Tong Hop de Thi Thu Tieng Anh Cac Truong Chuyen 2017 PDF

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SỞ GD-ĐT THỪA THIÊN HUẾ ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN I
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Mã đề thi 405
(166572) Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A trend that has emerged recently is the sharing of childcare (1) __________ between husband and wife. Young
couples will try to arrange their work schedules so that they work opposite hours or shifts in order that one
parent is always home with the children. Since childcare is expensive, this saves money for the young couple
trying to establish themselves and provide a secure environment for the family. Husband and wife may also
share household chores. Some fathers are just as capable as mothers at cooking dinner, changing and bathing
the baby, and doing the laundry.
In some cases, the woman’s salary is for family (2) __________ and the father becomes the “househusband."
These cases are still fairly rare. One positive trend, however, is that fathers seem to be spending more time with
their children. In a recent survey, 41% of the children sampled said they spend equal time with their mothers
and fathers. “This is one of our most significant cultural changes,” says Dr. Leon Hoffman, who co-directs the
Parent Child Center at the New York Psychoanalytic Society. In practice, for over 30 years, Hoffman has found
"a very dramatic difference in the involvement of the father in everything from care-taking to general decision
(3) __________ around kids' lives.”
Another factor has recently been added to the childcare formula. The number of people who work from home
nearly full-time rose 23% from the last decade. The (4) _________ of technology - computers, faxes,
teleconferencing - has made it easier for at-home workers to be constantly in touch. Will this new flexibility in
the workforce bring a positive change for the (5) __________ of children? Only time will tell.
Question 1: A. abilities B. possibilities C. techniques D. responsibilities
Question 2: A. payment B. expenses C. fares D. fees
Question 3: A. making B. creating C. holding D. giving
Question 4: A. accessible B. accessibly C. access D. accessibility
Question 5: A. well-being B. security C. comfort D. interests
(166578) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6: My first impression of her was her impassive face.

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A. respectful B. emotional C. solid D. fractious
Question 7: We left New York when I was six, so my recollections of it are rather faint.
A. clear B. unintelligible C. explicable D. ambiguous
(166581) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 8: Much to my astonishment, I found his lecture on wildlife conservation extremely interesting.
A. Contrary to my expectations, his lecture on wildlife conservation was the most fascinating of all.
B. I was fascinated by what he said in his lecture on wildlife conservation though I hadn’t expected to be.
C. I hadn’t expected him to lecture on wildlife conservation, but he spoke well.
D. It was at his lecture on wildlife conservation that I realized I needed to study it.
Question 9: Although he was able to do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
A. The position wasn’t given to him in spite of his ability to do the job.
B. He was given neither the job nor the position.
C. Because he couldn’t do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
D. He got the position despite being unable to do the job.
Question 10: It is certain that the new cuts will worry the staff.
A. The new cuts certainly worry the staff.
B. The new cuts will be certainly worry the staff.
C. The new cuts are bound to worry the staff.
D. The new cuts will be bound to worry the staff.
(166585) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the preposition of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 11: A. involve B. control C. tonight D. purpose
Question 12: A. hurricane B. photograph C. recommend D. separate
(166588) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 13: Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate because the earth’s rotation
changes slightly over years.
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Question 14: On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-topped mountains more than a mile beneath
sea level.
Question 15: My sister told me that she had met my teacher at the supermarket yesterday.
(166592) Read the following passage and mark the letters A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance
that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the
most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At
first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying
interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to
develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different
ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains
mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs,
seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these
foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to
be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate,
or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine,
pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read
the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins,
particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives,
especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers,
peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your
Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
Question 16: The topic of this passage is _______________.

A. infants and allergies B. food and nutrition C. reactions to foods D. a good diet
Question 17: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ___________.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 18: The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. prescriptions B. diet C. diagnosis D. indications
Question 19: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
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D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.

Question 20: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to
do with the infant's ___________.
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. inability to swallow solid foods D. underdeveloped intestinal tract
Question 21: The word "these" refers to ___________.
A. food additives B. food colorings C. innutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates
Question 22: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D. Eating more ripe bananas
Question 23: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT ___________.
A. available in book form
B. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
(166601) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money.
A. teasing B. threatening C. praising D. elevating
Question 25: The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.
A. confided himself B. surrendered
C. accommodated himself D. went up
(166604) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26: The demand was so great. They had to reprint the book immediately.
A. They demanded that the book be reprinted immediately.
B. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.
C. The book would be reprinted immediately since the demand was great.
D. They demanded to reprint the book immediately.

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Question 27: He did not work hard. He failed the exam.
A. Even though he failed the exam, he didn’t work hard.
B. Unless he had worked hard, he would have failed the exam.
C. If he had worked hard, he would have passed the exam.
D. However hard he worked, he failed the exam.
(166607) Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
Smart cards and mobile phones are becoming an increasingly popular way to make all sorts of payments. Even
now, in Japan thousands of transactions, from paying rail tickets to picking up the groceries, take place every
day with customers passing their handsets across a small flat-screen device. And predictions in the world of
finance reckon that payments using mobile phones will have risen to more than $50 billion in the very near
future.
What's the appeal of e-cash? Compared to cheques or credit cards, it offers the speed of cash, but more so. It
takes just one tenth of a second to complete most transactions and as no change is required, errors in counting
are eliminated. Fraud and theft are also reduced and for the retailer, it reduces the cost of handling money.
Sony's vision of having a chip embedded in computers. TVs and games consoles means that films, music and
games can be paid for easily and without having to input credit card details.
And what about the future of the banks? Within their grip on the market, banks and credit-card firms want to be
in a position to collect most of the fees from the users of mobile and contactless-payment systems. But the new
system could prove to be a "disruptive technology" as far as the banks are concerned. If payments for a few
coffees, a train ticket and a newspaper are made every day by a commuter with a mobile, this will not appear on
their monthly credit card statements but on their mobile phone statements. And having spent fortunes on
branding, credit-card companies and banks do not want to see other payment systems gaining popularity. It's too
early to say whether banks will miss out and if so, by how much. However, quite a few American bankers are
optimistic They feel there is reason to he suspicious of those who predict that high-street banks may be a thing
of the past. They point out that Internet banking did not result in the closure of their high-street branches as was
predicted. On the contrary, more Americans than ever are using local branches. So, whether we'll become a
totally cash-free society remains open to contention.
Question 28: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. The absence of traditional payment methods
B. Predictions of future payment methods
C. Japan's advanced forms of payment
D. The increasing popularity of new payment methods
Question 29: Why does the author mention "a small flat-screen device" in the first paragraph?
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A. to exemplify the e-cash system
B. to criticize the e-cash system
C. to praise the e-cash system
D. to inform the e-cash system
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT true about the strong point of e-cash?
A. faster speed B. no fraud C. fewer mistakes D. reduced cost
Question 31: The word "embedded” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. manufactured B. isolated C. integrated D generated
Question 32: The author mentions the case of commuters in the third paragraph to illustrate __________.
A. the modern technology of the e-cash system
B. a possible drawback of the system
C. the banks' cooperation with credit-card companies
D. the transferability of the system
Question 33: What does the author think may happen in the future?
A. Daily expenses on drinks and tickets will appear on phone statements.
B. Banks will collect their fees through credit-card companies.
C. Americans will no longer go to their local bank branches.
D. Credit-card companies and banks will want to promote cash.
Question 34: How does the writer seem to feel about the future of banks?
A. neutral B. uncertain C. optimistic D. pessimistic
(166615) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 35: “Can I use your computer?” – “_______.”
A. Well done. B. No, thanks. C. Of course D. Yes, I can
Question 36: “I’m sorry I’m late.” – “________.”
A. Never mind. Go ahead B. No worries. Come in, please.
C. Good to hear that. D. Don’t say so again.
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(166618) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
different from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 37: A. shrine B. potential C. sure D. question
Question 38: A. compete B. intend C. medal D. defend
(166621) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 39: Bob has a bad lung cancer and his doctor advised him to ______ smoking.
A. turn up B. give up C. take up D. put up
Question 40: They ______ have seen the play last night as they went to a football match instead.
A. could B. must C. can’t D. might
Question 41: We ______ for this opportunity for more than three years.
A. were waiting B. have been waiting C. waited D. are waiting
Question 42: I’m sorry, but I’ve got ______ much work to do to come to the beach today.
A. too B. such C. enough D. so
Question 43: During the week of the national tourism festival, we had visitors ______ from all over the country.
A. come B. came C. coming D. to have come
Question 44: Going on this diet has really ______ me good. I’ve lost weight and I feel fantastic!
A. done B. taken C. made D. had
Question 45: I have lived near the airport for so long now that I’ve grown ______ to the noise of the airplanes.
A. accustomed B. unconscious C. familiar D. aware
Question 46: “Your kitchen is fantastic! Did you do it all by yourself?” – “No, I ______ by a professional.”
A. had it designed B. have it to be designed C. had designed it D. designed it
Question 47: I think there’s a picture of the hotel ______the first page.
A. in B. at C. on D. to
Question 48: All applicants must ______ their university transcript and two reference letters to be considered
for this job.
A. permit B. omit C. submit D. admit
Question 49: We will leave for the airport ______ he is ready.
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A. while B. during C. until D. as soon as
Question 50: It is time every student ______ harder for the coming exam.
A. works B. should work C. work D. worked
---THE END---
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HƯỚNG DẪN GIẢI CHI TIẾT
1 D 11 D 21 D 31 C 41 B
2 B 12 C 22 A 32 B 42 A
3 A 13 A 23 B 33 A 43 C
4 D 14 B 24 C 34 B 44 A
5 A 15 D 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 C 26 B 36 B 46 A
7 A 17 C 27 C 37 D 47 D
8 B 18 D 28 D 38 A 48 C
9 A 19 B 29 A 39 B 49 D
10 C 20 D 30 B 40 C 50 D
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SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC KẠN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mã đề thi 132
Họ, tên thí sinh:..................................................................... SBD: .............................
(ID: 162786 )Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Câu 1: A. employer B. reunite C. understand D. recommend
Câu 2: A. administrative B. productivity C. electricity D. opportunity
(ID: 162789 )Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Câu 3:A. explosion B. conversion C. precision D. expansion
Câu 4: .A. malaria B. eradicate C. character D. spectacular
(ID: 162687 )Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that need correction in
each of the following questions
Câu 5: Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind ,but he refuses to
A B C
listen .
D
Câu 6: Some people believe that human being will never use away all the natural
A B C
resources on earth.
D
Câu 7: Because vitamins are contained in a wide variety of foods, people seldom lack
A B C
of most of them.
D
(ID: 162750 )Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
Câu 8: Don’t forget to ________ the alarm clock for 5 o’clock tomorrow morning.
A. ring B. put C. wind D. set
Câu 9: Books are no longer the only _________ of stories and information.
A. basis B. site C. source D. style
Câu 10: ________ for our health.
A. One’s diet is helpful in extra fiber. B. Helpful one’s diet is extra fiber
C. Extra fiber is one’s helpful diet D. Extra fiber in one’s diet is helpful
Câu 11: The growth of two-income families in the United States ______ of people moving to a
new social class.
A. has resulted in millions B. resulting in millions
C. results of millions D. millions of results
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Câu 12: Black, red, and even bright pink diamonds ______ .
A. occasionally found B. have occasionally been found
C. have occasionally found D. occasionally to find
Câu 13: An adviser to both Franklin Delano Roosevelt and Harry Truman, ______ of Bethune-
Cook man College.
A. the founder was Dr, Mary Mcleod Bethune
B. did the founder Dr, Mary Mcleod Bethune
C. Dr. Mary Mcleod Bethune, who was the founder
D. Dr, Mary Mcleod Bethune was the founder
Câu 14: Before _______ , they used horse drawn wooden carts
A. farmers had tractors B. farmers have had tractors
C. tractors owned by farmers D. having tractors farmers
Câu 15: The door is unlocked; _______ here last night.
A. Something strange was happened
B. Something strange should have happened
C. Something strange had happened
D. Something strange could have happened
Câu 16: Although he supports the Council, he does not take an active _______ in politics.
A. affair B. play C. part D. charge
Câu 17: Why don’t you wear that blue dress of yours? It _______ you.
A. agrees B. goes with C. suits D. watches
Câu 18: Although he claims to have left his job voluntarily, he was actually______ for
misconduct.
A. dismissed B. dispelled C. resigned D. released
Câu 19: Because aluminum is lighter and cheaper_______, it is frequently used for high tension
power transmission.
A. as copper B. more copper C. for copper D. than copper
(ID: 162691 )Circle the letter A, ,B, C or D to indicate the words CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions
Câu 20. In the twentieth century, drug markedly improved health throughout the world.
A. supposedly B. noticeably C. recently D. consistently
Câu 21. The collapse of the stock market in 1929 signaled the beginning of the Depression.
A. debt B. rebirth C. rise D. failure
(ID: 162694 )Circle the letter A, ,B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges
Câu 22: David; “ Thank you for the delicious meal” - Joan: “ _______ ”
A. I’m glad you enjoyed it B. No problem
C. Never wonder D. all right
Câu 23: Susan: "Sorry, Brian is not here" Peter: " _____________"
A. Can I speak to Brian, please? B. Would you like to leave a message?
C. Can I leave a message, then? D. Can I take a message then?
(ID: 162697 )Circle the letter A, ,B, C or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions
Câu 24. I didn't think his comments were very inappropriate at the time.
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A. correct B. exact C. suitable D. right

Câu 25. For example, you can play a ballad, then move on to something more energetic such as
rock 'n' roll.
A. languid B. soft C. ill D. slow
(ID: 162700 )Circle the letter A, ,B, C or D to indicate the sentences that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions
Câu 26: Mike graduated with a good degree. However, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.
A. Mike joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree.
B. If Mike graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.
C. Although Mike graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.
D. That Mike graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.
Câu 27: Put your coat on. You will get cold.
A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on.
B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.
C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.
D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold
(ID: 162703 )Circle the letter A, ,B, C or D to indicate the sentences that is closest in meaning to
each of sentences in the following questions
Câu 28: It seems that no-one predicted the correct result.
A. No-one seems to has predicted the correct result.
B. No-one seem to have predicted the correct result.
C. No-one seems have predicted the correct result.
D. No-one seems to have predicted the correct result.
Câu 29: We can’t deny that all of us made certain mistakes early on.
A. It can be denied that not all of us made mistakes.
B. Everyone of us denies that we made certain mistakes early on.
C. It is true that nobody could avoid making mistakes.
D. We admit that we could avoid making certain mistakes when young.
Câu 30: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
B. The agreement which ended six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.
C. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.
D. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.
(ID: 162763 )Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Broad-tailed hummingbirds often nest in quaking, slender deciduous trees with smooth,
gray-green bark found in the Colorado Rockies of the Western United States. After flying some
2,000 kilometres north from where they have wintered in Mexico, the hummingbirds need six
weeks to build a nest, incubate their eggs, and raise the chicks. A second nest is feasible only if the
first fails early in the season. Quality, not quantity, is what counts in hummingbird reproduction.
A nest on the lowest intact branch of an aspen will give a hummingbird a good view, a clear
flight patch, and protection for her young. Male hummingbirds claim feeding territories in open
meadows where, from late May through June, they mate with females coming to feed but take no
part in nesting. Thus when the hen is away to feed, the nest is unguarded. While the smooth bark of
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the aspen trunk generally offers a poor grip for the claws of a hungry squirrel or weasel, aerial
attacks, from a hawk, owl, or gray jay, are more likely.
The choice of where to build a nest is based not only on the branch itself but also on what
hangs over it. A crooked deformity in the nest branch, a second, unusually close branch overhead,
or proximity to part of a trunk bowed by a past ice storm are features that provide shelter and make
for an attractive nest site. Scarcely larger than a halved golf ball, the nest is painstaking constructed
of spider webs and plant down, decorated and camouflaged outside with paper-like bits of aspen
bark held together with more strands of spider silk. By early June it will hold two pea-sized eggs,
which each weigh one-seventh of the mother’s weight, and in sixteen to nineteen days, two chicks.
Câu 31: What aspect of broad-tailed hummingbird behaviour does the passage mainly discu ss?
A. Mating habits
B. Selection of nest sites
C. Caring for the young
D. Migration routes
Câu 32: According to the passage, in what circumstances do hummingbirds build a second nest?
A. If there is an unusually large supply of food
B. If the nests are destroyed early in the season.
C. If the winner is unusually warm
D. If the chicks in the first nest hatch early
Câu 33: The word “counts” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. numbers B. estimates C. weighs D. matters
Câu 34: According to the passage, which of the following is true of the male broad -tailed
hummingbird?
A. It protects the nest while the female searches for food
B. It is not involved in caring for the chicks
C. It shares nesting duties equally with the female.
D. It finds food for the female and the chicks
Câu 35: It can be inferred from the passage that the broad -tailed hummingbirds’ eggs and chicks
are most vulnerable to attack by ____.
A. humans B. insects C. birds D. squirrels
Câu 36: Which of the following would be a good location for a broad-tailed hummingbird to build
its nest?
A. A thick branch B. the longest branch of a tree
C. A branch near the top of a tree D. A protected branch
Câu 37: The word “Scarcely” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ____ .
A. obviously B. barely C. consistently D. needlessly
Câu 38: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a nest -building material of
the broad- tailed hummingbird?
A. Plant down B. Paper C. Spider webs D. Tree bark
Câu 39: The author compares the size of the broad-tailed hummingbird’s nest to ____.
A. a golf ball B. a spider web C. an egg D. a pea
Câu 40: According to the passage, how long does it take for broad -tailed hummingbird egg to
hatch?
A. More than six weeks B. Two to three weeks
C. One month D. Less than a week
(ID: 162774 )Circle the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that
needs correction.
4
THE TRUTH BEHIND THE DA VINCI CODE

