Sie sind auf Seite 1von 34

Solved Paper 2018

BITSAT
Instructions
1. There are 150 questions in all. The number of questions in each part is as given below. No. of Questions
Part I Physics 1-40
Part II Chemistry 41-80
Part III (a) English Proficiency 81-95
(b) Logical Reasoning 96-105
Part IV Mathematics 106-150
2. All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one is correct.
3. Each correct answer fetches 3 marks while incorrect answer has a penalty of 1 mark.

PART I
Physics
1. Two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in parallel and a 3. Steam at 100°C is passed into 1.1 kg of water
time varying current flows as shown in figure. The ratio contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent to 0.2 kg
i at 15°C till the temperature of the calorimeter and its
of current 1 at any time t is contents rises to 80°C. The mass of steam condensed
i2
(in kg) is
i1 L1
a. 0.130 b. 0.065 c. 0.260 d. 0.135

i i 4. Dimension of which base quantity corresponds to that


Gh
of =?
c3
i2 L2 a. Time b. Length
c. Mass d. Temperature
L2 L1 L22 L12
a. b. c. d.
L1 L2 (L1 + L2 )2 (L1 + L2 )2 5. A reservoir is at 827°C and Carnot’s engine takes a
thousand kilocalories of heat from it and exhausts it to a
2. A parallel plate capacitor sink at 27°C. What is the amount of work and the
C with plates of unit area efficiency of the engine?
C
and separation d is filled a. 2.7 ´ 105 cal,70.70% b. 2.72 ´ 105 cal, 72.72%
d R
with a liquid of dielectric d/3 5
constant K = 2, the level c. 2.70 ´ 10 cal, 80.70% d. 3.70 ´ 105 cal, 70.70%
d
of liquid is , initially. 6. A train moves towards stationary observer with speed
3 34 m/s. The train blows whistle and its frequency is
Suppose, the liquid level decreases at a constant registered by the observer as f1. If the train’s speed is
speed v , the time constant as a function of time is reduced to 17 m/s, the frequency registered is f2. If the
6 e0R (15d + 9vt ) e0 R f
a. b. speed of sound is 340 m/s, then the ratio 1 is
5d + 3vt 2d 3 - 3dvt - gv 2t 2 f2
6 e0R (15d - 9vt ) e0 R 19 18
c. d. a. b. c. 2 d. 1/2
5d - 3vt 2d 3 + 3dvt - 9v 2t 2 18 19
2 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
7. An object of mass 5 kg is projected with a velocity b. always constant and is equal to twice the ratio of mass
20 ms -1 at an angle 60°, to the horizontal. At the highest to the charge of electron to the principal quantum
point of its path, the projectile explodes and breaks up number n
into two fragments of masses 1 kg and 4 kg. The c. proportional to the principal quantum number n
fragments separate horizontally after the explosion, 1
d. proportional to 2
which releases internal energy such that the KE of the n
system at the highest point is doubled. The separation
between the two fragments when they reach the 13. Three rods of identical A(T)
ground is cross-sectional area and made
a. 52.25 m b. 44.25 m from the same metal, form the
c. 65.32 m d. 78.76 m
sides of an isosceles triangle
ABC right angled at B as shown
8. An automobile moving with a speed of 36 km/h reaches in figure. The point A and B are 90°
an upward inclined road of angle 30°, its engine B C
maintained at temperature T (Ö2T)
becomes switch off. If the coefficient of friction is 0.1, and 2 T respectively, in the
then how much distance will automobile move before
steady state. Now, assuming that only heat conduction
coming to rest?
takes place. The temperature of point C will be
a. 12.53 m b. 21.42 m
T T 3T 3T
c. 15.43 m d. 8.53 m a. b. c. d.
2+1 2 -1 2+1 ( 2 + 1)
9. In the circuit given below, the value of resistance X ,
when the potential difference between the points B and 14. A resistor R, an inductor
D is zero, will be L, a capacitor C and
voltmeters V1, V2 and V3 V1 V2
B are connected to an
V3
6W X oscillator in the circuit as
shown in the adjoining
~
15 W
8W 3W diagram. When the
e = e0 sin wt
A C frequency of the
oscillation is increased, then at the resonant frequency,
15 W 6W 4W
the voltmeter reading is zero in the case of
4W
a. voltmeter V1 only b. voltmeter V2 only
6W
c. voltmeter V3 only d. All the three voltmeters
D
15. In Young’s double slit experiment, intensity at a point is
æ 1ö
a. 9 W b. 8 W c. 4 W d. 6 W
ç ÷ of the maximum intensity. Angular position of this
è4ø
10. A block of wood floats in water with ( 4 / 5 ) th of its point is
volume submerged. If the same block just floats in a æ lö æ l ö
a. sin-1ç ÷ b. sin-1ç ÷
liquid, the density of liquid in (kg m -3 ) is èd ø è 2d ø
a. 1250 b. 600 c. 400 d. 800 æ l ö æ l ö
c. sin-1ç ÷ d. sin-1ç ÷
è 3d ø è 4d ø
11. As current i flowing through the i
loop as shown in figure. The 16. The bob of simple pendulum is a spherical hollow ball
magnetic field at the centre O is O 2r filled with water. A plugged hole near the bottom of the
7m 0i r oscillating bob get suddenly unplugged. During
a. acting downwards
12 r observation, till water is coming out, the time period of
5m 0i i oscillation would
b. acting upwards
12 r a. first increase and then decrease to the original value
7m 0i b. first decrease and then increase to the original value
c. acting upwards c. remain unchanged
12 r
5m 0i d. increase towards a saturation value
d. acting downwards
12 r 17. At a certain temperature, the number density of charge
carriers in a semiconductor is n. When an electric field is
12. The ratio of angular momentum L to the atomic dipole applied to it, the charge carriers drift with an average
moment m l for hydrogen like atoms and ions is speed v . If the temperature of the semiconductor is
a. always constant and is equal to the ratio of mass to the raised.
charge of electron
SOLVED PAPER 2018 3
a. n will increase butv will decrease 25. Helium gas goes through a cycle ABCDA (consisting of
b. n will decrease butv will increase two isochoric and two isobaric lines) as shown in figure.
c. Both n and v will increase The efficiency of this cycle is approximately
d. Both n and v will decrease
18. Consider the acceleration, velocity and displacement of
2p0 B C
a tennis ball as its falls to the ground and bounces back.
Directions of which of these change in the process?
a. Velocity only
p0 D
b. Displacement and velocity A
c. Acceleration, velocity and displacement
d. Displacement and acceleration
O
Vo 2Vo
19. A convex lens shown in the figure is made up of
two types of transparent materials. A point a. 15.4% b. 9.1% c. 10.5% d. 12.5%
sources of light is placed on its principal axis. If
reflections from the boundaries between layers 26. The frequency and the intensity of incident beam of light
are ignored, the lens will form falling on the surface of a photoelectric material is
a. only one image increased by a factor of two. This will
b. two images a. increase the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected
c. infinite images photoelectrons by a factor of more than two and would
d. no image at all increase the photoelectric current by a factor of two.
b. increase the maximum kinetic energy of the photo
20. If the time period is doubled, then the angular electrons and would increase the photoelectric current
momentum of the body will (provided the moment of both by a factor of two.
inertia of the body is constant)
c. increase the maximum kinetic energy of the
a. remain constant b. quadruple photoelectrons by a factor of two and will have no effect
c. become half d. double on the magnitude of the photoelectric current produced.
21. Breaking stress of a steel wire is p and the density of d. not produce any effect on the kinetic energy of the
steel is r. The greatest length of steel wire that can emitted photoelectrons but will increase the
hang vertically without breaking is photoelectric current by a factor of two.
p p 27. A copper rod of mass m slides
a. b.
rg 2rg under gravity on two smooth B
2p parallel rails l distance apart
c. d. None of these
rg and set an angle q to the VT
horizontal. At the bottom, the
22. A stone is projected with velocity 2 gh , so that it just rails are joined by a resistance R
clears two walls of equal height h, at distance of 2h from R in figure. There is a uniform q i
each other. The time interval of passing between the magnetic field B prependicular
two walls is to the plane of the rails. The terminal velocity of rod is
h 2h h 2h mg R tan q mg R cot q
a. b. c. 2 d. a. b.
g g g g B 2l 2 B 2l 2
mg R sin q mg R cos q
c. d.
23. An object takes n times as much time to slide down a B 2l 2 B 2l 2
45° rough inclined plane as it takes to slide down a
perfectly smooth 45° inclined plane. The coefficient of 28. An asteroid of mass m is approaching earth, initially at a
kinetic friction between the rough plane and the distance 10 Re with speedv i . It hits earth with a speedv f
object is (Re and M e are radius and mass of earth), then
1 1 2Gm æ 1ö
a. n 2 - 1 b. 1 - c. n 2 + 1 d. 1 + a. vf2 = vi2 + ç1 + ÷
n2 n2 Re è 10 ø

24. Some amount of a radioactive substance (half-life 2G Me æ 1ö


b. vf2 = vi2 + ç1 + ÷
= 10 days) is spread inside a room and consequently Re è 10 ø
the level of radiation becomes 50 times the permissible 2GMe æ 1ö
level for normal occupancy of the room. After how many c. vf2 = vi2 + ç1 - ÷
Re è 10 ø
days will the room be safe for occupation?
2Gm æ 1ö
a. 20 days b. 34.8 days d. vf2 = vi2 + ç1 - ÷
Re è 10 ø
c. 56.4 days d. 62.9 days
4 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
29. When photon of energy 4.0 eV strikes the surface of a 33. In the given circuit,
metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have maximum D3
kinetic energyTA eV and de-Broglie wavelength lA . The 5W
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons liberated
from another metal B by photon of energy 4.50 eV is D1
TB = (TA - 1.50) eV. If the de-Broglie wavelength of
these photoelectrons lB = 2lA , then choose the correct 10 W
statement(s). 20 W D2 5W
a. The work function of A is 1.50 eV
b. The work function of B is 4.0 eV
c. TA = 3.2 eV 10 V
d. All of the above The current through battery is
30. A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force a. 0.5 A b. 1 A c. 1.5 A d. 2.5 A
2 34. A trolley having mass of 200 kg moves with uniform
= ( 20t - 5t ) newton (where t is measured in seconds)
applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia of the speed of 36 kmh-1 on a frictionless track. A child of
pulley about its axis of rotation is 10 kg m2 , the number mass 20 kg runs on the trolley from one end to the other
of rotation made by the pulley before its direction of (10 m away) with a speed of 4 ms -1 relative to the trolley
motion is reversed is in a direction opposite to its motion and ultimately jumps
a. more than 3 but less than 6
out of the trolley. With how much velocity has the trolley
moved from the time the child begins to run?
b. more than 6 but less than 9
c. more than 9 a. 10.36 ms-1 b. 11.36 ms-1
d. less than 3 c. 12.36 ms-1 d. 14.40 ms-1
35. A gas has molar heat capacity C = 37.55 J mol-1K -1, in
31. A planoconvex lens has thickness of 4 cm. When
this process pT = constant. The number of degree of
placed on a horizontal table, with the curved surface in
contact with it, the apparent depth of the bottom most freedom of the molecule of gas is
point of the lens is found to be 3 cm. If the lens is a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7
inverted such that the plane face is in contact with the 36. If x , v and a denote the displacement, the velocity and
table, the apparent depth of the centre of the plane face the acceleration of a particle executing SHM of time
25
is found to be cm. The focal length of the lens is period T. Then, which of the following does not change
8 with time?
(assume thickness of lens to be negligible) aT aT
a. b. aT + 2pv c. d. a 2T 2 + 4p 2v 2
a. 85 cm b. 59 cm c. 75 cm d. 7.5 cm x v
32. A spherically symmetric gravitational system of 37. To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil
particles has mass density galvanometer by 50%, its resistance is increased, so
that new resistance becomes twice its initial resistance,
ì r for r £ R
r =í 0 by what factor does its voltage sensitivity change?
î 0 for r > R a. Increases by 15% b. Decreases by 15%
where, r 0 is a constant. A test mass can undergo c. Increases by 25% d. Decreases by 25%
circular motion under the influence of the gravitational 38. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the
field of particles. Its speed v as a function of distance ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a
r ( 0 < r < ¥ ) from the centre of the system is height d / 2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air
represented by resistance, its velocity v varies with height h above the
ground as
v v v v
a. b. d
a. b. d
h h
O O
R r r

v v v v
c. d. d
c. d.
d h h

O r O r
R R
SOLVED PAPER 2018 5
39. In the given circuit, it is observe that the current I is b. R1R4 = R2R3
independent of the value of resistance R 6. Then, the c. R1R2R5 = R3R4R6
resistance value must satisfy
d. R1R3 = R2R4 = R5R6
R6
40. If a drop of liquid breaks into smaller droplets, it results
in lowering of temperature of the droplets. Let a drop of
I R1 R3
radius R, break into N small droplets each of radius r ,
R5
then decrease (drop) in temperature Q¢ (given, specific
heat of liquid drop = S and surface tension =T)
R2 R4 3T é 1 1 ù 2T é 1 1 ù
a. - b. - -
rS êë r R úû rS êë r R úû
2R é 1 1ù 3T é 1 1ù
1 1 1 1 c. - d. -
a. + = × rS êë R r úû rS êë R r úû
R5 R6 R1 + R2 R3 + R4

