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INDEX :- Chapter name Pg no

2) VDF
16) Vasi and papi lights



Electromagnetic waves
A magnetic field is created whenever electric charges move. An electric field is also created
when the charges are in alternating current. When both a magnetic field and electric field exist,
the two field are collectively known as electromagnetic radiation. If an alternating current is
passed through an aerial, it will create an electromagnetic wave which travels outward from
the aerial.

When electromagnetic wave is transmitted two components i.e. electrical and magnetic travel
together at the speed of light at right angles to each other and at right angle to the direction of
Polarization of electromagnetic wave is referred w.r.t. electrical component of radio wave.
When transmission is made from a vertical aerial the electrical component travels in vertical
plane and associated magnetic component in horizontal plane. Thus, the transmission is
vertically polarized.


CYCLE:- The complete series of value which a wave attains in a given time. One cycle is 360 deg.

AMPLITUDE:- Maximum displacement of a wave from its mean position.

WAVE LENGTH :- Distance between two successive troughs and crest.

Upper limit of amplitude-Trough Lower limit of amplitude – Crest
Wavelength is denoted by lambda .Unit of wavelength is meters.

FREQUENCY :- Number of cycles per second .Unit of frequency is hertz. 1 cycle/second = 1 hertz
Frequency = C / ƛ Where C = speed of light i.e. 3𝑥108 m/sec

ƛ = meters , frequency=hertz.
1 cycle/sec = 1 hertz.
1 Kilohertz = 1000 hertz = 103 Hertz
1 Megahertz = 1000 kilohertz = 106 Hertz
1 Gigahertz = 1000 Megahertz =109 Hertz


Q. ƛ=1.5km , find frequency in Khz.
Sol. F = C / ƛ
=3𝑥108 / 1.5km
=3𝑥108 / 1500m
= 200000
Since, 1 kilohertz = 103 Hertz
Therefore, frequency = 200 Khz .


Phase Difference:-Angular difference between two waves of “same frequency” at a given


The process of super imposing audio signal on carrier waves is called modulation. In all
cases radio wave act as a vehicle for information.

In amplitude modulation the amplitude of carrier wave is varied in accordance with
audio signal by keeping the frequency constant.

Normal frequency Audible to human hear 20-20000 hertz.

AM can be used either to radiate or send speech, music, coded messages to audio


Frequency of a carrier wave is varied in accordance to frequency of audio wave by
keeping the amplitude constant.


 Characteristics of AM
Transmitter is complicated to design, whereas receiver is simple.
Prone to external noise or static interference.
Used in AM. Radio

 Characteristics of FM
Transmitter is simpler and receiver is difficult to design.
Free from static interference.
For the same transmission power range is less.
Used in T.V, FM Radio, Aeronautical communication.

Achieved by giving short pulses of either amplitude or frequency modulated carrier wave.
The pulse carries information to be transmitted. It cannot be used for voice transmissions.
Used in primary and secondary radar.


Phase of carrier wave is varied in accordance to the audio frequency keeping other
parameters constant (frequency, amplitude)
This modulation is used to achieve time reference.
It is used in GPS.

Emission Designators:


Marker Beacons A2A



 Type’s of Wave’s :-
1. Direct Wave
2. Ground reflected wave – a wave received at receiver after getting reflected from its
3. Direct + Ground reflected wave = Space Wave.
4. Surface wave – wave which follow earth’s curvature and physical attributes ( building
mountains) are called as surface wave. It bends to attenuation and diffraction.
5. Space wave + Surface wave = Ground wave.

» Reflection is 180 deg change in direction.

» Refraction is change in direction when passing from one medium to another.
» Diffraction is change in direction or scattered.
» Attenuation is being absorbed or reduction in amplitude with distance.

» Relationship between frequency and ground wave attenuation

More the frequency more is the attenuation, therefore less Range.

» Relationship between frequency and Ground wave diffractions

Higher the frequency low is diffraction, therefore Range is less.

» Drawback’s of transmitting power at low frequency.

1.Larger antenna or aerial size.
2.Satellite interference is more.
3.Higher transmission power required for transmitter.

NOTE:- Surface wave has maximum range compared to other waves.


 Troposphere.
It is the region where all weather occurs.
Every thunderstorm produces electrical effects including emissions of EM waves.
This static is mainly in lower frequency bands and is often strong enough to mark
transmitted signal at long ranges.

 Ionosphere.
It is traditionally divided into 3 refractive layers .
The height of the various layers depends upon the ultraviolet i.e. UV rays from sun.
Ionosphere reflects and refracts waves of certain frequency.

Region of upper layer of atmosphere which is negatively charged due UV rays is

As density within the layer of ionosphere changes refractive index of ionosphere also
changes which causes waves to bend towards earth.

1. Sky Wave – Wave received after getting refracted from ionosphere is called sky wave.


2. Angle of incidence – Angle which the radio wave makes with the normal of transmitter
is called angle of incidence.

3. Critical angle – Angle of incidence at which the 1st sky wave return is received is called
critical angle.

4. Skip distance – Distance between transmitter to the point where 1st sky wave return is
received is called as skip distance.

5. Dead space – Distance between limit of ground wave to the point where 1st sky wave
return is received is known as dead space.

 Relationship Between……
1.Frequency and C.A.
Frequency increases , critical angle increases .
directly proportional.

2.Frequency and Skip distance .

Frequency increases , skip distance increases.
directly proportional.

3.Frequency and Dead space.

Frequency increases , dead space increases from both side.
directly proportional.
4.Frequency and Ionosphere attenuation .
Frequency increases Ionosphere attenuation decreases.
inversely proportional.


5.Frequency and Ionosphere refraction .

Frequency increases ,ionospheric refraction decreases.
inversely proportional.

6. Frequency and Ground wave attenuation.

Frequency increases Ground wave attenuation increases.
directly proportional.

During night ‘D’ layer disappears due to non-availability of UV rays and electron density
in ‘E’ layer reduces . If transmission is continued at same frequency the radio signals
travel further more into the ionosphere before getting refracted. Due to this skip
distance and dead space increases causing the receiver to come into the dead space . To
avoid this , communication frequency are reduced to half during night causing C.A ;Skip
distance and dead space to decrease thus receiver can receive signals again.

