Question Booklet Series – B Booklet No.

:–

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO

IMO GR–II
Time Allowed : 2 Hrs. Questions : 1–200

Roll No.: ............................................. OMR Sheet No. : ........................................

Name of the Candidate : .................................................................................................................................

(IN CAPITAL LETTERS)

(Signature of the Candidate) : ............................... Signature of the Invigilator) : ..................................

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misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming, intimate the same to
your room invigilator and have it changed. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you
should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so,
get it replaced by a complete test booklet.
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Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN
CAN NOT BE CHANGED.

3. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (a) to
(d). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet
and NOT in the Question Booklet.
4. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answer.
5. All questions are compulsory. Each question carries equal mark.
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folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to the answer sheet as well as incomplete/incorrect filling
of the answer sheet will be the sole responsibility of the candidate.
8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided for it in the booklet. No other paper will be
allowed/provided.
9. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other
study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any
question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed.
1. MAO inhibitors should not be used with? 10. True about lung carcinoma?
(a) Buprenorphine (b) Pethidine (a) More than 75% of lung cancers are squamous
(c) Pentazocine (d) Morphine cell type
(b) Oat cell carcinoma frequently show cavitation
2. Imatinib is useful in treatment of?
(c) Lung calcification is characteristically seen in
(a) Neurofibromatosis
oat cell carcinoma
(b) CD117 positive GIST
(d) Oat cell carcinoma is commonly associated
(c) Neuroendocrine tumors of pancreas
(d) Breast ca with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

3. Toxicity of Amphotericin B can be reduced by suing? 11. Not a cause of hemoptysis –

(a) Liquid preparation (a) Pneumonia (b) Bronchiectasis

(b) Granules (c) Empyema (d) Mitral stenosis
(c) Liposomal preparation 12. Rampal, 45 year old man presents with history of
(d) Subcutaneously recurrent hemoptysis and purulent sputum. His
4. Which of the following form of steroid base is chest X-Ray is normal, which of the following
most potent? will be the next best investigation for him?

(a) Gel (b) Lotion (a) HRCT

(c) Ointment (d) Cream (b) CT guided angiography
(c) Angiography
5. Treatment of choice for patient with (d) Spiral CT
meningococcal meningitis who is allergic to
penicillin? 13. Smoking is generally not associated as a risk
factor with –
(a) Chloromphenicol (b) Meropenam
(c) Linezolid (d) Tiecoplanin (a) Small cell carcinoma
(b) Respiratory bronchiolitis
6. If a Patient receiving Linezolid therapy for 14 (c) Emphysema
days, which of the following should be (d) Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia
monitored?
14. Which of the following collagen disorder is NOT
(a) Renal function tests
commonly associated with pulmonary fibrosis–
(b) Liver enzyme assessment
(c) Platelet monitoring (a) SLE
(d) Monitoring of Reflex (b) Progressive systemic sclerosis
(c) Dermatomyositis
7. Characteristic feature of apoptosis? (d) Rheumatoid arthritis
(a) Cell membrane intact
15. Which of the following is not true about the
(b) Cytoplasmic eosinophilia
autistic specific disorders?
(c) Nuclear moulding
(d) Cell swelling (a) Impaired communication
(b) Impaired imagination
8. Following are Granulomatous vasculitis (c) Language development is delayed
except? (d) Vision problems
(a) Chrug straus disease
16. A school going boy was noted with vacant stare
(b) Takayasu’s arteritis
several times a day. There was no history of fever,
(c) Wegener’s granulomatosis
seizures and neurological deterioration. What is
(d) Burger’s disease
the diagnosis?
9. Bronchiectasis is most common in which lobe– (a) Atonic sezures
(a) Right upper lobe (b) Absence seizures
(b) Right middle lobe (c) Myoclonic seizures
(c) Left upper lobe
(d) School phobia
(d) Left lower lobe
IMO [B-1]
17. True about Wilson’s disease? 24. Which of the following is not true about
(a) Increase in urinary copper and increased idiopathic pulmonary Hemosiderosis –
serum ceruloplasmin and copper (a) Iron deficiency anemia (b) Eosinopenia
(b) Increase serum ceruloplasmin levels with (c) ↑ Bilirubin (d) ↑ Reticulocyte count
increased urinary copper
(c) Elevated hepatic copper level and increased 25. A truck driver has chronic cough with fever
serum ceruloplasmin levels since one month. Chest x-ray show bilateral
(d) Increase in urinary copper and decreased reticulonodular infiltrates in mid and lower
serum ceruloplasmin zones. Which of the following is possible
diagnosis?
18. Most common cause of genital ulcer in a HIV (a) Tuberculosis
patient? (b) ILD
(a) Syphilis (b) Chlamydia (c) Pneumococcal pneumonia
(c) Herpes (d) Gonorrhoea (d) Pneumocystis carini pneumonia

