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(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: (a)
The Paiks of Odisha were the traditional landed militia (‗foot soldiers‘ literally) and enjoyed
rent free land tenures for their military service and policing functions on a hereditary basis.
Hence Statement 1 is correct. The English Company‘s conquest of Odisha in 1803, and the
dethronement of the Raja of Khurda had greatly reduced the power and prestige of the Paiks.
Further, the extortionist land revenue policy of the Company caused resentment among
zamindars and peasants alike.
BakshiJagabandhuBidyadhar had been the military chief of the forces of the Raja of Khurda.
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect. With active support of Mukunda Deva, the last Raja of
Khurda, and other zamindars of the region, BakshiJagabandhuBidyadhar led a sundry army
of Paikas forcing the East India Company forces to retreat for a time. Hence Statement 3 is
incorrect. The rebellion came to be known as the PaikaBidroh (rebellion). The initial
success of the rebels set the whole province covering Odisha in arms against the British
government for some time. Though Khurda was back under Company control by mid-1817,
the Paika rebels resorted to guerilla tactics. The rebellion was brutally repressed by 1818.
Solution: d)
Tribal Revolts Year
1. Kol rebellion 1831
2. Bastar rebellion 1910
3. Warli revolt 1940
3. Consider the following statements:
Solution: (a)
Hike in revenue demand and reduction of field size, coupled with the oppression of officials,
resulted in widespread peasant unrest among the Moplahs of Malabar. Twenty-two rebellions
took place between 1836 and 1854. None, however, proved successful.
The Mappilas were the Muslim tenants inhabiting the Malabar region where most of the
landlords were Hindus. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Their grievances centred around lack of security of tenure, high rents, renewal fees and other
oppressive exactions. The Mappila tenants were particularly encouraged by the demand of
the local Congress body for a government legislation regulating tenant-landlord relations.
Soon, the Mappila movement merged with the ongoing Khilafat agitation.
. What began as an antigovernment and anti-landlord affair acquired communal overtones.
The communalisation of the rebellion completed the isolation of the Mappilas from the
Khilafat-Non- Cooperation Movement. By December 1921, all resistance had come to a stop.
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
4. Which of the following was not a reason for the British to annex Nepal?
(a) Extend commercial links with Central Asia through Himalayas.
(b) To manage Border issues
(c) Check expansion of the French in Central Asia.
(d) Gain the pleasant hill stations in the Himalayas for the British officials for recreation.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: the aggressive expansion policy of the British with the neighbours led to a series
of war at the cost of Indian soldiers and taxes but not for their interest. The first war with
Nepal took place in 1814. As the outcome of the British victory the districts of Gharwal and
Kumoan was ceded to India. The kingdom of Nepal withdrew from Sikkim. The advantages
were that now British Empire could extend trade with central Asia. Hence (a) is correct.
However the French was not expanding in Central Asia. It was the objective of British to
annex Burma to check the French expansion in south-east Asia. Hence option (c) is
incorrect.
Border policy issues and the need for hill stations were some of the other reasons.
Source: Chapter 7 - Administrative changes after 1858, Modern India, NCERT, pg. 133.
5. With reference to the Raja Rammohan Roy, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. He supported the concept of one God, propounded by Upanishads.
2. He quoted Vedas to support his viewpoints.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Though Rammohan Roy rejected the infallibility of the Vedas, he supposed his
viewpoints by using quotations from Vedas. He also accepted the concept of one God of
Upanishads. His God was shapeless, invisible, omnipresent, omnipotent and the guiding spirit
of the Universe. Both the statements are correct.
Reference: Page: 275; A new look at modern Indian history, B.L.Grover and Alka Mehta
6. With reference to Raja Rammohan Roy, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Answer: (a)
Explanation: He established the vedanta college in 1825, in which courses in both Indian
learning and Western sciences were offered. Statement 1 is correct.
He condemned the oppressive practices of Bengal zamindars and demanded that the rents
paid by the actual cultivators should be permanently fixed like the Permanent Settlement of
1793. Statement 2 is incorrect.
He vigorously defended the Hindu religion and philosophy from the ignorant attack of the
Christian missionaries. He also accepted the concept of one God of Upanishads. His God was
shapeless, invisible, omnipresent, omnipotent and the guiding spirit of the Universe.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Reference: Page: 130, 131, 132; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
7. With reference to the Theosophical Society, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Theosophical Society was founded by westerners who drew inspiration from
Indian culture. It came to be allied with Hindu Renaissance. The society accepted Hindu
beliefs in re-incarnation, karma and was inspired by Upanishads, Yoga and Vedanta. Both
the statements are correct.
Reference: Page: 279; A new look at modern Indian history, B.L.Grover and Alka Mehta
Page: 225; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
8. With reference to Annie Besant, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Annie Besant laid the foundation of Central Hindu School at Benaras in 1898
which later became the Benares Hindu University in 1916.
In 1916, two Home Rule League movements were started under the leadership of Bal
Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant. Tilak's movement was concentrated in Maharashtra
(except Bombay city), Karnataka, Central Provinces and Berar while Besant's movement
covered the rest of India.
She also did much for the cause of female education. All Statements are correct.
Reference: Page: 279; A new look at modern Indian history, B.L.Grover and Alka Mehta
Page: 226, 271; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
Page:161, 162; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was deeply interested in the education of women.
As Government Inspector of schools, he organised 35 girls' schools and ran many of them at
his own expense. Bethune school was symbol of a powerful movement of women's education
and he was Secretary in that school. Vidyasagar served as the Principal of Sanskrit College of
Calcutta in 1951. He opened up the study of Sanskrit scriptures to non-Brahmin students. He
led a powerful movement in favour of widow remarriage.
Reference: Page: 136, 137; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
10. Match the following organisations with the regions associated with them.
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Muhammad QasimWanotavi and Rashid AhamadGangohi were the leaders of
the Deoband school in Saharanpur, UP. It was under the leadership of orthodox Muslim
ulema and was associated with the preaching of Islamic faith and training leaders for the
Muslim community. It shut out English culture and Western education.
