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ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (2) 73. (1) 109. (3) 145. (4)
2. (4) 38. (1) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146. (3)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (4) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (3)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (2) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (3) 78. (3) 114. (3) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (3) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (1) 116. (4) 152. (4)
9. (3) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (3) 46. (1) 82. (2) 118. (4) 154. (2)
11. (3) 47. (3) 83. (3) 119.Delete 155. (1)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (2) 156. (4)
13. (3) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (4) 86. (1) 122. (1) 158. (3)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (4) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (1)
17. (2) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (1)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (4) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (4) 91. (2) 127. (2) 163. (4)
20. (1) 56. (4) 92. (3) 128. (1) 164. (4)
21. (4) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (2)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (3) 131. (4) 167. (2)
24. (4) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (1) 133. (3) 169. (4)
26. (1) 62. (2) 98. (4) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (3) 63.Delete 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (2) 136. (4) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (4) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (4) 66. (1) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (4) 103. (1) 139. (1) 175. (2)
32. (1) 68. (2) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (4) 69. (3) 105. (4) 141. (1) 177. (2)
34. (3) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (4) 72. (3) 108. (1) 144. (2) 180. (4)
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
PHYSICS Sol. : A B
1. Answer (3)
Hint : L m (r v ) O
Sol. : L m (r v ) B A
C
x
S AP 4 i
S BP – 4 i
L mbv S PG – xi
L mbv cos S AP S AG – S PG
2. Answer (4)
S AG (4 – x ) i
Hint : I
S BG (–4 – x ) i
Sol. : A
60º (4 – x ) 40 (–4 – x ) 60 – x 20
S CG
120
60º 160 – 40x – 240 – 60x – 20x = 0
mg cos60° mg 160 – 240 – 120x = 0
B
– 120x = 80
–2
mg cos 60 x m
2 3
4. Answer (2)
mg
4 mI 2
Hint : I sin²
3
m 2
I Sol. :
3
= I
60º 60º
mg
4
m 2
60º 60º
3
3g
4
As = 60°
3. Answer (2)
ml 2 2
Hint : S cm 0 Inet 4 sin 60
3
2/18
Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
7. Answer (3)
ml 2 3
4
3 4 v
Hint : v P v c.m r , c.m
= ml2 R
5. Answer (1)
v P v 2 v 0 2 2v v 0 cos
1 1
Hint : K .E mv 2 I 2
2 2
1 2
K .ER I
2
Sol. :
K .E 1 mv 2 1 I 2
2 2
v
As = v0
R v
2
1 2 v2
mR 2 2 v 2
K .ER 2 3 R v v 02 0 v 02 cos(90 )
4
K .E 1 1 2 v2
mv 2 R 2
2 2 3 R2 v0 5v 02
2 5 2 3 v 02 sin
2 4
tan 60º
Hint : min for disc
3 8. Answer (2)
Sol. : min > Hint : I = m1r12 + m2r22
therefore disc starts rolling with slipping
Sol. : 4m
ac.m = g sin– g cos m
tan r1 cm
ac.m =g sin– gcos r2
4
3gsin 4mr1 = mr2
ac.m
4
r
h r1 2
Scm 4
sin
v cm 2 ucm 2 2acmScm r1 r2
h 5r2
v c.m 2a
sin 4
3 gsin 4
v c.m 2 h r2
4 sin 5
3 gh
v cm r1
2 5
3/18
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
2 fk = k N
2 4
Ic.m 4m m = 0.4 × mg
25 5
= 0.4 × 10 × 10
20 m 2 = 40 N
25 At t = 0, F = ma
50 = 10a
4 m 2
a = 5 m/s2
5
v = u + at
9. Answer (3) 0 = 10 – 5t
Hint : Angular momentum of a body symmetrical
about axis of rotation. t 2s
Sol. : Angular momentum of body symmetrical At t = 2 s, block comes to rest therefore, at t = 3
s acceleration will be zero.
about of axis rotation is in direction of
14. Answer (1)
10. Answer (3)
Hint : By conservation of M.E.
Hint : Condition of pure rolling.