Antennae or aerials are the means by which radio energy is radiated and received. The
type of antenna used will be determined by the function the radio system is required to

Many systems require the directional emission or reception of energy, for example;
radar, ILS, MLS and many more. How this directivity is achieved depends on the
frequency and application.
The simplest way to achieve directivity is to add parasitic elements to the aerial. If we
place a metal rod 5% longer than the aerial at a distance of quarter of a wavelength
from the aerial and in the same plane as the aerial, it will act as a reflector.
Directivity Using Reflector This reflector re-radiates the energy 180° out of phase, the
resulting polar diagram is shown above, with no signal behind the reflector and
increased signal in front of the aerial.

1. A radio wave is:
a. an energy wave comprising an electrical field in the same plane as a magnetic field


b. an electrical field alternating with a magnetic field

c. an energy wave where there is an electrical field perpendicular to a magnetic field
d. an energy field with an electrical component

2. The speed of radio waves is:

a. 300 km per second
b. 300 million metres per second
c. 162 nm per second
d. 162 million nm per second

3. The plane of polarisation of an electromagnetic wave is:

a. the plane of the magnetic field
b. the plane of the electrical field
c. the plane of the electrical or magnetic field dependent on the plane of the aerial
d. none of the above

4. If the wavelength of a radio wave is 3.75 metres, the frequency is:

a. 80 kHz b. 8 MHz c. 80 MHz d. 800 kHz

5. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 125 MHz is:

a. 2.4 m b. 24 m c. 24 cm d. 24 mm

6. The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 6.98 cm is:

a. 4298 GHz b. 4.298 GHz c. 429.8 GHz d. 42.98 GHz

7. The frequency band containing the frequency corresponding to 29.1 cm is:

a. HF b. VHF c. SHF d. UHF

8. To carry out a phase comparison between two electromagnetic waves:

a. both waves must have the same amplitude
b. both waves must have the same frequency
c. both waves must have the same amplitude and frequency
d. both waves must have the same phase

9. The phase of the reference wave is 110° as the phase of the variable wave is 315°. What is
the phase difference?
a. 205° b. 025° c. 155° d. 335°


10. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 15 625 MHz is:

a. 1.92 m b. 19.2 m c. 1.92 cm d. 19.2 cm

11. Which frequency band is a wavelength of 1200 m?

a. UHF b. LF c. HF d. MF

12. The process which causes the reduction in signal strength as range from a transmitter
increases is known as:
a. absorption b. diffraction c. attenuation d. ionization

13. Which of the following will give the greatest surface wave range?
a. 243 MHz b. 500 kHz c. 2182 khz d. 15 MHz

14. It is intended to increase the range of a VHF transmitter from 50 nm to 100 nm. This will be
achieved by increasing the power output by a factor of:
a. 2 b. 8 c. 16 d. 4

15. A 300 kHz transmitter has an output of 1600 watts, the effective range over the sea will be:
a. 52 nm b. 80 nm c. 35 nm d. 120 nm

16. The maximum range an aircraft at 2500 ft can communicate with a VHF station at 196 ft is:
a. 80 nm b. 64 nm c. 52 nm d. 65 nm

17. What is the minimum height for an aircraft at a range of 200 nm to be detected by a radar
at 1600 ft amsl?
a. 25,500 ft b. 15,000 ft c. 40,000 ft d. 57,500 ft



10 C
11 B
12 C
13 B
14 D
15 D
16 A
17 B

Chapter 2 VHF Direction Finder (VDF)


QDM - Aircraft’s Magnetic Heading to steer in zero wind to reach the station; used mainly for
station homing and letdowns.
QDR - Aircraft’s Magnetic Bearing from the station; used for en-route navigation.
QTE - Aircraft’s True Bearing from the station; used for en-route navigation.
QUJ - Aircraft’s True Track to the station; not generally used.

VDF bearings are classified as follows:

Class A: accurate to within + 2°
Class B: accurate to within + 5°
Class C: accurate to within + 10°
Class D: accurate to > 10°



1. An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300 nm, if the ground station
is situated 2,500’ amsl which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to
be made?
a. 190’ b. 1,378’ c. 36,100’ d. 84,100’

2. Class ‘B’ VHF DF bearings are accurate to within:

a. + - 1° b. + - 5° c. + - 2° d. + - 10°

3. A VDF QDM given without an accuracy classification may be assumed to be accurate to

a. 2 degrees b. 5 degrees c. 7.5 degrees d. 10 degrees

4. An aircraft at altitude 9,000 feet wishes to communicate with a VHF/DF station that is
situated at 400 feet amsl. What is the maximum range at which contact is likely to be made ?
a. 115nm b. 400nm c. 143nm d. 63.5nm

5. An aircraft is passed a true bearing from a VDF station of 353°. If variation is 8°E and the
bearing is classified as ‘B’ then the:
a. QDM is 345° +- 5°
b. QDR is 345° +- 2°
c. QTE is 353° +- 5°
d. QUJ is 353° +- 2°

6. An aircraft at 19,000ft wishes to communicate with a VDF station at 1,400ft amsl. What is the
maximum range at which contact is likely ?
a. 175nm b. 400.0nm c. 62.5nm d. 219nm


Chapter 3 ADF/NDB




 Type of Bearing’s:-
» True bearing :-Measured with respect to True North.
»Magnetic Bearing :- W.R.T. to magnetic North .
»Relative Bearing :- Bearing measured from the nose of A/C in clockwise direction to the
station .

PURPOSE :- Gives R.B. to the ground station .

Frequency of NDB is 190khz – 450khz .

Frequency of ADF is 190khz – 1750khz.
BAND :- Upper LF and Lower MF Band.

Principle of operation :- Bearing by Loop Theory .

Working :- Consists of two antenna’s i.e. loop antenna sense antenna .

Loop antenna has directional properties when loop is aligned i.e. at 0 deg w.r.t. NDB
both vertical arms receive signal in different phase causing potential difference which in
turn induces EMF .
When loop antenna is 90 deg to NDB induces EMF is zero therefore induced EMF varies
as a function of COS antenna angle .
A simple loop antenna suffers from 180 deg ambiguity.
This ambiguity is resolved by using sense antenna .
Polar diagram of loop antenna is a figure of 8 and that of sense antenna is a circle .So
combined polar diagram of both aerials is called Cardiode which has 1 maxima and 1
minima .

