PAIR technique is used for management:
− Percutaneous Aspiration,
− Injection of scolicidal agent,
− Reaspiration of cyst contents
• Most effective drug: Albendazole


• Predisposing factors:
o HBV,
o Alcoholic liver disease etc.
• Commonest marker for HCC: AlphaFetoprotein
• Other markers:
o Neurotensin,
• Imaging modality for screening HCC: USG
• Percutaneous biopsy (USG/ CT guided) can be diagnostic


• Pigment stones:
o Chronic hemolysis,

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o Alcoholic cirrhosis,
o Chronic biliary tract infection etc.
• Complications of gallstones:
o Acute & chronic cholecystitis,
o Carcinoma of gall bladder,
o Acute pancreatitis,
o Gallstone ileus (acute intestinal obstruction) etc.
• CBD stone:
o MC cause of obstructive jaundice
o On USG, bile duct diameter of more than 6 mm is suggestive of CBD stone,
o Meniscus sign (cholangiography)


• MC stones: Calcium stones (75-85%)

• Radiolucent stones: Uric acid
• Stones MC in men: Calcium
• Renal calculi overlies spine in lateral view
• Deitel's crisis:
o Renal colic,
o Swelling in loin &
o Disappearance of swelling with micturation
• Pain in ureteric calculi is due to ureteric peristalsis
• Stones MC in females: Struvite stones
• Stones MC in UTI with urease producing bacteria (proteus spp.): Struvite stones
• Stone which grows in alkaline urine: Struvite stones
• Stone which grow in infected urine: Struvite stone
• Stone hard to break in ESWL: Cysteine stones


• MC type: Transitional cell Ca

• Pure squamous Ca may be seen in:
o Schistosmiasis,
o Stones,
o Smoking etc.
• MC symptom: Painless hematuria
• Vaccine used in initial stages (trial): BCG (intravesical)


• MC cause of urethral stricture: Trauma

• Part of urethra injured in pelvic fracture: Membranous urethra
• Mechanism of urethral injury: Fall astride a projecting object (History of blow to perineum)
• Triad of ruptured bulbar urethra (Avoid catheterization):
o Retention of urine,
o Perineal hematoma &
o Bleeding from external urinary meatus


• Usually found distal to the verumontanum,

• Occurs in males,
• MC cause of urinary obstruction in male infant

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• Diagnosis is done by: VCUG & endoscopy


• Bilateral in 10% of cases,

• Abdominal cryptorchid testes are at higher risk as compared to inguinal cryptorchid testes
• Testicular feminization syndrome increases the risk of testicular germ cell tumour
• MC Ca of testes in young: Seminoma
• MC Ca in elderly: Lymphoma
• MC Ca in infants: Yolk sac tumour


• Radiosensitive,
• Corresponds to dysgerminoma of ovary &
• Treatment of choice is: Surgery


• Hooded prepuce,
• Meatal stenosis,
• Bifid scrotum
• Best time of surgery: 6-10 months of age


• Complication: Malignant change (even if the testes have been brought down surgically),
• Best time to operate: 9-15 months of age


• Carcinoma arises from: Peripheral zone

• BPH arises from: Periurethral zone
• MC complication of TURP: Retrograde ejaculation
• Irrigation fluid used in TURP: 1.5% glycine
• Drowsiness & altered sensorium after TURP may point toward: Hyponatremia


• McNeals zone refers to Ca zone,

• Earliest marker/ screening test: PSA
• MC nodes to be affected in lymphatic spread: Obturator
• Metastasis to vertebrae is via: Batesons vertebral venous plexus
• Gleasons staging is used
• Most sensitive test for screening of prostate Ca: Digital rectal examination & PSA


• MC esophageal Ca: Squamous cell Ca

• MC site of adenoCa: Lower end
• MC site of squamous cell Ca: Middle third
• MC site of pancreatic tumour: Pancreatic head
• MC symptom of pancreatic Ca: Pain & weight loss

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• MC type of rectal Ca: AdenoCa
• MC type of anal Ca: Epidermoid Ca

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Initial investigation for breast lump: FN AC

2. Thyroid tumour, associated with MEN II syndrome: Medullary carcinoma thyroid
3. Bilateral breast carcinoma: Lobular
4. Vascular malformation which persists: Portwine stain
5. MC cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm: Atherosclerosis
6. Clinical sign indicative of deep venous thrombosis: Homan's sign
7. Gold standard method of diagnosing varicose veins: Duplex USG
8. Sign associated with arteriovenous fistula: Nicoladoni- Branham sign
9. Mode of healing in clean incised wound: Primary intention/ 1" intention
10. MC site of keloid: Sternum
11. MC site of basal cell carcinoma: Face
12. MC soft tissue tumour in a child: Rhanbdomyosarcoma
13. MC benign parotid gland tumour: Pleomorphic adenoma
14. Treatment of pleomorphic adenoma: Superficial parotidectomy
15. Cause of peau'd orange: Lymphatic permeation
16. Treatment of choice for cystic hygroma: Excision
17. Retention cyst of sublingual gland is known as: Ranula
18. Thyroid carcinoma which may secrete calcitonin: Medullary carcinoma
19. Cork screw appearance of esophagus on barium swallow is seen in: Diffuse esophageal spasm
20. X ray appearance of achalasia cardia: Bird beak appearance
21. Tumour associated with Barrett's esophagus: Adenocarcinoma of esophagus
22. MC type of esophageal carcinoma: Squamous carcinoma
23. MC site of gastric carcinoma: Antrum & pylorus
24. GIT ulcers seen in severe burns: Curlings ulcer
25. MC malignant tumour of appendix: Argentaffinoma/ Carcinoid tumour
26. Source of bleeding in duodenal ulcer: Gastroduodenal artery
27. Meckel's diverticulum arises from: Antimeseteric border
28. MC site of colorectal carcinoma: Rectum
29. MC cause of acute pancreatitis: Gallstones
30. MC site of pancreatic carcinoma: Head of pancreas
31. MC site of gastrinoma: Duodenum
32. Whipple's triad is seen in: Insulinoma
33. MC cause of overwhelming post splenectomy infections: Streptococcus pneumoniae
34. Union of superior mesenteric & splenic vein forms: Portal vein
35. Anchovy sauce pus is seen in: ,amoebic liver abscess
36. PAIR technique is used in the management of: Echinococcoisis
37. MC marker for hepatocellular carcinoma: Alpha FetoProtein
38. Subtype of hepatocellular carcinoma carrying best prognosis: Fiibrolamellar variety
39. MC cause of obstructive jaundice: CBD stone
40. Stone which grows in alkaline urine: Struvite
41. MC type of renal cell carcinoma: Clear cell carcinoma
42. Schistosomiasis may predispose to Squamous type of urinary bladder carcinoma
43. Thimble bladder is suggestive of: Renal TB
44. MC cause of urinary obstruction in male infant: Posterior uretheral valves
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45. MC carcinoma of the testes in young age group: Seminoma
46. Prostatic carcinoma arises from peripheral zone
47. Metastasis of prostatic carcinoma to vertebra is through Bateson's vertebral venous plexus
48. Triad of pain, jaundice & melena is seen in: Hemobilia
49. MC endocrine tumour of pancreas: Insulinoma
50. Management of annular pancreas: Duodeno-jejunostomy/ Duodeno-duodenostomy

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• Codmans triangle: Osteosarcoma

• Soap bubble appearance: Osteoclastoma
• Onion skin appearance: Ewing's sarcoma
• Sunray appearance: Osteosarcoma
• Linear striations: Vertebral haemangioma
• Cotton wool/ground glass appearance: Fibrous dysplasia


• Greenstick fracture:
o Childrens,
o Bending force,
o Distraction of cortex on convex side and
o Compression on the concave side (cortex intact)
• MC fracture in childhood: Distal humeral fracture
• Bennet's fracture: Intra-articular base of 1" metacarpal;
o Extra-articular involvement is Rolando's fracture
• Chauffer's fracture: Fracture radial styloid process
• Jefferson's fracture: Burst fracture of Cl (atlas)
• Monteggia fracture:Proximal ulna fracture with dislocation of head of radius
• Galeazzi fracture: Fracture distal radius with dislocation of distal radio-ulnar joint
• March fracture: Stress fracture of shaft of 2nd or 3rd metatarsal (commonly)
• Pott's fracture: Bimalleolar fracture
• Burst fracture: Compression fracture of vertebrae
• Crescent fracture: Fracture iliac bone with sacro-iliac disruption


• Cock up splint: Radial nerve injury

• Aeroplane splint: Brachial plexus injury
• Voi. Rosen splint: Congenital Dislocation of Hip/ Developmental Dysplasia of Hip (CDH/ DDH)


• Neuropraxia:
o Anatomical continuity normal,
o Physiological cessation of activity
o Complete recovery is possible,
• Meralgia paresthetica involves: Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
• Winging of scapula involves: Long thoracic nerve of Bell
• Foot drop: Common peroneal nerve (Related to neck of fibula)
• Supracondylar fracture humerus: Median (Anterior interosseous nerve)
• Tarsal tunnel syndrome: Posterior tibial nerve entrapment


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• Ulnar nerve:
o Positive card test,
o Ulnar claw hand
• Median nerve:
o Carpal tunnel syndrome,
o Pointing index
• Radial nerve: Crutch palsy
• Axillary nerve:
o Anterior dislocation of shoulder,
o Fracture surgical neck humerus


• CTS is associated with:

o C: Compressed median nerve
o A: Acromegaly
o R: Rheumatoid arthritis
o P: Pregnancy
o A: Amyloidosis
o L: Low thyroid (hypothyroidism)


• Only carpal bone to undergo fracture as well as AVN: Scaphoid

• Fragment undergoing necrosis in fracture scaphoid: Proximal
• MC site of fracture scaphoid: Waist


• MC type: Subcoracoid type (anterior) dislocation

• Rare type: Posterior dislocation (associated with epilepsy)
• Reduction of dislocated shoulder: Kocher's manouevre
• Term's related to shoulder dislocation:
o Hamilton ruler test,
o Dugas test,
o Callaway test
• Recurrent dislocation shows:
o Bankart's lesion (glenoidal labrum),
o Hill Sach's lesion (humeral lesion)

