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1.

Fundamentals of nursing

2. Anatomy & physiology

3. Physics and Chemistry

4. Microbiology

5. The Immune system

6. Oncology

7. The Respiratory system

8. The Cardiovascular system

9. THE DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

10.Urinary system

11.Anaesthesia nursing

12.Emergency Nursing

13.The Integumentary system

14.Musculoskeletal system

15.Eyes, Ears, Nose and throat

16.The Endocrine System

17.Psychiatric Nursing

18.Gynecology
(1)Fundamentals of nursing
Q 1 before taking an axillary temperature it is most important to ;
Ans dry the armpit by patting the area with a towel
Q 2 the word flatus refers to:
Ans gas in the intestinal tract
Q 3 which of the following terms describes a high fever, usually above 41 degrees centigrade ?
Ans hyperpyrexia
Q 4 which of the following positions would best facilitate examination of the rectum or vagina ?
Ans dorsal recumbent position
Q 5 which of the following assessment measures is use to assess the location,shape,size, and density of
tissues ?
Ans percussion
Q 6 A client who presents with a dusky, bluish skin color is experiencing which of the following conditions?
Ans cyanosis
Q 7 Mr. Rogers has been diagnosed as having a large tumor in his left lung . which assessment technique
would be used to determine the size of this tumors ?
Ans percussion
Q 8 most drugs are excreted through which of the following organs ?
Ans kidneys
Q 9 A type of medication that is most effective when taken without water is :
Ans a sedative cough mixture
Q 10 which of the following measurement systems uses a grain as a basic unit of weight ?
Ans apothecary
Q 11 which of the following is the best example of charting the results of an enema ?
Ans solution returned clear with small amount of constipated stool
Q 12 A rectal temperature of 99.4F (37.4F) is considered to :
Ans within the normal range
Q 13 an axillary temperature is taken by placing the thermometer :
Ans so that the bulb is in the armpit
Q 14 the most common sites of taking pulse are :
Ans the wrist and temple
Q 15 A pulse of unsually full force is best described as :
Ans bounding
Q 16 stertorous breathing refers to :
Ans noisy or snoring type of breathing
Q 17 Cheyne-stokes respirations are characterized by :
Ans periods of dyspnea followed by periods of apnea
Q 18 Blood pressure is defined as the :
Ans amount of force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels
Q 19 when taking blood pressure, the first in a series of sounds heard through the stethoscope is called the :
Ans systolic pressure
Q 20 The normal range of blood pressure is generally considered to be :
Ans 90 to 120 over 60 to 80
Q 21 Hypotension refers to :
Ans abnormally low blood pressure
Q 22 When recording observation of client,the nurse must remember that a clients chart is:
Ans a legal document that may be used as evidence in court .
Q 23 The main reason for charting a client s refusal of the medication is to :
Ans inform the physician of the clients reaction to the medication
Q 24 Correction of an error in charting should be made by :
Ans drawing a single line through the error and writing the word ‘error’ above
Q 25 The instrument used to examine the eye is called the :
Ans opthalmoscope
Q 26 If a client decide to leave the hospital against the advice of his physician, the nurse must :
Ans ask the client to sign a release, relieving the hospital and physician from responsibility
Q 27 The amount of urine considered adequate for most laboratory test would be :
Ans 60 to 100 ml
Q 28 A sterile specimen of urine is obtained by :
Ans having the client void directly into a specimen bottle
Q 29 The best time for collecting sputum specimen is :
Ans just before breakfast
Q 30 A sputum specimen must contain :
Ans material coughed up from the lungs and bronchi
Q 31 A stool specimen consists of :
Ans fecal material
Q 32 stool specimens usually should be sent the laboratory immediately after they are collected
Ans deterioration of the specimen begins almost immediately
Q 33 A culture is done by :
Ans growing bacteria under special laboratory conditions
Q 34 To test ice bags or ice caps for leakage it is best to :
Ans fill with water and check for leaks
Q 35 The position recommended for administration of an enema is :
Ans sim’s left lateral
Q 36 Catheterization is performed as a sterile procedure because :
Ans the urinary system is considered to be sterile unless an infection is present
Q 37 Irrigation of the bladder is most effective if it is done :
Ans when the bladder is empty
Q 38 The type of bandage most commonly used as a sling for the arm is the :
Ans triangular
Q 39 An object must be considered as contaminated if it is :
Ans left uncovered for a period of time
Q 40 To properly place the cover of a container of sterile articles onto a table so that it is not
contaminated. One must place the cover so that it is lying :
Ans sterile side up
Q 41 To prevent contamination of the tips of pick up forceps, they must always be held :
Ans with the tips down
Q 42 Pick up forceps should be used to :
Ans lift and handle sterile objects only
Q 43 When using pick up forceps to remove sterile articles from a container, it is most important to :
Ans avoid touching the inside or outside of the container with the forceps
Q 44 To decrease the client’s desire to expel the suppository, the nurse should insert it :
Ans at least 3 to 4 inches or well beyond the sphincter muscle
Q 45 All suppositories :
Ans have a base which melts at body temperature
Q 46 A medication that consists of a suspension of fat globules and water is classified as :
Ans an emulsion
Q 47 A drug that is absorbed into the blood and carried to specific organs or tissues is said to have :
Ans a systemic effect
Q 48 Drug which relieve pain are classified as :
Ans analgesics
Q 49 Vitamin b12 usually is given :
Ans intramuscularly
Q 50 The most common route administration of nitroglycerine is :
Ans sublingual
Q 51 Drug which help relieve the symptoms of an allergic reaction called :
Ans antihistamines
Q 52 When administering medication, the nurse’s chief concern should be :
Ans complete accuracy in measuring and giving the medications
Q 53 To be sure that correct medication is being poured for a client it is most important to :
Ans read the label on the container three times
Q 54 4cc. of a liquid can be measured most accurately in a :
Ans minim glass or calibrated syringe
Q 55 The goal of nursing care is :
Ans restoration of the client to as near his former state of health as possible
Q 56 Failure to use screens’ curtains and proper drapping wile performing a nursing procedure is
considered to be :
Ans an invasion to client’s privacy
Q 57 The bottom linen on the bed should be :
Ans pulled tight and tucked in well under the mattress
Q 58 An open bed is one in which the top linens are :
Ans fan folded to the foot of the bed
Q 59 Nurses are instructed to keep the client’s hair clean and well groomed because :
Ans cleanliness and daily brushing of the hair are important to the health of the scalp.
Q 60 The nits of the pediculi capitis are the :
Ans egg of head lice
Q 61 The best time to clean the client’s fingernails is :
Ans during the bath after the hands have soaked in warm water
Q 62 The safest method for shaping the fingernails is by using :
Ans an emery board
Q 63 The term urinary incontinence refers to :
Ans inability to control urination
Q 64 When dentures are note in use they should be :
Ans placed in a denture cup, labeled with client’s name and room number, and put in the drawer of the
bedside table
Q 65 A good back rub promotes relaxation and helps prevent pressure sores. A back is most relaxing if
the back is :
Ans rubbed with long smooth strokes, exerting more pressure on the upward stroke than the downward
stroke
Q 66 The term posture means :
Ans the manner in which one holds different parts of the body in relation to to each other
Q 67 A bed cradle may be used in the hospital or home to :
Ans support the weight of the top covers
Q 68 When the doctor orders passive exercises for a client this means that :
Ans the nurses exercises the muscles of the client by moving the extremities in a prescribed manner
Q 69 Another name for tube feeding is :
Ans gavage
Q 70 Tube feeding is usually done :
Ans every 4 to 6 hours
Q 71 It is recommended that bath water used for a bed bath be changed :
Ans at least once during the bath
Q 72 The temperature of the bed bath water should be:
Ans 105 to 115 F ( 41 to 46 C )
Q 73 To remove dust from a furniture of a client’s unit it is best to use:
Ans a damp cloth
Q 74 Mrs. William has received a bouquet of flowers and ask you to put them in a vase. When preparing
the cut flowers you should:
Ans place the stems in the water and cut the stems diagonally while they remain submerged in the water
Q 75 Nurses must avoid strong perfumes and colognes while in uniform because:
Ans most persons who are ill are very sensitive to odours and may be offended by strong perfumes.
Q 76 Loud talking and laughing in the hall, slamming the doors or dropping equipment must be avoided
because:
Ans noise produces stimulation and fatigue
Q 77 One of the characteristics of a good nursing care plan is:
Ans flexibility to meet the changing needs of client
Q 78 A symptom is best defined as:
Ans any indication of disease in the condition of a client
Q 79 Examples of subjective symptoms would include:
Ans itching and burning
Q 80 The main reason for filling a hot water bottle only half full of water is to:
Ans prevent excess weight on the part to which it is applied
Q 81 The application of cold to the body has the effect of :
Ans constricting blood vessels and reducing circulation to the part to which it is applied
Q 82 1 pint is equal to approximately:
Ans 500 ml. ( cc )
Q 83 1ml. is equal to :
Ans 1cc
Q 84 2000cc is equal to approximately :
Ans ½ gallon
Q 85 Subcutaneous injections must be given so that the drug is deposited :
Ans under all layers of the skin
Q 86 The usual sites for subcutaneous injection include the :
Ans upper outer arm, or the thigh
Q 87 The most common site for an intradermal injection is :
Ans the upper arm
Q 88 The primary unit of solid measure in the metric system is the :
Ans gram
Q 89 The primary unit of liquid measure in the metric system is the :
Ans liter
Q 90 As a liquid drug is being poured into the medicine glass,the glass is :
Ans held at eye level to assure accurate measurement
Q 91 Immediately after an intramuscular injection , the area is massaged gently with a cotton pledget to
:
Ans increase the absorption of the medication
Q 92 To straighten the air canal during the administration of ear drops to an adult patient, the ear lobe
is gently pulled :
Ans upward and back
Q 93 Constipation in the elderly is usually the result of :
Ans inactivity and poor eating habits
Q 94 Rehabilitation is best described as :
Ans helping the patient to help himself
Q 95 Intradermal injection are most often used to administer :
Ans certain substances for skin tests
Q 96 The physician orders 0.5gm. of diamox. You have 250-mg.tablets on hand. The patient should
receive :
Ans 2 tablets
Q 97 When pouring a liquid medication , the container should be held so that the :
Ans label toward the palm of the hand
Q 98 The reason for holding the container in described manner is :
Ans to avoid soiling the label with medication
Q 99 When oxygen therapy is being used “ No smoking “ are posted because oxygen :
Ans supports combustion
Q 100 Which of the following is the name assigned to a drug by the manufacturer that first develops it ?
Ans Generic name
Q 101 Which of the following types of medication orders would a physician prescribe for ‘ as needed ‘
pain medication ?
Ans PRN order
Q 102 A nurse suspects a drug she administered to her client is in error. Who is legally responsible for
the error ?
Ans nurse
Q 103 If a nurse is preparing the medication for her client and is called away to an emergency situation,
which of the following should she/he do?
Ans lock the medication in a room and finish them when she returns
Q 104 Before administering a drug to a client, nurse should identify the client by doing which of the
following?
Ans Check the client’s ID bracelet/tag