In 2006, Sony Pictures released a remarkable and intriguing film entitled The Da
Vinci Code, based on the novel of the same name by Dan Brown. In the film, religious leaders and
professors are in a race to discover the secrets of an organization called the P riory of Sion. The
biggest secret kept by this organization is supposedly that Jesus Christ and a woman whose name is
recorded in the Bible as Mary Magdalene had a child, and that their family 55 line continues to this
day. In a TV interview, Dan Brown stated that, in his book, "all of the art, architecture, secret
rituals, secret societies, all of that is historical fact." However, while the Priory of Sion did exist, it's
nothing like the one which is so central to The Da Vinci Code.
The Priory of Sion was started in France in 1956 by a skillful liar named Pierre
Plantard. Priory means religious house, and Sion was a hill in the town of Annemasse, where the
Priory was started by Plantard and four of 60 his friends. At first, their group fo ught for housing
rights for local people, and their offices were at Plantard's apartment. The organization promised to
benefit the weak and the oppressed, and to do good in general. However, there was a darker side to
the Plantard's Priory.
Plantard actually hoped to use the Priory of Sion to claim to be a descendant of French
kings. Between the years 1961 and 1984, Plantard created the enigma of a much more powerful
Priory than his insignificant organization. First, in order to give the impression that the Priory
began in 1099, Plantard and his friend Philippe de Cherisey created documents, called the Secret
Dossiers of Henri Lobineau, and illegally put them into the National Library of France. Next,
Plantard got author Gerard de Sede to write a book in 1967 using the false documents; the book
became very popular in France. This phenomenon is similar to the popularity of The Da Vinci
Code, where a book based on false information or speculation becomes popular. 70
Matters were complicated when in 1969, an English actor and science-fiction writer
named Henry Lincoln read Gerard de Sede's book. Lincoln did not know of Plantard and his
schemes, and may have been a victim of the hoax. He seemed to believe what he read, and jumped
to even more wild conclusions, which he published in his 1982 book, The Holy Blood and the Holy
Grail. He and his co-authors declared as fact that the Priory started in 1099; that its leaders included
Leonardo Da Vinci, Isaac Newton, and Victor Hugo; that the Priory protects the descendants of
Jesus 75 Christ and Mary Magdalene; and that these descendants ruled France from A.D. 447 to
751. All this was based on reading a novel based on the false facts from documents which were a
hoax. Most modern historians do not consider Lincoln's book to be a serious work of history.
How can we be so sure that Plantard created this hoax? Well, the best witness to a crime
is the criminal himself. Over 100 hundred letters between Plantard, de Cherisey, and de Sede,
discovered by researcher Jean-Luc 80 Chaumeil, show clearly that they were trying to pull an
elaborate hoax. In fact, in the 1990s, Plantard got in trouble with the law, and his house was
searched. Within it were found many false documents, most harmless, some of which said he was
the true king of France. As a final embarrassment, Plantard had to swear in a court of law that the
enigma of the Priory of Sion was the work of his imagination.
Câu 41: What does the author hope to show in this passage?
A. Dan Brown knew his book wasn't based on fact.
B. The Da Vinci Code is based on fact.
C. Sony's movie The Da Vinci Code is better than Dan Brown's book.
D. The Priory of Sion was a hoax.
Câu 42: What is true about the real Priory of Sion?
A. It was started in 1956 by Pierre Plantard
B. It is connected to the leaders of France.
C. It has a secret about Jesus Christ and Mary Magdalene.
5
D. Its leader used to be Leonardo Da Vinci.

Câu 43: Why did Plantard put documents in the National Library of France?
A. He wanted Henry Lincoln to find them there.
B. He believed that he knew the truth and wanted to tell everyone.
C. He wanted people to believe that the Priory began in 1099.
D. So that Gerard de Sede's book would sell more copies.
Câu 44: According to the passage, who did NOT know about the creation of the Priory of Sion
hoax?
A. Gerard de Sede
B. Philippe de Cherisey
C. Pierre Plantard
D. Henry Lincoln
Câu 45: Which claim was NOT made in The Holy Blood and the Holy Grail?
A. The Priory of Sion began in 1099.
B. The Priory of Sion protects the descendants of Jesus Christ.
C. Pierre Plantard created the Secret Dossiers of Henri Lobineau.
D. Isaac Newton was a leader of the Priory of Sion.
VIII (ID: 162780 )Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks .
When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently come across words you do not
fully understand. Sometimes you (46) ______ the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes you
guess. The strategy you adopt depends very much upon the degree of accuracy you require and the
time at your disposal.
If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is (47) ______
remembering that every dictionary has its limitations. Each definition is only an approximation and
one builds up an accurate picture of the meaning of a word only after meeting it in a (48) ______ of
contexts. It is also important to recognize the special dangers of dictionaries that translate from
English into your native language and vice versa. If you must use a dictionary, it is usually far safer
to consult an English-English dictionary.
In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (49) ______ you are allowed to use one,
it is very time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are, therefore
, forced to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words.
When you come across unknown words in an exam text, it is very easy to panic. However, if yo u
develop efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will overcome a number of possible
problems and help yourself to understand far more of the text than you at first thought likely.
Two strategies which may help you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual clues,
both within the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (50) ______ from the formation of
the word.
Câu 46: A. control B. inspect C. check D. examine
Câu 47: A. valuable B. worth C. essential D. vital
Câu 48: A. variation B. multiple C. diversity D. variety
Câu 49: A. Even if B. Provided C. Although D. In case
Câu 50: A. originated B. extracted C. derived D. coming
----------- THE END----------
6
1A 6B 11A 16C 21D 26C 31B 36D 41D 46C

2A 7D 12B 17C 22A 27B 32B 37B 42A 47B
3D 8D 13D 18A 23C 28D 33D 38B 43C 48D
4A 9C 14A 19D 24C 29C 34B 39A 44D 49A
5B 10D 15D 20B 25A 30A 35C 40B 45C 50C
7
Sở GD & ĐT Bắc Ninh ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

Trường THPT Chuyên Bắc Ninh Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề thi gồm 50 câu
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. hotel B. post C. local D. prominent
2. A. spear B. wear C. bear D. pear
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. disastrous B. humorous C. unanimous D. ambiguous
4. A. redundant B. descendant C. relevant D. consultant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
5. In purchasing(A) a winter coat(B), it is very important for trying(C) it on with heavy(D) clothing
underneath.
6. Excavations in several mounds and villages on the east bank(A)of the Euphrates River have
revealed(B) the city of Nebuchadnezzar, an ancient community that had been laying(C) under later(D)
reconstructions of the city of Babylon.
7. Gettysburg has been preserve(A) as a national historic monument because(B) it was the site of a major
Civil War battle in which many lives(C) were lost(D).
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
8. There ____ a number of reasons for the falloff the Roman Empire.
A. are said to have been B. said to be
C. are said being D. was said being
9. I suggest the room ____ before Christmas.
A. be decorated B. is decorated C. were decorated D. should decorate
10. ___ wooden buildings helps to protect them from damage due to weather.
A. The paint B. Painted C. By painting D. Painting
11. Poor management brought the company to ____ of collapse.
A. the edge B. the foot C. the ring D. the brink
12. The new sports complex will accommodate an Olympic-sized swimming pool and other ____,
including a fitness center and a spa, to name just a few.
A. facilities B. categories C. qualities D. supplies
13. – Would you mind helping me? - _________________.
A. No, a problem B. Sure, no problem C. No, I wouldn’t D. Yes, I would
14. – Would you rather have coffee or orange juice? - ____________.
A. I like both B. I have either C. Either, please D. I’d rather to have coffee
15. When she was ____ grade 9, she wished to have someone who would stand beside her ____ thick and
thin.
A. of/ in B. in/ through C. at/ between D. in/ between
16. When Martin ____ the car, he took it out for a drive.
A. had repaired B. has repaired C. repaired D. was repairing
17. He was ____ enough to admit that he knew nothing about the subject.
A. honest B. kind C. true D. smart
18. She is so ____ to her children that she has decided to quit her job to stay at home and look after them.
1
A. responsible B. kind C. devoted D. persistent

19. She has always shown her great self- _____ in not becoming angry.
A. controlled B. control C. controlling D. controller
20. She is intelligent ____ lazy.
A. and B. so C. but D. neither
21. – I stayed at a hotel while in New York.
- Oh, did you? You ____ with Barbara.
A. could have stayed B. could stay C. would stay D. must have stayed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
22. The twins look so much alike that no one can tell them apart.
A. distinguish between them B. point out with them C. spoil them D. pick them out
23. With respect to maneuverability, few birds can equal the capabilities of the hummingbird, which
hovers for long periods and even flies backward.
A. With regard to B. With fondness to C. In appreciation of D. In favor of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
24. The massacre of the Jews in World War II has accounted for its people’s hostility towards foreigners.
A. disease B. hazard C. offence D. friendliness
25. I have a vague recollection of meeting him when I was a child.
A. apparent B. indistinct C. imprecise D. ill-defined
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Colors and Emotions
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important
to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is
something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either
reflects your current state of being or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they reflect the people around you. Of
course, they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the
color all day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes
based on the color or emotion that I need for the day
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are
meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in
motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be
healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your
emotions.
26. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
B. Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life.
C. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
D. Colors can help you become healthy.
27. Who is more influenced by the colors you wear?
A. You are more influenced B. The people around you are more influenced
C. both A and B D. neither A nor B
28. Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. your need for thrills B. your friend’s feelings
C. your appetite D. your mood
2
29. According to the passage, what creates disease?

A. wearing the color black B. being open to your emotions
C. ignoring your emotions D. exposing yourself to bright colors
30. The term intimately in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.
A. clearly B. obviously C. closely D.simply
31. The phrase saturated with in paragraph 3 is closest meaning to
A. covered with B. bored with C. in need of D. lacking in
32. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. to give an objective account of how colors affect emotions.
B. to prove the relationship between color and emotion
C. To persuade the reader that colors can influence emotions and give a person more energy.
D. to show that colors are important for a healthy life.
Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
33. His irresponsible attitude is putting his career in jeopardy.
A. His so irresponsible that he has no career.
B. His irresponsible attitude is endangering his career.
C. His career is to jeopardize irresponsible attitude
D. Both A and C
34. Never have people been so well informed as they are now, thanks to TV news programs.
A. People have been so informative thanks to TV news programs.
B. Thanks to TV news programs, people are now too well informed.
C. People are better informed than they have been, thanks to TV news programs
D. TV news programs are very informative than before and people are better informed.
35. Had he known more about the internet, he would have invested in some computer companies.
A.Knowing about the internet helped him invest in some computer companies.
B. Knowing about the internet, he would have invested in some computer companies.
C. He would have invested in some computer companies without his knowledge of the internet.
D. He did not know much about the internet and he did not invest in any computer companies.
Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks .
Sugar tastes sweet because of thousands of receptors on the tongue which connect the substance
with the brain. The taste of sweetness is universally accepted as the most pleasurable known, although it
is a fructose. Abundant is the most common occurring sugar, (36)______ of which include fruit and
honey. Sucrose, which supplies glucose to the body, is (37)______ from the sugar cane plant, and white
sugar (pure sucrose) is used by food technologists to (38)______ sweetness in other substances.
Approximately a dozen artificial sweeteners have been discovered; one of the earliest was Sorbitol from
France.
Manufacturers add large amounts of sugar to foodstuffs but never more than the (39)______
required to produce the optimum pleasurable taste. Surprisingly, this amount is similar for different
people and in different cultures. No one has (40)______ discovered a way to predict whether a substance
will taste sweet, and it was by chance alone that all the man-made chemical sweeteners were found to be
sweet.
36. A. roots B. origins C. sources D. places
37. A. drawn B. extracted C. cited D. made
38. A. smell B. detect C. taste D. measure
39. A. maximum B. excess C. extremity D. limit
40. A. just B. yet C. still D. already
Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
3
41. On the one hand, I’d love to study Japanese. On the other hand, I really haven’t got the time.
A. Nevertheless I would love to study Japanese, I really haven’t got the time.
B. I really haven’t got the time; as a result, I would love to study Japanese.
C. Because I haven’t got the time, I would love to study Japanese.
D. I haven’t got the time; therefore I would not love to study Japanese.
42. I ate the soup. After that I remembered that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of it.
A. It was not until I ate the soup did I remember that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of it.
B. As soon as I remembered that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of soup I ate it.
C. Only after eating the soup did I remember that I had forgotten to give my little sister some of it.
D. Hardly had I forgotten to give my little sister some of it when I ate the soup.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after the Earth was formed. Yet another
three billion years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared on the continents. Life’s
transition from the sea to the land was perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of
life.
What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle? The traditional view of
the first terrestrial organisms is based on megafossils-relatively large specimens of essentially whole
plants and animals. Vascular plants, related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive
megafossil record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of terrestrialization
reflected the evolution of modern terrestrial ecosystems. In this view, primitive vascular plants first
colonized the margins of continental waters, followed by animals that feed on the plants, and lastly by
animals that preyed on the plant-eaters. Moreover, the megafossils suggest that terrestrial life appeared
and diversified explosively near the boundary between the Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little
more than 400 million years ago.
Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at the sediments below this
Silurian-Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these
sediments by putting the rocks in an acid bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence form
sediments that were deposited near the shores of the ancient oceans- plant microfossils and microscopic
pieces of small animals. In many instances the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in
diameter. Although they were entombed in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of them
fossils consist of the organic remains of the organism.
These newly discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence of previously unknown
organisms, but have also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by multicellular organisms. Our
views about the nature of the early plant and animal communities are now being revised. And with those
revisions come new speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms.
43. In what order did the organisms first appear on earth?
A. vascular plants, plant-eating animals, carnivores
B. carnivores, plant-eaters, megafossils
C. mega fossils, prey hunters, plant-eaters
D. seed plants, ferns, megafossils
44. What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in the third paragraph?
A. They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life.
B. They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils.
C. They are older than the mega fossils.
D. They consist of modern life-forms.
45. According to the theory that the author calls “the traditional view” what was the first form of life to
appear on land?
A. Bacteria B. Meat-eating animals C. Plant-eating animals D. Vascular plants
46. What is the following paragraph likely to discuss?
4
A. the existence of previously unknown organisms