TattvabodhiniSabha was founded by Debendranath Tagore in 1839. He was attracted to the
ideas of Raja Rammohan Roy and joined the Brahmo Samaj in 1842.
Shah Walliullah founded the Wahabi movement as a revivalist movement. He wanted to
restore the purity of Islam and aimed at creating a homeland for the Muslims. An armed
campaign was led against the Sikhs in Punjab and later against the British.
RehnumaiMazdayasanSabha (Religious Reform Association) was set up by educated Parsis
in Bombay to bring about reforms in their community. The newspaper Rast-Gofter(Truth-
Teller) was associated with it. It focussed on social reforms in Parsi community such as
removal of Purdah system, raising the age of marriage and women education.
NaorojiFurdonji, S.S.Bengalee, DadabhaiNaoroji were associated with it.
Reference: Page: 228; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
Page: 275, 280, 281; A new look at modern Indian history, B.L.Grover and Alka Mehta
11. With reference to Surya Sen, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Surya Sen was an active participant of the Non Co-operation movement. He
participated in revolutionary activity after that phase. He was also the Secretary of Chittagong
district Congress committee. He led the Chittagong group. He, along with his associates,
conducted raids on the armouries in 1930, under the banner of Indian Republican Army. They
destroyed telephone and telegraph lines connecting Chittagong with the rest of Bengal. He
was finally arrested and hanged in 1934.
Both Statements are correct.
Reference: Page: 251, 252; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
Page: 300; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
12. With reference to Nehru Report, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The report defined Dominion Status as the desirable form of govt. It rejected
communal electorates. It envisaged joint electorates with reservation of seats for minorities
(Muslims). This reservation would be available only in provinces where the Muslims are in
minority and not in Punjab and Bengal. These clauses were rejected by the Muslim League.
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
The report also recommended universal adult suffrage, equal rights for women, freedom to
form unions, dissociation of state from religion.Statement 3 is correct.
Reference: Page: 263; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
13. With reference to the Civil Disobedience Movement, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Rani Gaidilieuspearheaded the movement in Mizoram.
2. There were incidents where the army showed support to the movement.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The young Rani Gaidilieu raised the banner of rebellion in Nagaland against
foreign rule. She was arrested and sentenced to life imprisonment. She was released only in
1947. Statement 1 is incorrect.
In Peshawar, two platoons of Garhwali soldiers refused to open fire on non-violent
demonstrators though it meant court martial. Statement 2 is correct.
Both Statements are correct.
Reference: Page: 305; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
14. With reference to the Civil Disobedience Movement, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. The United Provinces had a 'no-rent, no-revenue' campaign against the local
zamindars.
2. Eastern India had a campaign against the Chowkidara Tax.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Forest laws were broken in Maharashtra, Karnataka and the Central provinces.
In United Provinces, the movement became a campaign of 'no-rent, no-revenue'. The tenants
ought not to pay the rent to the Zamindars, who in turn ought not to pay revenue to the govt.
As the Zamindars were loyal to the govt, it became a no rent campaign. Eastern India had a
campaign against Chowkidara tax which paid the police force at rural level. It spread through
Bihar and Bengal.
Both Statements are correct.
Reference: Page: 280, 281; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
15. With reference to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. The pact called for the commutation of death sentence of Bhagat Singh and other
leaders.
2. The pact was negotiated to enable Congress to participate in the first Round Table
Conference.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Congress leaders were imprisoned during the Civil Disobedience Movement
and the first RTC (Round Table Conference) happened without them. They were released as
part of Gandhi-Irwin pact. They participated in the second RTC but the British govt refused
to accept the Dominion status demand. Gandhi refused to make the Pact conditional on the
commutation of the death sentences of Bhagatsingh and his comrades. Both Statements are
incorrect.
Reference: Page: 280, 281; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
Page: 307; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
16. With reference to the Government of India Act of 1935, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The electorate was restricted to around one-sixth of the adults. It was based on
property and few other parameters. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Defence and foreign affairs were outside the control of the Federal legislature. The Viceroy
would retain special control over other subjects. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Reference: Page: 317; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
Page: 309; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
17. With reference to the Tebagha struggle, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. It was a tribal movement in the northeast.
2. The movement was focussed on the issues of sharing and storage of the harvested
crops.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:Tebagha movement was a peasant movement which took place in Bengal. In
1946, the share-croppers refused to pay the half share of crop as rent to the jotedars but only
one-third. Also the crop would be stored in their own godowns and not that of the jotedars.
The Bengal ministry headed by Suhrawardy published the Bengal Bargadars Temporary
Regulation Bill in the Gazette but the bill was passed in 1950.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct.
Reference: Page: 352, 353; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
Answer: (b)
Explanation:KarshakaSanghams were peasant associations formed in the Kerala region,
demanding abolition of feudal levies and protection of tenants.
Hali system was a bonded labour system in Gujarat, in which the depressed class peasants
were hereditary labourers under the upper class land owners.
Malguzari or Mahalwari is a revenue settlement found in several parts of Maharashtra,
Madras and Punjab during British rule.
Reference: Page: 346, 351; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
19. With reference to the Cripps mission, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
1. It offered to accept the demand for Dominion status.
2. It did not talk about any immediate transfer of power.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Cripps mission was sent under Sir Stafford Cripps in March 1942. The terms
of the proposal included the following:
(i) The demand for Dominion status was accepted.
(ii) A constitution making body would be formed after the war. It would include elected
members from provincial assemblies and nominated members from the princely states.
(iii) Any province which was not prepared to accept the Constitution, can sign a separate
agreement with Britain. This accommodated the demand for Pakistan.
Both statements are correct.
Reference: Page: 455; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
20. With reference to the Quit India movement, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. The delay in arresting the Congress leadership gave the immediate impetus to the
movement.
