Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
SPECIAL BOOKLET
(Inclusive of questions from previous years‟ CAT papers and series of preparatory questions)
TABLE OF CONTENT
UNIT 1: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE ____________________________ 03
Number System, Simplification, Percentage ___________________________04
Profit and Loss, Ratio & Proportion ___________________________________05
Averages __________________________________________________________06
Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Time, Speed & Distance ___________07
Time and Work ____________________________________________________08
Clocks and Calendars, Linear Equations, Quadratic Equations ___________09
Progression, Probability, Permutation & Combination __________________10
Geometry _________________________________________________________11
Mensuration _______________________________________________________12
Heights and Distance, Coordinate Geometry, Function _________________13
Set Theory, Trigonometry Ratio _____________________________________14
Differentiation, Integration, Application of Derivative __________________15
Differential Equation, Vectors _______________________________________16
3D, Logarithms, Data Interpretation _________________________________17
SIMPLIFICATION:
1 1 1 1
6. The value of 1 + 𝑥+1 1+
𝑥+2
× 1+
𝑥+3
1+
𝑥+4
is
1 1 1 𝑥+5
(a) 1 + (b) (c) x + (d)
𝑥+5 𝑥+5 𝑥+5 𝑥+1
4 3
7. If r = -2, then r + 2r + 3r2 + r = ?
(a) – 8 (b) – 4 (c) 0 (d) 10
𝑎 𝑏 𝑎 𝑏
8. Let − = 𝑥 ∶ 𝑦 and (x – y) = + , then x is equal to
𝑏 𝑎 𝑏 𝑎
(𝑎+𝑏 ) (𝑎+𝑏) (𝑎−𝑏)
(a) 𝑎 (b) 𝑏 (c) 𝑎 (d) None of these
9. Assuming that in Harappan era, rocks, stones and pebbles were used for money. The following used to be the
currency valuations: 1 rock = 7 stones, 1 stone = 7 pebbles. If a person used 6 rocks to purchase a cave that costs 5
rocks, 2 stones and 3 pebbles, then how much would the change be?
(a) 4 stones, 4 pebbles (b) 5 stones, 4 pebbles
(c) 1 rock, 5 stones, 4 pebbles (d) 5 stones, 5 pebbles
1
𝑠
10. The term 𝑟 2 + 𝑠 2 𝑖𝑠 approximately equal to r + 2𝑟
. Which of the following is the closest approximation to
1/2
85 ?
(a) 9.06 (b) 9.34 (c) 9.22 (d) 9.28
PERCENTAGE:
Directions for Questions 11 and 12: In an examination, there are 100 questions divided into three groups A, B and C
such that each group contains at least one question. Each question in group A carries 1 mark, each question in group B
carries 2 marks and each question in group C carries 3 marks. It is known that the questions in group A together carry at
least 60% of the total marks. (CAT 2004)
11. If group B contains 23 questions, then how many questions are there in group C?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) Cannot be determined
12. If group C contains 8 questions and group B carries at least 20% of the total marks, which of the following best
describes the number of questions in group B?
(a) 11 or 12 (b) 12 or 13 (c) 13 or 14 (d) 14 or 15
13. At the end of year 1998, Shepherd bought nine dozen goats, henceforth, every year he added p% of the goats at the
beginning of the year and sold q% of the goats at the end of the year where p>0 and q>0. If Shepherd had nine
dozen goats at the end of year 2002, after making the sales for that year, which of the following is true? ( CAT 2003)
(a) p = q (b) p < q (c) p > q (d) p = q/2
14. One bacteria splits into eight bacteria‘s of the next generation. But due to environment, only 50% of one generation
can produce the next generation. If the seventh generation number is 4096 million, what is the number in first
generation? (CAT 1998)
(a) 1 million (b) 2 million (c) 4 million (d) 8 million
15. The number of votes not cast for the Praja Party increased by 25% in the National General Election over those not
cast for it in the previous Assembly Polls and the Praja Party lost by a majority twice as large as that by which it had
won the Assembly Polls. If a total 2,60,000 people voted each time, how many voted for the Praja Party in the
previous Assembly Polls? (CAT 1994)
(a) 1,10,000 (b) 1,50,000 (c) 1,40,000 (d) 1,20,000
Lactose 0.16
Maltose 0.32
Glucose 0.74
Sucrose 1.00
Fructose 1.70
Saccharin 675.00
16. What is the minimum amount of sucrose (to the nearest gram) that must be added to one gram of saccharin to make
a mixture that will be at least 100 times as sweet as glucose?
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 100
17. Approximately how many times sweeter than sucrose is a mixture consisting of glucose, sucrose and fructose in the
ratio of 1 : 2 : 3?
(a) 1.3 (b) 1.0 (c) 0.6 (d) 2.3
18. Using only 2, 5, 10, 25 and 50 paise coins, what will be the minimum number of coins required to pay exactly 78
paise, 69 paise and Re 1.01 to three different persons? (CAT 2003)
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 17 (d) 18
19. Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short cut along the diagonal and saved
a distance equal to half the longer side. Then, the ratio of the shorter side to the longer side is (CAT 2002)
1 2 1 3
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 4
20. Mayank, Mirza, Little and Jaspal bought a motorbike for $60,000. Mayank paid one half of the sum of the amounts
paid by the other boys, Mirza paid one third of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys; and Little paid one
fourth of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys. How much Jaspal had to pay? (CAT 2002)
(a) $15,000 (b) $13,000 (c) $17,000 (d) None of these
AVERAGES:
26. A shipping clerk has five boxes of different but unknown weights each weighing less than 100 kg. The clerk weighs
the boxes in pairs. The weights obtained are 110, 112, 113, 114, 115, 116, 117, 118, 120 and 121 kg. What is the
weight of the heaviest box? (CAT 2000)
(a) 60 kg (b) 62 kg (c) 64 kg (d) Cannot be determined
27. Consider the set S = {2, 3, 4, …, 2n + 1}, where n is a positive integer larger than 2007. Define X as the average of
the odd integers in S and Y as the average of the even integers in S. What is the value of X – Y? (CAT 2007)
1 n+1
(a) 1 (b) 2 n (c) 2n (d) (n + 1)
Directions for Questions 28 – 30: Answer the questions based on the following information. (CAT 1997)
There are 60 students in a class. These students are divided into three groups A, B and C of 15, 20 and 25 students each.
The groups A and C are combined to form group D.
SIMPLE INTEREST:
31. A person closes his account in an investment scheme by withdrawing Rs 10000. One year ago, he had withdrawn
Rs 6000. Two years ago he had withdrawn Rs 5000. Three years ago he had not withdrawn any money. How much
money had he deposited approximately at the time of opening the account 4 years ago, if the annual simple interest is
10 %?
(a) Rs 15600 (b) Rs 16500 (c) Rs 17280 (d) None of these
32. Vikram borrowed Rs 6450 at 5 percent simple interest repayable in 4 equal installments. What will be the annual
instalment payable by him ?
(a) Rs 1710 (b) Rs 1810 (c) Rs 1910 (d) Rs 1860
33. Subbarao was approached by two neighbours for loan. He had Rs 2540, a part of which he lent to one person at
12% interest per annum, and the other part was lent to the second person at 12.5 %. At the end of a year, Subbarao
received Rs 311.60 as interest on the total loan. Calculate the amount of money lent by him at 12% interest.
(a) Rs 1360 (b) Rs 1340 (c) Rs 1240 (d) Rs 1180
34. A sum of money doubles itself in 12 years if invested at simple interest. What is the rate of interest allowed on the
investment ?
(a) 9.5% (b) 8.25% (c) 8.5% (d) 8.33%
35. Ram purchased a flat at Rs. 1 lakh and Prem purchased a plot of land worth Rs. 1.1 lakh. The respective annual rates
at which the prices of the flat and the plot increased were 10% and 5%. After two years, they exchanged their
belongings and one paid the other the difference. Then: (CAT 1995)
(a) Ram paid Rs. 275 to Prem (b) Ram paid Rs. 476 to Prem
(c) Ram paid Rs. 375 to Prem (d) Prem paid Rs. 475 to ram
COMPOUND INTEREST:
36. A bank offers 10 % interest rate compounded annually. A person deposits Rs. 10,000 every year in his account. If he
does not withdraw any amount, then how much balance will his account show after four years ?
(a) Rs. 51051 (b) Rs. 45095 (c) Rs. 36410 (d) Rs. 51000
37. A sum is invested for 3 years compounded at 5%, 10% and 20 % respectively. In three years if the sum amounts to
Rs. 16,632, then find the sum.
(a) Rs. 11000 (b) Rs. 12000 (c) Rs. 13000 (d) Rs. 14000
38. The value of a fixed asset depreciates at the rate of 10 % on the value at the beginning of each year. If the value of
the asset two years ago, was Rs 12,000 more than the value of the asset one year ago, then find the present value of
the asset, given that the asset was bought two years ago.
(a) Rs. 14520 (b) Rs. 96,000 (c) Rs. 97,200 (d) Rs. 17,520
39. Anuj has deposited certain amount in the bank to earn compound interest at 10 % p.a. The difference in the interest
on the amount between the 3rd and 2nd years is Rs. 1,100. What amount has Anuj deposited?
(a) Rs. 10000 (b) Rs. 11000 (c) Data inadequate (d) None of these
40. Divide Rs. 1301 between A and B, so that the amount of A after 7 years is equal to the amount of B after 9 years, the
interest being compounded at 4% per annum.
(a) Rs. 676 and Rs. 625 (b) Rs. 650 and Rs. 651 (c) Rs. 670 and Rs. 631 (d) Rs. 660 and Rs. 630
Directions for Questions 41 – 42: Answer the questions based on the following information. (CAT 2001)
The petrol consumption rate of a new model car ‗Palto‘ depends on its speed and may be described by the adjoining
graph:
50. At his usual rowing rate, Rahul can travel 12 miles downstream in a certain river in six hours less than it takes him to
travel the same distance upstream. But if he could double his usual rowing rate for this 24 mile round trip, the
downstream 12 miles would then take only one hour less than the upstream 12 miles. What is the speed of the
current in miles per hour? (CAT 2001)
(a) 7/3 (b) 4/3 (c) 5/3 (d) 8/3
51. At what time between 5 and 6 O'clock are the hands of a clock 3 minutes apart ?
(a) 24 minutes past 5 (b) 22 minutes past 3 (c) 26 minutes past 4 (d) None of these
52. My watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In the afternoon of the same day, when the
watch indicated quarter past 4 O 'clock, the true time is:
(a) 59 min. past 3 (b) 12 min. past 3 (c) 4 p.m. (d) 7 min. past 4
53. At what time between 4 : 30 and 5 will the hands of a clock be in a straight line ?
(a) 50 mins. past 4 (b) 42 mins. past 4 (c) 54 mins. past 4 (d) 46 mins. past 4
54. 7 January 1992 was Tuesday. Find the day of the week on the same date after 5 years, i.e. on 7 January 1997 ?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Saturday (d) Friday
55. The first Republic Day of India was celebrated on 26 January 1950. What was the day of the week on that date ?
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Saturday (d) Thursday
LINEAR EQUATIONS:
56. A man purchased 47 stamps of 20-paise and 15 paise. The total amount he spent was Rs. 8.80. The number of
20-paise and 15- paise stamps purchased by him -
(a) was 12 and 35 respectively (b) was 10 and 37 respectively
(c) was 35 and 12 respectively (d) None of these
57. For the given pair (x, y) of positive integers, such that 4x - I7y = 1 and x 1,000, how many integer values of y satisfy
the given conditions : (CAT 1999)
(a) 55 (b) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58
58. If x2 + 5y2 + z2 = 2y (2x + z) then which of the following statements are necessarily true? (CAT 2002)
A. x = 2y B. x = 2z C. 2x = z
(a) Only A (b) Only B and C (c) Only A and B (d) None of these
𝑛 2 + 2 𝑛 𝑛+4 + 16
59. If n is such that 36 n 72, then x = satisfies- (CAT 2003)
𝑛+4 𝑛+ 4
(a) 20 < x < 54 (b) 23 < x < 58 (c) 25 < x < 64 (d) 28 < x < 60
60. The total number of integer pairs (x, y) satisfying the equation x + y = xy is : (CAT 2004)
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) None of these
QUADRATIC EQUATIONS:
PROGRESSION:
66. If logxa, ax/2 and logb x are in GP, then x is
(a) loga(logb a) (b) loga(loge a) + loga (loge b) (c) -loga(loga b) (d) loga (loge b) - loga(loge a)
67. f(a, b) is a series, of which the first three terms are (a + b) , (a2 + b2) and (a - b)2. We add the first n terms of the
2
series f(a, b) and call it S(a, b). If a = 7, b = 3, then find S(7, 3) for n = 20.
(a) – 5980 (b) 6000 (c) 6960 (d) None of these
68. How many three digit numbers are divisible by 6 ?
(a) 102 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 966
69. Three distinct numbers x, y, z form a geometric progression in that order and x + y, y + z, z + x form an arithmetic
progression in that order. Find the common ratio of the geometric progression.
(a) -2 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) -0.5
70. Find the sum of all natural numbers not exceeding 1000, which are divisible by 4 but not by 8.
(a) 62500 (b) 62800 (c) 64000 (d) 65600
PROBABILITY:
71. If the probability of rain on any given day in Pune city is 50 %, then what is the probability that it rains on exactly 3
days in a 5 - day period ?
8 5 8 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
125 16 25 25
72. The probability that an event happens in one trial of an experiment is 0.4. Three independent trials of the experiment
are performed. The probability that the event happens at least once is-
(a) 0.934 (b) 0.784 (c) 0.548 (d) 0.343
73. What is the possibility of getting at least 6 heads if eight coins are tossed simultaneously ?
1 25 1
(a) 15 (b) 57 (c) 13 (d) None of these
74. In a bag containing three balls, a white ball was placed, and then one ball was taken out at random. What is the
probability that the extracted ball would turn out to be white, if all possible hypothesis concerning the colour of the
balls that were initially in the bag were equally possible?
5 3 1 3
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 8
75. From a box containing 60 standard and 40 substandard articles, two articles are chosen at random. What is the
probability that one of them is standard and the other is substandard?
60 40 60 39 16
(a) 100 × 100 (b) 100 × 100 (c) 33 (d) 24%
77. In how many ways is it possible to choose a white square and a black square on a chess-board so that the squares
must not lie in the same row or column? (CAT 2002)
(a) 56 (b) 896 (c) 60 (d) 768
78. A 4 digit number is formed with digits 1, 2, 3 and 5. What is the probability that the number is divisible by 25, if
repetition of digits is not allowed? (CAT 1995)
(a) 1/12 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/6 (d) None of these
79. In how many ways can eight Directors, Vice-chairman and Chairman of a firm be seated at a round table, if the
chairman has to sit between the Vice-chairman and a Director? (CAT 1997)
(a) 9! × 2 (b) 2 × 8! (c) 2 × 7! (d) None of these
80. For a scholarship, at the most n candidates out of 2n + 1 can be selected. If the number of different ways of selection
of at least one candidate is 63, the maximum number of candidates that can be selected for the scholarship is:
(CAT 1999)
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5
GEOMETRY:
81. In the given diagram, ABCD is a rectangle with AE = EF =
FB. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle CEF and that
of the rectangle? (CAT 2000)
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 6
(c) 2 : 5 (d) 2 : 3
83. The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 20 cm respectively whose centers are 25 cm apart,
is (in cm):
(CAT 2002)
(a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 15 (d) 20
84. A circle with radius 2 is placed against a right angle. Another
smaller circle is also placed as shown in the adjoining figure.
