Clearias Current Affairs Capsule June 2018

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Current Affairs
Capsule
MCQs
June 2018
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Q1) The cabinet committee on economic affairs has recently approved
continuation of off-grid and decentralized Solar PV application
programme. The programme aims at,
1. Installation of solar street lights

2. Establishment of stand-alone solar power plants
3. Distribution of solar study lamps
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Phase-III of Off-grid and Decentralized Solar PV Application

Programme covers following components:
1. Solar Street Lights: 3,00,000 numbers of solar street lights will be

installed throughout the country with special emphasis on areas where
there is no facility for street lighting systems through grid power, North
Eastern States and Left Wing Extremism (LWE) affected districts.
2. Stand-alone Solar Power Plants: Solar power plants of individual size up
to 25 kWp (kilo Watt peak) will be promoted in areas where grid power
has not reached or is not reliable. This component is mainly aimed at
providing electricity to schools, hostels, panchayats, police stations and
other public service institutions. The aggregated capacity of solar power
plants would be 100 MWp.
3. Solar Study Lamps: 25,00,000 numbers of solar study lamps will be
provided in North Eastern States and LWE affected districts.
Why is this question important?
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has given its approval for
implementation of Phase-III of Off-grid and Decentralized Solar PV (Photo
Voltaic) Application Programme to achieve additional 118 MWp (Mega Watt
peak) off-grid solar PV capacity by 2020.
Source: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1534495
Q2) As per the recently released Sample Registration System (SRS)
Bulletins 2016, consider the following statements.
1. India has achieved the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) target of

Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) of 139 by 2015.
2. Amongst the States, Kerala has topped the chart in the reduction of
Maternal Deaths.
3. So far, only three states in India have achieved the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) target for MMR of 70 per 100,000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: India registered a significant decline in Maternal Mortality

Ratio. According to the just released SRS bulletin (2016), India has shown
impressive gains in reduction of Maternal Mortality with 22% reduction in
since 2013.
 Maternal Mortality Ratio of India has declined from 167 in 2011-2013 to

130 in 2014-2016.
 The latest SRS figures reveal that India has gone beyond the Millennium
Development Goals (MDGs) target of Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) of
139 by 2015 and have reached 130.
 Amongst the States, Uttar Pradesh with 30% decline has topped the
chart in the reduction of Maternal Deaths.
 Three states have already met the Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs) target for MMR of 70 per 100,000. These are Kerala, Maharashtra
and Tamil Nadu, while Andhra Pradesh and Telangana are within
striking distance.
Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletins 2016 was released recently.
Q3) The term ‘Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA)’, sometimes
mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
A. Iran
B. Syria
C. North Korea
D. Israel
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action, popularly known as

Iran Nuclear deal, was reached among the five permanent members of the UN
Security Council, besides Germany and Iran, in 2015.
The deal curtailed Tehran’s nuclear programme in return for the lifting of
international sanctions.
U.S. withdrew from the Iran nuclear deal last month. Also, Iran recently
notified the UN that it would launch a plan to increase its uranium enrichment
capacity.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/defend-the-
deal/article24098223.ece
Q4) “Global Peace Index (GPI)” is released by which of the following?
A. The International Peace Institute (IPI)

B. United Nations (UN)
C. Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP)
D. The International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN)
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The Global Peace Index (GPI) is released by Australia-based

Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP).

The IEP, world’s leading think tank that develops metrics to analyse peace and
quantify its economic value, recently released the 12 th edition of the GPI, or
measure of global peacefulness.
India’s GPI rank was 137 out of 163 countries in 2017, when the year 2016
was assessed. In 2018, when the year 2017 is assessed, India’s rank moved up
to 136.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/indias-rank-
marginally-improves-in-peace-index/article24098321.ece
Q5) Consider the following statements.
1. The Special Economic Zones (SEZ) were established in India to enhance

foreign investment and provide an internationally competitive and hassle
free environment for exports.
2. Investments in the Special Economic Zone (SEZ) are kept outside the
ambit of Minimum Alternate Tax and Dividend Distribution Tax.
3. Maharashtra has the maximum numbers of operational SEZs in India.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Special Economic Zone (SEZ) policy in India first came
into inception on April 1, 2000. The prime objective was to enhance foreign
investment and provide an internationally competitive and hassle free
environment for exports. The idea was to promote exports from the country and
realising the need that level playing field must be made available to the
domestic enterprises and manufacturers to be competitive globally.
The maximum numbers of operational SEZs (units which have started exports)
are in Tamil Nadu (36).
The SEZ Act was passed in 2005 giving tax incentives to investors, but
investments in the zone were subsequently brought under the ambit of
Minimum Alternate Tax and Dividend Distribution Tax.
Government of India has constituted a group of eminent persons to study the

Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Policy of India and suggest measures to make it
more relevant for exporters and compatible with World Trade Organisation
(WTO) norms.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/policy/centre-
constitutes-group-to-suggest-changes-in-sez-policy/article24094492.ece
Q6) In the context of economy, which of the following constitute

‘impossible trinity’?
1. Independent monetary policy

2. Moderate level of inflation
3. Open capital account
4. Managing the fiscal deficit
5. Managed exchange rate
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 3 and 5 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Impossible trinity says that a country must choose between
free capital mobility, exchange-rate management and an independent monetary
policy. Only two of the three are possible.
So, the impossible trinity consists of independent monetary policy, open capital
account and a managed exchange rate.

The term impossible trinity is often seen in the news, especially during the
announcement of monetary policy by the RBI.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/a-stitch-in-time-
saves-nineep/article24097249.ece
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) aims to,
1. Maintain price stability, while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

2. Use the exchange rate as an instrument for managing inflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) was amended
by the Finance Act, 2016, to provide for a statutory and institutionalized
framework for a Monetary Policy Committee, to maintain price stability, while
keeping in mind the objective of growth. The Monetary Policy Committee is
entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required
to contain inflation within the specified target level.
After the formation of Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), the RBI has no
exchange rate objective, nor does it use the exchange rate as an instrument for
managing inflation.
Recently, the monetary policy committee (MPC) voted unanimously to raise the
central bank’s repo rate for the first time in four years.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/a-stitch-in-time-
saves-nineep/article24097249.ece
Q8) Which of the following statements correctly describes the term
‘Project Half-Earth’, often seen in the news?
A. It is a programme to document, map and monitor all life, and develop a

new knowledge enterprise to fully explore various dimensions of
biodiversity and ecosystem services and their critical link to our future.
B. The project aims to protect 50% of the earth’s land surface in order to
conserve our rapidly disappearing natural heritage.
C. It is global south-south cooperation for in situ protection of biodiversity
and ecosystem and to achieve the sustainable development goals.
D. None of the statements (A), (B) and (C) given above are correct in this
context.
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: To protect life on earth, the famous American biologist E.O.
Wilson has described an ambitious project he calls “Half-Earth”. He calls for
formally protecting 50% of the earth’s land surface in order to conserve our
rapidly disappearing natural heritage.
The mass extinction of the natural world ranks with pandemics and world war
as among the deadliest threats that humanity has imposed on itself. The Half-
Earth Project offers a solution commensurate with the magnitude of the
problem. As this century’s most eminent biologist E.O. Wilson advocates in his
book, Half-Earth, if we conserve half the land and sea, the bulk of biodiversity
will be protected from extinction.
Project Half-Earth is offered as a solution to the “biological annihilation” or the

sixth mass extinction of life on the earth.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/sustaining-earth-for-the-
future/article24106813.ece and http://www.half-earthproject.org
Q9) What is “S-400 Triumf”, sometimes seen in the news?
A. A radar system jointly developed by India and Israel