(2) Anatomy & physiology


Q 1 The building blocks of all living matter are called:
Ans Cell
Q 2 The nucleus of a cell:
Ans govern’s many of the cell’s activities including reproduction.
Q 3 The ventral surface of the body:
Ans the front or abdomen.
Q 4 The periosteum is the:
Ans outer covering of the bone.
Q 5 The cranium and sternum are examples of:
Ans flat bone.
Q 6 The term dorsal means:
Ans posterior or toward the back.
Q 7 The part of the bone that manufactures red blood cells is called the:
Ans red marrow.
Q 8 The two minerals most important in the formation of bone are:
Ans phosphorous and calcium.
Q 9 Which of the following is not a normal cell function?
Ans Agglutination
Q 10 Ariculations are best defined as:
Ans joints of contact between two or more bones.
Q 11 Another name for white blood cells is:
Ans leukocytes.
Q 12 Red blood cells owe their color to :
Ans hemoglobin.
Q 13 The normal range for a white blood cell count is :
Ans 5 to 9 thousand per cu. mm.
Q 14 Moving a limb away from the midline of the body is known as :
Ans abduction.
Q 15 Functions of the blood include all except:
Ans production of red blood cells.
Q 16 The muscle that abducts the upper arm of the shoulder joint is the :
Ans deltoid.
Q 17 The total volume of blood in the average man is:
Ans 4quarts .
Q 18 Which of the following is not true of hemoglobin?
Ans An important constituent of all white blood cells and red blood cells.
Q 19 The straw coloured fluid part of the blood is called:
Ans plasma.
Q 20 The bicuspid valve is located between the:
Ans left atrium and left ventricle.
Q 21 The myocardium is the:
Ans thick muscular wall of the heart.
Q 22 The flow of blood through the veins is directed by:
Ans one way valves within the veins
Q 23 The term lymph refers to the fluid that is:
Ans drain from the spaces around the cells of the body tissues.
Q 24 Bile is important in digestion because it:
Ans breaks down fat globules so they can be more easily digested by enzymes .
Q 25 The sphincter muscle located at the lower end of the stomach is called the :
Ans pyloric muscle.
Q 26 The spleen is located in the :
Ans upper left quadrant of the abdomen.
Q 27 The lymph vessels are collection of lymphatic tissues that :
Ans help the body by localizing infection and filtering foreign cells from the body tissues.
Q 28 The gall bladder:
Ans stores bile.
Q 29 The organ commonly called the throat is the :
Ans pharynx.
Q 30 The epiglottis is :
Ans the organ which acts as lid to close off the larynx when food is swallowed.
Q 31 All of the following are functions of the liver except:
Ans stores bile.
Q 32 Inability to make voice sounds most likely would be a result of inflammation of or injury to the :
Ans larynx.
Q 33 The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the outside air and lung capillaries takes
place in the :
Ans alveoli.
Q 34 The mammary glands secrete:
Ans milk.
Q 35 The inner lining of the uterus is the:
Ans endometrium.
Q 36 The lower part of the uterus narrows and forms a ‘neck’ which is called the:
Ans cervix.
Q 37 Hormones are:
Ans chemical regulators secreted by endocrine glands.
Q 38 The endocrine gland located in the neck is called :
Ans thyroid .
Q 39 a deficiency in the hormone from the parathyroid gland will produce:
Ans imbalance in the calcium level in the body.
Q 40 Carbon dioxide acts as a:
Ans respiratory stimulant.
Q 41 The long narrow tubes that drain urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder are the:
Ans ureters.
Q 42 The functions of the ovaries include:
Ans production of ova ( eggs ) and secretions of hormones.
Q 43 The pleura is the :
Ans smooth, moist membrane that lines the chest cavity covers the outer surface of the lung.
Q 44 The uterus lies in the abdominal cavity:
Ans between the bladder and rectum.
Q 45 The male hormone that is secreted by the primary sex organ of the male is called:
Ans testosterone.
Q 46 Tears are produced by the :
Ans lacrimal glands.
Q 47 An inflammation of the conjunctiva involves the:
Ans delicate membrane lining the eyelids and covering the front part of the eyeball.
Q 48 The eyeball is protected by a tough outer covering called the:
Ans sclera.
Q 49 The part of the eye containing the pigment that determines the color of the eye is called:
Ans iris.
Q 50 Many vital reflexes have their center in the:
Ans medulla oblongata.
Q 51 The part of the brain that controls the skeletal muscles is the:
Ans cerebrum.
Q 52 An injury to the optic nerve will result in an impairment or loss of:
Ans sight.
Q 53 The hormone released by the medulla of the adrenal gland at tines of emergency is called:
Ans the pressor principle.
Q 54 The corticoids are hormones secreted by:
Ans the adrenal cortex.
Q 55 The meninges are:
Ans three layers of tissue that cover the brain and spinal cord.
Q 56 Hormone estrogen is secreted by the:
Ans ovaries.
Q 57 Urea is the waste product of metabolism of:
Ans protein .
Q 58 The function of the endocrine glands in the body is to:
Ans to regulate body activites.
Q 59 The vessels commonly used for intravenous injections are the:
Ans veins.
Q 60 The first cervical vertebra is called:
Ans atlas.
Q 61 Which of the following is the primary site of blood cells production:
Ans bone marrow.
Q 62 Which one of the following organ secrete’s hydrochloric acid?
Ans Stomach.
Q 63 Liver is located in the:
Ans right hypochondrium.
Q 64 Movements of large intestine are called:
Ans peristaltic movement.
Q 65 The largest portion of small intestine is:
Ans ileum.
Q 66 The period of contraction of heat is called a :
Ans systole.
Q 67 Spermatozoa are produced in the:
Ans somniferous tubules.
68 The other name of coccyx bone is :
Ans tail bone.
Q 69 The largest part of the grain is called:
Ans cerebrum.
Q 70 The skull consists of …….bones:
Ans 08
Q 71 Blood is the type of :
Ans connective tissue
Q 72 Which cells are involved in specific immune response :
Ans lymphocytes
Q 73 The coronal suture is between the:
Ans frontal and parietal bones.
Q 74 Most absorption and digestion occurs in the:
Ans small intestine.
Q 75 The bone of the thigh is called:
Ans femur.
Q 76 Tachycardia means:
Ans increase heart rate.
Q 77 Anatomical name of the shin bone is :
Ans tibia.
Q 78 Which blood group is known as a universal donor?
Ans O+ve
Q 79 Thoracic duct is the organ of the:
Ans lymphatic system.
Q 80 The hormone which controls the metabolism of calcium is:
Ans parathormone.
Q 81 The right lung has ………lobes:
Ans three.
Q 82 The largest vertebrae bone is:
Ans lumbar bone.
Q 83The biggest artery of the human body is:
Ans aorta.
Q 84 Scapula is an example of one of the following types of bone:
Ans flat bone.
Q 85 Osteology is the study of the:
Ans bones.
Q 86 Appendicular skeleton consists of …….bones:
Ans 126
Q 87 The number of true ribs are:
Ans seven pairs.
Q 88 The organ that purify the blood by removing urea is:
Ans kidneys.
Q 89 Salivary glands located in front of the ear is called:
Ans parotid.
Q 90 Injury to which nerve will result into loss of hearing is called:
Ans auditory.

(3) Physics and Chemistry


Q 1 The SI unit of work is :
Ans an erg
Q 2 Glucose is the most important :
Ans monosaccharide
Q 3 The formula of hydrochloric is :
Ans HCI
Q 4 Heat is another form of :
Ans caloric fluid
Q 5 The PH of human blood is :
Ans 6.2
Q 6 A physical quantity that is completely specified by magnitude only is called :
Ans scalar
Q 7 A mixture whose composition is same is called :
Ans Homogenous mixture
Q 8 A clear transparent solution is called :
Ans true solution
Q 9 The standard unit of mass in English system is :
Ans pound
Q 10 Troy units are used to measure :
Ans gold
Q 11 The example of base is :
Ans sodium hydroxide
Q 12 The example of monosaccharide is :
Ans glucose
Q 13 A substance that is commonly used in thermometer is :
Ans mercury
Q 14 Traction is used in the treatment of :
Ans fracture
Q 15 In compound the substance are :
Ans present in definite ratio
Q 16 The example of non-metal is :
Ans carbon
Q 17 Electron is a :
Ans negatively charge
Q 18 Torque is called :
Ans non concurrent
Q 19 The earliest thermometer devised by :
Ans galileo
Q 20 Acid- base reaction is called :
Ans neutralization
Q 21 The main buffer system in the blood is :
Ans bicarbonate
Q 22 Gases have :
Ans no definite volume
Q 23 Isotopes differ in the number of :
Ans neutrons
Q 24 Blood pressure is measured by means of a :
Ans sphygmomanometer
Q 25 Oxygen tank carrier is an example of :
Ans 2nd class lever
Q 26 One horsepower is equal to :
Ans 550 ft- Ib/sec.
Q 27 X-rays are :
Ans electromagnetic waves
Q 28 One gallon is equal to_______:
Ans 4 quarts
Q 29 Metals are :
Ans good conductors
Q 30 In physical change there is :
Ans a temporary change
Q 31 Motion in a straight line is called :
Ans rectilinear motion
Q 32 Most enzymes are :
Ans proteins
Q 33 An example of third class lever is :
Ans forceps
Q 34 Necessary for the formation of bones is :
Ans Ca
Q 35 Carbon can bond to :
Ans all of above
Q 36 The process of heat transfer in which a material medium is not needed is :
Ans radiation
Q 37 The main source of most organic compounds is :
Ans petroleum
Q 38 The relative degree of hotness or coldness of a substance is measured in terms of :
Ans temperature
Q 39 When most solid are heated they :
Ans expand
Q 40 A substance in which a solute is dissolved is called :
Ans solvent
Q 41 Which one of the following is not the function of mercury ?
Ans mercury vaporizes at low temperature
Q 42 Heat produce by friction is known as :
Ans internal energy
Q 43 Drug measurement in the unit of :
Ans apothecaries unit
Q 44 Which of the following pair consists of organic compounds only ?
Ans alcohol , sugar
Q 45 Oxidation can be defined as a loss of :
Ans electron
Q 46 Formula of table salt is :
Ans NaCI
Q 47 The number of electron in hydrogen is :
Ans one
Q 48 A molecule contains two or more :
Ans elements
Q 49 The element necessary for production of thyroid hormone is :
Ans iodine
Q 50 An example of a chemical property is :
Ans reactivity
Q 51 The general formula of an alcohol is :
Ans ROH
Q 52 Physics is the study of :
Ans matter and energy
Q 53 An example of 1st class of lever is :
Ans scissor
Q 54 Oxidizing agent can act as :
Ans antiseptic
Q 55 Hardness in water is due to the presence of :
Ans Ca
Q 56 Power is defined as :
Ans the time rate at which work is done
Q 57 One kilogram is equal to :
Ans 1000 grams
Q 58 The following is an example of simple machine :
Ans lever
Q 59 12 inches is equal to :
Ans one foot
Q 60 Any kind of push or pull is called :
Ans force
Q 61 Light travel in :
Ans straight line
Q 62 Convex lens is also known as :
Ans converging lens
Q 63 One ton is equal to :
Ans 1000 kg
Q 64 That which possesses mass and occupies space is called :
Ans matter
Q 65 Which lens is used to correct the defect of short sightedness :
Ans concave
Q 66 The normal body temperature is :
Ans 98.6 F
Q 67 Enzymes are :
Ans protein in nature
Q 68 The formula of nitric acid :
Ans HNO3
Q 69 Speed refers to :
Ans the distance covered by an object in a particular period of time
Q 70 The freezing point of water on the Fahrenheit scale is :
Ans 32 F
Q 71 Ammonium chloride is used as :
Ans acidifier
Q 72 The symbol of sodium is :
Ans Na
Q 73 Sodium chloride is an example of :
Ans salt
Q 74 An example of physical property is :
Ans color
Q 75 Benzene is an example of :
Ans organic compound
Q 76 An instrument used for measuring atmospheric pressure is called :
Ans barometer
Q 77 Contact lenses are used for :
Ans correction of vision
Q 78 Biological catalysts are known as :
Ans enzyme
Q 79 Pure water is an example of :
Ans non electrolyte
Q 80 The element necessary for production of thyroid hormone is :
Ans iodine