• MC type: Posterior dislocation
• Attitude of limb in posterior dislocation:
o Flexion,
o Adduction,
o Internal rotation
• Dislocation, which can be felt of per rectal examination: Central fracture dislocation

• Perthes disease:
o Osteochondritis of femoral head
o Adduction is unaffected
o IOC for Perthes disease: MRI
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• Osteochondritis of lunate: Kienbock's disease
• Osteochondritis of tibial tubercle: OschGood's Schlatter's disease
• Osteochondritis of calcaneum: Sever's disease


• Benign tumours of cartilage origin:

o Enchondroma,
o Osteochondroma,
o Chondroblastoma
• Benign tumour of bony origin:
o Osteoid osteoma,
o Osteoblastoma
• Location:
o Epiphyseal: Osteoclastoma
o Metaphyseal: Osteosarcoma


• Location: Diaphysis
• Age group: 2'd decade
• X-ray appearance: Onion peel
• May mimic: Osteomyelitis
• Presence of fever, anemia, raised WBC, raised ESR and raised LDH suggests: Poor prognosis


• Location: Metaphysis
• MC site in body: Lower end of femur
• X-ray appearance:
o Sunburst appearance,
o Codman's triangle
• Special feature: Secondaries in lungs
• Treatment:
o Chemotherapy,
o Limb salvage surgery


• Calcium levels: Raised

• X-ray appearance: Geographic/ punched out (lytic lesion)
• Special features:
• MC primary malignant bony neoplasm,
• Bence Jones proteins in urine,
• Russel bodies


• Earliest site of involvement: Metaphysis (hair-pin arrangements of vessels)

• Diagnosis of acute OM: Blood culture (positive in 65% cases)
• Periosteal reaction seen in acute OM appears after: 10 days
• MC organism in acute OM: Staph. aureus (Salmonella is the MC organism in sickle cell anemia cases)
• Brodies abscess:
o Equilibrium between host and organism;
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o Abscess cavity remains without further enlargement


• MC site of skeletal TB: Vertebrae

• In Spine, TB starts in: Vertebral body
• MC subtype of spinal TB: Paradiscal (because blood supply of vertebrae is intersegmental)
• MC region involved in spinal TB: T9 - L1
• Earliest symptom of spinal TB: Pain
• Earliest X-ray sign in Pott's disease: Narrowing of disc space (loss of intervertebral disc)


• Pathology: Defective mineralization of osteoid/ bones and cartilage

• Features:
o Craniotabes,
o Wide open fontanelle,
o Rachitic rosary (Enlargement of costochondral junction)
• X-ray appearances:
o Widening and thickening of epiphysis,
o Cupping and fraying of metaphysis


• RA is a disease of: Synovium/ synovial membrane

• RA starts in: Synovium
• Body tissue mostly affected in RA: Synovium
• Charactenstic feature:
o Persistent inflammatory synovitis,
o Peripheral joint,
o Symmetrical distribution
• Causes:
o Immunological,
o Familial,
o Infective (implicated)
• Mostly affects: Females (three times)
• Earliest lesion in rheumatoid synovitis:
o Microvascular injury,
o Increase in number of synovial lining cells
• Joints characteristically involved in RA:
o MCP,
o PIP (symmetric arthritis)
• Boutonniere deformity:
o Flexion contracture of the PIP
o Extension of DIP
• Criteria for diagnosis: Any 4 criteria must be present
• Pathognomic feature: Rheumatoid nodule
• Extra-articular manifestations are seen in: Individuals with high titres of RF (autoantibodies to the Fc
component of IgG)

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• Associated HLA: HLA B27

• Special features of AS:
o Enthesopathy,
o Pain improving with exercise
• X-ray shows: Bamboo spine


• Usually OA involves:
o Hip,
o Knee
• Does not affect MCP joint
• Interphalangeal joints and nodes:
o DIP - Heberdens node;
o PIP - Bouchard nodes
• X-ray shows: Osteophyte formation

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. IOC for traumatic paraplegia: MRI

2. Tardy ul nar nerve palsy is seen with: Fracture lateral condyle humerus
3. Gun stock deformity is seen with: Malunited supracondylar fracture humerus
4. First radiological evidence of TB spine: Reduction in intervertebral disc space
5. Splaying and widening of metaphysis is radiological sign of: Rickets
6. Galleazzi fracture involves lower third of radius bone
7. MC complication of fracture neck of femur: Non-union
8. Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to compression of median nerve
9. Nerve injured in shoulder dislocation: Axillary
10. Wrist drop is seen in lesion of radial nerve
11. Foot drop may be a manifestation of fracture: Neck of fibula
12. Ewings sarcoma involves diaphysis part of bone
13. MC cause of acute osteomyelitis: Staphylococcus aureus
14. MC symptom of TB spine: Backache
15. Radiological features of Osteosarcoma: Sunray appearance and Codman triangle
16. Cock up splint is used for radial nerve injury
17. Hanging cast is used for fractures of: Fracture shaft humerus
18. Winging of scapula is due to involvement of: Long Thoracic nerve (of Bell)
19. Punched out lytic lesion is radiological feature of: Multiple myeloma
20. Barlow test is done for: CDH/ DDH
21. Fracture radial styloid process is known as: Chauffer's fracture
22. Milwaukee brace is used for: Scoliosis
23. Loosers zone is a radiological feature of: Osteomalacia
24. Dead piece of bone lying in infected granulation tissue is known as: Sequestrum
25. Prepatellar bursitis is known as: Housemaid's knee

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• Copies circle: 3 years

• Crawls: 11 months
• Child smiles at familiar persons: 2 months
• Neck control: 3 month
• Sits with support: 6 months
• Transfer object from one hand to other: 6 months
• Says mama dada: 10 months
• Self decisions: 7 years
• Walks alone: 13-14 months
• Knows age & sex: 3 years
• Can draw a rectangle: 4 years
• Can draw a triangle: 5 years


• Body weight doubles at: 5 months

• Body weight triples at: 1 year
• Body length increases in year by: 25 cm


• Edema is seen in: Kwashiorkar

• Hepatomegaly is seen in: Kwashiorkar
• Acute malnutrition is judged by: Weight for height
• Chronic malnutrition is judged by: Height for age
• Flag sign is seen in: Kwashiorkar


• Craniotabes (calvariae are softened),

• Rachitic rosary (prominent costochondral junction),
• Pot belly,
• Bow legs etc.
• Biochemical values:
o Low S. calcium & phosphate,
o Raised alkaline phosphatase & PTH


• Bleeding into skin & joints,

• Wimberger sign,
• Pseudoparalysis etc.


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• MC trisomy,
• Brachycephalic skull,
• Hypotonia,
• Palpebral fissure slopes upwards,
• Marked epicanthic folds,
• Brushfield's spots,
• Increased nuchal fold thickness,
• Iliac index less than 60,
• Simian crease (single palmar crease),
• MC associated cardiac lesions: ASD/ Endocardial cushion defects
• Duodenal atresia, CML & transient myeloproliferative disorders are seen
• May be associated with Alzheimer's dementia,
• MC cause of down syndrome: Maternal non-disjunction


• Lymphedema,
• Short stature,
• Webbed neck,
• Low posterior hairline,
• Cubitus valgus (increased carrying angle),
• Finger deformities,
• Coarctation of aorta,
• Short 4th metacarpal,
• 45 XO karyotype


• 47 XXY
• MC cause of hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism,
• Subnormal intelligence


• Hutchinson's triad:
o Hutchinson teeth,
o 8th cranial nerve deafness &
o Interstitial keratitis
• IgM FTA-ABS is best to diagnose congenital syphilis,
• Saddle nose, Sabre tibia & Clutton's joint


• Causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia:

o Criggler Najjar syndrome I & II,
o Physiological jaundice,
o Gilbert syndrome
o Breast milk jaundice etc.
• Causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia: Biliary atresia (extrahepatic/ intrahepatic),
• MC cause of conjugated bilirubinemia in newborn: Idiopathic infantile hepatitis
• Physiological jaundice appears on: 3rd day (lasts upto 7th - 10th day in term & 14th day in preterm)
• MC cause of jaundice within 24 hours after birth: Erythroblastosis fetalis

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• Breast milk jaundice is due to: Pregnandiole
• Kernicterus: Unconjugated bilirubin, in basal ganglia
• Rise in level of bilirubin in physiological jaundice: Less than 5 mg/ dl/ day


• Appears within 2-4 weeks after birth,

• Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis,
• Compensated by:
o Paradoxical aciduria,


• Manifested within first few hours of life,

• Hyaline membrane is made of fibrin,
• Seen in:
o DM,
o Premature babies
• Ground glass appearance/ reticulonodular/ reticulogranular pattern on chest radiography


• MC Caused by Respiratory Synctial Virus/ RSV,

• MC in boys (less than 2 years),
• Chest X-ray shows:
o Hyperinflation with
o Multiple areas of interstitial infiltration
• May lead to asthma,
• Self limiting,
• DOC is ribavirin,
• Oxygen is helpful,
• RSV Immunoglobulins has no role in acute attacks,
• Antibiotics are not used initially


• Left parasternal heave seen,

• Chest X-ray shows enlarged right atrium & ventricle (NOT Left atrium),
• Associated with Holt Oram syndrome
• ASD + Mitral stenosis: Lutembacher syndrome
• ASD + Single atrium: Ellis Crevald syndrome
• ASD + Bony abnormalities: Holt Oram syndrome


• Left ventricular failure, Biventricular hypertrophy,

• Left axis deviation


• Seen in rubella,
• Predisposed by:
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o Hypoxia &
o Prematurity,
• Differential cyanosis is seen (cyanosis of toes but NOT of fingers)
• Prostaglandin inhibitor stimulate PDA closure


• MC below origin of left subclavian artery,

• Associated with:
o Turners syndrome,
o Bicuspid aortic valve,
o Upper extremity hypertension,
o Lower extremity hypotension,
o Headache,
o Dizziness,
• Rib notching with double bulging is seen,
• Cause of death is:
o Complications of hypertension,
o Congestive heart failure etc.