PART II
Chemistry
41. A metallic element has a cubic lattice. Each edge of the b. Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the melting point
. g cm -3 . The
unit cell is 2Å and the density of metal is 25 of the mixture and brings conductivity.
unit cell in 200 g of metal are c. Al3+ is reduced at the cathode to form Al.
a. 1´ 1024 b. 1´ 1022 d. Na 3AlF6 serves as the electrolyte.
c. 1´ 1020 d. 1´ 1025
47. Which test among the following is not used for the
42. Four gases P, Q, R and S have almost same values of distinction among 1°, 2° and 3° aliphatic amine.
‘b’ but their ‘a’ values (a and b are van der Waals’ a. Hinsberg's reagent test b. Carbylamine reaction
constant) are in the order Q < R < S < P . At a particular c. Azo dye test d. Action with nitrous acid
temperature, among the four gases, the most easily
liquifiable one is 48. The incorrect statement about carbonate (CO2–
3 ) ion is,
a. P b. Q c. R d. S a. It has planar structure
é 0.51 ´ 10-10 ù b. It has one coordinate bond
43. If ê ú metre is the radius of smallest electron c. It has three resonating structure
ë 4 û d. Hydrolysis of CO2-3 ion gives basic solution
orbit in hydrogen like atom, then the atom is
a. hydrogen atom b. He+ 49. Under the same reaction conditions, initial
c. Li2+ d. Be3+ concentration of 1.386 mol dm -3 of a substance
becomes half in 40 s and 20 s through first order and
44. Which of the following is the correct order for the æk ö
wavelength if absorption in the visible region. zero order kinetics, respectively. Ratio çç 1 ÷÷ of the rate
a. [Ni(NO2 )6] 4- < [Ni(NH3 )6] 2+ < [Ni(H2O)6] 2+ è k0 ø
of constants for first order (k1) and zero order (k 0 ) of the
b. [Ni(NO2 )6] 4- < [Ni(H2O)6] 2+ < [Ni(NH3 )6] 2+
reaction is
c. [Ni(H2O)6] 2+ < [Ni(NH3 )6] 2+ < [Ni(NO2 )6] 4- a. 0.5 mol-1dm3 b. 1.0 mol dm-3
2+ 2+ 4-
d. [Ni(NH3 )6] < [Ni(H2O)6] < [Ni(NO2 )6] c. 1.5 mol dm-3 d. 2.0 mol-1dm3
45. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a 50. Which substance has a dipole moment?
compound are CH2O and 180g respectively. The a. CCl4 b. CH2Cl2
molecular formula of the compound will be
c. C2Cl2 d. C2Cl4
a. C9H18O9 b. CH2O
c. C6H12O6 d. C2H4O2 51. Enthalpy of combustion of methane and ethane are
-210 kcal/mol and -368 kcal/mol respectively. The
46. In the context of the Hall-Heroult process for the enthalpy of combustion of decane is
extraction of Al, which of the following statement is a. - 1582 kcal b. - 1632 kcal
incorrect.
c. - 1700 kcal d. - 1480 kcal
a. CO and CO2 are produced in the process.
6 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
52. The correct sequence of reagents for the following a. The equivalent weight of MeCHO is 22.
conversion will be –
b. Three moles of O H are required in the reaction.
O c. MeCHO acts as an oxidising agent.
d. [Ag(NH3 )2] + gets reduced.
C CH CH3
60. Which of the following graph is correctly represented
according to Freundlich isotherm.
a. O3 / Red P, AlCl3, MeCOOH
b. H2SO4 + HgSO4, H2O / Heat

log x/m

log x/m
c. O3 / Zn - AcOH, H2SO4 + HgSO4 / H2O / Heat
-
a. b.
d. CH3COOH, H2O2 + OH / H2O

53. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of


log p log p
600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainly with
which the position of the electron can be located is
(h = 6.6 ´ 10-34 kg m 2s -1 , mass of electron,

log x/m

log x/m
em = 9.1´ 10 - 31 kg) c. d.
a. 1.52 ´ 10-4 m b. 5.10 ´ 10-3 m
c. 1.92 ´ 10-3 m d. 3.84 ´ 10-3 m
log p log p
54. Which of the following diatomic molecules would be
stabilised by the removal of an electron? 61. pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value
a. C2 b. CN of its K sp is
c. N2 d. O2 a. 3.3 ´ 10-7 M b. 5.0 ´ 10-7 M
55. 0.5F of electricity is through 500 mL of copper sulphate c. 4.0 ´ 10-6 M d. 5.0 ´ 10-6 M
solution. The amount of copper which can be deposited
62. An unsaturated hydrocarbon ‘X ’ gives white precipitate
will be
with Tollen's reagent. If X is gaseous in nature, the
a. 63.5g b. 31.75g molecular formula of X is
c. 15.80g d. unpredictable a. C3H6 b. C2H4
56. Consider the following sequence of reactions. c. C2H2 d. C4H8
PCl5 Alc. KOH Conc. H 2 SO4
Z ¾ ¾¾® X ¾ ¾ ¾¾® Y ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® Z 63. The rate of a reaction triples when temperature
2H 2 O/ D
changes from 20°C to 50°C. The energy of activation for
‘Z ’ is the reaction is (R = 8.314 JK –1 mol-1)
a. CH3CH2CH2OH b. (CH)2 COH a. 181327
. J mol-1
c. CH3 — C H — CH3 d. None of these b. 428.141J mol-1
| c. 32.4321kJ mol-1
OH
d. 28.8118 kJ mol-1
57. An equilibrium mixture at 300K contains N2O4 and NO2
at 0.28 and 1.1 atm pressure, respectively. If the 64. Which of the following compound will give blood red
volume of the container is doubled, the new equilibrium colour while doing the Lassaigne's test for N.
pressure of these two gases are respectively. a. (NH2 )C == O b. H2N (C6H4 )SO3H
a. 0.064 atm and 0.095 atm c. C6H5SO3H d. CHCl3
b. 0.64 atm and 0.095 atm
c. 0.095 atm and 0.632 atm 65. For a reaction, A + B 2+ ¾® B + A 2+ , at 25°C
d. 0.095 atm and 0.64 atm E ° = 0.2955 V. The value of K eq is
58. Which among the following actinoids does not have a. 10 b. 1010
stable electronic configuration c. -10 d. 10-10
a. Protactinium b. Nobelium 66. Which of the following is the correct order of stability of
c. Americium d. Lawrencium conformations for NH2 ¾ CH2 ¾ CH2 ¾ OH.
59. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding a. gauche > eclipsed > anti
the equation b. gauche > anti > eclipsed

c. eclipsed > gauche > anti
MeCHO + [Ag(NH3 )2] + + O H ¾® MeCOO- + Ag d. anti > eclipsed > gauche
SOLVED PAPER 2018 7
67. When H2S gas is passed into a mixture of Mn2+ , Ni2+ , a. chromate ions reduced
2+ 2+
Cu and Hg ion in an acidified aqueous solution, the b. chromate ions are oxidised
precipitates formed are c. monocentric complex is converted into dicentric
complex
a. CuS and HgS
d. oxygen gets removed from chromate ions
b. MnS and CuS
c. MnS and NiS 74. Valence electrons in the element A are 3 and that in
d. NiS and HgS element B and 6. Most probable compound formed
from A and B is
68. A mixture of bromo trichloride and hydrogen is
subjected to silent electric discharge to form x and HCl. a. A2B b. AB2 c. A6B3 d. A2B3
x is mixed with NH3 and heated to 200°C to form y . The 75. In non-reducing disaccharide, the reducing group of
formula of y is monosaccharides i.e. aldehydic or ketonic group are
a. B2O3 b. B3N3H6 bounded.
c. H3BO3 d. B2H6 Which of the following disaccharide is a non-reducing
sugar?
69. Which of the following reactions increases the
production of dihydrogen from synthesis gas? CH2OH CH2OH
1270K O H O
a. CH4(g ) + H2O(g) ¾¾®
Ni
CO (g ) + 3H2(g ) H H H
a. H H
1270 K OH H OH H
b. C(s ) + H2O(g) ¾¾® CO (g ) + H2(g ) HO O OH
673 K
c. CO (g ) + H2O(g) ¾¾¾® CO2 (g ) + H2(g ) H OH H OH
Catalyst

1270K CH2OH
d. C2H6 + 2H2O ¾¾® 2CO + 5H2
Ni O
H H
70. When the heat of a reaction at constant pressure is b. H CH2OH H
-3 OH H O
-25
. ´ 10 cal and entropy change for the reaction is HO O H HO
7.4 cal deg -1, it is predicted that the reaction at 25°C is CH2OH
a. revesible b. spontaneous H OH
OH H
c. non-spontaneous d. irreversible
CH2OH CH2OH
71. The addition of HBr to 1-butene gives a mixture of O O
HO HO H
products x , y and z.
c. H H
Br C2H5 OH H O OH H
H H H
C C CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2Br
H OH H OH
H5C2 CH3 H CH3 CH2OH CH2OH
H Br
(X) (Y) (Z ) HO O
H
O
OH
H
The mixture consists of d. OH H O OH H
a. x and y as major and z as minor products HO H H
b. y as major, x and z as minor products
H OH H OH
c. y as minor, x and z as major products
d. x and y as minor and z as major products 76. Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solution will have
lowest freezing point?
72. The correct statement about silicone is a. Potassium sulphate b. Sodium chloride
a. They are ketones with silyl group (SiH3 ) similar to alkyl, c. Urea d. Glucose
(SiH3 )2 CO. 77. A penicillin is a member of a family of drugs that have a
b. They are synthetic polymer containing repeated R2SiO2 a. four membered cyclic amide fused to a five membered
units. thiazole ring.
c. They are formed by hydrolysis of R2SiCl2. b. three membered cyclic amide fused to a five-membered
d. All of the above thiazole ring
c. four-membered cyclic amide fused to have a four
73. When dil. sulphuric acid reacts with aqueous solution of membered thiazole ring.
potassium chromate, the colour changes from yellow to d. five-membered cyclic amide fused to have a five
orange. This shows that membered thiazole ring
8 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
78. Which of the following property of alkaline earth metal 80. Match the polymer given in column I with correct
increases with their atomic number? monomer of column II and choose the correct option.
a. electronegativity Column I Column II
b. solubility of their hydroxides in water
c. solubility of their sulphate in water A. Neoprene I. Isoprene
d. ionisation energy B. Natural rubber II. Tetrafluoro ethane
79. Which of the following expression is correct for the rate C. Teflon III. Chloroprene
of reaction given below ? D. Acrilan IV. Acrylnitrite
-
5Br (aq ) + BrO3- (aq ) +
+ 6H (aq ) ¾® 3Br2(aq ) + 3H2O(l )
D[Br - ] 5 D[H ] +
D[Br - ] 6 D[H+ ] Codes
a. = b. = A B C D A B C D
Dt 6 Dt Dt 5 Dt
a. IV III II I b. I II III IV
D[Br - ] 5D[H+ ] D[Br - ] 6D[H+ ]
c. = d. = c. III I II IV d. II IV I II
Dt Dt Dt Dt

Part III
a. English Proficiency
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-83) In the following questions, the Directions (Q. Nos. 89-90) Choose the word nearest in
sentences may or may not be grammatically correct. Find out meaning to the underlined word.
which part of a sentence has an error and mark that part. If
there is no error mark part ‘d’ as your answer. 89. Before I could make out anything he had spoken again.
a. find out b. apprehend
81. The captain along with his team (a)/are practising very c. explain d. reveal
hard (b)/ for the forthcoming match. (c)/ No error (d).
90. He wrote a scathing review of the prize winning novel.
82. I am going (a)/to have this certificate (b)/attest by the
a. biased b. scornful
director. (c)/No error (d).
c. unbalanced d. subjective
83. He is (a)/ having many (b)/friends here.(c)/No error…(d).
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Read the passage given below
Directions (Q. Nos. 84-85) Fill in the blanks with suitable and answer the questions that follow.
preposition from the alternatives given under each sentence. The megalomaniac differs from the narcissist by the fact that he
84. Is not learning superior ................... wealth? wishes to be powerful rather than charming and seeks to be
feared rather than loved. To this type belong many lunatics and
a. than b. from
most of the great men in history. Love of power, like vanity, is a
c. by d. to
strong element in normal human nature and as such is to be
85. He could not cope .................... the heavy workload. accepted; it becomes deplorable only when it is excessive or
a. in with b. up with associated with an insufficient sense of reality. Where this
c. up d. with occurs, it makes a man unhappy or foolish, if not both. The
lunatic who thinks he is crowned head may be, in a sense,
Directions (Q. Nos. 86-88) Select the word or the phrase
happy, but his happiness is not of a kind that any sane person
which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the italicized
word or phrase.
would envy. Alexander the Great was psychologically of the
same type as the lunatic, though he possessed the talent to
86. He was in a dejected mood. achieve the lunatic’s dream.
a. jubiliant b. rejected He could not, however, achieve his own dream, which
c. irritable d. romantic enlarged his scope as his achievement grew. When it became
87. The attack on the freedom of the press is a retrograde clear that he was the greatest conqueror known to fame, he
step. decided that he was a God. Was he a happy man ? His
a. progressive b. stubborn drunkenness, his furious rages, his indifference to women and
c. punitive d. aggressive
his claim to divinity, suggest that he was not. There is no
ultimate satisfaction in the cultivation of one element of
88. We should not belittle the value of small things. human nature at the expense of all the others, nor in viewing
a. extal b. praise all the world as raw material for the magnificence of one’s own
c. inflate d. expand ego.
SOLVED PAPER 2018 9
91. What is the difference between an ordinary 93. In ‘‘Where this occurs it makes a man..... if not both,’’
megalomaniac and a megalomaniac like Alexander the ‘this’ refers to
Great? a. vanity b. lunacy
a. The ordinary megalomaniac does not have excessive c. love of power d. excessive lover of power
desire for power which Alexander the Great had
94. Which among the following is the reason for
b. The ordinary megalomaniac does not have the talent to unhappiness?
realise his wish which Alexander the Great had
a. Dealing with the raw material of the world
c. The ordinary megalomaniac is a lunatic while Alexander b. Realising one’s dream as a megalomaniac
the Great was not a lunatic c. The nurturing of only one element in human nature
d. The ordinary megalomaniac is not great while d. Being indifferent towards women
Alexander the Great was great
95. Why has love of power to be accepted?
92. How does a megalomaniac differ from a narcissist? a. Because it can become unreal
a. By wishing to be charming and feared b. Because it is an excess in human nature
b. By wishing to be loved and not feared c. Because it is a part of human nature
c. By wishing to be powerful and not feared d. Because it is vanity in human nature
d. By wishing to be powerful and feared