2. Gandhi refused to condemn the violence of the people during the movement.
3. During the course of the movement, 'parallel governments' were formed in many parts
of the country.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Quit India resolution was launched by Gandhi on 8 Aug 1942. In the early
hours of 9 August, all the top leaders of INC were arrested and taken to unknown locations.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
During the course of the movement, people resorted to acts of violence such as sabotaging
railway tracks, destruction of telephone and telegraph wires,attacking railway stations and
police stations. The govt pressed Gandhi to condemn the violence. But he refused and instead
held the govt responsible for it. Statement 2 is correct.
'Parallel governments' were formed in parts of Bengal, U.P, Maharashtra and several other
provinces. The govt offices were disabled by attacks. Statement 3 is correct.
Reference: Page: 460, 464, 466; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and
others
Page: 323; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
21. With respect to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following are its provisions?
1. Only Defence, Communication and Foreign Affairs would be controlled by the
federal government.
2. It did not provide for partition of the country.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Cabinet Mission was sent on March 1946 with the following terms:
(i) Maintaining national unity while conceding the largest measure of regional autonomy
(ii) Two tier federal plan
(iii) Only Defence, Communication and Foreign Affairs would be controlled by the federal
government
(iv) Provinces could form regional unions.
(v) Existing provinces were divided into three groups.
Group A - Hindu majority (Madras, Bombay, Central Provinces, United Provinces, Bihar,
Odisha, Delhi, Coorg, Ajmer-Marwara)
Group B - Muslim majority (Punjab, NorthWest Frontier Provinc, Sind, Baluchistan)
Group C - Bengal, Assam
(vi) It endorsed the view that a minority cannot be allowed to place a veto on the advance of
the majority. It did not provide for partition.
Both statements are correct.
Reference: Page: 492; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
Page: 327; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
Answer: (d)
Explanation: In 1908 a revolutionary conspiracy was intrigued to kill the Chief Presidency
Magistrate D.H. Kingford of Muzaffarpur. The task was entrusted to Khudiram Bose and
PrafullaChaki. They threw the bombs on a vehicle coming out of the magistrate‘s home on
April 30, 1908.
Delhi-Lahore Conspiracy was organised by the Indian revolutionary underground in Bengal
and Punjab and headed by Rashbehari Bose to assassinate the then Viceroy of India, Lord
Hardinge. Basant Kumar Biswas, Amir Chand and AvadhBehari were convicted and
executed in the trial of this Delhi Conspiracy Case.
On December 21, 1909, AnantLaxmanKanhere (one of the member of Abhinav Bharat
Society) shot the Collector of Nashik , A M T Jackson in the theatre at Nasik. This
sensational murder is known as Nasik Conspiracy Case. The members of the Abhinav Bharat
Society viz. V.D. Savarkar, Ganesh Savarkar, etc. were convicted and punished.
Kakori train robbery or Kakori Case was a train robbery against the British Indian
Government.It was organised by revolutionary organisation i.e., Hindustan Republican
Association (HRA) under the leadership of Ram Prasad Bismil and supported by Ashfaqulla
Khan, RajendraLahiri, Chandrashekhar Azad.
29.Which of the Following are Correctly matched?
Ans-d
EXPLANATION
Mahatma Gandhi had a central role in the juxtaposition of the Khilafat Movement with
India‘s freedom struggle, primarily the Non Cooperation Movement. Mahatma Gandhi had
already materialized his ‗Satyagraha‘, the non-violent civil resistant nationalist movement
mostly on account of the various inhuman acts of repression by the British Government such
as the Rowlatt Act of 1919, the imposition of Marshall Law in Punjab in 1919 and
subsequently, the JalianwallahBahg Massacre of Aril 1919 among the others. Mahatma
Gandhi saw the Khilafat Movement as a brilliant opportunity to bring together the Hindus
and the Muslims and their respective causes against one common authority of exploitation
and domination.
One of the most important instances in India‘s freedom struggle was provided by the
Khilafat movement in terms of the unity among the Hindus and the Muslims. This was
mostly on account of the intertwining of the leaders of the Indian National Congress and the
Khilafat Movement themselves. This campaign saw the popularization of the slogan ‘Hindu-
Musalmaanki Jai’ during strikes, protests and demonstrations across the country. The
scenario of the Hindu-Muslim consonance went in tune with Mahatma Gandhi‘s idea that
freedom from the British Raj could only be achieved if the Hindus and the Muslims both
worked together and collectively fought for their freedom.
The Champaran Satyagraha is considered to be a vital event in the history of India‘s freedom
struggle. It is consideresas India‘s First Civil Disobedience movement launched by
Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in Champaran
district of Bihar.
In the Ahmedabad Mill strike Gandhi intervened in a dispute between the mill owners of
Ahmedabad and the workers over the issue of discontinuation of plague bonus. He undertook
a fast unto death to strengthen the workers resolve and at the same time pressurize the mill
owners.
In the Kheda Satyagraha , which is considered as the first Non Cooperation Gandhi
organised a movement to support peasants of the Kheda district. People of Kheda were
unable to pay the high taxes levied by the British due to crop failure and a plague epidemic.
He supported the peasants cause and asked them to withhold revenue.
30. What were the causes behind the Nationalist resurgence in India towards the end of
the First World War-
1. Inflation and fall in economic activity.
2. Infusion of Foreign Capital
3. October Revolution
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Ans-a
EXPLANATION
Towards the end of the first world war there was a resurgence of nationalist activities in
India and in many other colonies in Asia and Africa.
The main factors were-
a)Economic Hardships-
i)The economic situation in the post war years had taken a turn for the worse. There was first
a rise in prices and then a depression in economic activity. Indian Industries , which had
prospered during the war because foreign imports of manufactured goods had ceased , faced
losses and closure.
ii)Foreign Capital began to be invested in India on a large scale .The Indian industrialist
wanted protection of their industries through imposition of high customs duties and grant of
government aid. They realized that a strong nationalist movement and an independent Indian
government alone could secure these.
III)The workers and artisans ,facing unemployment and high prices also turned actively
towards the nationalist movement .