• Components:
o VSD,
o Pulmonary stenosis,
o Over-riding of aorta,
o Right ventricular hypertrophy,
• Chest X-ray: Boot shaped heart/ cour en sabot heart,
• Single S2,
• Ejection systolic murmur,
• Right sided aortic arch,

Pentalogy of fallot



• MC type of anemia in children: IDA

• Time to start iron supplementation to a term, breast fed baby: 6 weeks
• First indicator of response after iron therapy: Increased reticulocyte count


• Hypochromic, microcytic anemia with decreased serum iron & raised TIBC: Iron deficiency anemia
• Hypochromic, microcytic anemia with raised serum ferritin & decreased TIBC: Anemia of chronic diseases
• Early indicator of iron deficiency anemia: Serum ferritin


• Features:
o Splenomegaly,
o Hemolytic facies,
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o Decreased osmotic fragility (NOT increased),
o Hair on end appearance (X-ray)
• Diagnostic test: Electrophoresis
• Microcytosis & hypochromia,
• Target & tear drop cells


• Autosomal disease,
• MC hereditary bleeding disorder,
• APTT may be prolonged,
• BT prolonged,
• Factor VIII levels may be reduced
• Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin


• Pentad of TTP:
o Fever,
o Thrombocytopenia,
o Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia,
o Neurological symptoms &
o Renal failure
• Lab features:
o BT prolonged,
o Normal PT, PTT & complement


• MC cause of renal scarring in children,

• Presentation:
o Straining & dribbling of urine
o In a male child with
o Recurrent UTI
• Diagnosis is by: MCUG/ micturating cystourethrogram


• MC of nephrotic syndrome in children: Minimal change disease (In adults, its Membranous GN)
• Characterized by:
o Proteinuria (more than 3.5 gm/ day),
o Hypoalbuminemia,
o Edema,
o Hyperlipidemia,
o Lipiduria
o Hypercoagulability,


• MC inherited malignancy: Retinoblastoma

• MC malignant neoplasm in infancy: Neuroblastoma
• MC viral tumour: Warts
• MC malignant tumour (childhood): Leukemia

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• MC presentation: Large abdominal mass

• May present as:
• Lytic lesion in skull with
• Sutural diasthesis,
• MC mass in posterior mediastinum (children),
• Metastasizes to bone most commonly,
• Associated with hypertension &
• VMA & catecholamines are seen in urine


• Also known as nephroblastoma,

• MC presenting symptom: Palpable abdominal mass
• Involves chromosome 11,
• Highest cure rates,
• Chemotherapy is with:
• Actinomycin-D &
• Vincristine


• Von gierkes disease is due to deficiency of: Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

• Features of Von gierkes disease:
• Hyperuricemia,
• Lactic acidosis etc (NO muscles involvement)
• Andersen disease is due to deficiency of: Branching enzyme
• McArdles disease is due to deficiency of: Muscle phosphorylase
• Galactosemia:
• It is due to deficiency of GPUT/ galactose-1-phosphate-uridyl transferase; Reducing sugars are seen in urine


• Deficiency of: Phenyl-Alanine Hydroxylase,

• Manifests as: Mental retardation, seizures etc.
• Urine: Musty odour
• Tests:
o Ferric chloride,
o Guthrie's test


• Large & open posterior fontanelle,

• Absent social smile & eyebrows,
• Growth retardation,
• Delayed puberty,
• Cold extremities,
• Large tongue,
• Prolongation of physiological jaundice &
• Epiphyseal dysgenesis

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• MC presentation of neonatal meningitis: Poor breast feeding
• MC cause (in neonates) of bacterial meningitis: Group B streptococci/ E. coli
• Causes of aseptic meningitis:
o Mumps virus,
o Polio virus etc.
• Low CSF protein is seen in:
o Infants,
o Pseudotumour cerebri etc.


• MC cause of seizure in newborn: Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

• MC type of seizure in newborn: Subtle (MC type of seizures in children: Generalized Tonic Clonic)


• Disease of sarcolemmal proteins (Dystrophin gene)

• Gowers sign (patient tries to climb on himself)

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Child can copy a circle at the age of: 3 years

2. Body weight of a child triples at: 1 year
3. Flag sign (hair) is suggestive of: Kwashiorkar
4. Rachitic rosary is a feature of: Rickets
5. Mongolian facies is seen in: Down syndrome
6. Karyotype in case of Turner syndrome: 45 XO
7. Hutchinson triad is seen in: Late congenital syphilis
8. MC cause of jaundice within 24 hours of life: Erythroblastosis fetalis
9. Rise of bilirubin in physiological jaundice: Less than 5 mg/ dl/ day
10. MC cause of bronchiolitis: Respiratory Synctial virus
11. MC hear disorder in Down syndrome: ASD
12. MC type of anemia in children: Iron deficiency anemia
13. Hair on end appearance (radiograph) is seen in: Thalassemia
14. Height of 100 cm is achieved by to age of: 4 years
15. MC cause of nephrotic syndrome in children: Minimal change disease
16. MC malignant neoplasm in infancy: Neuroblastoma
17. MC presentation of neuroblastoma: Abdominal mass
18. MC cause of meningitis in neonates: E. coli/ Group B streptococcus
19. Enzyme deficient in Von-Gierke's disease: G-6-phosphatase
20. Urine in phenylketonuria: Mousy/ musty odour
21. Urine turns/ dark on exposure to atmosphere in: Alkaptonuria
22. MC type of seizure in newborn: Subtle
23. MC type of seizure in childhood: Generalized tonic clonic
24. Most of the babies are bed-dry at the gae of: 5 years
25. Condition in which unconjugated bilirubin gets deposited in basal ganglia: Kernicterus

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• Oogonia are derived from: Yolk sac

• MC site of fertilization: Ampulla
• Zygote reaches uterine cavity at: 16 celled stage
• Placental circulation is established on: 17th day of fertilization
• Vessels in umbilical cord: 2 arteries, 1 vein
• Nitabuch's layer: Zone of fibrinoid degeneration; where trophoblasts and decidua meet (in placenta)


• Amount at 12 weeks: 50 ml
• Amount at term: 600-800 ml
• It is replaced every: 3 hours
• Green coloured amniotic fluid indicates: Fetal distress
• Causes of oligohydramnios:
• Renal agenesis,
• Multicystic dysplastic kidneys etc.
• Polyhydramnios is seen in:
• Esophageal atresia,
• Duodenal atresia etc.


• HCG is secreted by: Synctiotrophoblasts

• Structurally HCG has: 2 subunits,
• It is a glycoprotein


• Congestion of pelvis causing bluish/ purplish hue of vagina/ cervix: Chadwick sign
• Cyanosis and softening of cervix: Goodell's sign
• Compressibility of isthmus on bimanual examination: Hegars sign
• Softening of cervix with lateral implantation: Piskaceks sign
• Pulsations in lateral vaginal fornix: Osianders sign
• Rhythmic contractions of uterus: Palmers sign
• MC type: Gynaecoid
• Platypelloid/ flat pelvis: Transverse diameter is more than AP diameter
• Least common type of pelvis: Platypelloid
• Deep transverse arrest/ persistent occipito posterior position is common in: Android pelvis
• AP diameter more than transverse diameter: Anthropoid pelvis
• Face to pubis delivery is common in: Anthropoid pelvis
• Shortest diameter of pelvic inlet: Obstetric conjugate

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• Shortest diameter of fetal skull: Bimastoid (7.5 cm)
• Largest diameter of fetal skull: Mentovertical (14 cm)


• Presentation is defined as: Fetal part which lie over the inlet
• Presentation in Sub-mento-vertical diameter: Face
• Presentation in Sub-mento-bregmatic diameter: Face
• Presentation in Sub-occipito-bregmatic and Sub-occipito-frontal diameter: Vertex (MC type of vertex
presentation: Left Occipito-Anterior)


• Used for labour,

• Total score of 13
• 6-13 is favourable
• 5 or less is unfavourable
• Includes:
o Dilatation of cervix,
o Effacement of cervix,
o Consistency of cervix,
o Position of cervix,
o Station of head
• Partogram is:
o Graphical representation of stages of labour;
o Assessment of labour
o Cervicograph is: Graph showing relationship between cervical dilatation and labour


• stage: Onset of labor to dilatation of cervix

• 6-20 hours in primigravida
• 2-10 hours in multigravida
• 2nd stage: From full dilatation of cervix to complete birth of baby
• 3rd stage: Birth of infant to delivery of placenta


• L. rubra: Reddish (1-4 days)

• L. serosa: Yellowish (5-9 days)
• L. alba: Pale white (10-15 days)


• Puerperium lasts for: 6 weeks after delivery

• Uterus becomes a pelvic organ after: 2 weeks of delivery
• Involution of uterus is complete by: 6 weeks
• MC cause of puerperial infection: Streptococcus
• MC route of spread of puerperial infection: Direct spread


• Ectopic pregnancy is associated with:

• Tubal disease (MC cause),
• Endometriosis,
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• PID,
• Progestasert etc.
• MC presentation of EP is: Pain
• Expelled products in EP have origin from: Decidua vera
• MC type of EP which ruptures is: Isthmic
• Medical management of EP:
• Methotrexate,
• Actinomycin-D etc.
• Surgery for unruptured tubal pregnancy: Salpingostomy
• Clinical presentation of EP:
• A young girl with 8 weeks amenorrhea and presenting with shock;
• A young girl with 6 weeks amenorrhea with abdominal mass and empty uterus on USG;
• A young girl with 6 weeks amenorrhea with abdominal pain and fluid in pouch of douglas, aspiration of
which reveals a dark coloured fluid which doesn't clot


• Investigation of choice to diagnose H. mole: USG

• H. mole is associated with:
• PIH,
• Thyrotoxicosis,
• Hyperemesis
• Treatment of choice: Suction - evacuation
• Histological feature of H. mole: Hydropic degeneration
• Molar pregnancy is usually diagnosed in: 1st trimester


• Procedures for delivery of head in breech presentation:

• Burn Marshall technique,
• Maureciau-Smeille-Veit method etc.
• Management of shoulder dystocia:
• Apply suprapubic pressure,
• McRoberts procedure (legs in flexion) etc.


• Incidence of perinatal transmission of HIV can be reduced by:

• Antiretroviral prophylaxis (zidovudine),
• Avoid breast feeding,
• Intrapartum nevirapine etc.