Null position of cardioid is used to rotate pointer of R.B.I.


Loop antenna is rotated in such a manner so that null is always 90 deg to the station.

 Factor’s Affecting Accuracy of ADF.

1. Night Effect – During night due to lesser electron density sky wave is also present in
MF band as well. This sky wave interferers with horizontal arm of loop causing R.B.I.
pointer to hunt or oscillate this error is called night effect.

Method’s to reduce Night Effect :-

» Use the beacon which is transmitting at lower frequency because lower the frequency more is
the ionosphere attenuation and therefore presence of sky wave will be lower.
» Use a beacon which is transmitting at high transmission power as ground wave will be
» Use a NDB which 70nm from the A/C position, as 1st sky wave return is received at a skip
distance of 70nm or more.

Atmosphere density over sea is lesser than density over land.
A radio signal when crossing a coastline will bend away from normal or towards land or towards
the denser medium, this will cause position of A/C to be shown closer to land than actual
distance. This is called coastal error.

 Method’s to reduce coastal error:-

» flying as high as possible, as atmospheric density will be similar at higher level.
»Use a beacon which is located near to the coast line.
» Use a beacon whose signal is leaving coast line at 90 deg. Acuter the angle more
will be the error.

Electromagnetic field of aircraft causes radio signal to undergo directional change
before it reaches loop aerial. This error is called quadrantal error. The error is
maximum when signal is approaching to aircraft from quadrantal headings or inter
cardinal heading.
Example:- an aircraft is flying on heading of 315 deg which of the following signals
will cause maximum quadrantal error?
a. 270 *
b. 225
c. 135


4. INTERFERENCE ERROR:-When aircraft is operating in coverage area of more then

1NDB, the aircraft may experience interference. The error caused due to this is
called interference.
To prevent this DOC is given in AIP.
DOC – Designated Operational Coverage.
In DOC it is guaranteed that there will be no interference from any other NDB it is
called protected range.

» DOC for NDB is valid only for day because there may be interference by sky wave
during night .

Interference caused due to any atmospheric condition’s like thunderstorm .

6. LOOP ALLIGNMENT :-When loop is not aligned properly .

 Factor’s affecting Range of NDB :-

1. Transmission Power
More the transmission power, more will be the range.
Range α √𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐧𝐬𝐦𝐢𝐬𝐬𝐢𝐨𝐧 𝐩𝐨𝐰𝐞𝐫
To double the NDB Range, increase power 4 times.

2. Terrain
Between land and sea more range will be over sea, Hills and plain more range will
over plain.

3. Frequency
Lower the Frequency Higher Would Be the Range
4. Night Effect
Night Effects Causes Ndb Range to Reduce To A Max Of 70nm.
5. DOC – It causes the range to reduce.

 Types of NDB’S :-
1. Locater NDB – These are low powered NDB’s and normally collocated with ILS
Marker . Range is 10-15 Nm.
2. Homing and Holding NDB’s – used for medium range Navigation , Range is upto 50
nm .
3. Long Range NDB’s – used for long range Navigation .


NDB Ground transmitter in LF or MF band ( 190 - 1750 kHz )

Types of NDB: Locator (L) - airfield let-down (10 - 25 nm)

En Route - Nav-aid (50 nm or more)

Range (nm) 3 x √P (W) over water

2 x √P (W) over land

ADF Airborne equipment - aerials, receiver, control unit, indicator (RBI / RMI)

Principle of operation (Relative) Bearing by switched cardioids

Frequencies 190 - 1750 kHz (LF & MF)

Emission characteristics N0NA1A - BFO ON for tuning, identification and monitoring

N0NA2A - BFO ON for tuning, OFF otherwise
Presentation RBI or RMI

Uses of NDB Homing, Holding, Approach, En route nav-aid

Static interference (precipitation and thunderstorms) Station interference Night
effect Mountain effect Coastal refraction Quadrantal error Bank angle (dip)
Lack of failure warning

Accuracy (Day Only) +/- 5° within the DOC

1. The phenomenon of coastal refraction which affects the accuracy of ADF bearings:
a. is most marked at night.
b. can be minimised by using beacons situated well inland.
c. can be minimised by taking bearings where the signal crosses the coastline at right
d. is most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset.


2. An aircraft is intending to track from NDB ‘A’ to NDB ‘B’ on a track of 050° (T),
heading 060° (T). If the RBI shows the relative bearing of ‘A’ to be 180° and the
relative bearing of ‘B’ to be 330° then the aircraft is:
a. Port of track and nearer ‘A’.
b. Port of track and nearer ‘B’.
c. Starboard of track and nearer ‘A’
d. Starboard of track and nearer ‘B’.

3. ADF Quadrantal Error is caused by:

a. static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo’s Fire.
b. the aircraft’s major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the
incoming NDB transmissions.
c. station interference and/or night effect.
d. NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water
propagation path.

4. The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within the Promulgated Range (DOC)
a. ± 3° b. ± 5° c. ± 6° d. ± 10°

5. In order to Tune, Identify and Monitor NON A1A NDB emissions the BFO should be
used as follows:
Tune Identify Monitor
a. On On Off
b. On On On
c. On Off Off
d. Off Off Off

6. The magnitude of the error in position lines derived from ADF bearings that are
affected by coastal refraction may be reduced by:
a. selecting beacons situated well inland.
b. only using beacons within the designated operational coverage.
c. choosing NON A2A beacons.
d. choosing beacons on or near the coast.

7 The BFO facility on ADF equipment should be used as follows when an NDB having
NON A1A type emission is to be used:
a. BFO on for tuning and identification but may be turned off for monitoring.


b. BFO on for tuning but can be turned off for monitoring and identification purpose.
c. BFO off during tuning, identification and monitoring because this type of emission
is not modulated.
d. BFO should be switched on for tuning, ident and monitoring.

8. The Protection Ratio of 3:1 that is provided within the Promulgated

range/Designated Operational Coverage of an NDB by day cannot be guaranteed at
night because of:
a. Long range skywave interference from other transmitters. b. Skywave signals from
the NDB to which you are tuned. c. The increased skip distance that occurs at night.
d. The possibility of sporadic E returns occurring at night.