What is the radius of the smaller circle? (CAT 2004)
(a) 3 - 2 2 (b) 4 - 2 2
(c) 7 – 4 2 (d) 6 – 4 2
MENSURATION:
86. In the adjoining figure, AC + AB = 5 AD and AC – AD = 8.
Then, the area of the rectangle ABCD is (CAT 1995)
(a) 36 (b) 50
(c) 60 (d) Cannot be answered
90. Consider a right circular cone of base radius 4 cm and height 10 cm. A cylinder is to be placed inside the cone with
one of the flat surfaces resting on the base of the cone. Find the largest possible total surface area (in sq cm) of the
cylinder. (CAT 2008)
100π 80π 120π 130π
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 7 9
COORDINATE GEOMETRY:
8
96. The points 0, 3 , (1, 3) and (82, 30) are the vertices of
(a) An obtuse-angled triangle (b) A right-angled triangle
(c) An isosceles triangle (d) None of these
97. The x axis is shifted to a new position such that the points H,J,K assume new coordinates as follows:
Point Original Coordinates New Coordinates
H (3, 5) (3, 2)
J (4, 2) (4, -1)
K (2, 6) (2, 3)
If the original coordinates of P were (5, 1), then which of the following are the new coordinates of P?
(a) (2, -2) (b) (5, 4) (c) (5, -2) (d) (8, 1)
98. The course of an enemy submarine as plotted on a set of rectangular axes gives the equation 2x + 3y = 5. On the
same axes, the course of destroyer is indicated by the equation x – y = 10. The point (x, y) at which the submarine
can be destroyed is:
(a) (7, -3) (b) (-3, 7) (c) (-7, 3) (d) (3, -7)
99. A line is of length 10 and one end is (2, -3). If the abscissa of the other end is 10 then its ordinate is
(a) 3 or 9 (b) -3 or – 9 (c) 3 or – 9 (d) -3 or 9
100. If the points (t, 2t), (-2, 6) and (3, 1) are collinear, then t =
3 4
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 3 (d) 4
FUNCTION:
101. A function f(x) satisfies f(1) = 3600 and f(1) + f(2) + … + f(n) = n 2f(n), for all positive integers n > 1. What is the
value of f(9)? (CAT 2007)
(a) 240 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 80
SET THEORY:
106. In a class of 80 children, 35 % children can play only cricket, 45% children can play only table-tennis and the
remaining children can play both the games. In all, how many children can play cricket ?
(a) 55 (b) 44 (c) 36 (d) 28
107. While preparing the progress reports of the students, the class teacher found that 70% of the students passed in
Hindi, 80% passed in English and only 65% passed in both the subjects. Find out the percentage of students who
failed in both the subjects?
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 35%
108. In a party, 70 guests were to be served tea or coffee after dinner. There were 52 guests who preferred tea while 37
preferred coffee. Each of the guests liked one or the other beverage. How many guests liked both tea and coffee ?
(a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 33
109. In a certain group of 36 people, only 18 are wearing hats and only 24 are wearing sweater. If 6 are not wearing any of
the 2, then how many people are wearing both a hat and a sweater ?
(a) 30 (b) 22 (c) 12 (d) 8
110. Consider the set Tn: {n, n + 1, n + 2, n +3, n + 4}, where n = 1, 2, 3 ……, 96. How many of these sets contain 6
or any integral multiple thereof (i.e., any one of the number 6, 12, 18, ....) ?
(a) 80 (b) 81 (c) 82 (d) 83
TRIGONOMETRY RATIO:
111. If sin + cos = a and sec + cosec = b, then the value of b (a2 – 1) is equal to
(a) 2a (b) 3a (c) 0 (d) 2ab
7 sin 𝐴−3 cos 𝐴
112. If sin A : cos A = 4 : 7, then the value of is
7 sin 𝐴+2 cos 𝐴
3 3 1 1
(a) 14 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6
113. A, B and C are three angles such that tan A + tan B + tan C = tan A tan B tan C. Which of the following statements
is always correct?
(a) ABC is a triangle, i.e., A + B + C = (b) A = B = C, i.e. ABC is an equilateral triangle
(c) A + B = C, i.e. ABC is a right – angled triangle (d) None of these
2
114. If the sine of an angle= 3 , then cosine of that angle is
2 2 2
(a) Equal to 3 (b) Greater than 3 (c) Less than 3 (d) Infinite
cos 60 0 +sin 60 0
115. Simplify: cos 60 0 −sin 60 0
(a) 3 – 2 (b) 3 + 2 (c) –( 3 + 2) (d) 1
DIFFERENTIATION:
2 𝑑𝑡
116. If y =sin 𝑥 2 , 𝑧 = 𝑒 𝑦 , 𝑡 = 𝑧, the value of 𝑑𝑥 is equal to
𝑥𝑦𝑧 2 𝑥𝑦𝑧 (𝑥 2 )
𝑥𝑦𝑧 (cos 𝑥𝑦𝑧 𝑡
(a) 𝑡
(b) 𝑡
(𝑥 2 )
cos (c) 𝑡
(d) cos 𝑥2
sec 𝑥+tan 𝑥
117. What is the derivative of sec 𝑥−tan 𝑥
?
(a) 2 sec x (sec x + tan x) (b) 2 sec 2 𝑥(sec 𝑥 + tan 𝑥)2
2
(c) 2 sec x (sec x + tan x) (d) sec x (sec x + tan x)2
118. What is the differential coefficient of 𝑓(log 𝑥), where 𝑓(𝑥) = log x?
𝑥 (log 𝑥) 1
(a) (log 𝑥) (b) (𝑥 log 𝑥)−1 (c) 𝑥
(d) 𝑓 𝑥
cos 𝑥 𝑑2 𝑥
119. If y = 3x – , 𝑡𝑒𝑛 is
2 𝑑𝑦 2
2 cos 𝑥 4 cos 𝑥 4 cos 𝑥 4 sin 𝑥
(a) – (6+sin 𝑥)2
(b) – (6+sin 𝑥)2 (c) –
6+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 3
(d) – 6+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 3
𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦
120. If y = a cos (log x)- b sin (log x), then the value of 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 is
(a) 4 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3
INTEGRATION::
dx
121. What is the value of ?
2𝑎𝑥 −𝑥 2
1 𝑥−1 𝑥−𝑎
(a) sin−1 + 𝐶 (b) sin−1 + 𝐶
𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
1
(c) log 𝑥 − 𝑎 + 2𝑎𝑥 − 𝑥 2 + 𝐶 (d) 𝑎
log 𝑥 − 𝑎 + 2𝑎𝑥 − 𝑥 2 + 𝐶
122. If 𝑓(x) dx = 𝑓(𝑥)/2, then which one of the following is correct?
(a) 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑒 2𝑥 + constant (b) 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 + constant
(c) 𝑓(𝑥) = constant (d) 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑒 2𝑥
123. If 𝑓(𝑥) dx = g(x) and also 𝑓 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 , then which one of the following is correct?
(a) g(x) = h(x) (b) g(x) + h(x) = constant
(c) g(x) h(x) = constant (d) g(x) – h(x) = constant
x 2+ 1
x2+ 1 𝑥
e
124. What is the value of the integral e 𝑥 dx − 𝑋2
dx?
x2+ 1 x 2+ 1
𝑥 1
(a) 𝑒 + 𝐶 (b) e 𝑥 + C (c) 𝑥e 𝑥 + C (d) 𝑥 + 𝑥 𝑒 𝑥 + 𝐶
sin x
125. What is the value of dx?
sin 2 𝑥−sin 2 𝑎
−1
(a) sin (sec a cos x) + C (b) cos −1 (sec a cos x) + C
(c) sinh−1 (sec a cos x) + C (d) cosh−1 (sec a cos x) + C
APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVE:
126. The function 𝑥 𝑥 is increasing, when
1 1
(a) x > 𝑒 (b) x < 𝑒 (c) x < 0 (d) for all real x
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION:
dy
131. An integrating factor of the differential equation (1 – x2) − xy = 1 is:
dx
x 1
(a) –x (b) - (1−x 2 )
(c) (1 − x 2 ) (1 − x 2 )
(d) 2 log
132. The second order differential equation of a parabola with its principal axis along the x-axis is:
(a) y‘‘ + 2(y‘)2 = 0 (b) 3yy‘‘ + 2(y‘)3 = 0 (c) yy‘‘ + (y‘)2 = 0 (d) y‘‘+ 2(y‘)4 = 0
dy
133. The solution of dx = 2y−x is:
1 1 1 1
(a) 2x + 2y = C (b) 2x – 2y = C (c) 2x − 2y = C (d) 2x + 2y = C
dy
134. The integrating factor of the differential equation cos x + y sin x = 1 is:
dx
(a) sec x (b) tan x (c) sin x (d) cos x
d2y
135. Ifdx 2
+ sin x = 0, then the solution of differential equation is:
(a) y = sin x + Cx + D (b) y = cos x + Cx2 + D
(c) y = tan x + C (d) y = log sin x + Cx
VECTORS:
136. If D, E, F are respectively the mid points of AB, AC and BC in ABC, then BE + AF is equal to:
1 3
(a) DC (b) 𝐵𝐹 (c) 2BF (d) 𝐵𝐹
2 2
137. If three points A, B and C have position vectors (1, x, 3), (3, 4, 7) and (y, -2, -5) respectively and if they are collinear,
then (x, y) is equal to:
(a) (2, -3) (b) (-2, 3) (c) (2, 3) (d) (-2, -3)
138. If a = i + 2j – 3k and b = 3i – j + λk and (a + b) is perpendicular to (a – b), what is the value of λ?
(a) -2 (b) ±2 (c) 3 (d) ±3
139. If vectors, a, b and c are mutually perpendicular vectors such that a = b = 10, c = 1, then the length of vector
2a + 2b + 40c is:
(a) 20 (b) 20 6 (c) 40 6 (d) None of these
π
140. If a and b are two unit vectors inclined at an angle 3, then the value of a + b is:
(a) greater than 1 (b) less than 1 (c) equal to 1 (d) equal to 0
3D:
LOGARITHMS:
DATA INTERPRETATION:
Directions for Questions 151 - 155: Answer the questions based on the following information.
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups—PCB, Mathematics, Social Science,
Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the
following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final
score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in
English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)
Social Science Vernacular
PCB Group English Group
Name of the Mathematics Group Group Final
student Group Paper Paper Score
Phy. Chem. Bio. Hist. Geo. Paper I Paper II
I II
Ayesha (G) 98 96 97 98 95 93 94 96 96 98 96.2
Ram (B) 97 99 95 97 95 96 94 94 96 98 96.1
Dipan (B) 98 98 98 95 96 95 96 94 96 ? 96.0
Directions for Questions 156 - 159: Refer to the following graphs and answer the questions based on them:
Foreign investment approvals and inflows (US $ Mn.) Country wise foreign investment
approved for 1996
156. What is the contribution of EU in the foreign investment inflows for the year 1996?
(a) 1840 (b) 2000 (c) 460 (d) Data insufficient
157. The foreign investment approvals for the year 1996 in case of SAARC, ASEAN and EU would be :
(a) 2240 (b) 5000 (c) 3500 (d) 2600
Directions for Questions 160 – 162: Answer the questions on the basis of the data presented in the figure below.
160. During 1996-2002, the number of commodities that exhibited a net overall increase and a net overall decrease,
respectively, were
(a) 3 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 4 and 2 (d) 5 and 1
161. The number of commodities that experienced a price decline for two or more consecutive years is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
162. For which commodities did a price increase immediately follow a price decline only once in this period ?
(a) Rice, Edible oil and Dal (b) Egg and Dal
(c) Onion only (d) Egg and Onion
Directions for Questions 163 – 166: Answer the questions based on the following pie charts.
163. What fraction of Sandeep's weight consists of muscular and skin protein ?
1 2 3
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) Cannot be determined
164. Ratio of distribution of protein in muscles to the distribution of protein in eyes is:
1
(a) 2:5 (b) 12:50 (c) 13:11 (d) 52 : 25
Directions for Questions 167 - 168: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Each point in the graph below shows the profit and turnover data for a company. Each company belongs to one of the
three industries: textile, cement and steel.
167. For how many companies does the profit exceed 10% of turnover?
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5
168. For how many steel companies with a turnover of more than 2000 is the profit less than 300?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 7
LOGICAL REASONING
1. BKGQJN
(a) 9©$7©% (b) ©9$7%© (c) 91$78% (d) %1$789
Directions for Question 2: If ‗+‘ means ‗’‘, ‗x‘ means ‗-‗, ‗’‘ means ‗x‘, ‗-‗ means ‗+‘ then what will come in place of
question mark(?).
2. 36 + 18 ÷ 12 – 44 × 30 = ?
(a) 4 (b) 20 (c) 38 (d) 23.75
Directions for Question 3: In a certain code ―MANISH‖ is written as ―NCOKTI‖, ―MRADULA‖ is written as
―NSCEWMC‖, ―PINKI is written as ―QKOLK‖.
3. What will be the code for ―ANUP‖.
(a) COWQ (b) TQOCM (c) CEKUZ (d) BOVQ
Directions for Question 4: In a language ‗truck‘ is train, ‗train‘ is tractor, ‗tractor‘ is ship, ‗ship‘ is aeroplane, ‗aeroplane‘
is bulldozer, ‗bulldozer‘ is scooter, then in that language-
4. Which of the following can fly
(a) aeroplane (b) ship (c) bulldozer (d) train
Directions for Question 5: In a certain code language, „hope to see you‟ is coded as „re so na di‟, „please come to
see the party‟ is coded as „fi ge na di ke zo‟, „hope to come‟ is coded as „di so ge‟ and „see you the party‟ is coded
as „re fi zo na‟.
5. How is ‗party‘ coded in the given code language?
(a) Either ‗re‘ or ‗fi‘ (b) Either ‗zo‘ or ‗na‘
(c) Either ‗zo‘ or ‗fi‘ (d) Either ‗zo‘ or ‗ge‘
FAMILY TREE:
6. Pointing out to a lady, a girl said, ―She is the daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father‘s only son‖. How is the
lady related to the girl?
(a) Sister-in-law (b) Mother (c) Aunt (d) Cannot be determined
Directions for Questions 7 – 8: Read the following information and answer the question given below it:
A is the father of C. But C is not his son. E is the daughter of C. F is the spouse of A. B is the brother of C. D is the son of
B. G is the spouse of B. H is the father of G.
7. Who is the grandmother of D?
(a) A (b) C (c) F (d) H
Directions for Questions 9 - 10: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
‗P # Q‘ means ‗P is the father of Q‘; ‗P + Q‘ means ‗P is the mother of Q‘; ‗P – Q‘ means ‗ P is the brother of Q‘: ‗P * Q‘
means ‗P is the sister of Q‘.
9. If A + B # C – D, then A is D‘s
(a) Father (b) Grandmother (c) Sister (d) Grandfather
10. Which of the following shows that A is the aunt of E?
(a) A + B – C * D # E (b) A # B * C + D –E
(c) A * B # C * D – E (d) A – B + C # D * E
Direction for Questions 16 - 20: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions: Seven friends
Kamla, Manish, Rohit, Amit, Gaurav, Pritam and Priya are sitting in a circle. Kamla, Manish, Rohit, Amit, Pritam and Priya
are sitting at equal distances from each other. Rohit is sitting three places right of Pritam, who is sitting to the right of
Amit. Kamla forms an angle of 90 degrees from Gaurav and angle of 120 degrees from Manish. Manish is just opposite
Priya and is sitting on the left of Gaurav.
16. Who is the only person sitting between Rohit and Manish?
(a) Pritam (b) Amit (c) Gaurav (d) kamla
17. Gaurav is not sitting at equal distance from
(a) Rohit and Pritam (b) Amit and kamla (c) Manish and Pritam (d) All of the above
18. Gaurav is sitting ……. of Priya.
(a) to the left (b) to the right (c) two places right (d) None of them
19. The angle between Gaurav and Manish in the clockwise direction is
(a) 1500 (b) 180° (c) 210° (d) None of these
Directions for Questions 21 - 24: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a building, there are thirteen flats on three floors - II, III and IV. Five flats are unoccupied. Three managers, two
teachers, two lawyers and one doctor occupy the remaining flats. There are at least three flats on any floor and not more
than six flats on any floor. No two persons of the same profession stay on any floor. On the II floor, out of four flats, one
occupant is the lawyer and he has only one neighbour. One lawyer live one floor below the other. The doctor is not the
neighbour of any of the lawyers. No flat is unoccupied on the III floor.