• Can be predicted by: Gant's Rolling over test

• Eclampsia is defined as:
• Convulsions
• HTN,
• Proteinuria and
• Edema
• MC eclampsia is: Antepartum
• Cause of convulsion in eclampsia is: Cerebral anoxia
• Earliest symptom of PIH: Rapid gain in weight
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• Sudden loss of vision in PIH is due to: Retinal detachment
• Treatment for eclampsia: Magnesium sulphate
• Toxicity of MgSO4 is monitored by:
• Urinary output,
• Respiratory rate,
• Knee jerk
• DOC in severe pre-eclampsia: Labetalol
• Drugs absolutely C/I in pregnancy: ACE inhibitors


• Painful, due to pre-eclampsia or trauma, continuous bleeding

• Fetal heart sounds usually absent
• Placenta is present in upper segment,
• No Malpresentation
• Bleeding may be revealed, concealed or mixed
• Uterus is tense, tender, and rigid


• MC cause of PPH: Atonic uterus (grand multipara, prolonged labor etc.)

• PPH is said to occur if: Blood loss is more than 500 cc
• Drugs used for PPH: Misoprostol,
o Ergometrine etc.


• Early deceleration in FHR shows: Head compression

• Late deceleration in FHR is indicative of:
• Placental insufficiency,
• Fetal distress
• Variable deceleration: Cord compression


Raised in

• Wrong gestational age

• Anterior abdominal wall defects
• Open neural defects
• Multiple pregnancy
• Renal anomalies

Lowered in

• Trisomies


External version

• Conversion is done by External manipulation only

• Done for Breech presentation and Transverse lie.
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Internal version

• Done in Transverse lie in case of second baby of twins.

• Conversion is done by one hand introduced into the uterus and the other on the abdomen



• Delay in the second stage of labor

• Low birth weight baby
• Postmaturity
• Maternal distress
• Appearance of fetal distress
• Cord prolapse
• After coming head of breech
• Pre-eclampsia
• Post-caesarean pregnancy

Conditions to be fulfilled

• Membranes must have ruptured

• Head must be engaged; station must be > +2
• No obstruction should be present
• Suitable presentation and position
• Cervix must be fully dilated and effaced
• Live baby
• Uterus should be actively contracting and relaxing



• As an alternative to forceps operation.

• Deep transverse arrest with adequate pelvis
• Delay in descent of head of the second baby of twins
• Delay in first stage due to uterine inertia or primary cervical dystocia


• Prematurity
• Head not engaged
• Fetal distress
• Pelvic contraction
• Transverse lie
• After coming head of breech
• Partially dilated cervix
• Congenital anomalies
• Dead fetus.

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• Cephalhematoma
• Subaponeurotic or subgaleal haemorrhage
• Chignon
• Retinal hemorrhage


Indications of classical caesarean section

• Previous classical cesarean section

• Neglected shoulder with anhydramnios
• Structural abnormality making approach to lower segment difficult
• Constriction ring due to neglected labor
• Fibroids in lower segment
• Anterior placenta accreta and praevia
• Postmortem caesarean section
• Very preterm fetus, where lower segment is poorly formed.

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. MC site of fertilization: Fallopian tube

2. Earliest fetal anomaly detected on USG: Anencephaly
3. Oligohydramnios is associated with: Renal agenesis
4. HCG is secreted by: Synctiotrophoblast
5. Earliest detection of pregnancy by USG can be done by demonstrating: Gestatoional sac
6. Shortest diameter of fetal skull: Bi mastoid
7. Graphical representation of stages of labor is done in: Partograph
8. Involution of uterus is completed by: 6 weeks
9. A young girl with 6 weeks of amenorrhea with abdominal mass and empty uterus on USG is having: Ectopic
10. Investigation of choice for diagnosing H. mole: USG
11. Earliest sign of immune hydrops on USG: Skin edema
12. MC heart disease associated with pregnancy: Mitral stenosis
13. Heart disease carrying worst prognosis in pregnancy: Ebsteins anomaly
14. Earliest presenting feature in PIH: Gain in weight
15. MC cause of PPH: Uterine atony
16. Variable deceleration in fetal heart monitoring is suggestive of: Cord compression
17. Maternal serum AFP is lowered in: Down syndrome
18. Highest chances of transplacental transfer of toxoplasmosis is in third trimester
19. Stage of labor lasting from full dilatation of cervix to complete birth of baby is: 2nd stage
20. Chorionic villous sampling, if done before 10 weeks result in: Oromandibular limb defects
21. Polyhydramnios is associated with: Esophageal atresia
22. MC presentation of ectopic pregnancy: Abdominal pain
23. Uterine inversion results due to: Mismanaged 3rd stage of labor
24. Bishops classification is used for: Induction of labor
25. External version is done for: Transverse lie
26. Largest fetal head diameter: Mentovertical
27. Most common type of vertex presentation: LOA (Left Occipito Anterior)
28. Most common cause of a pregnant lady presenting with fulminant hepatitis: HEV
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29. 'Million dollar immunoglobulin' is another term for: IgM
30. Smallest pelvic diameter in anteroposterior plane of inlet: Obstetric conjugate
31. Best time to diagnose fetal anomalies by USG: 13-19 weeks
32. MC presentation of H. mole: Bleeding
33. Triple test is done for diagnosing: Down syndrome
34. Average blood loss in normal delivery: 500 ml
35. Most common cause of uterovesical fistula in India is: Obstructed labor
36. % of scar dehiscence in lower segment caesarean section: 0.1-2%
37. Involution of the uterus occurs at the rate of: 1.25 mm/ day
38. MC cause of ectopic pregnancy: Previous tubal disease (due to STDs)
39. Ovulation returns in non lactating women occur after: 4 weeks
40. Low birth weight baby is defined as: Birth weight less than 2.5 Kg
41. Embryonic structure identified earliest on USG to confirm pregnancy: Gestational sac
42. Increase in cardiac output in pregnancy is by: 40%
43. Relation of different parts of the fetus to each other is known as: Fetal attitude
44. Uterus reaches upto umbilical level at: 24 weeks
45. Ideal time for screening of blood sugar to rule out diabetes in a pregnant female: 24-28 weeks
46. MC type of anemia in pregnancy: Iron deficiency anemia
47. DOC for chronically hypertensive pregnant lady requiring long term antihypertensive therapy: Methyldopa
48. Polyhydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid volume of more than: 2 litres
49. pH of vagina in pregnancy: 4-6
50. MC site of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian tube: Ampulla

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• Genital ridge forms: Ovary

• Genital tubercle forms: Clitoris
• Genital folds forms: Labia minora
• Labia swelling forms: Labia majora


• Best predictor of ovulation: Pre-ovulatory rise in LH

• In normal menstrual cycle, progesterone is secreted by: Corpus luteum
• Inhibin is secreted by: Graffian follicle
• LH precedes ovulation by: 24 hours (Ovulation coincides with LH surge)
• Ovulatory period: Corresponds to 14 days before next menstruation
• FSH stimulates: Growth of granulosa cells (measure of ovarian reserve)
• LH stimulates: Follicle rupture and ovulation


• It lacks mucus secreting glands

• Clue cells in vagina, fishy odour, positive Whiff test signifies: Infection with Hemophilus vaginalis (bacterial
• Senile vaginitis is due to: Estrogen deficiency
• Protective bacterium in normal vagina: Lactobacillus


• Foamy, frothy discharge and motile trophozoites (flagellate protozoa with motility): Trichomonas vaginalis
• Pruritis, vulvovaginitis, cottage-cheese discharge: Candidiasis
• ph more than 4.5, clue cells, amine odour suggests: Bacterial vaginosis
• Urethral discharge, gram negative diplococci in PMN's: N. Gonorrhea
• Culture negative specimen with inclusion bodies: Chlamydiae trachomatis
• Urease positive organism without cell wall: Ureaplasma urealyticum


• Presents as:
1. Genital ulcer (painful)
2. Inguinal adenitis
• Culture appearance: School of fish appearance
• DOC: Ceftriaxone


• Presentation:
1. Profuse curdy,
2. White discharge (cottage cheese appearance),
3. Intense itching
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• Caused by: Trichomonas vaginalis (flagellate parasite)

• Clinical presentation:
1. Profuse,
2. Thin,
3. Greeny discharge (malodourous)
• Appearance of vagina: Strawberry vagina/ Colpitis macularis appearance
• DOC: Metronidazole


• Caused by: Multibacterial (Hemophilus vaginalis, Gardenella vaginalis etc.)

• Clinical presentation:
1. Milky,
2. Homogenous and
3. Adherent discharge
• Vaginal pH: Alkaline (greater than 4.5)
• Histological feature: Clue cells
• DOC: Metronidazole


• Clinical presentation:
1. Esthiomine (Chronic ulcerated state of vulva and clitoris),
2. Genital elephantiasis,
• The 'groove sign' characteristic of LGV (if both the inguinal and the femoral nodes are involved)
• DOC: Doxycycline


• MC site of primary infection: Lungs (50%)

• MC site of affection in genital TB: Fallopian tubes


• MC in: Nullipara
• MC accepted etiological theory: Sampsons theory of retrograde menstruation
• MC presentation: Dysmenorrhoea
• Treatment:
1. Progesterone,
2. Clomiphene (in fertile women),
3. GnRH analogues
• Surgical procedures: Ovarian cystectomy/ oophorectomy/ wedge resection


• Contraceptive for post partum: Lactational amenorrhea

• Ideal contraceptive for newly married couple: OCP
• Ideal contraceptive for couple staying away and meeting occassionally: Barrier contraception
• OCP of choice in lactating females is: Minipill

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• Protects against:
1. Uterine Ca,
2. Ovarian Ca,
3. RA,
4. Endometriosis etc.