B. the revision of human views on the nature of early plant and animal communities
C. comparison and contrast between the first terrestrial life forms and newly discovered fossils
D. what the first terrestrial life forms might have been
47. The word “entombed” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. crushed B. trapped C. produced D. excavated
48. Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?
A. The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised.
B. Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.
C. The origins of primitive sea life were explained.
D. Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.
49. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
A. The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself.
B. The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved.
C. New species have appeared at the same rate over the course of the last 400 million years.
D. The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about
ages of fossils.
50. According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago?
A. Many terrestrial life-forms died out B. New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate
C. The megafossils were destroyed by floods. D. Life began to develop in the ancient seas.
The end
5
1. D 11. D 21. A 31. A 41. A

2. A 12. A 22. A 32. C 42. C
3. B 13. B 23. A 33. B 43. A
4. C 14. C 24. D 34. C 44. C
5. C 15. B 25. A 35. D 45. D
6. C 16. A 26. A 36. C 46. D
7. A 17. A 27. A 37. B 47. B
8. A 18. C 28. D 38. D 48. A
9. A 19. B 29. C 39. A 49. A
10. D 20. C 30. C 40. B 50. B
6
ĐẠI HỌC KHOA HỌC TỰ NHIÊN KỲ THI THỰC HÀNH THQG 2016 – 2017
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHTN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Đề thi gồm 05 trang MÃ ĐỀ: 621
Bài thi gồm 50 câu trắc nghiệm Các chỉ dẫn bằng tiếng Anh
(160421) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 7.
One of the highest honors for formalists, writers, and musical composers is the Pulitzer Prize. First awarded in
1927, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Ernest Hemingway, Harper Lee, John F. Kennedy, and Rodgers and
Hammerstein, among others. As with many famous awards, this prize was named after its founder, Joseph
Pulitzer.
Joseph Pulitzer‟s story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one of hardship, hard work and
triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to United States in 1864. He wanted to be a reporter, but he
started his American life by fighting in the American Civil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the German
- language newspaper, the Westliche Post. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon became a
partial owner of the paper.
In 1978, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition, the newspaper took a
controversial approach to new. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the average reader, so he produced exciting stories
of scandal and intrigue. Such an approach is commonplace today, but in Pulitzer‟s time it was new and
different. The approach led to the discovery of many instances of corruption by influential people. Pulitzer
„paper became very famous and is still produced today.
The success of Joseph Pulitzer‟s newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he wanted to give something
back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to establish university programs for the teaching
of journalism, and he funded numerous scholarships to assist journalism students. Finally, he wanted to leave a
legacy that would encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. On his death, he gave two million
dollars to Columbia University so they could award prizes to great writers.
The Pulitzer Prize recipients are a very select group. For most, winning a Pulitzer Prize is the highlight of their
career. If an author, journalist, or composer you know has won a Pulitzer Prize, you can be sure they are at the
top of their profession.
Question 1. Why does the writer mention "John F. Kennedy" in line 3?
A.He was one of the inventors of the famous awards.
B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize.
C. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners.
D. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer.
Question 2. According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer Prize?
A. to encourage people to remember his name and success
B. encourage writers to remember the importance of quality
C. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals
D. to encourage work of the Pulitzer winners
Question 3. The word “partial" in the passage is closest in meaning to……
A. in part only B. brand new C. one and only D. very important .
Question 4. According the passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize?
A. Columbia University graduates B. journalism students
C. noted writers and composers D. most newspaper reporters
Question 5. According to the reading passage, how did Joseph Pulitzer appeal to the average reader?
A. He wrote about famous writers of journalism and literature
B. He wrote stories about the war
1
C. He produced his own newspaper

D. He produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue
Question 6. Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is true according to the reading passage?
A. He received a scholarship when he was a university student.
B. He was rich even when he was young
C. He was a reporter during the American Civil War
D. He immigrated to the United States from Hungary
Question 7. Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is NOT true according to the reading passage?
A. Joseph Pulitzer was the first writer to the win the prize in 1917.
B. Winning the prize is the highlight of a writer‟s career.
C. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award to the prizewinners.
D. Receiving the prize is one of the highest honors for writers.
( 160429) Mask the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction on each of the following questions
Question 8. United Nations is aimed at develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for
A B
the principle of equal rights ans sefl-determination of peoples
C D
Question 9. All members shall give the United Nations every assistance in any action it does in
A B C
accordance with the present Charter.
D
Question 10. Cutural diversity is important because most countries, workplaces, and schools
A
increasingly consist of various culture, racial and ethnic group.
B C D
(160437) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 11. A. rhinoceros B. biologist C. reserve D. digest
Question 12. A. form B. shortcoming C. chore D. sector
( 160443) Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 13. The atmosphere at the meeting was very and everyone was on first name terms
A. formal B. informal C. formality D. informality
Question 14. Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He's very boy.
A. strong willed B. mischievous C. obedient D. well behaved
Question 15. Many young people nowadays are prepared to getting married to pursue their
professional careers.
A satisfy B. sacrifice C. prefer D. confide
Question 16. My boss's plane at 10:15 tomorrow morning, but I cannot pick him up.
A. arrives B. is arriving C. will be arriving D. arrived
Question 17. Jack asked Jil interested in any kinds of sports.
2
A. if she were B. if were she C. if was she D. if she was

Question 18. Whenever problems we discuss frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. make up B. come up C. put up D. turn up
Question 19. Children should be taught that they have to……….. everything after they use it.
A. put away B. pick off C. collect up D. catch on
Question 20. Vietnamese parents normally do not let their children make a decision their own future
career.
A. in B. of C. on D. for
Question 21. The police have just round the man and his car were swept away during the heavy
storm last week.
A. that B. which C.whose D.when
Question 22. the more terrible the terrorism will become.
A. The more weapons are powerful C The more powerful weapons are
B. The weapons more powerful D. Weapons are the more powerful
Question 23. We are concerned with the problem of energy resources we must also think of our
environment.
A. despite B. though C. however D. but
Question 24. When finding a new house, parents should………….all the conditions for their children‟s
education and entertainment.
A. take into account B. make all the conditions
C. get a measure of D. put into effect
(160489) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of following exchanges.
Question 25. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.
- Diana:” Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”
- Anne:” ______”
A. I‟m half ready. B. God save you. C. Thank you so much D. Don‟t mention it!
Question 26. Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
- Mary:” Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?”
- Professor:”______”
A. I like it that you understand. B. Try your best, Mary.
C. you can borrow books from the library. D. You mean the podcasts from other students?
(160500) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 27. A. maximum B. vacancy C. terrorist D. investment
Question 28 A. vertical B. contractual C. domestic D. outstanding
(160511) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Language teaching in the United State is base on the idea that the goal of language acquisition is
communicative complete.
3
A. Not good at socializing. C. unable to understand

B. Excellent in orating in front of others D. incapable of working with words
Question 30. This is new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still dirty.
A. To be expensive B. To be strange C. to be broken D. to be better
(160522) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions
Question 31. Today, American English is particularly influential, due to the USA‟s dominance of cinema,
television, popular music, trade and technology (including the Internet)
A. complete mastery B. overwhelming superiority
C. complete control D. profound effect
Question 32: Students ‘motivation for learning a language increase when they see connection between what
they do in classroom and what they hope to do with the language in the future.
A. the reason for which someone does something
B. the action that someone takes to deal with something
C. the eagerness that someone has to do something
D. the excitement with which one is filled when doing something.
( 160533) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions
Question 33. “What are you going to do with such a long list of books, Dane?” asked Sarah
A. Sarah was curious why Dane had such a long list of books.
B. Sarah asked Dane what he was going to do with such a long list of books.
C. Sarah could not understand why Dane was borrowing such a long list of books.
D. Sarah warned Dane not to borrow such a long list of books.
Question 34. “Are you going to the cinema with us tonight, Susan?” asks her friends.
A. Susan‟s friend asked her whether she went to the cinema with them that night
B. Susan‟s friend asked her if she was going to the cinema with them that night
C. Susan‟s friend would like to invite her to go to the cinema with them that night
D. Susan‟s friend would rather her went to the cinema with them that night.
Question 35. The Internet has enabled most people to get contact in a matter of moment
A. Most of people have been able to get in contact by the Internet in a matter of moments.
B. Most of people have got in contact as enable in a matter of moments by the Internet
C. On the Internet, most of people are able to get in contact a matter of moments.
D. On the Internet, most of people can find their contact a matter of moments
( 160542) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fist each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 40
Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he gets close to a tornado,
he puts a special tool (36)____a turtle probe on the ground. This tool measures things like a twister‟s
temperatune, humidity, and wind speed. With this information, Samaras can lean what causes tornadoes to
develop. If meteorologists understand this, they can warn people (37)____twisters sooner and save lives.
4
How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It‟s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes are too small to see using
weather satellites. So Samaras can‟t rely on these tools to find a twister. (38)____, he waits for tornadoes to
develop.
Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow. Some tornadoes change
(39)____several time – for example, moving east and then west and then east again. When Samaras finally gets
near a tornado, het puts the turtle probe on the ground. Being this close to twister is (40)____. He must get away
quickly.
Question 36. A. called B. know C. made D. meant
Question 37. A. with B. about C. at D. for
Question 38. A. Rather B. Still C. Instead D. Yet
Question 39. A. progression B. movement C. dimension D. direction
Question 40. A. terrifly B. terrifying C. terrified D. terrifies
( 160551) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following question.
Question 41. The teacher has done his best to help all students. However, none of them made any effort on their
part
A. The teacher has done his best to help all student, then, none of them made any effort on their part
B. Although the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part
C. Because the teacher has done his best to help all students, , none of them made any effort on their part
D. If the teacher has done his best to help all students, , none of them made any effort on their part
Question 42. “ Finish your work. And then you can go home”.
A. “ You can‟t go home until you finish your work”
B. “ You finish your work to go home as early as you can”
C. “ When you go home, finish your work then”
D. “ Because you have finished your work, you can go home”.
( 160554) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Clara Barton became known as “ The Angel of the Battlefield” during the American Civil War. Born in
Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Barton‟s interest in helping soldiers on the battlefield began when she
was told army stories from her father. Another event that influenced her decision to help soldiers was an
accident her brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 year. At the time, she was only 11 years
old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years before she moved to Washington,
D.C in 1854.
The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started war service by helping the soldiers with their
needs. At the battle of Bull run, Clara Barton received permission from the government to take care of the sick
and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kindness. She acknowledged each soldier as a person . her
endurance and courage on the battlefield were admired by many. When the war ended in 1865 , she used 4 years
of her life to assist the government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war.
The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869, her doctors
recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. While she was on vacation , she became involved with the
International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convention in 1864. Clara Barton realized that
5
the Red Cross would be a best help to the United States. After she returned to the United States, she worked
very hard to create an American Red Cross. She talked to government leaders and let American people know
about the Red Cross. In 1881, the National Society of the Red Cross was finally established with its
headquarters in Washington , D.C. Clara Barton managed its activities for 23 years.
Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she helped food victims in Galveston,
Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in 1904. She was 92 years old and had truly earned her title “
The Angel of the Battle”.
Question 43: According to the paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Barton Clara?
A. She helpep her father when he was a soldier
B. She suffered from an accident when she was 11
C. She helped her brother who hurt in an accident
D. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years
Question 44. The phrase broke out in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. extended C. broken down C. closed D. began
Question 45. The word this in paragraph 2 refers to
A. recognized each soldier as a person B. cooker for soldiers
C. took care of the sick and hurt D. received permission
Question 46. The word acknowledged in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
A. nursed B. recognized C. pleaded D. believed
Question 47. What can be inferred about the government?
A. It did not always agree with Clara barton
B. It did not have the money to help Clara Barton
C. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness
D. It had respect for Clara Barton
Question 48. What does the author mention about the American Red Cross?
A. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention
B. Barton tried to have it set up in America
C. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross
D. It was first established in the Unites States
Question 49. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross
B. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need
C. Clara Barton becam a nurse during the American Civil War
D. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old
Question 50. What can be the best title of the reading passage?
A. The angel of the Battlefield
B. The American Red Cross
C. The American Civil War
D. The International Red Cross
………………………THE END………………………
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1.B 2.B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. C
11. C 12. D 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. A 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. A 30. D
31. B 32. A 33. B 34. B 35. A 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. D 40. B
41. B 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. B 49. B 50. A
7
TRƯỜNG ĐHKHTN KỲ THI KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG LẦN 2