(4) Microbiology
Q 1 Which of the following is an example of first line of defense mechanism?
Ans Intact skin.
Q 2 The best definition of sterilization is:
Ans free from all forms of life.
Q 3 Which of the following infection iws controlled by DCG vaccine?
Ans Tuberculosis.
Q 4 Which of the following scientist is known as “father of microbiology”?
Ans A. V. Leeuwenhoek.
Q 5 Which of the following organisms as normal flora helps in the production of Vit. K ?
Ans E. Coli.
Q 6 Who introduced the use of disinfectant to clean surgical wound in order to control infection?
Ans Joseph lister.
Q 7 Which structure determines whether a bacterial growth is gram positive or negative?
Ans Cell membrane.
Q 8 Which of the following bacteria is acid fast?
Ans Mycobacterium.
Q 9 Which of the following is an air-borne respiratory tract infection?
Ans Diphtheria.
Q 10 Which of the following structure of a bacteria cell resist to phagocytosis?
Ans capsule.
Q 11 Who developed the “GERM THEORY” of disease?
Ans Francisco Redi.
Q 12 Which of the following is the mode of action of penicillin?
Ans Inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
Q 13 Which of the following immune cells matures in thymus gland?
Ans T. cells.
Q 14 Bacilli are:
Ans rod shaped bacteria.
Q 15 Which of the following is a viral infection?
Ans Mumps.
Q 16 Which of the following does not kill endospores?
Ans Boiling.
Q 17 In a healthy person an area of the body bacteria usually not found is :
Ans blood.
Q 18 A microbicidal is an agent which:
Ans kills all form of microorganisms.
Q 19 What type of disease is Typhoid?
Ans Food borne.
Q 20 Which of the following cell structure is not present in a prokaryotic cell?
Ans Nuclear membrane.
Q 21 Name the process by which neutrophils or macrophages ingest a foreign particles?
Ans Phagocytosis.
Q 22 Which of the following chemical is used to disinfect water?
Ans Chlorine.
Q 23 Which of the following physical agent is used in autoclaving?
Ans High temperature.
Q 24 Who first time called microorganisms as animalcules?
Ans A. V. Leeuwenhoek.
Q 25 A 40X objective and ocular of the microscope produces a total magnification power of:
Ans 100X.
Q 26 Which of the following statements is true about viruses?
Ans They need host machinery for multiplication.
Q 27 Which of the following structure of a bacterial cell helps in the attachment to different surfaces?
Ans pili.
Q 28 Which of the following immunoglobulin is secreted and appeared in mucosal secretions alive?
Ans IgA.
Q 29 Which of the following was first widely used antiseptic & disinfectant?
Ans Phenol.
Q 30 The stomach usually contains a very low concentration of bacteria due to:
Ans low ph.
Q 31 Dermetomycosis is a:
Ans fungal infection.
Q 32 Which of the following vaccine is used for the control of polio?
Ans Sabin & Salk.
Q 33 Which of the following is a prokaryote?
Ans Bacteria.
Q 34 Which of the following infection is caused by contaminated fertile soil?
Ans Tetanus.
Q 35 Microbiology is the study of:
Ans all micro-organisms.
Q 36 Fimbrae is a part of bacteria structure which helps the bacteria:
Ans to stick to .
Q 37 Robert kock discovered the tubercle bacilli in :
Ans 1882.
Q 38 Free from all pathogenic organisms is called:
Ans asepsis.
Q 39 The size of bacteria is measured in S.I. unit> they may vary in size ranging from:
Ans 0.3 um to 14 um.
Q 40 The definition of antibodies:
Ans substance which is produced in the body as a result of antigen.
Q 41 The flagella in bacterial cells help them to:
Ans move.
Q 42 Clostridium tetani has all the following characteristics except:
Ans found in round shape.
Q 43 The microbes that are normally found in or within the human body is called:
Ans commensals.
Q 44 There are following routes from which microorganisms can enter into the body except:
Ans isolation.
Q 45 Mushrooms are example of :
Ans fungus.
Q 46 The suitable physical condition which is required for bacterial growth includes:
Ans all of the above.
Q 47 An aerobic bacteria are found in condition of:
Ans fresh wound.
Q 48 virus possess:
Ans head & tail.
Q 49 Founder of penicillin:
Ans sir Alexander Fleming.
Q 50 Streptococci are assigning in number of:
Ans chain.
Q 51 Droplets caused the infections of:
Ans respiratory tract.
Q 52 By which of the following sources cholera organisms can be transmitted:
Ans milk.
Q 53 BCG vaccine as against the tuberculosis disease as:
Ans preventive.
Q 54 Infection which is acquired from outside of body is called:
Ans exogenous.
Q 55 Tincture of iodine is used for the method of sterilization as:
Ans chemical.
Q 56 The causative organism of AIDS disease can be transmitted through:
Ans semen.
Q 57 The organism which is smallest in size is:
Ans virus.
Q 58 Chemically antibodies contain:
Ans proteins.
Q 59 The microorganisms which are normally present in our body and can caused disease under certain
circumstances are:
Ans opportunists.
Q 60 If a temperature of 100°C is applied for 2-3 minutes it will:
Ans kill all form of bacteria except bacterial spores.

(5) The Immune system


Q 1 The immune system is composed of :
Ans all of the above
Q 2 The body first line of defense is the :
Ans phagocytic immune response
Q 3 The primary cells responsible for recognition of foreign antigens are :
Ans lymphocytes
Q 4 Lymphocytes interfere with disease by picking up specific antigens from organisms to alter their
function during the ___stage of an immune response :
Ans proliferation
Q 5 During the proliferation stage :
Ans all of the above
Q 6 Antibodies are believed to be a type of :
Ans protein
Q 7 Effector T cells destroy foreign organisms by :
Ans all of the above
Q 8 Cell mediated immune responses are responsible for all of the following except :
Ans anaphylaxis
Q 9 Interferon is a lymphokine that exerts its effects by :
Ans stopping the spread of viral infection
Q 10 Cardinal symptoms of immunodeficiency are :
Ans all of the above
Q 11 Immunodeficiency disorders are caused by deficiencies or defects in :
Ans all of above
Q 12 The most common secondary immunodeficiency disorder is :
Ans AIDS
Q 13 One of the fastest populations of women with AIDS are those :
Ans who acquired the disease in adolescence
Q 14 HIV is transmitted only through :
Ans all of the above
Q 15 The most common infection with persons with AIDS is :
Ans pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Q 16 At least 90% of individuals with AIDS experience :
Ans diarrhea
Q 17 The most common malignancy seen with HIV infection is :
Ans Kaposi’s sarcoma
Q 18 Antibody formation, after HIV infection may take as long as :
Ans 14 months
Q 19 Abnormal laboratory findings seen with AIDS include :
Ans all of the above
Q 20 Phagocytic cells which are the key to the inflammatory response are primarily made up of:
Ans neutrophils
Q 21 T cell lymphocytes which are critical to the mediate immune response,mature in the:
Ans thymus gland
Q 22 The cell mediated ( T-cell ) immune response has which of the following effects?
Ans direct attack by activated lymphocytes
Q 23 Which of the following events as a stimulus to a client’s immune response.
Ans lack of sleep
Q 24 The primary difference between a non specific and specific immune response is :
Ans specific response recognizes particular antigen
Q 25 The most prevalent causes of immune deficiency in the world is :
Ans protein-calorie malnutrition
Q 26 The primary role of granulocytes is to:
Ans destroy microorganism
Q 27 Which category of white blood cells is responsible for allergic reactions?
Ans eosinophils
Q 28 Which one is sign of kaposis sarcoma?
Ans reddish purple skin tumors
Q 29 The client is admitted to the hospital with pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. The nurse should:
Ans use agown,mask and gloves when helping client to bath
Q 30 Oral candidiasis is usually treated with:
Ans nystatin
Q 31 What diet is optimal for the AIDS client?
Ans high protein
Q 32 Which test offers the most definitive confirmation of HIV?
Ans western blot
Q 33 The protein in blood serum that have the ability to bind with antigens are called:
Ans immunoglobulins
Q 34 Up to 85% of individual infected with HIV will develop symptoms of AIDS within___years of
infection:
Ans 10
Q 35 Which of the following is the mode of transmission of human immunodeficiency virus(HIV)
Ans sexual intercourse
Q 36 HIV infection can result in:
Ans all of the above
Q 37 Preventive measure for AIDS include:
Ans all of the above
Q 38 The ELISA test measures:
Ans the presence of HIV antibody
Q 39 Which of the following is the most applicable nursing diagnosis for the client with AIDS who has
incontinent diarrhea?
Ans impaired skin integrity
Q 40 An iatrogenic immunodeficiency is one that:
Ans is induced by medical therapies or procedures
Q 41 The purpose of immunity is:
Ans to provide protection against side effects that accompany invasion or injury from foreign organisms
Q 42 B-lymphocyte mature in to:
Ans bone marrow

(6) Oncology
Q 1 The optimal time for breast self examination is usually beginning at the ______day after menses.
Ans fifth
Q 2 Which of the following would least accurately describe cancer ?
Ans incurable
Q 3 A malignant tumor differs from a benign tumor in that the malignant tumor:
Ans spreads more easily
Q 4 Metastasis is best defined as :
Ans a spread of a new growth to the other parts of the body
Q 5 Cancer may be spread by :
Ans the lymphatic system or by direct extension into adjacent tissues
Q 6 Which of the following may be an early symptom of cancer :
Ans any sore that does not heal
Q 7 Removal of a sample of living cells for the purpose of microscopic examination is known as :
Ans a biopsy
Q 8 In the treatment of cancer the word ‘’cure’’ means that the client :
Ans has been free of cancer for at least 5 years
Q 9 Mammography can diagnose breast cancer before it is clinically palpable, meaning the lump can
detected by x-ray when it is approximately :
Ans 1 cm in size
Q 10 Mammography should be used to annually screen women :
Ans from 40 to 50 years old
Q 11 Breast cancer is the leading cause of the death for women:
Ans between the ages of 35 and 60
Q 12 Early clinical manifestation of breast cancer includes all of the following except :
Ans pain in the breast tissue
Q 13 The chance of developing breast cancer doubles if :
Ans all of above
Q 14 The most common site of distant metastasis for breast carcinoma is the :
Ans bones
Q 15 The majority of breast cancers occur in the :
Ans upper, outer quadrant
Q 16 The most commonly encouraged breast condition in the male is :
Ans gynecomastia
Q 17 Women over the age of 30 are encouraged to have papanicolaou smear done every every 6 months
because this is helpful in the diagnosis of :
Ans cancer of the cervix
Q 18 Early diagnosis of cancer is especially important because it :
Ans helps prevent the spread of the malignancy to other parts of the body
Q 19 Research had shown that the cause of cancer is :
Ans not fully understood and may be the combination of several factors
Q 20 Which of the following statement by a 25 year old woman indicates the understands breast self –
examination (BSE):
Ans “I Will do complete BSE on both breast 8 days after menses ”