• Cystocoele is: Prolapse of upper 2/3rd of anterior vaginal wall

• Complications: Decubitus ulcers (due to venous congestion) etc.
• Management of prolapsed in women < 40 years with complete family; wanting to retain menstrual function:
Fothergill's repair
• Management in young women:
• Sling operation,
• Perineal exercises
• Management in 2"d trimester: Spontaneous resolution
• Management in 1" trimester: Pessary


• Amount of blood loss in menstruation: 80 ml

• Premature menopause: When menstruation ceases before 40 years of age
• MC cause of post-coital bleeding: Ca cervix
• MC cause of post menopausal bleeding in India: Ca endometrium
• MC cause of secondary amenorrhea in India: Endometrial TB
• Primary amenorrhea: Failure of menses in a girl by 16 years of age


• Arises from: Squamo-columnar junction

• Earliest symptom: Post-coital bleeding
• MC site: Ectocery ix
• MC agent: Human Papilloma Virus 16
• Other type of HPV which are associated with cervical Ca: HPV 18, 31, 45, 51, 52 and 53
• Predisposing factors: HPV, HSV and HIV infections
• Lymph nodes affected: Obturator, hypogastric and external iliac
• Time taken for conversion of CIN to invasive Ca: 10 years
• MC type: Squamous cell Ca
• Best method for diagnosing: Cervical biopsy
• 100% cure rates are seen in: CIS
• MC cause of death: Renal failure
• Best method of screening: Pap smear
• Management of stage II (disease extends beyond cervix, but not to the pelvic wall/ lower third of vagina):
1. Extended hysterectomy,
2. Chemotherapy and
3. Intracavitary brachytherapy
• Stage III is: Disease extends to the pelvic wall or lower third of the vagina or causes hydronephrosis
• Management of stage IIIB:
1. Radiotherapy and
2. Chemotherapy

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• Red degeneration of fibroid:

• Seen in 2nd half of pregnancy or puerperium, Due to thrombosis of large veins of the tumour, Infection has
no role (this process is an aseptic one),
• Management is conservative (analgesics and sedatives)
• Fibroids are associated with:
• Follicular ovarian cysts,
• Endometriosis,
• Endometrial hyperplasia, Endometrial Ca
• MC type of fibroid: Intramural/ interstitial
• MC type of degeneration: Hyaline (starts from the centre)
• MC to undergo malignant change: Intramural
• MC to undergo calcareous degeneration: Subserous
• Most fibroid starts as: Interstitial fibroids


• MC type: Adenocarcinoma (upto 80%)

• Most malignant type: Clear cell Ca
• Predisposing factors:
1. Family history,
2. Obesity,
3. DM,
4. Tamoxifen therapy,
• Adjuvant radiotherapy is given in cases of:
1. Deep myometrial involvement, Ca In
2. Situ/ CIS,
3. Lymph node involvement etc.
• MC cause of endometrial Ca: Unopposed estrogen
• Treatment of atypical endometrial hyperplasia: Hysterecetomy (panhysterectomy in elderly)


• Meigs syndrome:
• Ascites,
• Benign tumour of ovary (fibroma);
• Malignant ovarian tumour in included in: Pseudomeig syndrome
• Masculinizing ovarian tumours:
• Hilus cell tumour,
• Sertoli cell tumour,
• Leydig cell tumour
• Feminizing cell tumour:
• Theca cell tumour,
• Granulosa cell tumour
• MC ovarian tumour (in < 20 years): Dysgerminoma
• Most radiosensitive ovarian tumour: Dysgerminoma


• Rokintansky bodies: Teratoma

• Schiller Duval bodies: Endodermal sinus tumour

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• Reinkes crystal: Hilus cell tumour
• Call Exner bodies: Granulosa cell tumour


• Placental alkaline phosphatase: Dysgerminoma

• LDH: Dysgerminoma
• Inhibin: Granulosa cell tumour
• CA 125: Ovarian tumours

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Ovary develops from: Genital ridge

2. Epithelial lining of fallopian tube: Ciliated columnar epithelium
3. LH precedes ovulation by 24 hours
4. Clue cells are seen in: Bacterial vaginosis
5. Strawberry vagina is seen in: Trichomoniasis
6. MC site of affection in genital tuberculosis: Fallopian tube
7. Choclate cyst are associated with: Endometriosis
8. MC cause of post menopausal bleeding in India: Carcinoma endometrium
9. MC type of cervical carcinoma: Squamous
10. Red degeneration of fibroid occurs in: Pregnancy (2" trimester)
11. MC cause of endometrial carcinoma: Unopposed estrogen activity
12. Most radiosensitive ovarian tumour: Dysgerminoma
13. Call Exner bodies are seen in: Granulosa cell tumour
14. Ferning of cervical mucus under effect of: Estrogen
15. Post partum pituitary gland necrosis is known as: Sheehan's syndrome
16. Drug used in PCOD: Clomiphene
17. CA 125 is a marker for: Ovarian tumours
18. MC type of endometrial carcinoma: Adenocarcinoma
19. Subtype of fibroid, which commonly undergoes malignant transformation: Intramural and submucous
20. MC cause of death in carcinoma cervix: Renal failure
21. Earliest presenting feature of carcinoma cervix: Post-coital bleeding
22. MC site of laparoscopic sterilization in females: Isthmus
23. OCP of choice in lactating females: Minipill
24. DOC for bacterial vaginosis: Metronidazole
25. White curdy discharge per vaginum, with intense itching is suggestive of: Candidiasis
26. Mucosal lining of vagina: Stratified squamous non-keratinized
27. Pearl index is used for calculating: Contraceptive failure
28. Life-span of Cu-T 380A: 10 years
29. Gold standard investigation for diagnosing PID: Laparoscopy
30. Infection associated with vaginal ph of 4.0: Candidiasis
31. Histological feature of bacterial vaginosis: Clue cells
32. MC cause of cervical carcinoma: HPV 16 and 18
33. Endometrial carcinoma with vaginal metastasis is which stage: Stage IIIb
34. Treatment of choice for choriocarcinoma: Methotrexate
35. FIGO stage IIa of cervical carcinoma is: Carcinoma cervix involving upper 2/3rd of vagina
36. Ovarian tumour associated with Meig's syndrome: Fibroma
37. Investigation of choice for cervical neoplasm is: Cone biopsy

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38. 18 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, absent pubic and axillary
hair. Condition is: Testicular feminization syndrome
39. MC complication of abdominal hysterectomy: Ureteral injury
40. Cervix can be visualized by which instrument: Colposcope
41. Treatment for Bartholin's cyst: Marsupialization
42. Chromosome complement in patient with Klinefelter's syndrome: 47 XXY
43. Trisomy 21 is known as Down syndrome
44. Gold standard investigation for female infertility: Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
45. MC symptom of endometriosis: Dysmenorrhoea
46. MC genital fistula in India: V VF (Vesicovaginal fistula)
47. Media used for distension in hysteroscopy: CO2
48. Hematocolpos is seen in: Imperforate hymen
49. Before puberty, the cervix to uterus ratio is: 2:1
50. Webbing of neck and streaky gonads is indicative of Turner syndrome

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• Comedones are characteristic of: Acne vulgaris

• Comedones are:
1. Small cysts,
2. formed in hair follicles,
3. due to blockage of the follicular orifice
4. by the retention of sebum & keratinous material
• Acen vulgaris is caused by: Obstruction of pilosebaceous duct
• Treatment of NA: Isotretinonin (synthetic retinoic acid)


• Pterygium of nail is seen in: Lichen planus

• Oncholysis is seen in: Psoriasis
• Mees line is seen in: Arsenic poisoning
• Oil drop, pitting of nails is seen in: Psoriasis
• Tinea unguum affects: Nail plate
• Koilonychia: Iron deficiency anemia
• Koenen's periungal fibroma: Tuberous sclerosis


• Genital ridge forms: Ovary

• Pathognomic lesion of scabies: Burrows
• Location of burrow (layer of skin): Stratum corneum
• MC site of scabies in infants: Scalp, Face
• Most severe form of scabies: Norwegian scabies
• Drug used orally for scabies: Ivermectin


• MC on: Extensor aspect

• Koebner's phenomenon/ KP: Traumatized lesions develops psoriatic lesion (Lesion at the site of injury)
• KP is also seen with: Lichen planus, Lichen sclerosus, Vitiligo etc.
• Histopathological lesion in psoriasis: Micro-Munro abscesses (St. corneum)
• Rare but sever form of psoriatic arthritis: Arthritis mutilans
• Auspitz sign seen in psoriasis is: Rubbing of skin leading to removal of scales resulting in pin-point bleeding
• Treatment of choice for psoriasis: PUVA


• MC form of pemphigus: P. vulgaris

• Etiopathology of pemphigus: Autoimmune disease
• Antibodies against intercellular substance (antibodies attacks Desmoglein 3)
• Feature of pemphigus:
1. Intraepidermal (flaccid) Acantholytic bullae
2. Oral mucosal lesion
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• Acantholysis is seen in epidermis (breaking apart of epidermal cells)
• Tense subepidermal bullae are seen in Pemphigoid (NOT pemphigus)
• Nikolsky sign is positive
• Defintive diagnosis of pemphigus: Demonstration of Anti-desmoglein autoantibodies by Direct
immunofluorescence on Skin biopsy


• Features of lichen planus:

1. Flat topped papules
2. With white lacy markings on mucosa (Wickham's striae)
3. Civatte bodies &
4. Basal cell degeneration


• Terms associated with pityriasis rosacea:

1. Herald patch
2. Collaratte of scales


• Dermatophyte: Parasitic fungus/ mycosis, that infects the skin

• It involve the imperfect fungi of tile genera (epidermophyton, microsporum, trichophyton)
• Dermatophyte are anamorphic (asexual/ imperfect)
• Dermatophytes causes infection of skin, hair & nails due to their ability to obtain nutrients from keratinized
• Athlete's foot/ Tinea pedis presents as (Does not affect only athletes):
1. Severe itching
2. Hyperhydrosis
• Onycho-mycosis/ Tinea unguum/ Ringworm of the nail affects: Nail plate
• Dhobi itch or jock itch is also known as: Tinea cruris
• Tinea versicolor/ versatile colour
1. Caused by Malassezia furfur (Dimorphic, lipophilic organism)
2. Griseofulvin is ineffective (Ketoconazole & Itraconazole are systemic therapy)


• Also known as: Itch disease

• Childhood & adolescent pattern of atopic dermatitis is marked by:
• Flexural skin dermatitis
• Particularly in the ante-cubital fossa/ popliteal fossa
• Other features of AD:
• Perioral pallor,
• Dennies line,
• Increased palmar markings etc.
• Best test to diagnose AD: Clinical examination
• Berloque dermatitis is due to: Cosmetics


• Mycosis fungoides is also known as: Cutaneous T cell lymphoma,

• Special features:
1. MC skin lymphoma,
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2. Pautrier's microabscesses
3. Presents with diffuse erythroderma


• DH is associated with: Gluten sensitive enteropathy (subclinical)

• DH is associated with HLA:
1. HLA-B8/ DRw3
2. HLA-DQw2
• Direct immunofluorescence microscopy of normal appearing peri-lesional skin in DH shows: Granular
deposits of IgA
• DOC for DH: Dapsone


• Characteristic of acanthosis nigricans:

1. Dark,
2. Thick,
• Velvetty skin (in body folds & creases)
• MC cause of acanthosis nigricans: Type 2 DM
• Internal malignancies associated with acanthosis nigricans: Adenocarcinoma lungs,
• Carcinoma GIT etc.