Directions for Questions 25 - 29: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are travelling in three different vehicles. There are at least two passengers in each vehicle - I, II and
III and each vehicle has passengers of both the sexes. There are two engineers, two doctors and three teachers among
them. C is a lady doctor and she does not travel with the pair of sisters A and F. B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a
teacher in vehicle I. D is a male doctor. Two persons belonging to same profession do not travel in the same vehicle. A is
not an engineer and travels in vehicle II.
30. A committee of six members is to be formed with one professor and one lecturer each from each department.
There must be a minimum of two female members in this committee. Which of the following combinations is
possible?
(a) A, I, P, B, L, N (b) H, I, P, E, L, T (c) A, H, O, F, S, T (d) A, F, H, M, S, T
31. A delegation of ladies is to be sent abroad to attend a seminar. Any professor in mechanical department is not ready
to join with any lecturer in civil department. The delegation should have minimum three professors. Further, every
department must be represented in the delegation. Which of the following combinations would be possible?
(a) E, L, S, F, G, N (b) A, H, D, E, L, S (c) F, L, N, T, S, M (d) E, L, S, M, N, T
32. A joint committee of five members is to be formed from the faculties of civil and electrical department only. The
committee must have minimum two professors and two lecturers. There should be at least two female members in
the committee. Which of the following combinations is not possible?
(a) S, T, D, O, R (b) A, B, O, R, T (c) A, O, R, G, T (d) A, O, B, G, T
33. A department committee is to be formed in mechanical department only. There should be 4 members in the
committee and one of them must be a lady. The committee must include the head of department, Professor I.
However, he cannot work with either L or N. Further, M cannot work with either N or J. Which of the following
combinations is possible?
(a) I, M, L, N (b) I, M, H, K (c) I, H, J, K (d) H, J, M, N
Directions for Questions 34 – 38: Read the information given in the following paragraphs and then answer the
questions based on them:
There are 6 soccer teams A, B, C, D, E and F in the soccer league game. All the 6 teams play each Saturday during the
season. Each team must play against each of the other teams once and only once during the seasons.
(I) Team A plays against team D first and team F second.
(II) Team B plays against team E first and team C third.
(III) Team C plays against team F first.
34. On the first Saturday, which of the following pairs of teams play against each other?
(a) A and B, C and F, D and E (b) A and B, C and E, D and F
(c) A and C, B and E, D and F (d) None of these
35. Which of the following team must B play second with ?
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) Either E or A
36. What is the total number of games that each team must play during the season ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
37. If D wins 5 games, which of the following must be true ?
(a) A loses 5 games (b) A wins 4 games (c) A wins its first game (d) B loses at least 1 game
38. The last set of games could be between :
(a) A and B, C and F, D and E (b) A and C, B and F, D and E
(c) A and D, B and C, E and F (d) Cannot be determined
Directions for Questions 39 – 42: Study the following information to answer the given questions:
There are five identically looking boxes having different objects in it and every box has a label indicating their contents.
The following is the description of the contents and the label of each box:
Contents Label
Two pins PP
Two balls BB
Two clips CC
One pin and One clip PC
One ball and One clip BC
39. If the first box opened contained label PP and second box opened contained label PC and out of the combined four
items, one item was a ball, which of the following will be definitely true?
(a) Other three items will not contain any clip
(b) Other three items will contain atleast one clip
(c) Other three items will not contain two pins
(d) None of the above
40. If the first box, containing the label BC, was opened and it was found that one item is a ball, which of the following
would definitely be true?
(a) The other item will not be a ball
(b) The other item will also be a ball
(c) The other box with BB label will contain a ball and a clip
(d) The other item may either be a ball or a clip
41. If the information is available that box PC does not contain either any pin or any clip and box PP does not contain
any pin and box CC contains one clip and one ball, which of the following will definitely be true if only one of the
remaining boxes is opened?
(a) It will have atleast one clip
(b) It will have atleast one pin
(c) It will have two pin
(d) It will have one pin and one clip
42. If the box PP contained two clips, the box CC contained two pins and the box BB contained atleast one ball, which
of the following will definitely be not true?
(a) The box PC contains two balls
(b) The box BB contains one clip
(c) The box BC contains two balls
(d) The box BC contains one pin and one clip
DIRECTIONS:
43. Radha moves towards South-east a distance of 7 m, then she moves towards West and travels a distance of 14 m.
From here, she moves towards North-west a distance of 7 m and finally she moves a distance of 4 m towards East
and stood at the point. How far is the starting point from where she stood?
(a) 3 m (b) 4 m (c) 10 m (d) 11 m
44. A man is facing south. He turns 135o in the anti clockwise direction and then 180o in the clockwise direction. Which
direction is he facing now?
(a) North-east (b) North-west (c) South-east (d) South –west
45. A villager went to meet his uncle in another village situated 5 km away in the North-east direction of his own village.
From there he came to meet his father-in-law living in a village situated 4 km in the south of his uncle‘s village. How
far away and in what direction is he now?
(a) 3 km in the North (b) 3 km in the East
(c) 4 km in the East (d) 4 km in the West
46. A man leaves for his office from his house. He walks towards East. After moving a distance of 20 m, he turns South
and walks 10 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the West and further 5 m towards the North. He then turns towards
East and walks 15 m. What is the straight distance between his initial and final positions?
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) Cannot be determined
47. A river flows west to east and on the way turns left and goes in a semi-circle round a hillock, and then turns left at
right angles. In which direction is the river finally flowing?
(a) West (b) East (c) North (d) South
VENN DIAGRAM:
48. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
(a) 18 (b) 28
(c) 20 (d) 24
49. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.
(a) 16 (b) 17
(c) 18 (d) 19
50. In the Venn diagram given below, circle represents sportspersons, square represents unmarried person, triangle
represents women and rectangle represents educated person. Each section is numbered. Study this diagram to
answer the following question.
(a) 0 (b) 26
(c) 11 (d) 12
Directions for Questions 55 to 57: Each question contains six statements, followed by four options of combinations of
any three of the given sentences. Choose the option in which the combinations are logically related.
Direction for Questions 61 - 62: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below.
342687©54*329$16537#986@2143π9872β43
61. How many 2‘s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square?
(1 is also a perfect square)
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
62. If all the digits that are perfect square are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be 13th
(digit/symbol) from the left end of the above arrangement.
(a) $ (b) 2 (c) # (d) 5
Directions for Questions 63 - 64: The following questions are based on five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English
words)
63. If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of
the following will form a meaningful English word?
(a) SUM (b) BIG (c) Both BIG and THE (d) FOR
64. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second
from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
(a) Two (b) Five (c) Six (d) Nine
th st
65. Radha remembers that her father‘s birthday is after 16 but before 21 of March, while her brother Mahesh
remembers that his father‘s birthday is before 22nd but after 19th of March. On which date is the birthday of their
father?
(a) 19th March (b) 20th March (c) 21th March (d) Cannot be determined
66. Nikhil remembers that his sister Kranti had certainly been to Pune for one day after 16th February, but before 21st
February, while his mother remembers that Kranti had certainly visited Pune, before 20th February but after 17th
February. If both of the them are correct, then on which day in February had Kranti visited Pune?
(a) Either 18th or 19th (b) 19th
th
(c) 18 (d) Data inadequate
DATA SUFFICIENCY:
Directions for Questions 68-69: Each of the following questions consists of a question followed by three statements
labeled I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data given in the statement(s) is/are sufficient for answering the
question. Read all the questions. A single combination of statements with least number of statements which could be
sufficient for answering the question would be your answer.
Directions for Questions 70 - 72: Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbed I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
(a) If data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient
to answer the question.
(b) If data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient
to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Directions for Questions 73 and 74: In each question below a statement is given followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the statements to be true. Read both the conclusions and decide which of the two or
both follow from the given statement.
Give Answer
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows.
(d) If neither I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
73. Statement:
Global ecological issues have eclipsed local environmental problems, which are being faced by the poor societies.
Conclusions:
I. Poor societies always have to suffer because of their poverty.
II. Global ecological issues are not so important. Rich societies can bear with it.
74. Statements:
‗70% of the world‘s data is processed on XYZ company‘s platforms‘ – An advertisement of XYZ – a computer
manufacturing company.
Conclusions:
I. There is no other company in the world which produces platforms of data processing.
II. Company XYZ has to make more efforts to market its platforms.
Directions for Questions 75 and 76: In each question below are given certain statements followed by some
conclusions. Choose the conclusion which follows from the given statement.
75. Statements:
A forest has as many Sandal trees as it has Ashoka trees. Three-fourths of the trees are old and half of the trees are
at the flowering state.
Conclusions:
(a) All ashoka trees are at the flowering stage.
(b) All Sandal trees are at the flowering stage.
(c) At least one-half of the Ashoka trees are old.
(d) One half of the Sandal trees are at the flowering stage.
(e) None of these.
76. Statements:
1. Only students can participate in the race.
2. Some participants in the race are females.
3. All female participants in the race are invited for coaching.
Conclusions:
(a) All participants in the race are invited for coaching.
(b) Al participants in the race are males.
(c) All students are invited for coaching.
(d) All the participants in the race are students.
VISUAL REASONING:
Directions for Questions 78 to 82: In each of the following questions, there is a set of five figures labelled A, B, C, D
and E called the Problem Set followed by a set of five other figures labelled (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) called the Answer Set.
Fig. (C) or (D) contains a question mark. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Set which will substitute this question
mark so that a series is formed by the figure A, B, C, D and E taken in order. The option of the selected figure is the
answer.
Problem figure Answer figure
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
Directions for Questions 84 to 86: Read the information given below to answer these questions.
(A) A cube has six sides, each of which has a different colour black, blue, brown, green, red and white.
(B) The red side is opposite to black.
(C) The green side is between the red and the black.
(D) The blue side is adjacent to the white.
(E) The brown side is adjacent to the blue.
(F) The red side is the bottom face.
84. The four colours adjacent to green are
(a) black, blue, brown, red (b) black, blue, brown, white
(c) black, blue, red, white (d) black, brown, red, white
85. Which of the following can be deduced from the statements (A), (B) and (F)?
(a) Black is on the top (b) Blue is on the top
(c) Brown is on the top (d) Brown is opposite to black
86. Which of the following statements given above adds no information that is not already given by the other
statements?
(a) (B) (b) (C) (c) (E) (d) (F)
87. Four different positions of a dice are shown. Find the letter opposite to W.
88. If step II of an input is ―cut 97 38 end for 29 46 down‖, which of the following will be the last step?
(a) VI (b) IV (c) V (d) VII
89. If the Step I of an input is ―car 17 vas tiger 92 87 like 52‖, which of the following will be the Step IV?
(a) car 92 like 87 tiger 17 vas 52 (b) car 92 like 87 17 vas tiger 52
(c) car 92 like 87 tiger 52 17 vas (d) car 92 like 17 vas tiger 87 52
90. Input : zeal for 49 31 high 22 track 12. Which of the following will be the Step III?
(a) for 49 high zeal 31 22 track 12 (b) for 49 high 31 zeal 22 track 12
(c) for 49 high 31 track 22 zeal 12 (d) for 49 high 31 track zeal 22 12
91. Input : 19 feet 34 28 dog bag 43. ―Bag 43 dog 19 feet 34 28‖ would be the Step-
(a) I (b) IV (c) II (d) None of these
92. If the step III of an input is ―21 let 86 bite 16 fit 72 happy‖, what would be the input?
(a) 21 16 let bite happy fit 72 86 (b) happy 16 21 bite fit let 86 72
(c) fit bite happy 72 86 16 let 21 (d) cannot be determined
Directions for Questions 93 - 97: In arrangement machine when given an input of words, rearrange them following a
particular rule and solve.
Input: This chapter would give you basic concepts.
Step 1: basic this chapter would give you concepts.
Step 2: basic chapter this would give you concepts.
Step 3: basic chapter concepts this would give you.
Step 4: basic chapter concepts give this would you.
Study the logic and answer the questions that follow.
93. Input: “Do not imitate others work”. Which of the following will be Step 3 for the given input?
(a) Do others not imitate work. (b) Do imitate not others work.
(c) Work do others imitate. (d) Do not others work imitate.
(e) There will be no 3rd step
94. Input: "Adequate safety arrangements are must for kids". Which of the following will be 2nd last step for the
given input?
(a) Adequate are arrangements for kids safety must. (b) Adequate are arrangements for kids must safety,
(c) Adequate are safety arrangements must for kids. (d) Adequate safety are arrangements must for kids.
(e) None of these
95. Input: "Marcus Brauchli gives inaccurate information". How many steps are required to rearrange the above
input properly.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2
(e) None of these
96. Input: "Most Indian leaders cannot even visualise free India". Which of the following will be last step of above
input?
(a) Most Indian even leaders cannot visualise free India. (b) Cannot even free India Indian most leaders visualise.
(c) Cannot even free India most Indian leaders visualise. (d) Cannot even free India Indian leaders most visualise.
(e) None of these.
97. Step IV: "It is figure anti-establishment from media". Which of the following is the input of the above
mentioned step.
(a) It is figure from anti-establishment media. (b) Media it is figure from anti-establishment.
(c) It is anti-establishment media from. (d) Can't be determined.
(e) None of these
98. Statement: Please check the availability of 2 tickets from Delhi to Lucknow.
Assumptions: I. Person checking knows the desired mode of travel.
II. Person checking knows the details of the person travelling.
99. Statement: An advertisement: ―Our shoes are for the rich.‖
Assumptions: I. Many people like to be labeled as rich.
II. One can‘t become rich unless one has that brand of shoes.
100. Statement: ―Two months ago, it was announced that Central Government pensioners would get dearness relief
with immediate effect but till date, banks have not credited the arrears.‖ A statement from a Pensioners‘ Forum.
Assumptions: I. Most of the banks normally take care of the pensioners.
II. Two month‘s time is sufficient for the government machinery to move and give effect to
pensioners.
101. Statement: Believe me, I have read it in newspaper X.
Assumptions: I. Newspaper X gives reliable information/news.
II. I am reporting exactly as it is given in newspaper X
102. Statement: ―We deal in used cars. Contact us at phone no. XYZ, at the earliest possible.‖ –an advertisement.
Assumptions: I. some people want to sell or purchase old cars.
II. The advertisement will be read by the needy people.
III. Used cars may not be totally useless.
(a) Only I are implicit. (b) Only II and III are implicit. (c) Only I and III are implicit.
(d) All I, II, III are implicit. (e) None of I, II, III are implicit.
103. Statement: Number of dropouts from the municipal school has significantly increased after withdrawal of mid-day
meal scheme.
Course of Action:
I. The government should reconsider its decision of withdrawal of midday meal scheme.
II. The government should close down some of the municipal schools.
III. The government should carry out a detailed study to find out the reasons for school dropouts.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows (c) Only I and III follow (d) Only III and III follow
(e) All follow
104. Statement: Some strains of mosquito have become resistant to chloroquine – the widely used medicine for malaria
patients.
Course of Action:
I. Selling of chloroquine should be stopped.
II. Researchers should develop a new medicine for patients affected by such mosquitoes.
III. All the patients suffering from malaria should be checked for identification of causal mosquito.
(a) None follows (b) Only I and III follow (c) All follow (d) Only II and III follow
(e) None of these
105. Statement: A large number of students who have passed their XII Std. terminal examination in the country could
not get admission to colleges as the number of seats available are grossly inadequate.
Course of Action:
I. The evaluation system of XII std. terminal examination should be made more tough so that fewer students pass
the examination.
II. The Government should encourage the private sector to open new colleges by providing them land at cheaper
rate.
III. The rich people should be asked to send their wards to foreign countries for higher studies enabling the needy
students to get admission in colleges within the country.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Only I and II follow (d) Only II and III follow
(e) None of these
106. Statement: The Deputy Mayor of city Z has proposed to install a plant of mineral water and to supply citizen‘s
mineral water bottles at Rs. 6 per litre as against Rs. 10 per litre being sold by local private companies.
Course of Action:
I. The local private companies of city Z will have to close their operation.
II. The Corporation of city Z will have to provide for losses in this project in its budget.
III. The tap water schemes of city Z will have to be stopped.
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and III follow (c) Only I and III follow (d) All follow
(e) None of these
107. Statement: The vehicular traffic has increased so much in the recent past that it takes at least two hours to travel
between the city and the airport during peak hours.