9.Each NDB has a range promulgated in the COMM section of the Air Pilot. Within
this range interference from other NDBs should not cause bearing errors in excess
a. day ± 5 b. night ± 10 c. day ± 6 d. night ± 5

10. The range promulgated in the Air Pilot and flight guides for all NDBs in the UK is
the range:
a. Within which a protection ratio of 3:1 is guaranteed by day and night.
b. Up to which bearings can be obtained on 95% of occasions.
c. Within which bearings obtained by day should be accurate to within 5°.
d. Within which protection from skywave protection is guaranteed.

11. In order to resolve the 180° directional ambiguity of a directional LOOP aerial its
polar diagram is combined with that of a SENSE aerial ................................ to
produce a............... whose single null ensures the ADF needle moves the shortest
distance to indicate the correct................
a at the aircraft, cardioid, radial.
b. at the transmitter, limacon, bearing.
c. at the aircraft, limacon, bearing.
d. at the aircraft, cardioid, bearing.

12. The protection ratio afforded to NDBs in the UK within the Promulgated
range(DOC) applies:
a. by day only. b. by night only. c. both day and night. d. at dawn and dusk.


13. The phenomena of coastal refraction affecting ADF bearings is caused by the
signal _______ when it reaches the coastline and bending _______ the normal to
the coast:
a. accelerating towards
b. decelerating towards
c. accelerating away from
d. decelerating away from

14. In an ADF system, night effect is most pronounced:

a. during long winter nights.
b. when the aircraft is at low altitude.
c. when the aircraft is at high altitude.
d. at dusk and dawn.

15. When the induced signals from the loop and the sense antenna are combined in
an ADF receiver, the resultant polar diagram is:
a. a limacon b. a cardioid c. figure of eight shaped d. circular

16. When flying over the sea and using an inland NDB to fix position with a series of
position lines, the plotted position in relation to the aircraft’s actual position will be:
a. further from the coast.
b. closer to the coast. c. co-incident.
d. inaccurate due to the transmitted wave front decelerating.

17. An aircraft on a heading of 235°(M) shows an RMI reading of 090° with respect
to an NDB. Any quadrantal error which is affecting the accuracy of this bearing is
likely to be:
a. a maximum value.
b. a very small value.
c. zero, since quadrantal error affects only the RBI.
d. zero, since quadrantal error affects only the VOR.

18. The principal propagation path employed in an NDB/ADF system is:

a. skywave b. surface wave c. direct wave d. ducted wave

19. The ADF of an aircraft on a heading of 189°(T) will experience the greatest
effect due to Quadrantal Error if the NDB bears:
a. 234°(T) b. 279°(T) c. 225°(T) d. 145°(T)



Principal:- Bearing by phase difference comparison.

Frequency :- 108 – 117.95 Mhz .

Used by VOR and ILS Used by VOR
(108 – 112 Mhz ) ( 112-117.95Mhz)

1st Even decimal – VOR

Eg: 108.203 , 110 .404 , 112.602

1st Odd decimal – ILS ( Loc )

Eg : 108.99 , 109.301, 111.701

WORKING :- VOR ground transmitter has two aerials fixed and rotating .
» Fixed aerial transmits a horizontally polarized continous wave signal of 30 Hz which is
frequency modulated and called reference signal . This signal is received in same phase
in all directions .
» Polar diagram of fixed aerial is a circle .
» A directional or variable signal is transmitted by a rotating aerial which rotates
electronically at 30 Hz / Sec or 30 cycles / sec.
» This signal is AM and received in different phase in all directions .
» The polar diagram of the rotating antenna is rotating figure of 8.
» Both variable and fixed signal are in phase at magnetic North .
» The phase difference between two transmissions at any point around is equal to the
Magnetic Brg of A/C from the station .
» A/C equipment finds the phase difference and gives QDR’s or Magnetic Brg from the
station which are known as radials .

 Polar Diagram :-


» Difference between Cardioid and Limacon .

1. Cardioid has one well defined diagram .
2. Cardioid is receiver’s polar diagram .
3. Rotating Limacon is transmitter polar diagram .


» VOR ground Beacon transmits signal’s which are inclined at 60 deg – 80deg above the
earth’s surface to the horizontal plane,due to this there is no transmission vertically
above the beacon .This area in the form of cone where no useful signal is available is
called cone of confusion .
» Some spill-over signal may exist in this cone .
» Indications over the cone of confusion are :
1. TO or FROM flag flicker’s
2. C.D.I. Needle oscillates
3. Failure warning flag may come ON and go OFF .

 Factor’s Affecting Range of VOR :-

Range α √𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒏𝒔𝒎𝒊𝒔𝒔𝒊𝒐𝒏 𝒑𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓
Double the range ,4 times power .

2. LINE OF SIGHT :-Range of VOR depends upon height od A/C and elevation of VOR
transmitter .
Range = [ 1.25 √𝑯𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝑻𝒙 + 1.25 √𝑯𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝑹𝒙 ]
(In feet) (In feet)

3. DOC :- Designated Operational Coverage

DOC causes effective range of VOR to reduce guaranteed that there will note be any
interference from nearby operating VOR .
 DOC of VOR is given in both in Range and Altitude .

 DOC of VOR is valid through Day and Night .

 Factor’s affecting accuracy of VOR :-

1. SITE ERROR – ( VOR cause displacement error)
Error is caused due to location of VOR Beacon and presence of physical obstacles in
the vicinity.
It is maximum permissible up to +/- 1 deg.
In case the error is exceeded transmitter is shut down .

2. PROPAGATIONAL ERROR :- During propagational of signal phase shift might take

place because of reflection , refraction , or diffraction .
It is maximum permissible upto +/- 1 deg.
3. AIRBORNE EQUIPMENT ERROR :- Error is caused due to VOR receiver’s inaccuracy
and is inherent in the A/C equipment .
It is maximum permissible upto +/- 1 deg.

4. PILOTAGE ERROR :- A s coming close to the BCN radials are more closer to each
other , due to this there may be error in flying a particular radial .

5. BEACON ALLIGNMENT ERROR :- If reference and variable signal are aligned to

magnetic North radials get displaced causing wrong indication .