• Associated cells: Virchow cells

• 1st line of drugs:
1. Rifampicin,
2. Clofazimine,
3. Dapsone
• DOC in neuritis: Steroids
• Treatment of nerve abscess: Incision & drainage
• MC nerve involved: Ulnar nerve (2nd is posterior auricular nerve)
• Organs not involved in leprosy:
1. Ovary,
2. Lungs,
3. CNS
• MC type of leprosy in India: TT
• Infective form of leprosy: Tuberculoid leprosy
• Lepromin test indicates: Strong immunity
• Lucio's phenomenon: M. leprae may be associated with cutaneous ulcerations in patients with lepromatous


• Features:
1. Gynaecomastia,
2. Madrosis,
3. Collapse of nasal bridge
• Histology: Dermis contains characteristic highly vacoulated cells (Foam cells) (ABSENT/ few non-caseating

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• Type II (ENL):
• Type III hypersensitivity reaction,
• Thalidomide is effective
• Type I
• Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
• DOC for type I lepra reaction :Corticosteroids


• Lupus vulgaris is: Skin TB with no underlying active focus

• Skin TB secondary to involvement of underlying structure i.e. joint, lymph node is: Scrofuloderma
• MC type of cutaneous TB: Lupus vulgaris
• Form of post primary TB with good resistance: TB verrucosa cutis (TB bacillus are inoculated into skin; seen
in TB patient, pathologists, veterinary surgeons)


• SSSS (Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome),

• Bullous impetigo/ Impetigo contagiosa,
• Furuncles/ Boils,
• Sycosis barbae & Sycosis nuchae


• Tuberous sclerosis:
• Ash leaf spot,
• Adenoma sebaceum
• Shagreen patches
• Urticaria pigmentosa: Darrier's sign
• Amyloidosis: Pinch purpura
• Lichen planus:
• Wickham's striae,
• Civatte bodies
• Atopic dermatitis: Dennie Morgan folds
• Pityriasis rosacea:
• Herald patch, Mother patch
• Annular collratte of scales


• Casal's necklace: Pellagra

• Berloque dermatitis: Cosemtics
• Calcinosis cutis: Scleroderma
• Crocodile skin: Icthyosis
• Iris pearls: Leprosy
• Obstruction of pilo-sebaceous glands: Acne vulgaris
• Micro-Munro abscess: Psoriasis
• Pautrier microabscess: Mycosis fungoides
• Max Joseph space: Lichen planus
• Basal layer degeneration/ Hydropic degeneration/ Liquefaction degeneration: Lichen planus (also in DLE,
pemphigus etc.)
• Asboe Hansen sign (bulla spread sign): Pemphigus
• Dubios sign: Congenital syphilis

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• Ollendroff sign: Secondary syphilis

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Acantholysis is seen in: Pemphigus

2. Hidradenitis suppurativa is infection of: Apocrine glands
3. Hypertrophy of sebaceous gland is known as: Rhinophyma
4. Exclamation mark sign is suggestive of: Alopecia areata
5. Mees line on nails is seen in: Arsenic poisoning
6. LGV is caused by: Chlamydia trachomatis
7. Pathognomic lesion of scabies: Burrows
8. Oral drug for scabies: Ivermectin
9. Auspitz sign is seen in: Psoriasis
10. Nikolsky sign is positive in: Pemphigus
11. Herald patch is seen in: Pityriasis rosea
12. Tinea versicolor is caused by: Malassezia furfur
13. Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with: Celiac disease
14. MC cause of acanthosis nigricans: Type 2 Diabetes mellitus
15. MC nerve involved in leprosy: Ulnar
16. TB of skin with involvement of underlying structure is known as: Scrofuloderma
17. HLA associated with Reiters syndrome: HLA B27
18. Dennie Morgan fold is associated with: Atopic dermatitis
19. Histological feature of psoriasis: Micro Munro abscess
20. 4 D's are associated with niacin deficiency
21. Nail changes in lichen planus: Pterygium
22. Ash leaf spot & shagreen patches are associated with: Tuberous sclerosis
23. Pautriers microabscess is associated with: Mycosis fungoides
24. Wickhams striae is associated with: Lichen planus
25. Site of injury may develop psoriatic lesions. This is known as: Koebner's phenomenon

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• IVA used in shock: Ketamine

• IVA used in porphyria:
1. Ketamine,
2. Propofol
• IVA which causes post-operative vomiting: Ketamine
• IVA with high incidence of venous thrombosis: Propofol
• IVA which precipitates porphyria:
1. Thiopentone,
2. Methohexitone


• Site of SA in adults: L2-L3/ L3-L4 space

• Site of SA in children: L4-L5 space
• Site of action of SA: Nerve roots of cauda equine
• Fibres which are blocked earliest: Autonomic pre-ganglionic fibres (sympathetic)
• Percentage of xylocaine used in SA: 5%
• Feature of high spinal anaesthesia:
1. Hypotension and
2. Bradycardia


• Extent of trachea: C6-T5; diameter is 1.2-1.6 cms

• Level of carina: T4
• Angle of right main bronchus with vertical: 25 degree
• Features of infant larynx:
1. Long and leafy epiglottis,
2. Subglottic region is narrowest and
3. Large tongue
• Anatomical dead space: Air which remains in conducting airways and not available for exchange
• Anatomical space is increased by: Inspiration, atropine and halothane


• Depolarizing muscle relaxants (Succinylcholine):

1. Usually short acting,
2. No tetanic fade,
3. No post tetanic facilitation
• Non-depolarizing muscle relaxant (Mivacurium):
1. Post tetanic facilitation seen,
2. Diaphragm is resistant to non-depolarizing agents,
3. Train of four fade present
4. Muscle fasciculation absent

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• Depolarizing muscle relaxant,
• Shortest acting depolarizing MR;
• Shortest acting MR
• Dual/ biphasic block,
• Rapidly hydrolyzed by pseudocholinesterase
• Pressure increased by SCh:
1. Intra-cranial pressure,
2. Intra-ocular pressure,
3. Intra-gastric pressure
• SCh causes:
1. Muscle pain,
2. Hyperkalemia,
3. Vagal stimulation
• Predisposing factors SCh induced hyperkalemia:
1. Massive trauma (rhabdomyolysis),
2. Burns,
3. Stroke/ encephalitis etc.


• Undergo spontaneous non-enzymatic degradation (Hoffman's elimination),

• Can be used safely in:
• Renal and
• Liver disease,
• Can be used in patient with high serum creatinine
• Lau-danosine is the metabolite, responsible for seizure activity,


• Generally blocks: Sodium channels

• Potency of LA depends on: Lipid solubility
• Amide linked LA:
1. Lidocaine,
2. Bupivacaine etc.
• Ester linked LA:
1. Cocaine,
2. Procaine etc.


• Am ide linked LA,

• Concentration used in subarachnoid space: 5%
• Maximum dose with adrenaline is: 7 mg/ kg
• Adverse effects:
1. Convulsions,
2. Cardiac failure etc.


• Is a phencyclidine,
• Causes dissociative anaesthesia,
• Causes
• Hallucination, Delusion and Illusion
• Causes profound analgesia
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• Increases all pressures:
• Intracranial Tension,
• Intraocular pressure,
• BP
• C/I in: Intracerebral mass/ hemorrhage etc


• Ultra short acting barbiturate (because of rapid redistribution),

• Lacks analgesic effect,
• First sign on intra-arterial injection:
o White hands
• I/V injection presents as:
1. Pain,
2. Hypotension etc.
• C/I in: Porphyria (may precipitate porphyria)


• Agent of choice for day care anaesthesia

• Causes pain on I/ V administration
• Contains egg extract
• Safer in porphyria
• Antiemetic
• Cerebroprotective:
• Decreases cerebral blood flow,
• Decreases intracranial tension and intraocular tension
• Causes dose dependent fall in BP, due to:
• Vasodilation and
• Myocardial depression


• Minimal effects on CVS

• Causes adrenocortical suppression
• It inhibits:
• 11-beta hydroxylase and
• 17 alpha hydroxylase
• So C/I in adrenal insufficiency

• Sensitizes heart to adrenaline

• Adverse effects:
1. Post partum hemorrhage (relaxes uterine muscle)
2. Bronchodilation (used in asthma)
3. Causes severe liver dysfunction


• Fluorinated congener of isoflurane

• Low blood and tissue gas partition coefficient
• Fastest acting
• Less soluble

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• Agent of choice for induction in: Paediatric age group

• Causes respiratory depression


• Discovered by: Priestly

• Cylinder colour: Blue
• PIN index (code): 3,5
• Also known as: Laughing gas,
• Adverse effects:
1. Megaloblastic anemia,
2. Bone marrow suppression,
• Second gas effect/ diffusion hypoxia
• C/I in:
1. Pneumothorax,
2. Air embolism etc.