Course of Action:
I. Non-airport bound vehicles should not be allowed to ply on the road connecting the city and the airport.
II. The load of vehicular traffic should be diverted through various link roads during peak hours.
III. The departure and arrival of flights should be regulated so as to avoid congestion during peak hours.
(a) Only I follow (b) Only II follows (c) Only I and II follow (d) All follow
(e) none of these
Directions for Questions 108 to 112: Each of the following questions consists of a statement followed by two
Arguments I and II.
Give answer:
(a) If only argument I is strong (b) If only argument II is strong
(c) If either I or II is strong (d) If neither I nor II is strong and
(e) If both I and II are strong
108. Statement: Should religion be banned?
Arguments:
I. Yes. It develops fanaticism in people.
II. No. Religion binds people together.
109. Statement: Should children be legally made responsible to take care of their parents during their old age?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Such matter can only be solved by legal means.
II. Yes. Only this will bring some relief to poor parents.
110. Statement: Should India encourage exports, when most things are insufficient for internal use itself?
Arguments:
I. Yes. We have to earn foreign exchange to pay for our imports.
II. No. Even selective encouragement would lead to shortages.
111. Statement: Should family planning be made compulsory in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Looking to the miserable conditions in India, there is no other go.
II. No. In India there are people of various religions and family planning is against the tenets of some of the
religions.
112. Statement: Should the vehicles older than 15 years be rejected in metros in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This is a significant step to lower down the pollution level in metros.
II. No. It will be very difficult for vehicle owners to shift to other parts in country because they will not get suitable
job for their very existence.
Directions for Questions 113 – 114: Each of these questions has an assertion (A) and a reason (R). Mark answer as
(a) if both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) if (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) if (A) is false but (R) is true
113. Assertion (A) The government must take care of the minor children of those criminals who have been sentenced
to jail and can‘t look after their children any more under these circumstances.
Reason (R) Yes, psychologically, the children need protection from someone, be it the government. But the
criminals must have thought about this aspect before they committed a crime for which they are in the jail now.
114. Assertion (A) The freezing of sea water at minus zero level temperature does not kill the fish.
Reason (R) It is only the top layer of the seawater that gets frozen. The lower level water remains unfrozen and fish
can remain alive in it.
Directions for Questions 116 – 117: Each of these questions has an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark answer as
(a) if both ‗A‘ and ‗R‘ are true and ‗R‘ is the correct explanation of ‗A‘
(b) if both ‗A‘ and ‗R‘ are true but ‗R‘ is not the correct explanation of ‗A‘
(c) if ‗A‘ is true but ‗R‘ is false
(d) if ‗A‘ is false but ‗R‘ is true
(e)
116. Assertion (A) An uneducated person is a good stenographer.
Reason (R) A stenographer also knows typing.
117. Assertion (A) A married man is a happy person.
Reason (R) Marriage is a social obligation.
Passage I
The interest rates in the institutional market have come down significantly and at present are in the range of 5.25 to 5.75
percent per annum. However, interest rates on small savings schemes such as the Post Office Saving Schemes, RBI Relief
Bonds, Provident Fund and PPF continue to be administered at high levels in relation to market rates. These schemes also
have a variety of tax incentives, which result in much higher post-tax returns and on the flip side more liability for the
government. It is ironic that it is predominantly the urban population (and more often people in the high tax bracket),
which is benefiting from high rates and tax benefits. The size of small savings has assumed a significant proportion of
financial savings in the country. This has also increased dramatically the debt service burden of both Central and State
Governments.
118. The interest rate in the institutional market till five years ago was more than 8 percent.
119. The interest rates on small savings have decreased considerably during the last few years.
120. Tax incentives are provided to benefit all sections of the society.
121. Returns on different Government administered savings schemes are higher for tax-paying individuals.
122. The Government administered savings schemes in the long run drain out exchequer's money.
Passage II
Pollution amounts to slow murder. Regular exposure to industrial and vehicular pollution leads to life threatening diseases
like asthma, heart problems, cancer and various other disorders. Therefore, nobody has the right to pollute, rich or poor.
Industrial and vehicular pollution are growing rapidly across the country. It is not just metropolitan centres that are heavily
polluted today but also small and medium towns. Pollution is growing faster than the economy. This is because the
western technological model, built on heavy use of energy and materials, is an inherently highly toxic model. It produces
huge amounts of toxic pollutants, which can be controlled if there is careful choice of technology and there is
considerable discipline in its use.
123. The industries which use higher levels of energy create more pollution.
124. The spread of pollution has gathered momentum in the recent past.
125. The pollution level in the western world is considerably more than in India.
126. Proper planning in use of modern technology leads to less pollution in the environment.
SYNONYMS:
Directions for Questions 1 - 10: Choose the option closest in meaning to the word given.
1. Disparage
(a) separate (b) compare (c) refuse (d) belittle
2. Intrepid
(a) middle (b) tolerant (c) fearless (d) rude
3. Parley
(a) fraud (b) paraphrase (c) conclave (d) spectacle
4. Lassitude
(a) lethargy (b) puritan (c) energy (d) meeting
5. Idiocy
(a) brilliancy (b) privilege (c) dogma (d) absurdity
6. Stockade
(a) rampart (b) fence (c) paling (d) shuttle
7. Bestial
(a) feral (b) feminine (c) fiendish (d) savage
8. Paddock
(a) filament (b) glebe (c) pasture (d) mead
9. Anchorite
(a) eremite (b) recluse (c) infirm (d) hermit
10. Dither
(a) dilly-dally (b) falter (c) hum and haw (d) doughty
ANTONYMS:
Directions for Questions 11 - 20: Choose the option which is the antonym of the word mentioned.
11. Apex
(a) base (b) zenith (c) meridian (d) median
12. Haughtiness
(a) unskilled (b) affability (c) adduce (d) abject
13. Awry
(a) Austere (b) offend (c) asthenia (d) straight
14. Befoul
(a) flounder (b) cleanse (c) buoyant (d) flambé
15. Blasphemous
(a) irreligious (b) inferior (c) reverent (d) blarney
16. Paradoxical
(a) rational (b) crazy (c) daft (d) zany
17. Callow
(a) mature (b) oppose (c) bustle (d) burly
18. Candour
(a) frankness (b) cunning (c) ingenuous (d) sincere
19. Diffidence
(a) ascent (b) confidence (c) penchant (d) prescription
20. Cleave
(a) disjunction (b) separate (c) adjunct (d) revoke
Directions for Questions 21- 30: Answer the questions based on the following information.
In each of the following questions, a pair of capitalized words is followed by four pairs of words. You are required to
mark as the answer the pair of words which have a relationship between them most similar to the relationship between
the capitalized pair.
IDIOMS:
Directions for Questions 31- 40: In each of the following questions, an idiom or a phrase has been given, followed by
four alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom / phrase.
SENTENCE COMPLETION:
Directions for Questions 41 - 49: Answer the questions based on the following information.
There are two gaps of the following sentences. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that fill the gap most
appropriately. The first word in the pair should fill the first gap.
41. From the time she had put her hair up, every man she had met had groveled before her and she had acquired a
mental attitude toward the other sex which was a blend of ____ and ___.
(a) admiration, tolerance (b) indifference, contempt
(c) impertinence, temperance (d) arrogance, fidelity (CAT 2003)
42. Physicians may soon have ____ to help paralyzed people move their limbs by bypassing the ____ nerves that once
controlled their muscles.
(a) instruments, detrimental (b) ways, damaged
(c) reason, involuntary (d) impediments, complex (CAT 2003)
43. The argument that the need for a looser fiscal policy to _____ demand outweighs the need to ___ budget deficits is
persuasive. (CAT 2003)
(a) assess, minimize (b) outstrip, eliminate (c) stimulate, control (d) restrain, conceal
44. But____ are now regularly written not just for tools but well-established practices, organisations and institutions
not all of which seem to be ____ away.
(a) reports, withering (b) stories, trading
(c) book, dying (d) obituaries, fading (CAT 2001)
45. The Darwin, who____ as the most remarkable for the way in which he ____ the attributes of the word class
thinker and head of the household.
(a) comes, figures (b) arises, adds (c) emerges, combines (d) appeared, combines
46. Indian intellectuals may boast if they are so inclined of being ____ to the most elitist among the intellectual ____ of
the world.
(a) subordinate, traditions (b) heirs, cliques
(c) ancestors, societies (d) heir, traditions
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT:
Directions for Questions 51 - 55: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A part of each sentence given below has been underlined. You have to select the option that best replaces the underlined
part.
SENTENCE CORRECTION:
Directions for Questions 56 - 68: In each of the following sentences, four/five options are given. You are required to
identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English. While doing
so, you have to ensure that the message being conveyed remains the same in all the cases.
56. Poor product quality angers Mr. Garbole, who wonders if it is part of a strategy by marketers.
(a) Poor product quality angers Mr. Garbole, who wonders if it is part of a strategy by marketers.
(b) Poor product quality angers Mr. Garbole, who wonders if marketers are part of the strategy.
(c) Poor product quality angers Mr. Garbole, that wonders if it is part of a strategy by marketers.
(d) Poor product quality angers Mr. Garbole, who wonders if they are part of a strategy by marketers.
(e) Poor product quality angers Mr. Garbole, who wonders if it are part of a strategy.
57. The shopkeeper hadn't hardly any of those kind of goods.
(a) The shopkeeper hadn't hardly any of those kind of goods.
(b) The shopkeeper hadn't hardly any of those kinds of goods.
(c) The shopkeeper had hardly any of those kind of goods.
(d) The shopkeeper had hardly any of those kinds of goods.
(e) The shopkeeper had not hardly any of those kinds of goods.
58. Entertainment being recognised as an important factor in improving mental and physical health and thereby
reducing human misery and poverty.
(a) Entertainment being recognised as an important factor in improving mental and physical health and thereby
reducing human misery and poverty.
(b) Recognising entertainment as an important factor in improving mental and physical health and thereby reducing
human misery and poverty.
(c) Recognition of it being an important factor in improving mental and physical health entertainment reduces
human misery and poverty.
(d) Entertainment is recognised as an important factor in improving mental and physical health and thereby
reducing human misery and poverty.
(e) Entertainment while being recognised as an important factor in improving mental and physical health and
thereby reducing human misery and poverty.
59. The child is neither encouraged to be critical or to examine all the aspects of his opinion.
(a) The child is neither encouraged to be critical or to examine all the aspects of his opinion.
(b) The child is neither encouraged to be critical nor to examine all the aspects of his opinion.
(c) The child is either encouraged to be critical or to examine all the evidence for his opinion.
(d) The child is either encouraged to be critical not to examine all the aspects of his opinion.
(e) None of these
60. The panel interviewed several candidates who they thought had the experience and qualifications the position at
IIM Bangalore required.
(a) The panel interviewed several candidates who they thought had the experience and qualifications the position
at IIM Bangalore required.
(b) The panel interviewed several candidates whom they thought had the experience and qualifications the position
at IIM Bangalore required.
(c) The panel interviewed several candidates from whom they thought had the experience and qualifications the
position at IIM Bangalore required.
(d) The panel interviewed several candidates which he thought had the experience and qualifications the position at
IIM Bangalore required.
(b) The matter referred to the expert committee since the solution to the problem was different from the one
proposed earlier.
(c) The matter referred back to the expert committee since the solution to the problem was different than the
one proposed earlier.
(d) The matter referred to committee since the solution to the problem was different than the one proposed
earlier.
(e) The matter referred back to the committee since the solution for problem was different than one proposed
earlier.
67. The smaller firms in any industry sell either on a price or quality – of – workmanship basis.
(a) The smaller firms in any industry sell either on a price or quality-of-workmanship basis.
(b) The smaller firms in any industry either sell on a price or quality-of-workmanship basis.
(c) The smaller firms in any industry sell on either a price or a quality-of-workmanship basis.
(d) The smaller firms in any industry sell on either a price or on a quality-of-workmanship basis.
(e) The smaller firms of any industry sell off either on a price or quality-of-workmanship basis.
68. Dr. Pam Saxena, an Indian specialist in drug rehabilitation medicine, advises against going easy on rehabilitated drug
addicts for the fear of their relapsing into addiction.
(a) Dr. Pam Saxena, an Indian specialist in drug rehabilitation medicine, advises against going easy on rehabilitated
drug addicts for the fear of their relapsing into addiction.
(b) An Indian specialist in drug rehabilitation medicine, Dr. Pam Saxena, advises against going easy on rehabilitated
drug addicts for the fear of their relapsing into addiction.
(c) An Indian specialist in drug rehabilitation medicine, Pam Saxena, is of the opinion that one should not go easy on
rehabilitated drug addicts for the fear of their relapsing into addiction.
(d) Dr. Pam Saxena, an Indian specialist in drug rehabilitation medicine, advice against going easy on rehabilitated
drug addicts for the fear of their relapsing into addiction.
(e) Dr. Pam Saxena, an Indian specialist in drug rehabilitation medicines advises against easy going of rehabilitated
drug addicts for the fear of their relapsing into addiction.
Directions for Questions 69 and 70: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A part of each sentence given below has been underlined. You have to select the option that best replaces the underlined
part.
69. Many middle-class South Asians find that they cannot obtain good medical attention, despite the fact they need it
badly.
(a) they need it badly. (b) they badly need it.
(c) of they need it badly. (d) that they need it badly.
(e) they need it that badly.
70. Panchayati Raj institutions are now entrusted upon the execution of all rural upliftment schemes and programs in
India.
(a) entrusted upon the execution of all rural upliftment schemes and programs
(b) entrusted with the execution of all rural uplift schemes and programs
(c) entrusted with the execution of all rural upliftment schemes and programs
(d) entrusted within the execution for all rural uplift programs and schemes
(e) entrusted of the execution of all rural upliftment schemes and programs
Directions for Questions 71 - 73: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given
choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
Directions for Questions 74 and 75: Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. The first and last sentences are 1 and 6, and the four in between are labelled A, B, C and D. Choose the most
logical order of these four sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph from
sentences 1 to 6.
74. 1. Security inks exploit the same principle that causes the vivid and constantly changing colours of a film of oil on
water.
A. When two rays of light meet each other after being reflected from these different surfaces, they have each
travelled slightly different distances.
B. The key is that the light is bouncing of two surfaces, that of the oil and that of the water layer below it.
C. The distance the two rays travel determines which wavelengths, and hence colours, interfere constructively and
look bright.
D. Because lights, an electromagnetic wave, the peaks and troughs of each ray then interfere either constructively,
to appear bright, or destructively, to appear dim.
6. Since the distance the rays travel changes with the angle as you look at the surface, different colours look bright
from different viewing angles.
(a) ABCD (b) BADC (c) BDAC (d) DCAB (CAT 2000)
READING COMPREHENSION:
76. Tailoring micronutrient-based treatment plans to suit individual deficiency profiles is not necessary because :
(a) it is very likely to give inconsistent or negative results.
(b) it is a classic pharmaceutical approach not suited to micronutrients.
(c) most people are consuming suboptimal amounts of safe-to-consume micronutrients.
(d) it is not cost effective to do so.
77. The author recommends micronutrient-repletion for large-scale treatment of chronic degenerative diseases
because:
(a) it is relatively easy to manage.
(b) micronutrient deficiency is the cause of these diseases.
(c) it can overcome genetic risk factors.
(d) it can compensate for other lifestyle factors.
78. Why is a large number of apparently healthy people deemed pre-ill ?
(a) They may have chronic degenerative diseases.
(b) They do not know their own genetic risk factors which predispose them to diseases.
(c) They suffer from Type B-malnutrition.
(d) There is lengthy latency period associated with chronically degenerative diseases.
79. Type B-malnutrition is a serious concern in developed countries because :
(a) developing countries mainly suffer from Type A-malnutrition.
(b) it is a major contributor to illness and death.
(c) pharmaceutical companies are not producing drugs to treat this condition.
(d) national surveys on malnutrition do not include newer micronutrient groups.