Sol. : Net velocity of point of contact is not zero, v1
Sol. :
velocity of point of contact is 2vcm forward therefore, h
it will roll with forward slipping.
v2
11. Answer (3)
Hint : T = mr2
Sol. :
T 1 1
x mv12 mg h mv 22
2 2
1 gR 1
Tension at distance x from pivoted and m mg R (1– cos ) mv 22
2 4 2
1 m2 2
T ( – x 2 )
2 g v 2
2g (1– cos ) 2 ...(i)
2 4 R
1 m2 2 3
T –
2 2
v 2
g cos 2 ...(ii)
R
1 m2 4 2 – 3 2
T g
2 4 2g (1– cos ) g cos
4
m2 1
T 2 – 2cos cos
8 4
12. Answer (3) 9
3 cos
Hint : Concept of pseudo force. 4
Sol. : Pseudo force can be applied in accelerating
3
frame of reference. cos
4
13. Answer (3)
cos–1(0.75)
Hint : F net ma 15. Answer (4)
Sol. : 10 m/s Hint : Properties of elastic collision.
Sol. : In an elastic collision final kinetic energy of
10 kg F = 10 N the system always equal to initial kinetic energy of
fk the system.
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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
24. Answer (4)
7m 2
I Sol. : Energy = power × time
48
= 60 × 60
I = m k2
1 2
2 I 3600
7 2
k
48 1 2 2
3600
2 2
7 = 60 rad/s
k
4 3
P
22. Answer (2) d
60 I
Hint : xcritical = R d
2 2 60
Sol. : Moment of Inertia of hollow sphere MR 2d d
3 I
I 60
d I
d
2
where 2
MR
60
3 60 2
2 0
3 3 0 2
60 60 60
2R 2R 302
xcritical , if force will be at distance above 3
3 3 = 2400 rad
the center of mass then hollow sphere will do pure
rolling without use of friction 25. Answer (1)
x = R – xcritical Hint : = I
Sol. : = r × F = 0.2 F
2R
R – 0.2 F = I
3
0.2 F = 1 × 2
R
F 10N
3
26. Answer (1)
23. Answer (2)
Hint : Apply conservation of angular momentum. Hint : Fnet = 0 condition of equilibrium.
I11 = I2 2 Sol. : Fnet = 0
Sol. : I11 = I2 2 kx – N = 0
N=kx
I1 9 N = 200 × 4 × 10–2
I2 3
=8N
I1 27. Answer (3)
3
I2 Hint : Concept of pseudo force
1 Sol. :
k1 I112
2 a
k2 1 ma
I 2
2 2 2
a1 30º
2
3 mg
3 30º
9
1 (mg sin 30° – ma sin30°) = ma1
3 a1 = g sin30° – a sin30°
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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
= 0.1 × 10
a1 2.5 m/s2
= 1 Ns
28. Answer (3) 32. Answer (1)
Hint : Fnet = ma, fmax = N Hint : fsmax m r 2
Sol. : System will move Solution : fsmax m r 2
when T 2f max mg m r 2
mg 2(0.4 × 5 × 10)
r 2
mmin = 4 kg
g
29. Answer (2)
Hint : Concept of friction 50 10 –2 (4)2
Sol. : 10 N 10
T
min = 80 × 10–2
T
= 0.8
33. Answer (4)
fSmax = mg
= 0.4 × 5 × 10 W
Hint : P
= 20 N t
fsmax > F
Sol. : W F .d
There will be no relative slipping between the blocks
10 = 2T W (6i – 2 j ).(2i 3 j )
T 5N = 12 – 6
30. Answer (4) =6J
W
Hint : R a ² b ² 2ab cos P
t
Sol. : T 6
0.4
t
T
5 kg 60
t
4
T=5g t 15 s
7/18
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
1 Sol. : F 2 xi 3 j 3z 2 k
4 m g R 2m g R mv12
2
4gR = v12 dr dxi dy j dz k
relative velocity of
4
x = 0, m
3
Coefficient of restitution = separation
relative velocity of approach d 2U
8 12 x
dx 2
Sol. :
d 2U
8 U min
dx 2 x 0
d 2U 4
8 12 8
v – v1 dx 2 4 3
e 2 x
3
v0
U maximum
1 v 2 – v1 39. Answer (3)
4 v0 Hint : Work-energy theorem.
Sol. : Wf = MEf – MEi
v0 = 4(v2 – v1) ...(i)
1
By conservation of linear momentum.
= 4 (10)2 4 10 10
Mv0 = Mv1 + Mv2 2
v1 + v2 = v0 . . . (ii) = – 200 J
Divide equation (ii) by (i) 40. Answer (4)
v1 v 2 K .Ef – KEi
4 Hint : %lossof K .E K .Ei
100
v 2 v1
2 2
v1 3 1 v 1 3v mv 2
K .E m m
2 2
Sol. :
2 2 3
f
v2 5 6
1
36. Answer (4) K .Ei mv 2
2
Hint : Properties of conservative force.