• Produced from: Arginine (by enzyme NO synthetase),

• Acts via: cGMP pathway
• It prevents platelet aggregation
• Drugs forming NO: Sodium nitroprusside


• Site of SA administration in children: L4-L5

• Earliest fibres to be blocked: Sympathetic (autonomiic preganglionic fibres)
• Vasopressor agent of choice: Ephedrine
• C/I:
1. Patients refusal,
2. Severe hypovolumia,
3. Marked coagulopathy,
4. Blood dyscrasia


• Occurs due to low CSF pressure/ CSF leak,

• Lasts 7-10 days,
• Risk reduction is by using: Sprottee needle/whitcare needle


• Used for: Airway maintenance,

• Indicated in: Difficult airway management during CPR

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. IVA which precipitates porphyria: Thiopentone

2. Site of spinal anaesthesia in adults: L2-3/ L3-4
3. Shortest acting muscle relaxant: Succinylcholine
4. Hoffman's elimination is related with: Atracurium
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5. Local anaesthetic block sodium channels
6. Dissociative anaesthesia is related with: Ketamine
7. Agent of choice for day care surgery: Propofol
8. Anaesthetic agent causing adrenocortical suppression: Etomidate
9. Surgical anaesthesia is stage: Ill
10. Anaesthetic agent causing post partum haemorrhage: Halothane
11. PIN index of nitrous oxide: 3, 5
12. Second gas effect/ diffusion hypoxia is seen with: Nitroux oxide
13. Nitric oxide is produced from which amino acid: Aiginine
14. Cause of post dural puncture headache: CSF leak from puncture site
15. Colour of oxygen cylinder: Black body with white shoulders
16. Mallampatti grading is done for: Assessment of oral cavity before intubation
17. Significant hyperkalemia with succinylcholine is seen with: Paraplegia, Crush syndrome etc.
18. Halothane is useful in: Asthmatics
19. Site of SA administration in infants: L4-5
20. Agent of choice for induction in paediatric age group: Sevoflurane
21. Anaesthetic agent having low blood and tissue gas partition coefficient: Desflurane
22. Anaesthetic agent which sensitizes heart to adrenaline: Halothane
23. Etomidate is contraindicated in: Adrenocortical insufficiency
24. Anaesthetic agent which is cerebroprotective: Propofol
25. Anaesthetic agent causing profound analgesia: Ketamine

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• Schizophrenia: Increased dopamine

• Depression: Decreased serotonin
• Epilepsy: Decreased GABA
• Obsessive Compulsive Disorder:
• Decreased serotonin and
• Decreased noradrenaline
• Mania and anxiety: Increased noradrenaline
• Dementia: Decreased acetylcholine


• Associated with:
1. Psychoanalysis (founder),
2. Concept of free association,
3. Concept of id, ego and superego,
4. Oedipus complex,
5. Analysis of properties of cocaine


• Also known as acute confusional state,

• Memory registration and retention impaired,
• Clouding of consciousness,
• Disorientation,
• Attention and concentration disturbed,
• Marked diurnal variation


• No disturbance of consciouness,
• Cognitive impairment,
• Impaired judgement and
• Personality alteration


• Cortical (NOT subcortical) dementia,

• Progressive,
• Associated with Apo E gene,
• Neurofibrillary tangles are seen and
• Donepezil is used in management


• Difficulty in concentration and communication,

• Lesion in frontal and temporal lobe and cerebellum,
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• Delayed speech and language development,
• Problems in forming social relationships in early childhood,
• Stereotyped movements,
• Poor speech,
• Lack of social interaction,
• Asperger's syndrome:
1. Recall Shahrukh Khan in the movie "My name is Khan"
2. It is a variant, but without any delay in language or cognitive development;
3. Better prognosis


• Easy distractibility/ poor attention span,

• Impulsivity,
• Methyl-phenidylate and Atom-oxetiene are used in management


• Delusion
1. Disorder of thought;
2. False unshaken belief not amenable to reasoning
• Hallucination
1. Disorder of perception;
2. Perception in the absence of external stimuli; Not dependent of will of observer
• Illusion
1. Misinterpretation of external stimuli


• 1st rank symptoms of schizophrenia:

• Hallucination,
• Thought alienation phenomenon:
• Thought insertion,
• Thought withdrawl
• Thought broadcasting
• Delusional perception
• Passivity phenomenon
• Bleulers criterion for schizophrenia:
• Association disturbance,
• Affect disturbance,
• Autism and
• Ambivalence
• 1st symptom to go with treatment: Auditory hallucination
• Amphetamines causes: Paranoid schizophrenia
• Late onset schizophrenia: More than 40 years
• Good prognostic factor:
1. Acute onset,
2. Late onset etc.


• Essential feature: Belief of serious medical illness that persists despite reassurance and appropriate medical
• Abnormal pre-occupation of normal body functions
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• Dipsomania: Irresistible desire for alcohol drinks

• Tricholtillomania: Need to pull out hair
• Pyromania: Irresistible desire to set things on fire
• Kleptomania: Irresistible desire to steal articles


• Marked and persistent fear of objects/ situations, exposure to which results in immediate anxiety reaction
• Agoraphobia: Fear of open spaces
• Claustrophobia: Fear of closed spaces
• Management of phobia: Cognitive behavioural therapy (best) and SSRI


• MC psychiatric disorder in India: Depression

• Neurotransmitter involved in depression:
• Serotonin,
• Norepinephrine
• MC cause of suicide: Depression
• MC type of post puerperal psychosis: Depression
• Nihilistic ideas are seen in: Depression
• Risk factors for suicide in depression:
• Endogenous type of depression,
• Psychotic depression etc.


• Inflated self esteem,

• Grandiosity,
• Flight of ideas and
• Distractibility


• Wernicke's encephalopathy involves: Mammilary bodies (also involved in Korsakoff's syndrome)

• Korsakoff's syndrome presents as:
• Profound and persistent anterograde amnesia and
• Confabulation
• Feature of alcoholic paranoia: Hallucination
• Questionarrie used: CAGE
• Alcohol withdrawl:
• MC syndrome: Hangover
• Visual and tactile hallucination
• Delirium tremens
• Disorientation,
• Anxiety,
• Perceptual defect;
• Chlordiazepoxide is used for management


• Alpha waves: Eyes closed and mind wandering

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• Night terrors are seen in: NREM sleep
• Sleep walking/ somnabulism is seen in: NREM sleep (stage 3/ 4)
• Sleep terror/ pavor nocturnus:
• Seen in NREM sleep (stage 3/ 4)
• Treated by diazepam


• Dissociative amnesia: Patchy impairment of personal memory

• Dissociative identity disorder: Person is dominated by 2 or more personalities
• Depersonalization disorder: It is detachment from self, social situation or environment (derealization)


• Neurotransmitter implicated: Serotonin

• Features of OCD:
• Obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors that impair everyday functioning,
• Shows perfectionism,
• Repetitive thoughts/ images etc.
• Obsession is ego alien (conscious about disorder)
• Group A streptococci are associated with OCD
• Management of OCD:
• Fluoxetine (DOC),
• Fluoxamine,
• Exposure and response prevention


• Normal IQ: 100

• IQ is calculated as: (Mental age/ chronological age) X 100
• Mental ill health is usually due to: Social maladjustment
• Chromosomal abnormality causing MR:
• Down syndrome (MC),
• Fragile X syndrome (2nd MC)
• Mild MR: 50-69
• Moderate MR: 35-49
• Severe MR: 21-34
• Profound MR: 20 or below

Levels of intelligence (10)

• Idiot: 0-24
• Imbecile: 25-49
• Moron: 50-69
• Borderline: 70-79
• Low normal: 80-89
• Normal: 90-109
• Superior: 110-119
• Very superior: 120-139
• Near genius: 140 and over

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Neurotransmitter involved in dementia: Acetylcholine

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2. Drug used in ADHD: Methylphenidate
3. False unshaken belief not amenable to reasoning is known as: Delusion
4. 1st symptom of schizophrenia to go with treatment is: auditory hallucination
5. Paranoid schizophrenia may be associated with the use of amphetamine drug
6. La belle indifference is associated with: Conversion disorder
7. Abnormal pre-occupation of normal body function is known as: Hypochondriasis
8. Irresistible desire to steal things of lesser value is known as: Kleptomania
9. Fear of closed spaces is known as: Claustrophobia
10. Nihilistic ideas are seen in: Depression
11. Grandiosity and flight of ideas may be a feature of: Mania
12. MC alcohol withdrawl syndrome: Hangover next morning
13. Flashback phenomenon is associated with abuse of: LSD
14. Night terror is seen in which phase of sleep: NREM
15. Agent of choice for prophylaxis in mania: Lithium
16. Fluoexetine belongs to which group of drug: SSRI
17. Absolute C/I for ECT: Raised intracranial tension
18. DOC for OCD: Flouxetine
19. IQ is calculated as: Mental age X 100/Chronical age
20. Magnan's symptom is associated with abuse of: Cocaine
21. Delusion is a disorder of: Thought content
22. MC psychiatry disorder in India: Depression
23. Easy distractibility and poor attention span is a feature of: ADHD
24. Child with difficulty in forming social relationships: Autism
25. Chromosomal abnormality commonly causing mental retardation: Down syndrome

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• X rays were discovered by: William Roentgen

• X -rays are modified: Electrons (uses principle of linear accelerator)
• X-rays differ from light in: Energy status
• Target material used in X-rays: Tungsten
• Effect of filters used in radiology: Beam of greater intensity
• Device used to reduce scattered radiation: Grid
• Contrast in X-ray depends upon: kVP (contrast also depends on kVP)

• Atomic number: Number of protons

• Atomic weight: Protons + neutrons
• Isotopes:
1. Same atomic number,
2. Different atomic weight
• Isobars:
1. Same atomic weight,
2. Different atomic number
• Isomers:
1. Same atomic weight,
2. Same atomic number,
3. Different energy state in nuclei


• Gamma rays are predominantly emitted by:

• Cesium-137,
• Cobalt and
• Radium
• Rays having maximum penetration power: Neutron followed by gama rays
• Most ionizing rays: Alpha rays
• Phosphorous 32 emits: Beta particles


• Frequency of USG commonly used in medical practice: 1 MHz to 20 MHz

• USG probe is made of:
1. Quartz (previously),
2. Lead zirconate titanate (nowadays)
• USG is non-ionizing,
• Radiation hazard is not a feature of MRI/ Doppler USG


• CT scan was invented by: Hounsefield

• Hounsfield number in CT scan depends upon: Mass density
• Value of water in CT: Zero
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• Tissue having highest density on CT: Bone
• CT scan rooms are shielded by:
• At least 1/16 inch lead shielding;
• Walls, doors, floors, ceilings and operators barrier


• MC contrast agent used in MRI: Gadolinium DTPA

• C/I to MRI:
1. Cardiac pacemakers,
2. Aneurysmal clips etc.
• Faradays cage: MRI rooms are shielded by continuous sheets of copper or aluminium from interference by
external electromagnetic radiation


• Substance used in PET scan: 2-fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose (FDG)

• Use of PET scan:
• Differentiating radiation necrosis from active neoplasm following therapy, Inv e: tigation of recurrent GIST
tumours etc.