(7) The Respiratory system


Q 1 The process of respiration occurs only in :
Ans alveoli
Q 2 What part of the brain controls the pulmonary ventilation ?
Ans medulla
Q 3 Which of the following is not a symptom of respiratory disease ?
Ans sneezing
Q 4 Which instructions would result in the best sputum specimen ?
Ans “Cough and deep breathe first thing tomorrow morning and collect whatever you cough up ”
Q 5 The Mantoux test is performed to diagnose tuberculosis. It is important that the test be read :
Ans within 48 to 72 hours
Q 6 The correct interpretation of mantoux test is :
Ans 10 mm is highly significant for infection
Q 7 In a thoracentesis the needle is inserted into the :
Ans pleural space
Q 8 A position for the client post-thoracentesis is :
Ans lying on affected side
Q 9 The endotracheal tube is usually left in place for a maximum of :
Ans 10 to 14 days
Q 10 When the client begins to cough during suctioning. What is the best nursing action?
Ans discontinue suctioning to allow for cough
Q 11 The surgeon puts two chest tubes in during a surgery of the lung. What is the purpose of the lower
tube ?
Ans to remove fluid
Q 12 Which measure promote comfort after nasal surgery ?
Ans provide mouth care
Q 13 When weaning a client off the ventilator, if the client cannot breathe, what intervention does the
nurse take?
Ans reconnect ventilator as indicated
Q 14 Which of the following lung surgeries not chest tubes?
Ans lobectomy
Q 15 The left lung, in contrast to the right lung has:
Ans one less lobe
Q 16 The lungs are enclosed with in a serous membrane called the :
Ans pleura
Q 17 Bacterial pneumonia can be indicated by the presence of :
Ans rusty sputum
Q 18 Chest pain described as knifelike on inspiration would be most likely be diagnostic of :
Ans pleurisy
Q 19 A client exhibits cyanosis when ___g/dl hemoglobin is unoxygenated :
Ans 5.0
Q 20 Breath sound that originate in the smaller bronchi and bronchioles that are high-pitched and
musical are called?
Ans wheezes
Q 21 Nursing measures before bronchoscopy include:
Ans all of the above
Q 22 Possible complications of bronchoscopy include all of the following except:
Ans gastric perforation
Q 23 After bronchoscopy the client must be observed for:
Ans all of the above
Q 24 Nursing responsibilities before the thoracentesis should include:
Ans all of the above
Q 25 Nursing observation after a thoracentesis include assessment for :
Ans all of the above
Q 26 Acyclovir, an antiviral agent is recommended for :
Ans herpes simplex infection
Q 27 Nursing suggestions for a client with acute or chronic sinusitis include :
Ans all of the above
Q 28 The complication of acute pharyngitis is?
Ans mastoiditis
Q 29 Potential complication of enlarge adenoids include all of the following except:
Ans allergies
Q 30 The glottis is also known as the:
Ans opening between the vocal cords
Q 31 The emergency medical treatment of uncontrolled epistaxis may include insertion of a cotton
pledget moistened with:
Ans aqueous epinephrine
Q 32 Acute pharyngitis of a bacterial in nature is most commonly caused by:
Ans gram A streptococcus
Q 33 Nasal packing used to control bleeding can be left in place:
Ans anywhere from 2 to 6 days
Q 34 Diagnostic confirmation of a lung abscess is made by:
Ans bronchoscopy
Q 35 The most frequent symptom of lung cancer is:
Ans cough
Q 36 The major presenting symptom of emphysema is:
Ans dyspnea
Q 37 The most common symptom of pulmonary embolism is:
Ans dyspnea
Q 38 Majority of pulmonary emboli originate in the:
Ans deep leg veins
Q 39 The major symptom of asthma is (are)
Ans all of the above
Q 40 The major cause of emphysema is :
Ans smoking
Q 41 The client with acute sinusitis experiences:
Ans nasal swelling
Q 42 All of the following are associated with laryngitis except:
Ans overuse of the voice
Q 43 A tracheostomy is:
Ans an opening made during a surgical procedure
Q 44 Pneumonia is best defined as an inflammation of the:
Ans tissues of the lungs
Q 45 Client developed “fever and blisters”around the lips and nose.
Ans herpes simplex
Q 46 The causative organism of tuberculosis is tubercle:
Ans spirochete
Q 47 Hemoptysis is a medical term used to describe:
Ans thick mucus
Q 48 The early symptoms of a common cold include:
Ans sneezing, nasal congestion and mild sore throat
Q 49 The cilia of the mucus membranes of the respiratory tract are :
Ans tiny hairlike projections
Q 50 The cilia:
Ans trap and remove small foreign particles that are inhaled
Q 51 The common side-effect of use of antihistamines is:
Ans extreme drowsiness
Q 52 Antihistamines are sometimes used in the treatment of common cold. The primary action of this
drug is:
Ans drying up secretons of mucus
Q 53 The type of cough which is very dry and harsh is best describe as:
Ans nonproductive
Q 54 When administering cough mixture,the nurse should:
Ans tell the client sip the medication and that it should not be immediately followed with water.
Q 55 To avoid contamination other with the nasal and throat secretions which are highly contagious the
client should be provided with:
Ans a supply of disposable tissues

(8) The Cardiovascular system


Q 1 Hemoglobin is best defined as :
Ans pigment in the red blood cells which gives them their color
Q 2 One of the most important characteristics of hemoglobin is the ability to:
Ans unite with oxygen and carbon dioxide
Q 3 The laboratory report showed that Mr. Long’s hemoglobin was 6 Gm. Per 100 ml.that is:
Ans seriously below the normal range
Q 4 In addition to the laboratory test,Mr Long was also scheduled for a sternal puncture.the sternum is:
Ans the breast bone
Q 5 The purpose of a sternal puncture is to:
Ans aspirate the blood cells from the bone marrow
Q 6 Mr. Long had an increasing loss of appetite for several months. The medical terms for this condition
is:
Ans anorexia
Q 7 If Mr.Long complains that he is “ always tired ”, the nurse should understand that:
Ans his anemia is the cause of his fatigue and he should have adequate rest
Q 8 During the transfusion the patient must be watched carefully signs of a reaction. This condition
results from:
Ans sensitivity of the patient to the blood, or to minerals added to the blood to preserve it.
Q 9 Symptoms of a transfusion reaction include :
Ans rash,chills,fever, or dyspnea
Q 10 Mr. Long’s illness was eventually diagnosed as pernicious anemia. This disease is best defined as :
Ans decreased production of red blood cells due to poor absorption of iron and protein from the digestive tract
Q 11 Oral preparations are given to patients with meals or immediately after meals because
concentrated iron salts are :
Ans irritating to the gastric mucosa
Q 12 Iron preparations are given to patients with anemia primarily because this mineral is important in
the :
Ans manufacture of normal, healthy red blood cells
Q 13 Congestive failure is best described as a heart condition in which there is :
Ans a decreased flow of blood through the heart and great vessels resulting from failure of the heart to function
as a pump
Q 14 Mr. Wood was given a low-sodium diet. When edema is present the intake of sodium is restricted
because it:
Ans holds fluids in the tissue
Q 15 One food substance that contains sodium and is commonly used in the average person’s diet is:
Ans table salt
Q 16 Mr. Wood’s doctor placed him on digitalis. The drug is classified as a :
Ans heart tonic
Q 17 The chief action of digitalis is to :
Ans slow and strengthen the heart beat
Q 18 Before each dose of digitalis is administered to the patient, the nurse must remember to:
Ans count the patient’s pulse
Q 19 Drugs which are sometimes given to increase the urinary output and relieve edema are called :
Ans diuretics
Q 20 The doctor ordered morphine sulphate gr.1/4 to be given intravenously. The morphine was given
primary for the purpose of :
Ans relieving the severe pain
Q 21 Morphine is considered a narcotic because it is a :
Ans derivative of oplum
Q 22 Drug that are given intravenously have :
Ans an immediate effect
Q 23 A deficiency of oxygen in the blood produces a bluish discoloration of the skin. This is called:
Ans cyanosis
Q 24 A diagnostic study that was done immediately after Mr. brown’s admission was an
electrocardiogram. This test is :
Ans records the activity of the heart muscle
Q 25 The word occlusion means :
Ans an obstruction or closing off
Q 26 An embolus is :
Ans a blood clot or foreign body circulating in the blood
Q 27 Mr. brown is placed in Fowler’s position to relieve his dyspnea. Dyspnea is best defined as :
Ans labored or difficult breathing
Q 28 Angina pectoris is type of heart disease in which there is :
Ans a gradual decrease in the blood supply to the heart muscle
Q 29 The outstanding symptom of angina pectoris is :
Ans pain in the chest radiating down to left arm
Q 30 Nitroglycerin tablets are administered sublingually. This means the tablets are :
Ans held under the tongue until dissolved
Q 31 Side-effects that occur in some patients taking vasodilators include :
Ans hypotension, flushing and tachycardia
Q 32 An inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart is called:
Ans pericarditis
Q 33 Rheumatic heart disease follows the acute phase of rheumatic fever. When there is involvement of
the inner lining of the heart, the patient is said to have :
Ans endocarditis
Q 34 Varicose veins are veins that have become :
Ans enlarged and engorged with blood
Q 35 Surgical removal of a varicose vein is termed as :
Ans vein stripping
Q 36 A serious complication that must always be considered in the immediate post-operative period
following amputation is :
Ans hemorrhage
Q 37 Thrombophlebitis is :
Ans an inflammation of the vein caused by a blood clot in the blood vessel
Q 38 The most common symptom of thrombophlebitis is :
Ans pain in the calf of the leg
Q 39 A nursing measure that is contraindicated in thrombophlebitis is :
Ans massaging the legs
Q 40 The medical term for stroke is :
Ans cerebrovascular accident
Q 41 The common effects of a stroke are :
Ans disturbances in speech and paralysis of one side of the body
Q 42 Careful attention must be paid to positioning of the patient hospitalized after a stroke. The main
objective in the nursing care of a stroke patient is to :
Ans prevent complication that will make rehabilitation impossible
Q 43 Mr. Wood is suffering from severe dyspnea; the position in which he would be most comfortable is:
Ans Fowler’s position
Q 44 A condition that makes a person more susceptible to the development of varicose veins is :
Ans improper functioning of the valves that control the flow of blood through the veins
Q 45 A tying off of the affected veins is referred to as :
Ans vein ligation