1 1
Sol. : mv 2 1 100
Work done against conservation force = U 2 3
% lossof K .E
1
Work done against conservation force stored in the mv 2
2
form of potential energy.
37. Answer (2) 2
100
3
Hint : dW F . dr = 66%
8/18
Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
41. Answer (2) a b i (–1– 4) – i (1– 2) k (2 1)
Hint : W F.d a b – 5i j 3k
Sol. : W = 0
a b (–5)2 (1)2 (3)2
F d m1 m2 1
35
4 –P
–1 –5i j 3k
3 2 c
35
3
P 45. Answer (2)
2
42. Answer (3)
Hint : X cm xdm
Hint : Use conservation of M.E
dm
1 1 Sol. : dm = dx = (2+3x) dx
Sol. : K1x 2 K 2 x 2 mg x
2 2 2
(K1 + K2)x = 2 mg (2 3 x )xdx
xcm 02
2mg
x
K1 K 2 (2 3 x )dx
0
2 5 10 2
x x2 x3
200 300 0
2
1 3x 2
x m 2 x
5 2
0
2
1 1 48
P.E A 200
2 5 46
=4J = 1.2 m from end A
or
43. Answer (3)
0.8 m from end B
output
Hint : % efficiency = 100
CHEMISTRY
input
46. Answer (1)
450000 10 20
Solution : Pout Hint : Rate of diffusion
600
volume diffuse 1
45 1000 10 20 (r) .
100 time taken M
30 103 60 10
= 50% V
rgas t
44. Answer (1) gas t MNe
Sol. : = = Ne =
rNe V t gas Mgas
ab t
Hint : c Ne
ab
MNe 20
, 2 =
2
j 2=
iˆ k Mgas Mgas
Sol. : a b 1 – 1 2
1 2 1 20
Mgas 5u
4
9/18
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
mol
ng = – 2, so unit of Kc is –2 2
or mol L
L 58. Answer (3)
52. Answer (3)
[H2 ] [I2 ]
Hint : For neutral solution, [H+] = [OH–]. Hint : K c .
[HI]2
Sol. : Kw = [H+] [OH–] = 3.6 × 10–13 = 36 ×10–14
Sol. : 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
–
[H ] 36 10 14 (∵ [H+ ] = [OH ] in neutral solution) Initially 2 0 0
[H+] = 6 × 10–7 At equilibrium 2– 2
pH = 7 – log6 ( )2
Kc
53. Answer (3) (2 2 )2
Hint : CH3COONa is a salt of weak acid and strong
base. 2
Sol. : pH of salt of weak acid and strong base is Kc
4(1 )2
1 59. Answer (3)
pH 7 (pK a + logc)
2 Hint : pH + pOH = 14 (at 25ºC).
54. Answer (4) Sol. : [OH–] = 10–10, pOH = 10
Hint : Ksp (CaF2) = [Ca2+] [F–]2 pH + pOH = 14, pH = 4
10/18
Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
of volume. 0.02
B(g) ; K c
Sol. : 2A(g) 200 M1
Sol. : Unit of a atm L2 mol–2 0.012
Unit of b L mol–1 If volume increases, Qc becomes greater than Kc
and equilibrium will shift in backward direction.
unit of ‘a’ atmL2 mol2
= atm L mol1 68. Answer (2)
unit of ‘b’ L mol-1
Hint : On addition of two reversible reactions, their
equilibrium constants will multiply and when a
62. Answer (2)
reaction is reversed, equilibrium constant becomes
Hint : Active mass of solid components are always reciprocal.