b. Logical Reasoning
96. ‘Umpire’ is related to ‘Match’ in the same way as ‘Judge’ 101. Find out which of the figure (a), (b), (c) and (d) can be
is related to formed from the pieces given in question figures.
a. Bar council b. Lawyer Questions figure
c. Judgement d. Lawsuit
97. Find the odd one from the following options.
a. 9, 49 b. 13, 121
c. 10, 61 d. 7, 25
98. Complete the series by replacing question mark ‘?’. Answer figures
10, 9, 16, 45, 176, ?
a. 815 b. 222
c. 555 d. 875
99. In a cricket team, Dhoni is taller than Virat but not as tall
a. b. c. d.
as Raina, Rohit is shorter than Dhoni but taller than
Shikhar. Who among them is the shortest? 102. In this question, a piece of paper is folded and then cut
a. Dhoni as shown below. The dotted lines shown are the portion
b. Virat which have been folded.
c. Shikhar The curve arrow shows the directions of folding. And
d. Cannot be determined the number of scissors beneath the figure show the
number of portions cut. From the given responses,
100. Identify the missing part of the question figure and indicate how it will appear when opened. The opening is
select it from given answer figures. in the same order as folding.
Question figures Question figures

Answer figures Answer figures

a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d.
10 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
103. Which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) or (d) completes Question figure
the figure matrix ?
Questions figures

Answer figures

a. b.
?

Answer figures

c. d.

a. b. c. d.
105. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
104. In the following question, one or more dots are place in
the question figure.
This figure is followed by four alternatives marked as
(a), (b), (c) and (d). One out of these four options
contains region(s) common to circle, square and
triangles, similar to that marked by the dot in question
figure. Find that figure. a. 16 b. 20 c. 12 d. 22

Part IV
Mathematics
æ 1ö
n
½ sin q cos q 0 ½
106. The coefficient of x -n in (1 + x )n ç 1 + ÷ is
è xø 110. If x =½- cos q sin q 1 ½,
2
then the value of
½ ½
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2n
d. 2n ½ sin q cos q 2 ½
3p
20 4x 2 + x sin + 5 is
æ 1 ö 2
107. The greatest term in the expansion of 3 ç 1 + ÷ is
è 3ø a. 13 - 2 b. 13 + 2
26840 24840 c. 2 - 13 d. Both (a) and (b)
a. b.
9 9
25840 111. If a , b , c are in GP and log a - log 2b ,log 2b - log 3c and
c. d. None of these
9 log 3c - log a are in AP, then a , b and c are the lengths
of the sides of a triangle, which is
108. The nth roots of unity are in
a. equilateral b. right angled
a. AP b. GP
c. acute-angled d. obtuse angled
c. HP d. None of these
n
n(n + 1)(n + 2)(n + 3 )
éa b c ù 112. If å tr = , where tr denotes the r th
109. If P = êb c a ú, abc = P T P = I , then the value of r =1 8
ê ú n
1
êëc a b úû term of a series, then lim
n ®¥
åt is
a 3 + b 3 + c 3 is r =1r
1 1 1
a. 2 b. 1 c. 0 d. 5 a. b. c. d. 1
8 4 2
SOLVED PAPER 2018 11
113. Which of the following statement is a tautology? 121. The area of the triangle formed by joining the origin to
a. ( p Ú q ) Ú (~ p ) the point of intersection of the line x 5 + 2y = 3 5 and
b. (~ q Ù p ) Ú ( p Ú ~ p ) circle x 2 + y 2 = 10 is
c. Both (a) and (b) a. 3 b. 4
d. None of the above c. 5 d. 6
114. If a parallelogram is cut by two sets of m lines parallel to 122. Radius of the largest circle which passes through the
its sides, then the number of parallelogram thus focus of the parabola y 2 = 4x and contained in it, is
formed, is
a. 8 b. 4
a. m C2 ´ mC2 b. 2(m + 2C2 )
c. 2 d. 5
c. (m + 2C2 )2 d. None of these
x2 y2
æ pö
2 123. A tangent drawn to hyperbola -
= 1 at P ç ÷
115. The inverse of the function f (x ) = loga (x + x + 1) a b2 2
è6 ø
(where, a < 0, a ¹ 1) is forms a triangle of area 3a 2 square units, with
1 x coordinate axes. If the eccentricity of hyperbola is e,
a. (a - a - x ) b. not defined for all x
2 then the value of e 2 - 9 is
c. defined for x > 0 d. None of these a. 9 b. 10
¥
2n c. 11 d. 8
116. The value of S = å tan-1 n 4 + n 2 + 2 is equal to 124. If the sum of squares of distances of a point from the
n =1
p planes x + y + z = 0, x - z = 0 and x - 2y + z = 0 is p 2,
a. b. p then locus of the point is
2
p a. x 2 + z 2 = p 2
c. d. None of these
4 b. x 2 + 2xy + y 2 + z 2 = p 2
117. Equation sin x + cos(t + x ) + cos(t - x ) = 2 has real c. x + y + z = p 2
solution, then sint can be d. x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = p 2
1 1
a. b. (x + 1) (z + 2)
2 5 125. Line = y - 1= is perpendicular to
3 -3 l -4
c. d. 2x + 2y - 8z + 5 = 0, then l is
4 4
a. 1 b. -4
118. A line makes angles a, b, g with the coordinate axes. If c. -5 d. -3
p
a + b = , then (cos a + cos b + cos g )2 is equal to 126. OPQR is a square and M , N are the middle points of the
2
sides PQ and QR respectively, then the ratio of the
a. 1 + cos 2a b. 1 - sin 2a
areas of the square and D OMN is
c. 1 + sin 2a d. None of these a. 4 : 1 b. 2 : 1
c. 8 : 3 d. 4 : 3
119. Straight lines 3x + 4 y = 5 and 4x - 3 y = 15 intersect at
the point A. If point B and C are chosen on these two 127. The line passing through the extremity A of the major
lines such that AB = AC , then the possible equation of axis and extremity B of the minor axis of the ellipse
the line BC passing through the point (1, 2) is x 2 + 9 y 2 = 9 meets its auxiliary circle at the point M .
a. x + 7y + 13 = 0 or 7x + y + 9 = 0 Then, the area of the triangle with vertices at A, M and
b. x + 7y + 13 = 0 or 7x + 2y + 7 = 0 the origin O is
31 29
c. x - 7y + 13 = 0 or 7x + y - 9 = 0 a. b.
10 10
d. None of the above 21 27
c. d.
120. Normals drawn to y 2 = 4ax at the points where it is 10 10
intersected by the line y = mx + c intersected at P . 128. If e1 and e2 are the eccentricities of a hyperbola
Coordinates of foot of the another normal drawn to the
parabola from the point ‘P ’ is 3x 2 - 3 y 2 = 25 and its conjugate, then
æ a 2a ö 9 6a a. e12 + e 22 = 2
a. ç 2 , - ÷ b. ,-
èm mø m m b. e12 + e 22 = 4
æ 4a 4a ö c. e1 + e 2 = 4
c. (am 2, - 2am ) d. ç 2 , - ÷
èm mø d. e1 + e 2 = 2
12 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
129. Let f :R ® R be a function satisfying cos 3x x4 1
c. - + ex + + x +1
2 9 12 3
f (x + y ) = f (x ) + 2y + kxy for all x , y Î R . If f (1) = 2 and
f ( 2) = 8, then f (x ) is equal to d. None of the above
a. 2x 2 b. 6x - 4 137. For which interval the given function
2
c. x + 3x - 2 d. -x 2 + 9x - 6 f (x ) = - 2x 3 - 9x 2 - 12x + 1 is decreasing?
a. ( -2, ¥ ),
130. If the planes r ( 2i$ - l$j + 3k$ ) = 0 and r × ( l $i + 5 $j - k$ ) = 5
b. ( -2, - 1)
are perpendicular to each other, then the value of l2 + l
c. ( -¥ , - 1)
is
d. ( -¥ , - 2) or ( -1, ¥ )
a. 0 b. 2
c. 1 d. 3 138. If q is the angle between the vectors 4(i - k ) and
131. Solution of the differential equation i$ + j$ + k$ , then (sin q + cos q ) equals to
dy 1
= sin(x + y ) + cos(x + y ) is equal to a. 0 b. c. 1 d. 2
dx 2
æ x +yö
a. logç 2 + sec ÷ =x + C 139. In a DABC, D , E , F are the mid-points of the sides BC,
è 2 ø ¾®
b. log(1 + tan(x + y )) = x + C CA and AB respectively, the vector AD is equal to
¾® ¾® ¾® ¾®
æ x +yö a. BE + CF b. BE - CF
c. logç1 + tan ÷ =y + C
è 2 ø ¾® ¾® ¾® ¾®
æ x +yö c. CF - BE d. - BE - CF
d. logç1 + tan ÷ =x + C
è 2 ø 140. The arithmetic mean of a set of observation is X . If each
1 3 observation is divided by a and increased by 10, then
132. The value of a, so that lim (e ax - e x - x ) = , is the mean of the new series is
x ®0 x 2 2
X X + 10
a. 1 b. 0 a. b.
c. 4 d. 2 a a
X + 10a
133. An inverted conical flask is being filled with water at the c. d. aX + 10
a
rate of 3 cm 3 /sec. The height of the flask is 10 cm and
the radius of the base is 5 cm. How fast is the water 141. If h is the altitude of a parallelopiped determined by the
level rising when the level is 4 cm? vectors a, b, c and the base is taken to be the
4 3 parallelogram determined by a and b where
a. p cm/sec b. cm/sec
3 4p a = $i + $j + k$ , b = 2$i + 4 $j - k$ and c = $i + $j + 3k$ , then the
3p 4 value of 19h 2 is
c. cm/sec d. cm/sec
4 3p a. 19 b. 16
134. The equation of the curve whose slope at any point is c. 8 d. None of these
¾®
equal to y + 2x and which passes through the origin is
142. The mean and variance of a Binomial distribution ( BD)
a. y = 2(x - 1) b. y = 2(e - x - 1)
x
¾®
c. y = 2(e x - 1) d. y = 2(e x x - 1) for 3 trials is 2.7, then the BD is given by
a. ( 0.2 + 0.8)5 b. ( 0.3 + 0.7)5
ìï p 1 c. ( 0.4 + 0.6) 5
d. None of these
135. Let f (x ) = í x sin x , x ¹ 0, then f (x ) is continuous but
ïî 0, x = 0 dx
143. Let P (x ) = ò ,
not differentiable at x = 0, if e x + 8e - x + 4e -3 x
a. p < 0 b. p = 0
dx
c. 0 < p £ 1 d. p ³ 1 Q(x ) = ò and R (x ) = P (x ) - 2Q(x ).
e 3 x + 8e x + 4e - x
136. The solution of the differential equation
1 æ B + 2e - x ö
d 2y 2 If R (x ) = Aç ÷ + K , then the value of ( A, B , C )
= sin 3x + e + x when y 1 ( 0) = 1 and y ( 0) = 0, is 2 çè ÷
x
C ø
dx 2
sin 3x x4 1 is
a. - + ex + + x -1 a. (tan-1, 2, e x ) b. (tan-1, e x , 2)
9 12 3
sin 3x x4 1 æ 1 1ö æ 1 1ö
b. - + ex + + x c. ç tan-1, , x ÷ d. ç tan-1, x , ÷
9 12 3 è 2 e ø è e 2ø
SOLVED PAPER 2018 13
1
144. The value of ò cot -1 (1 - x + x 2 )dx is 147. In a test an examiner either guesses or copies or knows
0 the answer to a multiple choice question with 4 choices.
a. log 2 1
The probability that he/she makes a guess is . The
p 3
b. - log 2
2 1
probability that he/she copies the answer is . If the
p 6
c. + log 2
2 probability that the answer is correct, given that he/she
d. - log 2 1
copied, it is , then the probability that he/she knows
8
145. The area of the region included between the curves the answer to a question given that he/she correctly
x 2 + y 2 = a 2 and | x | + | y | = a (a > 0), is answered it, is
2ö 27 26
æ a. b.
a. ç p - ÷a 2 sq units 29 29
è 3ø
25 24
æ 2 ö c. d.
b. ç - p ÷a 2 sq units 29 29
è3 ø
2 2 148. If p : 4 is an even prime number, q : 6 is a divisor of 12
c. pa sq units and r : the HCF of 4 and 6 is 2, then which of the
3
following is correct?
æ 2ö
d. ç p + ÷a 2 sq units a. ( p Ù q ) b. ( p Ú q ) Ù ~ r
è 3ø
c. ~ (q Ù r ) Ú p d. ~ p Ú (q Ù r )
146. Let A and B are two independent events. If the
1 149. The maximum value of Z = 4x + 2y subject to
probability that both A and B occur together is and the
6 constraints 2x + 3 y £ 18, x + y ³ 10 and x , y ³ 0 is
1 a. 20 b. 36
probability that neither of them occurs is , then the
3 c. 40 d. None of these
probability of occurrence of A is
1 1
150. The coordinates of the point at which minimum value of
a. 0 or 1 b. or Z = 7x - 8 y subject to constraints x + y - 20 £ 0, y ³ 5,
2 3 x ³ 0, y ³ 0 is attained, is
1 1 1 1
c. or d. or a. (20, 0) b. (15, 5)
2 4 3 4 c. (0, 5) d. (0, 20)
Answers
Physics
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d)