(9) THE DIGESTIVE SYSTEM


Q 1 Ulcerative colitis is best defined as :
Ans inflammation and ulceration of the mucous membranes of the colon
Q 2 The type of diet recommended for clients with ulcerative colitis would include:
Ans high protein , high vitamin foods to combat malnutrition due to chronic diarrhea
Q 3 Which of the following nursing measures is contraindicated in acute appendicitis?
Ans application of a hot water bottle to the abdomen to relieve pain
Q 4 The most serious complication to develop from a ruptured appendix is :
Ans inflammation of the peritoneum
Q 5 The colon is :
Ans the large intestine
Q 6 Stool specimen for occult blood is done to determine :
Ans the presence of “ hidden ” blood in the stools when there no obvious signs of bleeding from the digestive
tract
Q 7 Which of the following symptoms is considered to be possible sign of cancer of the colon ?
Ans changes is bowel in habits, alternating between constipation and diarrhea
Q 8 Colostomy is best defined as:
Ans surgical removal of the affected portion of the colon and creation of an artificial anus through the
abdominal incision
Q 9 The main purpose of irrigating the colostomy is to:
Ans establish a regular pattern for evacuation of the bowel
Q 10 The most common sites for development of hernia are :
Ans at the site of an old abdominal incision and in the groin
Q 11 An irreducible hernia is one in which the :
Ans protruding tissue or organ cannot be pushed back into place
Q 12 The most serious complication of a strangulated hernia is :
Ans gangrene
Q 13 The medical term for varicose veins of the rectum is :
Ans hemorrhoids
Q 14 Sitz bath are often given following a hemorrhoidectomy.
The main purpose of these sitz bath is to:
Ans relieve pain and promote healing
Q 15 The function of the gallbladder is to:
Ans store bile
Q 16 Bile is important in the digestion of because it:
Ans emulsifies or breaks down fat globules into smaller particles
Q 17 The surgical removal of gallbladder is called :
Ans cholecystectomy
Q 18 Vitamin k preparation is given several days prior to cholecystectomy because it is important in:
Ans clotting of blood
Q 19 Which of the following foods is highest in fat content?
Ans pork
Q 20 Jaundice is best described as :
Ans a symptoms indicating excessive amounts of the bile pigment in the blood
Q 21 Which of the following foods would be highest in carbohydrate content?
Ans sweetened fruit juices
Q 22 Cirrhosis of the liver is :
Ans associated with malnutrition and vitamin deficiencies
Q 23 An accumulation of fluid within the abdominal cavity is called :
Ans ascites
Q 24 The removal of fluid from abdominal cavity is referred to as a:
Ans paracentesis
Q 25 The normal manufactures prothrombin . When the liver is diseased there is a decrease of this
substance in the blood , and the client must be watched carefully for :
Ans signs of bleeding internally or externally
Q 26 Mouth care is important while the Levine tube is in place because :
Ans will not be eating and drinking and mouth will be very dry
Q 27 The acid that is normally present in the stomach and which aids in the digestion of certain foods is:
Ans hydrochloric acid
Q 28 Client who have gastric ulcers are often treated with drugs which contain aluminum hydroxide.
These drugs are classified as antacids and their main action is :
Ans render excess gastric acid neutral
Q 29 Reflux of food into the esophagus from the stomach is prevented by the contraction of the
Ans cardiac sphincter
Q 30 The digestion of starches begins in the mouth with the secretion of :
Ans ptyalin
Q 31 The stomach is acidic at a Ph of approximately :
Ans 1.0
Q 32 Intrinsic factor is a gastric secretion necessary for the intestinal absorption of vitamin:
Ans B12
Q 33 Bile ,which emulsifies fat, enters the duodenum through the :
Ans common bile duct
Q 34 Tissue cells use carbohydrates in the form of:
Ans glucose
Q 35 The time it usually takes for food to enter the colon is :
Ans 4 or 5 hours after a meal is eaten
Q 36 Obstruction of the intestinal tract leads to :
Ans all of the above
Q 37 Consequences of diarrhea include all of the following except:
Ans hyperkalemia
Q 38 Abdominal pain associated with indigestion is usually :
Ans described as crampy or burning .
Q 39 A flexible sigmoid scope permits examination of the lower bowel for :
Ans 16 to 20 inches
Q 40 Before a gastroscopy, the nurse should inform the client that :
Ans all of the above
Q 41 Magnetic Resonance Imaging ( MRI ) is contraindicated for clients who have :
Ans all of the above
Q 42 The most common site for peptic ulcer formation is the :
Ans duodenum
Q 43 Acute gastritis is often caused by :
Ans all of the above
Q 44 The blood group that seems most susceptible to peptic ulcer disease is group :
Ans O
Q 45 Peptic ulcers occur with the most frequency in those between the ages of :
Ans 40—60
Q 46 The best time to administer an antacid is :
Ans 1 to 3 hours after the meal
Q 47 The most common complication of peptic ulcer disease is :
Ans perforation
Q 48 The most common site for diverticulitis is the :
Ans sigmoid
Q 49 Diverticulitis is clinically manifested by:
Ans all of the above
Q 50 Common clinical manifestations of Crohn’s disease are :
Ans abdominal pain and diarrhea
Q 51 For colostomy irrigation , the enema catheter should be inserted into the stoma:
Ans 2 to 3 inches
Q 52 The total quantity of irrigating solution that can be instilled at one session is :
Ans 1,500 ml .
Q 53 Positive indicators of appendicitis include all of the following except :
Ans thrombocytopenia
Q 54 Preparation for an appendectomy includes :
Ans all of the above

(10) Urinary system


Q 1 A urine culture was ordered. For this test the nurse must:
Ans catheterize the patient to obtain a specimen
Q 2 While collecting the specimen for a culture, it is most important for the nurse to:
Ans be careful not to contaminate the inside of the culture tube with micro-organisms outside the patient’s
urinary tract
Q 3 Total output would include:
Ans all fluids lost by vomiting , urination, or profuse perspiration
Q 4 A retention catheter is one that is :
Ans designed so that it has bulb on the end to keep it in the bladder for a period of time
Q 5 In the female the urinary meatus is located:
Ans between the clitoris and vaginal orifice
Q 6 When attaching the drainage tubing and bottle to the end of the catheter, the nurse must:
Ans be sure the drainage apparatus is sterile and is not contaminated while it is being connected to the catheter
Q 7 The medical term for kidney stones is :
Ans renal calculi or nephrolithiasis
Q 8 Mr. King was scheduled for an in intravenous pyelogram. In this test, x-ray films are taken after a
radiopaque dye has been:
Ans injected into a vein
Q 9 The stone was found to be lodged in Mr. king’s right ureter. The ureters are :
Ans two small tubes leading from the kidney to the bladder
Q 10 Mr. king was taken to surgery and the surgeon used a cystoscope to remove the stone from the
ureter. A cystoscope is a special instrument used to :
Ans visualize the interior of the bladder and also to remove foreign bodies from the bladder or ureters
Q 11 Acute glomerulonephritis frequently follows infections elsewhere in the body. These infections are
most often caused by:
Ans streptococci
Q 12 Pyelonephritis is caused by :
Ans a bacterial infection in the urinary tract
Q 13 Cystitis is :
Ans characterized by chills and a high fever
Q 14 In Pyelonephritis the urine contains:
Ans bacteria and pus
Q 15 The appearance of blood in the urine is referred to as:
Ans hematuria
Q 16 Painful urination is referred to as :
Ans dysuria
Q 17 A serious complication that must always be considered following surgery of the kidney is :
Ans hemorrhage
Q 18 Nephrectomy means?
Ans removal of kidney
Q 19 The symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis include :
Ans headache
Q 20 The nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by:
Ans all of the above
Q 21 Renal symptoms of hypertension may include all of the following except:
Ans oliguria
Q 22 Which one of the following may be symptoms of acute renal failure with uremia :
Ans dehydration in diuretic phase
Q 23 Cystitis is a term referred to:
Ans inflammation of urinary bladder
Q 24 An inflammation of the pelvis of the kidney is called:
Ans pyelitis
Q 25 When the kidneys are damaged:
Ans ability to concentrate or dilute urine is impaired
Q 26 Urinary stones often occur in those:
Ans having large amount of food with calcium
Q 27 Nephrosis is a :
Ans degenerative inflammatory disease of renal tubules
Q 28 Blood urea nitrogen is often elevated in the elderly, mainly due to change in the function of :
Ans kidney
Q 29 The Mechanism of action in the glomerular capillaries located in the Bowman’s capsule is:
Ans filtration
Q 30 The major site for reabsorption of fluid and electrolytes in the kidney is :
Ans proximal convoluted tubule
Q 31 The patient answers “ yes ” to the question, “ It is painful when you urinate ?” The nurse
Recognizes this as:
Ans dysuria
Q 32 During a composite urine specimen collection, what should be done to the first and last specimen
collected?
Ans first specimen discarded, last specimen sent to lab
Q 33 Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen are test that measure:
Ans ability to eliminate metabolic wastes
Q 34 After obtaining a routine urinalysis specimen, the nurse must:
Ans sent the specimen immediately to the lab
Q 35 How much urine can the bladder hold before the urge to void is initiated?
Ans 400—500 ml
Q 36 An abnormal constituent of urine is:
Ans glucose
Q 37 The normal quantity of water ingested and excreted in the urine is approximately :
Ans 1.5 liters per day
Q 38 Oliguria is said to be present when urinary output is:
Ans less than 30 ml/hr.
Q 39 Major manifestation of uremia is:
Ans hypocalcaemia with bone changes
Q 40 The nurse should inform a client that preparation for intravenous pyelography :
Ans liquids before the test
Q 41 The most common site of a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) is the:
Ans bladder
Q 42 There is an increased risk of urinary tract infections in the presence of :
Ans all of the above
Q 43 The most common organism responsible for UTIs in the elderly is :
Ans Escherichia coli
Q 44 Complications of chronic Pyelonephritis include :
Ans all of the above
Q 45 The major manifestation of Nephrotic Syndrome is:
Ans edema
Q 46 A major clinical manifestation of renal stones is :
Ans pain

(11) Anaesthesia nursing


Q 1 An informed consent is required for :
Ans closed reduction of a fracture
Q 2 An example of a surgical procedure classified as urgent would be:
Ans appendectomy
Q 3 Hidden fears may be indicated when a client:
Ans all of the above
Q 4 Food and water are usually withheld beginning at midnight of the surgical day. However, if
necessary water may be given up to:
Ans 4 hours before surgery
Q 5 The primary goal in withholding food before surgery is to :
Ans aspiration
Q 6 The purpose of preoperative skin preparation is to:
Ans reduce the number of microorganisms
Q 7 Purposes of pre-anesthetic medication include all the following except:
Ans potentiation of the effects of anesthesia
Q 8 Nursing of the client undergoing surgery requires an understanding of which phase of surgical care?
Ans preoperative period
Q 9 A common nursing diagnosis in caring for a client scheduled for surgery is :
Ans fear
Q 10 The client say “ I’m so nervous about my surgery ” the nurse appropriate response would be :
Ans “you seem nervous about your surgery.”
Q 11 Obesity is positively correlated to surgical complications of the:
Ans all of the above
Q 12 The chief life- threatening hazard for surgical clients with uncontrolled diabetes is:
Ans hypoglycemia
Q 13 Giving an anesthetic agent by injection of a drug to anesthetize an isolated nerve is called:
Ans local anesthesia
Q 14 The operative phase in which the nurse ensures that the sponge and instrument counts are correct
is the:
Ans intra-operative phase
Q 15 In the operating room there are two categories of personnel scrubbed sterile and non-sterile. Who
is the non-sterile member listed below?
Ans circulating nurse
16 Who is responsible for coordinating and managing the care of client in the O.R.?
Ans surgeon
Q 17 Clients are returned slowly from the operative position to the supine position to prevent what
condition?
Ans sudden drop of blood pressure
Q 18 The areas of client safety include all the following except:
Ans releasing safety straps once client is on surgical table
Q 19 The scrub nurse responsibilities include :
Ans all of the above
Q 20 A general anesthetic can be administered by:
Ans all of the above
Q 21 The nurse should known that post operatively , a general anesthetic is primarily eliminated by :
Ans lungs
Q 22 A local infiltration anesthetic can last up to:
Ans 3 hours
Q 23 The primary nursing goal in immediate postoperative period is maintenance of pulmonary
function and prevention of:
Ans hypoxia and hypercapnia
Q 24 A major postoperative nursing responsibility is assessing for cardiovascular function by
monitoring:
Ans all of the above
Q 25 In the immediate post operative period, a nurse should immediately report:
Ans a systolic blood pressure lower than 90 mm Hg.
Q 26 Clients remain in the recovery room until they have fully recovered from anesthesia. This is
evidenced by a:
Ans all of the above
Q 27 Most surgical clients are encouraged to be out of bed:
Ans as soon as it is indicated
Q 28 The nurse expects that the inflammatory phase of wound healing should last for about:
Ans 3 days
Q 29 The clinical manifestations associated with the inflammatory phase of wound healing that the
nurse would expect to see postoperatively are:
Ans all of the above
Q 30 The anesthesiologist chose to leave a plastic airway in the client’s mouth. The nurse knows that an
airway should not be removed:
Ans until signs indicate that reflexes are returning
Q 31 The major disadvantage of nitrous oxide, a general anesthetic drug is its ability to cause :
Ans hypoxia
Q 32 An anesthetic agent thiopental sodium ( pentothal ) is administered:
Ans intravenous
Q 33 The chief danger with thiopental sodium ( pentothal )
Ans depressant action on the respiratory system
Q 34 After the administration of thiopental sodium, the client will be unconscious in:
Ans 30 seconds
Q 35 The factor involves in post spinal anesthesia headache is the:
Ans all of the above
Q 36 One of the most effective nursing procedures for reducing nosocomial infections is :
Ans proper hand washing techniques
Q 37 When vomiting occur postoperatively the most important nursing intervention is to:
Ans turn the client’s head to prevent aspiration of vomits into the lungs
Q 38 The most common postoperative respiratory complication in elderly client’s is:
Ans pneumonia
Q 39 The nursing goal (s) of encouraging postoperative body movement is ( are ) to:
Ans all of the above
Q 40 The nurse should advise all surgical clients who smoke to stop smoking at least____week (s) before
surgery:
Ans 4