unity. Sol. :
63. Delete
A(g) B(g) ; K1 102
64. Answer (3)
Hint : In adiabatic process, q = 0. + B(g) C(g) ; K 2 101
Sol. : For adiabatic, q = 0
work done, w = – P(V2 – V1)
A(g) C(g) ; K 3 103
= – 5 atm (4.5 – 2.5)L
= – 5 × 2 L atm = – 10 L atm
U = q + w C(g) A(g) ; K '3 103
U = w = – 10 L atm = –10 × 101.3 J = –1013 J
1 1
65. Answer (2) C(g) A(g) ; K 4 10 10
2 2
Hint : Consider common ion effect 69. Answer (3)
–
Sol. : AgCl (s) Ag+ (aq) + Cl (aq) Hint : Condition of precipitation, Ksp < IP (ionic
s s + 0.2 0.2 product)
Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl–] Sol. : For saturation of CuS, [S2–]
1.6 × 10–10 = s (0.2) K sp 1031
10–10 = 1030
s=8× mol/L [Cu2 ] 0.1
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
K sp 4 1044 3RT
For saturation of Ag2S, [S2–] = 2
Root mean square speed =
[Ag ] (0.1)2 M
12/18
Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
q = 2 × H = 2 × 40.66 = 81.32 kJ Sol. : Al(OH)3(s) Al3+(aq) + 3OH–(aq)
w = –ngRT = –2 × 8.314 × 373 J s 3s
= –6.2 kJ 5
10
U = q + w = (81.32 – 6.2) kJ ∵ 3s = 10–5 s=
3
= 75.12 kJ KSP = [Al3+][OH–]3 = s × (3s)3 = 27s4
82. Answer (2) 4
Hint : Properties which depend on path followed by 10 5 1020
= 27 = 27
the system are known as path functions. 3 81
83. Answer (3)
1
= 1020
C 2 3
Hint : Ka = 90. Answer (3)
1
pH = pKa – 1 [H+] = Ka × 10 rSO2 P1 MHe
Hint :
84. Answer (3) rHe P2 MSO2
Hint : London forces are associated with Non-polar
rSO2 2 4 1 2
molecules. Sol. : =2 =1:2
Sol. : Cl 2 + H 2O, system has dipole – induced rHe 1 64 16 4
dipole interaction. 64 8
Mavg = 24 g mol–1
85. Answer (3) 3
PM BIOLOGY
Hint : Density of ideal gas (d) =
RT 91. Answer (2)
PM 2 48 Hint : Diatoms have two thin overlapping shells in
Sol. : d = = 2.9 g/L
RT 0.0821 400 their cell wall.
86. Answer (1) Sol. : Diatoms are called soap-box like organisms
and they are chief producers of oceans.
Hint : For a process to be non-spontaneous
G > 0 92. Answer (3)
Sol. : ∵ G = H – TS Hint : Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Paramoecium and
Amoeba all are unicellular eukaryotes.
If H > 0 and S < 0 then G will be always +ve
and process will be always non-spontaneous. Sol. : Chlamydomonas and Chlorella were placed
87. Answer (4) earlier in Plantae due to presence of cell wall while
Amoeba and Paramoecium placed in Animalia due
Hint : M1V1 = M2V2.
to lack of cell wall.
Sol. : 10–2 × 1 = 10–3 × V2
93. Answer (4)
V2 = 10 L
Hint : This feature was used by Carolus Linneaus for
Hence, volume of water added = 10–1 = 9 L
grouping organisms into two different kingdoms.
88. Answer (3)
Sol. : Whittaker never used ‘response to external
Hint : G° = –RTlnKc
stimulus’, to group organisms into five kingdoms.
Sol. : A(g) + 2B(g) 4C(g) 94. Answer (3)
[C]4 0.2 4
16
Hint : Organisms with membrane bound cell
KC = = organelles and autotrophic mode of nutrition belong
[A][B]2 (0.15) (0.1)2 15
to either kingdom Protista or Plantae.
Sol. : Nitrobacter, Chromatium, Nostoc and
16
So, G° = –R × 298 ln Methanococcus belong to kingdom Monera thus they
15
do not have membrane bound cell organelles.
89. Answer (4) Only Euglena and Gonyaulax are autotrophic
Hint : Ksp (Al(OH)3) = [Al3+] [OH–]3 eukaryotes. Rest all are heterotrophs.
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
95. Answer (3) Sol. : Phytophthora infestans causes late blight of
Hint : Binary fission is the most common mode of potato.
asexual reproduction in bacteria. Alternaria solani is a member of Deuteromycetes
Sol. : It occurs under favourable conditions and is and causes early blight of potato.
amitotic type. It involves DNA replication but no 105. Answer (4)
spindle formation.
Hint : The fungus is popularly called bread mould.
96. Answer (2)
Sol. : Rhizopus stolonifer is a saprophyte and grows
Sol. : PPLO or Mycoplasma do not have cell wall. on decaying matter. It is not useful for human
97. Answer (1) beings.
Hint : Red tide is caused by red dinoflagellates. Yeast – useful in baking/brewing industries
Sol. : Dinoflagellates have cell wall made up of stiff Neurospora – useful in biochemical and genetics
cellulosic plates and two flagella, one transverse and work
other longitudinal.