IV)On one hand the Peasantry faced deepening poverty and high taxation on the other hand
the educated urban faced increasing unemployment .
b)International Situation-
I)The First world war gave tremendous impetus to nationalism all over Asia and Africa. In
order to win popular support the Allied Nations (Britain ,United Nations, France, Italy and
Japan ) promised a new era of democracy. However at the Paris Peace Conference and in the
different peace settlements ,all the war time promises were forgotten .
II)Russian Revolution (7th Nov 1917) -The Bolshevik Party of workers overthrew the czarist
regime and founded the first socialist state ,thet of Soviet Union ,under the leadership of VI
Lenin . The Soviet Union unilaterally renounced the czarist imperialist rights in China and
the rest of Asia , gave rights of self determination to former czarist colonies in Asia and gave
equal status to the Asian nationalities within its borders.
The October revolution brought home the message that immense power lay with the people
and the masses were capable of challenging the mightiest of tyrants provided they were
organized ,united and determined.
31. Consider the following statements regarding the Education policy of 1913:
1. The bill on compulsory primary education was first moved by Gopal Krishna Gokhale
in 1911.
2. The government resolution on Education policy 1913 was focused on Primary,
secondary, higher and women education.
3. The government promised to extend grants to the education department.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Gokhale‘s Bill of 1911. He made further attempt to draw the attention of the
people of India as well as in England towards the condition of education. On 16th March of
1911, Gokhale presented a Bill in the Legislative Council to make a stronger fight against the
Government. The Bill, however, was more liberal and humble than the resolutions placed
before and the main objective of the bill was to make primary education free and compulsory
in a phased manner. The Bill was basically based on the compulsory Education Acts of
England of 1870 and 1876. Hence statement 1 is correct.
While rejecting Gokhale‘s bill of 1911, the Government promised to extend recurring and
non-recurring grants to primary education as it could not ignore the growing popular demand
for the spread of primary education. The education department had declared the new policy in
the form of Government of India Resolution on February 21, 1913 covering primary,
secondary, higher and women education. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Source: http://kkhsou.in/main/education/gokhale's_bill.html
Ans-b
EXPLANATION
In February 1919 Gandhi Ji founded the Satyagraha Sabha to protest against the Rowlatt Act.
He roped in younger members of the Home rule league and Pan islamists.
The Forms of protest finally chosen included observance of a nationwide hartal ,accompanied
by fasting and Prayer and civil disobedience against specific laws ,and courting arrest and
imprisonment.
a)MK Gandhi
b)DadabhaiNaoroji
c)BalGangadharTilak
d)Annie Besant
Ans-a
EXPLANATION
In 1906 a legislation in South Africa made it compulsory for Indians there to carry at all
times certificates of Registration with their Fingerprints.
The Indians under Gandhi‘s leadership decided not to submit to this discriminatory measure.
Gandhi formed the Passive Resistance Association to conduct the campaign .
34. With reference to the Public Safety Bill of 1928, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. The Swarajists were the main opposition for the Bill in the Central Legislative
Assembly.
2. The government was defeated during the passage of this bill.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Public Safety Bill was aimed at deporting 'undesirable' and 'subversive'
foreigners, who came to India to spread the Communist ideology. British govt believed that
the Communist International sent foreigners to spread communist ideas in India. The
Swarajists defeated the govt on the passage of this bill. As the bill could not be passed as late
as 1929, the British govt arrested several Communist leaders and put them on the Meerut
conspiracy trial.
The Swaraj Party participated in the elections in 1923 and 1926. INC stayed away from the
elctions but supported the work of Swarajists in the legislatures.
Both Statements are correct.
Reference: Page: 240, 244; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
Page: 340; A new look at modern Indian history, B.L.Grover and Alka Mehta
35. With reference to Hindustan Republic Association (HRA), which of the following
statements is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Explanation:Kakori train robbery of 1925 is associated with HRA (Hindustan Republican
Association). HRA was founded in 1924 by RamprasadBismil, JogeshChatterjea,
SachindranathSanyal. Ashfaqullah Khan, RamprasadBismil, RajendraLahiri and Roshan
Singh were hanged while many were sent to Andamans for life. Chandrashekhar Azad
remained at large. Statement 1 is incorrect.
HRA was reorganised as HSRA (Hindustan Socialist Republican Association) under Chandra
Shekhar Azad. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and many others were part of this HSRA. Statement
2 is incorrect.
Reference: Page: 299; History of Modern India, Bipan Chandra
Page: 248; India's Struggle for Independence, Bipan Chandra and others
Answer – a
37. Arrange the following areas containing minerals with the chronological order of
its formation:
1. Coal deposits of Gondwana
2. Diamonds of Vindhayan rocks
3. Granite and mica of Karnataka
4. Tertiary deposits found in Himalayas
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-3-1-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 2-3-4-1
Answer: c
Explanation: Archean Gneiss and Schist are the oldest rocks formed 4 billion years ago.
Gneiss is Mineral composition varies from granite to gabbros. Schist mostly crystalline
include mica, talc, hornblende, chlorite, etc. Known as the „Basement Complex‟ [They are
the oldest and form the base for new layers].
The diamonds found in the Vindhayan system was formed 1300-600 million years ago.
The Gondwana coal formed in the Permian period about 250 million years ago.
The tertiary deposit of Himalayas was formed around 60-7 million years ago.
46. Arrange the following types of coal in the decreasing content of carbon:
1. Bituminous
2. Anthracite
3. Peat
4. Lignite
Select the correct answer using the below codes:
(a) 2-1-4-3
(b) 3-4-1-2
(c) 2-1-3-4
(d) 1-2-4-3
Answer: a
Explanation: Anthracite: Anthracite is the highest rank of coal. Unlike other types of coal, it
is usually considered to be a metamorphic rock. It has a carbon content of over 87% on a dry
ash-free basis. Anthracite coal generally has the highest heating value per ton on a mineral-
matter-free basis. It is referred to as hard coal.
Bitumnous coal: Bituminous is the most abundant rank of coal.. Bituminous coal is formed
when a sub bituminous coal is subjected to increased levels of organic metamorphism. It has
a carbon content of between 77 and 87% on a dry ash-free basis and a heating value that is
much higher than lignite or sub bituminous coal. On the basis of volatile content, bituminous
coals are subdivided into low-volatile bituminous, medium-volatile bituminous, and high-
volatile bituminous. Bituminous coal is often referred to as "soft coal".