B. India’s indigenously developed anti-missile system
C. An American anti-missile system
D. Russian-made advanced Air Defense Systems
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: S-400 Triumf is Russian-made advanced Air Defense Systems

(NATO reporting name: SA-21 Growler).
India is planning to procure five regiments of S-400 Triumf intended for service
in the Indian military notwithstanding U.S. sanctions.
Source: https://thediplomat.com/2018/06/india-russia-to-press-ahead-with-
s-400-deal-despite-threat-of-us-sanctions/
Q10) With reference to the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA),

consider the following statements.
1. It is an independent regulator overseeing the auditing profession, with its

jurisdiction extending only to the listed companies.
2. The creation of NFRA was first recommended by the Financial Sector
Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC).
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The government has notified the rules to set up the National
Financial Reporting Authority — the auditor oversight body for listed and
large unlisted companies.
NFRA will have a chairperson, three full-time members and nine part-time
members, according to the rules notified by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(MCA).
The NFRA will be an independent regulator overseeing the auditing profession,
and its creation was first recommended by the Standing Committee on
Finance in its 21st report.
Recently, government has notified the rules to set up the National Financial
Reporting Authority.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/todays-paper/tp-
news/article24109075.ece
Q11) With reference to the business correspondents (BCs), which of the

following statements is/are correct?
1. They provide services such as savings, deposits, remittance and

insurance to people living in far-flung rural and unbanked areas.
2. As per the RBI guidelines one third of the BCs appointed by the
respective banks should be women or women led SHGs.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Business correspondents provide financial and banking

services such as savings, deposits, remittance and insurance to people living in
far-flung rural and unbanked areas, and are a critical part of the government’s
financial inclusion initiative.
Services offered by BCs could be expanded to include those required by rural

people such as bill payments and mobile recharges.
Though no official data is available, estimates put less than 5 per cent of
women as BCs.

Currently, the Finance Ministry is looking at how the country’s 1.26 lakh
business correspondents (BCs) could be used more effectively, and is mulling
measures such as increasing their bouquet of services and allowing more BCs
to come up in all sub-service areas.
The Ministry is also looking at expanding the role of self-help groups and to
allow them to become BCs.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/todays-paper/tp-money-
banking/article24109004.ece
Q12) With reference to the difference between Mitochondrial DNA

(mtDNA) and Nuclear DNA, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Most human cells contain hundreds of copies of mtDNA genomes,

whereas there are only two copies of the nuclear DNA in the human cells.
2. Nuclear DNA comes from both parents, whereas the mitochondrial DNA
comes only from the mother.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is a small circular genome located

in the mitochondria, which are located outside of a cell's nucleus. Most human
cells contain hundreds of copies of mtDNA genomes, as opposed to two copies
of the DNA that is located in the nucleus.
Additionally, mtDNA is maternally inherited. Unlike nuclear DNA, which comes

from both parents, mitochondrial DNA comes only from the mother.
Source:
https://www.nij.gov/topics/forensics/evidence/dna/research/pages/mitocho
ndrial.aspx
Q13) Recently, the President promulgated National Sports University
Ordinance 2018 to establish a sports university. The university will be
established at which of the following states?
A. Haryana
B. Manipur
C. Maharashtra
D. Punjab
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: National Sports University Ordinance, 2018 will establish

National Sports University with headquarters at Manipur.
National Sports University Ordinance, 2018 will be on the lines of the National
Sports University Bill, 2017, introduced in Lok Sabha on 10.08.2017. This will
be a specialized University, first of its kind, to promote sports education in the
areas of sports sciences, sports technology, sports management and sports
coaching besides functioning as the national training centre for select sports
disciplines by adopting the best international practices.
For setting up the University, land has been made available by the Government
of Manipur in Koutruk, West Imphal district of Manipur.
National Sports University Ordinance, 2018 has come into force as the
President of India has given his assent to the Union Cabinet’s decision to
promulgate the said Ordinance.
Q14) Consider the following pairs:
Regions sometimes Country

mentioned in news
1. Socotra Islands : Yemen

2. Guam : North Korea
3. Qingdao : China
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Recently, Indian Naval Ship Sunayna evacuated 38 Indian

nationals stranded on the Yemeni island of Socotra in the aftermath of
cyclone Mekenu.
The Indian Naval Ships of the Eastern Fleet participated in the 22 nd edition of
Exercise Malabar, off Guam, USA. It is for the first time the Malabar Exercise
is being conducted at off Guam, a US Territory.
Qingdao is in China, where the annual meeting of the Council of Heads of

States of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) was held in June 2018.
It was India’s first-ever meeting of the Council as a full member.
Socotra Island, Qingdao and Guam were seen in the news recently.
Source: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1534186;
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1534273 and
http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1534938
Q15) NITI Aayog is preparing a road map for a full-scale implementation of

Methanol Economy in the near future. What is/are the likely benefit(s) of
adopting the methanol economy?
1. Adopting Methanol would bring down pollution in the country.

2. Over a period of time use of diesel as a fuel can completely be done away
with.
3. India, by adopting Methanol can reduce the cost of fuel as well as fuel
import bill.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Methanol is a clean burning drop in fuel which can replace
both petrol and diesel in transportation & LPG, Wood, Kerosene in cooking
fuel.
Methanol 15 % blend (M15) in petrol will reduce pollution by 33% & diesel
replacement (M100) by methanol will reduce by more than 80%. Adopting
Methanol in this scale would bring down pollution in the country by more than
40% and not to forget the benefits from import substitution.
Over a period of time diesel can completely be done away with.
India by adopting Methanol can have its own indigenous fuel at the cost of
approximately Rs. 19 per liter at least 30% cheaper than any available fuel. The
Methanol blending program with petrol will further reduce our fuel bill by at
least Rs. 5000 crore annually in next 3 years.
NITI Aayog has drawn out a comprehensive plan to replace 20% of crude
imports from Methanol alone.
Q16) The term ‘Berne Convention’, sometimes seen in the news is related
to,
A. The minimum age for admission to employment and work

B. Protection of intellectual properties related to Literary and Artistic Works
C. Protection of biodiversity
D. Elimination of Violence against Women and their Right to Development
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Berne Convention is related to the Protection of Literary and