Penicillium – useful to produce antibiotics
98. Answer (4)
106. Answer (3)
Hint : Except sporozoans, all protozoan groups have
their specific locomotory structures. Hint : Members of Deuteromycetes do not have
coenocytic hyphae.
Sol. : They all are single celled and heterotrophs.
Sol. : Members of fungi imperfecti have branched
Only ciliated protozoans have specific regions for
ingestion and egestion i.e. gullet and cytopyge and septate mycelium, they form conidia and help in
mineral recycling.
99. Answer (2)
107. Answer (2)
Hint : In slime moulds, spores are formed under
unfavourable conditions. Hint :
Sol. : Slime moulds form aggregates called Bacteriophages help in transduction process.
plasmodium under favourable conditions which under Sol. :
unfavourable conditions differentiate into fruiting Bacteriophages usually have ds DNA as their
bodies. genetic material.
100. Answer (2) 108. Answer (1)
Hint : Basidiomycetes are commonly known as club Hint : Infectious nature of viruses is decided by its
fungi.
nucleic acid.
Sol. : Mycelium of club fungi have septate hyphae.
Sol. : Virus is a nucleoprotein in which genetic
Septa consist of dolipore for continuity of cytoplasm
between adjoining cells. material is infectious in nature.
101. Answer (4) 109. Answer (3)
Hint : Given figure is of Aspergillus. Hint : Viroids are smallest self replicating particles.
Sol. : Aspergillus is known as weed of laboratory. It Sol. : Viroids lack capsid and have only RNA as
has chitinous cell wall, reproduce asexually by their genetic material. Their RNA is of low molecular
conidia. Sex organs are found but dikaryophase is of weight but like viruses they are infectious in nature.
shorter duration. Endogenous meiospores are formed 110. Answer (3)
inside the fruiting bodies. Sol. : For the first time W.M. Stanley showed that
102. Answer (3) viruses could be crystallised.
Hint : Fruiting bodies are formed by members of 111. Answer (3)
Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes.
Hint : HIV is a retrovirus.
Sol. : Morels, Truffles, Agaricus and Saccharomyces
Sol. : Both TMV and HIV have ss RNA as their
all are edible but Saccharomyces (yeast) do not form
fruiting bodies. genetic material. Both have capsid but envelope is
present only in HIV.
103. Answer (1)
112. Answer (2)
Hint : Albugo is a member of Oomycetes.
Hint : Lichens do not grow in SO2 polluted areas.
Sol. : Its cell wall is made up of cellulose and
hyphae lack septa. Plasmogamy occurs via Sol. : Mycobiont (Fungal partner) is always
gametangial contact. heterotrophic and it forms bulk of the body of lichens.
104. Answer (3) 113. Answer (2)
Hint : Late blight of potato is caused by a member Hint : According to Carl Woese all 6 kingdoms are
of Oomycetes. grouped into 3 domains.
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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
Sol. : Cymose inflorescence have
Sol. : Protista All are included in domain Eukarya
Fungi due to similarity in 16 S rRNA
1. Limited growth of main axis
Plantae gene sequences. 2. Basipetal arrangement of flowers where old
Animalia flowers are at the top
114. Answer (3) 3. Flowers open in centrifugal manner
Hint : Methanogens are found in guts of ruminants. 123. Answer (2)
Sol. : Methanogens are Hint : In imbricate aestivation margins of sepals and
1. Chemoautotrophs petals do not overlap in a definite manner.
2. Obligate anaerobes Sol. : Solanum nigrum – Valvate aestivation
3. Have pseudomurein in their cell wall China rose – Twisted aestivation
115. Answer (3) Asparagus – Valvate aestivation
Hint : Stilt roots are found in maize, sugarcane etc. Cassia – Imbricate aestivation
Sol. : Plants which have weak stem like maize, 124. Answer (3)
sugarcane, need support. In those plants adventitious Hint : Members of family Solanaceae have
roots arise from lower nodes to support the stem actinomorphic flowers and axile placentation.
while prop roots arise from the branches to give Sol. : Polyadelphous stamens – In lemon.
support.
The only feature common in all the three plants is
116. Answer (4)
axile placentation.
Hint : In carrot, turnip and radish, tap root stores
125. Answer (3)
food.