1. Transmitted signal is +/- 3 deg (95 % of time)
2. Overall VOR equipment +/- 5 deg (95 % of time)
3. Accuracy of ground equipment +/- 4 deg
4. Accuracy in air +/- 6 deg
5. Accuracy when using 2 vor’s +/- 2deg
6. Airborne equipment error +/- 1 deg

1. Assuming the maximum likely error in VOR to be 5.5°, what is the maximum
distance apart that beacons can be situated on the centre line of a UK airway in
order that an aircraft can guarantee remaining within the airway boundary?
a. 54.5 nm b. 109 nm c. 66 nm d. 132 nm

2. The Designated Operational Coverage quoted for VOR beacons in the COMM
section of the Air Pilot:


a. Is only applicable by day.

b. Guarantees a Protection Ratio of at least 3 to 1 by day and night.
c. Defines the airspace within which an aircraft is assured of protection from
interference from other VORs on the same channel.
d. Is determined by the type of surface over which the signal will have to travel.

3.What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 360 will
obtain from a VOR beacon situated at 900 feet above mean sea level?
a. 274 nms b. 255 nms c. 112 nms d. 224 nms

4. A Conventional VOR:
a. has an FM reference signal and an AM variable signal
b. has a 150Hz reference signal and a 90Hz variable signal
c. has an AM reference signal and a 150 Hz variable signal
d. has an AM reference signal and an FM variable signal.

5. The OBS on a deviation indicator is set to 330° and gives a 3 dots fly right demand
with FROM indicated. What is the QDM of the aircraft to the station?
a. 144 b. 324 c. 336 d. 156

6. An aircraft is homing towards a VOR which marks the centre line of an airway. The
beacon is 100 nms distant. If the pilot had the airway QDM set on the OBS what
deflection of the deviation indicator would be given if the aircraft was on the
boundary of the airway? Assume that one dot equals 2 degrees.
a. 3 dots b. 2 dots c. 2.5 dots d. 1.5 dots

7. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 420 will
obtain from a VOR beacon situated at 400 feet above mean sea level?
a. 225 nm b. 256 nm c. 281 nm d. 257 nm

8. Concerning conventional and Doppler VORs (DVOR), which of the following is

a. There is no way of knowing from the instrumentation display which type is being
b. The DVOR will always have a “D” in the ident.
c. The DVOR has a higher pitch ident than the standard VOR.
d. The conventional VOR has less site error.


9. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _________, the bearing signal is
_________ and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is _________:
a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise.
b. AM, FM, clockwise.
c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise.
d. FM, AM, clockwise.

10. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4
dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a
range of 45 nm. Where is the aircraft in relation to the required track?
a. 6 nm right of track b. 3 nm right of track. c. 6 nm left of track. d. 3 nm left of track.

11. A VOR beacon ceases to transmit its normal identification which is substituted by
‘TST’. This means that:
a. The beacon may be used providing that extreme caution is used.
b. The beacon is undergoing maintenance or calibration and should not be used.
c. This is a temporary short range transmission and will have approximately half its
normal range.
d. The beacon is under test and pilots using it should report its accuracy to air traffic

12. What is the approximate maximum range that an aircraft flying at 25000’ would
expect to obtain from a VOR beacon situated 900’ above mean sea level?
a. 220nm b. 100nm c. 235nm d. 198nm

13. An aircraft is on the airway boundary range 100 nm from a VOR marking the
airway centre line. Assuming that each dot equates to 2° how many dots deviation
will be shown on the deviation indicator?
a. 3.0 dots b. 2.5 dots c. 2.0 dots d. 1.5 dots

14. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 Radial. The
OBS should be set to:
a. 064 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
b. 244 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
c. 064 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication.
d. 244 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication



 Purpose :- Land on the runway when you cannot see the runway with the help
Instruments .
 It has three components Localizer , Glideslope and Marker Beacons .

» Localizer gives azimuthal information ,

» Glideslope gives elevation information ,
» Marker Beacons give range from the runway .

 Localizer – Frequency is 108 – 112 Mhz , 1st odd decimals only.

Band is VHF .
Principle :- Bearing by lobe comparison or difference in depth of modulation .


 Glideslope – 329 – 335Mhz .

Principle – BDM or Brg by lobe comparison .

 Beacon Markers :-

The glide slope equipment is 1000’ from the downwind threshold and 150 mtrs away
parallel to the runway centerline .

Localizer Bcn is 1000’ or 300mtrs from the upwind threshold of the runway .

 Indicator System :-
Localizer +/- 2.5 deg on each side total of 5deg
Therefore in a 4 dot indicator = 2.5 / 4
= 0.625deg
5 dot indicator = 2.5 / 5 = 0.5deg

Max = +/- 0.7 deg full deflection
Therefore in a 4 dot indicator each dot = 0.7/4


= 0.175deg
In a 5 dot indicator = 0.7 / 5 = 0.14deg
Max safe deflection of a glideslope is half of full scale deflection . If the deflection is
more than half then carry on a missed approach .

 False glideslope :-
Due to propagation characteristics of twin lobe pattern of glideslope gets repeated one
above the other giving rise to false glideslope .1st glideslope will appear at 6 deg .

NOTE :- 1ST false glideslope will appear at 3deg above the actual glideslope .

» Indications on false glideslope :

1. High rate of descent .
2. Altitude or height over outer marker will be more than published .
3. Localizer failure warning flag may come ON.

NOTE :- All interceptions of glideslope are published aon specific height or altitude
which ensures that intercept is always from below .

» ILS Threshold :-
Its is a point above runway surface in line with the runway centerline through which
extended centerline passes height is 35 – 50ft .

NOTE :- The Localizer aerial may be placed to one side , in such a case ILS can only be
used in Cat – I .This installation is called off set ILS . If the off set is more than 2deg
the ILS cannot be used as precession approach and is regarded as an airfield
approach aid .