(12) Emergency Nursing


Q 1 An abrasion is a wound made by:
Ans rubbing or scrapping of the skin
Q 2 Penetrating the skin with a sharp instrument, such as nail, causes which of the following type of
wounds?
Ans puncture
Q 3 The initial nursing measure for the control of hemorrhage caused by trauma is to:
Ans apply firm pressure over the involved area
Q 4 The most common cause of shock in emergency situation is:
Ans cardiac failure
Q 5 Nursing measures for an extremity fracture would include:
Ans immobilizing the fracture site
Q 6 If a nurse came upon the scene of an accident and found several persons injured, which of the
following victims would require her immediate attention? The person having:
Ans severe bleeding
Q 7 If a wound is infected, the symptoms of infection are most likely to appear:
Ans 2 to 7 days after injury
Q 8 The symptoms of wound infection include:
Ans tenderness, swelling, redness, warm to touch and sometimes appearance of pus
Q 9 The lay term for tetanus is:
Ans lockjaw
Q 10 The danger of tetanus should be considered in:
Ans all wounds
Q 11 If a client has not been immunized against tetanus prior to the injury, the doctor will most likely
give:
Ans tetanus antitoxin
Q 12 The signs and symptoms of shock include:
Ans rapid pulse, cold moist skin
Q 13 If a person is bitten by a stray dog, it most important to:
Ans prevent the animal from escaping
Q 14 Rabies is considered to be especially dangerous because it is:
Ans fetal once it develops
Q 15 What is the best rule to follow in regard to administering fluids to a shock victim?
Ans Do not give anything by mouth.
Q 16 One incidence of accidental poisoning in which vomiting should not be induced is the ingestion of:
Ans kerosene
Q 17 A sprain is :
Ans a stretching of the ligaments around the joint
Q 18 The ABC’s of cardiopulmonary resuscitation are :
Ans airway, breathing, circulation
Q 19 When administering mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, one should blow vigorously into the mouth of
the victim. The correct rate per minute is:
Ans 12 for adults, 20 for children
Q 20 Accidental poisoning in children is most often due to:
Ans the child’s inability to distinguish between what should and should not be eaten.
Q 21 An emetic to induce vomiting in cases of swallowed poison is:
Ans syrup of ipecac
Q 22 The first step in resuscitation of a person who is not breathing is:
Ans tilt the head backward and extend the neck
Q 23 The first priority in treating any client in the emergency department is:
Ans establishing an airway
Q 24 Progressive deterioration of body system occurs when hypothermia lowers the body the
temperature to:
Ans 95 F
Q 25 Nursing measures for a penetrating abdominal injury would include:
Ans all of the above
Q 26 When a victim is taken to an emergency clinic following ingestion of a poison it is important bring
the:
Ans container for identification of the poison
Q 27 The safest and most accurate means of diagnosing a closed fracture is by:
Ans x-ray of the injured part
Q 28 Which of the following is not a sign of cardiac arrest?
Ans hot, dry skin
Q 29 A second degree burn can be recognized by the presence of:
Ans blistering of the burned area
Q 30 A third degree burn:
Ans involves both layers of the skin and damage to the underlying tissues
Q 31 To place a triangular bandage on the arm for use as a sling, the apex of the triangle is located at
the:
Ans elbow
Q 32 A poisonous snake bite is treated by first applying a constricting band above the bite. The band
should be applied so that it is tight enough to:
Ans prevent circulation in the surface vessels but not shut off deep lying vessels

(13) The integumentary system


Q 1 A vesicle is:
Ans a small blister-like lesion of the skin filled with serous fluid
Q 2 Contact dermatitis is most likely the result of:
Ans sensitivity to a substance in her environment
Q 3 When a client is admitted to the hospital with a disease of the skin the nurse should:
Ans observe the client’s skin very carefully and record these observations
Q 4 Pruritus is condition in which the client has:
Ans severe itching
Q 5 The client warns you not to get the fluid from her skin lesions on your hands because you may catch
the disease. You should tell her that:
Ans the fluid from the lesions of the contact dermatitis is not contagious
Q 6 The oil gland are called :
Ans sebaceous glands
Q 7 Which of following is true concerning treatment of acne:
Ans each case must be treated on an individual basis
Q 8 What determines the pigment of the skin?
Ans melanocytes
Q 9 Which gland secretes a watery fluid to aid in keeping the body cool?
Ans sudoriferous glands (Sweat glands)
Q 10 Which term will the nurse use to describe elevated surface in the client suffering an allergic
reaction.
Ans wheal
Q 11 Calluses are an example of :
Ans epidermis in a high friction area
Q 12 Changes in blood composition can alter skin color. Deoxygenated hemoglobin gives the skin a:
Ans cyanosis
Q 13 What is seen on a positive reaction to a patch test?
Ans erythema
Q 14 Which diagnostic test is useful in detecting bacterial and viral antigens involved in infections of the
skin?
Ans immunoflorescence
Q 15 The term use to describe an elevated surface filled with purulent fluid.
Ans pustule
Q 16 What part of the skin needs to be avoided in injecting an intradermal skin test?
Ans hairy area
Q 17 How is head lice determined?
Ans check for nits
Q 18 How does the skin help regulate body temperature?
Ans heat loss and production
Q 19 What type of infectious skin disorder involved the subcutaneous tissue.
Ans Carbuncles
Q 20 What symptoms does the nurse observe during an assessment of a client with exfoliative
dermatitis?
Ans high output congestive heart failure
Q 21 Which of the following dressing is used to allow infected lesions to drain?
Ans open wet dressings
Q 22 What type of dressing hydrates the skin?
Ans Occlusive dressings
Q 23 The major problem with herpes zoster is :
Ans pain
Q 24 The most malignant form of skin tumors are:
Ans Melanomas
Q 25 What is the “ Rule of Nines ” ?
Ans formula for determining amount of skin area burned
Q 26 The most common symptoms of Pruritus is:
Ans itching
Q 27 Nurses should advise clients suffering from Pruritus to avoid all of the following except:
Ans emollient and lubricants
Q 28 A commonly prescribed pharmacologic agent for acne vulgaris is:
Ans Accutane
Q 29 The most common fungal infection that frequently affects young adult is:
Ans Tinea pedis
Q 30 Herpes zoster ( Shingles ) is:
Ans all of the above
Q 31 The characteristic lesion of psoriasis is a :
Ans circular patch covered with silver scales
Q 32 Tinea capitis ( ringworm of the scalp ) can be identified by the presence of :
Ans all of the above
Q 33 “ Itch Mite ”is also known as :
Ans Scabies
Q 34 Danger signals of melanoma include all the changes in a mole’s:
Ans all of the above
Q 35 A living tissue transplant from the same person is known as:
Ans Auto graft

(14) Musculoskeletal system


Q 1 The ends of long bones contain a spongy material called:
Ans red marrow
Q 2 The vertebrae can be classified as a type of ___bone:
Ans irregular
Q 3 The basic cells responsible only for the formation of bone matrix are:
Ans osteo blasts
Q 4 The hip and shoulder are examples of articular joints that are classified as:
Ans ball and socket types
Q 5 A cast that covers the trunk of the body and one extremity or more is called as:
Ans spica
Q 6 The large bone in the lower leg is called the:
Ans tibia
Q 7 The purpose of traction is to:
Ans exert a pull on the limb to hold it in a certain position
Q 8 Two general types traction are :
Ans skeletal and skin
Q 9 Arthritis is best defined as :
Ans an inflammation of the joints
Q 10 The most crippling of arthritis is:
Ans rheumatoid arthritis
Q 11 The symptoms of arthritis include :
Ans pain and tenderness of the joints
Q 12 Osteomyelitis is :
Ans an infection of the bone
Q 13 The removal of synovial fluid from a joint is called:
Ans arthrocentesis
Q 14 The client with an arm cast complains of pain. The nurse should do all of the following except:
Ans administer a prescribed analgesic to promote comfort and allay anxiety
Q 15 A common pressure problem area for a long leg cast is the:
Ans peroneal nerve
Q 16 The nurse who assesses bone fracture pain expects the client to describe the pain as:
Ans sharp and piercing
Q 17 Skin traction is usually limited to a weight between:
Ans 4 to 8 Ibs
Q 18 The nurse expects that up to___Ibs of weight can be used for a client in skeletal traction:
Ans 25
Q 19 A client is in continuous skeletal traction it is important for the nurse to remember to do all of the
following except:
Ans remove the weight when pulling the client up in bed to prevent unnecessary pulling on the fracture site.
Q 20 The surgical procedure in which damaged knee joint fibrous cartilage is excised is called:
Ans meniscectomy
Q 21 Post operative nursing concerns when caring for an orthopedic client should include:
Ans all of the above
Q 22 An artificial joint for hip replacement involves an implant that consists of :
Ans all of the above
Q 23 The recommended leg position to prevent prosthesis dislocation after a total hip replacement is:
Ans abduction
Q 24 Back pain is classified as “ chronic ” when the pain lasts longer than___without improvement.
Ans 3 months
Q 25 The primary function of muscle is to:
Ans contract
Q 26 Range of motion is described as:
Ans the normal arc joint movement
Q 27 The purpose of synovial fluid is to:
Ans lubricate the joints
Q 28 Bone is composed of living and non-living cells and is richly supplied with:
Ans boold and nerves
Q 29 Skeletal muscles act in groups. Muscles that produce a particular movement or tension are called:
Ans prime movers
Q 30 What is a dry crackling sound that may occur in joints:
Ans crepitus
Q 31 What is an excessive anterior curvature of the lumbar spine:
Ans lord sis
Q 32 An arthrogram is designed to diagnose disorder of the:
Ans joints
Q 33 What does bloody synovial fluid indicate ?
Ans septic arthritis
Q 34 Bone formation is enhanced by:
Ans all of the above
Q 35 The nurse should encourage a client with low back pain to all of the following except:
Ans lie prone with legs slightly elevated
Q 36 An overgrowth of the horny layer of epidermis on the foot is called a :
Ans corn
Q 37 The most common symptoms of osteomalacia are:
Ans bone pain and tenderness
Q 38 Most cases of Osteomyelitis are caused by:
Ans staphylococcus aureus
Q 39 The multiple myeloma tumor has its origin and principal location in the:
Ans bone marrow
Q 40 A muscular tear that is microscopic and due to overuse is called:
Ans strain
Q 41 Shock as an immediate complication of fractures is usually classified as :
Ans hypovolemic
Q 42 Emergency management of fracture should include:
Ans all of the above
Q 43 The intervertebral disc that are subject to the greatest mechanical stress and greatest degenerative
changes are:
Ans L4 to L5
Q 44 The most serious complication of an open fracture is:
Ans infection
Q 45 The major indicator of lower extremity amputation is:
Ans peripheral vascular disease
Q 46 A nurse can foster a positive image in a client who has had an amputation by all of the following
except:
Ans encouraging family and friends to refrain from visiting temporarily because this may increase the clients
embarrassment
Q 47 Which of the following should be at the bedside of recent amputee?
Ans a large tourniquet
Q 48 The client complained that his foot and leg in traction were cold. To provide warmth for the limb it
would be best to:
Ans place a small blanket over the limb
Q 49 Internal fixation means that:
Ans a support such as a metal plate, pins or screws has been applied to stabilize the bone.
Q 50 Mrs. X sustained a closed fracture. This means that:
Ans the bone was broken but there was no protrusion of fragments through the skin.