Hint : Keel is found in flowers of members of family
Sol. : Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
Fabaceae.
which stores food.
Sol. :
117. Answer (3)
Hint : In some xerophytes, stem is modified to Apocarpous ovary – Rose
perform photosynthesis. Keel – Sesbania
Sol. : In both Opuntia and Euphorbia stems modify Swollen placenta – Chilli
and become fleshy and photosynthetic but in Inferior ovary – Cucumber
Opuntia it is flat while in Euphorbia it is cylindrical. 126. Answer (4)
118. Answer (4) Hint : Mustard is a member of family Brassicaceae.
Hint : Runner is a subaerial modification of stem. Sol. : Mustard has
Sol. : Grasses and strawberry have runner type of 1. Superior ovary
subaerial stem but jasmine has stolons.
2. Tetradynamous stamens
119. Delete
3. Parietal placentation
120. Answer (2)
4. Alternate phyllotaxy
Hint : Insectivorous plants fulfill their nitrogen
requirement by trapping insects. 127. Answer (2)
Sol. : Venus-fly-trap is an insectivorous plant and its Hint : Multiple fruit develops from entire inflorescence.
leaves modify to trap insects. Sol. : A multiple fruit is also known as composite
121. Answer (3) fruit e.g. jackfruit, pineapple etc.
Hint : Leguminous plants are included in family 128. Answer (1)
Fabaceae. Hint : Scar of seed coat is known as hilum.
Sol. : Plants of family Fabaceae have. Sol. : Pore found above hilum is known as
1. Racemose inflorescence micropyle.
2. Zygomorphic and hypogynous flower 129. Answer (1)
3. Ex-albuminous seeds Hint : Maize is a monocot.
4. Monocarpellary ovary Sol. : In maize seed
122. Answer (1) 1. Single cotyledon is known as scutellum
Hint : Main axis terminates into a flower in cymose 2. It is endospermic
inflorescence. 3. Seed coat is membranous and thin
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
4. Radicle is enclosed in coleorhiza Internal intercostal muscles contract during forceful
5. Pericarp i.e. fruit wall fuses with seed coat. expiration decreasing the thoracic volume.
130. Answer (2) 139. Answer (1)
Hint : Both coconut and mango are drupe type of Hint: Breast bone is located on the mid-ventral side
fruits. of humans.
Sol. : Edible part of coconut is its seed Sol. : Thoracic cage is formed dorsally by vertebral
Its mesocarp is fibrous column, ventrally by the sternum and laterally by the
ribs.
Endocarp is hard and stony
140. Answer (3)
131. Answer (4)
Hint : This volume ranges around 2100-2300 ml.
Hint : Attachment of stamens with perianth is called
epiphyllous condition as found in lily family. Sol. : Functional residual capacity includes the RV
+ ERV = 1200 + 1100 = 2300 ml
Sol. : Brinjal – Epipetalous
141. Answer (1)
Lily – Epiphyllous
Hint : It is similar to the pCO2 in systemic arteries.
132. Answer (3)
Sol. : pO2 in systemic vein is 40 mm Hg.
Hint : Endosperm is consumed by developing
embryo in seeds of leguminous plants. 142. Answer (1)
Sol. : Gram, pea, bean are non-endospermous or Hint : Atrial systole lasts for 0.1 s.
ex-albuminous seeds. Sol. : Duration of cardiac cycle is 0.8 sec. Atrial
133. Answer (3) diastole occurs for 0.7 s (0.8 – 0.1 = 0.7 sec).
Hint : Floral formula shows number and association 143. Answer (3)
of floral whorls. Hint : Semilunar valves are closed, when all the four
Sol. : Aestivation of calyx and corolla are shown in chambers of heart are in relaxed state.
floral diagram. Floral formula shows their number and Sol. : Semilunar valves open due to rise in pressure
association with each other as well as with other of ventricles during ventricular systole.
organs. 144. Answer (2)
134. Answer (2) Hint : The flow of blood in veins is slower than in
Hint : Given floral formula is of family Liliaceae. arteries.
Sol. : Members of family Liliaceae are Aloe, Sol. : Veins have valves which prevents backward
Gloriosa, Asparagus, Tulip and Allium. flow of blood.
135. Answer (2) 145. Answer (4)
Hint : Sesbania is a fodder plant. Hint : During joint diastole, right atrium receives
Sol. : Lupin and sweet pea are ornamental plants of deoxygenated blood from superior vena cava and
family Fabaceae. inferior vena cava.