Artistic Works.
India has been the Member of Berne Convention since 28 th April, 1928 and has
been submitting the declaration as per Article II & III of the Appendix from time
to time.
India recently submitted the declaration as per Article II & III of the Appendix
to the Berne Convention.
Q17) As per the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) notification 2018, which of
the following activities are permitted in the CRZ?
1. Storage of oil, fertilisers and hazardous substances

2. Construction of sewage and effluent treatment facilities
3. Land reclamation for erosion control
4. Construction of desalination plants
A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) was first introduced in 1991
under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
When the CRZ was first introduced, its spirit was to limit activities on the coast
— only those which were essential. The initial 1991 notification saw port-based
activities as being essential. The notification allowed construction of limited
facilities, infrastructure and equipment which was essential for transactions
that take place within a port. These included storage of oil, fertilisers,
hazardous substances and also dredging works and land reclamation for
erosion control.
Over a period of time, a number of other activities have been declared by the
ministry as being essential to the coast, which covers activities such as
exploration of oil and natural gas (amended in 2001), strategic and defence-
related port and harbor works (amended in 2011) and pipelines and
transmission lines (amended in 2001). 2018 amendments now permit
desalination plants and allow sewage and effluent treatment within the
CRZ.
Recently, government amended the Coastal Regulation Zone.
Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/analysis/we-may-see-other-
sterlite-like-protests-against-polluting-industries/story-
uDGDncgpAwY5ObWYLEeHcP.html
Q18) Which of the following statements correctly describe the term ‘Gig
Economy’, often seen in the news?
A. It’s a labour market characterized by the prevalence of short-term

contracts or freelance work, against ‘traditional’ permanent jobs.
B. It is a term used to describe the economy in which more than three-
fourth of the GDP comes from the service sector.
C. It describes an economy which is more dependent on automation and
other technologies rather than human labour.
D. None of the statements (A), (B), and (C) given above is correct in this
context.
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Gig Economy refers to a labour market characterized by the

prevalence of short-term contracts or freelance work, against ‘traditional’
permanent jobs.
Source: https://www.nytimes.com/2018/06/07/business/economy/work-gig-
economy.html
Q19) Consider the following statements about the Science-based targets
initiative.
1. It is a global initiative to enable leading companies in setting ambitious

and meaningful corporate Green House Gas (GHG) reduction targets.
2. It is an initiative of UNFCCC secretariat.
3. Tata Steel is the first Indian company to set its science-based target.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Science Based Targets, an initiative to drive corporate climate

actions globally, has given companies a clear roadmap for how much they need
to shrink their carbon footprint to realize the Paris Agreement goals. The
initiative champions science-based target setting as a powerful way of boosting
companies’ competitive advantage in the transition to the low-carbon economy.
Science Based Targets is a joint initiative of CDP, the UN Global Compact

(UNGC), the World Resources Institute (WRI) and WWF.
On March 14, 2018, Mahindra Sanyo Steel became the first Indian company
to set its science-based target. Globally, it is also the first steel company to set
a target.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/science-based-
targets/article24089536.ece
Q20) ‘World Energy Outlook’ report is published by which of the following

organization?
A. International Energy Agency (IEA)
B. World Bank
C. International Energy Forum (IEF)
D. World Economic Forum (WEF)
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: ‘World Energy Outlook’ report is published by International

Energy Agency (IEA).
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/iea-praises-india-for-
improvement-in-access-to-energy/article24073677.ece
1. Election Commission of India can de-register any political party

registered with it.
2. If the remainder of the term of a Member of Loksabha in relation to a
vacancy is less than one year, the bye-election for filling such vacancy
need not be held within a period of six months.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The Supreme Court has held that Election Commission
cannot de-register political parties. But found that EC can delist parties.
Over the last two years, more than 1,000 political parties have been delisted.
As per the Section 151A of the Representation of the People's Act, time limit
for filling vacancies: a bye-election for filling any vacancy shall be held within a
period of six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy: Provided
that nothing contained in this section shall apply if: (a) the remainder of the
term of a member in relation to a vacancy is less than one year.
Recently, some of the MPs from Andhra Pradesh resigned. Bye-elections would
not be held for these seats as the remainder of the term is less than one year.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/more-than-1000-
political-parties-delisted-by-election-commission-in-last-two-
years/article24073244.ece
1. They are extremely rare primates, listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife
Protection Act (1972).
2. They are endemic to the north eastern part of India.
3. They are the only apes to be found in India.
Above statements best describes which of the following species?
A. Lion tailed macaque

B. Hoolock Gibbons
C. Bornean orangutan
D. Gee's golden langur
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Hoolock Gibbons are the only apes to be found in India.
Hoolock Gibbons are extremely rare primates, listed under Schedule I of the
Wildlife Protection Act (1972) and as an endangered as per the red list of IUCN.
Hoolock Gibbons are found in certain specific habitats of Assam and Arunachal
Pradesh and also in Eastern Bangladesh.
Recently, Hoolock Gibbons, the only apes to be found in India, were seized by
officials of the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, near the India-Bangladesh
border.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/rare-apes-
seized-near-kolkata/article24051205.ece
Q23) Consider the following statements about India’s first disaster risk
index.
1. The index was prepared by NITI Aayog with support from the United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
2. Among the states Maharashtra is most at risk, while Delhi is most at risk
among Union territories (UTs).
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: A national disaster risk index mapping hazards and

vulnerabilities across 640 districts puts Maharashtra at the top of the chart
followed by West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, while Delhi is
most at risk among Union territories (UTs).
The index factors in exposure of population, agriculture and livestock and

environmental risk in drawing up the rankings.
The index is currently in the form of a draft report prepared by the Union home
ministry with support from the United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP).
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/delhi-most-vulnerable-ut-
in-indias-first-disaster-risk-index-maharashtra-leads-
states/articleshow/64525085.cms
Q24) Which of the following statement correctly describes the term ‘tax
inversion’, often seen in the news?
A. It refers to taxes further back in the chain are greater than those up the
chain.
B. Proportion of indirect tax collection in an economy is more than the
direct tax collection.
C. It is the proportion of the tax that is spent on the tax collection in the
country.
D. None of the statements (A), (B), and (C) given above is correct in this
context.
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Tax inversion refers to a situation whereby taxes further back
in the chain are greater than those up the chain.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/commerce-
ministry-working-on-mechanism-to-refund-taxes-paid-by-exporters-under-
gst/article24130365.ece
1. The novel Anandamath was set in the background of the Sanyashi

Bidroho (Sanyasi Rebellion).
2. The song Vande Mataram is written in the novel ‘Anandamath’.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The 19th century author’s novel Anandamath — which was set
in the background of the Sanyashi Bidroho (rebellion of monks in late 18th
century) — is considered to be one of key works on Bengal’s nationalism.
It was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. ‘Vande Mataram’ written in

the novel ‘Anandamath’ in 1870 was an important battle cry for the country’s
independence. ‘Anandamath’ was published in 1882.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/bjp-to-celebrate-
bankim-chandra/article24131832.ece
Q26) The term “Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure”, sometimes seen in the

news, is associated with which of the following organizations?
A. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)

B. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
C. European Union
D. Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure is associated with Shanghai

Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
In the Qingdao summit of SCO, the leaders talked about the special role of the
SCO Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure in the fight against “the three evils” —
terrorism, extremism and separatism — to ensure regional security.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/sco-calls-for-
global-front-to-fight-terror-groups/article24131840.ece
Q27) Consider the following statements about ‘Transformation Index’.
1. The index measures quality of democracy, market economy and

governance in 129 developing and transformation countries.
2. The index is published by the United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP).
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Transformation Index measures quality of democracy, market

economy and governance in 129 developing and transformation countries.
The index is published, since 2006, by the Germany based Bertelsmann

Foundation.
In its “Transformation Index 2018”, Bertelsmann Foundation has rated 58 out

of 129 developing nations as autocracies. According to the index, Bangladesh,
Lebanon, Mozambique, Nicaragua and Uganda are the “new” autocracies.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-democracy-project-in-
bangladesh/article24061452.ece
Q28) With reference to the Interstellar Mapping and Acceleration Probe

(IMAP) mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The mission aims to study the generation of cosmic rays in the

heliosphere, a sort of magnetic bubble surrounding our solar system.
2. The mission will search for extra terrestrial life in the Goldilocks zones.
3. It is a joint mission launched by European Space Agency and Japan’s
Jaxa.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: NASA is targeting 2024 for the launch of a new Interstellar
Mapping and Acceleration Probe (IMAP) mission to learn more about the
generation of cosmic rays in the heliosphere, a sort of magnetic bubble
surrounding and protecting our solar system.

The Interstellar Mapping and Acceleration Probe (IMAP) mission will help
researchers better understand the boundary of the heliosphere.
Heliosphere is the region where the constant flow of particles from our Sun,
called the solar wind, collides with material from the rest of the galaxy. This
collision limits the amount of harmful cosmic radiation entering the
heliosphere. IMAP will collect and analyse particles that make it through.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/nasas-imap-to-study-
cosmic-rays-in-heliosphere/article24068657.ece
Q29) Which of the following is/are considered as core duties of the Union
Finance Commission?
1. Devolution of taxes
2. Grants-in-aid to the states
3. Augmenting the resources of panchayats and municipalities
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: In India, the design of a sound intergovernmental transfer

system that will balance the mismatches in resources and expenditure
responsibilities of the various levels of government has been statutorily left to
the Union Finance Commission (UFC).
Article 280(3) and its first three clauses clearly spell out the core duties of the
UFC: tax devolution, grants-in-aid, and augmenting the resources of
panchayats and municipalities.
Finance Commission is in the news because of controversy over the terms of

reference.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/federalism-thats-not-
cooperative/article24073676.ece
Q30) Consider the following pairs.
Ports sometimes Country

seen in the news
1. Gwadar : Afghanistan
2. Hambantota : Sri Lanka
3. Kyaukpyu : Mauritius
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: In its string of pearls policy, China has built significant
relations across the Indian Ocean. These include Gwadar in Pakistan,
Hambantota in Sri Lanka, Kyaukpyu in Myanmar.
These ports were often seen in the news in the context of China’s string of
pearls policy.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/about-a-small-mauritian-
island/article24073692.ece
Q31) With reference to ‘Blue Flag’ certification, which of the following

statements is/are correct?
1. Blue Flag certification is given to those beaches which are clean,

environmental friendly and have international amenities.
2. The certification is given by Copenhagen-based Foundation for
Environmental Education (FEE).
3. The Chandrabhaga beach on the Konark coast of Odisha is the first in
Asia to get the Blue Flag certification.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: To achieve the Blue Flag standards, a beach had to strictly
comply with 33 environment and tourism-related conditions. A beach must be
plastic-free and equipped with a waste management system. Clean water
should be available for tourists, apart from international amenities. The beach
should have facilities for studying the environmental impact around the area.
The standards were established by the Copenhagen-based Foundation for

Environmental Education (FEE) in 1985.
The Chandrabhaga beach on the Konark coast of Odisha will be the first in
ASIA to get the Blue Flag certification.
The Chandrabhaga beach in Odisha will be the first in Asia to get the Blue Flag
certification. 12 more beaches in the country are to be developed into plastic-
free zones with international amenities.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odisha-beach-is-asias-first-
to-get-blue-flag-tag/article24073494.ece
1. The right to food is included under the right to life provisions of the
Constitution.
2. National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 guarantees a universal right to
food in India.
3. Claim under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 would not be
available in times of war, flood, drought, fire, cyclone or earthquake.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: in a 2001 case brought by the People’s Union for Civil
Liberties, in which the Supreme Court evolved a right to food and read it into
the right to life provisions of the Constitution.
National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 does not guarantee a universal right
to food. Instead, it limits the right to food to those identified on the basis of
certain criteria. It then goes on to further restrict the right to 75% of the Indian
population.
The Act also specifies that a claim under the Act would not be available in
times of “war, flood, drought, fire, cyclone or earthquake”.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/available-accessible-but-
not-stable/article24081864.ece
Q33) Consider the following pairs.
Employment Related Organization

Survey/Data
1. Quarterly Employment Survey : Labour Bureau

2. Periodic Labour Force Survey : NITI Aayog
3. Monthly payroll data : EPFO
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Labour Bureau conducts two major surveys on employment

scenario i.e Annual Employment-Unemployment Survey (EUS) and Quarterly
Employment Survey.
Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by Ministry of Statistics &

Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
The Employees Provident fund Organization (EPFO), a statutory organization

under Ministry of Labour & Employment has commenced releasing of payroll
data on monthly basis.
On the recommendations of Task Force on Employment, chaired by Dr. Arvind

Panagariya, the then Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog the Annual Employment
Unemployment Survey has been replaced by Periodic Labour Force Survey
(PLFS) being conducted by Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation
(MoSPI).
Common Service Centres (CSCs),
1. Provide Internet infrastructure to rural and urban areas.