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHTN Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút , không kể thời gian giao đề.
Mã đề : 203
(165876) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blank from 1 to 5
American folk music originated with (1) _____ people at a time when the rural population was
isolated and music was not (2)______spread by radio, records, or music video. It was (3)_____by oral
traditional and is noted for its energy ,humor, and emotional impact. The major source of aerly American
folk songs was music from the Bristish Isles , but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have
significant part in its heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the nineteenth
century, composer Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs
,(4)______soon became part of the folk tradition. Beginning in the 1930s , Woody Guthrie gained great
popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s , singer –
composers such as Peter Seeger , Bob Dylan , Joan Baez continued this tradition by „urban‟ folk music.
Many of these songs deal (5)_____important social issue, such as racial intergration and the war in Vietnam.
Question 1: A. typical B. ordinary C. common D. popular
Question 2: A. yet B. still C. until D. even
Question 3: A. transferred B. transited C. transmitted D. transformed
Question 4: A. who B. which C. that D. this
Question 5: A. with B. in C. by D. at
(165883) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.
Question 6: In order to better understand English, the students incorporated gramar, vocabulary, and
speaking in their stidies.
A. Combined B. granted C. scrutinized D. skipped
Question 7: Some of the rude drivers, on the road today are the ones who will not allow other cars to merge
into traffic,
A. blend B. concentrate C. secede D. desensitize
(165887) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.
Question 8: Slavery was abolished in the US in the 19th century.
A. eradicated B. instituded C. eliminate D. required
Question 9: The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
A. odd B. implicit C. obscure D. explicit
(165890) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in
meaning to each of the following question.
Question 10: “I would like you not to play computer games any more, Amber”said her mother.
A. Amber‟s mother would rather she doesn‟t play computer games any more.
B. Amber‟s mother would rather her not to play computer games any more
C. Amber‟s mother would rather she didn‟t play computer games any more.
1
D. Amber‟s mother would rather she wouldn‟t play computer games any more.
Question 11: It is a pity that I can’t speak English as native speaker.
A. I wish I could speak English as a native speaker
B. I wish I couldn‟t speak English as a native speaker
C. I wish I can speak English as a native speaker
D. I wish I have spoken English as a native speaker
Question 12: The music was so loud that we had to shout to each other.
A. We didn‟t say loud enough for us to hear each other
B. The music was too loud that we had to shout to each other.
C. We didn‟t say loud enough to hear each other
D. Because of loud music,we had to shout to each other.
(165896) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 13: A.appreciate B. efficient C. suspicious D. apprentice
Question 14: A. assure B. press C. blessing D. classic
(165899) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. punishment B. behavior C. influence D. regional
Question 16: A. acquaintance B. symbolize C. etiquette D. socialize
(165903) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs
Question 17: Ceramic can be harder, light, and more resistant to heat than metals.
A B C D
Question 18: It is now believed that some damage to tissues may result from exposing it to frequent X-
ray. A B C D
Question 19: The museum contains sixth century sculptures, eighteenth century swords and the
A B
dress won by nineteenthcenturyroyal family.
C D
(165907) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
ther following questinons.
Question 20 : The rhinoceros, whose numbers have dropped alarmingly recently, has been declared
a/an species.
A. danger B. endanger C. endangered D. dangerous
Question 21: A curriculum that ignores ethnic tensions, racial anlagonisms, cultural and
religiousdifferences is not relevant.
A. conlacts B. barriers C. diversity D. levels
Question 22: Elizabeth explained during the meeting that it was a of what should have
priority.
A. belief B. fact C. possibility D. question
2
Qucstion 23: A recent survey has shown that supporters of equal partnership in marriage are in the _____
A. crowd B. particular C. obligation D. mạjority
Qucstion 24: The effects of literacy often extend personal benefits.
A. after B. beneath C. over D. beyond
Question 25: Instructors from the same ecological and vocational background as illiterates are more
successful in literacy classes than school-teachers.
A. carrying out B. pulling out C. acting out D. calling out
Question 26: For a public campaing to succeed, it is important to make____of existing social
organizations as well as other relations.
A. fun B. advantage C. benefit D. use
Question 27: The British and the American share the same language, but in other aspects they are as
different as_______
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. here and there
Question 28: Had it not been for your support, we couldn‟this plan.
A. have completed B. complete C. be completed D. have been completed
Question 29: - I have gone to the doctor's to have a check up.
- You ____ .You just had your check-up last week!
A. didn't need to go B. needn‟t have gone C.needn‟t go D. don‟t need to go
Question 30: In the kitchen there is a table .
A. beautiful large round wooden B. large beautiful wooden round
C. wooden round large beautiful D. round large vvooden beautiful
Question 31: Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have any solution.
A.come up with B. looked into C. thought over D. got round to
(165920) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
Question 32: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about Anne‟s new hairstyle.
- Diana: “ That new hairstyle suits you perfectly, Anne.”
- Anne “ …………..”
A. Never mind B. Don't mention it
C. Thank you D. You re welcome.
Question 33: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby
Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”
Mary: “_____.”
A. Not a chance. B. That's very kind of you.
C. I can‟t agree more. D. What a pity!
(165923) Read the following pasage and mark the letter A. B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
As computers have become powerful tools for rapid and economic of production of picture, computer
graphics has emerged as one of the most rapidly growing fields in computers scienee. It such used routinely
in such diverse areas as business, industry, government, research, training, and madiecine.
One of of the initial uses of computer graphics and ultimately its greatest use, been as an aid to design,
generally referred to as computer – aided degign (CAD). One of its greatest advantages is that designers can
see how an object will lock after construction and make changes freely and much more quickly than with
3
hands https://tienganhthpt.com
drafting. For three-dimensional rendering of machine parts, engineers rely heavily on CAD.
Automobile, spacecraft, aerospace, and ship designers use CAD terluaiques to design vehicles and test their
pertomance. Building designs are also created with computer graphics systems. Architect can design a
building layout create a three-dimersional model, and even go for simulated “walk” through the rooms or
around the outside of the building.
Business graphics is another rapidly growing are of computer graphics, where it is to create graphs, charts,
and cost models summarize financial, statistical, msthematieal, scientific, and economic data. As an
education aid, computer also has creative and commencial art applications, where it is used in advertissing,
publishing and film productions, particulurly for computer animation, which is achieved by a sequentia l
process.
Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Routine uses of computers B. Computer graphic applications
C.The rapidly grown ag field of camrater science D.Computers as the architects af the future
Question 35: The word “it" in line 2 refers to...........................
A computer graphics B. computer science C. field D.computer
Question 36: According to the passage, engineers use CAD for ..........................
A. A simulated “walk” through modal rooms B. Rendering machine parts
C. Making cost models D. Advertising products
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a use of computer graphic in business?
A charts B. cost models C.graphs D hiring
Question 38: The word"applications" in the third paragraph means ........................
A. jobs B. uses C.creators D. layers
Question 39: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that………. relies heavily on computer graphics
A. making cartoons B. growing crops
C. producing drugs D. Playing sports
Question 40: The author's tone in this passage is...............................
A. sarcastic B neutral C. pessimistic D. doubtful
(165931) Read the following pasage and mark the letter A. B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Another critical factor that plays a part in susceptibility to colds is age. A study done by the University of
Michigan School of Public Health revealed particulars that seem to hold true for the general population.
Infants are the most cold-ridden group, averaging more than six colds in their first year. Boys have more
colds than girls up to age three. After the age of three, girls are more susceptible than boy's , and teenege girls
average three colds a year to boy‟s two.
The general incidence of continues to decline into maturity. Elderly people who are in good health have as
few as one or two colds annually. One exception is founds among people in the twentics, especially women,
who show a rise in cold infections, because people in this age group are most likely to have young children.
Adults who delay having children until thirties forties experience the same sudden increase in cold infections.
The study also found that economics play an important role. As income increases, the frequency at which are
reported in the family decreases. Families with the lowest income suffer about a third more colds than
families at the lower end. Lower income generally forces people to live in more cramped quarters than those
typically occupied by wealthier by wealthier people, and crowding increses the opportunities for the cold
virus totravel from person to person. Low income may also adversely influence diet. The degree to whic h
4
poor nutrition affects susceptibility to colds is not yet clearly established, but an inadequate diet is suspected
of lowering resistance generally.
(source: TOEFL reading)
Question 41: Which of the following is closet in meaning to the word “particulars” in line 22?
A. Minor errors B. specific facts C. small distinctions D. individual people
Question 42: What does the author claim about the study discussed in the passage?
A. It contains many inconsistencies
B. It specializes in children
C. It contradicts the results of earlier studies in the field
D. Its results apparently are relevant for the population as a whole
Question 43: It maybe inferred from the passage that which of the following groups of people is most likely
to catch colds?
A. infant boys B. young girls C. teenage boys D. elderly women
Question 44: There is information in the second paragraph of the passage to support which of the following
conclusions?
A. Men are more susceptible to cold than women
B. Children infect their parents with colds.
C. People who live in a cold climate have more colds than those who live in a warm one.
D. People who don‟t have children are more susceptible to colds than those who do.
Question 45: The phrase “in this age group” refers to
A. Infants
B. People in their twenties
C. People in their thirties and forties
D. Elderly people
Question 46: The author‟s main purpose in writing the last paragraph of the passage is to
A. Explain how cold viruses are transmitted
B. Prove that a poor diet cause colds
C. Discuss the relationship between income and frequency of colds
D. Discuss the distribution of income among the people in the study
Question 47: The word “cramped” is closest in meaning to
A. Cheap B. Crowded C. depressing D. simple
Question 48: The author‟s tone in this passage could best be described as
A. Neutral and objective
B. Humorous
C. Tentative but interested
5
D.https://tienganhthpt.com
Highly critical
(165940) Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
Question 49: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn‟t try hard to pass pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‟t pass it.
C. Hard as she tried, she could hardly hard pass the driving test
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily
Question 50: We didn‟t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel
A. In stead of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn‟t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in the cheap hotel
........................THE END........................
6
1 B 11 A 21 C 31 A 41 B
2 A 12 D 22 D 32 C 42 D
3 C 13 D 23 D 33 B 43 A
4 B 14 A 24 D 34 B 44 B
5 A 15 B 25 A 35 A 45 C
6 A 16 A 26 D 36 B 46 C
7 A 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 B
8 B 18 D 28 A 38 B 48 A
9 D 19 C 29 B 39 A 49 C
10 C 20 C 30 A 40 B 50 A
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ĐẠI HỌC KHOA HỌC TỰ NHIÊN KỲ THI THỰC HÀNH THPTQG 2017
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHTN MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Đề thi gồm 06 trang Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời
gian phát đề
MÃ ĐỀ: 114
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 1. Having (A) finished his tem paper (B) before the deadline, (C) it was delivered to professor (D)
before the class
Question 2. I‟m (A) very glad that you‟ve (B) done (C) lots of (D) progress this semester.
Question 3. You can (A) enjoy a sport (B) without joining (C) in a club or (D) belonging to a team.
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each the following exchanges.
Question 4. John: “Do you fancy a drink?” -Catherine: “______”
A. No, ever! B. I‟m not sure I do. Thank all the same
C. I don‟t want D. It is none of your business
Question 5. “Excuse me, can you tell me where I can catch a bus to London, please?”
- “______”
A. Sure, go ahead B. Sorry, I‟m new here myself C. OK. Here‟s your ticket D. Yes, please
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the
Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal
waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea
waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity. Tsunamis are caused when the
sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the
moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can
travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little
noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the
coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters. Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the
Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis
are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean
bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore,
prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles
away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of
Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival. Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan
and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the
Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area
around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the
1
Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby
Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far
away as the English Channel.
Question 6: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _________ .
A. tides B. storm surges C. tidal waves D. underwater earthquakes
Question 7: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _____ .
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
Question 8: The word “displaced” in line 6 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. not pleased B. located C. moved D. filtered
Question 9: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis ________ .
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
D. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
Question 10: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more
likely to _________ .
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska
C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
Question 11: A “calamitous” tsunami, in line 17, is one that is _________ .
A. disastrous B. expected C. extremely calm D. at fault
Question 12: From the expression “on record” in line 19, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied
the Krakatoa volcano ___________ .
A. was filmed as it was happening
B. occurred before efficient records were kept
C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon
2
D. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
Question 13: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano
A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
B. resulted in little damage
C. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 14. She was brought up in a well-off family. She can‟t understand the problem we are facing.
A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. poor
Question 15. Father has lost his job, so we‟ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. buy new belt B. sell the belt C. squander D. economize
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 16. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced B. married C. single D. separated
Question 17. Education is desperately need in many countries with a high percentage of population being
unable to read and write.
A. literate B. latterly C. wordy D. learned
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the offer three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. address B. canal C. about D. cultural
Question 19. A. create B. creature D. peak D. beach
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the offer three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. zoology B. permanent C. movement D. government
Question 21. A. reservation B. communicate C. dictation D. occasion
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 22. Ben would have studied medicine if he ___ to a medical school.
A. was admitted B. has been admitted C. had admitted D. would be able to enter
Question 23. In 1973, when the tigers appeared to be facing ___ the World Wide Fund for ___ and the Indian
Government agreed to set up “Operation Tiger”.
A. extinct/ Nature B. extinction/ Nature C. extinction/ Natural D. extinct/ Naturalists
3
Question 24. There is ___ public concern in Shelton following the discovery on Tuesday evening of a metal
container filled with poisonous liquid.
A. consider B. consideration C. considerable D. considerably
Question 25. This house is ___ the others we‟ve seen.
A. father more expensive than B. far more expensive than
C. far most expensive D. further more expensive
Question 26. The house owner __ _ coming near the dog as it could become very fierce unexpectedly.
A. warned me against B. advised me C. stopped me D. accused me of
Question 27. I ___ Melisa at my yoga class tonight and will ask her about the plan for this weekend.
A. will be seeing B. will have seen C. will not see D. will have been seeing
Question 28. Jack and Laure ___ married for 25 years by that time but they still decided to get divorced.
A. have been B. were C. will be D. had been
Question 29. This orange juice ___ awful: I bet you ___ it,
A. is smelling/ like B. smelling/ will not like C. smells/ will not like D. has smelled/ liked
Question 30. The size and shape of a nail depends primarily on the function ___ intended.
A. which it is B. for which it is C. which it is for D. for which is
Question 31. The ___ friendly products are designed not to harm the natural environment.
A. environment B. environmental C. environmentally D. environmentalism
Question 32. He asked me ___ Robert and I did not know ____.
A. that did I know/ who were Robert B. that I knew/ who Robert were
C. if I knew/ who Robert was D. whether I knew/ who was Robert
Question 33. Her contract ___ in two months, so she‟s looking for another job.
A. runs down B. runs out C. goes out D. goes away
correct word or phases that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
People have always dreamt of living forever. Although we all know this will never happen, we will want to live
as long as possible.
__(34)__, there are advantages and disadvantages of a long life.In the first place, people who live longer can
spend more time with their family and friends. Secondly, __(35)__have busy working lives look forward to a
long, relaxing life, when they can do the things they„ve never had time for.__(36)__, there are some serious
disadvantages. Firstly, many people become ill and consequently have to spend time in hospital or become
burden __(37)__ the children and friends. Many of them find this dependence annoying or embarrassing. In
addition to this, __(38)__ the fewer friends they seem to have because old friends die or become and it‟s often
difficult to make new friends.
To sum up, living to a very old age is worthwhile for those who stay healthy enough to remain independent and
enjoy life.
Question 34. A. Naturally B. Really C. Consequently D. Surprisingly

Question 35. A. people who B. people C. they D. everyone who
Question 36. A. In other words B. For example C. On the other hand D. Contrary
Question 37. A. of B. for C. to D. with
4
Question 38. A. when people get older B. when the older people get
C. the old people get D. the older people get
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
Question 39. Life on earth will be destroyed if people keep cutting trees for their own benefits.
A. If we stop to cut the trees for our benefits, the life on earth will be better.
B. If we don‟t continue to cut trees for our benefits, life on earth will be destroyed.
C. Life on earth will be destroyed unless people stop cutting trees for their own benefits.
D. The more trees we cut for our benefits, the worst the earth becomes.
Question 40. WHO means World Health Organization.
A. WHO is on behalf of Health Organization.
B. WHO stand for Health Organization.
C. WHO is translated from Health Organization.
D. WHO is explained about Health Organization.
Question 41. The hurricane destroyed hundreds of buildings in the city.
A. The hurricane resulted in destruction of hundreds of buildings in the city.
B. The hurricane resulted from destruction of hundreds of buildings in the city.
C. Despite the appearance of the hurricane, hundreds of buildings in the city haven‟t been in damager of
destruction.
D. The hurricane appeared, however, hundreds of buildings in the city have been destroyed.
correct answer to each questions from 42 to 48.
A lot of advice is available for college leavers heading for their first job. In this article we consider the
move to a second job. We are not concerned with those looking for a second temporary position while hunting
for a permanent job. Nor are we concerned with those leaving an unsatisfactory job within the first few weeks.
Instead, we will be dealing with those of you taking a real step on the career ladder, choosing a job to fit in with
your ambitions now that you have learnt your way around, acquired some skills and have some idea of where
you want to go.
What sort of job should you look for? Much depends on your long-term aim. You need to ask yourself
whether you want to specialize in a particular field, work your way up to higher levels of responsibility or out of
your current employment into a broader field.
Whatever you decide, you should choose your second job very carefully. You should be aiming to stay
in it for two or three years. This job will be studied very carefully when you send your letter of application for
your next job. It should show evidence of serious career planning. Most important, it should extend you,
develop you
and give you increasing responsibility. Incidentally, if you are interested in traveling, now is the time to pack up
and go. You can do temporary work for a while when you return, pick up where you left off and get the second
job then. Future potential employers will be relieved to see that you have got it out of your system, and are not
likely to go off again.
Juliette Davidson spend her first year after leaving St. Aldate‟s College working for three lawyers. It
was the perfect first job in that “ OK ... they were very supportive people. I was gently introduced to the work,
learnt my way around an office and improve my word processing skills. However, there was no scope for
advancement. One day, I gave my notice, bought an air ticket and traveled for a year.
5
Juliette now works as a Personal Assistant to Brenda Cleverdon, the Chief Executive of business in the
Community. “In two and a half years I have become more able and my job has really grown, “ she says. “ Right
from the beginning my boss was very keen to develop me. My job title is the same as it was when I started but
the duties have changed. From mainly typing and telephone work, I have progressed to doing most of the
correspondence and budgets. I also have to deal with a variety of queries, coming from chairmen of large
companies to people wanting to know how to start their own business. Brenda involves me in all her work but
also gives me specific projects to do and events to organize.”
Question 42. Who is intended to benefit from the advice given in the article?
A. students who have just finished their studies
B. people who are unhappy with their current job
C. those who are interested in establishing a career
D. people who change jobs regularly
Question 43. According to the writer, why is the choice of your second job important?
A. It will affect your future job prospects.
B. It will last longer than your first job.
C. It will be difficult to change if you don‟t like it.
D. It should give you the opportunity to study.
Question 44. “It” in the passage refers to_______.
A. first job B. second job C. application D. career
Question 45. If you have a desire to travel, when does the writer suggest that you do it?
A. straight after you have left college
B. when you are unable to find a permanent job
C. after you have done some temporary work
D. between the first and second job
Question 46. What does the phrase “you have got it out of your system” in passage mean?
A. You have planned your career sensibly.
B. You are an experienced traveler.
C. You have satisfied your wish to travel.
D. You have learned to look after yourself.
Question 47. How did Juliette Davidson benefit from the experience of her first job?
A. It was good introduction to working in an office.
B. She met a variety of interesting people.
C. It enabled her to earn enough money to travel.
D. She learnt how to use a word processor.
Question 48. In what way is Juliette‟s current job better her first job?
A. She has a more impressive job title.
B. She now know how to start her own business.
C. She has been able to extend her skills.
D. She is more involve in the community.
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The student works part-time at a bid restaurant. He also paints pictures to earn for living.
A. Apart from works part-time at a bid restaurant, the student also paints pictures to earn for living.
B. In addition working part-time at a big restaurant, the student also paints pictures to earn for living.
C. Besides working part-time at a big restaurant, the student also paints pictures to earn for living.
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D. The student works part-time at a big restaurant as well as he paints pictures to earn for living.
Question 50. The buses began to pull out. Most of them were full passengers.
A. The passengers, most of them were full of, began to pull out the buses.
B. The passengers, most of whom were full of the buses, began to pull out.
C. The buses, most of them were full of passengers, began to pull out.
D. The buses, most of which were full of passengers, began to pull out.
.........................THE END.........................
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Question 1 C Question 11 A Question 21 A Question 31 C Question 41 A