Has the universe any unity or purpose ? Is it evolving towards some goal ? Are there really laws of nature, or do we
believe in them only because of our innate love of order ? Is man what he seems to the astronomer, a tiny lump of carbon
and water impotently crawling on a small and unimportant planet ? Or is he what he appears to Hamlet ? Is he perhaps
both at once ? Is there a way of living that is noble and another that is base, or are all ways of living merely futile ? If there
is a way of living that is noble, in what does it consist, and how shall we achieve it ? Must the good be eternal in order to
deserve to be valued, or is it worth seeking even if the universe is inexorably moving towards death ? Is there such a thing
as wisdom or is what seems such merely the ultimate refinement of folly ? To such questions no answer can be found in
the laboratory.
Theologies have professed to given answers, all to definite; but their definiteness causes modern minds to view them with
suspicion. The studying of these questions, if not the answering of them, is the business of philosophy.
Why, then you may ask, waste time on such insoluble problems ? To this one may answer as a historian, or as an
individual facing the terror of cosmic loneliness.
The answer of the historian, in so far as I am capable of giving it, will appear in the course of this work. Ever since men
became capable of free speculation, their actions in innumerable important respects, have depended upon their theories
as to the world and human life, as to what is good and what is evil. This is as true in the present day at any former time.
To understand an age or a nation we must understand its philosophy, and to understand its philosophy we must ourselves
be in some degree philosophers. There is here a reciprocal causation: the circumstances of men's lives do much to
determine their philosophy, but, conversely, their philosophy does much to determine their circumstances.
There is also, however, a more personal answer. Science tells us what we can know, but what we can know is little, and
if we forget how much we cannot know we may become insensitive to many things of very great importance. Theology,
on the other hand, induces a dogmatic belief that we have knowledge, where in fact we have ignorance, and by doing so
generated a kind of impertinent insolence towards the universe. Uncertainty, in the presence of vivid hopes and fears, is
painful, but must be endured if we wish to live without the support of comforting fair tales. It is not good either to forget
the questions that philosophy asks, or to persuade ourselves that we have found indubitable answers to them. To teach
how to live without certainty, and yet without being paralyzed by hesitation, is perhaps the chief things that philosophy, in
our age, can still do for those who study it.
This leads to a very different politics of interpretation and valuation to an aesthetic that privileges the evanescent moment
of performance and invocation over the controlling authority of genius and the permanent record. It is a tradition thus
that would appear to value the performer as medium, more highly than the composer who presumes to originate what
effectively, cannot be originated in a single person—because the raga is the inheritance of a culture.
84. The author's contention that the notion of property lies at the heart of the Western conception of genius is best
indicated by which one of the following ?
(a) The creative output of a genius is invariably written down and recorded.
(b) The link between the creator and his output is unambiguous.
(c) The word 'genius' is derived from a Latin word which means 'to beget'.
(d) The music composer notates his music and thus becomes the 'father' of a particular piece of music.
85. Saussure's conception of language as a communication between addresser and addressee according to the author is
exemplified by the :
(a) teaching of North Indian classical music by word of mouth and direct demonstration.
(b) use of the recorded cassette as a transmission medium between the music teacher and the trainee.
(c) written down notation sheets of musical compositions.
(d) conductor's baton and the orchestra.
86. The author holds that the 'rather ugly but a beneficial rectangle of plastic, has proved to be a 'handy technological
slave' in :
(a) storing the talas played upon the table at various tempos.
(b) ensuring the continuance of an ancient tradition.
(c) transporting North Indian classical music across geographical borders.
(d) capturing the transient moment of oral transmission.
87. The oral transmission of North Indian classified music is an almost unique testament of the :
(a) efficacy of the guru-shishya tradition.
(b) learning impact of direct demonstration.
(c) brain's ability to reproduce complex structures without the help of written marks.
(d) the ability of an illiterate person to narrate grand and intricate musical compositions.
88. According to the passage in the North Indian classical tradition the raga remains greater than the artist who invokes
it. This implies an aesthetic which :
(a) emphasises performance and invocation over the authority of genius and permanent record.
(b) makes the music no one's property.
(c) values the composer more highly than the performer.
(d) supports oral transmission of traditional music.
89. Which one of the following cannot be inferred ?
(a) It is easy to transfer a piece of Western classical music to a distant place.
(b) The conductor in the Western tradition as a custodian can modify the music since it 'lies mute' in his baton.
(c) The authority of the Western classical music composer over his music product is unambiguous.
(d) The power of the Western classical music composer extends to the expression of his music.
90. According to the author the inadequacy of teaching North Indian classical music through a codified, notation based
system is best illustrated by :
(a) a loss of the structural beauty of the ragas.
(b) a fusion of two opposing approaches creating mundance music.
(c) the conversion of free-flowing ragas into stilled set pieces.
(d) its failure to produce any noteworthy student or performer.
91. Which of the following statements best conveys the overall idea of the passage ?
(a) North Indian and Western classical music are structurally different.
(b) Western music is the intellectual property of the genius while the North Indian raga is the inheritance of the
culture.
great university while displaying a diploma and certificate. At first, we can imagine that the local people will be puzzled by
the bereavement counsellor's claim. However, the counsellor will tell a few of them that the new technique is merely to
assist the bereaved's community at the time of death. To some other prairie folk who are isolated or forgotten, the
counsellor will approach the Country Board and advocate the right to treatment for these unfortunate souls. This right
will be guaranteed by the Board's decision to reimburse those too poor to pay for counselling services. There will be
others, schooled to believe in the innovative new tools certified by universities and medical centres, who will seek out the
bereavement counsellor by force of habit. And one of these people will tell a bereaved neighbour who is unschooled that
unless his grief is processed by a counsellor, he will probably have major psychological problems in later life. Several
people will begin to use the bereavement counsellor because, since the Country Board now taxes them to insure access
to the technology, they will feel that to fail to be counselled is to waste their money, and to be denied a benefit, or even a
right. Finally, one day, the aged father of a Sauk woman will die. And the next door neighbour will not drop by because he
doesn't want to interrupt the bereavement counsellor. The woman's kin will stay home because they will have learned
that only the bereavement counsellor knows how to process grief the proper way. The local clergy will seek technical
assistance from the bereavement counsellor to learn the correct form of service to deal with guilt and grief. And the
grieving daughter will know that it is the bereavement counsellor who really cares for her because only the bereavement
counsellor comes when death visits this family on the Prairie of the Sauk.
It will be only one generation between the bereavement counsellor arrives and the community of mourners disappears.
The ounsellor's new tool will cut through the social fabric throwing aside kinship care neighborly obligations and
community ways of coming together and going on. Like John Deere's plow the tools of bereavement counselling will
create a desert where a community once flourished. And finally even the bereavement counsellor will see the
impossibility of restoring hope in clients once they are genuinely alone with nothing but a service for consolation. In the
inevitable failure of the service the bereavement counsellor will find the deserts even in herself.
92. Which one of the following best describes the approach of the author ?
(a) Comparing experiences with two innovations tried in order to illustrate the failure of both.
(b) Presenting community perspectives on two technologies which have had negative effects on people.
(c) Using the negative outcomes of one innovation to illustrate the likely outcomes of another innovation.
(d) Contrasting two contexts separated in time to illustrate how 'deserts' have arisen.
93. According to the passage bereavement handling traditionally involves :
(a) the community bereavement counsellor‘s working the bereaved to help her overcome grief.
(b) the neighbours and kin joining the bereaved and meeting grief together in mourning and prayer.
(c) using techniques developed systematically in formal institutions of learning, a trained counsellor helping the
bereaved cope with grief.
(d) the Sauk Indian Chief leading the community with rituals and rites to help lessen the grief of the bereaved.
94. Due to which of the following reasons, according to the author, will the bereavement counsellor find the deserts
even in herself ?
(a) Over a period of time working with Sauk Indians who have lost their kinship and relationships she becomes one
of them.
(b) She is working in an environment where the disappearance of community mourners makes her work place a
social desert.
(c) Her efforts at grief processing with the bereaved will fail as no amount of professional service can make up for
the loss due to the disappearance of community mourners.
(d) She has been working with people who have settled for a long time in the Great Desert.
95. According to the author, the bereavement counsellor is :
(a) a friend of the bereaved helping him or her handle grief.
(b) an advocate of the right treatment for the community.
(c) a kin of the bereaved helping him/her handle grief.
(d) a formally trained person helping the bereaved handle grief.
distorted the figures and presented them in a black and white journalistic manner. If he had used representational
images and colour, much of the emotional content would have been lost and the piece would not have caused
the demand for justice that it did. Secondly, I do not think that a piece must be logical and aesthetically pleasing to
be art. The message it conveys to its viewers is more important. It should reflect the ideals and issues of its time
and be true to itself, not just a flowery, glossy surface. For example, through his work, Mondrian was trying to
present a system of simplicity, logic, and rational order. As a result, his pieces did end up looking like a scrabble
board.
Miro created powerful surrealistic images from his dream and subconscious. These artists were trying to evoke a
response from society through an expressionistic manner. Finally, abstract artists and representational artists maintain
different ideas about reality.' To the representational artist, reality is what he sees with his eyes. This is the reality he
reproduced on canvas. To the abstract artist, reality is what he feel about what his eyes see. This is the reality he
interprets on canvas. This can be illustrated by Mondrian's Trees series. You can actually see the progression from the
early recognizable, though abstracted, Trees, to his final solution, the grid system.
A cycle of abstract and representational art began with the first scratching of prehistoric man. From the abstractions of
ancient Egypt to representational, classical Rome, returning to abstractionism in early Christian art and so on up to the
present day, the cycle has been going on. But this day and age may witness its death through the camera. With film there
is no need to produce finely detail, historical records manually; the camera does this for us more efficiently. May be ,
representational art would cease to exist. With abstractionism as the victor of the first battle may be a different kind of
cycle will be touched off. Possibly, sometime in the distant future, thousands of years from now, art itself will physically
non-existent. Some artists today believe that once they have planned and constructed a piece in their mind, there is no
sense in finishing it with their hands; it has already been done and can never be duplicated.
100. The author argues that many people look down upon abstract art because they feel that :
(a) modern abstract art does not portray what is ideal and real.
(b) abstract artists are unskilled in matters of technical drafting.
(c) abstractionist compose irrationally.
(d) All of the above.
101. The author believes that people feel comfortable with representational art because :
(a) they are not engulfed in brightly coloured canvases.
(b) they do not have to click their tongues and shake their heads in sympathy.
(c) they understand the art without putting too much strain on their minds.
(d) painting like Guernica do not have a point.
102. In the author's opinion, Picasso's Guernica created a strong demand for justice since :
(a) it was a protest against the German bombing Guernica.
(b) Picasso managed to express the emotional content well with his abstract depiction.
(c) it depicts the terror and suffering of the victims in a distorted manner.
(d) it was a mature work of Picasso, painted when the artist's drafting skills were excellent.
103. The author acknowledges that Mondrian's pieces may have ended up looking like a scrabble board because :
(a) many people declared the poor guy played too many scrabble games.
(b) Mondrian believed in the 'grid-works' approach to abstractionist painting.
(c) Mondrian was trying to convey the message of simplicity and rational order.
(d) Mondrian learned from his Tree series to evolve a grid system.
104. The main difference between the abstract artist and the representational artist in matter of the 'ideal' and the 'real',
according to the author is :
(a) how each chooses to deal with 'reality' on his or her canvas.
(b) the superiority of interpretation of reality over production of reality.
(c) the different values attached by each to being a historian.
(d) the varying levels of drafting skills and logical thinking abilities.
The Japanese early in Second World War used a modern form of the indirect attack, one that relied on stealth and
surprise for its effects. At Pearl Harbour, in the Philippines, and in South-East Asia, stealth and surprise were attained by
sailing under radio silence so that the navy's movements could not be tracked. Moving troops aboard ships into South-
East Asia made it appear that the Japanese army was also 'invisible'. Attacks against Hawaii and Singapore seemed, to the
American and British defenders, to come from nowhere. In Indonesia and the Philippines, the Japanese attack was even
faster than the German blitz against France in the West.
The greatest military surprises in American history have all been in Asia. Surely there is something going on here beyond
the purely technical difficulties of detecting enemy movements. Pearl Harbour, the Chinese intervention in Korea, and the
Tet offensive in Vietnam all came out of a tradition of surprise and stealth. Us technical intelligence the location of enemy
units and their movements—was greatly improved after each surprise, but with no noticeable improvement in the
American ability to foresee or prepare what would happen next. There is a cultural divide here, not just a technical one.
Even when it was possible to track an army with intelligence satellites, as when Iraq invaded Kuwait or when Syria and
Egypt attacked Israel, surprise was achieved. The United States was stunned by Iraq's attack on Kuwait even though it had
satellite pictures of Iraqi troops massing at the border.
The exception that proves the point that cultural differences obscure the West's understanding of Asian behaviour was
the Soviet Union's 1979 invasion of Afghanistan. This was fully anticipated and understood in advance. There was no
surprise because the United States understood Moscow's world view and thinking it could anticipate Soviet action almost
as well as the Soviets themselves, because the Soviet Union was really a Western country.
The difference between the Eastern and the Western way of war is striking. The West's great strategic writer,
Clausewitz, linked war to politics, as did Sun-tzu. Both were opponents of militarism, of turning war over to the generals.
But there, all similarity ends. Clausewitz wrote that the way to achieve a larger political purpose is through destruction of
the enemy's army. After observing Napoleon conquer Europe by smashing enemy armies to bits, Clausewitz made his
famous remark in On War (1932) that combat is the continuation of politics by violent means. Morale and unity are
important, but they should be harnessed for the ultimate battle. If the Eastern way of war is embodied by the stealthy
archer, the metaphorical Western counterpart is the swordsman charging forward, seeking a decisive showdown, eager
to administer the blow that will obliterate the enemy once and for all with this view, war proceeds along a fixed course
and occupies a finite extent of time, like a play in three acts with a beginning, a middle, and an end. The end, the final
scene, decides the issue for good.
When things don't work out quite this way, the Western military men feels tremendous frustration. Sun-tzu's great
disciples, Mao Zedong and Ho Chi Minh, are respected in Asia for their clever use of indirection and deception to achieve
and advantage over stronger adversaries. But in the West, their approach is seen as underhanded and devious. To the
American strategic mind, the Viet Cong guerilla did not fight fairly. They should have come out into the open and fought
like men, instead of hiding in the jungle and sneaking around like a cat in the night.
105. According to the author, the main reason of the US losing the Vietnam war was :
(a) the Vietnamese understood the local terrain better.
(b) the lack of support for the war from the American people.
(c) the failure of the US to mobilise its military strength.
(d) their inability to fight a war on terms other than those they understood well.
106. Which of the following statements does not describe the Asian' way of war ?
(a) Indirect attacks without frontal attacks.
(b) The swordsman charging forward to obliterate the enemy once and for all.
(c) Manipulation of an adversary without his knowledge.
(d) Subduing an enemy without fighting.
107. Which of the following is not one of Sun-tzu's ideas ?
(a) Actual combat is the principal means of subduing an adversary.
(b) War should be undertaken only after through preparation.
(c) War is linked to politics.
(d) War should not be left to the generals alone.
find anything but ourselves in our work. It is we who have invented the laws by which we judge it, it is our history, our
love, our gaiety that we recognise in it. Even if we should regard it without touching it any further, we never receive from
it that gaiety or love we put them into it. The results which we have obtained on canvas or paper never seem to us
objective. We are too familiar with the processes of which they are the effects. These processes remain a subjective
discovery: they are ourselves, our inspiration, our ruse, and when we seek to perceive our work, we create it again, we
repeat mentally the operations which produced it; each of its aspects appears as a result. Thus, in the perception, the
object is given as the essential thing and the subject as the inessential. The latter seeks essentially in the creation and
creation and obtains it, but then it is the object becomes the inessential.