19. A 60 year old female was given anaesthesia for 26. All of the following conditions are observed in
a prolonged surgery. After surgery she was Gout. except –
extubated but was found to have poor (a) Uric acid nephrolithiasis00
respiration with BP of 100/80 mm of Hg. Blood (b) Deficiency of enzyme X anthine oxidase
analysis revealed PCO2=200 and the blood pH (c) Increase is serum urate concentration
was 7.42. What is the diagnosis? (d) Renal disease involving interstitial tissues
(a) Respiratory failure
(b) Intraoperative hypoxia 27. Most common organism associated with
(c) Incomplete recovery from muscle relaxants reactive arthritis is –
(d) None of these (a) Staphylococcus (b) Shigella
(c) Chlamydia (d) Yersinia
20. Which of the following is not a Behaviour
Therapy technique? 28. All of the following are true about Raynaud’s
(a) Flooding disease except –
(b) Counter-transference (a) More common in females
(c) Counter-conditioning (b) Positive antinuclear antibodies
(d) Systematic desensitisation (c) Most common cause of raynaud’s phenomenon
(d) Has good prognosis
21. Vaginal sphincter is formed by all except –
(a) Internal urethral sphincter 29. The following condition is not associated with an
(b) External urethral sphincter increased anion-gap type of metabolic acidosis-
(c) Pubovaginalis (a) Shock
(d) Bulbospongiosus (b) Ingestion of ante-freeze
(c) Diabetic keto-acidosis
22. Osteomeatal complex refers to –
(d) COPD
(a) Maxillary ostium, ethmoid infundibulum, hiatus
semilunaris and frontal recess 30. Positive urinary anion gap is found in –

(b) Frontal recess, inferior meatus, sphenoid sinus (a) Alcholic ketoacidosis
(b) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(c) Hiatus semilunaris maxillary ostium,
(c) Renal tubular acidosis
sphenoeth moid recess
(d) Diarrhea
(d) None of the given options
31. The cause for Resurgent malaria are following
23. Muscle spindle detects – except?
(a) Tension (a) Inadequate vector control
(b) Length (b) Mosquito mutations
(c) Proprioception (c) Improper use of drug treatment
(d) Stretch (d) Increase in the number Plasmodium species
IMO [B-2]
32. Which of the following disease is inherited only 41. Primary impact injury most commonly
in males? involves?
(a) Autosomal dominant (a) Brain (b) Abdomen
(b) Autosomal recessive (c) Neck (d) Legs
(c) X-linked dominant
(d) X-linked recessive 42. The path of which of the following bullet can be
followed after shot from gun?
33. True about antiphospholipid antibody (a) Incendiary bullet (b) Ricochet bullet
syndrome include following: (c) Tracer bullet (d) Tandem bullet
(a) Bleeding (b) Thrombosis
(c) Recurrent fetal loss (d) Autoimmune disease 43. A 30 years old female married five years back
died. Under which of following, autopsy of this
34. Which of the following test should be first done patient should be conducted?
in non-mismatch blood transfusion reaction? (a) CrPC 174 (b) CrPC 176
(a) Direct Coomb’s test (c) CrPC 304 (d) CrPC 306
(b) Indirect Coomb’s test
(c) Antibodies in donor’s serum 44. Rural-urban difference is not seen with?
(d) Antibodies in recepient’s serum (a) Chronic bronchitis (b) Schizophrenia
(c) Lung cancer (d) Tuberculosis
35. Beck’s triad:
(a) Right Ventricular Infarction 45. Mass immunization is indicated in the following
(b) Constrictive pericarditis except?
(c) Restrictive Pericarditis (a) Leprosy (b) Cholera
(d) Cardiac Temponade (c) Influenza (d) Polio