Question 2 B Question 12 D Question 22 B Question 32 C Question 42 C
Question 3 C Question 13 C Question 23 B Question 33 B Question 43 A
Question 4 B Question 14 A Question 24 C Question 34 A Question 44 B
Question 5 B Question 15 D Question 25 B Question 35 A Question 45 D
Question 6 B Question 16 B Question 26 A Question 36 C Question 46 C
Question 7 A Question 17 A Question 27 A Question 37 C Question 47 A
Question 8 C Question 18 B Question 28 D Question 38 D Question 48 C
Question 9 C Question 19 A Question 29 C Question 39 C Question 49 C
Question 10 C Question 20 A Question 30 B Question 40 B Question 50 D
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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN KỲ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG THPT QUỐC GIA
Năm học: 2016 – 2017. Môn: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 11/12/2016
( Đề có 6 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
MÃ ĐỀ: 951
(159330) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.
The warming of the Earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, fatories and power (1) .
Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it form a kind of screen that keeps or allows the sunshine
in but stop the Earth heart (2) getting out. It works like a greenhouse, that’s why we call (3) the
Green House effect.
Because of this effect, the Earth is getting warmer all the time. This (4) in temperature will cause big
changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will increase as the ice (5) the poles will melt.
Question 1: A. companies B. factories C. sites D. stations
Question 2: A. from B. up C. against D. away
Question 3: A. is B. be C. it D. them
Question 4: A. raise B. rise C. drop D. fall
Question 5: A. covering B. covers C. covered D. cover
(159336) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.
Question 6: It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.
A. approximately B. comparatively C. nearly D. essentially
Question 7: You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her.
A.pay all your attention to what you are doing B. upset her in what she is doing
C. get involved in what she is doing D. make her comply with your orders
(159339) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following question.
Question 8: A. accurate B. account C. accept D. accuse
Question 9: A. talks B. takes C. decides D. completes
1
(159342) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word having different stress
from the others in each of the following questions.
Question 10: A. rapidly B. comfortably C. fluently D. necessarily
Question 11: A. politician B. genetics C. artificial D. controversial
(159345) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions
Question 12: Foreign students who are (A)doing a decision (B) about which school (C) to attend may not
know exactly where (D) the choices are located.
Question 13: (A) It is a good idea (B) to be careful in buying (C) or purchasing magazines (D) from
salespersons who may come to your door.
Question 14: In (A) that age of computers, (B) it is difficult to imagine how tedious (C) work of
accountants and clerks must (D) have been in the past.
(159349) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 15: Since he failed his exam, he had to for it again.
A.pass B. make C. take D. sit
Question 16: Is there at all I can help?
A.everything B. anything C. something D. one thing
Question 17: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as as possible.
A.economizing B. econimic C. economical D. economically
Question 18: Only when you grow up, the truth.
A.you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
Question 19: My brother left his job last week because he did not have any to travel.
A.position B. chance C. ability D. location
Question 20: John paid $2 for his meal, he had thought it would cost.
A.not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
Question 21: It is very important for a film or a company to keep the changes in the market.
A.pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with
Question 22: I’m sure you’ll have no the exam.
A.difficulty passing B. difficulties to pass C. difficulty to pass D. difficulties of passing
Question 23: I this letter around for days without looking at it.
2
A.carry B. must carry C. have been carrying D. am carrying
Question 24: Vietnam’s rice export this year will decrease about 10%, compared with that of last
year.
A.with B. at C. by D. on
Question 25: I won’t change my mind what you say.
A.whether B. no matter C. because D. although
Question 26: My car isn’t . It’s always letting me down.
A.believable B. reliable C. colorable D. conceivable
(159362) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
Question 27: - “ Has an annoucement been made about the eight o’clock flight to Paris?”
-“ .”
A.Not yet B. Yes, it was C. I don’t think that D. Sorry, I don’t
Question 28: -“ I can speak English well enough to apply for that post.”
-“ .”
A.Me neither B. Me too C. Me either D. Me also
(159365) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in the
meaning to the underlined word(s) in ecah of the following questions.
Question 29: I’m sorry to say that it seems you’ve been shirking your responsibilities.
A.going along B. standing up to C. taking on D. refraining from
Question 30: She gave an impeccable reading of the sonata and had the audience on their feet.
A.suspicious B. unqualified C. negative D. imperfect
(159368) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
inmeaning to each of the following question.
Question 31: I got the impression that the boys were not enjoying themselves.
A.The boys impressed me that they were not enjoying themselves.
B.The boys didn’t seem to be enjoying themselves.
C. The boys seemed not to enjoying themselves.
D. It seemed to me the boys were enjoying themselves.
Question 32: The children ran to the field to see the dragon, but it was no longer there.
3
A.The dragon had gone by the time the children ran to the filed.
B. The dragon went by the time the children ran to the filed.
C. When the children ran to the filed, the dragon went.
D. The dragon had gone after the children ran to the filed.
Question 33: The boy became so confused and worried that he left home.
A.The boy became too confused and worried to leave home.
B. So confued and worried that the boy left home.
C. So confused and worried, the boy left home.
D. The boy was not confused and worried enough to leave home.
(159372) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
Question 34: Sue lives in a house. The house is opposite my house.
A.Sue lives in a house where is opposite my house.
B. Sue lives in a house which is opposite my house.
C. Sue lives in a house who is opposite my house.
D. Sue lives in a house and which is opposite my house.
Question 35: She turned the radio on at 7.30. She was still listening to it when her mother came home at
9.00.
A.She has been listening to the radio at 7.30.
B. She had been listening to the radio since 7.30.
C. She has been listening to the radio after 7.30.
D. She had been listening to the radio by 7.30.
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a
substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example,
rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them
to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance.
After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an
allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show
up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have
rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food
allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these
allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around
4
seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing
tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these
are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas,
cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in
treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who
are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in
salicylates from their diets.
Question 36: . The topic of this passage is _______________.
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
Question 37: .According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
___________.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 38: The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. indications B. diet C. diagnosis D. prescriptions
Question 39: The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
Question 40: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 41: The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. overly active B. unusually low activity C. excited D. inquisitive
Question 42: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies
has to do with the infant's ___________.
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The rapid transcontinentat settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the last half of the 19 th
century were accompanied by the development of national literature of great abundance and variety. New
themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, new audiences all emerged in the literature of
this half century.
As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of American literature
had evolved remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to New York in the late
1880s and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer was it produced, at least in its
popular forms, in the main by solemn, typically moralistic men from New England and the Old South; no
5
longer were polite, well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young people the only central
characters in its narratives; no longer were these narratives to be set in exotic places and remote times; no
longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama, and formal history the chief acceptable forms of literary
expression; no longer, finally, was literature read primarily by young, middle class women.
In sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition Walt Whitman
called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major work, each state and
region as peers "and expands from them, and includes the world ... connecting an American citizen with the
citizens of all nations."
Question 43: The main idea of this passage is____________
A.that the new American literature was less provincial than the old
B.that World War I caused a dramatic change in America
C. that centers of culture shifted from East to West
D. that most people were wary of the new literature
Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that the previous passage probably
discussed_____________
A.the importance of tradition to writers
B. new developments in industrialization and population shifts
C. the fashions and values of 19th century America
D. the limitations of American literature to this time
Question 45: The word “evolved” in paragraph two is closest in meaning to______________
A. became famous B. turned back C. diminished D. changed
Question 46: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to______________
A. the population B. the energy C. American literature D. the manufacturing
Question 47: The word “exotic" in paragraph two is closest in meaning to_________
A. urban B. unusual C. well-known D. old-fashioned
Question 48: The author uses the word “indeed” in the second paragraph for what purpose?
A.To emphasize the contrast he is making.
B. For variety in a lengthy paragraph.
C. To wind down his argument.
D. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature.
Question 49: The phrase “these years” in the third paragraph refers to ___________.
A. 1850-1900 B. the 1900s C. the early 1800s D. the present
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman_____________
A. disliked urban life B. was disapproving of the new literature
C wrote Leaves of Grass D. was an international diplomat
……………………….THE END……………………….
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1 D 11 B 21 D 31 B 41 A
2 A 12 A 22 A 32 A 42 C
3 C 13 C 23 C 33 C 43 A
4 B 14 A 24 C 34 B 44 B
5 A 15 D 25 B 35 B 45 D
6 B 16 B 26 B 36 A 46 C
7 A 17 D 27 A 37 C 47 B
8 A 18 D 28 B 38 A 48 A
9 C 19 B 29 A 39 D 49 A
10 D 20 B 30 D 40 B 50 C
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Sở GD & ĐT Hải Dương ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

Trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Trãi Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề thi gồm 50 câu
Ngày 11/2/2017
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………… Số báo danh:…………………
170045 Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is similar in meaning to the one given.
Câu 1: It doesn’t matter how much you offer to pay, he won’t sell the antique vase
A. Although you offer to pay him a lot, he won’t sell the antique vase.
B. Despite a lot of money you offer to pay, he won’t sell the antique vase.
C. He won’t sell the antique vase if you offer to pay him a lot of money.
D. However much you offer to pay, he won’t sell the antique vase.
Câu 2: The best way to make them work hard is to promise them reward.
A. Promise them a reward and they will work hard.
B. If you promise to reward, they will word hard.
C. Reward them and make them work hard.
D. If they work hard, you should promise to reward them.
Câu 3: I am not certain, but there may be about twenty applicants for the job.
A. I am not sure if there are about twenty applicants for the job.
B. At a guess, there are about twenty applicants for the job.
C. I guess that there are twenty applicants for the job.
D. Twenty people are guessed to have applied for the job.
170049 Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combine the two sentences given.
Câu 4: I bought an Italian pair of shoes for $150. They went missing after two days.
A. I bought an Italian pair of shoes that went missing after two days.
B. The Italian pair of shoes that I bought for $150 went missing after two days.
C. The Italian pair of shoes, which I had bought for $150, went missing after two days.
D. My Italian pair of shoes that went missing after two days were bought for 150$.
Câu 5: Ann paints landscape pictures. She finds it very pleasant.
A. Ann finds it pleasure to paint landscape pictures.
B. Ann takes great pleasure in painting landscape pictures.
C. Painting landscape pictures makes Ann feel pleasure.
D. Ann feels pleasant in painting landscape pictures.
170151 Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in
each of the following questions:
Câu 6: Mr.Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. Inapplicable B. hostile C. amiable D. futile
Câu 7: Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.
A. Genuine B. eternal C. permanent D. satisfactory
170154 Choose A, B ,C or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in
each sentence.
1
Câu 8: Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices in the United States.
A. Artifacts B. Textile C. Pottery D. Rugs
Câu 9: Though many scientific breakthroughs have resulted from mishaps it has taken brilliant thinkers to
recognize their potential.
A. Incidental B. misunderstandings C. accidents D. misfortunes
170251 Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
If we believe that clothing has to do with covering the body, and costume with the choice of a particular form
of garment for a particular use, then we can say that clothing depend primarily on such physical conditions as
climate, health, and textile manufacture, whereas costume reflect social factors such as religious beliefs,
aesthetics, personal status, and the wish to be distinguished from or to emulate our fellows.
The ancient Greeks and the Chinese believed that we first covered our bodies for some physical reason such as
protecting ourselves from the weather elements. Ethnologists and psychologists have invoked psychological
reasons: modesty in the case of ancients, and taboo, magical influence and the desire to please for the moderns.
In early history, costume must have fulfilled a function beyond that of simple utility, perhaps through some
magical significance, investing primitive man with the attributes of other creatures. Ornaments identified the
wearer with animals, gods, heroes or other men. This identification remains symbolic in more sophisticated
societies. We should bear in mind that the theater has its distant origins in sacred performances, and in all
period children at play have worn disguises, so as to adapt gradually to adult life.
Costume helped inspire fear or impose authority. For a chieftain, costume embodied attributes expressing his
power, while a warrior’s costume enhanced his physical superiority and suggested he was superhuman. In
more recent times, professional or administrative costume has been devised to distinguish the wearer and
express personal or delegated authority; this purpose is seen clearly in the judge’s robes and the police
officer’s uniform. Costume denotes power, and since power is usually equated with wealth, costume came to
be an expression of social caste and material prosperity. Military uniform denotes rank and is intended to
intimidate, to protect the body and to express membership in a group. At the bottom of the scale, there are
such compulsory costumes as the convict’s uniform. Finally, costume can possess a religious significance that
combines various elements: an actual or symbolic identification with a god, the desire to express this in earthly
life, and the desire to enhance the wearer’s position of respect.
Câu 10: Psychological reasons for wearing garments include

A. protection from cold B. availability of materials
C. prevention of illness D. wishing to give pleasure
Câu 11: Why does the author mention the police officer’s uniform?
A. To illustrate the aesthetic function of costume
B. To identify the wearer with a hero
C. To suggest that police are superhuman
D. To show how costume signifies authority
Câu 12: The passage mainly discusses costumes in term of its
A.physical protection B. religious significance
C. social function D. beauty and attractiveness
2
Câu 13: What is the purpose of the paragraph 1?