Muliathi – Medicinal Sol. : Ventricle and atrium both remain relaxed
Pea – Vegetable together for 0.4 s.
136. Answer (4) 146. Answer (3)
Hint : Exchange of gases occurs at this site. Hint : This structure is associated with ventricular
musculature.
Sol. : Conducting part of respiratory system starts
from external nostrils and extends upto terminal Sol. : These fibres have elongated cells and
bronchioles. numerous gap junctions facilitating fastest
137. Answer (2) conduction velocity.
Hint : Aquatic animals usually use gills for 147. Answer (4)
respiration. Hint : Right lymphatic duct drains lymph into the
Sol. : Reptiles, birds and mammals respire through right subclavian vein.
lungs but fishes respire through gills. Sol. : Thoracic duct drains the lymph into left
138. Answer (1) subclavian vein.
Hint : Relaxation of diaphragm and external 148. Answer (3)
intercostal muscles decreases the thoracic volume. Hint : This hormone is stored in neurohypophysis.
Sol. : During normal inspiration, contraction of Sol. : Stored antidiuretic hormone released by
diaphragm and external intercostal muscle posterior pituitary helps in facultative reabsorption of
increases the thoracic volume. water in distal parts of nephron.
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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
149. Answer (4) Sol. : Heart failure means the state of heart when
Hint : In counter current mechanism, the flow of it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet
filtrate in two limbs of loop of Henle occurs in the needs of the body. It is also called congestive
opposite direction. heart failure.
Sol. : NaCl is reabsorbed from the ascending limb 157. Answer (4)
of Henle’s loop and is exchanged with the Hint : Parasympathetic stimulation results in
descending limb of vasa recta. Water is reabsorbed contraction of urinary bladder.
from the descending limb of Henle’s loop and is Sol. : For release of urine, the detrusor muscle
exchanged with ascending limb of vasa recta. contracts and internal sphincter and external urethral
sphincter need to relax.
150. Answer (2)
158. Answer (3)
Hint : Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to Hint : Blood colloidal osmotic pressure and
angiotensin-I. capsular hydrostatic pressure opposes the
Sol. : In response to low glomerular blood glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
pressure, JG cells release renin which cleaves Sol. : GFP = GHP – (BCOP + CHP)
angiotensinogen into angiotensin-I which ultimately = 60 – (30 + 20)
is converted into angiotensin-II. Angiotensin-II is a = 10 mm Hg
vasoconstrictor that constricts blood vessels and 159. Answer (4)
increases or restores the blood pressure. Hint : Nutrients are almost completely reabsorbed
151. Answer (2) in PCT.
Hint : This structure is responsible for storage of Sol. : Glucose and amino acids are almost
urine. completely reabsorbed in PCT of nephron. Water is
Sol. : Micturition reflex is initiated by the stretching reabsorbed by osmosis.
of the urinary bladder as it gets filled with urine. In 160. Answer (1)
response, the stretch receptors on the wall of the
Hint : Each kidney is covered by peritoneum only
bladder send signals to the CNS.
ventrally.
152. Answer (4)
Sol. : Kidney regulates the pH of blood by
Hint : Identify a hormone secreted by wall of heart. reabsorbing HCO3– from filtrate and by secreting H+
Sol. : In response to decrease in blood volume, into the filtrate from blood.
ADH and aldosterone are released which further 161. Answer (1)
increase reabsorption of water and Na+ in distal part
of nephron, thereby restoring the blood volume. Hint : This blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood
from kidney.
153. Answer (4)
Hint : Obligate reabsorption of filtrate occurs in this Sol. : Hepatic vein collects urea & deoxygenated
part of nephron. blood from liver and drains directly into inferior vena
cava. Inferior vena cava later opens directly into right
Sol. : Nearly 70% of filtrate is reabsorbed in PCT atrium of heart.
even during water deficient conditions. ADH
increases the water reabsorption in latter part of 162. Answer (2)
nephron. Hint : This symptom is observed in an allergic
154. Answer (2) reaction.
Hint : In this condition, urinary elimination of urea Sol. : Asthma is characterised by spasms of
declines. smooth muscles present in the wall of bronchioles &
Sol. : Term uremia is used when urea level wheezing sound.