Sub bituminous coal: it is a lignite that has been subjected to an increased level of organic
metamorphism. This metamorphism has driven off some of the oxygen and hydrogen in the
coal. That loss produces coal with a higher carbon content (71 to 77% on a dry ash-free
basis).
Lignite: is the lowest rank of coal. It is a peat that has been transformed into a rock, and that
rock is a brown-black coal.. It has a carbon content of between 60 and 70% on a dry ash-free
basis. In Europe, Australia, and the UK, some low-level lignites are called "brown coal."
Peat: A mass of recently accumulated to partially carbonized plant debris. Peat is an organic
sediment. Burial, compaction, and coalification will transform it into coal, a rock. It has a
carbon content of less than 60% on a dry ash-free basis.
In the process of transformation (coalification), peat is altered to lignite, lignite is altered to
sub-bituminous, sub-bituminous coal is altered to bituminous coal, and bituminous coal is
altered to anthracite.
Source: geology.com
49. Arrange the following water bodies in the decreasing order of volume on earth:
1. Ice caps and glaciers
2. Oceans
3. Lakes
4. Groundwater
5. Soil moisture
6. Rivers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2-1-3-6-5-4
(b) 2-1-4-3-5-6
(c) 1-2-4-6-3-5
(d) 1-2-6-4-3-5
Answer: b
Explanation:
Water body Volume in %
Oceans 97.25
Ice caps & glaciers 2.05
Groundwater 0.68
Lakes 0.01
Soil moisture 0.005
Atmosphere 0.001
Streams and river 0.0001
Biosphere 0.00004
53. Which of the following is not a factor for the spatial temperature variation in the
oceans?
(a) Winds
(b) Latitude
(c) Rate of evaporation
(d) Unequal distribution of land and water
Answer: c
Explanation:Prevailing wind : the winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive
warm surface water away from the coast resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below.
It results into the longitudinal variation in the temperature. Contrary to this, the onshore
winds pile up warm water near the coast and this raises the temperature
Latitude : the temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles
because the amount of insolation decreases poleward.
Unequal distribution of land and water: the oceans in the northern hemispherereceive more
heat due to their contact with larger extent of land than the oceans in the southern
hemisphere.
The rate of evaporation in a particular area affects the humidity and precipitation levels in the
ocean rather than a direct effect on the spatial temperature variation of the oceans.
Ocean currents: warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas while the cold
currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas.
Source: Fundamentals of Physical Geography; NCERT; Chapter 13: Oceans
55. Oceans take more time to heat or cool than land because:
(a) They have a very large surface area than earth
(b) Vertical and horizontal mixing of the ocean waters
(c) Water is less denser than land
(d) Temperature changes over the oceans is more prominent than over the land
Answer: b
Explanation; The process of heating and cooling of the oceanic water is slower than land due
to vertical and horizontal mixing of the water by way of ocean currents winds etc. though the
other factors like density of water and surface area is a reason the above stated principle is the
most appropriate explanation.
61. Which one of the following factors is responsible for the change in the regular
direction of the ocean currents in the Indian ocean?
(a) Indian ocean is half an ocean
(b) Indian ocean has monsoonal drift
(c) Indian ocean is a landlocked ocean
(d) Indian ocean has greater variation in salinity
Answer: b
Explanation: Indian ocean is half an ocean, hence the behavior of the North Indian Ocean
Currents is different from that of Atlantic Ocean Currents or the Pacific Ocean Currents.
Also, monsoon winds in Northern Indian Ocean are peculiar to the region, which directly
influence the ocean surface water movement [North Indian Ocean Currents].
Indian Ocean Currents and Monsoons The currents in the northern portion of the Indian
Ocean change their direction from season to season in response to the seasonal rhythm of
the monsoons. The effect of winds is comparatively more pronounced in the Indian
Ocean.Under the influence of prevailing trade winds [easterly trade winds], the north
equatorial current and the south equatorial current start from the south of Indonesian islands,
moving from east to west.This raises the level of western Indian (south-east of horn of
Africa) ocean by few centimeters. And this creates a counter-equatorial current which
flows between the north equatorial current and the south equatorial current in west-
east direction.The north-east monsoons drive the water along the coast of Bay of Bengal to
circulate in an anti-clockwise direction. Similarly, the water along the coast of Arabian Sea
also circulate in an anti-clockwise circulation.
Answer – b
Source: http://www.hornbills.in/about-hornbills.php
http://www.conservationindia.org/articles/hornbill-watch-a-citizen-science-initiative-for-
indian-hornbills
66. Consider the following statements about Canine Distemper Virus (CDV):
1. It has been found to affect lions for the first time, at Gir National Park.
2. There exists no vaccine to safeguard against this virus.
3. CDV causes a highly contagious and life-threatening disease in some wild carnivores
including wolves and tigers.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Solution: (c)
Canine Distemper Virus (CDV) caused the death of five Asiatic lions in Gir forest, Gujarat,
the Indian Council of Medical Research's (ICMR) National Institute of Virology (NIV) has
found.
In the past, CDV has wiped out 30 per cent of the lion population in the Serengeti forests in
East Africa. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. Considering the threat posed by CDV, ICMR has
requested the Centre to take immediate steps to save the Asiatic lions, which are heading
towards extinction.
For the first time, NIV has recovered a complete genome of CDV. The sequence was
compared to available CDV sequences and was found to be related to the East African
strains. The scientists at ICMR-NIV recommended the existing CDV vaccine, which should
work as a protective intervention for the Gir lions. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
CDV causes a highly contagious and life-threatening disease in dogs. Hence Statement 3 is
correct. CDV also affects other wild carnivores, including wolves, foxes, raccoons, red
pandas, ferrets, hyenas, tigers, and lions.
Statement 3 is correct.
Source:
http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/Protected_Area_854.aspx
73. Which among the following are designated as UNESCO World Natural Heritage
sites in India?