2. May act as banking correspondents in rural areas.
3. Provides digital literacy in rural areas only.
A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Common Service Centres (CSCs) that provide Internet

infrastructure to rural areas will act as banking correspondents and there are
plans to sell insurance too in the future.
These centres apart from providing digital literacy are transforming into agents
of banking and later insurance. The idea is to deliver digital, Wi-Fi enabled
services like Aadhaar payments, pension, banking, and insurance. The
government will also push private participation in providing digital services
through these platforms.
Common Services Centre (CSC) is an initiative of the Ministry of Electronics &

IT (MeitY).
Recently government announced that Common Service Centres (CSCs) will act
as banking correspondents. The union government also plans to sell insurance
through CSCs in the future.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/cscs-to-act-as-
banking-correspondents/article24137984.ece
Q35) The “Global Cities Index”, which ranks the different cities of the
world based on current global standing and influence, is published by
which of the following organizations?
A. UN habitat
B. World Bank
C. UN Global Compact – Cities Programme
D. None of the above
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The Global Cities Index examines the current performance of
cities based on 27 metrics spanning five dimensions: business activity, human
capital, information exchange, cultural experience, and political engagement.
The Index also provides insights into the global reach, performance, and level
of development of the world’s largest cities.
AT Kearney, a global business-consulting firm ranks 135 cities based on
current global standing and influence on the world.
New York City came out on top as the ‘world’s most influential city,’ according
to a latest Global Cities Index 2018. Among Indian cities Mumbai ranked at the
52nd position, whereas New Delhi is in 58 th position.
Source: https://www.financialexpress.com/economy/global-cities-index-2018-
new-york-tops-global-cities-as-most-influential-where-delhi-mumbai-
stand/1201175
Q36) With reference to North Eastern Council (NEC), which of the

following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a statutory body mandated to function as a regional planning body

for the North Eastern Area.
2. North Eastern Council is chaired by Prime Minister.
3. Governors and Chief Ministers of all the eight North Eastern States are
the members of NEC.
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of the statements given above are correct
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: NEC was established under the North Eastern Council Act,
1971 as an apex level body for securing balanced and coordinated development
and facilitating coordination with the States. Subsequent to the Amendment of
2002, NEC has been mandated to function as a regional planning body for the
North Eastern Area.
Governors and Chief Ministers of all the eight North Eastern States are its
Member.
The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal of Ministry of Development of

North Eastern Region (DoNER) for the nomination of the Union Home Minister
as ex-officio Chairman of North Eastern Council (NEC). The Cabinet also
approved that Minister of State, Ministry of DoNER would serve as Vice
Chairman of the Council.
Q37) Recently union cabinet approved “Dam Safety Bill, 2018”. In this
context consider the following statements.
1. The Bill proposes to constitute a National Committee on Dam to frame

dam safety policies and recommend necessary regulations.
2. The bill provides for a three tier structure to implement the policy,
guidelines and standards for dam safety in the country.
3. The bill provides for adequate compensation and rehabilitation of victims
in the case of any major dam failure.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Salient features of Dam Safety Bill, 2018:
 The Bill provides for proper surveillance, inspection, operation and

maintenance of all specified dams in the country to ensure their safe
functioning.
 The Bill provides for constitution of a National Committee on Dam
Safety which shall evolve dam safety policies and recommend necessary
regulations as may be required for the purpose.
 The bill provides for a two tier structure to implement the policy,
guidelines and standards for dam safety in the country. They are
National Dam Safety Authority at central level and State Committee
on Dam Safety at the state level.
 National Dam Safety Authority as a regulatory body shall discharge
functions to implement the policy, guidelines and standards for dam
safety in the country.
There is no provision in the bill for compensation and rehabilitation of victims

in the case of any dam failure.
The Union Cabinet has recently approved the proposal for introduction of Dam
Safety Bill, 2018 in the Parliament.
Q38) Consider the following statements about ‘National Council of Senior

Citizens (NCSrC)’.
1. The NCSrC advises Central and State Governments on the entire gamut
of issues related to welfare of senior citizens.
2. Prime Minister is the Chairperson and Union Minister for Social Justice
and Empowerment is the Vice-Chairperson of NCSrC.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: In pursuance of the National Policy for Older Persons (NPOP),
1999, a National Council for Older Persons (NCOP) was constituted in the same
year under the Chairpersonship of the Minister for Social Justice and
Empowerment to oversee implementation of the Policy. NCOP reconstituted and
renamed as National Council of Senior Citizens (NCSrC) in 2012.
The NCSrC advises Central and State Governments on the entire gamut of
issues related to welfare of senior citizens and enhancement of their quality of
life.
Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment is the Chairperson of

NCSrC and the Minister of State for Social Justice and Empowerment is the
Vice-Chairperson.
Recently, 3rd Meeting of National Council of Senior Citizens (NCSrC) was

convened by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
1. India is the second largest steel producing country.

2. Odisha is a major steel producing State contributing more than half of
steel production in the country.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: India has become the second largest steel producing country.
In the financial year 2017-18, India produced more than 100 million tonnes of
steel.
Odisha is a major steel producing State contributing more than half of steel
production in the country.

Odisha is rich in minerals and mines and has a potential to produce 100
million tonnes of steel out of 300 million tonnes envisaged in National Steel
Policy by the year 2030-31.
Q40) With reference to the recently launched Composite Water

Management Index (CWMI), consider the following statements.
1. CWMI comprises of 9 broad sectors with 28 different indicators related to

water resource management.
2. Maharashtra emerged as number one state in terms of efficient
management of water resources.
3. The index was launched by NITI Aayog partnership with Ministry of
Agriculture and Ministry of Rural development.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The CWMI is an important tool to assess and improve the
performance of States/ Union Territories in efficient management of water
resources. This has been done through a first of its kind water data collection
exercise in partnership with Ministry of Water Resources, Ministry of Drinking
Water & Sanitation and all the States/Union Territories.
CWMI has been developed by NITI Aayog comprising 9 broad sectors with 28
different indicators covering various aspects of ground water, restoration of
water bodies, irrigation, farm practices, drinking water, policy and governance.
The report ranks Gujarat as number one in the reference year (2016-17),
followed by Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra.

NITI Aayog has recently prepared and released a report on Composite Water
Management Index (CWMI).
Q41) With reference to the auditing powers of the Comptroller and

Auditor General of India (C&AG) which of the following statement is not
correct?
A. In India, CAG carries out ‘performance audit’ but not outcome audit.
B. Audit of the public sector banks are outside the purview of auditing
powers of CAG.
C. While auditing the ministries or State government accounts, CAG cannot
ask questions on policies.
D. CAG cannot audit the public-private-partnerships projects.
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: While auditing the ministries or State government accounts,

the C&AG cannot ask questions on policies. For example, while auditing the
Ministry of Finance, the C&AG can comment on impact of bank recapitalization
on government finances, but not the wisdom of the policy itself.
CAG does not audit banks, not even public sector banks.
CAG has moved from compliance audit to performance audit. There cannot be
a voluntary audit of private companies by the C&AG unless ordered by a court
or on basis of entrustment, or where government money is involved as in
public-private-partnerships.
Recently CAG Rajiv Meharshi proposed a concept of ‘outcome audits’ — that

assess whether a scheme or a programme has been successful in achieving the
desired goals.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/for-a-
government-auditor-its-a-quiet-job/article24155863.ece
Q42) With reference to the Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), often seen
in the news, consider the following statements.
1. FPCs were first created in 2003 by a special amendment of the

Companies Act.
2. They are ‘for-profit’ enterprises fully owned by farmers.
3. Y. K. Alagh committee (2003) first recommended the concept of producer
companies.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: FPCs were created by a special amendment of the Companies