 Categories of Aircraft :
CAT – I 550mtrs 200’
CAT – II 350mtrs 100’
CAT – IIIa 200mtrs less than 100’
CAT – IIIb 50mtrs less than 50’
CAT – IIIc 0mtrs 0’

𝑹𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒆 𝒙 𝟔𝟎𝟖𝟎 𝒙 𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒍𝒆
» Ht =

𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒍𝒆 𝒙 𝑮𝑺 𝒙 𝟏𝟎𝟎
» ROD = 𝟔𝟎

1. The coverage of an ILS localiser extends to _________either side of the on course line out to
a range of ….. nm.
a. 10°, 35
b. 35°, 10
c. 35°, 17
d. 25°, 25

2. The upper and lower limits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.5° glide slope are:
a. 6.125° - 1.575°
b. 7.700° - 1.225°
c. 5.250° - 1.350°
d. 3.850° - 3.150°

3. The minimum angle at which a false glide path is likely to be encountered on a 3°glidepath is:
a. 6 degrees
b. 5.35 degrees
c. normal glide slope times 1.75
d. normal glide slope times 0.70

4. The visual and aural indications obtained when overflying an ILS middle marker are:
a. continuous low pitched dashes with synchronised blue light.


b. continuous high pitched dots with synchronised amber light.

c. alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber light.
d. one letter in Morse with synchronised white light.

5. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving stronger 150 Hz signals than 90 Hz
signals. The correct actions to be taken to place the aircraft on the centreline and on the
glidepath are to fly:
a. DOWN and LEFT.
b. UP and LEFT
c. UP and RIGHT.
d. DOWN and RIGHT.

6. In elevation the upper and lower limits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.0 degree
glide slope are:
a. 0.35° 0.70°
b. 3.000 at least 6°
c. 5.25° 1.35°
d. 10.0° 35.0°

7. A category 2 ILS installation encountered in the UK :

a. provides accurate guidance down to 50’ above the horizontal plane containing the runway
b. has a steep glide path, normally 7.5°.
c. provides accurate guidance down to the runway and along the runway after landing.
d. has a false glide path that is exactly twice the true glide path angle.

8.An aircraft tracking to intercept the ILS localiser inbound on the approach side but outside the
published coverage angle:
a. will receive false on-course or reverse sense signals.
b. will not normally receive signals.
c. will receive signals without coding.
d. can expect signals to give correct indications.

9. The outer marker of an ILS installation has a visual identification of:

a. alternating dots and dashes on a blue light.
b. continuous dots at a rate of 3 per second, blue light.
c. continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, amber light.
d. continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, blue light.


10. The specified maximum safe fly up indication on a 5 dot CDI is:
a. half full scale needle deflection above the centre line.
b. 2.5 dots fly up.
c. just before full scale deflection.
d. 1.3 dots fly up.

11. An aircraft is attempting to use an ILS approach outside the coverage sectors of an ICAO
standard system:
a. From the glideslope needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse sense
indications and from the localiser needle intermittent and incorrect indications.
b. The aircraft’s receiver is not detecting any transmissions and the ILS needle OFF flags are
c. From the localiser needle the captain may be receiving false course and intermittent
indications and from the glideslope needle reverse sense and incorrect indications.
d. From the localiser needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse sense
indications and from the glideslope needle intermittent and incorrect indications.

12. The coverage of the ILS glideslope in azimuth is:

a. ± 8° out to 10nm b. ± 10° out to 8nm c. ± 12° out to 17nm d. ± 35° out to 25nm

13. An aircraft’s Instrument Landing System glideslope and localiser receivers are
receiving predominant 90Hz modulated signals. If the aircraft is within the coverage of the ILS,
QDM of 264°, it is:
a. north of the localiser and below the glideslope.
b. south of the localiser and above the glideslope.
c. north of the localiser and above the glideslope.
d. south of the localiser and below the glideslope.



 Limitations of ILS :-
1. False glideslope .
2. Fixed glideslope .
3. Longer recovery time .
4. Only in Approach direction .
5. Effected by obstruction in Approach direction.

 Frequency :- 5030Mhz – 5090Mhz .

 Band :- SHF .
 Principle :- Time Reference Scanning Beam .
 Working :- 1. A fan shaped beam sweeps at a very accurate constant speed from one
side to other and back again after specific interval called guard time .

2. The signal is received twice at A/C equipment and time difference between each
signal relates to the angle from reference line.

3. One vertical fan shaped beam sweeps in horizontal plane to provide position in
azimuth and one horizontal beam sweeps in vertical plane to give elevation info.

4. A very accurate DME gives dist of A/C from threshold.

5. 3 elevation signals are received for every 1 azimuth scan .

6. There are 40.5 elevation scans for every 13 azimuth scans in one second .



» Primary Radar :- Pulse radar and continuous wave radar .

» Secondary Radar :- Pulse Radar .

Primary Radar :
Principle :- It uses echo principle for range calculations and search light principle to find
position azimuth .

Range = C = speed of light 3 x 𝟏𝟎𝟖 m/sec t = time

 Pulse Width :- Time elapsed in microsecond from the start of a pulse to end of a pulse .
 PRF :- Pulse Recurring Frequency .
No. of pulses passing through a point in a second i.e. = 𝐏𝐑𝐈
PRI x PRF = 1 second .
 PRI :- Pulse Recurring Interval/Time/Period.
Time interval elapsed from start of ane pulse to start of reset pulse .

Max Radar Range is given by
where T is PRT which is 𝐏𝐑𝐅
R= 𝟐 𝐱 𝐏𝐑𝐅

1. Maximum Radar Range is a function of PRF.
2. Minimum Radar Range is a function of Pulse Width.
3. Angular Resolution of a Radar Range is a function of Beam Width .


 Factors affecting Range of Primary Radar .