• Right border of heart is formed by:

• SVC/ Right brachiocephalic vessels,
• IVC and
• Right atrium
• Left border of heart is formed by:
• Left atrial appendage,
• Left ventricle,
• Aortic arch and
• Pulmonary artery
• Fallots tetralogy: Boot shaped heart
• Transposition of great arteries 2nd HS is greater in intensity):
• Egg on side heart
• Apple on a string
• Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC): Snowman heart
• Mitral stenosis: Double shadow
• Hydatid cyst: Water lily sign
• Ebsteins anomaly:
1. Cardiomegaly,
2. Pulmonary oligemia
• Radiological features of heart failure:
1. Cardiomegaly,
2. Prominent upper lobe veins,
3. Kerley B lines


• Causes of miliary mottling on chest radiography:

1. TB,
2. RA,
3. Sarcoidosis,
1. Fungal infections:

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2. Blastomycosis,
3. Histoplasmosis,
4. Coccido-idomycosis,
5. Pneumoconiosis,
6. Varicella pneumonia
7. Amyloidosis and
8. Pulmonary edema
• Ground glass appearance on chest radiography:
1. Hyaline membrane disease,
2. Pneumonia,
3. Pneumocystis pneumonia etc.
• Kerley B line are seen in: Basal zone (early change of pulmonary edema)
• Hampton's hump is seen in: Pulmonary embolism
• IOC for minimal bronchiectasis: High Resolution CT scan
• Calcification in benign pulmonary hamartoma: Popcorn/ Bulls eye


• Single bubble sign: Pyloric stenosis

• IOC for acute cholecystitis: HIDA scan
• Features of cholecystitis:
• Thick gall bladder wall,
• Peri-gall bladder halo etc.
• Double bubble sign:
• Annular pancreas,
• Duodenal atresia etc.
• Chain of lake appearance: Chronic pancreatitis
• Fox sign: Acute pancreatitis
• Widening of duodenal C loop: Ca head of pancreas
• Bird of prey sign: Sigmoid volvulus
• Thumb printing sign: Ischemic colitis


• Flower vase appearance: Horse shoe kidney

• Fish hook bladder: BPH
• Dropping flower sign: Ectopic ureter
• Cobra head appearance: Ureterocoele
• Adder head appearance: Ureterocoele
• Rim sign: Hydronephrosis
• Crescent sign: Hydronephrosis
• Golf hole bladder: TB urinary bladder
• Thimble bladder: Chronic TB
• Bilateral spider leg pattern: Polycystic kidneys
• Bilateral spider leg pattern: Polycystic kidney
• Thimble bladder: Chronic TB
• Rim sign: Hydronephrosis
• Cobra head appearance: Ureterocoele
• Adder head appearance: Ureterocoele


• Polka dot in vertebra: Haemangioma

• Champagne glass pelvis: Achondroplasia
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• Pencil thin cortex: Scurvy
• Onion skin appearance: Ewings sarcoma
• Fallen fragment sign: Aneurysmal bone cyst
• Codman's triangle and Sunray appearance: Osteosarcoma
• Cotton wool/ Ground glass appearance: Fibrous dysplasia
• Earliest radiological sign in acute osteomyelitis: Soft tissue swelling
• Water's view/ Occipito-mental view is done for:
• Maxillary,
• Frontal
• Sphenoid sinus (if mouth is open)
• Ethmoid sinus is best seen on: Occipitofrontal view
• Odontoid view is done to visualize: C1, C2 vertebrae


• IOC for acute subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH): Non contrast CT; MRI for chronic SAH
• Intracrar,ial calcification is seen in:
• Cystecercosis,
• Pineal and dural calcification
• Basal ganglia calcification is seen in: Hypoparathyroidism
• Suprasellar calcification is seen in:
• Craniopharyngioma,
• Meningioma
• Rail road/ Tram track calcification: Sturge Weber syndrome
• Periventricular calcification is seen in: CMV infection
• Bracket calcification in skull is seen in: Corpus callosum lipoma
• Separation of sutures in a child is radiological sign of: Raised intra-cranial tension

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. IOC for breast screening: Mammography

2. Most sensitive investigation for Ductal Carcinoma In Situ/ DCIS: MRI
3. CT scan rooms are shielded by: Lead
4. Substance used in PET scan: 2-FDG
5. Water lily sign is suggestive of: Hydatid cyst
6. Single bubble sign: Pyloric stenosis
7. Adder head appearance is seen in: Ureterocoele
8. Bilateral spider leg pattern on IVP is seen in: Polycystic kidney
9. Investigation of choice for subarachnoid hemorrhage: Non contrast CT scan (NCCT)
10. Investigation of choice for avascular necrosis: MRI
11. Best chest X-ray view to detect minimal pleural effusion on right side: Right sided lateral decubitus view
12. Bamboo spine is seen in: Ankylosing spondylitis
13. String sign of Kantor is seen in: Crohn's disease
14. Hounsefield number of water in CT scan: Zero
15. IOC to know the etiology of subarachnoid hemorrhage: Four vessels digital substraction angiography
16. IOC for nasopharyngeal angiofibroma: Contrast enhanced CT
17. IOC for acoustic neuroma: Gadolinium enhanced MRI
18. First and most important sign of raised intracranial tension in infants and childrens: Sutural diastasis
19. Popcorn calcification is a feature of: Pulmonary h am artoma
20. Codmans triangle and sunray appearance on X-ray is seen in: Osteosarcoma
21. Widening of duodenal C loop is seen in: Carcinoma head of pancreas
22. Investigation of choice for minimal Bronchiectasis: High Resolution CT scan
23. Boot shaped heart is seen in: Tetralogy of Fallot
24. Rat tail appearance of esophagus is seen in: Esophageal carcinoma

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25. Spalding sign is suggestive of: Intrauterine fetal death

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• Background radiation is present in:

1. Everywhere in nature;
2. Usually not detrimental to life
• Maximum permissible dose of radiation (in a year) should not exceed: 5 rad/ year
• Stochastic effect of radiation:
1. Probability that a particular effect will increase
2. With increase in dose of radiation;
3. Often show up years after exposure


• Measure of activity of radiation: Becquerel

• Measure of absorbed dose: Gray, (1 gray = 100 rads)
• Measure of radioactivity: Curie;
• Radioactivity was discovered by Curie (1896)


• 1-131: 8 days
• Rn-222: 3-6 days
• Co-60: 5.2 years

• Hot spot in MI is detected by: Technetium scan
• Pancreatic scanning is done by: Selenium 75
• Scan used for parathyroid gland: Sestamibi scan
• Scan for measurement of renal GFR: Tc99-DTPA scan
• Vesicourethral reflex (VUR) is seen by: MAG3-tc99 scan
• Isotope used in thyroid scan: 1-131
• 99Tc scan shows hot spot in: Adenolymphoma (Salivary gland tumour)
• PACS/ picture archiving and communication system: New system (completely computerized network) to
replace conventional analogue film and paper clinical request forms and reports
• Brachytherapy: Radiation therapy in which sources are placed within or near tumour
• for therapy
• Gamma knife (using gamma rays) is used in: Stereotactic surgery (cuts tumour in different location/ 3D)
• Mantle irradiation is done in: Hodgkin's disease
• Hyper-fractionation radiotherapy is used to treat: Lung cancer
• Intra-operative radiotherapy is used to treat: Pancreatic Ca
• Stereo-tactic radiosurgery is: A form of radiotherapy
• RAIU/(RadioActive Iodine Uptake test) is done mostly using: 1-123
• Most radiosensitive cell: Lymphocytes
• Most radiosensitive cell structure: DNA
• Phase of cycle most sensitive to radiation: G2M
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• Most radiosensitive brain tumour: Medulloblastoma
• Cartilage is: Radioresistant


• MC manifestation in skin is: Erythema

• Papillary Ca of thyroid in infancy develops due to: Radiation exposure


• Amifostine is: Cytoprotective/radioprotective agent (a thiophosphate)

• Hydoxy-urea, 5 FU are: Radio-sensitizers

Quick Review (Including Probable DNB Questions)

1. Substance having same atomic number and different atomic weight is: Isotopes
2. Most ionizing rays: Alpha
3. Alpha particle is: 2 proton + 2 neutron
4. Most radiosensitive cell: Lymphocyte
5. Most radiosensitive tissue: Bone marrow
6. Most commonly affected organ in radiation exposure: Skin
7. Phosphorous-32 emits: Beta particle
8. Radioactivity was discovered by: Madam Curie
9. Half life of cobalt-60: 5.2 years
10. Most radiosensitive phase of cycle: G2M
11. Radioactive Iodine Uptake test is done by using: 1123
12. Use of gamma knife: Stereotactic surgery
13. Rays having maximum penetration power: Gamma rays
14. Use of Gamma camera: Radionuclide scans
15. MC skin manifestation of radiation exposure: Erythema
16. Most sensitive mucosa: Intestinal mucosa
17. MC radiation induced cancer: Leukemia
18. Most radiosensitive ovarian tumour: Dysgerminoma
19. Substance used both for teletherapy and brachytherapy: Co-60 and Cs-137
20. SI unit of absorbed dose: Gray (old unit: Rad)
21. SI unit of radioactivity: Becquerel (old unit: Curie)
22. SI unit of radiation exposure: Columb/cm (old unit: Roentgen)
23. Highly resistant skeletal tumours: Osteosarcoma
24. Craniospinal irradiation is done for: Medulloblastoma
25. Stereotactic surgery is a form of: Radiotherapy

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