36. True about third heart sound? 46. “ASHA” stands for Accredited Social Health
(a) Heard due to contraction of right ventricle Activist:
(b) Loud in ASD (a) Accredited Social Health Activist
(c) Can be heard in constrictive pericarditis (b) Appointed Social Health Activist
(d) Soft in cardiac temponade (c) Advanced Social Health Activist
(d) Attached Health Activist
37. Drugs used in management of migraine include
the following except? 47. JSY stands for?
(a) Valproate (b) Ethosuximide (a) Janani Social Yojna
(c) Topiramate (d) Verapamil (b) Jan Suchil Yojna
(c) Janani Suraksha Yojna
38. Serotonin syndrome caused by the following (d) Jan Sulab-sauchalay Yojna
except:
(a) Chlorpromazine (b) Sumatriptan 48. Which of the following predisposes to
(c) TCA (d) RIMA atherosclerosis?
(a) Insulin deficiency
39. Pathology in motor neuron disease is at? (b) Hyperestrogenemia
(a) Anterior horn cells (c) Anaemia
(b) Posterior column tracts (d) Testosterone loss
(c) NMJ
(d) Peripheral nervous system 49. The most common oncogenic human papiloma
virus?
40. Brown tumor of bone is seen in? (a) HPV–16 (b) HPV–18
(a) Hyperparathyroidism (c) HPV–31 (d) HPV–33
(b) Hypoparathyroidism 50. Most important investigation in VVF?
(c) Hypothyroidism
(a) Three swab test (b) IVP
(d) Hyperthyroidism (c) Cystoscopy (d) Vaginal culture
IMO [B-3]
51. In a lady with threatened abortion, which of the 59. ‘CURB-65’ includes–
following would not be useful with intact (a) PaO2 less than 65 mm
membrane? (b) Coagulopathy
(a) Antibiotic prophylaxis (c) Severe Azotemia
(b) Best rest (d) Base deficit (acidosis)
(c) Analgesics
(d) HCG monitoring 60. The agent of choice for controlling heparin
induced bleeding is–
52. Which of the following is the best to assess (a) Protamine sulphate (b) Injectable vitamin K
endometrial cycle? (c) Whole blood (d) Fresh frozen plasma
(a) Hormonal profile
(b) Body temperature changes 61. Northern blotting is used for analysis of –
(c) Ferning test (a) DNA (b) RNA
(d) Spinbarket pattern (c) Proteins (d) Polysaccharides