Chemistry
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (c)

English Proficiency
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (c) 95. (c)

Logical Reasoning
96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (c) 101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (b) 105. (b)

Mathematics
106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (b) 109. (a) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (a)
116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (c) 120. (d) 121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (d) 125. (a)
126. (c) 127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (d) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (c)
136. (a) 137. (d) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (c) 141. (c) 142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (b) 145. (a)
146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (d) 149. (d) 150. (d)
SOLUTIONS
Physics
1. (a) As the inductors are in parallel, induced emf across the 4. (b) As, gravitational constant,
two inductors is the same, i.e. [G] = [ M-1L3T -2]
e1 = e 2
Planck’s constant, [h] = [ ML2T -1]
æ di ö æ di ö
L1ç 1 ÷ = L2 ç 2 ÷ Hence, [G] [h] = [M-1L3T -2] [ML2T -1]
è dt ø è dt ø
On integrating both sides, we get = [M0L5T -3]
di di Velocity of light, [c ] = [LT -1]
L1ò 1 = L2 ò 2
dt dt Now,
L1ii = L2i2 é Gh ù
1/ 2
[L5T -3]1/2
êë c 3 úû =
Þ
i1 L2
= [L3T -3]1/2
i2 L1
= [L2]1/2 = [L]
2. (a) We have, the time constant, t = RC ¢ …(i) Hence, [L] = length
C1C2
Now, C ¢ = 5. (b) Given, Q = 10 cal6
C1 + C2
T1 = 827°C = ( 827 + 273) = 1100 K
æ Ae0 ö æ KA e0 ö
çç ÷ç ÷ T2 = 27°C = ( 27 + 273) = 300 K
è d - x ÷ø è x ø
= Q1 Q 2
A e0 KA e0 As, =
+ T1 T2
d -x x
T2 300
KAe0 \ Q2 = Q1 = ´ 106
\ C¢ = T1 1100
x + K (d - x )
= 2.72 ´ 105 cal
Putting the value of C ¢ in Eq. (i), we get
R K A e0 é d ù Efficiency of the engine,
t= êëQ x = 3 - vt úû
d æ d ö æ T ö
- vt + k çd - + vt ÷ h = çç1 - 2 ÷÷ ´ 100
3 è 3 ø è T1 ø
Given, A = 1and K = 2 æ 300 ö
h = ç1 - ÷ ´ 100
3 ´ 2 e0 ´ R 6 R e0 è 1100 ø
\ t= =
d - 3vt + 6d - 2d + 6vt 5d + 3vt = 72.72%
3. (a) According to principle of calorimetry, 6. (a) According to Doppler’s effect, the approximate
heat gained = heat lost frequency heard by the stationary observer,
Heat is lost by steam in two stages n=
v
n0
(i) Change of state from steam at 100°C to water at 100°C is v - vs
m ´ 540. Case (i) vs = 34 m/s
(ii) To change water at 100°C to water at 80°C is where, v = speed of sound in air,
m ´ 1 ´ (100 - 80), where m is the mass of the steam us = speed of source
condensed. and v 0 = frequency of the source.
Total heat lost by steam is 340
\ n1 = n0
m ´ 540 + m ´ 20 = m (540 + 20) = 560 m 340 - 34
Heat gained by calorimeter and its contents is 340
= n0 … (i)
. + 0.2) ´ ( 80 - 15) = 1.12 ´ 65 cal
(11 306
Þ 560 m = 1.12 ´ 65 Case (ii) vs = 17 m/s
1.12 ´ 65 340 340
Þ m= = 0.130 kg \ n2 = n0 = n0 … (ii)
560 340 - 17 323
16 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 1
(mg sin q + mR ) ´ s = mu 2
n1 340 / 306 323 19 2
\ = Þ »
n 2 340 / 323 306 18 1
(mg sin q + m mg cos q) ´s = mu 2
2
7. (b) Given, m = 5 kg, v = 20 ms-1, q = 60° 1
mu 2
Vertical component of velocity,v y = v sin 60° 2 u2
s = =
3 mg(sin q + m cos q) 2g (sin q + m cos q)
= 20 ´ = 10 3 ms-1
2 10 ´ 10
= = 8.53 m
Time taken to reach the highest point = Time taken to reach 2 ´ 10 ´ (sin 30° + 0.1 cos 30° )
the ground from highest point. 8X
9. (b) P = 15 + 6 = 21W, Q = +3
v sin q v y 10 3 8+X
t= = = = 177
. s
g g 9.8 6 ´6 4 ´4
R = 15 + = 18 W, S = 4 + = 6W
If the highest point, m splits up into two parts of masses 6+ 6 4+ 4
m1 = 1 kg and m2 = 4 kg. P R PS 21 ´ 6
As, = , so Q = = = 7W
If their velocities v1 and v 2 respectively, then applying the Q S R 18
principle of conservation of linear momentum, we get 8X
3+ = 7 Þ X = 8W
m1v1 + m2v 2 = mv cos q 8+X
1
v1 + v 2 = 5 ´ 20 ´ [Q q = 60° ] 10. (d) Let V be the volume of the block. When block floats in
2
æ4 ö
v1 + 4v 2 = 5 ´ 10 = 50 … (i) water, then Vr block g = ç V ÷ r water g
è5 ø
1
Initial KE = m (v cos q)2 4
2 or r block = r water …(i)
5
1
= ´ 5 ´ (10)2 = 250 J When block floats in liquid.
2
Final KE = 2 (initial KE) = 2 ´ 250 = 500 J Vr block g = Vr liquid g
1 1 r block = r liquid
\ m1v12 + m2v 22 = 500 4
2 2 r liquid = r water [from Eq. (i)]
1 1 5
or ´ 1 ´ v12 + ´ 4 ´ v 22 = 500 4
2 2 = ´ 103 kg m-3
or v12 + 4v 22 = 1000 … (ii) 5
= 800 kg m-3
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
v1 = 30 m/s, v 2 = 5 m/s p
11. (d) The angle, subtended by arc DE at O is and FC at
Hence, the separation between the two fragments 2
3p
= (v1 - v 2 ) ´ t = ( 30 - 5) ´ 177
. m = 44.25 m O= the effective magnetic field at O is
2
8. (d) Given, initial speed, u = 36 km/h B = BDE + BFC
36 ´ 1000
= = 10 ms-1 l
60 ´ 60