1. Great Himalayan National Park
2. Ellora Caves
3. Chilika lake
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: (a)
The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) seeks to
encourage the identification, protection and preservation of cultural and natural heritage
around the world considered to be of outstanding value to humanity. This is embodied in an
international treaty called the Convention concerning the Protection of the World Cultural
and Natural Heritage, adopted by UNESCO in 1972.
Source: https://whc.unesco.org/en/about/
75. Which of the following is not a criteria for designation of a Biosphere Reserve?
(a) potential for preservation of traditional tribal or rural modes of living
(b) site that must contain an effectively protected and minimally disturbed core area of value
of nature conservation.
(c) The core area should be typical of a bio-geographical unit and large enough to sustain
viable populations representing all trophic levels
(d) None of the above
Solution: (d)
Criteria for designation of BR
A site that must contain an effectively protected and minimally disturbed core area of
value of nature conservation.
The core area should be typical of a bio-geographical unit and large enough to sustain
viable populations representing all trophic levels in the ecosystem.
The management authority to ensure the involvement/cooperation of local
communities to bring variety of knowledge and experiences to link biodiversity conservation
and socio-economic development while managing and containing the conflicts.
Areas potential for preservation of traditional tribal or rural modes of living for
harmonious use of environment.
Source: http://www.moef.nic.in/division/biosphere-reserves
76. Consider the following statements:
1. Aldabra atoll has the world's largest population of giant tortoises.
2. It is a world heritage site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: (c)
Aldabra Atoll is comprised of four large coral islands which enclose a shallow lagoon; the
group of islands is itself surrounded by a coral reef. Due to difficulties of access and the
atoll's isolation, Aldabra has been protected from human influence and thus retains some
152,000 giant tortoises, the world's largest population of this reptile. Hence Statement 1 is
correct.
The World Heritage Centre had taken note of concerns expressed by numerous citizens and
NGOs regarding the recent agreement signed between Seychelles and India to establish a
naval base on Assumption Island, located some 27 km from Aldabra Atoll World Heritage
property (Seychelles). Hence Statement 2 is correct.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/indian-oceans-most-important-
turtle-nesting-site-has-a-plastics-problem/article26592130.ece
\https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/protected-areas-matter-to-bumphead-
parrotfish/article26619712.ece
79. Consider the following statements about The Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
(KBR):
1. It is the biosphere reserve with highest altitude in the country.
2. The number of biosphere reserves from India included in the World Network of Biosphere
Reserves is 10.
3. Inclusion of the KBR in the UNESCO list will hit tourism and ongoing research in the
region.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Solution: (b)
The Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve (KBR) of Sikkim, the highest biosphere reserve in
the country that includes the third highest mountain peak in the world, Kanchenjunga (8,586
m), has been included in the UNESCO‘s World Network of Biosphere Reserve (WNBR).
Hence Statement 1 is correct.
With the inclusion of the KBR, one of the highest ecosystems in the world, reaching
elevations of 1,220 m to 8,586 m above sea level, the number of biosphere reserves from the
country included in World Network of Biosphere Reserves has increased to 11.
The last biosphere reserve to be included was the Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve in
Kerala in 2016. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first reserve from the country to be
included in the WNBR. India has 18 biospheres reserves, of which 11 have been included in
the WNBR. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Inclusion of the KBR in the UNESCO list will boost the unique ecosystem of Sikkim on two
counts: collaborative research and tourism. This development will boost international
research collaboration relating to flora, fauna and ecosystem of the KBR. Hence Statement 3
is incorrect.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/khangchendzonga-biosphere-
reserve-enters-unesco-list/article24659847.ece
80. Consider the following statements about The Important Bird Areas (IBAs)
programme:
1. It is a programme of Birdlife International that aims to identify, monitor and protect a
global network of IBAs.
2. The IBAs serve as conservation areas for protection of birds at the global, regional or sub-
regional level
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: (c)
Birds are excellent indicators of ecosystem health. The Important Bird Areas (IBAs)
programme of Birdlife International aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of
IBAs for conservation of the world's birds and associated ;biodiversity. Hence Statement 1
is correct.
The IBAs serve as conservation areas for protection of birds at the global, regional or sub-
regional level. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
According to Birdlife International, designation of IBAs is based on standardized criteria,
namely
(i) hold significant numbers of one or more globally threatened bird species,
(ii) be one of a set of sites that together hold a suite of restricted-range species or biome-
restricted species and
(iii) have exceptionally large numbers of migratory or congregatory birds.
The IBAs contain a range of habitats, such as wetlands, mudflats, microhabitats in
biodiversity hotspots, grasslands and scrublands, making them excellent indicators of
biodiversity richness. The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS; www.bnhs.org) and
Birdlife International have identified 467 IBAs in India. Forty percent of these IBAs fall
outside the PA network and thus form an important tool for landscape-level conservation
planning.
Source: http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/IBA_8463.aspx
81. Consider the following statements about Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs):
1. It includes areas that contribute to the global persistence of biodiversity.
2. The criteria for designating a site as KBA is given by UN Environment Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: (a)
Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) is an umbrella term commonly used to include areas that
contribute to the global persistence of biodiversity, including vital habitat for threatened plant
and animal species in terrestrial, freshwater and marine ecosystems. Hence Statement 1 is
correct.
Globally KBAs are designated based on 11 criteria defined under five broad categories of
threatened biodiversity; geographically restricted biodiversity; ecological integrity; biological
processes; and, irreplaceability.
The criteria for designating a site as KBA have been described in the document "The Global
Standard for the Identification of Key Biodiversity Areas (2016)" by International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN). IUCN identifies 531 KBA sites in India but these have no
legal basis. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Source:
http://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/Key_Biodiversity_Areas_8647.aspx
Answer (d)
Soil erosion due to weathering is a continuous phenomena which has been accelerated due to
impact of man. Landslides area a type of soil erosion that result in death and destruction.
ANSWER (b)
Majority (~67%) is stored as ice caps.