53. Which of the following is not seen in human 62. Rapid infusion of insulin causes –
beings? (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypokalemia
(a) Estrous cycle (c) Hypernatremia (d) Hyponatremia
(b) Menstrual cycle
63. Digitalis toxicity enchanced by A/E –
(c) Endometrial cycle
(d) Hormonal changes (a) Renal failure (b) Hyperkalemia
(c) Hypercalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia
54. A 18 year old patient presented with primary
amenorrhea. On examination her breast and 64. Best Test for intestinal malabsorption –
external genitalia are normal. She is most likely (a) D-xylose test (b) NBT-PABA TEST
suffering from? (c) Fecal fatestimation (d) Schilling test
(a) MKH syndrome
65. Plasma urea/creatinine ratio of 20:1 may be
(b) Turner’s syndrome
seen in –
(c) Noonan syndrome
(d) Andogen insensitivity (a) Rhabdomyolysis
(b) Ureteric calculi
55. PCOD predisposes to the following except? (c) Pre-renal failure
(a) Increased risk of Ovarian cancer (d) Chronic glomerulonephritis
(b) Endometrial cancer
66. Low calcium and high phosphate is seen in –
(c) Insulin resistance
(d) Osteoporosis (a) Hyperparathyroidism
(b) Hypoparathyroidism
56. The ‘a’ wave of jugular venous pulse is (c) Hyperthyroidism
produced by– (d) Hypothyroidism
(a) Atrial relaxation
67. The most effective contraceptive method
(b) Atrial systole
recommended in lactating mothers is –
(c) Atrial diastole
(d) Rapid venous filling (a) Barrier method
(b) Progesterone only pill
57. Calcium blocking agents of use in the treatment (c) Oral contraceptive pills
of hypertension include – (d) Lactational amenorrhea
(a) Prazosin (b) Lidoflazine
68. What is the drug of choice for emergency
(c) Captopril (d) Nifedipine
contraception?
58. Most important predictor of coronary artery (a) Yuzpe regimen (combined oral pill)
disease– (b) High dose oestrogen alone
(a) VLDL (b) LDL (c) Levonorgestrel only pill
(c) Chylomicron (d) HDL (d) Danazol
IMO [B-4]
69. The most characteristic presentation of 78. The principal steroid secreted by testis is –
fallopian tube carcinoma is – (a) Testosterone (b) Dihydrotestosterone
(a) Mass abdomen (c) Androstenidione (d) Dihydroepiandrosterone
(b) Bleeding per vaginum
(c) Excessive watery discharge per vaginum 79. Pacemaker regulating the rate of respiration –
(d) Pain abdomen (a) Pneumotaxic centre
(b) Dorsal group of nucleus
70. Feto-maternal transfusion is detected by– (c) Apneustic centre
(a) Kleihauer test (d) Pre-Bötzinger Complex
(b) Spectrophotometry
(c) Benzidine test 80. Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal
(d) Colorimetry spasm by–
(a) Stimulation of adrenergic fibers
71. The drug used for medical management of (b) Stimulation of cholinergic fibers
ectopic pregnancy is: (c) Inhibition of cold receptors
(a) Methotrexate (b) Misoprostol (d) Inhibition of heat receptors
(c) Mifepristone (d) Methyl ergometrine
81. Insulin secretion is inhibited by –
72. Infants born to mothers who are heavy drinkers (a) Secretin (b) Epinephrine
are at increased risk of which of the following (c) Growth hormone (d) Gastrin
problems?
(a) Mental retardation 82. NO is synthesized by –
(b) Chronic lever disease (a) Uracil (b) Aspartate
(c) Excessive birthweight (c) Guanosine (d) Arginine
(d) Chorioretinitis
83. A 55 year old overweight female was given
73. The estimated risk of uterine rupture in a woman Fentanyl-pancuronium-midazolam anaesthesia
with a previous lower segment uncomplicated for a surgery. After surgery she was extubated
cesarean section is approximately- and on examination her chest wall respiratory
(a) 0.5–2% (b) 4–6% motion was slow and she was unable to move
(c) 8–10% (d) 14–16% her upper body. She was conscious and able to
understand what was said, but was lacking
74. Test for ovarian reserve– respiratory effort. Her blood pressure was
(a) LH (b) LH/FSH ratio normal and heart rate was also normal. What is
(c) FSH (d) Estradiol the diagnosis?
(a) Pulmonary embolism
75. Most common nerve involved in the fracture of (b) Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity
surgical neck of humerus: (c) Respiratory depression
(a) Ulnar (b) Axillary (d) Recovery phase
(c) Median (d) Radial
84. Protein is purified using ammonium sulfate by–
76. In children, all are ture except: (a) Salting out
(a) Thick Periostenm (b) Ion exchange chromatography
(b) Soft Bones (c) Mass chromatography
(c) Dislocations are rare (d) Molecular size exclusion
(d) Comminuted fractures are common
85. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by the
77. Most common nerve involvement in Volkman’s deficiency of–
is chronic contracture is:
(a) Folic acid
(a) Ulnar nerve
(b) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
(b) Posterior interosseous nerve
(c) UMP synthase
(c) Median nerve
(d) Radial nerve (d) HGPRT

IMO [B-5]
86. In CRP, the C stands for – 95. Celiac plexus is located:
(a) Canavallin A (a) Anterolateral to aorta
(b) Cellular (b) Posterolateral to aorta
(c) Chondoitin sulfate (c) Anterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
(d) C polysaccharide of streptococcus (d) Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain

87. Rothera’s test used for detection of – 96. In severe exercise, CO increases up to 5 times,
(a) Proteins (b) Glucose while pulmonary blood pressure rises
(c) Fatty acid (d) Ketones minimally because?
(a) Additional parallel vessels open up
88. Milkman’s Fracture is a type of – (b) Sympathetic stimulation causes greater
(a) Pseudofracture distensibility of pulmonary vessels
(b) Clavicular fracture (c) Large amount of smooth muscles in pulmonary
(c) Humeral fracture arterioles.
(d) Metacarpal fracture (d) Larger area of pulmonary circulation

89. Complications of colle’s fracture include all of 97. Non-respiratory Function of lung?
the following except: (a) Anion excretion
(a) Sudeck’s Osteodystrophy (b) Sodium balance
(b) Rupture of EPL tendon (c) Potassium balance
(c) Malunion (d) Magnesium balance
(d) Nonunion
98. The hot fomentation relieves the intestinal
90. Most common site of scaphoid fracture is: spasm pain by inhibition of?
(a) Distal fragment (a) Cholinergic receptors
(b) Tilting of the lunate (b) Adrenergic receptors
(c) Waist (c) Cold receptors
(d) Proximal fragment (d) Heat receptors