R O 2r D
m
r C
B

F i
s in q
mg
q E
q
A C m0i p m 0i æ 3p ö
= ´ + ´ç ÷
mg mg cos q 4p 3r 2 4pr è 2 ø
m 0i é 1 ù
q = 30°, m = 0.1, s = ? = + 3ú
8r êë 3 û
Here, work done in moving up the inclined road
5m 0i
= KE of the vehicle = acting downwards
12 r
1
(mg sin q + F )s = mu 2
2
SOLVED PAPER 2018 17
12. (a) The electron moving with a speed v in the circular Bohr Putting the value of Dx in Eq. (i), we get
orbit of radius r constitutes a current of magnitude. l
sin q =
3d
æ l ö
v q = sin-1ç ÷
e–
è 3d ø
r 16. (a) The bob filled completely with water has its centre of
mass at its centre. The time period of oscillation is
l
mi
T = 2p
g
e As the water starts coming out of the bob, its centre of mass
i= , where T is the orbital period of the electron.
T shifts vertically downward as a result effective length of the
T = 2p r / v pendulum increases and hence its period also increases.
ev When the bob is empty, again its centre of mass appears at
i= its centre and as a result, the period of oscillation again
2pr
reaches to its original value.
By definition of atomic dipole moment m l , its magnitude is
given by 17. (a) On raising the temperature of the semiconductor,
covalent bonds start breaking up and thus more charge
ev evr
m l = iA = × pr 2 = carriers release. This will increase the value of n and as a
2pr 2
result the rate of collision of charge carriers will increase.
\ Angular momentum, L = mvr This will decrease the drift speedv.
L 2mvr 2m
\ = = = constant 18. (b) When a tennis ball falls on the ground and bounces
ml evr e
back, its velocity and displacement changes in reverse
13. (c) Let T0 be the temperature of point C and x be the length direction while acceleration remains unchanged.
of rod AB or BC.
19. (b) Since, the lens is made up of two kinds of transparent
Then, CA = x 2 + x 2 = 2 x material, it has two refractive indices for the incident beam
of light. Hence, there will be two focal lengths of the lens and
At steady state, the rate of heat flowing from B to C = rate of
therefore two images will be observed.
heat flowing from C to A.
KA( 2 T - T0 ) KA (T0 - T ) 20. (c) As we know,
So, = L = Iw
x 2x
2p
2 ( 2 T - T0 ) = T0 - T Þ L =I ´
T
3T 1
By solving, T0 = Lµ
( 2 + 1) T
1 Given, T2 = 2T
14. (b) At resonance, XL = XC or wL =
wC L1 2T
Hence, =
L2 T
Voltage across the series L-C combination,
L1
V2 = i (XL - XC ) = 0 Þ L2 =
2
æ fö
15. (c) I = I max cos2 ç ÷ Maximum weight
è 2ø 21. (a) Maximum stress =
Cross- sectional area
I max f
= I max cos2 Now, maximum weight of steel wire
4 2
= Volume ´ Density ´ g
f 1
cos = = A lrg
2 2
f p where, l is the maximum length of steel wire that can hang
= vertically without breaking, r is the density of steel and A is
2 3
2p æ 2p ö the cross-sectional area of steel wire.
Þ f= = ç ÷ ´ Dx … (i) A lrg
3 è l ø \ Maximum stress, p = = lrg
A
where, Dx = d sin q p
\ l=
rg
18 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
22. (c) 2h = ut 2s 2s
and t¢ = =
2h a g sin q - m k g cos q
ux = [Q u = u x , t = Dt ] … (i)
Dt
t¢ g sin q
1 2 Now, =n =
h = uy t - gt t g sin q - m k g cos q
2
sin 45°
y =
uy sin 45° - m k cos 45°
v 1
=
1- mk
h 1 1
x Þ 2
= 1- mk Þ mk = 1- 2
ux n n
2h
24. (c) Since, the initial activity is 50 times the activity for safe
gt 2 - 2u y t + 2h = 0
occupancy, therefore R0 = 50 R, where R = l N.
2u y + 4u y2 - 8gh Since, R µ N
t1 = n t /T
2g R N æ 1ö æ 1ö
= =ç ÷ =ç ÷
2u y - 4u y2 - 8gh R0 N0 è 2 ø è 2ø
t2 = t /10
2g æ 1ö 1
or ç ÷ =
è 2ø 50
4 u y2 - 8gh
Dt = t1 - t 2 = t
g ( 2)t /10 = 50 Þ log10 2 = log10 50
10
g 2 ( D t )2 10 log10 50 10 ´ 1699.
u y2 = + 2gh Þ t= = = 56.4 days
4 2
log10 0.301
u x2 + u y2 = u 2 = ( 2 gh )2
25. (a) Helium is monoatomic gas, for which
4h 2 g 2 ( D t )2 3 5
+ + 2gh = 4gh CV = R, Cp = R
(Dt )2 4 2 2
g2 Work done by the gas in one complete cycle W = area
( Dt )4 - 2gh ( Dt )2 + 4h 2 = 0
4 ABCDA = p 0V0
2gh ± 4g 2h 2 - 4g 2h 2 4h From A to B,
( Dt )2 = =
g2 / 2 g Heat given to gas = nCV DT
h æ3 ö 3 3
Dt = 2 = 1 ´ ç R ÷ ´ DT = V0 ( Dp ) = V0p 0
g è 2 ø 2 2
1 2 From B to C, heat given to gas = nCp DT
23. (b) s = ut + at , a = g sin q, u = 0
2 æ5 ö 5
= 1 ´ ç R ÷ ´ DT = ( 2p 0 )DV = 5p 0V0
1 è2 ø 2
Then, s = 0 + at 2
2 Work done by the gas / cycle
Efficiency of cycle =
2s 2s Total heat given to gas / cycle
or t= = [for smooth plane]
a g sin q p 0V0 2
= =
3 13
q p 0V0 + 5p 0V0
cos 2
R
u xg 2
B
Efficiency (%) = ´ 100 = 15.4%
13
26. (a) Using Einstein’s photoelectric equations,
g sin q g cos q
g hn = f + eVs
q
A C eVs = hn - f … (i)
Thus, when the frequency of incident light radiation
For the rough plane, the effective value of acceleration
(photons) n increases to 2n, the stopping potential Vs
along the incline is
changes to Vs¢.
a ¢ = g sin q - m k g cos q
eVs¢ = h ( 2n ) - f … (ii)
SOLVED PAPER 2018 19
On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (ii), we get Similarly, lB =
h
Vs¢ 2hn - f 2hn - 2f + f 2mTB
= =
Vs hn - f hn - f lA T T - 1.5 æ 1.5 ö
1/ 2
\ = B = A = çç1 - ÷
=
2(hn - f) + f
=2+
f lB TA TA è TA ÷ø
hn - f hn - f 2
æ 1ö 1.5
Vs¢ ç ÷ = 1-
\ > 2 Þ Vs¢ > 2Vs è 2ø TA
Vs
On solving, TA = 2.0 eV
27. (c) Terminal velocity of the rod is attained when magnetic So, fA = 4 - TA = 4 - 2 = 2.0 eV
force on the rod (Bil) balances the component of weight of fB = 6 - TA = 6 - 2 = 4.0 eV
the rod (mg sin q), as in figure.
30. (a) We have,
q Torque = r ´ F = Ia
m g sin
Fm So, 2 ( 20t - 5t 2 ) = 10a
a = 4t - t 2
dw
q But a = , so
dt
i
dw
So, Bil = mg sin q = 4t - t 2
dt
æe ö dw = ( 4t - t 2 ) dt
B ç ÷ l = mg sin q
èR ø
t3
B le Integrating, w = 2t 2 -
= mg sin q 3
R
B l (B lvT ) w will be zero at t = 6 s.
= mg sin q dq t3
R So, w= = 2t 2 -
mg sin qR dt 3
vT =
B 2l 2 æ t3 ö
or d q = çç 2t 2 - ÷÷ dt
è 3ø
28. (c) Initial energy of the asteroid is
1 GMem Again, integrating both sides
Ei = Ki + Ui = mvi2 -
2 10 Re 2t 3 t 4
q= -
Final energy of the asteroid, 3 12
1 GMem Since, t = 6 s
Ef = mvf2 -
2 Re 2 ´ 63 64
so, q= - = 36
According to law of conservation of energy, Ei = Ef 3 12
1 GMem 1 GMem q 36
mvi2 - = mvf2 - Number of turns, n = = = 5.73
2 10Re 2 Re 2p 2p
2 GMe 2GMe So, option (a) is right.
vf2 - = vi2 -
Re 10Re 31. (c)
2GMe æ 1ö
Þ vf2 = vi2 + ç1 - ÷
Re è 10 ø
(a) (b)
29. (b) From Einstein photoelectric equation, In first case refraction of the rays, takes place from a plane
E = f0 + KEmax d
surface, so we can use d app = actual
For metal A 4 = fA + TA … (i) m
For metal B 4.5 = fB + (TA - 1.5) … (ii) 4 4
3= Þ m =
m 3
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
fB - fA = 2 where, d app and d actual = apparent and real depth,
respectively.
Now, according to de-Broglie hypothesis,
h h Now, in second case, as from Fig. (b), refraction takes place
lA = = from a spherical surface, so
mv 2mTA
20 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
m 2 m1 m 2 - m1 Now, the equivalent resistance of the circuit is
- =
v u R (5 + 5) ´ 20 20
Req = + W
1 4/3 1- 4 / 3 (5 + 5) + 20 3
or - =
( - 25 / 8) ( -4) -R 10v
Current through battery, I = = 1.5 A
1 1 8 1 20
or = - = W
3R 3 25 75 3
R = 25 cm 34. (a) Since, no external force is acting on the system, we can
Now, using Lens’ Makers formula, to calculate focal length apply conservation of linear momentum.
1 æ 1 1ö 36 ´ 1000
= (m - 1) çç - ÷÷ Speed of 200 kg trolley= = 10 ms-1
60 ´ 60
f è R1 R2 ø
1 æ4 öæ1 1 ö 1 If u be the initial velocity of trolley,vb be the absolute velocity
= ç - 1÷ ç - ÷=
f è3 ø è ¥ ( -25) ø 75 of the boy after the beginning of journey of the boy, their
relative velocity is 4.
f = 75 cm
So, v ¢ - vb = 4 Þ vb = (v ¢ - 4)
32. (c) When r £ R, then force on the test mass m at the surface
Now, applying law of conservation of momentum,
of the sphere = mg
Momentum before the boy begins to run
Force on the test mass at distance r from the centre of = Momentum after the beginning of boy’s running
sphere is
Þ 220 ´ 10 = 200 v ¢ + 20(v ¢ - 4)
2200 = 220v ¢ - 80 Þ 220v ¢ = 2280
2280
v¢ = = 10.36 ms-1
R 220
O r
35. (c) Given, C = 37.55 J mol -1 K -1
Also, pT = constant (K ) … (i)
According to ideal gas equation, pV = RT
RT
If r < R, then F =
GMm r
× =
GMm
×r Þ p= … (ii)
R 2
R R3 V
Putting the value of p in Eq. (i), we get
mv 2 GMm
\ = ×r RT RT 2
r R3 ´T = K Þ V =
V K
\ v ´r
GMm On differentiating above equation both sides, we get
If r > R, then F = dV 2RT
r2 = … (iii)
dT K
Mv 2 GMm
\ = 2 T 1
r r But = [from Eq. (i)]
K p
1
\ v´ Hence, Eq. (iii) becomes
r
dV 2R
Hence, option (c) is correct. =
dT p
33. (c) In the given circuit, diode D1 is reverse biased, so it will pdV
not conduct but D2, D3 are forward biased, so they will So, C = CV +
dT
conduct, hence corresponding equivalent circuit. For the p ´ 2R
given circuit is or C = CV + = CV + 2R
p
D3
5W or CV = C - 2R … (iv)
nR
As CV = , where n = number of degrees of freedom.
2
20 W
5W Putting the value of CV in Eq. (iv), we get
D2 nR
= C - 2R
2
2 (C - 2R ) 2 (37.55 - 2 ´ 8.3)
n= = = 5.048 = ~
-5
10 V R 8.3
SOLVED PAPER 2018 21
36. (a) We know, instantaneous displacement, Initially, velocity is downwards (- ve), after collision, it
x = r sin wt reverses the direction with smaller magnitude and velocity
dx is upwards (+ ve). So, graph (a) satisfies these conditions.
Q Instantaneous velocity,v = = rw cos wt
dt Also,
Q Instantaneous acceleration, When t = 0, h = d
dv Velocity increases downwards ( 0 ® A )
a= = - rw2 sin wt = - w2x
dt
When t = 1, velocity reverses its direction ( A ¢ ® B )
aT - w2x ´ T - 4p 2
So, = = - w2T = ´T 39. (b) From the given circuit, we can say that I is independent
x x T2
of resistance R5, so no current flows through R5. This
- 4p 2 required that the junction of R1 and R2 is at the same
= = constant
T potential as the junction of R3 and R4 (\ Wheatstone bridge
aT - w2r sin wt ´ T condition)
Þ = = - wT tan wT
V w r cos wt R1 R3
So, =
2p R2 R4
=- ´ T tan wt = not constant
T or R1R4 = R3 R2
2 2 2 2
Similarly, aT + 2pv and a T + 4p v is also not constant, 40. (d) Since, volume remains unchanged, during this
i.e. both are function of t. phenomenon, so
50 4 4
37. (d) New, current sensitivity, Is¢ = Is + Is pR 3 = N ´ pr 3
100 3 3
150 3 R3
= Is = Is N=
100 2 r3
New resistance, R ¢ = 2R Now, change in surface area = 4pR 2 - N 4pr 2
Is = 4p (R 2 - Nr 2 )
Initial voltage sensitivity,Vs =
R
Energy released ( DU ) = T ´ change in surface area
Now, new voltage sensitivity,
= T ´ 4p [R 2 - Nr 2]
3
Is
Is¢ 3
¢
Vs = = 2 = Vs Here, all this energy released is at the cost of lowering the
R ¢ 2R 4 4
temperature and mass of the big drop of liquid = pR 2r.
% decrease in voltage sensitivity 3
Vs - Vs¢ Now, change in temperature,
= ´ 100
Vs DU
Dq =
æ V¢ö ms
= çç1 - s ÷÷ ´ 100 T ´ 4p(R 2 - Nr 2 )
è Vs ø =
æ4 3 ö
æ 3ö ç pR r ÷ S
= ç1 - ÷ ´ 100 = 25% è3 ø
è 4ø
3T æ 1 Nr 2 ö
= ç - ÷
38. (a) For the uniformly accelerated/decelerated motion, rS çR R3 ÷
è ø
v 2 = u 2 ± 2gh
3T æ 1 R3 ´r 2 ö
= ç - ÷
So, from this equation, we can sayv-h graph is parabola. rS çR r 3 ´R3 ÷
è ø
v A¢ At t = 0 3T æ 1 1ö
= ç - ÷
h=d rS èR r ø
d
o
B o h

A
22 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT

Chemistry
41. (d) Edge length of the unit cell = 2 Å = 2 ´ 10-8 cm 47. (c) Azo dye test is not used for the distinction in 1°, 2° and 3°
-8 3
Volume of unit cell = ( 2 ´ 10 ) = 8 ´ 10 -24
cm 3 aliphatic amines. The other tests can be easily used to
Mass of one unit cell = volume × density distinguish between 1°, 2° and 3° amines.

= 8 ´ 10-24 ´ 2.5 Test Primary amine Secondary amine Tertiary


amine
Number of unit cell in 200g of metal
i Hinsberg's Forms a Forms a No reaction
mass of the metal
= reagent test sulphonamide sulphonamide
mass of one unit cell soluble in alkali insoluble in alkali
200
= = 1´ 1025 ii Carbylamine Forms a No reaction No reaction
8 ´ 10-24 ´ 2.5 reaction carbylamine with
unpleasant smell
42. (a) Higher the values of ‘a’ more will be the tendency to get
iii Reaction Forms primary Forms nitrosamine Forms nitrite
liquefy. Value of a is highest for gas P. Thus, it is the most
with nitrous alcohol and evolves which gives salt
liquefiable gas among the given gases. acid nitrogen gas with Libermann's
effervescence nitroso amine
43. (d) Radius of hydrogen like atom,
reaction
n2
rn = ro
Z 48. (b) Resonating structure of carbonate CO2-
3 ion are
-10
Where, ro = 0.51´ 10 m O O– O–
0.51´ 10-10m
and rn = C C C
4 O– O– O– O– O O
At ground state, n = 1 I II III
Hence, the atom is Be3+ [Q Z = 4] Thus, there is no coordinate bond present in CO2-
3 .
Hence, the second statement is incorrect.
44. (a) When central metal ion is same (here Ni2+ ), the
absorption of colour depends on the ligand. According to 49. (a) For first order reaction,
spectrochemical series, various ligands are as follows ln2
t1/ 2 = = 40 s …(i)
I- < Br - < Cl- < NO3- < F- < H2O k1

< NH3 < NO2- < CN- < CO [ A] 0


For zero order reaction, t1/ 2 = = 20 s …(ii)
2k 0
Thus, H2O is the weakest ligand among these, therefore the
absorbed energy will be lowest in [Ni(H2O)6] 2+ , so it will Divide eqn. (i) by (ii), we get
1 [ A] 0 k1
absorb highest wavelength (red light). = ´
2 2k 0 ln2
1
Eµ k1 ln 0.693
l = 2 = = 0.5
k 0 [ A] 0 1386
.
\ The order of increasing wavelength is
[Ni(NO2 )6] 4- < [Ni(NH3 )6] 2+ < [Ni(H2O)6] 2+ 50. (b) CH2Cl2 is similar to CH4 (tetrahedral) but it has three
different bond angles.
45. (c) Empirical formula mass = CH2O = 12 + 2 + 1´ 16 = 30
HCH, HCCl, ClCCl, which are close to but not equal to
Molecular mass = 180
109.5°. Since, electronegativity of Cl > C > H the bond
Molecular Mass 180 dipole moments do not cancel and the molecule has a
n= = =6
Empirical formula mass 30 dipole moment.
Q Molecular formula = n ´ empirical formula
Cl
\ Molecular formula = 6 ´ CH2O = C6H12O6
+
46. (d) (i) In Hall-Heroult process for extraction of Al, carbon C
H Cl
anode is oxidised to CO and CO2. H
(ii) When Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2, it lowers the melting
point of the mixture and brings conductivity. 51. (b) Given, CH4 + 2O2 ¾® CO2 + 2H2O ;
(iii) Al3+ is reduced at cathode to form Al. DH = - 210 kcal / mol …(i)
(iv) Al2O3 serves as the electrolyte, undergoing the redox 7
C2H6 + O2 ¾® 2CO2 + 3H2O ;
process. Na 3AlF6 although is an electrolyte but serves as 2
a solvent, not electrolyte. DH = - 368 kcal /mol …(ii)
SOLVED PAPER 2018 23
On subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq (ii), we get 5 PCl Alc. KOH
3 56. (c) CH3 — CH— CH3 ¾¾® CH3 — CH— CH3 ¾¾¾¾
CH2 + O2 ¾® CO2 + H2O ; ½ ½ ½
2 OH Cl ½
2-propanol 2-chloropropane ¯
DH = - 158 kcal / mol
(z) (x )
\ Enthalpy of combustion of one CH2 unit H2 SO 4 / D
= - 158 kcal / mol CH3 — CH— CH3 ¬¾¾¾¾¾ CH3 — CH==CH2
conc. H2 SO 4 Propene
½
DHcomb(C10H22 ) = DHcomb(CH4 ) +9 ´ DHcomb(CH2 ) OH (y)
2-propanol
= -210 + (9 ´ - 158) (z)
= -1632 kcal
57. (d) N2O4(g ) = 2NO (g ) 2
52. (b) R — C ºº CH is converted to ketone by catalytic 0. 28 1.1