increases in blood than normal. 163. Answer (4)
155. Answer (1) Hint : Under normal physiological conditions, 100 ml
Hint : Depolarisation of ventricles leads to of oxygenated blood carries 20 ml of O2.
contraction of ventricles. Sol. : 100 ml of venous blood carries about 14.4 ml
Sol. : QRS wave represents the ventricular of O2, so 1000 ml of venous blood will carry 144 ml
depolarisation in ECG. After the initiation of of O2
ventricular depolarisation, ventricular contraction 164. Answer (4)
starts and is completed with the end of T-wave. Hint : Primary factor for association of O2 with Hb
156. Answer (4) is partial pressure of oxygen.
Hint : Lung congestion is one of the cause Sol. : Left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation
symptom of this disease. curve indicates association of O2 and Hb, which
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
occurs under following conditions: 172. Answer (2)
(i) High pO2 Hint : Each ventricle pumps about 70 ml blood per
(ii) Low pCO2 beat.
(iii) Less H+ concentration Sol. : Heart beats about 72 times per minute so
(iv) High pH cardiac output of each ventricle is about 72 × 70 =
5040 ml, so two ventricles pump about 10 L of blood
(v) Low temperature in one minute.
165. Answer (3) 173. Answer (4)
Hint : pCO2 in alveoli is 40 mm Hg. Hint : It is the sum of ERV and RV
Sol. : pCO2 in deoxygenated blood is 45 mm Hg.
Sol. : FRC = ERV + RV = 2300 ml.
166. Answer (2)
174. Answer (2)
Hint : Identify the precursor of macrophage.
Hint : Microvilli in PCT helps in maximum
Sol. : Monocyte is a agranulocyte, which performs reabsorbtion.
phagocytosis.
Sol. : PCT is lined by simple brush bordered
167. Answer (2) cuboidal epithelium.
Hint : Basement substance is an acellular layer. 175. Answer (2)
Sol. : The wall of alveoli is lined by single layered Hint : All ventricular valves remain closed during
squamous epithelium and alveolar capillaries by isovolumetric contraction of ventricles.
single layered endothelium and in between these
layers acellular basement substance is present, so Sol. : AV valves close during initial phase of
oxygen crosses two cellular layers and one acellular ventricular systole and semilunar valves close during
layer. initial phase of ventricular diastole. The time duration
between above two events is 0.3 sec.
168. Answer (2)
176. Answer (3)
Hint : Rh antigen is present on RBCs surface.
Hint : Tunica interna of blood vessel is the inner
Sol. : When Rh– mother conceives for the first time
most layer of a blood vessel.
and foetus is Rh+, then during parturition, blood of
foetus gets mixed with mother. Mother develops Rh Sol. : Tunica interna is internally lined by simple
antibodies. During second pregnancy, if the foetus is squamous epithelium.
again Rh+, then these antibodies cross placenta to 177. Answer (2)
foetus and destroy the foetal RBCs. This condition Hint : Serum is plasma minus clotting factor.
is known as erythroblastosis foetalis.
Sol. : Albumin, -globulin and fibrinogen are plasma
169. Answer (4) proteins. Fibrinogen is a clotting factor, which helps
Hint : Thromboplastins are released by damaged in blood clotting.
tissues and platelets. 178. Answer (4)
Sol. : Prothrombin is formed by liver. Inactive Hint : These cells lack organelles called power
prothrombin is converted to active thrombin in house.
presence of thrombokinase & Ca 2+. Fibrinogen
converts into fibrin in the presence of thrombin. Sol. : RBCs undergo anaerobic respiration as they
do not have mitochondria.
170. Answer (2)
179. Answer (4)
Hint. : Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies are present
in plasma of individual with O– blood group. Hint : First heart sound in humans is produced
when pressure in the ventricles rises.
Sol. : Individuals with blood group O– do not have
antigen A and antigen B on their RBC surface and Sol. : First heart sound is LUB and is of longer
individuals with B blood group have B antigen on their duration than second heart sound. During the initial
R.B.C. Individuals with B blood group have anti phase of ventricular systole, the pressure inside the
A antibody. ventricles rises that results into closure of AV-valves.
171. Answer (4) 180. Answer (4)
Hint : RBCs are most abundant cells of blood. Hint : All mammals have complete four chambered
Sol. : Neutrophils are most abundant among heart.
WBCs. Eosinophils are least abundant among given Sol. : In mammals blood passes two times through
cells. Basophils are least abundant blood cells. the heart in a single cardiac cycle.
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