91. Left SVC drains into? 99. A 40 years old patient was brought with recent
(a) Left atrium (b) Right atrium onset personality changes and behavioural
(c) Coronary sinus (d) Pericardial sac problems. He had diarrhea since few days. On
92. Urogenital diaphragm is made of the following examination there was hypersalivation and blue
except: lines were noted on gums. Fine tremors were
(a) Deep transverse perini also noted. There is no organomegaly. What is
(b) Perinial membrane the likely diagnosis?
(c) Colles fascia (a) Lead poisoning
(d) Sphincter Urethrae (b) Mercury poisoning
93. ‘Hybrid’ or ‘Composite muscles’ include the (c) Arsenic poisoning
following except? (d) Copper toxicity
(a) Pectinius
100. Mechanisms of injuries caused by Lightening
(b) Flexor carpi ulnaris
include the following except one?
(c) Flexor digitorum superficialis
(d) Biceps femoris (a) Compression effect due to compression air
wave striking the abdomen
94. Gluteus medius is supplied by?
(b) Direct effect from electric discharges passing
(a) Superior gluteal nerve to ground
(b) Inferior gluteal nerve (c) Surface flash burns from discharges
(c) Femoral nerve (d) Mechanical effect due to force of displaced air
(d) Sciatic nerve around the flash by heat expansion

IMO [B-6]
101. Morphine can be used in all the following 109. Infant of diabetic mother with weight 3.8 Kg
conditions except – presented with seizures after 16 hours of birth.
(a) Head injury What is the cause–
(b) Asthma (a) Hypoglycemia
(c) Hypothyroidism (b) Hypocalcemia
(d) Diabetes (c) Birth asphyxia
(d) Intraventricular hemorrhage
102. All are antiemetics except –
(a) Domperidone 110. Electron microscopy is diagnostic in?
(b) Ondensetron (a) Good pasture’s syndrome
(c) Phenazocine (b) Wegener’s granulomatosis
(d) Cyclizine (c) PAN
(d) Alport’s syndrome
103. A patient is receiving linezolid therapy for 14
days, which of the following should be 111. Drug of choice in Theophylline poisoning –
monitored: (a) Cortisone
(a) Renal function tests (b) Propranolol
(b) Liner enzymes (c) Thyroxine
(c) Platelet monitoring (d) Phenobarbitone
(d) Monitoring of reflex
112. Which of the following drugs has been found to
104. Toxicity of Amphotericin B can be reduced by be useful in acute severe asthma?
using: (a) Magnesium Sulphate
(a) Liquid preparation (b) Anti-leukotrine
(b) Granules (c) Cromolyn Sodium
(c) Liposomal preparation (d) Cyclosporine
(d) Subcutareous administration
113. Parathyroid hormone –
105. Which of the following can cause acute Pancreatitis: (a) Decreases bone resorption
(a) Abacavir (b) Increases bone resorption
(b) Lamivudine (c) Enhances phosphate reabsorption from kidney
(c) Zidovudine (d) Decreases calcium reabsorption from kidney
(d) Didonosine
114. Buspirone is an:
106. Reflex which is not present in child at birth is – (a) Anxiolytic
(a) Moro’s reflex (b) Muscle relaxant
(b) Symmetric tonic neck reflex (c) Sedation
(c) Crossed extensor reflex (d) Anticonvulsant
(d) Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
115. Oxygen content in anaesthetic mixture is:
107. Most common cause of sepsis in India within 2 (a) 25% (b) 30%
months – (c) 33% (d) None of these
(a) H influenza
(b) E.coli 116. Alcohol intake during pregnancy causes, all,
(c) Coagulase positive staph aureus except –
(d) Group B streptococcus (a) Brachycephaly
(b) Microcephaly
108. A case of jaundince with 50% direct bilirubin, (c) Hyperkinetic movements
other LFTs normal. Diagnosis is – (d) Congenital anomalies
(a) Rotor syndrome
(b) Gilbert syndrome 117. Which teratogen causes deafness?
(c) Glucuronyl transferase deficiency (a) Isotretnoin (b) Chloroquine
(d) Primary biliary cirrhosis (c) Alcohol (d) Warfarin
IMO [B-7]
118. Digoxin toxicity is increased by all except – 127. Parastomal hernia is most frequently seen with:
(a) Renal impairment (a) End Colostomy (b) Loop Colostomy
(b) Hyperkalemia (c) End Iliostomy (d) Loop Iliostomy
(c) Hypercalcemia
(d) Hypomagnesemia 128. Best investigation to diagnose piles is –
(a) Proctosigmoidoscopy
119. Tylectomy literally mean – (b) Barium enema
(a) Excision of a lump (c) Ultrasound
(b) Excision of LN (d) Proctoscopy
(c) Excision of breast
(d) Excision of skin 129. Z score is used in?
(a) Nominal data
120. The most common histologic type of thyroid (b) Normal distribution curve
cancer is: (c) t test
(a) Medullary type (d) Chi square test
(b) Follicular type
(c) Papillary type 130. True about corneal transplant:
(d) Anaplastic type (a) Eye ball is removed from the donor and the
Complete eyeball is preserved in ice for
121. Best test to diagnose gastroesophageal reflux corneal transplant
disease and quantify acid output: (b) Cornea of persons more than 60 years of age
(a) Esohagogram is not taken for transplant
(b) Endoscopy (c) Specular microscopy is ideal for the
(c) Manometry endothelial count
(d) 24 hr pH monitoring (d) HLA matching is required essentially