85. Which of the following is/are the advantages of using biopesticides over chemical
pesticides?
1. Protects water quality
2. Prevents deterioration of soil quality
3. Faster action on pests
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)
Solution:
Chemical pesticides contaminate the ground water thus polluting the primary source of
drinking water. Use of biopesticides prevents water pollution.
Use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers lead to deterioration of soil quality.Biopesticides
prevent this. Slow action on pests is the main characteristic of biopesticides. It is one of the
main disadvantages of biopesticides.
Answer: A
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct.
Central Adoption Resource Authority
Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of
Women & Child Development, Government of India.
It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to
monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.
CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in
accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Intercountry Adoption, 1993,
ratified by Government of India in 2003.
CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children
through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.
Statement 2 is incorrect.India has a skewed gender ratio, but the female child happens to be
the first choice when it comes to adoption.
The number of female children placed for in-country adoptions and inter-
country adoptions between 2015 and 2018 are relatively higher than male children.
All the figures put together, female children comprise almost 60% of all in-country
adoptions.
When it came to inter-country adoptions, the number of female children was even
higher of about 69%.
According to Central Adoption Resource Authority- the apex regulator of in-country
and inter-country adoptions – the trend is a reflection of declining gender bias in India.
Source: https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.thehindu.com/news/national/60-children-
adopted-in-india-between-2015-and-2018-are-girls/article26241070.ece/amp/
http://cara.nic.in/about/about_cara.html
Refer Pulse Magazine 36 (Feb 10-Feb 16 )
Answer: D
Explanation: Both the statements are correct.
TReDS refers to Trade Receivable Discounting System. TReDS is being setup as per
the RBI guideline issued on December 3, 2014.
It is an online electronic platform and an institutional mechanism for financing /
factoring of trade receivables of MSME Sellers against Corporate Buyers, Govt. Departments
and PSUs.
RXIL, a joint venture between National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE) and
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has been authorised by Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) to operate the TReDS platform.
The main objective of the TReDS platform is to address the financing needs of
MSMEs as well as the delayed payments issue.
What are Trade receivables?
Trade receivables are amounts billed by a business to its customers when it delivers goods or
services to them in the ordinary course of business.
Source: https://www.google.com/amp/s/wap.business-standard.com/article-amp/news-
ians/hal-becomes-first-psu-to-transact-on-treds-rxil-118081701275_1.html
http://www.rxil.in/Faq/Faq
Source:
https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/quality-
standards-for-spices-key-to-promoting-trade-says-expert/article26054134.ece/amp/
http://www.fao.org/fao-who-codexalimentarius/about-codex/en/
89. With reference to the Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) Propulsion Technology ,
Consider the following statements.
1. It is an indigenous technology jointly developed by DRDO and Hindustan
Aeronautics limited (HAL).
2. It helps to propel missiles at supersonic speeds.
3. It will help both surface-to-air and air-to-air missiles to increase their strike range.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 , 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect.
Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR): It is a missile propulsion technology jointly developed by
India and Russia.
Both Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Significance:
It will help both India‘s surface-to-air and air-to-air missiles to perform better and
enhance their strike range, making them more lethal.
With it, India can have fastest long-range missiles in two categories, providing full-
fledged and multi-layered aerial protection from hostile attacks.
Its successful use in missiles will mark India‘s entry into select club of nations that
use next-generation missile technology against manoeuvring targets, compromising
effectiveness of conventional missiles.
What is ramjet?
Ramjet is a form of air-breathing jet engine that uses the vehicle‘s forward motion to
compress incoming air for combustion without a rotating compressor.
Fuel is injected in the combustion chamber where it mixes with the hot compressed
air and ignites.
A ramjet-powered vehicle requires an assisted take-off like a rocket assist to
accelerate it to a speed where it begins to produce thrust.
Source
:https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/science/india-
successfully-tests-solid-fuel-ducted-ramjet-propelled-missile/article26230574.ece/amp/
Answer: A
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct.
The Customs Convention on International Transport of Goods under cover of
Transports InternationauxRoutiers(TIR )Carnets, 1975 (TIR Convention), is an
international transit system under the auspices of the United Nations Economic Commission
for Europe (UNECE) to facilitate the seamless movement of goods within and amongst the
Parties to the Convention.
The 1975 convention replaced the TIR Convention of 1959, which itself replaced the
1949 TIR Agreement between a number of European countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect.The TIR system not only covers customs transit by road but a
combination is possible with other modes of transport (e.g., rail, inland waterway, and even
maritime transport), as long as at least one part of the total transport is made by road.
Note :
India joined the TIR Convention (the United Nations Customs Convention on
International Transport of Goods under cover of TIR Carnets) on 15th June 2017.
TIR stands for 'Transports InternationauxRoutiers'. The convention allows goods to be
outlined in a TIR carnet and sealed in load compartments.
Customs verify the carnet and check the seals, with no need for physical checking of
the contents, enabling shipments to pass through countries without being opened at borders.
The TIR convention will help in fast and easy movement of goods across multiple
countries under a common customs document and guarantee.
"Reciprocal recognition of customs controls is at the heart of the Convention. This
enables a facilitative and non-intrusive environment for multi-modal transport of goods
through several countries.
Why this question?
The first shipment under the United Nations „Transports InternationauxRoutiers‟ (TIR)
convention arrived in India from Afghanistan through Iran‘s Chabahar Port.
Source: https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.thehindu.com/business/india-gets-first-tir-
shipment-via-chabahar-port-from-afghanistan/article26525062.ece/amp/
http://www.ficci.in/pressrelease-page.asp?nid=3375
Answer: B
Explanation: Human Capital Index (HCI) is been brought out by World Bank, which is first
of its kind index.
The HCI is based on five parameters child survival, school enrolment, quality of
learning in schools, healthy and safe environment for growth, and adult survival for each of
the 157 countries it mapped.
These parameters were chosen because studies show that they are closely linked with
a population‘s productivity.
For each country, the HCI value ranges between 0 and 1 and shows how far below its
potential a country performs.