The dialectic is nowhere more apparent than in the art of writing, for the literary object is a peculiar top which exists only
in movement. To make it come into view a concrete act called reading is necessary, and it last only as long as this act can
last. Beyond that, there are only black marks on paper. Now, the writer cannot read what he writes, whereas the
shoemaker can put on the shoes he has just made if they are to his size, and the architect can live in the house he has
built. In reading, one foresees: one waits. He foresees the end of the sentence, the following sentence, the next page. He
waits for them to confirm or disappoint his foresights. The reading is composed of a host of hypotheses, followed by
awakenings, of hopes and deceptions. Readers are always ahead of the sentence they are reading in a merely probable
future which partly collapses and partly comes together in proportion as they progress, which withdraws from one page
to the next and forms the moving horizon of the literary object. Without waiting, without a future, without ignorance,
there is no objectivity.
by the blind forces of capitalism as the moment for giving votes to everybody, so that the few wise women are hopelessly
overruled by the thousands whose political minds, as far as they can be said to have any political minds at all, have been
formed in the cinema, 1 realize that I had better stop writing plays for a while to discuss political and social realities in this
book with who are intelligent enough to listen to me.
135. What is most probably the author's opinion of the existing moral principles of the people ?
(a) He thinks they have to be revamped in the light of Darwinism
(b) He thinks that they are okay as they are and do not need any major change
(c) He thinks that it may be a good idea to have a modicum of the immortal Darwinism in us
(d) Cannot be determined from the passage
136. According to the author, the doctrines of Mr. Darwin :
(a) have changed our physical and moral principles
(b) have to be re-evaluated to correct the faults endemic in them
(c) do not have to change our moral ideas
(d) are actually new versions of old moral rules
137. What, according to the passage, is the Chief Good ?
(a) Being good and kind to all fellow human beings
(b) The greatest good of the greatest number
(c) The welfare of the community realised in its members
(d) Cannot be determined from the passage
138. It is implied in the passage that :
(a) A Hellenic ideal is not proper substitute of the Christian ideal
(b) What mankind needs is a Hellenic ideal rather than a Christian one
(c) Darwinism is more Christian than Hellenic
(d) Fanatics do not understand what Darwinism really is
NUMBER SYSTEM:
1. (b) Let the number of currency of 1 miso, 10 misos and 50 misos be x, y and z respectively.
Then, x + 10y + 50z =107
Now, possible values of z = 0, 1, 2
If z = 0, then x + 10y = 107. Now, number of pairs of values of x and y that satisfy the above equation are 11. These
pairs are: (7, 10), (17, 9), …. (107, 0). If z = 1, then x + 10y = 57. For this number of pairs of value of x and y is 6.
(7, 5), (17, 4), (27, 3), ….., (75, 0)
If z = 2, then x + 10y = 7. There is only one such pair of x and y, (7, 0) which satisfy the equation.
Therefore, total number of ways = 11 + 6 + 1 = 18
2. (c) Using options, we find that four consecutive odd numbers are 37, 39, 41 and 43. The sum of these 4 numbers is
160, divided by 10, we get 16 which is a perfect square.
∴ 41 is one of the odd numbers.
3. (a) a, a, + 2, a + 4 are prime numbers.
Put value of ―a‖ starting from 3
We will have 3, 5, 7 as the only set of prime numbers satisfying the given relationship.
4. (b) At last thief is left with one diamond. Hence, the number of diamonds before he gave some diamonds to the third
𝑥
watchman = x – 2 + 2 = 1
𝑥 −4
= 1 x = 6.
2
Hence, he had 6 diamonds before he gave 5 to the third watchman. Similarly, number of diamonds before giving to
second watchman
𝑥−4 𝑥−4
= 2 = 6 𝑥 = 16 and number of diamonds before giving to the first watchman = 2 = 16 𝑥 = 36.
Therefore, the thief stole 36 diamonds originally.
5. (c) Given, 100A + 10B + C = A! + B! + C!
We can take the help of options. Value of B will be less than 7 because 7! = 5040 which is a four digit number.
Hence, B can be either 4 or 2. Again value of A and C has to be any of 6! = 720 or 5! = 144 because any other
combination will not produce a three digit number. Hence, required number will be 145 as 1! + 4! + 5! = 1 + 24 +
120 = 145.
SIMPLIFICATION:
6. (d) Given expression
𝑥+2 𝑥+3 𝑥+4 𝑥+5 𝑥+5
= 𝑥+1 × 𝑥+2 × 𝑥+3 × 𝑥+4 = 𝑥+1
7. (d) r 4 + 2r 3 + 3r 2 + r
= 16 + 2 × (-8) + 3 × 4 - 2 = 10
𝑥 𝑎 𝑎 2− 𝑏2
𝑏
8. (d) 𝑦
=𝑏 −𝑎 = 𝑎𝑏
𝑎 𝑏 𝑎 2+ 𝑏2
x – y = 𝑏 + 𝑎 = 𝑎𝑏
𝑎 2+ 𝑏2 𝑎 2+ 𝑏2 𝑎𝑏𝑥
x = 𝑎𝑏 + 𝑦 = 𝑎𝑏 + 𝑎 2− 𝑏2
𝑎𝑏 𝑎 2+ 𝑏2
𝑥 1 − 𝑎 2 − 𝑏 2 = 𝑎𝑏
𝑎 2+ 𝑏2 (𝑎 2 − 𝑏 2 )
x= 𝑎𝑏
× 𝑎 2 − 𝑏 2 − 𝑎𝑏
PERCENTAGE:
16. (c) Let x g of sucrose be added with 1 g of saccharin to obtain a mixture 100 times as sweet as glucose.
Then, 1.00x + 1 × 675.00 = 0.74(x ) × 100
or x + 675 = 74(x )
⟹ x = 9.26g or 9 g (approximately).
0.74 + 1.00 2 + 1.7 3
17. (a) 6
= 1.3
18. (a) 78 = 50 + 10 + 10 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 7
69 = 50 + 10 + 5 + 2 + 2 = 5
1.01 = 50 + 25 + 10 + 10 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 7
Hence, 7 + 5 + 7 = 19 coins
y
19. (d) Given, (x + y) – x 2 + y 2 =
2
y 𝟐 𝟐
⇒ x + 2 = x2 + y2 𝐱 +𝐲
x
Now, using options we find that option (d) satisfies the
above relationship 3 + 2 = 9 + 16 ⇒ 5 = 5 y
1 x
20. (b) Mayank paid of the sum paid by other three. Let the other three paid Rs x jointly, then Mayank paid
2 2
x
So, x + 2 = 60000 ⟹ x = 40000. Hence, Mayank paid $20,000.
Similarly, Mirza paid $15000 and little paid $12000
Thus, Jaspal had to pay $13000.
22. (d) Ratio of the amount collected from the 1st class and the 2nd class passengers = 3:50.
AVERAGES:
26. (b) If each box is to be weighed (in pair) with every other box, then there would be ten such combinations of weight.
The best way to solve the question is through option.
Max. weight cannot be 60 kg because to make the total weight of two boxes 121 kg other should be 61 kg. Again if
the max. weight is 64 kg then to make a total weight of 121 kg other box weight should be 57 kg and to make up to a
total of 120 kg the next box weight should be 63 kg. Now if we add up weight of 63 kg and 64 kg boxes, the total
becomes 127 and this combination is not given in the question. However, if we consider the max. weight to be 62 kg,
then other boxes would be of 59 kg, 54 kg, 58 kg, 56 kg respectively. Hence, the maximum weight would be 62 kg.
n 𝑛
27. (a) Sum of odd integers in the set S = 2 × 3 + 𝑛 − 1 × 2 = 2𝑛 + 4 = 𝑛 × (𝑛 + 2)
2 2
Therefore, the average of the odd integers in the set S = n + 2
n n
Sum of even integers in the set S = 2 2 × 2 + n − 1 × 2 = 2 2n + 2 = n(n + 1)
Therefore, the average of the even integers in the set S = n + 1, Therefore, X – Y = (n + 2) – (n + 1) = 1
28. (d) Number of students in group D is maximum. But no information about the weight of the students is given, hence
no comparison of weight of group D can be made with that of other group.
29. (c) If one student from group A is shifted to group B, the number of students in the class still remains the same and it
does not affect the average weight of the class.
150 200
30. (c) Suppose the weight of each student be 10 kg, then average weight of class A, B, C, D would be 15 = 10, 20 =
250 400
10, 25 = 10 and 40 = 10.
Hence, (a) is true.
Total weight of A and C = (150 + 250) = 400 kg.
which is 2 × 200. Hence, (b) is true.
In option (a), we have seen that average weight of all the four groups is same, hence average weight of D cannot be
greater than the average weight of A. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
COMPOUND INTEREST:
10 4
36. (a) Rs. 10000 after 4 years become 10000 1 + 100
11 11 11 11
= 10000 × 10 × 10 × 10 × 10 = 14641
Rs. 10000 after 3 years become
11 11 11
= 10000 × 10 × 10 × 10 = 13310
Rs. 10000 after 2 years become
11 11
= 10000 × 10 × 10 = 12100
Rs. 10000 after 1 year become Rs. 11000
Total amount after 4 years = Rs. 51051
37. (b) Let P be the sum
21𝑃
Amount after one year = P + 5% of P = 20
Amount after two years
21𝑃 21𝑃 231𝑃
= 20 + 10% of 20 = 200
231𝑃 231𝑃 1386 𝑃
= 200
+ 20% of 200 = 1000
1386 P
1000 = 16632 P = 12000
38. (c) Suppose value of the asset two years ago = Rs. x
Value of the asset one year ago
9𝑥
= x – 10% of x =
10
9𝑥
x - = 12000 𝑥 = 120000
10
Value of the asset at present
9𝑥 9𝑥
= 10 − 10% 𝑜𝑓 10
81𝑥
= 100 ⟹ 81 × 1200 = Rs. 97200
39. (b) S. I. for one year = Rs. 1100
Amount at the end of 2nd year
1100 ×100
= 10×1 = Rs. 11000
40. (a) Let Amount of A = P
Amount of B = 1301 – P
4 7 4 9
P 1+ = 1301 − 𝑃 1+
100 100
26 26
P = 1301 − 𝑃 25
× 25
625P = 1301 × 676 – 676P P = 676
A gets Rs. 676 and B gets Rs. 625
1 1 1 1
48. (d) Working efficiency per day of A, B, C and D = 4 , 8 , 16 and 32
respectively. Using options, we find that B and C
3 9 32 16
does of work per day, A and D does work per day. Hence, A and D take days, B and C take days. Hence,
16 32 9 3
the first pair must comprise of A and D.
1
49. (b) If Shyama takes 1 min for every 3 steps, then he takes 3 min for every step.
25
∴ For every 25 steps, he will take = 3
min.
1
Similarly, Vyom takes min for every step, hence for 20 steps, he will take 10 min.
2
25
Difference between their time = 10 − 3 = 1.66 min
Escalator takes 5 steps in 1.66 min. Therefore, Speed of escalator is 1 step for 0.33 min = 3 steps/min. If escalator is
moving, then Shyama takes 25 steps and escalator also takes 25 steps.
Hence, total number of steps = 50.
50. (d) Let the speed of man in still water be x miles/h and speed of the current be y miles/h.
12 12
Then, x−y − x + y = 6 ….(i)
12 12
and − =1 ….(ii)
2x−y 2x+y
8
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), y=
3
QUADRATIC EQUATIONS:
61. (a) x2 – 2x - 3 = (x - 3) (x + 1)
(a) = x 2 - 7x + 6 = (x - 6) (x - 1)
(b) = x2 - 9 = (x + 3) (x - 3)
(c) = x2 – 4x + 3 = (x - 3) (x - 1)
(d) = x2 – 6x + 9 = (x - 3)2
62. (d) If 2 + i 3 is a root of the equation
𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞 = 0
Then its other root will be 2- 𝑖 3.
x 2 + px + q = x − 2 − i 3 (x − 2 + i 3)
2 2
= 𝑥−2 − 𝑖 3
= 𝑥 2 + 4 − 4𝑥 + 3 = 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 7
p = -4, q = 7
63. (a) Let the equation be 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0
Suppose its roots are α and β.
−𝑏
Then, α + β = 𝑎 …… (i)
𝑐
αβ = 𝑎 …… (ii)
2 2 −𝑏
also α + β = 𝑎
...… (iii)
2 2 𝑐
αβ = 𝑎
…… (iv)
From (ii) and (iv), we get
αβ = 1 or c = a
From (i), we get
b2 𝑏 𝑏2
α2 + β2 + 2αβ = 𝑎 2 − 𝑎 + 2 = 𝑎 2
b2 + ab – 2a2 = 0
−𝑎 ± 𝑎 2 + 8𝑎 2
Or b = 2
= 𝑎, −2𝑎.
64. (d) Let α, β be the roots of the equation
𝑥2 − 𝑥 + 𝑚 = 0
α + β = 1, αβ = m …… (i)
Let 2 α, γ be the roots of the equation
𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 3𝑚 = 0
2α + γ = 1, 2 αγ = 3m .….. (ii)
𝑚
(i) α + α = 1
α2 − α + m = 0 ..…. (iii)
3𝑚
(ii) 2 α + 2α = 1
4α2 − 2α + 3m = 0 .…. (iv)
Solving (iii) and (iv)
m = 2α
2 αγ = 3m γ = 3
2α + γ = 1 α = - 1
α + β = 1 β = 2,
α=-1
β = 2, γ = 3 m = -2.
65. (d) Sum of roots, p + q = α - 2
Product of roots, pq = - α - 1
Now p2 + q2 = (p + q)2 - 2pq
= (α - 2)2 + 2 (α + 1)
= α2 + 4 - 4α + 2α + 2
= (α - l)2 + 5
Hence, the minimum value of this will be 5.
PROBABILITY:
1
71. (b) Prob. that it rains on the 1st day = 2
1
Prob. that it rains on the 2nd day = 2
1
Prob. that it rains on the 3rd day = 2
1
Prob. that it rains on the 4th day = 2
1
Prob. that it rains on the 5th day = 2
1
Prob. that it rains on the any day in a 5 – day period = 32
Prob. that it rains on exactly 3 days in a 5 – day period
1 1 10 5
= 5C3 × = 5C2 × = =
32 32 32 16
72. (b) Required Probability
= 3C1 (0.4)(0.6)2 + 3C2 (0.4)2(0.6) + 3C3 (0.4)3
= 3(0.144) + 3(0.096) +1(0.064) = 0.784
73. (d) Probability of getting 2 tails + Prob. of getting 1 tail + Prob. of getting no tail
1 1 1 37
= 8C2 × + 8C1 × + 8C0 × =
256 256 256 256
74. (a) Since all possible hypothesis regarding the colour of the balls are equally likely, therefore there could be 3 white
balls, 2 white balls or 1 white ball, initially in the bag.
Required Probability
1 3 1 1 1 4+3+2+1 5
=4 1+4+2+4 =4 4
=8
60 40 40 60 4800 16
75. (c) Required probability = 100 × 99 + 100 × 99 = 100×99 = 33
GEOMETRY:
MENSURATION:
𝐴𝑃 2 + 𝐵𝑃 2 − 𝐴𝐵 2
cos APB = cos = 2𝐴𝑃 .𝐵𝑃
𝐴𝑂 2 + 𝑂𝑃 2 + 𝐵𝑂 2 + 𝑂𝑃 2 − 𝐴𝐵 2
= 2 𝐴𝑃.𝐵𝑃
𝑂𝑃 2 𝑂𝑃 𝑂𝑃
= 𝐴𝑃 .𝐵𝑃
= 𝐴𝑃 . 𝐵𝑃
1 1
= sin 450 × sin 450 = . Thus, θ = cos −1 = 600
2 2
94. (c) Let h be the height of the tower AB.
h
a = tan p
h
b
= tan 90 − 𝑝 = cot 𝑝
h h
a × b = tan p × cot p = 1
h2 = ab h = ab X Y
95. (c) Width of the road = 9 + 12 = 21 cm.
COORDINATE GEOMETRY:
8
96. (d) Let A (0, 3) , B(1, 3) and C(82, 30) be the three points.
2 8 2 1 10
AB = 1−0 + 3− = 1+ =
3 9 3
BC = (82 − 1)2 + 30 − 3 2
= 6561 + 729 = 7290 = 27 10
2 8 3
CA = 82 − 0 + 30 − 3
10 82 2 82
= 9
= 3
10
Hence AB + BC = CA ABC is a straight line.
97. (c) Subtract 3 from the y-coordinate.