122. The most common cause of gastric outlet 131. Retinoblastoma is associated with?
obstruction in India is: (a) Osteosarcoma (b) Chondrosarcoma
(a) Tuberculosis (c) Fibrosacrcoma (d) Rhandomyosarcoma
(b) Cancer of stomach
(c) Duodenal lymphoma 132. Topical Mitomycin C is useful in treatment of?
(d) Peptic ulcer disease (a) Angiofibroma
(b) Tracheal stenosis
123. Most common infection after splenectomy is – (c) Skull base Ostemyelitis
(a) Anaerobic (d) Laryngeal carcinoma
(b) Staphylococcal
(c) Streptococcal 133. Laser used in laryngeal work?
(d) Pneumococcal (a) Argon (b) CO2
(c) Holmium (d) ND Yag
124. Most common type of choledochal cyst?
(a) Type 1 (b) Type 2 134. Following can be visualized on Bronchoscopy
(c) Type 3 (d) Type 6 except?
(a) Vocal cords
125. Best prognosis for carcinoma of pancreas is in (b) Trachea
the region of – (c) Subcarinal nodes
(a) Head (b) Tail (d) First division of subsegmental bronchioles
(c) Body (d) Periampullary
135. Down’s syndrome most commonly occurs due
126. Colopotomy is done to treat – to?
(a) Ischeorectal abscess (a) Reciprocal translocation
(b) Pelvic abscess (b) Nondysjunction in maternal meiosis
(c) Appendicular abscess (c) Translocation defect
(d) Perianal abscess (d) Nondysjunction in paternal meiosis
IMO [B-8]
136. Which of the following is NOT associated with 144. A 2 years old child is brought by parents with
increase in the risk of seizures in future in a history of seizures and developmental delay.
child with febrile seizures? He has multiple hypopigmented macules over
the back. What the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Developmental delay
(b) Early age of onset (a) Neurofibromatosis type 1
(b) Tuberous sclerosis
(c) Complex partial seizures
(c) Sturge Weber syndrome
(d) Family history positive (d) Linear Sebacous Nevus Syndrome
137. Which of the milestone develops first – 145. Following can be used in Rx of myoclonic
(a) Mirror play seizures except:
(b) Crawling (a) Valproate
(c) Creeping (b) Carbamazepine
(d) Pincer grasp (c) Topiramate
138. A year 6 old child with IQ of 50. Which of the (d) Zonisamide
following can the child do – 146. Commonest cause of ureteric injury during
(a) Identify colours surgical operation is –
(b) Read a sentence (a) Abdomino-perineal resection
(c) Ride a bicycle (b) Hysterectomy
(d) Copy a triangle (c) Prostectomy
139. Which of the following is the best indicator of (d) Colectomy
long term nutritional status – 147. Bladder tumours mostly arises from –
(a) Mid arm circumference (a) Mucosa
(b) Height for age (b) Submucosa
(c) Weight for age (c) Muscularis Mucosa
(d) Weight for height (d) Seorsa
140. Indicator of moderate to severe malnutritions is: 148. Semen analysis of a young man who presented
(a) Serum transferrin 160 with primary infertility revealed low volume,
(b) Body mass index 19 fructose negative ejaculate with azoospermia.
(c) Albumin 2.1 g/d1 Which of the following is the most useful
(d) Transthyretin imaging modiality to evaluate the cause of his
infertility?
141. Craniotabes is seen in following except –
(a) Colour duplex ultrasonography of the scrotum
(a) Rickets
(b) Transrectal ultrasonography
(b) Syphilis
(c) Retrograde urethrography
(c) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(d) Spermatic venography
(d) Thalassemia
149. Optical urethroplasty is done in –
142. Anti infective vitamin is –
(a) Congenital stricture of urethra
(a) Vitamin B6 (b) Vitamin A
(b) Hypospadias
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin C
(c) Epispadias
143. Abnormalities of copper metabolism are (d) Testicular tumour’s
implicated in the pathogenesis of all the
150. Most common testicular tumor in prepubertal
following except –
adults is:
(a) Wilson’s disease
(a) Yolk sac tumor
(b) Monkes’ Kinky-hair syndrome
(b) Embryonal cell Ca
(c) Indian childhood cirrhosis
(c) Seminoma
(d) Keshan disease
(d) Teratoma