A. To describe the uses of costume B. To contrast costume with the clothing
C. To trade the origins of costume D. To point out that clothing developed before costume
Câu 14: The word “scale” in line 23 refers to
A. symbolic identification B. military rank
C. social position D. the balance
Câu 15: Which of the following would most likely NOT be reflected in a person’s costume, as it is defined in
the passage?
A. Having a heart condition B. Playing in a baseball game
C. Working in a hospital D. Participating in a religious ceremony
Câu 16: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that
A. The function of costume has become very sophisticated
B. Children like to identify with other creature by wearing costumes
C. Primitive people wore cloths only for sacred performances
D. Costume no longer fulfills a function beyond simple utility
170690 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct work for each of the blanks.
Michael Faraday
During the last 400 years, most scientists have (17) ________on mathematics in their development of their
inventions or discoveries. However, one great British scientist, Michael Faraday, did not make
(18)__________of mathematics. Faraday, the son of a poor blacksmith, was born in London in 1791 and had
no (19) _________beyond reading and writing.
In 1812 Faraday was hired as a bottle washer by the great chemist Humphry Davy. Later, Faraday became a
greater scientist than Davy, making the last years of Davy's life embittered (20) __________ jealousy.
Faraday made the first (21)__________motor in 1821, a device that used electricity to produce movement.
Câu 17. A. relied B. insisted C. based D. elaborated
Câu 18. A. usage B. advantage C. use D. utilization
Câu 19. A. instruction B. knowledge C. training D. schooling
Câu 20. A. from B. with C. by D. at
Câu 21. A. electric B. electrical C. electricity D. electrician's
170815 Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Câu 22: Drinking water excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the
enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. including C. made up of D. composed of
Câu 23: She gave me a box.
A. small square jewellery metal B. small metal square jewellery
C. small square metal jewellery D. small jewellery square metal
Câu 24: Ben: Our team has just won the last football match
Ann: __________
A. Good idea. Thanks for the news. B. Yes. I guess it’s very good.
C. Well, that’s very surprising! D. Yes, it’s our pleasure.
3
Câu 25: She pays an enormous insurance premium on the family heirloom, her most _______ possession.
A. worthless B. valueless C. honourable D. treasured
Câu 26: She her success to hard work.
A. described B. devoted C. blamed D. ascribed
Câu 27: I refuse to believe a word of it; it’s a cock-and- story.
A. hen B. goose C. bull D. duck
Câu 28: ________, I decided to stop trading with them.
A. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer
B. Though being the biggest dealer
C. Being the biggest dealer
D. Even though they were the biggest dealer
Câu 29: When Mr Spendthrift ran out of money, he his mother for help.
A. fell back on B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell in with
Câu 30: It’s funny you should say that. I’ve just had the thought.
A. like B. identical C. alike D. similar
Câu 31: Newspaper publishers in the States have estimated reads a newspaper every day.
A. nearly 80 percentage of the adult population who
B. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult population
C. that nearly 80 percentage of the adult population
D. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population
Câu 32: Ann:
Ben: Thanks. I will write to you when I come to London.
A. God bless you! B. Have a nice trip! C. Better luck next time! D. Have a go!
Câu 33: The dead man’s widow said he had had a/an that he would be killed in an accident.
A. knowledge B. experience C. presentiment D. warning
Câu 34: If you book in advance you will certainly have a better table at our restaurant.
A. mostly B. almost C. most D. the most
Câu 35: Never him stand on the deserted station platform.
A. will I forget to see B. I will forget to see
C. will I forget seeing D. I will forget seeing
170833 Choose A, B, C or D t indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in
Câu 36: A. enthusiasm B. generator C. mischievous D. reference
Câu 37: A. perfect B. sincere C. mature D. technique
170867 Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the word where underlined part is pronounced differently in each of
the following questions.
Câu 38: A. extinctin B. exhibit C. exhaustion D. exist
Câu 39: A. amount B. countable C. country D. around
170836 Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
4
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, that provides information
concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are the Gallup poll and the
Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential campaigns knows these polls have become an
important part of political life in the United States.
North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street" interviews on local television news shows.
While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of public
opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such
samples can be biased in favorof commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which
area the newspeople select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to
appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be
based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of questions. An effective
survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. It must also be specific enough so
that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully
phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information,
but only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of survey
research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find it more difficult
to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire. In addition, an
interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject's underlying feelings and reasons.
However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.
Câu 40: According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that they
A. are not based on a representative sampling B. are used only on television
C. are not carefully worded D. reflect political opinions
Câu 41: It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with
questionnaires is that
A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
B. questionnaires are often difficult to read
C. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
D. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
Câu 42: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?
A. A high number of respondents
B. Carefully worded questions
C. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
D. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results
Câu 43: The word "elicit" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. compose B. rule out C. predict D. bring out
Câu 44: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The history of surveys in North America B. The principles of conducting surveys
5
C. Problems associated with interpreting surveys D. The importance of polls in American political
life
Câu 45: According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live interviews
A. cost less B. can produce more information
C. are easier to interpret D. minimize the influence of the researcher
Câu 46: Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. Survey (line 1) B. Public opinion (line 8)
C. Representative sampling (line 13) D. Response rate (line 22)
Câu 47: The word "exercise" in line 15 is closest in meaning to
A. utilize B. consider C. design D.defend
170849 Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Câu 48. Although most species of small birds gather in groups at(A) feeders provided by bird-watchers, the
bright red cardinals(B) usually appears alone or (C)with its(D) mate.
Câu 49: Henry David Thoreau was an (A) American writer who is(B) remembered for (C) his faith in
religious significance of the nature (D).
Câu 50: Proteins are made up of(A) folded irregularly (B)chains, the links(C) of which(D) are amino acids.
.........................THE END.........................
6
1. D 11. D 21. A 31. D 41. A

2. B 12. C 22. A 32. B 42. B
3. B 13. B 23. C 33. C 43. D
4. C 14. C 24. C 34. B 44. B
5. C 15. A 25. A 35. C 45. B
6. B 16. B 26. D 36. A 46. A
7. C 17. A 27. C 37. A 47. A
8. D 18. C 28. D 38. A 48. D
9. C 19. D 29. A 39. C 49. D
10. D 20. B 30. D 40. A 50. B
7
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHUẨN BỊ CHO

TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN THÁNG 01/2017
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Mã đề thi: 341
164951 Read the following passage anh mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Under certain cirecumstances, the human body must cope with gases at greater-than-normal atmospheric
pressure. For example, gas pressures increase rapidly during a drive made with scuba gear because the breathing
equipment allows divers to stay underwater longer and dive deeper. The pressure exerted on the human body
increases by 1 atmosphere for every 10 meters of depth on seater, so thay at 39 meters in seawater a diver is
exposed to pressure of about 4 atmosphere. The pressure of the gases being breathed must equal the external
pressure applied to the body, otherwise breathing is very difficult. Therefore all of the gases in the air breathed
by a scuba diver at 40 meter are present at five times their usual pressure. Nitrogen, which composes 80 percent
of the air we breathe, usually causes a balmy feeling of well-being at this pressure. At a depth of 5 atmosphere,
nitrogen causes symptoms resembling alcohol intoxication, known as nitrogen narcosis. Nitrogen narcosis
apparently results from a direct effect on the brain of the large amounts of nitrogen dissolved in the blood. Deep
dives are less dangerous if helium is substituted for nitrogen, because under these pressures helium does not
exert a similar narcotic effect.
Asa scuba diver descends, the pressure of nitrogen on the lungs increases. Nitrogen then diffuses from the lungs
to the blood, and from the blood to body tissues. The reverse occurs when the diver sunfaces, the nitrogen
pressure in the lungs falls and the nitrogen diffuses from the tissues into the blood, and from the blood into thr
lings. If the retuen to the sunface in too rapid, nitrogen in the tissues and blood cannot diffuse out rapidly
eniught and nitrogen bubbles are formed. They can cause severe pains, particularly around the Joints.
Another complication may result if the breath is held during ascent. During ascent from a depth of 10 meters,
the volume of air in the lungs will double beacause the air pressure at the sunface is only half of what it was at
10 meters. This change in volume may cause the lungs to distend ang even rupture. This the rise of the exhaled
air bubbles, and must exhale during ascent.
Question 1: The word “exert” in bold on paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to............
A. permit B. cause C. need D. change
Question 2: What does the passage mainly disscuss?
A. The equipment divers use
B. How to prepare for a deep dive
C. The symptoms of nitrogen bubbles in the bloodstream
D. The effect of pressure on gases in the human body.
Question 3: The word “they” in bold on paragraph 2 refers to...........
A. joints B. pains C. tissues D. bubbles
Question 4: What happens to nitrogen in body tissues if a diver ascends too quickly?
A. It is reabsorbed by the lungs B. It goes directly to the brain
C. It forms bubbles D. It has a marcotic effect
1
Question 5: It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following presents the greatest danger to a
diver?
A. Nitrogen diffusion B. An air embolism
C. Nitrogen bubbles D. Pressurized helium
Question 6: The word “rupute” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to............
A. shrink B. burst C. hurt D. stop
Question 7: What should a diver do when ascending?
A. Breathe helium B. Relax complete
C. Breathe faster D. Rise slowly
164962 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress on each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. government B. interview C. reference D. understand
Question 9: A. equipment B. scholarship C. develop D. discourage
164965 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheert to indicate the wword(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 10: An employer must be very careful in dealing with subordinates and documenting their files in
order to avoid complaints.
A. bosses B. coordinators C. outside help D. employees
Question 11: It‟s incomprehensible to a nonaddict that an illicit drug can control the life of a young abuser
A. readable B. favorable C. imperative D. understandable
164968 Mark letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 12: I should have finished my work last night but I was exhausted.
A. Last night I was exhausted but I tried to finish my work.
B. My work was finished last night but I was exhausted.
C. I did finished my work last night thought I was exhausted.
D. I was exhausted so I didn‟t finish my work yesterday as planned.
Question 13: The boss was annuyed that his secretary came to work late.
A. The secretary came to work late, wwhich annoyed the boss.
B. The secretary came to work late causing annoyed
C. That the secretary came to work late annoys the boss.
D. The boss disapproved of his secretary‟s coming to work late.
Question 14: “Why don‟t you choose German as your optional subject?” said Jane.
A. Jane admittef that I chose German as my optional subject.
B. Jane suggested that I choose German as my optional subject.
C. Jane reminded me of choosing German as my optional subject.
D. Jane suggested choosing German as my optional subject.
164974 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered from 15 to 19.
2
Fashions go round and round

Fashions have always changed with time. No(15).............Roman girls worried about having the latest hairstyle
and boys in Ancient Egypt wanted to have sanals that were cool and not the sensible ones their mothers
preferred.
Look(16)........over recent times, there seem to be two main differences in the way fashions have changed
compared to earlier time. Firstly, (17).................more people have a choice of clothes available to them. There
are few places in the world where the trainers, the caps or the T-shirts of teenagers do not
Change from one year to the next. Secondly, styles are (18)………….within a much shorter time than they used
to be. For instance, in the 1960s, (19)……….. had the same low waists and narrow skirts as fourty years before
.In the early years of the 21st century, the shops are full of long skirts and colored scarves like the ones in
fashion only thirty years before. Soon, we will find that the really fashionable people look no different from the
rest of us, because it is only ten years since their clothes were in fashion before!
Question 15. A. way B. doubt C. chance D. matter
Question 16. A. about B. round C. behind D. back
Question 17. A. far B. some C. even D. much
Question 18. A. exchanged B. returned C. repeated D. accepted
Question 19. A. jackets B. blouses C. trousers D. dresses
164984 Mark the letter A,B,C,D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following question.
Question 20. A smile can be observed, described, and reliablly identify, it can also be elicited and manipulated
under experimental conditions.
A.identify B. experimental C. can also D. A smile
Question 21. A food additive is any chemical that food manufacturers intentional add to their products
A.products B. intentional C. any chemical D. additive
Question 22. A number of the American Indian languages spoken at the time of the European arrival in the
New World in the late fifteen century have become extinct.
A.spoken B. fifteen C. at the time D. a number of
164991 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C , D on your answer sheet ti indicate the correct
answer to each of the question from 23 to 30
There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently linked to one
another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when they hit.
However, tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them.
The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the outer layer of the
Earth. It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it is comprised of a number of plates. There are a few enormous
plates and many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the
plates are in constant –yet slow – motion. The plates may move away from or toword other plates. In some
cases, they collide violently with the plates adjoining them. The movement of the plates causes tension in the
rock. Over a long time, this tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake happens.
Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only scientific
instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they cause little harm
or damage. More More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to
3
collapse . They may additionally injure and kill thousands of people and might even cause the land to change its
appearance.
Since most of the Earth „s surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet‟s oceans.
Underwater earthquakes can cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of water in the ocean .
When this occurs , a stunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all directions
from the place where the earthquake happened. A stunami moves extremely quickly and can travel thousands of
kilometres. As it approaches land, the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea . This causes the stunami to
increase in height. Minutes later, the stunami arrives. A large stunami – one more than ten meters in height- can
travel far inland. As it does that, it can flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of
people.
Question 23: Which of the following statements does paragraph 1 support ?
A. A stunami happens in tandem with an earthquake .
B. The most severe type of nature disaster is an earthquake.
C. Earthquakes cause more destruction than tsunamis
D. Earthquakes frequently take place after tsunamis
Question 24. The word “it” in bold in paragraph 2 refers to……………
A. The core B.The crust C. The earth D. The mantle
Question 25: What is the passage mainly about?
A. When earthquakes are the most likely to happen
B. What kind of damage natural disasters can cause
C. How earthquakes and stunami occur
D. Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes
Question 26: The word “ adjoining “ in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to……
A. Residing B. Approaching C. Bodering D. Appearing
Question 27: The word “ perceive” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to…………..
A. Detect B. Prevent C. Comprehend D. Locate
Question 28: Which of the following is true regarding the ?
A. It is the smallest of the Earth „s three layers
B. It is thcker on land than it is under the water crust
C. There are many separate pieces that make it up
D. The mantle beneath it keeps it from moving too much
Question 29: Based on the passage, what is probably true about stunamis?
A. They kill more people each yer than earthquakes
B. B. They are able to move as fast as the speed of the sound
C. They can damage shps sailing on the ocean
D. They can be deadly to people standing near the shore
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes ?
A. How severe the majority of them are
B. What kind of damage they can cause
C. How often powerful ones take place
D. How many people they typically kill.
4
165002 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the floowing questions.
Question 31. A. nowadays B. dykes C. ruins D. pesticides
Question 32: A. opposite B. economic C. appropriate D. technology
165005 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges
Question 33: Is it all right if I use your bike?
A. Pleace accept it with my best wishes. B. Go straight ahead
C. Sure, go ahead D. Oh, sorry
Question 34: What do you think about the election?
A. I must be off. Thank you B. The Democratic Party had to win
C. Really? The Repullican Party won D. The Democratic should have won
165008 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that dest combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 35: The leader went so fast that no one could keep up with him
A. If only the leader had gone faster
B. What a fast leader!
C. If the leader hadn‟t gone so fast, we could have kept up with him
D. I wish the leader could not have kept up with us
Question 36. Mary lost the ticket. She didn‟t go to the concert
A. If Mary had lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert
B. Had Mary not lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert
C. Hadn‟t Mary lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert
D. If Mary hadn‟t lost the ticket, she would go to the concert
165011 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
Question 37: A magician is an enter tainer who performs a series of deceptive tricks based on the principles of
physics, optics, and psychology.
A. skillful B. incomprehesible C. misleading D. obvious
Question 38: The adhesive qualities of this new substance far surpass those of all other of its type.
A. disintegrating B. dissolving C. damaging D. sticky
165014 Mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 39: Andrea has a________rug on the floor in her bedroom.
A. sheepskin lovely long white B. long lovely white sheepskin
C. lovely long sheepskin white D. lovely long white sheepskin
Question 40: I haven‟t_______decided where to go on holiday
A. already B. yet C. still D. just
Question 41: Computers that once took up entire rooms are now______to put on desktops and into
wristwatches.
5
A. small enough B. smaller than C. so small D. as small as

Question 42: The average________watches television for about 15 hours a week.
A. spectator B. observer C. audience D. viewer
Question 43. Although Brenda came last, everyone agreed she had_______her best.
A. had B. got C. done D. made
Question 44. We didn‟t_______to the station in time to catch the train
A.reach B. get C. make D. arrive
Question 45. Bill took not only a French class_______a Japanese class
A.but too B. too C. but also D. and
Question 46: Sharon did not attend the meeting because she was_______the weather
A.under B. in C. due to D. on
Question 47: One prefers to shop at Harrods, ________?
A.isn‟t it B. doesn‟t one C. don‟t you D. isn‟t one
Question 48: How many______the game is still unknown.
A. fans attended B. fans attending D. did fan attend D. has attended
Question 49: The second bus_______didn‟t stop either.
A.that was full B. what was full C. which was full D. that was full
Question 50:________here for hours and I fleel tired.
A.I have stood B. I‟m standing C. I have been standing D. I had been standing
...................THE END........................
6
Question 1 B Question 11 D Question 21 B Question 31 B Question 41 A

Question 2 D Question 12 D Question 22 B Question 32 C Question 42 D
Question 3 D Question 13 A Question 23 A Question 33 C Question 43 C
Question 4 C Question 14 B Question 24 B Question 34 D Question 44 B
Question 5 B Question 15 B Question 25 C Question 35 C Question 45 C
Question 6 B Question 16 B Question 26 C Question 36 B Question 46 A
Question 7 D Question 17 C Question 27 A Question 37 C Question 47 B
Question 8 D Question 18 C Question 28 C Question 38 D Question 48 A
Question 9 B Question 19 D Question 29 D Question 39 D Question 49 C
Question 10 A Question 20 A Question 30 C Question 40 B Question 50 C
7
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHUẨN BỊ CHO

TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN Tháng 02/2017
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
172085 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. bared B. supposed C. sacrificed D. maintained
Question 2: A. driven B. mine C. wildlife D. climate
172090 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. enormous B. restaurant C. petroleum D. develop
Question 4: A. eastward B. frighten C. study D. compare
172095 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
Question 5: This is the first time Janet has taken so difficult class, but she plans to complete it
A. first B. taken C. so difficult D. complete
Question 6: Even when graduate of a reputable business school has proper credentials, he or she may have
difficulty finding a job due to lack of practical experience.
A. when graduate B. reputable C. difficulty D. lack
Question 7: He enjoyed not only riding his bike but also the scenery.
A. enjoyed B. not only C. but also D. the scenery
172100 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
Question 8: Why so many people die from thus illness ___ unknown, but researchers have learned much about
the source of the problem.
A. is B. are C. widely D. has
Question 9: James would rather ___ at that restaurant.
A. not to eat B. to not eat C. not eat D. not ate
Question 10: The clown was wearing a ___ wig and a red nose.
A. funny plastic red B. funny red plastic C. red plastic funny D. red funny plastic
Question 11: That carcinogenic substances ___ in many common household items is well-known.
A. are contained B. contained C. containing D. are containing
Question 12: Hurricanes ___ during this time of year.
A. almost occur B. occur almost never C. almost never occur D. never occur almost
Question 13: To give an effective speech, ___ is the delivery that is most important.
A. it B. which C. and D. there
Question 14: We‟ve got a very ___ teacher, who doesn‟t mind if we are bit late.
1
A. broad-minded B. open-minded C. easygoing D. tolerated

Question 15: The co-pilot had to ___ when the pilot suffered chest pains.
A. hand over B. take on C. hand on D. take over
Question 16: Having been found guilty of theft, ___ to find work in his chosen field as an accountant.
A. was difficult for Henry Jones B. Henry Jones found it difficult
C. found Henry Jones difficult D. it was found by Henry Jones difficult
Question 17: If Mr. Smith ___ me the job, I‟d turn it down.
A. were offered B. were to offer C. offered D. were offer
Question 18: Uncle Jack is very ill, but he could recover completely. When there is life there is ___.
A. faith B. breath C. healing D. hope
Question 19: Hardly anyone knows about the incident, ___?
A. do they B. don‟t they C. doesn‟t D. does he
172114 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - What did I do wrong?
- _______
A. You didn‟t have to connect these two wires.
B. You shouldn‟t connect these two wires like that
C. You shouldn‟t have connected these two wires.
D. You mustn‟t connect these two wires like that.
Question 21: - Do you like my new shoes?
- ______
A. Where did you buy them? B. How long are they?
C. Would you like them? D. Thank you.
172119 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
Question 22: The systems caused by ingestion of a harmful chemical must be counteracted within minutes in
order to avoid permanent damage to the kidneys and other vital organs.
A. alleviated B. increased C. distributed D. summed up
Question 23: An Alzheimer patient‟s incomprehensible ramblings will frequently upset family members, who
may take the statements personally.
A. rude B. personal C. loud D. unintelligible
172124 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 24: A child‟s feeling of well-being depends upon familial harmony.
A. decline B. discord C. decrease D. balance
Question 25: The presentation by Dr. Dineen was self-explanatory.
A. bright B. enlightening C. confusing D. discouraging
2
172128 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
Question 26: It wasn‟t necessary for me to go out after all.
A. I didn‟t need go out after all. B. I needn‟t have gone out after all.
C. I needn‟t go out after all. D. I didn‟t need to have gone out after all.
Question 27: “I was walking home when I saw the accident yesterday.” James said.
A. James said he had been walking home when he had seen the accident the day before.
B. James said was walking home when he had seen the accident the day before.
C. James said he had been walking home when he saw the accident the day before.
D. James said he was walking home when he saw the accident the day before.
Question 28: When she heard the results, Mary began to feel more confident.
A. Since hearing the results Mary has become more confident.
B. Since hearing the results is has been for Mary to become confident.
C. Because of hearing the results, Mary has begun to feel more confident.
D. Since hearing the results Mary has begun to feel more confident.
172133 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentence in the following questions.
Question 29: My friend Albert as decided to buy a motorbike. His car was stolen last week.
A. My friend Albert whose car was stolen last week has decided to buy a motorbike.
B. My friend Albert, whose car was stolen last week, has decided to buy a motorbike.
C. My friend Albert has decided to buy a motorbike has his car stolen last week.
D. My friend Albert has decided to buy a motorbike which car stolen last week.
Question 30: You usually drive fast. You use more petrol than usual.
A. The faster you drive, the more you use petrol.
B. The more fast you drive, the more petrol you use.
C. The more you drive fast, the more you use petrol.
D. The faster you driver, the more petrol you use.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Don’t forget your hat
An important point to remember if you like spending time out in an open air is that human head doesn‟t work
very well outdoor if it becomes too hot , cold or wet. That‟s why a hat is a good investment, whenever you are
planning to go out and about . Surprisingly, a single waterproof hat with a brim will do the
(31)………………… adequately in most conditions.
In cold climates, the problem is that the head is (32)……………………. heat all the time. As much as fifty to
sixty per cent of your body‟s heat is lost through the head and neck, (33)………………………… on which
scientist you believe. Clearly this heat loss needs to be prevented, but it‟s important to remember that hats don‟t
actually keep you warm, they simply stop heat escaping.
3
Just as important is the need to protect your neck from the effects of bright sunlight, and the brim of your hat
will do this. If you prefer a baseball cap, (34)……………………… buying one that has a drop down „tail‟ at
the back to stop your neck getting sunburnt.
And in wet weather (10)………………….., hats are often more practical than pooling up the hood of your
waterproof coat because when you turn your head, the hat goes with you, whereas the hood usually does not.
Question 31. A. job B. task C. role D. duty
Question 32. A. giving away B. sending out C. dropping off D. running down
Question 33. A. according B. regarding C. depending D. relating
Question 34. A. consider B. recommend C. advise D. suggest
Question 35. A. occasions B. positions C. cases D. conditions
Did you know that you do not have to be a chemist to invent something? An example of chemistry invention
that was made by a non-scientist is Liquid Paper. In 1952, a divorced woman named Bette Nesmith Graham
needed to work to support herself and her son. Life was very difficult for a single mother. [1] She soon found a
job as a typist, but she was not very good at it. [2] She made a lot of errors typing leading her to formulate a
white tempura paint to hide them. [3] Using her kitchen as a laboratory, she developed a liquid that other people
wanted to buy and use. She named this liquid “Mistake Out” [4]
While continuing to work as a secretary, she educated herself in business methods, promotion, and research
until she was satisfied that the product she had developed was really worthwhile. Sometimes around 1952 she
offered “Mistake Out” to IBM, which turned it down. From 1952 until 1979 she continued to make and sell
“Mistake Out”, now renamed “Liquid Paper”, out of her home. In 1979, the Gillette Corporation bought “Liquid
Paper” for $47.5 million dollars plus royalties.
Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
A. The Life of Bette Nesmith Graham B. The Process of Manufacturing “Liquid Paper”
C. How an Ordinary Person Became an Inventor D. The Importance of Science Education
Question 37: The author probably started this passage with a question in order to____.
A. catch the reader‟s attention
B. raise an objection against a non-scientist‟s invention
C. express curiosity about the history of invention
D. none of the above
Question 38: The word „formulate’ in bold in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to____.
A. use B. think about C. make D. correct
Question 39: What did Graham do at the same time that she educated herself in business?
A. She made and sold “Liquid Paper” B. She worked as a consultant for IBM
4
C. She worked as a secretary D. She continued inventing new products.

Question 40: What can be inferred abut Graham?
A. She was uninterested in science B. She was very determined to succeed
C. She was not ambitious D. She was a scientific genius.
Question 41: The word ‘it’ in bold in the second paragraph refers to___.
A. IBM B. „Mistake Out‟ C. research D. none of above
Question 42: Which is the best place for the following sentence?
“She soon realized that this paint could be useful to other people as well”.
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
172157 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Competition
Rivalry among business and service industries is called competition. This feature of a market economy
encourages business to improve their good and services, keep their prices affordable, and offer new products to
attract more buyers.
There are four basic types of competition in business that form a continuum from pure competition through
monopolistic competition and oligopoly to monopoly. (See diagram) At one end of the continuum, pure
competition results when every company has a similar product. Companies that deal in commodities such as
wheat or corn are often involved in pure competition. In Pure Competition, it is often the ease and efficiency of
distribution that influences purchase.
In contrast, in monopolistic competition, several companies may compete for the sale of items that may be
substituted. The classic example of monopolistic competition is coffee and tea. If the price of one is perceived
as too high, consumers may begin to purchase the other. Coupons and other discounts are often used as part of a
marketing strategy to influence sales.
Oligopoly occurs when a few companies dominate the sales of a product or service. For example, only five
airline carriers control more than 70 percent of all ticket sales in the United States. In oligopoly, serious
competition is not considered desirable because it would result in reduced revenue for every company in the
group. Although price wars do occur, in which all companies offer substantial savings to customers, a
somewhat similar tendency to raise prices simultaneously is also usual.
s
The following chart represents the competition continuum.
Most………………..Competition……………………Least
Pure Monopolistic - oligopoly - Monopoly

competition
Question 43: Which of the following would be a better title for the passage?
A. Monopolies B. The Commodity Market
C. The Competition Continuum D. The Best Type of Competition
Question 44: An example of a product in monopolistic competition is______.
A. corn B. electricity C. airline D. coffee
5
Question 45: The word „tolerated’ in the passage could best be replaced by_____.
A. permitted B. reserved C. criticized D. devised
Question 46: Where in the passage does the author explain pure competition?
A. paragraph 2 B. paragraph 3 C. paragraph 4 D. paragraph 5
Question 47: What does the author mean by the following statement: “Although price wars do occur, in which
all companies offer substantial savings to customers, a somewhat similar tendency to raise prices
simultaneously is also usual?”
A. Customers may love money when companies have price wars
B. It is common for companies to compare for customers by lowering prices.
C. It is not unusual for all companies to increase prices at the same time.
D. Prices are lower during price wars, but they are usually higher afterward.
Question 48: Which type of competition is subject to the greatest government control?
A. Oligopolies B. Monopolies C. Monopolies competition D. Pure competition
Question 49: The author mentions all of the following as characteristic of monopoly EXPECT___.
A. only on firm B. government control
C. Basic or essential services D. the use of coupons or other discounts
Question 50: It can be inferred that this passage was first printed in___.
A. a business text book B. a government document
C. an airline brochure D. a newspaper
.......................THE END.......................
6
Question 1 C Question 11 A Question 21 A Question 31 A Question 41 B

Question 2 A Question 12 C Question 22 A Question 32 B Question 42 C
Question 3 B Question 13 A Question 23 D Question 33 C Question 43 C
Question 4 D Question 14 C Question 24 B Question 34 A Question 44 D
Question 5 C Question 15 D Question 25 C Question 35 D Question 45 A
Question 6 A Question 16 B Question 26 B Question 36 C Question 46 A
Question 7 D Question 17 B Question 27 C Question 37 A Question 47 C
Question 8 A Question 18 D Question 28 A Question 38 C Question 48 B
Question 9 C Question 19 C Question 29 B Question 39 C Question 49 D
Question 10 B Question 20 A Question 30 D Question 40 B Question 50 A
7
SỞ GD&ĐT THÁI BÌNH ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC LẦN 3

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN Năm học: 2016-2017
MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 12
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mã đề: 210
(Đề thi gồm có 04 trang)
(172452) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 1: The players’ protests _____ no difference to the referee’s decision at all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
Question 2: Peter, Harry and Chuck were the first, second and third _____ in the school cross-country race.
A. respectively B. actively C. responsively D. tremendously
Question 3: By using all the latest technology, the yacht-man managed to cross the Altanlic in _____ time
A. record B. lightning C. top D. quickest
Question 4: Why _____ Peter to the party? He is always making trouble.
A. don’t we invite B. don’t you invite C. not invite D. invite
Question 5: The speaker fails to get his message _____ to his audience.
A. around B. in C. across D. out
Question 6: You are under no obligation _____ to accept this offer.
A. whatsoever B. eventually C. apart D. indeed
Question 7: There’s a lot more to Willie than one woud think: still waters run _____.
A. deep B. deeply C. deepness D. depth
Question 8: The ideas _____ to nothing because I couldn’t afford to do it.
A. went B. came C. turned D. changed
Question 9: You can always _____ Ann to give you sound advice.
A. bank of B. bank for C. bank at D. bank on
Question 10: His emotional problems _____ from the attitudes he encountered as a child, I think.
A. stem B. flourish C. root D. sprout
Question 11: _____ no money would be wasted, we will use energy more efficiently.
A. so that B. in order that C. in order to D. A&B
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Question 12: Interpreting is not a mechanical process of converting a sentence in language A into a sentence in
language B. _____, it is a comlex art.
A. But B. In addition C. Rather D. However
Question 13: “Shall we eat out tonight?” – “_____.”
A, That’s understandable. B. That’s a great idea.
C. It is very kind of you to invite me. D. You are very welcome.
Question 14: “You have a wonderful garden!” – “_____.”
A. I can’t believe it! B. It’s my pleasure.
C. Yours is great too! D. Don’t mention it!
(172467) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. permanent B. continue C. complete D. relationship
Question 16: A. endanger B. geometry C. opposite D. geography
(172470) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 17: Nancy concurred with her boss about the new direction the company was taking.
A. disagreed B. agreed C. surrendered D. confessed
Question 18: “We strongly believe that he’s innocent of the crime. We do not think that he did it.”
A. clean B. guilty C. faultless D. crimeless
(172473) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions
Question 19: A. oases B. goose C. horse D. crisis
Question 20: A. capable B. angle C. danger D. ancient
(172476) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 21: Not until 1946 did the world chess governing body, FIDE, assert its control over international
championship play.
A. declare B. relinquish C. petition D. decrease
Question 22: All classifications of human societies and cultures are arbitrary.
2
A. useful B. haphazard C. insufficient D. ambiguous
(172479) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 23: Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to your arrest.
A. If you refused to be arrested, you have to give a breath sample.
B. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
C. If a breath sample is not given, the police will refuse to arrest you.
D. The police could cause you to give a breath sample to decide whether to arrest you or not.
Question 24: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
Question 25: I spent a long time getting over the disappointment of losing the match.
A. It took me long to stop disappointing you,
B. Getting over the disappointment took me a long time than the match.
C. Losing the match disappointed me too much.
D. It took me long to forget the disappointment of losing the match.
Question 26: They don’t let the workers use the office telephone for personal calls.
A. They don’t allow using the office telephone to call personal secretaries.
B. They don’t allow workers to use the office telephone.
C. the office telephone is used by workers personally.
D. They don’t let the office telephone be used for personal purpose by workers.
Question 27: He said that listening to loud music through headphones for too long caused my headache.
A. listening to loud music through headphones for too long resulted from my headache.
B. My headache resulted in listening to loud music through headphones for too long.
C. listening to loud music through headphones for too long was said to cause my headache.
D. My headache is said to cause by listening to loud music through headphones for too long.
(172485) Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
3
Some animal behaviorists argue that certain animals can remember past events, anticipate future ones, make
plans and choices, and coordinate activities within a group. These scientists, however, are cautious about the
extent to which animals can be credited with conscious processing.
Explanations of animal behavior that leave out any sort of consciousness at all and ascribe actions entirely to
instinct leave many questions unanswered. One example of such unexplained behavior: Honeybees
communicate the sources of nectar to one another by doing a dance in a figure-eight pattern. The orientation of
the dance conveys the position of the food relative to the sun's position in the sky, and the speed of the dance
tells how far the food source is from the hive. Most researchers assume that the ability to perform and encode
the dance is innate and shows no special intelligence. But in one study, when experimenters kept changing the
site of the food source, each time moving the food 25 percent farther from the previous site, foraging honeybees
began to anticipate where the food source would appear next. When the researchers arrived at the new location,
they would find the bees circling the spot, waiting for their food. No one has yet explained how bees, whose
brains weigh four ten-thousandths of an ounce, could have inferred the location of the new site.
Other behaviors that may indicate some cognition include tool use. Many animals, like the otter who uses a
stone to crack mussel shells, are capable of using objects in the natural environment as rudimentary tools. One
researcher has found that mother chimpanzees occasionally show their young how to use tools to open hard
nuts. In one study, chimpanzees compared two pairs of food wells containing chocolate chips. One pair might
contain, say, five chips and three chips, the other our chips and three chips. Allowed to choose which pair they
wanted, the chimpanzees almost always chose the one with the higher total, showing some sort of summing
ability. Other chimpanzees have learned to use numerals to label quantities of items and do simple sums.
Question 28: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Observations that suggest consciousness in animal behavior.
B. The use of food in studies of animal behavior.
C. The role of instinct in animal behavior.
D. Differences between the behavior of animals in their natural environments and in laboratory experiments.
Question 29: Which of the following is NOT discussed as an ability animals are thought to have?
A. Communicating emotions B. Remembering past experiences
C. Selecting among choices D. Anticipating events to come
Question 30: What did researchers discover in the study of honeybees discussed in paragraph 2?
A. Bees are able to travel at greater speeds than scientists thought.
B. The bees were able to determine in advance where scientists would place their food.
C. Changing the location of food caused bees to decrease their dance activity.
D. The bees could travel 25% farther than scientists expected.
4
Question 31: It can be inferred from the passage that brain size is assumed to ___________.
A. be an indicator of cognitive ability B. be related to food consumption
C. correspond to levels of activity D. vary among individuals within a species
Question 32: Why are otters and mussel shells included in the discussion in paragraph 3?
A. To provide that certain species demonstrate greater ability in tool use than other species.
B. To provide an example of tool use among animals.
C. To show that animals are very good at using objects in their habitat.
D. To provide an example of the use of weapons among animals.
Question 33: The word “rudimentary” is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. technical B. basic C. superior D. original
Question 34: Scientists concluded from the experiment with chimpanzees and chocolate chips that chimpanzees
__________.
A. prefer to work in pairs or groups
B. have difficulty selecting when given choices
C. lack abilities that other primates have
D. exhibit behavior that indicates certain mathematical abilities
(172493) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks
Television has changed the lifestyle of people in every industrialized country in the world. In the United States,
where sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting observations have been made.
TV, although not essential, has become a(n) (35) ______ part of most people’s lives. It has become a baby-
sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major transmitter of culture, and a keeper of traditions. Yet when what can
be seen on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it becomes evident that TV is not a teacher but a sustainer. The
poor quality of programs does not elevate people into greater (36) ______, but rather maintains and encourages
the status quo.
The (37) ______ reason for the lack of quality in American TV is related to both the history of TV
development and the economics of TV. TV in American began with the radio. Radio companies and their
sponsors first experimented with TV. Therefore, the close relationship, which the advertisers had with radio
programs, but many actually produced the programs. Thus, (38) ______ from the capitalistic, profit- oriented
sector of American society, TV is primarily concerned with reflecting and attracting society (39) ______ than
innovating and experimenting with new ideas. Advertisers want to attract the largest viewing audience possible;
to do so requires that the programs be entertaining rather than challenging.
5
TV in America today remains, to a large extent, with the same organization and standards as it had thirty years
ago. The hope for some evolution and true achievement toward improving society will require a change in the
entire system.
Question 35: A. integral B. mixed C. fractional D. superior
Question 36: A. preconception B. knowledge C. understanding D. feeling
Question 37: A. adequate B. unknown C. inexplicable D. primary
Question 38: A. going B. leaving C. coming D. getting
Question 39: A. more B. rather C. less D. better
(172499) Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
In the very distant geological past, all animals were aquatic. The very first vertebrates or animals with
backbones, of which we have any fossil record, lived in water. These vertebrates, the fish, were adapted to
underwater living. Their streamlined bodies were covered with scales to reduce surface friction: they had
muscular tails so that they could swim swiftly in such a dense medium as water; and they were endowed with
gills for breathing underwater.
Descendants of fish-type ancestors crossed the seashore barrier and accommodated themselves to life on land.
As amphibians, they possessed limbs instead of fins and lungs instead of gills. But they never became
completely free of the bonds that tied them to the water; even today many amphibians return to the water to lay
their eggs.
Millions of years after the first clumsy amphibians crawled over the land, newer types of land dwellers
appeared, these animals give rise to the present-day reptiles and mammals. They were completely converted for
land dwelling, with bodies and biological activities far different from those of fish. With these special
adaptations, mammals have been able to colonize the woods and meadows, the deserts and high mountains,
often far removed from the sea.
Question 40: Of the animals with backbones, the first to appear were……
A. fish B. amphibians C. birds D. mammals
Question 41: Fish are suited to underwater life because of their……..
A. Gills B. All of the answers C. Streamlines shapes D. Scales
Question 42: The passage suggests that the first amphibians used their limbs to…..
A. jump B. run C. swim D. crawl
Question 43: The word “ descendants” is closest in meaning to
A. Grandchildren B. Ancestors C. Descenders D. Off spring
6
Question 44: An example of an amphibian’s incomplete adaptation to land life is…..