Act in 2003.
The concept of producer companies is based on the recommendations of an

expert committee led by noted economist, Y. K. Alagh.
They are ‘for-profit’ enterprises fully owned by farmers. FPCs have successfully
experimented with institutional and market led innovations to demonstrate a
positive impact on price realization, cost saving, and local employment.
Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), a relatively new institutional architecture

— being both farmers led and farmer owned — is fast gaining traction as a
resilient interface between farmers and markets.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/more-power-to-the-
farmer/article24156673.ece
Q43) The term ‘Defense Technology and Trade Initiative’, sometimes seen
in the news, in the context of India’s relation with which of the following
country?
A. Russia
B. United State
C. Israel
D. European Union
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: As part of improving high tech cooperation, India and the U.S.
announced the ambitious Defence Technology and Trade Initiative and India
was designated a major defence partner.
The DTTI is not a treaty or a law. It is a flexible mechanism to ensure that

senior leaders from two nations are persistently focused on the opportunities
and challenges associated with growing defense partnership.
Defence Technology and Trade Initiative was recently in the news in the context
of proposed 2+2 dialogue between India and U.S.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/road-map-laid-for-india-
us-meet/article24195118.ece
Q44) With reference to the recently launched National Digital Library of

India (NDLI), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. NDLI is the Single Window Platform that collects and collates metadata
from premier learning institutions in India and abroad.
2. National Digital Library of India (NDLI) is a project of the Ministry of
Human Resource Development.
3. NDLI initiative is a part of the National Mission on Libraries and
developed by Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: This National Digital Library of India (NDLI) is a project of the
Ministry of Human Resource Development under the aegis of National Mission
on Education through Information and Communication Technology (NMEICT).
The objective of NDL is to make digital educational resources available to all

citizens of the country to empower, inspire and encourage learning. National
Digital Library of India is developed by IIT Kharagpur.
NDL is the Single Window Platform that collects and collates metadata from
premier learning institutions in India and abroad, as well as other relevant
sources.
The Union Human Resource Development Minister launched the new digital
initiative of HRD Ministry ‘National Digital Library of India’ on the occasion of
National Reading Day.
Q45) The Energy Progress report is published by which of the following

organizations?
A. World Bank
B. World Economic Forum
C. Asian Development Bank
D. G-20
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Energy Progress report is published by World Bank.
The World Bank in its latest ‘Energy Progress report’ says India is doing more
than any other country in providing electricity to people. Between 2010 and
2016 India provided power to 30 million people each year.
opinion/article24206204.ece
1. The basic unit for electrification under the Prime Minister’s Saubhagya
scheme is ‘household’ rather than ‘village’.
2. Leisang village in Manipur became the last village to be connected to the
national power grid.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Unlike earlier schemes, the Prime Minister’s Saubhagya

scheme changes the metric from village electrification to household
electrification.
Leisang village in Manipur's Senapati district became the last village to be

connected to the national power grid.
opinion/article24206204.ece
Q47) With reference to the UN Human Rights Council, consider the

following statements.
1. It is a 47 member council, whose members are elected by the UN’s

General Assembly.
2. Unites States is the first country ever to be dropped out voluntarily from
the UNHRC.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: There are 47 countries in the UN Human Rights Council,

elected by the UN’s General Assembly with a specific number of seats allocated
for each region of the globe. Members serve for three-year terms and can serve
only two terms in a row.
The council was created in 2006. Unites States is the first country to be
dropped out voluntarily. Libya was kicked out seven years ago.
The United States recently withdrew from the United Nations’ Human Rights
Council.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/trump-administration-pulls-
us-out-of-un-human-rights-council-not-worthy-of-its-name-says-envoy-nikki-
haley-5224884/
1. Global Compact on Refugees (GCR), a framework for refugee protection,

was created under the 1951 Refugee Convention.
2. India is a signatory to the New York Declaration for Refugees and
Migrants adopted in 2016.
3. So far, India has not enacted any law on domestic asylum.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: India is not a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Convention and
has no domestic asylum law.
But, India is a signatory to the New York Declaration for Refugees and
Migrants, which was adopted by 193 countries in September 2016.
The New York Declaration sets the stage for a new framework for refugee
protection — the Global Compact on Refugees (GCR). The Compact is a
coordinated effort to strengthen international response to protracted refugee
situations and comprehensively addresses all stages of refugee protection, from
reception to long-term solutions.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-imperative-to-offer-
refuge/article24203930.ece
Q49) With reference to the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP), seen

in the news recently, consider the following statements.
1. GSP is a trade preference programme, designed to provide zero duties or

preferential access for developing countries to advanced markets.
2. The Generalized System of Preferences was instituted under the aegis of
GATT.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) is one of the

oldest trade preference programmes in the world, and was designed to provide
zero duties or preferential access for developing countries to advanced markets.
The Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) was instituted in 1971 under the
aegis of UNCTAD.

In April 2018, the Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR)
announced that it would review the GSP eligibility of India, Indonesia, and
Kazakhstan.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/gsp-win-win-for-indo-
us-trade/article24241730.ece
Q50) The term ‘Third Neighbour Policy’, seen in the news recently, is
associated with which of the following countries?
A. China
B. Mongolia
C. India
D. Israel
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The ‘Third Neighbour’ policy is associated with Mongolia.
The ‘Third Neighbour’ policy of Mongolia, a land-locked nation between Russia

and China, refers to its building ties with countries other than these two.
Recently Union Home Minister visited Mongolia and appreciated its ‘Third
Neighbour’ policy.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/india-lauds-mongolias-
3rd-neighbour-policy-committed-to-strengthen-cultural-bond-rajnath-
singh/articleshow/64722918.cms
Q51) With reference to Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-India),

1. FIU-India is responsible for collating, analyzing and disseminating

financial intelligence on terrorist financing and money laundering.
2. It is a statutory body headed by Revenue Secretary.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU) is the government

agency mandated with collating, analyzing and disseminating financial
intelligence on terrorist financing and money laundering.
FIU-IND is an independent body reporting directly to the Economic Intelligence

Council (EIC) headed by the Finance Minister.
FIU-IND has forwarded a 65,829 Suspicious Transactions Reports (STRs) to

law enforcement agencies during FY18 — the highest in the agency’s history.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/fiu-forwarded-over-65k-
reports-in-fy18-the-highest-ever-5231846/
Q52) With reference to ‘GRIHA rating tool’, which of the following

statements is/are not correct?
1. GRIHA evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically

over its entire life cycle.
2. The tool was developed by TERI and adopted by the Ministry of Housing
as the national rating system for green buildings.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: GRIHA is an acronym for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat
Assessment.
GRIHA is a rating tool that helps people assesses the performance of their
building against certain nationally acceptable benchmarks. It evaluates the
environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle,
thereby providing a definitive standard for what constitutes a ‘green building’.
The rating system, based on accepted energy and environmental principles, will
seek to strike a balance between the established practices and emerging
concepts, both national and international.
TERI developed GRIHA, which was adopted as the national rating system for
green buildings by the Government of India in 2007. This tool has been
adopted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Source: https://blogs.economictimes.indiatimes.com/et-editorials/the-power-
of-cool-going-beyond-24-c/ and http://www.grihaindia.org
Q53) Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘GROWTH-

India’, seen in the news recently?
A. It is an initiative under the Poshan Abhiyan to reduce the problem of

malnutrition in India.
B. It is a multi-ministry programme to achieve double digit economic growth
by 2022.
C. It is the India’s first robotic telescope designed for observing the transient
events in the universe.
D. It is an initiative of Ministry of External Affairs for the development
cooperation with the Island countries in the Indian Ocean.
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: GROWTH-India is the facility at Hanle is part of a multi-

country collaborative initiative known as ‘Global Relay of Observatories
Watching Transients Happen’ (GROWTH) to observe transient events in the
universe.
The telescope located at the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO) at Hanle in

Ladakh is the country’s first robotic telescope and the first one designed to
observe dynamic or transient events in the universe.