IMO [B-9]
151. Which of the following is the best parameter to 160. Prenatal diagnosis of haemophilia can be done by?
assess fluid intake in a poly-trauma patient – (a) Microarray
(a) Urine output (b) Cytogentic analysis
(b) BP (c) Linkage analysis
(c) Pulse (d) DNA sequence polymorphism
(d) Pulse oximetry
161. Gout is a disorder of?
152. Orthobaric oxygen is used in :– (a) Purine metabolism
(a) CO poisoning (b) Pyrimidine metabolism
(b) Ventilation failure (c) Urea metabolism
(c) Anerobic infection (d) Lipid metabolism
(d) Gangrene
162. BMR is increased in the following except:
153. Which of the following is microaerophilic – (a) Physical activity
(a) Campylobacter (b) Vibrio (b) Food intake
(c) Bacteroides (d) Pseudomonas (c) Hyperthyroidism
(d) Obesity
154. All are methods of sterilization by dry heat
except – 163. BMR mainly depends on?
(a) Flaming (a) Daily activities
(b) Incineration (b) Lean body mass
(c) Hot air oven (c) Body surface area
(d) Autoclaving (d) Body Mass Index

155. False regarding bacterial plasmids is? 164. Mechanism of action of Theophyline?
(a) Extrachromosomal (a) Mast cell stabilization
(b) Eliminated by treating with radiation (b) Phosphodiesterase inhibition
(c) Transmission of different species (c) Leukotriene antagonism
(d) Can cause lysogenic conversion (d) β2 sympathomimetic
156. Insulin secretion is inhibited by? 165. Allopurinol is used in treatment of?
(a) Secretin (a) Gout
(b) Epinephrine (b) Hypothyroidism
(c) GH (c) Hypertension
(d) Gastrin (d) Hyperlipidemia

157. Effect of bradykinin includes? 166. B cell maturation takes place in –

(a) Vasodilatation (a) Thymus (b) Lymph node
(b) Vasoconstriction (c) Bone marrow (d) Spleen
(c) Increased vascular permeability
(d) Pain 167. Culture media of leptospirosis –
(a) Korthof (b) Perkin
158. Mitochondrial enzyme in liver? (c) Tinsdale (d) Baker’s
(a) SGOT
(b) SGPT 168. All of the following statements about
(c) Gamma glutamyl transferase Chlamydia trachomatis are true except –
(d) Nucleotidase (a) Genital chlamydial infections are often
asymptomatic
159. Pink color on rothera’s test:
(b) Can be cultured
(a) Proteins
(b) Fatty acids (c) Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by C.
(c) Glucose trachomatis serotypes D-K
(d) Ketone bodies (d) Penicillin is the treatment of choice
IMO [B-10]
169. Which of the following literally means “flow of 178. Bouchard’s nodes are seen in –
seed” – (a) Proximal IP joints
(a) Anthrax (b) Clostridia (b) Distal IP joints
(c) Gonorrhoea (d) Proteus (c) Sternoclavicular joints
(d) Knee joint
170. Conjunctivitis is caused by all except –
(a) CMV 179. Which of the following is NOT a primary skin
(b) Enterovirus 70 disease?
(c) Coxsackies A24 (a) Reiter’s syndrome
(d) Adenovirus (b) Bowen’s disease
(c) Psoriasis
171. Cloudy swelling is due to – (d) Lichen planus
(a) Accumulation of water intracellularly
(b) Fat accumulation intracellularly 180. An otherwise healthy male presents with a
(c) Lysozyme degeneration creamy curd like white patch on the tongue.
(d) Glycogen accumulation intracellularly The probable diagnosis is –
(a) Candidiasis
172. Basement membrane degeneration is mediated (b) Histoplasmosis
by – (c) Lichen planus
(a) Metalloproteinases (d) Aspergillosis
(b) Oxidases
(c) Elastases 181. In spinal anesthesia, the drug is deposited
(d) Hydrocylases between –
(a) Dura and arachnoid
173. Sago spleen is seen in – (b) Pia and arachnoid
(a) Gaucher’s disease (c) Dura and vertebra
(b) Malaria (d) Into the cord substance
(c) Amyloidosis 182. Which among the following is NOT used for
(d) Felty’s disease surface anaesthesia –