1. Transmission power :-
Range α √𝐓𝐱 𝐏𝐨𝐰𝐞𝐫
To double the Radar range power is to increased 16 times .

2. Line of sight :- More is the ht of transmitter higher will be the range .

3. PRF :- Higher the frequency higher the PRF lesser will be the Range .
4. Radar prosection area of reflecting surface .
5. Terrain

1. The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is:
a. pulse repetition rate b. pulse width c. power d. beamwidth

2. The main advantage of continuous wave radars is:

a. No maximum range limitation
b. Better range resolution
c. No minimum range limitation
d. Better range resolution

3. If the PRF of a primary radar is 500 pulses per second, the maximum range will be:
a. 324 nm b. 300 nm c. 162 nm d. 600 nm

4. To double the range of a primary radar would require the power to be increased by a
factor of:
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16

5. The time between the transmission of a pulse and the reception of the echo from a
target is 1720 microseconds. What is the range of the target?
a. 139 km b. 258 km c. 278 km d. 516 km

6. A radar is required to have a maximum range of 100 nm. What is the maximum PRF
that will achieve this?
a. 1620 pulses per second (pps) b. 1234 pps c. 617 pps d. 810 pss

7. If the PRI of a radar is 2100 microseconds, the maximum range of the radar is:
a. 170 nm b. 315 nm c. 340 nm d. 630 nm


8. To improve the resolution of a radar display requires:

a. a narrow pulse width and a narrow beam width
b. a high frequency and a large reflector
c. a wide beamwidth and a wide pulse width
d. a low frequency and a narrow pulse width

9. An advantage of a phased array (slotted antenna. is:

a. better resolution
b. less power required
c. reduced sidelobes and clutter
d. all of the above

10. An echo is received from a target 900 microseconds after the pulse was transmitted.
The range to the target is:
a. 73 nm b. 270 nm c. 135 nm d. 146 nm

11. The factor which limits the minimum detection range of a radar is:
a. pulse repetition interval
b. transmitter power
c. pulse width
d. pulse repetition frequency

12. The use of Doppler techniques to discriminate between aircraft and fixed objects
results in second trace returns being generated. These are removed by:
a. using a different frequency for transmission and reception
b. jittering the PRF
c. making regular changes in pulsewidth
d. limiting the power output of the radar

13. A radar is designed to have a maximum range of 12 km. The maximum PRF that
would permit this is:
a. 25000 pps b. 6700 pps c. 12500 pps d. 13400 pps

14. The bearing of a primary radar is measured by:

a. phase comparison b. searchlight principle c. lobe comparison d. DF techniques



PRINCPLE :- Mode and Code Pulses .

Frequency is 1030 and 1090 Mhz.
Working – Ground Interogator interrogates on 1030 Mhz in mode pulses .
The A/C transponder replies for mode pulses in coded pulses on 1090Mhz.

Note :- Altitude info passed is w.r.t. to standard altimeter setting of 1013.25 i.e.
pressure altitude or F.L. irrespective of subscale setting in altimeter .

» Mode S :- It performs all the functions of mode C transponder and in addition can be
used as data transponder through FMS . It tranmits altitude info in steps of 25ft .

» I 7500 – Hijack unlawful interference
» C 7600 – Communication failure
» E 7700 - Emergency
2000 – FIR
0000 – Transponder failure .
7600/2000 – Radio failure

 FRUITING :- When an A/C is flying within coverage area of more than 1 SSR it may cause
interference at one station while replying to another . This is reduced by allotting
different PRF to adjacent SSR .

When two or more A/C are operating close to each other they may cause interference
by giving over lapping response . This is removed by using killer circuit in a distance less
than 1.7Nm .


SSR Requires Transponder in aircraft and Interrogator at ground station.
Advantages over primary radar.
Aerial on top of primary radar.
Displays callsign, pressure altitude or FL, groundspeed, destination.

Mode A For identity (8 µs interrogation pulse spacing) 12 reply pulses give 4096 combinations
(20.6 µs spacing between framing pulses).
Extra pulse (SPI) for squawk Ident (for 20 s)
Mode C For automatic pressure-altitude (21 µs interrogation spacing).
Transmitted and displayed every 100ft ( ±50ft from given level) Switch off if difference > 300ft
(200ft UK)
Garbling - overlapping replies if aircraft <1.7nm apart of SSR
Fruiting - interference caused by replies to other interrogation.
Limited codes (4096), Ghosts, Shielding.

Mode S Features
Selective addressing.
Nearly 17 million codes from 24-bit address.
Data link air-to-ground, ground-to-air, air-to-air.
Height readout in increments of 25ft .
Interrogation modes
All Call - mode S Broadcast (no reply)
Selective calling (unique aircraft address)
Intermode - A/C/S All call

Benefits of mode S
Unambiguous aircraft identification.
Improved surveillance (eliminates garble, resolves over- interrogation and reflections).
Improved situation awareness for radar controller.
No code shortage.
Reduced R/T.
Improved short term conflict alert.




» Principle :- Echo and Search Light .

» Frequency :- 8 – 10 Ghz.
» Band :- SHF

NOTE:- Gyro-stabilization of radar antenna is done in pitch and roll i.e. lateral and
longitudinal axis.

The main functions of an AWR are to:
 detect the size of water droplets and hence deduce where the areas of turbulence are
within the cloud
 determine the height of cloud tops by tilting the radar beam up or down map the
terrain below the aircraft to provide navigational information and high ground
 provide a position fix (range and bearing) from a prominent feature

» Iso – Echo Contouring :

1. Heavy or strong signals are shown as Magenta or red colours.
2. Medium rain is shown as yellow.
3. Light rain is shown as green .

» Gradient :- It is rate of change of return or echo.

» Swept Gain :-As the time from transmission increases , sensitivity of Rx is
proportionally increased and this process is called swept gain .
Swept gain allows echo contouring or colour discrimination at long ranges upto


1. A frequency used by airborne weather radar is:
a. 8800 MHz b. 9.375 GHz c. 93.75 Ghz d. 1213 Mhz

2. An airborne weather radar is required to detect targets up to a maximum

range of 200 nm. Ignoring pulse length and flyback in the CRT calculate the
maximum PRR.
a. 405 pps b. 810 pps c. 1500 pps d. 750 pps

3. Using airborne weather radar the weather beam should be used in preference
to the fan shaped beam for mapping in excess of _______ nm:
a. 20 to 25 b. 60 to 70 c. 100 to 150 d. 150 to 200

4. Airborne Weather Radar is an example of radar operating on a

frequency of in the band.
a. primary 8800 MHz SHF
b. secondary 9.375 MHz UHF
c. secondary 9375 MHz SHF
d. primary 9375 Mhz SHF

5. A prominent island is identified on the 30° right bearing line and the 10 nm
range marker of an airborne weather radar. If the heading is 045° (T) and the
aircraft is at FL360 what range and bearing should be plotted in order to obtain a
a. 10nm 030° (T) b. 10nm 075° (T) c. 8nm 075° (T) d. 8nm 255° (T)

6. The correct sequence of colours of a colour Airborne Weather Radar as

returns get stronger is:
a. red yellow green.
b. yellow green red.
c. green yellow red.
d. red green yellow.