The telescope saw its first light on the night of June 12.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/science/indias-first-
robotic-telescope-opens-its-eyes-to-the-universe/article24209626.ece
Q54) With reference to the recommendations of 14 th Finance commission,

which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The 14th Finance Commission (FC) enhanced the share of devolution to

the States from 32% to 42%.
2. 14th FC recommended State-specific grants but it dispensed with sectoral
grants.
3. It did not accord any weight to the 2011 population data while
recommending devolution of resources to the states.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The 14th FC had adopted a formula-based tax devolution

approach, apart from grants-in-aid for local bodies, disaster relief, and post-
devolution revenue deficit grants. The share of devolution to the States was
enhanced to 42% from 32%, which gave the States considerable flexibility.
However, it dispensed with sectoral grants for elementary education, the forest
sector and renewable energy sector, among others. No State-specific grants
were recommended.
The devolution formula is central to the approach of resource transfers. The

14th FC accorded 27.5% weight to the population (of which 17.5% was of the
1971 population and 10% was of the 2011 population), 15% to area, 7.5% to
forest cover and 50% to income distance.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/uniquely-
placed/article24255628.ece
Q55) World Investment Report is published by,
A. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

B. World Economic Forum (WEF)
C. International Finance Corporation (IFC)
D. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: World Investment Report is published by United Nations

Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
As per UNCTAD’s World Investment Report, India continues to be one of the

top FDI destinations in the world. Total FDI flows have increased steadily –
more than 222 billion US dollars have been received in the last four years.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1536579
Q56) Consider the following statements about the Panchayats (Extension

to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996.
1. The act, for the first time in India, defines the minor forest produces
(MFP).
2. Under the act, the ownership of ‘minor forest produces’ (MFP) is
conferred upon the Gram Sabha.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Under the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, or PESA the ownership of MFP is conferred upon
the Gram Sabha (not the non-timber forest products (NTFP) gatherer).
The Act neither defines ‘minor forest produces’ (MFP) nor has any mechanism
been built in for framing of rules at state level to define these.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of

Forest Rights) Act, 2006, was brought to remedy this.
Source: https://blogs.timesofindia.indiatimes.com/voices/the-van-dhan-
route-to-gram-swaraj-what-it-will-take-to-treble-tribal-incomes-in-two-years/
Q57) The ‘Blockchain technology’ has applications in which of the

following?
1. Transfer of Funds
2. Land records and registration systems
3. Manufacturing and distribution industries
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Banks have been mooting technology such as blockchain for
more efficient transfers.
Indian government is currently exploring opportunities to bring more

transparency in administration systems such as land records and registration
systems.
Beyond these, blockchain is showing promises in industries such as

manufacturing and distribution, virtual gaming, music.

Recently, NITI Aayog and Gujarat Narmada Valley Fertilizers & Chemicals
Limited (GNFC) have signed a Statement of Intent (SOI) to work together
towards implementing a Proof-of-Concept (“PoC”) application using Blockchain
Technology for fertiliser subsidy management.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-business/hyderabad-
may-house-first-government-blockchain-centre/article24284240.ece and
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/tech/software/one-out-of-every-400-
indian-developers-can-work-on-blockchain-
research/articleshow/64099262.cms
Q58) With reference to the difference between the University Grants

Commission and the proposed Higher Education Commission of India,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. UGC has the power to disburse the grants to central institutions,

whereas the HECI has no power to give grants.
2. UGC can only publish the list of bogus institutions, whereas the HECI
can order closure of sub-standard and bogus institutions.
3. UGC followed the regime of ‘transparent disclosure’ for assessment,
whereas the HECI can conduct inspections to assess the institutions.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Higher Education Commission of India (Repeal of

University Grants Commission Act) Act, 2018, takes away funding powers from
the proposed regulator and gives it powers to ensure academic quality and even
close down bogus institutions.
The new regime separates the academic and funding aspects of higher
education. While HECI will be in charge of ensuring academic quality in
universities and colleges, the Ministry of Human Resource Development
(MHRD) – or another mechanism that will be put in place later – will be
responsible for funding universities and colleges.
The proposed Regulator will have powers to enforce compliance to the academic
quality standards and will have the power to order closure of sub-standard and
bogus institutions. Moreover, non-compliance could result in fines or even a
jail sentence. Till now, the UGC had no such powers.
UGC can conduct inspections to assess the institutions, where as HECI will
practically do away with this and shift to a regime of ‘transparent disclosure’
instead.
Centre has prepared a Bill for a Higher Education Commission of India – aimed
at replacing the University Grants Commission.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/new-body-to-replace-ugc-
proposed/article24274970.ece
1. The Bijak (the ‘Seedling’), collection of poems, was composed by Sant

Kabir.
2. Sant Kabir was a disciple of the medieval Bhakti saint Ramananda.
3. Some of the Kabir’s works were incorporated into the Sikh scripture,
Guru Granth Sahib.
4. Sant Kabir was contemporary of Babur.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Bijak (the ‘Seedling’) is the greatest work of Sant Kabir. This
collection of poems explains how Kabir viewed spirituality. Kabir’s works
consist mostly of two-line couplets, known as ‘Kabir ke Dohe’.
Ramananda was Kabir’s guru. Kabir too often refers to Ramananda as his lord
in his writings.
A major part of Kabir’s work was collected by Guru Arjan Dev, the fifth Sikh
guru, who incorporated them into the Sikh scripture, Guru Granth Sahib.
In his last days, Kabir was brought before emperor Sikandar Lodi and charged
with claiming possession of divine powers. He was banished from Varanasi in
1495. Thereafter he along with his disciples moved about throughout northern
India, continuing his life in exile. Kabir died at Maghar near Gorakhpur in
1518.
To mark Kabir’s 500th death anniversary year, the Government of Uttar

Pradesh is dedicating an institution to Sant Kabir to further his teachings.
Source: https://www.thestatesman.com/india/sant-kabir-his-story-writings-
philosophies-and-some-lesser-known-facts-1502654353.html
Q60) Recently, the Rupee saw a sharp fall against the dollar. Which of the
following factors is/are most likely to be responsible for this?
1. Rising crude oil prices