98. (a) 2x + 3y = 5, x – y = 10 x = 7, y = - 3
99. (c) 10 − 2 2 + 𝑦 + 3 2 = 10
64 + 𝑦 2 + 9 + 6𝑦 − 100 = 0
𝑦 2 + 6𝑦 − 27 = 0 𝑦 = −9, 3
2𝑡−6 6−1 4
100. (b) 𝑡+2 = − 2−3 15𝑡 = 10 𝑡 = 3
FUNCTION:
SET THEORY:
106. (b)
107. (a)
15
Thus, percentage failed = 100 = 15%.
108. (c)
TRIGONOMETRIC RATIO:
4+2 3
= 1−3
= − 2+ 3
DIFFERENTIATION:
2
116. (b) Given that, y = sin x 2 , z = ey , t = z
dy dz 2
Now, = cos x 2 .2x, = ey .2y = 2yz
dx dy
dt 1 1
And dz = 2 z = 2t
dt dt dz dy
dx = dz . dy . dx
1 2xyz
= 2t .2yz .2x cos x 2 = t cos x 2
sec 𝑥+tan 𝑥 (sec 𝑥+tan 𝑥)2
117. (c) Let y = =
sec 𝑥−tan 𝑥 (sec 2 𝑥−tan 2 𝑥)
2
𝑦 = (sec 𝑥 + tan 𝑥)
On differentiating wrt x, we get
𝑑𝑦
= 2 (sec x + tan x)(sec x tan x + sec2x)
𝑑𝑥
= 2 sec 𝑥 (sec 𝑥 + tan 𝑥)2
118. (b) Given that
𝑓 𝑥 = log 𝑥
𝑓 (log 𝑥) = log log 𝑥
On differentiating wrt x, we get
1
𝑓 ′ (log 𝑥) = 𝑥 log 𝑥 = (𝑥 log 𝑥)−1
cos 𝑥
119. (c) We have, y = 3x – 2
On differentiating wrt y, we get
𝑑𝑥 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
1=3 + . ........ (i)
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥 1
𝑑𝑦
= sin 𝑥
3+
2
Again, Differentiating wrt y, we get
3𝑑 2 𝑥 cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 2 sin 𝑥 𝑑 2 𝑥
0= 𝑑𝑦 2 + 2 𝑑𝑦
+ 2
. 𝑑𝑦 2
sin 𝑥 𝑑 𝑥2 cos 𝑥 1
= 3 + 2 𝑑𝑦 2 + 2 . sin 𝑥 2 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝐸𝑞. 𝑖
3+
2
sin 𝑥 𝑑 2 𝑥 2 cos 𝑥
= 3+ 2 𝑑𝑦 2
+ (6+sin 𝑥)2
sin 𝑥 𝑑 2 𝑥 2 cos 𝑥 𝑑2𝑥 4 cos 𝑥
3+
2 𝑑𝑦 2
= −
(6+sin 𝑥)2
𝑑𝑦 2 = − (6+sin 𝑥)3
120. (b) ∵ y = a cos (log x) – b sin (log x)
𝑑𝑦 𝑎(− sin (log 𝑥)) 𝑏 cos (log 𝑥) (𝑎 sin (log 𝑥)+𝑏 cos (log 𝑥))
𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥
– 𝑥
=- 𝑥
𝑑𝑦
𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = −(𝑎 sin(log 𝑥) + 𝑏 cos(log 𝑥))
𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦 𝑎 cos (log 𝑥) 𝑏 sin (log 𝑥) 𝑦
𝑥 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑑𝑥 = − 𝑥
− 𝑥
= −𝑥
𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦
𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0
INTEGRATION:
dx
121. (b) Let I =
2𝑎𝑥 −𝑥 2
dx
=
− 𝑥 2 − 2𝑎𝑥 +𝑎 2 + 𝑎 2
dx
=
𝑎 2 − 𝑥−𝑎 2
−1 𝑥−𝑎
= sin + 𝐶
𝑎
2𝑥
122. (d) Let 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑒
𝑒 2𝑥
𝑓 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑒 2𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 2
𝑓 𝑥
𝑓 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 2
Thus, 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑒 2𝑥
123. (a) If 𝑓(𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑔 𝑥 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑓 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 , 𝑔 𝑥 = (𝑥)
x 2+ 1
x2+ 1
e 𝑥
124. (b) Let I = e 𝑥 dx − 𝑥2
dx
x2+ 1
1
= e 𝑥 1− 𝑑𝑥
𝑥2
𝑥 2+ 1 1
Put =𝑡 1− 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑑𝑡
𝑥 𝑥2
𝑥2+ 1
𝑡 𝑡
𝐼 = 𝑒 𝑑𝑡 = 𝑒 + 𝐶 = 𝑒 + 𝐶 𝑥
sin x
125. (b) We have, I = 2 2
𝑑𝑥
sin 𝑥−sin 𝑎
sin x
= 𝑑𝑥
cos 2 𝑎−cos 2 𝑥
Put cos x = t - sin x dx = dt
dt 𝑡
I=- 2 2
= cos−1 cos 𝑎 + 𝐶 I = cos −1 (cos 𝑥 sec 𝑎) + 𝐶
cos 𝑎−𝑡
APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVE:
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION:
dy
131. (c) Given, (1 – x2) dx − xy = 1
dy x 1
⇒ dx − 1−x 2 ∙ y = 1−𝑥 2
This is a linear equation, comparing with the equation
dy x 1
dx
+ Py = Q ⇒ P = − 1−x 2 and Q = 1−x 2
−x
p dx dx
IF = e =e 1−x 2
1 2
IF = e2log (1−x ) = 1 − x 2
132. (c) Equation of parabola is y2 = 4ax
On differentiating wrt x, we get 2 yy‘ = 4a
Again differentiating, we get
2yy‘‘ + 2(y‘)2 = 0 ⇒ yy‘‘ + (y‘)2 = 0
133. (c) Given equation,
dy
dx
= 2y ∙ 2−x ⇒ 2−y dy = 2−x dx
On integrating both sides, we get
2−y 2−𝑥
log 2
−1 = log 2
−1 +𝐶
1
−y −x
2 −2
− log 2 = log 2 + C1
−y −x
⇒ −2 = −2 + C1 log 2
1 1
2x
− 2y = C1 log 2 = 𝐶
dy sin x 1
134. (a) The given differential is dx + y cos x = cos x
sin x
dx
∴ IF = e cos x = elog sec x = sec x
d2 y
135. (a) The given equation can be rewritten as, = − sin 𝑥
dx2
On integrating the given equation,
d2 y
dx2
dx = − sin x dx + C
dy
= −(− cos x) + C = cos x + C
dx
Again integrating, we get
dy = cos x dx + C dx + D
y = sin x + Cx + D
VECTORS:
A D
B
3D:
DC‘s of line PQ is
x −x y −y z −z
l = 2PQ 1 , m = 2PQ 1 , n = 2PQ 1
6 2 3
∴ l = 7,m = 7,n = 7
143. (d) Equation of plane passing through (1, -3, 1) and the direction cosines of its normal (1, -3, 1) is
1(x – 1) -3(y + 3) +1(z – 1) = 0
⇒ x – 3y + z - 11 = 0
x y z
⇒ 11 − 11/3 + 11 = 0 (intercept form)
The above plane intercept the x-axis at a distance of 11.
144. (b) As we know, direction cosines of y-axis are (0, 1, 0). If the line is parallel to y-axis, then the direction cosines of
the line are (0, 1, 0). A (4, 7, -8)
145. (b) Let the coordinates of D be (x, y, z).
For x-coordinate,
2×x+1×4 2
⇒ 1 = 1+2
G (1, 1, 1)
1
⇒ x = −2
1
For y-coordinate,
2 ×y+1 × 7 C
1= ⇒ y = −2 B D (x, y, z)
1+2
And for z-coordinate,
2 ×z+1 ×(−8) 11
1= 1+2
⇒z= 2
1 11
∴ Coordinates of D are − 2 , −2, 2 .
LOGARITHMS:
log 𝑎𝑏
= 𝑥
146. (c) loga 𝑎𝑏 = 𝑥
log 𝑎
log 𝑎
+log 𝑏
log 𝑎
=x
log 𝑏 log 𝑏
log 𝑎+ 1 = 𝑥 log 𝑎 = 𝑥− 1
log 𝑎 1
log 𝑏= 𝑥−1
log 𝑎𝑏 log 𝑎
logb 𝑎𝑏 = =1+
log 𝑏 log 𝑏
1 𝑥
= 1 + 𝑥−1 = 𝑥−1
147. (b) Given expression
1
= 2 log10 52 − 2 log10 3 + log10 (2 3 3)
= log10 5 – 2 log103 + log102 + log1032
= log105 – 2 log103 + log102 + 2 log103
= log105 + log102 = log10 (5 2)
= log1010 = 1
148. (b) log7 log5 ( 𝑥+ 5 + 𝑥 )=0
log5 ( 𝑥+ 5 + 𝑥 ) = 70 = 1
x + 5 + x = 51 = 5 2 𝑥= 0 𝑥= 0
149. (c) log2 [log7 (2𝑥 − 𝑥+ 37)] = 1
Use logp 𝑥= 𝑦 𝑦𝑝= 𝑥
DATA INTERPRETATION:
151. (c) Let marks obtained by Dipan in English group paper II be x, then group average of Dipan‘s
Physics, Chemistry and Biology group = 98
Maths = 95
Social Science = 95.5
Vernacular group = 95
96+x
English group =
2
96+x
98+95+95.5+ + 95
Now, final score = 5
2
767+(96+x) 863+x
⇒ 96 = =
10 10
or
960 = 863 + x or x = 97
152. (a) Dipan wins the prize for the highest average in social science group, i.e., 96.
153. (d)
Paper selected for
Name of the students Revised group average Revised final score
improvement
Vernacular group I or II – 97+97+95.5+97+97
Ram 97 = 96.7
94 5
97+99+95.5+96.5+92.5
Agni Vernacular group I – 82 96.5 = 96.1
5
97+98+97.5+91.5+94
Pritam Social Science History-83 97.5 = 95.6
5
97+98+97.5+95+97
Ayesha Social science Geo.-93 97.5 = 96.9
5
Clearly, final score of Ayesha is maximum.
154. (a) The only boy getting 95 in at least one of the subjects of the group among all the groups is Dipan.
155. (a) Revised final scores of all the four students after revision in group scores of Social Science.
97+98+100+91.5+94 94+100+100+91+94.5
Pritam : 5
= 96.1 Joseph : 5
= 95.9
97+99+100+87.5+92.5 97+99+100+91.5+91.5
Agni : 5
= 95.2 Tirna : 5
= 95.8
Their score in decreasing order is : Pritam, Joseph, Tirna, Agni.
156. (c) 23% of 2000 = 460
157. (a) Contribution of foreign investment approval for the year 1996 in case of SAARC, ASEAN and EU
= (2 + 3 + 23)% = 28% ⟹ 28% of 8000 = 2240
158. (d) Only III is correct.
159. (c) From the bar chart, in 1996 foreign investment approved is 2000 approximately. At 20% growth, the foreign
investment inflows in 1997 = 2000 × 1.2 = 2400. Now, if the proportion of inflows for the year 1997 was as per
the pattern followed by the proportion of the foreign investment inflows for the year 1996, then the contribution of
NAFTA in the foreign investment inflows = 35%. ∴ The foreign investment inflows from NAFTA
Solution for Questions 21 – 24: On the basis of the information given in the question we can derive this table:
Solution for Questions 25 – 29: We are given many clues. On summarizing all these clues we get the following
information.
28. (d) Since F is an engineer, so, F-female – Teacher is the incorrect combination.
29. (a) A, E and G are the three teachers.
GROUPS &CONDITIONALITIES:
CONDITIONALITY’S:
30. (d) Option (a) is not valid as no lecturer from electrical department is there. Option (b) is not valid as no lecturer
from civil department is there. Option (c) is not valid as no lecturer from mechanical department is there. Option (d)
complies with all the conditions and hence is a valid option.
31. (d) According to the question, following three conditions must be complied with-
L cannot go with FG (Considering only female delegates) ... (1)
The delegation must have minimum three professors ...(2)
Representation from every department must also be there ...(3)
Now option (a) is not valid as it violates condition (1)
Option (b) violates condition (1), as all the members have to be females.
Option (c) also violates condition (1).
Option (d) complies with all the conditions.
32. (b) Conditions given in the question can be summarised as below :
Only civil and electrical departments must be used …(1)
Committee must have two professors and two lecturers ....(2)
There should be at least two female members in it ...(3)
Option (a) complies with all the conditions hence follows.
Option (b) is not valid as it has only one female member.
Option (c) and (d) comply with all the conditions and hence follow.
Therefore, option (b) is our answer.
33. (b) Conditions given in the question can be listed as below : only mechanical department people are used in forming
the committee - ... (1)
One must be a lady out of four members ... (2)
I must be one of the members ... (3)
I cannot work with L or N ... (4)
M cannot work with N or J …(5)
Option (a) is not valid as it violates condition (5)
Option (b) is valid as two ladies J and K are there.
Option (c) is not valid as it violates condition (2)
Option (d) is not valid as it violates condition (5)
Hence option (b) is our answer as it complies with all the conditions.
34. (d) From condition (I) A play, first game with D. Team B will play first game with E because its possible combination
of first game is ruled out with teams A, D, C, F as per conditions (I) and (III). And team C will play its first game with
team F. None of the options is the right combination of first game, hence options (d) is the right answer.
35. (c) Team B cannot play second game with E and C as per condition II and also its possibility with F is ruled out as per
condition I. However, its combination with either team A or D can be formed for second game. But A is playing with
F. therefore B and D play.
36. (d) Since each team must play against all other teams, therefore, each has to play 5 games.
37. (d) If D wins 5 games, it means all the teams have lost at least 1 game. The only alternative definitely stating this is
option (d).
38. (d) No information in the condition is given about the order of play for the last set of games.
39. (d) None of these
DIRECTIONS:
43. (c) The movements of Radha are as shown in figure. Clearly, Radha‘s distance from the starting point O = OD =
(OC – CD) = (AB – CD) = (14 – 4) m = 10 m.
C 4m D O
7m 7m
B 14 m A
44. (d) As shown in figure, the man initially faces in the direction OA. On moving 135o anti-clockwise, he faces in the
direction OB. On further moving 180o clockwise, he faces the direction OC, which is South-west.
45. (b) The villager moves from his village at O to his uncle‘s village at A and thereon to his father-in-law‘s village to B.
Clearly, OBA is right-angled at B. So, 2𝑂
𝐴 = 2𝑂
𝐵+ 2𝐴
𝐵, 2𝑂
𝐵= 2𝑂
𝐴− 2𝐴𝐵= (25 − 16 𝑘𝑚 = 9 km = 3 km. Thus, B is 3 km to
the east of his initial position O.
46. (b) Clearly, DC = AB + FE. So, F is in the line with A. Also AF = (BC – DE) = 5 m. So, the man is 5 metres away
from his initial position.
47. (b) As shown in figure, the river flows eastwards from A towards B, turns left and follows a semi-circular path to
reach C where it turns left and flows eastwards towards D.
VENN DIAGRAM:
∆EAB; ∆FBC; ∆GCD; ∆HAD; ∆ADC; ∆BCD; ∆ABC; ∆ABD; ∆MAB; ∆MBC; ∆MCD; ∆MAD; ∆EAI; ∆EBI; ∆BFJ;
∆FCJ; ∆GCK; ∆GDK; ∆HDL; ∆HAL; ∆AHM; ∆DHM; ∆BFM; ∆CFM; ∆ALM; ∆MLD; ∆BMJ; ∆MCJ;
So, there are 28 triangles.
49. (b) The figure may be labeled as shown.
SYLLOGISM:
53. (d)
None Follows.
I II
But Priya is nearer than Natasha to the right end of the row, so only arrangement II follows.
Number of girls to the left of Natasha in II = 31 – (1 + 16) = 14. Clearly, Natasha is 15th from the left end of the
row.
61. (c) Two = 29, 21
62. (d) 5
63. (a) SUM
64. (b) B I G FOR
I J K L M N O = Five
65. (b) 20th March.
66. (a) Either 18th or 19th of February.
67. (c) Digits are = 6, 1, 3 Therefore Perfect square = 361 = 192 = 9
DATA SUFFICIENCY:
68. (b) From statement I: Aditya is the son of Pinki.