174. Salt losing nephritis is a feature of – (a) Lignocaine

(b) Procaine
(a) Interstitial nephritis
(c) Tetracaine
(b) Polycystic kidney
(d) Benzocaine
(c) Lupus nephritis
(d) Renal amyloidosis 183. Which is a hinge joint –

175. All are of adult size at birth except – (a) Knee

(b) Elbow
(a) Mastoid antrum
(c) Metacarpo Phalangeal
(b) Ear Ossicles
(d) Atlanto Axial
(c) Tympanic cavity
(d) Maxillary antrum 184. What is Agoraphobia?

176. Goblet cells are present in – (a) Fear of heights

(b) Fear of closed spaces
(a) Trachea (b) Jejunum
(c) Fear of open space
(c) Epididymis (d) Ileum
(d) Fear of dogs
177. Most common cause of death after Total Hip
185. Best diagnosis for dissecting aorta is –
Replacement is –
(a) CT Scan
(a) Infection
(b) Pneumonia (b) MRI
(c) Anemia (c) Angiography
(d) Thromboembolism (d) X-ray

IMO [B-11]
186. Egg on side appearance is seen in: 194. Which valve is least affected in Rheumatic
(a) TOF fever?
(b) TAPVC (a) Pulmonary valve (b) Tricuspid valve
(c) Uncorrected TGA (c) Mitral valve (d) Aortic valve
(d) Truncus arteriosus
195. A patient presents with tachycardia,
187. Best investigation in acute cholecystitis is– BP<100mm systolic and postural hypotension.
(a) Technetium scan Diagnosis is –
(b) HIDA scan (a) Vasovagal attack
(c) Pipida scan (b) Diabetic neuropathy
(d) Plain X-ray abdomen (c) Shy drager syndrome
(d) Bleeding peptic ulcer
188. All of the following heart sounds occur shortly
after S2 except – 196. Left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by all
(a) Opening snap except –
(b) Pericardial knock (a) MS (b) MR
(c) Ejection click (c) AS (d) AR
(d) Tumor plop
197. Calcium Gluconate is not used in CPR by –
189. Enlarged pulsatile liver is seen in – (a) Hypocalemia
(a) Tricuspid regurgitation (b) Hypokalemia
(b) Aortic regurgitation (c) Hyperkalemia
(c) Mitral regurgitation (d) Calcium antagonism
(d) Pulmonary regurgitation
198. A 28 year old woman having limited cutaneous
190. Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the scleroderma for the last 10 years complains of
following except – shortness of breath for last one month. Her
(a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy pulmonary function tests (PFT) are as follow –
(b) Friedrich’s ataxia PFT Observed Predicted
(c) Type IUI glycogen storage disease FVC 2.63 2.82
(d) Alkaptonuria FEV1 88% 80%
DLCO 5.26 16.3
191. Test for reversible cardiac ischemia –
What is most likely diagnosis in this case?
(a) Angiography
(b) Thallium scan (a) Interstitial lung disease
(b) Pulmonary artery hypertension
(c) MUGA
(c) Congestive heart failure
(d) Resting Echocardiography (d) Bronchiectasis

192. Most common cause of acute RVF – 199. The most definitive method of diagnosing
(a) Massive pulmonary embolism pulmonary embolism is –
(b) Tricuspid stenosis (a) Pulmonary ateriography
(c) Pulmonary stenosis (b) Radioisotope perfusion pulmonary scintigraphy
(c) EKG
(d) Tricuspid regurgitation
(d) Venography
193. All are causes of pulmonary hypertension 200. All of the following features are seen in viral
except– pneumonia except –
(a) Hyperventilation (a) Presence of interstitial inflammation
(b) Morbid obesity (b) Predominance of alveolar exudates
(c) High altitude (c) Bronchiolitis
(d) Fenfluramine (d) Multinucleate giant cells in the bronchiolar wall
IMO [B-12]