A. need to keep its skin wet B. return to water to lay eggs
C. inability to breathe air. D. Scales-covered skin
Question 45: Animals found desert living possible only…..
A. when they were fully adapted to land. B. after they could walk on two feet.
C. when they became amphibious D. if they migrated to sea periodically
Question 46: The seashore was a barrier for descendants of fish-type because……
A. crossing it required bodily changes. B. every attempt to cross it ended in death.
C. the land once rose much higher above the sea. D. once they crossed, there was no return.
Question 47: The adaptation process described in the article was completed……
A. By the receding of the sea B. Through biological changes
C. Over millions of years and Through biological changes D. Over millions of years
(172508) Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 48: The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.
Question 49: Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
Question 50: The most visible remind of the close relationship between the United States and France is the
famous Statue of Liberty, which stands in New York habor.
.............................THE END.............................
7
1 B 11 D 21 A 31 A 41 B
2 A 12 C 22 B 32 B 42 D
3 A 13 B 23 B 33 B 43 D
4 D 14 C 24 C 34 D 44 B
5 C 15 A 25 D 35 A 45 A
6 A 16 C 26 D 36 C 46 A
7 A 17 A 27 C 37 D 47 C
8 B 18 B 28 A 38 C 48 A
9 D 19 A 29 A 39 B 49 B
10 A 20 B 30 D 40 A 50 A
8
THOAI NGOC HAU HIGH SCHOOL
Full name:……………………………..Class:12………….. Date:……………….
THE FIRST TRIAL TEST INTO UNIVERSITY
School year: 2016 – 2017
Time allotted: 60 minutes
(156118) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
1. The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain.
A B C D
2. A turtle differs from other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of their own.
A B C D
3. It is a good idea to be careful in buying or purchasing magazines from salespersons who may
A B C D
come to your door.
(156122) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
4. No one has seen Linda since the day of the party.

A. Linda has not been seen since the day of the party.
B. Linda is nowhere to be seen at the party.
C. The party is going on without Linda.
D. No one has seen Linda for ages.
5. He talked about nothing except the weather.
A. He talked about everything including weather.
B. His sole topic of conversation was the weather.
C. He had nothing to say about the weather.
D. He said he had no interest in the weather.
6. He doesn’t study hard, so he can fail the exam.
A. If he studies hard, he won’t fail the exam.
B. If ha didn’t study hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam.
C. If he studied hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam.
D. If he hadn’t studied hard, he wouldn’t have failed the exam.
1
(156126) Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 11.
When you first apply for a job, you (7)………….not succeed in getting it. It’s always a good
(8)……………..to ask them to explain to you what prevent you from beating the other candidates.
Don’t complain about the situation, but ask them to advise you (9)……………….whta you can do
better next time. Perhaps the interviewer disapproved of or disagree with something you said. Perhaps
they just glanced at your application and saw something that made it easy to choose between you and
another candidate. Don’t regard it as a failure, but recognize it as a chance to learn more. (10)
……………….you don’t worry too much about it and continue to believe in yourself, you’ll eventually
find the chance you’ve been waiting for. Then, your family and friends will be able to
(11)…………..you on your success.
7. A. might B. wouldn’t C. won’t D. must

8. A. means B. opinion C. idea D. method
9. A. about B. of C. over D. in
10. A. As far as B. By far C. So far D. As long as
11. A. encourage B. congratulate C. promote D. depend
(156132) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitablr response to
12. Mrs Mai: “ ……………………” -> Mr. Brown: “ Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Your kid is naughty. B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?
C.Your child is just adirable. D. I can give your kid a lift to school.
13. Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are
going to have a date with each other later.
Laura: “ Well, it’s getting late. May be we could get together sometime.”
Ken: “………………………”
A. Nice to see back you. B. Take it easy.
C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call. D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it.
(156135) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning ti the underlined word(s) in each off the following questions.
14. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A.absolutely B. relevantly C. comparatively D. almost
2
15. From an airplane, the grasslands of the western prairie appear almost as uniform as a placid sea.
A. noisy B. calm C. seedy D. fake
(156138) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning ti the underlined word(s) in each off the following questions.
16. The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.

A. busy B. comfortable C.free D. relaxed
17. in most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. Optional B. mandatory C. beneficial D. constructive
(156141) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 18 to 25.
The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and the long-
term memory. This devision of the memory into phases is based on the length of time of the
memory.
Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind only for
a short period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer than
that unless the information enters the short-term memory.
Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as you are
actively using it. If you repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short -term memory as
long as you keeprepeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into long
term memory.
Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and years.
Information can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there through
memorization or when an idea or image enters your mind on its own.
18. The best title for this pasage would be……………………

A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory.
B. How long it takes to memorize.
C. The stages of human memory.
D. Human phases.
19. The three phases of memory discussed in the pasage are differentiated according to……………
A. The location in the brain
B. The period of time it takes to remember something
C. How the senses are involved in the memory.
D. How long the memory lasts.
3
20. The expression “ is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by…………….
A. Is on the top of B. is at the foot of C. depends on D. is below
21. According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest?
A. Sensory memory B. Active memory
C. Short-term memory D. Long-term memory
22. According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?
A. For as long as twenty minutes B. As long as it is being used.
C. After you have repeated it many times. D. When it has moved into long-term memory.
23. All of the following are TRUE about long – term memory EXCEPT that…………………
A. it has a very large capacity.
B. it can hold information.
C. it is possible to put information into it through memorization.
D. memorization is the only way that information can get there.
24. the expression “on its own” in the last sentence can be best replaced by “……………………..”
A. by itself B. in it own time C. with its possessions D. in only one way
25. It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of information for two
days, this is probably………………….
A. three phases of memeory B. the sensory memory
C. the short-term memory D. the long-term memory
(156150) Mark the letter A, B, C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions
26. Not only……………….the exam but she also got a scholarship.
A. dis she pass B. she passed C. she has passed D. has she passed
27. he was the first person…………….the room.
A. entering B. to enter C. to be enter D. having entered
28. Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep…………….with rapidly
changing technology.
4
A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace
29. The climate of China is similar in many ways to…………………
A. that of the United States B. which of the United States
C. the United States D. this of the United States
30. Western women are more ……………… than Asian women.
A. depend B. independent C. independently D. dependence
31. The twins look so much alike that no one can……………them…………….
A. take/ apart B. tell/ away C. tell/ apart D. take/ on
32. The teacher always………….that the students make an outline before writing a complete essay.
A. reports B. recommends C. tells D. says
33. I have no patience with gossips. What I told Bill was a secret. He………………it to you.
A. mustn’t read B. shouldn’t have repeated
C. mustn’t have repeated D. shouldn’t read
34. ………………..he was kidnapped by the Iraqui guerrillas yesterday has been confirmed.
A. That B. What C. If D. Unless
35. Air pollution poses a………………..to both human health and our environment.
A. jeopardy B. difficulty C. problem D. threat
36. The people who……………the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
37. The teacher had some exercise…………….at home yesterday so that he can correct them today.
A. be done B. to be done C. being done D. done
(156163) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices.
For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing
reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over
5
telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit
the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are
approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend
does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable
Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of
many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force
scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not
yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the
opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are
concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more
visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as
a work area, they never really get away from the office.
38: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. An overview of telecommuting. B. The failure of telecommuting.
C. The advantages of telecommuting. D. A definition of telecommuting.
39: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week. B. More than 8 million.
C. Fewer than last year. D. Fewer than estimated in USA Today.
40: The phrase “of no consequence” means…………………
A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant
41: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT……………
A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction with a group. D. The work place is in the home.
42: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to…………………..
A. telecommuters B. systems C. executives D. responsibilities
43: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees .
A. need regular interaction with their families.
6
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
44: The word “reluctant” in the third paragraph can best be replaced by .
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitant D. typical
(156171) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
45. A. economics B. conquerable C. capability D. optimistic
46. A. enthusiastic B. durability C. civilization D. humanitarian
(156174) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
47. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air
48. The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
(156177) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
49. A. thanked B. belonged C. cooked D. laughed
50. A. chemical B. approach C. achieve D. challenge
7
1 B 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 B
2 D 12 C 22 B 32 B 42 A
3 C 13 C 23 D 33 B 43 B
4 A 14 C 24 A 34 A 44 C
5 B 15 B 25 D 35 D 45 B
6 A 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 B
7 A 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 B
8 C 18 C 28 D 38 A 48 A
9 A 19 D 29 A 39 B 49 B
10 D 20 C 30 B 40 D 50 A

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Question 1: A. abilities B. possibilities C. techniques D. responsibilities

Question 2: A. payment B. expenses C. fares D. fees

Question 3: A. making B. creating C. holding D. giving

Question 4: A. accessible B. accessibly C. access D. accessibility

Question 5: A. well-being B. security C. comfort D. interests

Question 6: My first impression of her was her impassive face.

A. respectful B. emotional C. solid D. fractious

A. clear B. unintelligible C. explicable D. ambiguous

C. I hadn’t expected him to lecture on wildlife conservation, but he spoke well.

B. He was given neither the job nor the position.

C. Because he couldn’t do the job, he wasn’t given the position.

D. He got the position despite being unable to do the job.

A. The new cuts certainly worry the staff.

B. The new cuts will be certainly worry the staff.

C. The new cuts are bound to worry the staff.

D. The new cuts will be bound to worry the staff.

Question 11: A. involve B. control C. tonight D. purpose

Question 12: A. hurricane B. photograph C. recommend D. separate

Question 16: The topic of this passage is _______________.

D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.

A. food additives B. food colorings C. innutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates

A. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet B. Avoiding all Oriental foods

C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D. Eating more ripe bananas

A. available in book form

B. verified by researchers as being consistently effective

C. beneficial for hyperactive children

D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives

A. teasing B. threatening C. praising D. elevating

Question 25: The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.

A. confided himself B. surrendered

C. accommodated himself D. went up

A. They demanded that the book be reprinted immediately.

D. They demanded to reprint the book immediately.

Question 27: He did not work hard. He failed the exam.

A. Even though he failed the exam, he didn’t work hard.

B. Unless he had worked hard, he would have failed the exam.

C. If he had worked hard, he would have passed the exam.

D. However hard he worked, he failed the exam.

Question 28: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?

A. The absence of traditional payment methods

B. Predictions of future payment methods

C. Japan's advanced forms of payment

D. The increasing popularity of new payment methods

A. to exemplify the e-cash system

B. to criticize the e-cash system

C. to praise the e-cash system

D. to inform the e-cash system

A. faster speed B. no fraud C. fewer mistakes D. reduced cost

A. manufactured B. isolated C. integrated D generated

A. the modern technology of the e-cash system

B. a possible drawback of the system

C. the banks' cooperation with credit-card companies

D. the transferability of the system

A. Daily expenses on drinks and tickets will appear on phone statements.

B. Banks will collect their fees through credit-card companies.

C. Americans will no longer go to their local bank branches.

D. Credit-card companies and banks will want to promote cash.

A. neutral B. uncertain C. optimistic D. pessimistic

Question 35: “Can I use your computer?” – “_______.”

A. Well done. B. No, thanks. C. Of course D. Yes, I can

Question 36: “I’m sorry I’m late.” – “________.”

A. Never mind. Go ahead B. No worries. Come in, please.