Source :http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=184131
Answer:B
Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect.It has been found in wayanad district of Kerala.
Statement 2 is correct.The species has been named Astrobatrachuskurichiyana for its
constellation-like markings and the indigenous people of Kurichiyarmala, the hill range
where it was found. It is dark brown with a bright orange underbelly, and speckled with pale
blue dots.
Kurichiya Tribe
The tribe is also known as Malai Brahmins or Hill Brahmins.Theyare the second
largest adivasi community in Wayanad district.
They stand at the top of the caste hierarchy among the hill tribes of Wayanad.The
community was named Kurichiya by the Kottayam Raja for the community‘s expertise in
archery.
The name is derived from the phrase ‗kurivechavan‘, which means ‗he who took aim‘.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/astrobatrachus-kurichiyana-frog-
species-millions-of-years-old-newly-found-in-ghats-5627136/
93. Consider the following statements about the Mega Food Park Scheme.
1. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is implementing Mega Food Park
Scheme in the country.
2. India has only two Mega Food Park in the country.
3. India‘s first mega food park ‗Srini Mega Food Park‘, was opened in Chittoor in
Andhra Pradesh in 2012.
Which of the above statements is\are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 , 2 and 3
Answer:C
Explanation:Both the Statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.To give a major boost to
the food processing sector by adding value and reducing food wastage at each stage of the
supply chain with particular focus on perishables, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries
is implementing Mega Food Park Scheme in the country. So far there are Twelve Mega Food
Parks.
Statement 3 is correct.
Note:The Scheme of Mega Food Park aims at providing a mechanism to link agricultural
production to the market by bringing together farmers, processors and retailers so as to ensure
maximizing value addition, minimizing wastage, increasing farmers income and creating
employment opportunities particularly in rural sector. The Mega Food Park Scheme is based
on ―Cluster‖ approach and envisages creation of state of art support infrastructure in a well-
defined agri / horticultural zone for setting up of modern food processing units in the
industrial plots provided in the park with well-established supply chain.
Source:
http://mofpi.nic.in/Schemes/mega-food-parks
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=188133
95. Which of the following statements is \are the correct regarding Swachh Shakti
Programme.
1. It aims to provide separate toilets for girls in all government schools.
2. It aims at behavioural change by providing monetary assistance to women households
for constructing toilets.
3. It aims to bring to focus the leadership role played by rural women in the Swachh
Bharat Mission.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1563870
Answer:A
Explanation:
The Sunshine Policy refers to the theoretical basis for South Korea's foreign policy
towards North Korea.The formal name of the policy was the "Comprehensive Engagement
Policy towards North Korea" and first announced by the 15th South Korean President, Kim
Dae-jung, in 1998.
The policy emerged largely in the context of growing economic gap between the two
Koreas, where the South was moving in the path of strengthening its nation powered by the
economic prosperity achieved from president Park Chung-hee's administration in the 1970s
throughout the 1990s while the North was falling into severe economic decline.
Facing bankruptcy and spending excessive portion of its funds on warfare along with
the nuclear program, North Korea faced widespread starvation among its people during the
time.Sunshine Policy was aimed at mitigating this gap in economic power and restoring lost
communication between two nations.
The Sunshine policy was based on three following principles:
No armed provocation by the North will be tolerated.
The South will not attempt to absorb the North in any way.
The South actively seeks cooperation.
Source: http://large.stanford.edu/courses/2017/ph241/min2/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sunshine_Policy
97. Consider the following pairs. Which of these is\are correctly matched.
Islands : Countries
1. Reunion : Greece
2. Corsica : France
3. Chagos Archipelago : United Kingdom
Select the correct answer using the codes given.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
Answer:B
Explanation:
The Chagos Archipelago is a group of seven atolls comprising more than 60
individual tropical islands in the Indian Ocean.
It is officially part of the British Indian Ocean Territory. Reunion is an overseas
department and region of France and an island in the Indian Ocean.
Corsica is an island in the Mediterranean Sea and one of the 18 regions of France.
Recently, The International Court of Justice (ICJ) issued an advisory opinion that
Britain has an obligation to end its administration of the Chagos Archipelago — home to the
U.S. military base of Diego Garcia — and complete the process of decolonisation of
Mauritius.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/uk-should-hand-over-chagos-
islands-to-mauritius-icj/article26367827.ece
98. With reference to the scheme,“SevaBhojYojna” launched by the Government of
India, consider the following statement
1. It aims to reimburse Central Government share of Central Goods and Services Tax
(CGST) and Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST) of Charitable Religious Institutions
(CRIs) providing food.
2. It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
Which of the following statements given is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:A
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The scheme envisages to reimburse the Central
Government share of Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated Goods and
Service Tax (IGST)so as to lessen the financial burden of such Charitable Religious
Institutions who provide Food/Prasad/Langar (Community Kitchen)/Bhandara free of cost
without any discrimination to Public/Devotees.
Statement 2 is Incorrect.It is an initiative of the Ministry of Culture.
Source: http://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/minority-welfare-1/seva-bhoj-yojna
Answer:C
Explanation:Both the statements are correct.The Global Footprint Network is an
international think tank promoting and driving sustainable policy decisions in a world of
limited resources. Together with its various partners, Global Footprint Network (GFN)
coordinates research, develops methodological standards, and provides decision makers with
a menu of tools to help the human economy operate within Earth‘s ecological limits.
Global Footprint Network calculates Earth Overshoot Day every year using
Ecological Footprint accounting, which adds up all of people‘s competing demands on
nature, including demand for food, timber, and fibers (cotton); absorption of carbon
emissions from burning fossil fuels; and buildings, roads and other infrastructure.
August 1 is the earliest Earth Overshoot Day since the world went into ecological
overshoot in the 1970s.The Global Footprint Network was founded in 2003 with the aim to
safeguard a sustainable world for all people in which they can live a fulfilled life within
natural ecological boundaries.
The headquarters of the Global Footprint Network is located in Oakland (USA), with
further offices in Switzerland, Belgium and the Philippines.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/an-end-to-our-
means/article24531989.ece