hydration with reagents. Pressure at equilibrium


2
O p NO (1.1)2
Kp = 2
= = 4.32 atm
p N2O4 0.28
(i) H2SO4+HgSO4
C CH CH3
(ii) H2O,Heat
If volume of the container is doubled, the pressure will
reduced to half
53. (c) By Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, N2O4 2N2O=
DmDv =
h é 0.028 ù é 11
. ù
New pressure, ê - p ú ê + 2p ú
4p ë 2 û ë2 û
2
Dv = 0.005%or 600 m/s é 11. ù
êë 2 + 2p úû
600 ´ 0.005 Kp = = 4.32
= = 0.03 é 0.28 ù
100 - p
êë 2 úû
6.6 ´ 10-34
Dx ´ 9.1´ 10-31 ´ 0.03 = On solving, we get
4 ´ 3.14
p = 0.045
6.6 ´ 10-34
Hence, Dx = \ p N2O4 = 0.14 - 0.045 = 0.095 atm
4 ´ 3.14 ´ 0.03 ´ 9.1´ 10-31
p NO2 = 0.55 + (2 ´ 0.045) = 0.64 atm
. ´ 10-3 m
= 192
58. (a) Protoactinium (Pa) is the element that does not have
54. (d) In O2 molecule, two electrons are present in antibonding stable electronic configuration.
orbitals. Protoactinium (Pa) = [Rn] 5f 2 6d 17s 2 (Atomic number = 91)
O2 ( 8 + 8 = 16) = s1s 2, s *1s 2, s2s 2s * 2s 2, Nobelium (No) = [Rn] 5f 14 6d 0 7s 2 (Atomic number = 102)
s2 2pz 2, p 2px 2 = p 2py 2, p * 2px = p * 2py 1 Lawrencium (Lr) = [Rn] 5f 14 6d 17s 2 (Atomic number = 103)

Removal of one electron from the O2 molecule gives O+2 in Amercium (Am) = [Rn] 5f 7 6d 0 7s 2 (Atomic number = 95)

which the number of antibonding electrons is one less and 59. (c) Oxidation :
hence, BO increases. Thus, removal of one electron from -
O2 stabilises the molecule. CH3COO- + 3 O H ¾® CH3COO- + 2e - + 2H2O
55. (c) Cu2+ +2e - ¾® Cu …(i) Reduction : [Ag(NH3 )2] + + e - ¾® Ag + NH3] ´ 2
According to Faraday's first law, when an electric current is - -
CH3CHO + 2 [ Ag( NH3 )2] + + 3 O H ¾® CH3O O + 2H2O
passed through an electrolyte, amount of substance
deposited is directly proportional to the quantity of electric Molecular mass (M) of CH3CO = 44 g mol-1
charge passed through the electrolyte. M 44
Equivalent weight (Ew) = = = 22 g mol-1
Q 1 mol of 63.5g of Cu is obtained by passing 2F of n - factor 2
electricity. 60. (a) According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm,
63.5 1
Mass of Cu obtained by passing 1F of electricity = g
2 x / m = kpn
\ Mass of Cu ontained by passing 0.5F of electricity where, x = mass of gas adsorbed on mass ‘m’ of the
63 .5 absorbent at pressure p.
= ´ 0.5 = 15. 80 g
2 k and n = constants.
24 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
Taking logarithm on both sides, we get 0.0591
E° = log k eq (at 25°C)
1 n
log x / m = log k + log p
n 0.0591
Þ 0.2955 = log k eq
1 2
This is equation of a straight line with slope of and k eq = 1010
n
intercept of log k .
66. (b) H N
NH2 N NH2
61. (b) Given, pH of Ba(OH)2 = 12 H
H H H O H
Q pH + pOH = 14
\ pOH = 14 - pH = 14 - 12 = 2 H
-
H H H H H H
Now, pOH = - log [OH ] H
OH H OH
Þ 2 = - log [OH-] Anti Gauche Eclipsed
[OH- ] = 10-2
Since, gauche form is stabilised by intermolecular hydrogen
Ba(OH)2(s ) = Ba 2+
+ 2OH- bonding, hence it is more stable than anti.
S mol-1 S 2S
- -2 67. (a) In acidic medium, H2S is very feebly ionised giving very
[OH ] = 2S = 10
small concentration of sulphide ion for precipitation.
\ S = 10-1 Therefore, the most insoluble salts CuS and HgS are
K sp = [Ba 2+ ] [OH- ] 2 precipitated.
Þ [10-1] [10-2] 2 = 0.5 ´ 10-6 = 5 ´ 10-7 M 68. (b) When a mixture of BCl3 and H2 is subjected to silent
electric discharge, diborane and HCl are formed. Diborane
62. (c) With Tollen's reagent (ammoniacal AgNO3), a white
reacts with NH3 at 200°C to give borazine (inorganic
precipitate of silver salt is obtained benzene).
H — C ºº C — H + 2AgNO3 + 2NH4OH
Electric
2BCl3 + 6H2 ¾¾¾® B2H6 + 6HCl
¾® Ag — C ºº C — Ag + 2NH4NO3 + H2O discharge
(X )
Silver acetylide (white ppt.)
200 °C
63. (d) Arrhenius equation is given by, 3B2H6 + 6NH3 ¾¾® 2B3N3H6 + 12H2
1 2 Boarzine ( y )
K Ea éT2 - T1 ù
log10 2 = ê ú 69. (b) The process of producing syn gas or synthesis gas from
K1 2.303 ´ R ë TT 1 2 û
coal is called ‘coal gasification’?
K2
Given, = 3;R = - 8.314 JK -1mol-1 1270 K
K1 C(s ) + H2O(g ) ¾¾® CO(g ) + H2(g )
Coal Ni 1442443
Steam
T1 = 20 + 273 = 293 K Synthesis gas

and T2 = 50 + 273 = 323 K The production of hydrogen can be increased by reaching


Substituting the given values in Arrhenius equation, carbon monoxide of the syn gas with steam in the presence
Ea é 323 - 293 ù of iron chromate as a catalyst at 673 K.
log10 3 = ê ú
8.314 ´ 2.303 ë 323 ´ 293 û FeCrO4 , 673 K
CO(g ) + H2O(g ) ¾¾¾¾® CO2(g ) + H2(g )
2.303 ´ 8.314 ´ 323 ´ 293 ´ 0.477
Ea =
30 CO2 is removed by scrubbing with a solution of sodium
= 28811.8 J mol-1 arsenite.
= 28.8118 kJ mol-1 70. (b) Heat at constant pressure means enthalpy. i.e.
64. (b) Compounds containing both N and S give blood red DH = 2.5 ´ 103 cal
colour in Lassaigne’s test due to the formation of Fe(SCN)2. DS = 7.4 cal deg-1
Thus, H2N (C6H4 )SO3H gives blood red colour in
Lassaigne's test of nitrogen. T = 298 K
DG = DH - TDS
65. (b) Given that,
A + B 2+ ¾® B + A 2+ , E° = 0.2955 V = 2.5 ´ 103 - 298 ´ 7.4

Using Nernst equation, = 4705 cal


2.303nRT Hence, the process is spontaneous.
E° = log k eq
nF
SOLVED PAPER 2018 25
71. (a) The alkene is unsymmetrical, hence will follow 75. (b) CH2OH
Markownikoff’s rule to give major product. O H
H
CH3 ¾ CH2 ¾ CH == CH2 + H¾ Br ¾® H CH2OH H
But -1-ene O
Br OH H
O H HO
½ HO
CH3 ¾ CH2 ¾ CHBr ¾ CH3 + C2H5 ¾ C ¾ CH3 CH2OH
(x ) * H OH Glycosidic
½ a-D-glucose linkage
OH H
H b-D-fructose
(y )

+ CH3 ¾ CH2 ¾ CH2 ¾ CH2Br This structure represents sucrose in which a-D-glucose and
( z ) (Minor product) b-D fructose is attached to each other by C1 - C2 glycosidic
linkage. Since reducing groups of glucose and fructose are
Since, y contains, a chiral carbon, it exists in two involved in glycosidic bond formation, this is considered as
enantiomers (x and y) which are mirror images of each non-reducing sugar.
other.
76. (a) Potassium sulphate (K 2SO4 ), i = 3
Mirror
Br Br Sodium chloride (NaCl), i = 2
Urea, i = 1
C C
Glucose, i = 1
H5C2 CH3 CH3 C2H5
H H Greater the value of i, greater lowering in freezing point and
hence, lower will be the freezing temperature.
Therefore, K 2SO4 solution has the lowest freezing point.
72. (c) Silicons are synthetic organo-silicon polymers
containing repeated R2SiO units. Since the empirical 77. (a) A penicillin is a member of a family of drugs that have a
formula is same as that of a ketone (R2CO), the name silicon four membered cyclic amide fused to a five membered
has been given to these materials. They can be formed by thiazole ring. It is narrow spectrum antibiotic
hydrolysis of dichlorosilanes O H
(R2SiCl2) S
R C N CH3
R2SiCl2 + 2H2O ¾® R2Si(OH)2 + 2HCl H
N CH3
R R O
H
½ ½
nHO — Si— OH + HO — Si— OH ¾® COOH
½ ½ (Penicillin)
R R
é R R ù R R 78. (b) The lattice energy of the hydroxides of alkaline earth
ê ½ ½ ú - nH2 O ½ ½ metal decreases more rapidly than their hydration energy
ê O — Si— O — Si— O ú ¬¾¾ HO — Si— O — Si— OH leading to more negative value of DHsol down the group.
ê ½ ½ ú ½ ½
êë R R úû R R More negative is DHsol, more is the solubility of compounds.
Hence the solubility of hydroxides of alkaline earth metal
73. (c) On acidification of potassium chromate solution, yellow increases with their atomic number.
colour changes to orange colour due to formation of
79. (a) The given chemical reaction is
dichromate which suggests that monocentric complex is
converted into dicentric complex. 5Br - (aq ) + BrO-3(aq ) + 6H+ (aq ) ¾® 3Br2(aq ) + 3H2O (l )
2K 2CrO4 + H2SO4 ¾® K 2Cr2O7 + K 2SO4 + H2O Rate law expression for the given reaction can be written as
(Dil.)
1 D[Br] - D[BrO3- ]
- =-
74. (d) Valence electrons in A = 3 5 Dt Dt

Valence electron in B = 6 1 D[H+ ] 1 D[Br2]


- =+
6 Dt 3 Dt
Thus, A is electropositive and B is electronegative, A can
D[Br - ] 5D[BrO3- ] 5 D[H+ ]
loose three electrons and B can gain two electrons to attain Þ - =- =-
Dt Dt 6 Dt
stable configuration
D[Br - ] 5 D[H+ ]
Hence, A exist as A 3+ and B as B 2- Þ =
Dt 6 Dt
\ Compound formed is A2B3.
26 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
80. (c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV Polymerisation
Cl CF2 CF2 — CF2 —CF2 —
Tetrafluroethane Teflon n
Zieglar-Natta
CH2 C—CH CH2
Catalyst Polymerisation
Chloroprene
Cl n CH2 CH CH2 — CH —
Neoprene
CN CN n
CH3 CH3 Acryl nitrile Acrilan
Polymerisation
nCH2 C—CH CH2 — CH— C CHCH2 —
n
Isoprene Natural rubber

English Proficiency
81. (a) Use ‘is’ in place of ‘are’ as when two subjects are joined 85. (d) ‘Cope’ always agree with preposition ‘with’ and use of
‘along with’, then helping verb is used according to first any other auxiliary term is improper.
subject. 91. (b) The ordinary megalomaniac does not have the talent to
82. (c) Use ‘attested’ in place of ‘attest’ as sentence is in realise his wish which Alexander the Great had
passive voice. 92. (d) By wishing to be powerful and feared.
83. (b) Use ‘making’ in place of ‘having’ as ‘have’ is not used in 93. (d) Excessive lover of power
progressive sense. 94. (c) The nurturing of only one element in human nature
84. (d) ‘Superior’ is followed by ‘to’ preposition. 95. (c) Because it is a part of human nature