2. Capital outflows from India
3. Rise in the exports from India
4. Fear of global trade war
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: A combination of rising crude oil prices which would stroke
inflation and widen the current account gap and looming trade war fears that
is prompting outflows from emerging markets is putting pressure on the rupee.
The Indian currency which depreciated more than 7% the year 2018 and it is
the worst performing Asian currency so far.
The currency will be under pressure in the near term as oil prices continue to
stay high and capital outflows from the emerging markets to continue.
Recently, the rupee breached the 69-a-dollar mark for the first time ever, which
prompted the central bank to intervene in the currency market.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/rbi-steps-in-as-
rupee-hits-record-low/article24282361.ece
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is aimed at,
1. Conserving biological diversity

2. Sustainably using biological components
3. Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilisation of
genetic resources
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is aimed at

conserving biological diversity, sustainably using biological components and
fair and equitable sharing of benefits (with local or indigenous communities)
that may arise out of the utilisation of genetic resources. The latter was
delineated in the Nagoya Protocol, which came into effect in 2014.
An international team of scientists recently said that the Convention on

Biological Diversity (CBD) is hindering biodiversity research and preventing
international collaborations due to regulations that have risen due to its
implementation.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-life/is-biodiversity-
treaty-a-hurdle-to-conservation-research/article24284216.ece
Q62) Union government recently launched a mobile application ‘ReUnite’.

What is the objective of his App?
A. To provide the data related to decentralized Renewable Energy

production capacities.
B. To provide information and create awareness about India among the
persons of Indian origin.
C. To trace the out of school children and bring them into the formal
schooling system.
D. To track and trace missing and abandoned children in India.
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The mobile application called ReUnite helps to track and trace
missing and abandoned children in India.
Union Minister Shri Suresh Prabhu recently launched the mobile application
called ReUnite.
Q63) Consider the following statements about ‘Sabang Island’, seen in the
news recently.
1. The island is located at the northern tip of Sumatra and is 710 km

southeast of Andaman Islands.
2. China has developed a port in the Island under its Belt and Road
initiative.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Island of Sabang is located at the northern tip of Sumatra and
close to the Malacca Strait. Sabang is located 710km southeast of Andaman
Islands and less than 500km from the entrance of the Malacca Strait through
which almost 40% of India’s trade passes.
During Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s recent visit to Indonesia, India received
economic and military access to the strategic island of Sabang.
Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/indonesia-gives-india-
access-to-strategic-port-of-sabang/story-KPXWKy7PGAHFUi0jCL26yJ.html
Q64) With reference to the ‘Talanoa dialogue’, which of the following

statements is/are not correct?
1. It is a global platform to review of climate commitment and to take stock

of the current progress made towards climate action.
2. The dialogue was launched in 2015, during the United Nations Climate
Change Conference, COP-21, held in Paris, France.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The Bonn climate change conference, 2018 saw the launch of
the global review of climate commitment, known as the Talanoa Dialogue.
Launched by Fiji at COP-23 to take stock of the current progress made towards
climate action, the dialogue witnessed participation from every walk of life—
youths, civil society, businesses, indigenous groups and governments—who
narrated their experiences on dealing with climate impacts.
The Bonn climate change conference was held in May 2018.
Source: Down to Earth, June 2018
Q65) With reference to the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016,

1. It is India’s first attempt at tackling the menace of plastic waste.

2. It introduced ‘Extended Producer Responsibility’ (EPR) for producers,
importers and brand owners to ensure environmentally sound
management of plastic products.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: India’s first attempt at tackling the menace of plastic waste
came in 2011 when the government notified the Plastic Waste (Management
and Handling) Rules, 2011. The policy sought to disincentivize the use of poly
bags by setting up a pricing mechanism for them and also to establish rules for
recycling by local authorities.
The Rules were replaced with a stronger Plastic Waste Management Rules,
2016. The new rules gave emphasis on a complete ban on plastics below 50
microns, phasing out use of multilayered packaging and introducing extended
producer responsibility (EPR) for producers, importers and brand owners to
ensure environmentally sound management of plastic products until the end of
their lives.
‘Beat the Plastic Pollution’ is the theme of World Environment Day, 2018,
which was celebrated on June 5 th.
Source: Down to Earth, June 2018
Q66) ‘Internet of Things (IoT)’ has applications in which of the following?
1. Sustainable land and water resource management

2. Food security
3. Disaster management
4. Public Health
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. None of the above
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The Internet of Things enables objects sharing information

with other objects in the network, recognizing events and changes so to react
autonomously in an appropriate manner.
The applications of IoT in sustainable rural development include:
1. Sustainable land and water resource management: This includes an

active monitoring system for monitoring the environment as
environmental and climate changes can massively impact agriculture.
2. Food security: Food security can be monitored via IoT.
3. Disaster management: IoT systems can be used to predict earthquakes
based on microscopic vibrations and help reduce losses in these
incidents.
4. Public Health: wearable devices for patients will make it possible for
patient’s body conditions to be monitored without physical sessions with
the doctor, and treatment could be routinely adjusted based on the
information.
Source: Kurukshetra, June 2018

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1. Installation of solar street lights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Learning Zone: Phase-III of Off-grid and Decentralized Solar PV Application

1. Solar Street Lights: 3,00,000 numbers of solar street lights will be

Why is this question important?

1. India has achieved the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) target of

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Learning Zone: India registered a significant decline in Maternal Mortality

 Maternal Mortality Ratio of India has declined from 167 in 2011-2013 to

Why is this question important?

Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletins 2016 was released recently.

Learning Zone: The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action, popularly known as

Why is this question important?

Q4) “Global Peace Index (GPI)” is released by which of the following?

A. The International Peace Institute (IPI)

Learning Zone: The Global Peace Index (GPI) is released by Australia-based

Why is this question important?

Q5) Consider the following statements.

1. The Special Economic Zones (SEZ) were established in India to enhance

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Why is this question important?

Government of India has constituted a group of eminent persons to study the

Q6) In the context of economy, which of the following constitute

1. Independent monetary policy

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Why is this question important?

Q7) Consider the following statements.

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) aims to,

1. Maintain price stability, while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Why is this question important?

A. It is a programme to document, map and monitor all life, and develop a

Why is this question important?

Project Half-Earth is offered as a solution to the “biological annihilation” or the

Q9) What is “S-400 Triumf”, sometimes seen in the news?

A. A radar system jointly developed by India and Israel

Learning Zone: S-400 Triumf is Russian-made advanced Air Defense Systems

Why is this question important?

Q10) With reference to the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA),

1. It is an independent regulator overseeing the auditing profession, with its

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Why is this question important?

Q11) With reference to the business correspondents (BCs), which of the

1. They provide services such as savings, deposits, remittance and

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Learning Zone: Business correspondents provide financial and banking