(15) Eyes, Ears, Nose and throat


Q 1 The lay term for myopia is:
Ans nearsightedness
Q 2 Determining the amount of intraocular pressure in the eyes is important in diagnosing:
Ans glaucoma
Q 3 Astigmatism is best treated by prescribing lenses which:
Ans assist in focusing light rays in the retina
Q 4 Conjunctivitis is best defined as an inflammation of :
Ans the mocous membrane lining the eyelids and covering the front of the eyeball
Q 5 If the foreign body is not deeply embedded in the tissue of the eye, it can be removed easily by:
Ans touching the foreign body with a corner of a clean handkerchief
Q 6 A cataract is best defined as :
Ans a condition in which the lens of the eyes becomes cloudy and opaque
Q 7 A cataract extraction involves:
Ans surgical removal of the lens of the eye
Q 8 A disease of the eye which is characterized by increased pressure within the eyeball is:
Ans glaucoma
Q 9 Pressure within the eyeball is measured by an instrument called:
Ans a tonometer
Q 10 Whenever the nurse enters the room of a client who is blind she should:
Ans speak to him so that he will be aware of her presence
Q 11 Otitis media is the inflammation of the:
Ans middle ear
Q 12 Otitis media may be treated by incision of the eardrum. This procedure is referred to as:
Ans a myringotomy
Q 13 An infection of the mastoid bone often occurs as a complication of :
Ans Otitis media
Q 14 The most serious and common complication following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy is:
Ans hemorrhage
Q 15 To reduce swelling and bleeding from the operative site, it would be best for the nurse to:
Ans apply a ice collar to the neck
Q 16 What items is used to describe the eyes permanently crossing?
Ans strabismus
Q 17 Visual acuity means:
Ans sharpness of vision near and far
Q 18 The Snellen chart is used to assess distance vision. How far does the patient stand from the chart
when reading the letters?
Ans 20 feet
Q 19 An important nursing intervention when testing distance vision with the Smeller’s chart is to
instruct the client to :
Ans cover one eye while testing the other
Q 20 In assessing the eyes the examiner inspect the lens. The lens is normally:
Ans transparent
Q 21 A teenager in high school brought a note home stating, your son has bacterial conjunctivitis. This
condition is more commonly called :
Ans pink eye
Q 22 Examination of the external ear involves:
Ans inspection and palpation
Q 23 Which instrument is used to evaluate hearing acuity ?
Ans audioscope
Q 24 What part of the ear is assessed for auditory acuity and balance ?
Ans inner ear
Q 25 Mastoiditis is the inflammation of the:
Ans temporal bone behind the ear
Q 26 Otosclerosis is primarily characterized by:
Ans conductive hearing loss
Q 27 Otosclerosis is:
Ans linked with a strong family history
Q 28 Convergent squint is due to pressure on the :
Ans 6th cranial nerve
Q 29 The pupil’s normal reaction to light is :
Ans the pupil’s constrict equally and then dilate
Q 30 A tympanoplasty is surgically performed to:
Ans all of the above

(16) The Endocrine System


Q 1 The mineral that is most important for proper development and functioning of the thyroid gland is :
Ans iodine
Q 2 Mrs. Alfred is scheduled for a radioactive iodine uptake. Iodine is used in this test because the
thyroid gland:
Ans absorbs and concentrates iodine in its tissues.
Q 3 Mrs. Alfred asks you about thyroid scanning for which she is also scheduled. You should tell her
that after she ingests the radioactive iodine:
Ans a scanner will be passed back and forth across her throat and no discomfort will be involved.
Q 4 Mrs. Alfred was diagnosed as having an overactive thyroid gland. The medical term for this
condition is:
Ans Hyperthyroidism
Q 5 The surgical removal of thyroid gland is called:
Ans thyroidectomy
Q 6 Upon her return from surgery, Mrs. Alfred should be watched closely, and the nurse must be
specially alert for:
Ans local swelling and respiratory difficulty
Q 7 After she has reacted from the anesthesia, Mrs. Alfred would probably be most comfortable:
Ans in flower’s position
Q 8 To avoid strain on the suture during the immediate postoperative period, the nurse should:
Ans support Mrs. Alfred’s head with sandbags and advise her to take as little as possible
Q 9 What causes the growth hormone secretion to be decreased:
Ans hyperglycemia
Q 10 Which of the following is not a category of hormone secreted by the endocrine system?
Ans hormones secreted by liver
Q 11 What part of the body is the critical link between the nervous and endocrine system?
Ans hypothalamus
Q 12 What should the nurse tell a client receiving a thyroid biopsy?
Ans a sore throat may occur following sampling
Q 13 What complication can occur following a thyroid biopsy:
Ans respiratory difficulties
Q 14 Which hormones are examples of catecholamines:
Ans epinephrine and non-epinephrine
Q 15 Which test is the most specific, sensitive and complete test for diabetes mellitus?
Ans Glucose tolerance test
Q 16 Cushing syndrome is caused by an excess of :
Ans glucocorticoid cortisol
Q 17 Which endocrine diseases stimulates the secretion of catecholamines?
Ans Pheochromocytomas
Q 18 A potential complication of thyroid surgery is accidental removal of parathyroid tissue. Which of
the following symptoms is most indicative of this complication.
Ans numbness, tingling in the fingers or lips
Q 19 Hemorrhage is another potential complication after thyroid surgery. The nurse should assess for
bleeding by:
Ans palpating under the head and neck for presence of blood
Q 20 Mrs. Lee was sent to the hospital laboratory the following morning for a fasting blood sugar test.
Her blood sugar level was 210 mg per 100 ml. of blood. This indicates that she:
Ans was not properly utilizing the glucose in her blood
Q 21 After the diagnosis of diabetes was confirmed, Mrs. Lee was admitted to the hospital for
administration of insulin and regulation of her diet. In regard to the treatment of diabetes, the nurse
should know that this disease:
Ans Can be controlled by diet and he administration of insulin
Q 22 Diabetes mellitus is a disease in which the body is unable to use and store:
Ans Carbohydrates
Q 23 Insulin is secreted by the:
Ans islets of langerhans, which are situated on the pancreas
Q 24 The action of insulin in the body is to:
Ans lower the blood sugar by increasing the utilization of carbohydrates
Q 25 In general, the diet of a diabetic should be:
Ans low in carbohydrates, high in protein, and moderate in fat content
Q 26 Mrs. Lee was taught to administer her own insulin. She was advised to rotate the site of injection
because:
Ans this plan reduces the danger of irritation to the tissues and increases absorption of insulin.
Q 27 A patient in diabetic coma will have:
Ans drowsiness, hot dry skin and high blood sugar.
Q 28 In term of U100 in reference to strengths of insulin means that there are 100 units:
Ans per ml. or cc.
Q 29 Mrs. Lee’s urine was tested for sugar three times a day. The usual time for testing her urine would
be:
Ans 30 minutes before each meal
Q 30 Mild cases of diabetes are best treated by:
Ans diet and exercise
Q 31 Parathormone is secreted by the parathyroid glands. This hormone is important in maintaining a:
Ans constant level of calcium in the blood
Q 32 Deficiency of parathormone hormone in the body will result in:
Ans muscular twitching and spasms of the voluntary muscules
Q 33 Addison’s disease is the result of :
Ans A decrease in the production of hormones from the adrenal cortex
Q 34 A decrease in the production of thyroxin in the early stages of life will result in:
Ans retardation of physical and mental growth and development
Q 35 The nurse should encourage exercise in the management of diabetes, because it:
Ans accomplishes all of the above
Q 36 Hypoglycemia, an abnormally low blood glucose level, with a glucose level:
Ans below 50-60 mg/dl
Q 37 A clinical feature that distinguishes a hypoglycemic reaction from a ketoacidosis reaction is:
Ans diaphoresing
Q 38 With peripheral neuropathy, a diabetic has limited sensitivity to:
Ans all of the above
Q 39 A major symptom of pancreatitis is:
Ans severe abdominal pain
Q 40 Signs of thyroid storm include all of the following except:
Ans bradycardia
Q 41 Medical management for thyroid crisis includes:
Ans all of the above
Q 42 Patients with hyperthyroidism are characteristically:
Ans insensitive to heat
Q 43 A positive diagnosis of cushing syndrome is associated with:
Ans an elevated cortisol level
Q 44 Indicators of internal bleeding include:
Ans all of the above
Q 45 The pathophysiology of hypoparathyroidism is associated with all of the following except:
Ans increase in the renal excretion of phosphate
Q 46 The disorder of hyperthyroidism is most often diagnosed as:
Ans Grave’s disease
Q 47 The term diabetic nephropathy refers to:
Ans Renal functioning

(17)Psychiatric Nursing
Q 1 A person who is mentally healthy has all of the following characteristics except:
Ans placing his values on material things rather than inner worth.
Q 2 An autistic individual is most concerned with:
Ans himself.
Q 3 Hearing voices that are not really present is an example:
Ans an hallucination.
Q 4 Repeatedly carrying out an act such as washing one's hands inspite of a desire not to do so is an
example of:
Ans a compulsion.
Q 5 Some drugs, such as heroin, can produce a feeling of great elation and joy especially when one first
begin taking the drug this feeling can best be called:
Ans euphoria.
Q 6 Human beings behave in certain ways primarily because they are seeking:
Ans release from physical tension and security in being accepted by others.
Q 7 When a psychotic patient is extremely uncooperative or repulsive in his speech or actions it is most
important for the nurse to:
Ans remain calm and accept his behavior as a symptom of his illness.
Q 8 Avoiding unpleasant past experiences by completely “forgetting” about them and trying to pretend
that they never happened is an example of:
Ans repression.
Q 9 Mrs. Lee insists that she is Queen Victoria and frequently refers to the psychiatric nurses as her
ladies-in-waiting. Mrs Lee's behavior is an example of carrying to extreme the defense mechanism of:
Ans identification.