Logical Reasoning
96. (d) ‘Umpire’ is required to give decision in ‘Match’. 101. (b) Options (b) can be formed from the pieces given in
problem figures.
Likewise ‘Judge’ is required to give decision in a ‘Lawsuit’.
102. (a) After folding and cutting the paper, answer figure (a) will
97. (c) As, 9 - 2 = 7 ® 72 = 49 appear.
13 - 2 = 11® 112 = 121 103. (c) The third figure is each row comprises of parts which are
2
10 - 2 = 8 ® 8 ¹ 61 not common in the first two figures.
104. (b) Correct answer figure is (b).
7 - 2 = 5 ® 52 = 25
105. (b) The figure in the question may be labelled as shown
Thus, option (c) is odd.
below
98. (d) The pattern is as follows G
A B
10 9 16 45 176 875 J
I
O
E F
×1–1 ×2–2 ×3–3 ×4–4 ×5–5
L K
99. (d) The data is inadequate because it is not given that who is D C
taller between Virat and Shikhar. Hence, answer cannot be H
determined. There are nine triangle in the upper half of the figure
100. (c) Option (c) will complete the given pattern as follow. ABFE = DAEI , DAIG, DAEG, DGEO , DGBJ , DBFJ , DGBF ,
DGOF and DGEF .
Similarly, there are nine triangles in the lower half figure,
i.e. EFCD.
There are two more triangles DEGH and DFGH.
Hence, there are a total of 20 triangles.
SOLVED PAPER 2018 27
Mathematics
æ 1ö é
n

n
½ sin q cos q 0½
106. (b) (1 + x )n ç1 + ÷ = ê( 2 + x ) + ú
è xø ë xû 110. (d) Given, x 2 = ½- cos q sin q 1½
½ ½
æ 1ö 1 ½ sin q cos q 2½
= nC0( 2 + x )n × ç ÷ + ¼ + nCn × n
è ø
x x ½ sin q cos q 0½
\ Coefficient of x -n = nCn = 1 On expanding½- cos q sin q 1½along C3, we get
½ ½
r ½ sin q cos q 2½
20 æ 1 ö
107. (c) Tr + 1 = 3 × Cr ç ÷ ½ sin q cos q½ sin q cos q½
è 3ø x 2 = 0 - 1½ ½ + 2½
½ ½
r -1 ½ sin q cos q½ ½ - cos q sin q ½
æ 1 ö
and Tr = 3 ×20 Cr - 1ç ÷ = - 1(sin q cos q - sin q cos q) + 2 (sin2 q + cos2 q)
è 3ø
Tr + 1 20 - r + 1 æ 1 ö = - 1´ 0 + 2 ´1
Now, = ç ÷ Þ x2 = 2 Þ x = ± 2
Tr r è 3ø
Since, Tr ³ Tr If x = 2, then
+1
Þ 20 - r + 1 ³ 3r 3p
4x 2 + x sin + 5 = 4 ´ ( 2 )2 - 2 + 5
2
21 21
Þ r £ = = 8 - 2 + 5 = (13 - 2 )
3 + 1 2.73
3p
Þ r £ 7.692 Þ r = 7 If x = - 2, then 4x 2 + x sin +5
7 2
20 æ 1 ö 25840
\ The greatest term is T8 = 3 × C7 ç ÷ = = 4 ´ ( - 2 )2 + 2+5
è 3ø 9
=8+ 2 + 5 = (13 + 2)
108. (b) Let x = 1
= cos 0° + i sin 0° 111. (d) Given, a, b, c are in GP.

= cos 2rp + i sin 2rp = ei 2rp \ b 2 = ac


and 2(log 2b - log 3c ) = log a - log 2b + log 3c - log a
Þ x 1/n = ei ( 2rp)/n; r = 0, 1, 2, ¼
2 pi 4 pi
Þ b 2 = ac and 2b = 3c
Then, the roots are 1, e n ,e n , ¼… 4a 2a
Þ c =
and b =
2pi /n 9 3
which are clearly on GP with common ratio e .
5a 10a
éa b c ù Q a+b= > c, b + c = >a
3 9
109. (a) Given, P = êb c a ú 13a
ê ú and c +a= > b.
êëc a b úû 9
éa b c ù \ a, b, c are the sides of a triangle.
\ P = êb c a ú
T Also, a is the greatest side
ê ú
êëc a b úû b2 + c 2 - a2 29
\ cos A = =- <0
2bc 48
Also given, P T P = I
\ D ABC is an obtuse angled triangle.
\ | P T P | = | I| = 1 Hence, option (d) is correct.
2
½a b c ½ ½a b c ½ n
n(n + 1) (n + 2)(n + 3)
or ½b c a ½ = 1 Þ ½b c a ½ = ± 1 112. (c) Given, å tr =
8
= Sn (say)
r =1
½ ½ ½ ½
½c a b ½ ½c a b ½ n -1
(n - 1) n (n + 1)(n + 2)
\ å tr = = Sn - 1
or 3abc - a 3 - b 3 - c 3 = ± 1 r =1 8

or 3 m 1= a3 + b3 + c 3 n(n + 1) (n + 2)
Now, tn = Sn - Sn - 1 =
2
\ a 3 + b 3 + c 3 = 2 or 4 n
1 n
2
\ Option (a) is correct.
\ lim å
n ® ¥ r = 1 tr
= lim å
n ®¥ r =1 n(n + 1) (n + 2)
28 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
n æ 1 1 ö 2n
= lim åç - ÷ = tan-1
n ® ¥ r = 1ç
è n(n + 1) (n + 1) (n + 2) ÷ø 1 + (n 4 + n 2 + 1)

æ n
1 1 ö (n 2 + n + 1) - (n 2 - n + 1)
= - lim å çç - ÷ = tan-1
n ® ¥ r = 1è (n + 1)(n + 2 ) n (n + 1) ÷ø 1 + (n 2 + n + 1) (n 2 - n + 1)
un = tan-1 (n 2 + n + 1) - tan-1 (n 2 - n + 1)…(iii)
æ 1 1ö
= - lim çç - ÷÷ On putting n = 1, 2, 3, ¼¼ successively in Eq. (iii), we get
n ® ¥ è (n + 1) (n + 2 ) 2ø
u1 = tan-1 3 - tan-1 1
æ 1ö 1
= - ç0 - ÷ = u 2 = tan-1 7 - tan-1 3
è 2ø 2
Hence, option (c) is correct. u 3 = tan-1 13 - tan-1 7
…………………………
113. (c) Truth table
un = tan-1(n 2 + n + 1) - tan-1(n 2 - n + 1)
p q ~ p ~q p Ú q ~q Ù p p Ú ~ p (p Ú q ) Ú (~ p ) (~ q Ù p ) Ú (p Ú ~ p )
On adding vertically, we get
T T F F T F T T T ¥

T F F T T T T T T å un = tan-1 (n 2 + n + 1) - tan-1 1
n =1
F T T F T F T T T ¥
F F T T F F T T T S = lim å un
n ®¥ n =1
[from Eq. (i)]

Hence, option (c) is correct.


= lim tan-1(n 2 + n + 1) - tan-1 1
114. (c) The two sets of m parallel lines along with two sets of two n ®¥

parallel lines of the given parallelogram will form two sets of p p p


= - =
(m + 2) parallel lines. Each parallelogram is formed by 2 4 4
choosing two parallel lines from each of the above
117. (a) Given, sin x + cos(t + x ) + cos(t - x ) = 2
\ Total number of parallelograms
Þ sin x + 2 cos t × cos x = 2
= m + 2C2 ´ m + 2C2 = (m + 2C2 )2
For real solution
Hence, option (c) is correct.
1 + 4 cos2 t ³ 2
115. (a) Let f (x ) = y , then 3
Þ cos2 t ³
ay = x + x 2 + 1 4
1 1 1
Þ a -y = Þ - £ sin t £
2 2
x + x2 + 1
Hence, option (a) is correct.
-y x - x2 + 1
Þ a = [rationalising] 118. (c) We have,
-1
cos2 a + cos2 b + cos2 g = 1
\ a y - a - y = 2x
1 æp ö é pù
Þ x = (a y - a - y ) Þ cos2 a + cos2 ç - a ÷ + cos2 g = 1 êgiven, a + b = ú
2 è2 ø ë 2û
1 y Þ cos2 a + sin2 a + cos2 g = 1
\ f (y ) = (a - a - y )
-1
[Q f (x ) = y Þ x = f -1(y )]
2
Þ 1 + cos2 g = 1
1
Þ f -1(x ) = (a x - a - x ) [replacing y by x]
2 Þ cos2 g = 0
Hence, option (a) is correct. Þ cos g = 0
¥
2n \ (cos a + cos b + cos g )2 = (cos a + sin a )2
116. (c) Given, S = å tan-1 4 ...(i)
n =1 n + n2 + 2 = 1 + 2 sin a × cos a = 1 + sin 2 a
4 2 2 2
Let n + n + 1 = [(n ) + 1 + 2(n ) (1)] - n 2 2 2 Hence, option (c) is correct.
2
= (n + 1) - n 2 2 119. (c) The given straight lines are 3x + 4y = 5 and 4x - 3y = 15.
2 2 Clearly, these straight lines are perpendicular to each other
= (n + n + 1)(n - n + 1) …(ii)
(m1m2 = - 1) and intersect at A. Now, B and C are points on
æ 2n ö these lines such that AB = AC and BC passes through
Let un = tan-1 çç 4 2
÷
÷
èn + n + 2ø (1, 2).
SOLVED PAPER 2018 29
From figure it is clear that ÐB = ÐC = 45°

4x – 3y – 15 = 0 Q
C
L
(1, 2)
O
45° 3x + 4y – 5 = 0 P
Ö10
A B
Ö5x + 2y = 3Ö5

Let slope of BC be m. Then,


3
m+ Radius of the given circle = 10 = OQ = OP
tan 45° = 4
3 PQ = 2QL
1-
m
4 = 2 OQ 2 - OL2
4m + 3
Þ ± 1= = 2 10 - 5 = 2 5
4 - 3m
4m + 3 = ± ( 4 - 3m ) 1
Thus, area of D OPQ = ´ PQ ´ OL
4m + 3 = 4 - 3m 2
1
or 4m + 3 = - 4 + 3m = ´ 2 5 ´ 5 = 5 sq units
2
1
m= Hence, option (c) is correct.
7
or m=-7 122. (b) Let r be the radius of the largest circle passing through
Hence, equation of BC is the focus (1, 0) of y 2 = 4x
1 Y
y -2= (x - 1)
7
y 2 = 4x
or y - 2 = - 7(x - 1)
Þ 7y - 14 = x - 1
(1, 0)
or y - 2 = - 7x + 7 X¢ X
(1+r, 0)
Þ x - 7y + 13 = 0
or 7x + y - 9 = 0
Hence, option (c) is correct.

120. (d) Let y = mx + c , intersect y 2 = 4ax at A(at12, 2at1) and
B(at 22, 2at 2 ) Clearly, centre of the circle will be on X-axis and its
coordinates are (1 + r , 0).
Then,
2 The equation of the circle, is (x - 1 - r )2 + y 2 = r 2.
=m
t1 + t 2
It touches y 2 = 4x . Therefore, the equation
2
Þ t1 + t 2 = 2 2
(x - r - 1) + 4x = r must have equal roots
m
Let the foot of another normal be C(at 32, 2at 3 ). \ 4(1 - r )2 - 4( 2r + 1) = 0

Then, t1 + t 2 + t 3 = 0 Þ r =4
2 Hence, option (b) is correct.
t 3 = (t1 + t 2 ) = -
m æ pö æ p pö æ 2a b ö
123. (d) The point P ç ÷ is ça sec , b tan ÷ or P ç , ÷
æ 4a -4a ö 6
è ø è 6 6 ø è 3 3ø
Thus, other foot is ç 2 , ÷.
èm m ø x y
\ Equation of tangent at P is - =1
Hence, option (d) is correct. 3a 3b
121. (c) Length of perpendicular from origin to the line 2
x 5 + 2y = 3 5 is 1 3a
\ Area of the triangle = ´ ´ 3b = 3a 2
2 2
3 5 3 5
OL = = = 5 b
2
( 5) + 2 2 9 \ =4
a
30 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
b2 127. (d) Equation of auxiliary circle is
\ e2 = 1+ = 17
a2 x2 + y2 =9 …(i)
2
Now, e - 9 = 17 - 9 = 8
Y
Hence, option (d) is correct.
–12 , 9 M
124. (d) Let distances of a point p (x , y , z ) from the planes 5 5 B(0,1)
x + y + z = 0, x - z = 0 and x - 2y + z = 0 are
x + y + z x -z x - 2y + z X¢ X
N O A(3, 0)
, and respectively, then
3 2 6
the sum of the squares of distances, is as
2 2 2
æx + y + z ö æx - z ö æ x - 2y + z ö 2 Y¢
Þ ç ÷ +ç ÷ +ç ÷ =p
è 3 ø è 2 ø è 6 ø x y
\Equation of AM is + =1 …(ii)
Þ 2(x + y + z )2 + 3(x - z )2 + (x - 2y + z )2 = 6p 2 3 1
Þ 2x 2 + 2y 2 + 2z 2 + 4xy + 4yz + 4zx + 3x 2 On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
2 2 2 2
+ 3z - 6xz + x + 4y + z - 4xy æ 12 9 ö
M ç- , ÷
- 4yz + 2xz = 6p 2 è 5 5ø
Þ 6x + 6y + 6z 2 = 6p 2
2 1 27
Now, area of D AOM = OA ´ MN = sq units
2 10
Þ x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = p2
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
128. (b) Given equation can be written as
125. (a) When line 25
x2 -y2 =
x - x1 y - y1 z - z1 3
= =
a1 b1 c1 b2
\ e1 = 1 +
is perpendicular to plane ax + by + cz + d = 0, then a2
a1 -b1 c1 = 1+ 1= 2
= =
a b c The equation of conjugate hyperbola is
l 1 -4 25
\ = = -x2 + y2 =
2 2 -8 3
Þ l =1 b2
Hence, option (a) is correct. \ e2 = 1 + = 1+ 1 = 2
a2
126. (c) Taking the coordinates of vertices O , P , Q , R as \ e12 + e12 = ( 2 )2 + ( 2 )2 = 4
( 0, 0), (a, 0), (a, a ), ( 0, a ), respectively.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
æ aö æa ö
\The coordinates of M is ça, ÷ and N is ç , a ÷ . 129. (a) We have,
è 2 ø è2 ø
f (x + y ) = f (x ) + 2y 2 + kxy for all x , y ÎR
N(a/2, a)
R(0, a) f (x + y ) - f (x )
Q(a, a) Þ = 2y + kx for all x ÎR
y
f (x + y ) - f (x )
Þ lim = lim ( 2y + kx )
M(a, a/2) y ®0 y y ®0