Statement III: Pinki is daughter-in-law of Mayank.
Therefore, Aditya is grandson of Mayank.
Now T is female
So from I and II we can find the answer.
72. (c) using statement I -
If the time is 9 o‘clock now, then after 30 minute i.e. at 9:30 the angle between the minute hand and hour hand
cannot be 90o. So, now the time is not 9 o‘clock.
Using statement II -
If the time now is 9 o‘clock, then 15 min before the hour and minute hand of the clock can never coincide with each
other. Instead they will have an angle of 7.5o. So, the time now is not 9 o‘clock.
VISUAL REASONING:
78. (a) In one step, the symbols — square, circle and + sign, interchange positions, in an ACW direction and in the next
step, all the four arcs get laterally inverted.
79. (e) In each step, two 'L' shaped symbols are added to the figure. Also, each one of the odd numbered i.e. first, third,
fifth……..,elements rotates 90°ACW while each one of the even numbered i.e., second, fourth, sixth…….elements
rotates 90°CW in each step.
80. (e) In one step, the figure rotates 45°ACW and a half-leaf is added at the CW-end of the existing leaves. In the next
step, the figure rotates 90°ACW and a half-leaf is added at the CW-end of the existing leaves.
81. (d) In one step, one side is removed from each one of the two upper elements and in the next step, one side is
removed from each one of the two lower elements. The removal of sides in any element goes on in a CW direction.
82. (d) Similar figure repeats in every second step.
83. (c) The symbols which are adjacent to are , , , . Hence, the remaining symbol ? will be opposite to
.
84. (d) Colours adjacent to green colours are Black, Brown, Red and White.
85. (a) Black is opposite to Red. Hence, if Red is at the bottom then black is on the top.
86. (b) Combining B and F, C can clearly be ascertained.
87. (d) Letters M, Y and U are adjacent to letter W. So, they will not be opposite to letter W. Hence, letter S is opposite
to Letter W.
INPUT - OUTPUT:
Solution for Questions 88 - 92: After careful study of the given input and various steps of rearrangement, we may
conclude that in the first step one word which comes first in dictionary is placed at the first position from the left and
other terms are kept as they are. In the second step , the highest number is placed at the second place keeping rest of the
terms as they are and the same process is continued till the rearrangement ends.
88. (c) Step II : cut 97 38 end for 29 46 down
Step III : cut 97 down 38 end for 29 46
Step IV : cut 97 down 46 38 end for 29
Step V : cut 97 down 46 end 38 for 29
89. (b) Step I : car 17 vas tiger 92 87 like 52
Step II : car 92 17 vas tiger 87 like 52
Step III : car 92 like 17 vas tiger 87 52
Step IV : car 92 like 87 17 vas tiger 52
90. (a) Input : zeal for 49 31 high 22 track 12
Step I : for zeal 49 31 high 22 track 12
Step II : for 49 zeal 31 high 22 track 12
Step III : for 49 high zeal 31 22 track 12
91. (d) Input : 19 feet 34 28 dog bag 43
Step I : bag 19 feet 34 28 dog 43
Step II : bag 43 19 feet 34 28 dog
Step III : bag 43 dog 19 feet 34 28
92. (d) Cannot be determined.
Solution for Questions 93 – 97: All words become arranged in alphabetical order (dictionary format).
93. (e)Do not imitate others work.
This statement will be arranged in only one statement. So there is no 3rd step.
94. (a) Adequate safety arrangement are must for kids. So it is arranged in 5 step so second last step is 4th step which is
‗adequate are arrangement for kids safety must‘.
95. (b) ‗Marcus Brauchli gives inaccurate information‘. So total required steps are 4.
96. (d) In last step it should be arranged in alphabetical order means ‗cannot even free India Indian leaders most
visualize‘.
97. Cannot be determined.
113. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true because children need protection otherwise they might go on the path where their
parents went. Without parents, they are punished for the crime which their parents did. But (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
114. (c) (A) is true while (R) is false because it is the condition at plus zero level temperature.
115. (a) (A) is true but (R) is false and not related to (A).
116. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true because stenographer must know typing.
117. (d) (R) is true but (A) is false because marriage is a social obligation.
SYNONYMS:
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
ANTONYMS:
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
ANALOGIES:
21. (b) ‗Raucous‘ means loud, it is a synonym of Dulcet. Same as crazy / insane.
22. (b) Second word is a follow-up of first one. Reaction comes after action and Assail (attack) is followed by defence.
23. (a) Malapropism is using words in wrong places. Anachronism is placing something in wrong period of time.
24. (b) ‗Gourmet‘ is person who has a deep knowledge about ‗food‘. Likewise ‗Connoisseur‘ is a person who has a sense
of judgement about ‗Art‘.
25. (c) Both are pair of antonyms.
26. (a) The relationship between the two words here is that of intensity. A saunter is a leisurely stroll and a perambulate
is a leisurely walk. Thus, the correct choice is (a).
27. (d) Vandalism is the desecration of property just as slander is the desecration of a reputation.
28. (c) An artist creates a canvas just as a composer creates a symphony.
29. (b) Sword goes into scabbard and any beverage gets poured into a cup.
30. (c)
IDIOMS:
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)
SENTENCE COMPLETION:
41. (b) The use of the word ‗groveled‘ in the question suggests that the blanks should contain words with negative
connotation. Thus option (a), (c) and (d) get eliminated. Option (b) is the best.
42. (b) The second blank needs as adjective for ‗nerves‘ which are no longer working properly. So ‗damaged‘ is the best
option. Also note that nerves cannot be detrimental or complex or involuntary.
43. (c) In general, a loose fiscal policy would lead to an increase in demand. So ‗assess‘, ‗outstrip‘ and ‗restrain‘ do not fit
the first blank as well as the word ‗stimulate‘ does. So option (c) is the correct option.
44. (d) Going by option makes choice easier. Reports or books are not written for tools. ‗Practices‘ are not traded or dye
but they fade with time.
45. (c) A personality always ‗emerges‘ rather than arise or comes, and when two things are together, they combine.
46. (d) Option gives us clear choice. Being subordinate, does not given boast. Talking about ‗current‘ cannot be
ancestors. World do not move with cliques, which mean a gang of some people. So option is (d).
47. (d) ‗Touts‘ means middle men and it is clear that ‗poor‘ people are not once taken care of.
48. (c) Option (a) and (c) could be in choice, rest is rejected as does not go with words. Out of available tow options,
prices be spiraling rather being escalating.
49. (d) ‗Morals‘ go with manners and ‗theme‘ should well and suits rather than a story.
50. (b) Sounds are ‗audible‘ as symbols are ‗visual‘.
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT:
51. (d) ‗Focusing on forging‘ is a better option which mean to create lasting relationship.
52. (b) An important clause is always ‗noted‘ rather than being ‗noticed‘.
53. (b) A good novel can be a good combination of realistic details with romantic temperament.
54. (c) The sentence if followed by option (c) gives that exercising any other option will lead to failure.
55. (a) ―.... in her option, she thought‘ and ‗passed on‘ are redundancy errors, incorrect usage. So answer is (a).
SENTENCE CORRECTION:
56. (a) No error. Poor product quality is singular, s the singular noun ‗it‘ must also
57. (d) This corrects the double negative (hadn’t hardly) and also uses those with kinds correctly.
58. (d) This is an incomplete sentence since the verb is missing. Option (d) provides the verb (is recognised) and presents
the only complete sentence among the options.
59. (e) None of the sentence are correct.
60. (a) Choice (a) is correct because the subject of verb had must be who, not whom. Which is choice (e) should not be
used to refer to a person.
61. (a) Already is an adverb; all ready is an adjectival construction. Allready is a misspelling. Choices (d) and (e) do not
convey the thought of the sentence.
62. (c) This is also an error in agreement: Kind is singular and requires a singular modifier (this).
63. (d) This choice eliminates the error in parallel structure.
64. (b) The preposition with is needed to complete the phrase has gone hand in hand with. Choice (c) unnecessarily loses
the parallel structure.
65. (a) The correct answer is Option (a).
66. (b) Referred back is redundant. The prefix re means ―back.‖
67. (d) The either..... or structure should always be as close as possible to the things the they are attached to.
68. (a) The original sentence is correct and needs no change.
69. (d) Despite should be used as a preposition, not as a word joining clauses.
JUMBLED SENTENCES:
71. (c) ‗C‘ is the opening statement as it introduces the topic of the paragraph i.e., Bush‘s mission to restore power to
the presidency. Statement ‗E‘ presents the problem that he must tackle i.e., a legislature of second guessers and time
wasters. Hence, CE. Further ‗A‘ tells us what Bush did not tackle the problem. He bypassed the Congress (the U.S.
legislative houses). Thus CEA also DB tells us that he wasn‘t merely fighting the entire Congress. Hence CEADB.
72. (d) The link is EDB. This is present only in option (d) and hence that is the best choice.
73. (d) The para can begin with ‗A‘ or B. ‗A‘ is a better option being broader in concept with ‗B‘ using ‗areas‘. ‗C‘ and ‗D‘
successively supports ‗B‘ & ‗C‘. ‗D‘ falls in line with ‗one state‘ and ‗assessment‘.
74. (b) ‗B‘ clearly follows (1) with ‗oil and water‘. ‗A‘ continues to explain the concept. ‗C‘ has to be preceded by (6) by
‗rays and colour‘. ‗D‘ has to settle in between, after ‗A‘.
75. (b) ‗C‘ clearly follows (1) commenting on salvation. ‗B‘ tells about the fate of human society in the Christian tradition.
AD explains Buddhism as analytical dissolving individuals into component parts.
READING COMPREHENSION:
Passage I:
Passage II:
80. (b) It is clear from the last paragraph in the last four lines that philosophy teaches us how to live in uncertainty
without being paralyzed by hesitation.
81. (b) Paragraph 3 clearly states that philosophy appeals to human reasons whether they are of tradition or that of
revelation like science.
82. (d) It is evident from the passage that author's profession can not be of a theologian because according to him the
definiteness of theologies presented by theologian cause modern minds to view them with suspicion. Theologizes
create a kind of insolence towards the universe.
83. (d) Options (a), (b) and (c) are nowhere mentioned in the passage.
Passage III:
84. (c) The passage clearly states that printed sheets of notated music might travel from the composer, it still remains his
property; the notion of property remains at heart of western conception of genius' which derives from latin gignere
or 'to beget'.
85. (a) The passage reveals that teaching of north Indian classical music is achieved by oral means. Saussures conception
of language as a communication between addresser and addressee is new, exotic complexity and glamourous.
86. (d) The passage stipulates the fact that middle class play a significant role in continuing ancient tradition. Moreover,
tape-recorded serves as 'Handy technological slave' and preserves from oblivion, vanishing, elusive moment of oral
transmission. The author's part of education was conducted via ugly but beneficial rectangle of plastic.
87. (c) The passage states that oral transmission of North Indian classical music remains a testament to the fact that the
human brains can absorb, remember and reproduce structures of great complexity and sophistication without the
help of hieroglyph or written mark of a system of notation.
88. (a) The passage itself explains that conductor itself is a custodian and guardian of his property. The Raga is no one's
property. It is not easy to pin down its source or to know exactly where it's provenance or origin lies.
89. (d) ; (a) The passage says that printed sheet of music might travel from composer but remains his property.
(c) Can be taken from passage as connection between composer and piece of music is unambigous because
composer writes down his composition as poets write their poems.
90. (d) The passage 6 illustrates that style of teaching followed in north Indian classical music has produced no
noteworthy student; the creative musicians still emerge from guru-shishya relationships, their understanding of musk
developed through communication.
91. (b) The passage states that this idea is reflected way strongly in the passage. In fact the last four paragraphs are
devoted completely in this theme.
Passage IV:
Passage V:
100. (d) The passage reveals that people are not capable of technical drafting skills and hence such artists create an art
form that anyone is capable of and less time consuming. Secondly, they feel that art deals with beauty. Moreover,
modern abstractionists compose their pieces irrationally.
101. (c) The passage explains that people feel more comfortable with something that they can relate to and understand
immediately without too much thought.
102. (b) This can be understood from the paragraph that if Guernica was a representational painting it would not have
been able to express emotions that well.
103. (c) Passage 3 explains that Mondrian was trying to present a system of simplicity, logic, and rational order. As a result
his pieces didn't end up looking like a scrabble board.
Passage VI:
105. (d) The passage clarifies that American army was designed to fight on the plains of Europe and thus lost the war
because it was not used to fight in Jungles while Vietnam was on their own land which they understood very well.
106. (b) The passage reveals all the ways of war except the option (b)
107. (a) The passage clearly states that ever since Sun-tzu, the Chinese have been seen as masters of subtlety who take
measure action to manipulate an adversary without his knowledge.
108. (b) The second last paragraph illustrates that Clausewitz view the way to achieve a larger political purpose is through
destruction of enemy's army whereas Sun-tzu believes that war proceeds along a fixed course and occupy a finite
extent of time like a lay in three acts with beginning. A middle and an end.
109. (a) The passage clarifies that to the Americans strategic mind, the Viet Cong guerilla did not fight fairly. They should
have come out in open and fought like men, instead of hiding in the jungle and sneaking around like a cat in the night.
110. (c) The passage states that Chinese intervention in Korea and jet offensive in Vietnam came out of tradition of
surprise and stealth. The exception that proves the point was the Soviet Union‘s invasion of Afghanistan in 1979.
Passage VII:
Passage VIII:
116. (a) The passage itself describes that writer's attitude towards the government is critical.
117. (c) The passage defines that government viewed that businessmen were little more than crooks who were to be
prevented from entering important areas of economy. The rates of tax, licensing of laws, reservation of whole
swathes of Industry for public sector, granting monopoly to public sector governed this attitude.
118. (c) The passage explains that changes that took place were forced by situations and partly by foreign exchange
bankruptcy of 1991 and the recognition that government would no longer muster the funds to support the public
sector.
119. (b) The author says that in another 50 years the World would have moved even further ahead.
120. (b) The passage explains that infrastructure in India is far better than most of developing countries have.
121. (d) The passage tells India didn't suffer during II World War. It was because it had advantages like an English speaking
elite, quality scientific manpower (including a Nobel laureate and other's who could be ranked among the world's
best) and excellent business accumen.
122. (a) The passage reveals that topmost reason for India's poor performance was economic isolationism. The
government discouraged imports and encouraged self-sufficiency. The result was creation of inefficient industry that
to keep pace with global trends and proved to be uncompetitive.
123. (d) It can be understood from passage that government discouraged imports and encouraged self-sufficiency.
124. (b) The passage states that symbols to show how far India have fallen back can be inferred as Korean Cellos are sold
in India, while no one in South Korea is rushing to buy an Indian car.
125. (a) The passage tells that Indian politicians are unable to see beyond their noses. Hence a no-exit policy for labour is
equivalent to no-entry policy for business.
Passage IX:
126. (b) The passage explains that how capitalism has led to disintegration of labour.
127. (b) The passage describes that author feels that Adam Smith boasted about something that was undesirable.
128. (d) The passage describes that there was a time when pinmakers would buy the material; shape it; make the head
and the point; ornament it; and take it to the market; sell it. They knew each and every process from beginning to
end but they couldn't afford to sell anybody a piper of pins for the farthing.
129. (b) It can be understood that pins are so cheap that if a child steals it, it would not be considered as stealing.
130. (a) The author is clearly against machines taking the place of men.
131. (c) The passage explains that Adam smith was the supporter of mass production.
132. (b) The passage explains that as people become richer they lose out on individual abilities.
133. (c) He is attaching the fact by making fun of it.
134. (d) None of the given statements continue with what the author has said in the last paragraph.
Passage X:
135. (b) The passage says that moral principles are said to share general transformation. As to the principles of ethics
there is no sign of revolution.
136. (c) The passage says that Darwin may need not change our ultimate moral ideas.
137. (c) The passage reveals that Chief Good refers to the welfare of community realised in its members.
138. (b) The passage states that Darwinism may force in some points a correction of our moral views and a return to
Non-Christian and perhaps a Hellenic Ideal. Moreover, passage says that Christian ideals are false.