Q 10 Jerry john is a 19 year old who is emotionally disturbed. His chief difficulty in getting along with
others is his superior attitude and “bossy” manner. Jerry actually feels very inferior to other people and
his behavior is an example of extreme:
Ans compensation
Q 11 The nurse becomes angry with her supervisor and “takes it out”on the nurse’s aide with whom she
works is which of the following defense mechanisms?
Ans displacement
Q 12 The behavior pattern by which one avoids accepting full responsibility for his own action and
shortcomings by blaming someone or something else is called:
Ans projection
Q 13 If a patient who has been very loud and demanding and discourteous toward the staff suddenly
becomes withdrawn,we might say that he is :
Ans overcompensating for his aggressive behavior
Q 14 A schizophrenic individual :
Ans has difficulty distinguishing between reality and what goes on in his mind
Q 15 The patient who withdraws from the society of others frequently suffering from:
Ans a deep sense of unworthiness and a self respect
Q 16 Mrs. Kim has the reputation of being the “nuisance” of the ward. She finds numerous ways to gain
the attention of the nursing staff, criticizes everything that is done for her, questions every action of the
physicians and nurses, and often bangs around the furniture and threatens to leave if she doesn’t receive
better care. Her behavior can best be describe as:
Ans aggressive
Q 17 Recreational therapy is especially helpful in the treatment of mental disorder because it :
Ans put the client in a more normal situation that similar to his/her home and community life
Q 18 A very important aspect of nursing care of the extremely underactive patient is :
Ans regular skin care and physical exercise to avoid circulatory and musculoskeletal complicatins
Q 19 A neurotic individual is best described as one who:
Ans cannot control his emotions in a normal manner
Q 20 A very serious mental breakdown with severe personality changes is best described as:
Ans a psychosis
Q 21 Organic behaviour disorders differ from functional types of mental illness in that organic disorder
are :
Ans a result of injury to brain cells or nervous system
Q 22 Delirium is characterized by:
Ans a sudden onset with a toxin being the cause
Q 23 Psychotherapy is primarily a from of treatment in which the patient:
Ans is encouraged to face reality by talking about himself and his problems
Q 24 Psychotherapy is possible only when the patient is:
Ans able to communicate with others through wards or actions and express his true feelings
Q 25 Which of following psychiatric disturbances are most common among the elderly?
Ans depression
Q 26 which of the following is not true of alcoholism?
Ans the condition is caused by a lack of will power
Q 27 Delirium tremens usually is produced by:
Ans sudden withdrawal of alcohol from a person who has been drinking heavily for a number of years.
Q 28 Symptoms of delirium tremens include all except:
Ans hypotension
Q 29 The suicidal person:
Ans has profound feeling of unworthiness
Q 30 Which of the following states of mood is least likely to lead to suicide:
Ans elation
Q 31 Overactivity in a mentally ill client most often is characterized by:
Ans frantic activity that is apparently unreasonable and without purpose
Q 32 The opposite of reality is:
Ans fantasy
Q 33 A disorder characterized by anxiety in which there is no distortion of reality is known as:
Ans neurosis
Q 34 _____means loss of memory:
Ans amnesia
Q 35 Disordered thought, behaviour, delusion and illusion are the positive symptoms of :
Ans schizophrenia
Q 36 Which of the following are the organic factors of mental illness?
Ans anxiety, depression and fatique
Q 37 In psychiatric depression:
Ans client loss ability to recognize or explain new experiences through previous knowledge
Q 38 A client expresses the belief that his enemy is out to kill him this is an example of :
Ans delusion of persecution
Q 39 Client is not able to communicate in words:
Ans expressive aphasia
Q 40 Electro Convulsive therapy is a form of shock therapy in this the client first goes into:
Ans tonic phase then clonic convulsions
Q 41 The imaginary sequence of events is called:
Ans fantasy
Q 42 The psychoanalysis was developed by :
Ans Sigmund freud
Q 43 The commonest psychiatric illness in pakistan is :
Ans depressive neurosis
Q 44 The purpose of the defense mechanism include all of the following except:
Ans improve insight
Q 45 some clients have defective mental development known as:
Ans mental retardation
Q 46 A psychiatric client is able to achieve his possible mental and social efficiency, so that he can live an
independent member of society:
Ans rehabilitation
Q 47 A bomb blast resulting in 200 dead and hundreds injured in a nearby shopping centre. The
survivor families and community will experience a (n):
Ans situational crisis
Q 48 One of the following is a mood regulator drug:
Ans lithium
Q 49 In the following condition the client imitates the act of another person:
Ans echopraxia
Q 50 Common side effects of antipsychotic drugs:
Ans akinesia

(18) Gynecology
Q 1 The Expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated:
Ans As 40 weeks after last menstrual period.
Q 2 The last menstrual period was June 30. the expected
date of delivery (EDD) is approximately:
Ans March 7.
Q 3 Uterine Cervix:
Ans Is the portion of the uterus below the isthmus
Q 4 The main support of the uterus is provided by:
Ans The cardinal ligament
Q 5 The most important muscle in the pelvic floor is:
Ans Levator ani.
Q 6 The pelvis includes which of the following bones
Ans Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum & coccyx.
Q 7 The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:
Ans Pubis symphysis
Q 8 The greatest diameter of the fetal head is:
Ans Occipitomental.
Q 9 Molding of the fetal head;
Ans Does NOT have time to occur in breech delivery.
Q 10 The main blood supply of the vulva is.
Ans Pudendal artery.
Q 11 The following are typical in the female bony pelvis EXCEPT:
Ans Is funnel shaped
Q 12 Regarding fetal head, Choose the CORRECT answer:
Ans Considered to be engaged when the Biparietal diameter passes the level of the pelvic inlet.
Q 13 The ovarian artery is a branch of
Ans Aorta.
Q 14 The normal lining of the fallopian tube is:
Ans Columnar epithelium with cilia.
Q 15 The cilia of the fallopian tube has the following function;
Ans Transport the ovum towards the uterus.
Q 16 Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in;
Ans Face presentation
Q 17 Stages of labor ;
Ans The third stage end with the delivery of the placenta and membranes.
Q 18 All the following characteristics are applied to a pelvis favorable to vaginal delivery EXCEPT;
ans Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm
Q19 In the fetus:
Ans Fetal lie describes the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother.
Q 20 Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior saggital diameter,
convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?
Ans Android.
Q 21 The second stage of labor involves:
Ans Expulsion of the fetus.
Q 22 Which is true?
Ans Station – level of ischial spines
Q 23 A pelvic inlet is felt to be contracted if :
Ans The transverse diameter is only 10 cm
Q 24 During clinical pelvimerty, which of the following
is routinely measured:
ans Shape of the pubic arch.
Q 25 At term, the ligaments of the pelvis change. This can result in:
ans Enlargement of the pelvic cavity.
Q 26 During the delivery, the fetal head follow the pelvic axis. The axis is best described as:
ans A curved line, 1ST directed posteriorly then caudal
Q 27 A head of level (one fifth) indicates:
Ans Indicates that the head is engaged.
Q 28 In a vertex presentation, the position is determined by the relationship of what fetal part to the
Mother's pelvis:
ans Occiput.
Q 29 Signs of Placental separation after delivery include:
Ans All of the above.
Q 30 The persistence of which of the following is usually incompatible with spontaneous delivery at
term:
Ans Mentum posterior.
Q 31 An unstable lie is related to all of the following EXCEPT;
Ans Fundal fibroid.
Q 32 The relation of the fetal parts to one another determines:
Ans Position of the fetus.
Q 33 The relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother is called:
Ans Lie.
Q 34 Engagement is strictly defined as:
Ans When the greatest Biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet.
Q 35 The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common etiology
listed is:
Ans Molding.
Q 36 If the large fontanel is the presenting part, what is the presentation?
Ans Sinciput
Q 37 Methods of determining fetal presentation & position include:
Ans Leopold's maneuver.
Q 38 A transverse lie of the fetus is least likely in the presence of:
Ans Normal term fetus.
Q 39 A primpara is in labor and an episiotomy to be cut.Compared with amid line episiotomy,
anadvantage of medio-lateral episiotomy is:
Ans Less extension of the incision.
Q 40 A patient sustained a laceration of the premium during delivery, it involved the muscles of Perineal
body but not the anal sphincter.Such a laceration would be classified as :
Ans Second degree
Q 41 An unstable lie is associated with all the following EXCEPT:
Ans Cervical fibroid
Q 42 A primipara is in labor & and an episiotomy is about to be cut. Compared with a midline
episiotomy, an advantage of mediolateral episiotomy.
Ans Less extension of the incision.
Q 43 Regarding Episiotomy:
Ans It is done after the head crown appear ( crowning )
Q 44 The first stage of labor :
Ans Ends with fully Dilation of the cervix.
Q 45 The heart rate of a normal fetus at term:
Ans 120-160 bpm.
Q 46 Repetitive late decelerations most commonly indicate:
Ans Fetal hypoxia
Q 47 Electronic fetal monitoring:
Ans Has low specificity but high sensitivity.
Q 48 What is the uterine blood flow at term:
Ans 500 to 750 ml/min.
Q 49 Regarding Fetal blood pH:
Ans Can be measured during labor.
Q 50 The following are major indicators of fetal asphyxia:
Ans Type II (late) decelerations with tachycardia.
Q 51Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of normal labor:
Ans Moderate bleeding.
Q 52 Bishop score includes all the followings EXCEPT:
Ans The presenting part of the fetus
Q 53 During which of the following conditions would the serum Prolactin level be greatest:
ans Suckling.
Q 54 Regarding Prostaglandins:
Ans Are involved in the onset of labor.
Q 55 Early deceleration is :
Ans Results from increased vagal tone secondary to head compression.
Q 56 The normal cord pH is :
Ans 7.2
Q 57 The bishop score is used to predict :
Ans The success rate of the induction of the labor.
Q 58 In Turner's syndrome:
Ans Ovaries are streak
Q 59 Congenital uterine malformations causes all of the following EXCEPT:
Ans Pregnancy induced hypertension.
Q 60 The normal sequence of pubertal changes in the female is:
Ans Thelarche, Maximal growth velocity, menarche
Q 61 The most common cause of precocious puberty is :
Ans Idiopathic.
Q 62 Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation:
Ans Regular cycle with dysmenorrhea
Q 63 The follicular phase of menstrual cycle is characterized by:
Ans Endometrial gland proliferation.
Q 64 Ovulation occurs:
Ans 36 hours after LH surge
Q 65 In the days after ovulation, all of the following occurs EXCEPT:
Ans The plasma progesterone concentration falls
Q 66 Which of the following is the primary source of estrogen ?
Ans Granulosa cells.
Q 67 The following are presumptive skin signs of pregnancy except:
Ans Maculo-papular rash
Q 68 The resting pulse in pregnancy is:
Ans Increased by 10 to 15 bpm.
Q 69 Normally, pregnancy in 2ND trimester is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
Ans Elevated fasting plasma glucose.
Q 70 All are CORRECT, EXCEPT, Pregnancy is associated with:
Ans Increase peripheral resistance
Q 71 The increase in blood volume in normal pregnancy ismade up of:
Ans More plasma than erythroblasts.
Q 72 Changes in the urinary tract system in pregnancy include:
Ans Increase the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Q 73 Lowered Hemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiological finding. It's mainly due to:
Ans Increased plasma volume.
Q 74 The Maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy:
Ans Increases up to 40%
Q 75 In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased EXCEPT:
Ans Peripheral resistance
Q 76 During Pregnancy, all of the following are CORRECT EXCEPT:
Ans Progestin & HPL will decrease the number of glands
Q 77 Screening is most effective in preventing which of the following cancers:
Ans Cervix
Q 78 All are features of malignant ovaries except:
Ans Uniloclar
Q 79 Regarding missed abortion, all of the following areCORRECT, EXCEPT:
Ans Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made
Q 80 With regards to contraception failure, the pearl index refers to:
Ans Number of pregnancies in 100 woman-year
Q 81 Most common cause of PM bleeding is:
Ans Atrophic vaginitis
Q 82 Which is right regarding procedures?
Ans Colposcopy – T zone
Q 83 In prenatal infection:
Ans HIV virus infects the baby more readily when delivered vaginally than cesarean section
Q 84 Feature of Preterm all except:
Ans hyperthermic
Q 85 Postpartum women with PPH and can not lactate her baby:
Ans Sheehan syndrome
Q 86 The largest diameter in fetal head is:
Ans mentovertical
Q 87 Compound presentation is most consistently associated with
Ans Prematurity.
Q 88 Regarding shoulder presentation, the following are true EXCEPT:
Ans More common in primigravida
Q 89 The most frequent severe complication of vaginal breech delivery:
Ans Head entrapment.
Q 90 The major cause of serious neonatal morbidity & mortality for infants with breech presentation is:
Ans Birth trauma.
Q 91 The most common complication of External Cephalic Versions
Ans Persistent fetal bradycardia.
Q 92 IUCD may prevent pregnancy by all of the following mechanism EXCEPT:
Ans Inhibiting ovulation.
Q 93Regarding gonococcal infection of the female genital tract, the following are common site of
infection
Ans Urethra & cervix
Q 94 Regarding Hyperprolactenemia, all of the following are CORRECT EXCEPT:
Ans In cases on pituitary adenoma surgical removal is the best option.
Q 95 Regarding Infertility:
Ans Including the husband in the investigation is essential