Þ f ¢ (x ) = kx for all x Î R
kx 2
O(0, 0) P(a, 0) Þ f (x ) = + C for all x Î R [by integration]
2
0 0 1 But, f (1) = 2 and f ( 2) = 8.
1 3a 2
\ Area of D OMN = a a/2 1 = k
2 8 \ 2 = + C and 8 = 2k + C
a/2 a 1 2
and area of the square = a 2 k = 4 and C = 0
2
\ The required ratio is 8 : 3. Hence, f (x ) = 2x for all x Î R
Hence, option (c) is correct. So, option (a) is correct.
SOLVED PAPER 2018 31
130. (a) Since, given planes are perpendicular to each other, i.e. From similar DOMP and DONQ, we have
its normal are perpendicular OM PM
=
\ 2( l ) - l(5) + 3( -1) = 0 ON QN
Þ - 3l - 3 = 0 Þ l = -1 h r
Þ =
\ 2 2
l + l = ( -1) - 1 = 0 10 5
5h
Þ r =
Hence, option (a) is correct. 10
dv dy h
131. (d) Put x + y = v and = 1+ in the given differential Þ r =
dx dx 2
2
equation. 1 2 1 æh ö
We have, V = pr h = p ç ÷ h
dv 3 3 è 2ø
\ = 1 + sinv + cosv
dx
ph 3
dv Þ V =
Þ = dx 12
2v v v
2 cos + 2 sin cos On differentiating both sides, we get
2 2 2
1 dV p dh ph 2 dh
sec 2v = × 3h 2 =
2 2 dv = dx dt 12 dt 4 dt
Þ
v dV
1 + tan Given, = 3 cm 3/sec when h = 4 cm, so we get
2 dt
æ x +yö p ´ 42 dh
Þ log ç1 + tan ÷ = x + C [by integration] 3=
è 2 ø 4 dt
Hence, option (d) is correct. dh 3
Þ = cm/sec
dt 4p
132. (d) Since, the numerator tends to ¥ as x ® 0,
3
1 ax Hence, the water level is rising at cm/sec.
so lim (e - e x - x ) 4p
x® 0 x 2
\Option (b) is correct.
1 ( a e ax - e x - 1)
= lim
2 x® 0 x 134. (b) We have,
dy
For last limit to exist we must have, = y + 2x
dx
lim ( a e ax - e x - 1) = 0
x® 0 dy
Þ - y = 2x
\ a - 1- 1= 0 Þ a=2 dx
For a = 2 the last limit and equal to Now, IF = e - ò 1dx = e - x
1 ( 2 e 2 x - e x - 1) y × e - x = ò 2x e - x dx + k , k be the constant of integration
= lim
2 x® 0 x
òe dx - ò 1× ( -e -x ) dx ] + k
-x
= 2 [x
1 3
= lim ( 4e 2x - e x ) =
2 x ® 0 2 [using integration by parts]
-x -x
Hence, option (d) is correct. Þ y ×e = - 2xe - 2e -x + k …(i)

133. (b) Let depth of water at time t be h and the radius of the As curve (i) passes through (0, 0)
base of water level be r. \ 0=0-2+k
Þ k =2
5 cm
N Q Thus, the curve is
ye - x = - 2 xe - x - 2e - x + 2
\ y = 2 (e x - x - 1)

r 10 cm Hence, option (b) is correct.


M P
h 135. (c) f ( 0) = 0
For f (x ) to be continuous at x = 0
lim f (x ) = 0
O x® 0

1
\ lim x p sin =0
x® 0 x
32 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
This possible only when p > 0 …(i) 4 + 0 -4
= =0
f (h ) - f ( 0) | a | | b|
f ¢ ( 0) = lim
h® 0 h cos q = cos 90° Þ q = 90°
1 \ sin q + cos q = cos 90° + sin 90° = 0 + 1= 1
h sin - 0
p

= lim h Hence, option (c) is correct.


h® 0 h
p -1 1 139. (d) A
= lim h sin
h® 0 h 2
F E
Þ f ¢( 0) will exist only when p > 0 G

\ f (x ) will not be differentiable if 1


p £1 …(ii) B C
D
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), for f (x ) to be not differentiable but ¾® ¾®
continuous at x = 0, possible values of p are given by \ AD = 3 GD
0 < p £ 1. Hence option (c) is correct. 1 ¾® ¾®
= 3 × (GB + GC )
2
136. (a) Integrating the given differential equation, we have
3 æ 2 ¾® 2 ¾®ö
dy - cos 3x x3 = ç EB + FC ÷
= + ex + + C1 2 è3 3 ø
dx 3 3
¾® ¾®
But y1( 0) = 1 = - BE - CF
æ 1ö Hence, option (d) is correct.
So, 1 = ç - ÷ + 1 + C1
è 3ø
140. (c) Let x1, x 2, ¼, xn be n observations.
1
Þ C1 = 1
3 Then, x = S xi
n
dy - cos 3x x3 1
\ = + ex + + x
dx 3 3 3 Let yi = i + 10
a
Again integrating, we get 1 n 1 æ1 1
sin 3x x4 1 Then, å y = ç S xi ö÷ø + n (10 n )
n i =1 i a èn
y =- + ex + + x + C2
9 12 3
1 X + 10a
But y( 0) = 0, so 0 = 0 + 1 + C2 Þ x new = X + 10 =
a a
Þ C2 = - 1
Hence option (c) is correct.
sin 3x x4 1
Thus, y =- + ex + + x -1 141. (c) Volume of the parallelopiped = |[ a b c]|
9 12 3
Hence, option (a) correct. Þ (area of the base parallelogram) ´ h = |[ a b c]|
Þ | a ´ b | h = |[ a b c]|
137. (d) Given, f (x ) = - 2x 3 - 9x 2 - 12x + 1 1 1 1
Þ f ¢ (x ) = - 6x 2 - 18x - 12 Þ |-5i$ + 3j$ + 2k$| h = 2 4 -1
To be decreasing f ¢ (x ) < 0 1 1 3
Þ 2
- 6x - 18x - 12 < 0 4
Þ 38 h = 4 Þ h =
38
Þ x 2 + 3x + 2 > 0
Þ 38h 2 = 42 2
Þ 19h = 8
Þ (x + 2)(x + 1) > 0
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Therefore, either x < - 2 or x > - 1
142. (b) Mean (m ) for BD = np
Þ x Î ( - 1, ¥ ) or ( - ¥ , - 2)
and variance ( s2 ) for BD = npq
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Given, np + npq = 2.7 and n = 3
138. (c) Let a = 4$i - 4k$ and b = $i + $j + k$ 2.7
\ np(1 + q ) = 2.7 Þ p(1 + q ) =
Let q be the angle between a and b 3
a ×b Þ p (1 + q ) = 0.9
\ cos q =
| a | | b| Þ (1 - q )(1 + q ) = 0.9
[Q for BD probability standard deviation (SD), p + q = 1]
( 4$i - 4k$ ) × ( $i + $j + k$ )
= Þ 1 - q 2 = 0 .9
| a | | b|
SOLVED PAPER 2018 33
Þ q 2 = 0 . 1 Þ q = ± 0.3 145. (a) Given curves are
\ q = 0.3 |x| + |y| = a …(i)
[Qq = - 0.3 can’t possible as 0 £ q £ 1] 2 2 2
and x + y =a …(ii)
Þ p = 0.7 and q = 0.3
Y
\ B.D. = ( 0.3 + 0.7)5
B
Hence, option (b) is correct. C
143. (b) We have,
dx dx X¢ X
R(x ) = ò - 2ò
O A
-x -3 x
e + 8e
x
+ 4e e 3x
+ 8e x + 4e - x
2x
e (e - 2)
x
Þ R(x ) = ò dx Y¢
e 4x + 8e 2x + 4
Now, required areas = 4 [shaded area in the first quadrant]
On substituting
é pa 2 a ù
ex = t Þ e x dx = dt , = 4ê - ò ( a - x )2 dx ú
ë 4
0
û
we get
[from Equ. (i) and (ii)]
(t 2 - 2) dt (1 - 2t -2 ) dt
R(t ) = ò = ò é pa 2 ù
t 4 + 8t 2 + 4 (t + 2t -1)2 + 4 = 4ê
a
- ò (a + x - 2 a x ) dx ú
ë 4 0
û
1 æ t + 2t -1 ö
= tan-1 çç ÷+K
2 ÷ø
a
2 è pa2 é x2 4 ù
=4 - 4 êax + - a x 3/ 2 ú
æ e x + 2e - x ö 4 ë 2 3 û0
1
Þ R(x ) = tan-1 çç ÷+K
÷
2 è 2 ø æ 2ö
= ç p - ÷ a 2 sq units
-1 è 3ø
Hence, ( A, B, C ) = (tan , e , 2) x

Hence, option (a) is correct.


\Option (b) is correct.
1 1
146. (b) P ( A Ç B ) = and P ( AC Ç BC ) =
-1 2 -1 æ
ç
1 ö
÷ 6 3
144. (b) cot (1 - x + x ) = tan ç1- x + x 2 ÷
è ø 1
Now, P ( A È B )C = P ( AC Ç BC ) =
æ 1 ö 3
= tan-1 çç ÷÷ 1
è 1 - x (1 - x ) ø Þ 1 - P(A È B) =
3
æ x + (1 - x ) ö 2
= tan-1 çç ÷÷ Þ P(A È B) =
è 1 - x (1 - x ) ø 3
Þ cot -1(1 - x + x 2 ) = tan-1 x - tan-1(1 - x ) But P ( A È B ) = P ( A ) + P (B ) - P ( A Ç B )
5
1 1 1 Þ P ( A ) + P (B ) = …(i)
\ ò 0 cot -1(1 - x + x 2 ) dx = ò tan-1 x dx - ò tan-1 (1 - x ) dx 6
0 0
1 1 Q A and B are independent events
= ò tan-1 x dx + ò0 tan
-1
x dx
0 \ P ( A Ç B ) = P ( A ) P (B )
éQ af (x ) dx = - a f (a - x ) dx ù 1
êë ò0 ò0 Þ P ( A ) P (B ) =
úû 6
1 [P ( A ) - P (B )] 2 = [P ( A ) + P (B )] 2 - 4 P ( A ) P (B )
= 2 ò tan-1 x dx
0 25 4 1
= - =
On evaluating by integration by parts, we have 36 6 36
ì ü 1
= 2 í[tan-1 x × x ]10 - ò
1 x
dx ý Þ P ( A ) - P (B ) = ± …(ii)
0 1+ x 2 6
î þ
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
ìï p é 1 ù üï
1
1 1
= 2 í - ê ln (1 + x 2 )ú ý P ( A ) = or
ïî 4 ë 2 û 0 ïþ 2 3
Hence, option (b) is correct.
ép 1 ù p
= 2 ê - log 2ú = - log 2
ë 4 2 û 2 147. (d) Let A be the event that the examinee gives the correct
1 p answer.
Hence, ò cot -1(1 - x + x 2 ) dx = - log 2
0 2 Let G, C, K stand for guessing, copying and knowing,
So, option (b) is correct. respectively.
34 SELF STUDY GUIDE BITSAT
1 1 149. (d) From the figure, it is clear that there is no common area.
Given, P (C ) = , P (G ) =
6 3 So, we cannot find maximum value of z.
æAö 1
and Pç ÷ = Y
èC ø 8
Þ P (C ) + P (G ) + P (K ) = 1
1 1
Þ + + P (K ) = 1
6 3 (0, 6)
1
\ P (K ) =
2 X¢ X
O (9, 0)
æAö
Also, P ç ÷ = 1, for if the examinee knows, he/she will
èK ø
æAö 1
correctly answer it and P ç ÷ = , since there are four
èGø 4
choices. Y¢

Now, total probability Hence, option (d) is correct.


æAö æAö æAö 150. (d) Feasible region is ABCA and Z = 7x - 8y
P ( A ) = P (G ) P ç ÷ + P (C ) P ç ÷ + P (K ) P ç ÷
è ø
G èC ø èK ø
Y
1 1 1 1 1
= × + × + ×1
3 4 6 8 2 C(0, 20)
1 1 1 4 + 1 + 24 29
= + + = =
12 48 2 48 48
y=5 B(15, 5)
æAö
P (K ) P ç ÷ A(0, 5)
æK ö èK ø
Now, Pç ÷ = X¢
O x+
X
èAø P(A) y=
1 20
×1
2 1 48 24
= = × = Y¢
29 2 29 29
48 at A( 0, 5), Z = 7 ´ 0 - 8 ´ 5 = - 40
Hence, option (d) is correct. at B (15, 5), Z = 7(15) - 8(5) = 65
148. (d) Since, p : 4 is an even prime number, at C( 0, 20), Z = 7( 0) - 8( 20) = - 160
q : 6 is a divisor of 12 and r : the HCF of 4 and 6 is 2. Hence, the minimum value of Z is attained at point (0, 20).
So, ~ p Ú (q Ù r ) is correct. So, option (d) is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Das könnte Ihnen auch gefallen