7. A false indication of water may be given by the AWR display when:

a. flying over land with the Land/Sea switch in the Sea position.
b. flying over mountainous terrain.
c. there is cloud and precipitation between the aircraft and a cloud target.
d. attempting to use the mapping beam for mapping in excess of 50 nm.


8. An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm
range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you
should plot:
a. range 45nm and QTE 060 from the centre of the island.
b. range 45nm and QTE 240 from the centre of the island.
c. range 45nm and QTE 317 from the centre of the island.
d. range 45nm and QTE 137 from the centre of the island.

9. An aircraft heading 137° (M) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm
range on the 30° left azimuth line. Local variation is 12° W. To obtain a fix from
this information you should plot:
a. Range 45 nm and QTE 095 from the centre of the island.
b. Range 45 nm and QTE 275 from the centre of the island.
c. Range 45 nm and QTE 107 from the centre of the island.
d. Range 45 nm and QTE 287 from the centre of the island.

10. Airborne weather radar operates on a frequency of:

a. 8800 MHz because gives the best returns from all types of precipitation
b. 13300 MHz
c. 9375 MHz because it gives the best returns from rainfall associated with Cb
d. 9.375 GHz because this frequency is best for detecting aircraft in flight.

11. The mapping mode of Airborne Weather Radar utilises:

a. a pencil/weather beam from 70 nm to 150 nm. b. a cosecant/fan shaped
beam which is effective to 150 nm. c. a pencil/weather beam with a maximum
range of 70 nm. d. a cosecant/ fan shaped beam effective 50 nm to 70 nm.

12. An Airborne Weather Radar system uses a frequency of 9 GHz because:

a. it has a short wavelength so producing higher frequency returns.
b. the short wavelength allows signals to be reflected from cloud water droplets
of all sizes.
c. the wavelength is such that reflections are obtained only from the larger water
d. the frequency penetrates clouds quite easily enabling good mapping of
ground features in the mapping mode.

13. The antenna of an Airborne Weather Radar is stabilised:

a. in pitch, roll and yaw.


b. in pitch and roll.

c. in pitch and roll whether the stabilisation is on or off.
d. in pitch and roll but only when 0° tilt has been selected.

14. The centre of a small island is identified at the intersection of the 60° left
bearing line and 15nm range arc of an airborne weather radar. If the aircraft’s
heading and height are 035° (M) and 42,500ft what QTE and range should be
plotted in order to obtain a fix from the island? (variation is 20°W)
a. 175 15nm b. 135 15nm c. 135 13nm d. 155 14nm

15. The colours used to denote variations in rainfall rate on an Airborne Weather
Radar screen are........... for very light or no returns, ............... for light
returns,........... for medium returns and ............ for strong returns.
a. black, yellow, green, magenta.
b. black, green, yellow, magenta
c. grey, green, yellow, red.
d. black, green, yellow, red.

16. The radar in an aircraft at FL370 detects a cloud at 60 nm. The cloud
disappears when the tilt is selected to 2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6°,
at what altitude are the tops of the clouds?
a. 6,000 ft b. 31,000 ft c. 43,000 ft d. 49,000 ft



Principle :- Random PRF technique .

Frequency :- 962 – 1213Mhz.
Band :- UHF
VOR/ILS are frequency paired with DME .
Working :- When the A/C DME equipment is switched ON it sends a series of pulses at
random time interval . The transmission is in pairs of pulses which are 12 µ’s apart . At a
PRF of 150 .
Ground station replies to each pair of pulses at a fixed delay of 50µ’s with another pulse
of frequency 63µ’s removed from it .

 Type of Transmission :- P0N

During scanning mode i.e.(interrogation mode) PRF is 150 . During lock-On mode PRF is
24 – 30 PPS average 27
If no response from DME , the interrogator changes over to stand by mode and
transmits a PRF of 60 PPS .
» A ground transponder is able to reply to a maximum of 2700pps . Therefore 100 A/C
can use one station in Lck-On mode at a given time .
NOTE :- If no.of A/C’s is more than 100 then swamping takes place which is a process of
breaking the Lock-On mode of low powered or Older version or Farthest A/C .

 Identification Code :- Ground station also transmits an identification code .VOR – DME
transmits an ident signal every 10seconds . If identification code comes after 30 seconds
, one of the component is not working .


 Memory Circuit :- The memory equipment has an memory circuit which will continue to
update the range upto 10 seconds after equipment failure at ground . After which
search pattern is resumed .

 Range of DME :-
A VOR DME or a DME will never show zero over a VOR station or DME station . It will
indicate the height of A/C in Nm .Difference between Slant Range and ground range is
called Slant Range Error .
Slant range erroe is negligible when A/C’s height is 1000ft/Nm from ground station .

 ILS DME :-
Only ILS DME shows zero over threshold . It is co-located with glideslope equipment . If
they are not co-located delay is induced to give correct distances .
An ILS DME shows correct indications if the A/C is in localizer coverage area . In any
other direction it will not show accurate distances .

 Accuracy of DME :-
It is +/- 0.5 or 3% of Range which ever is greater.

 Frequency Pairing :-
DME and VOR are frequency paired .When one of them is selected than other is
automatically selected . Both can be frequency paired only if collocated . They still can
be paired , provided they serve the same ground station and upto 7Nm apart . In which
case identification code will have the letter Z at the end .

 TACAN :-
Tactical Air Navigation
It is a military navigation aid similar to VOR and DME collocated. It gives range and
azimuth info to suitably equipped A/C . Civil A/C can only obtain Range part of TACAN .



 Principle :- Uses SSR to generate Audio and Visual alerts and Warnings .

 Working :- A/C should have mode of interrogation and transponder to interact with
nearby operating A/C. Max Range of TCAS interrogator is 30nm . For TCAS to work
transponder of replying a/c 50nm must be ON.

 TCAS I :- This system generates T.A.(traffic advisory) only.

It alerts that a conflicting a/c is within 40sec of potential collision. It does not give any
course of action to be taken to avoid the collision. Audio warning is “Traffic Traffic”

 TCAS II :- It gives T.A and R.A(Resolution Advisory)

R.A is course of action to be taken to resolve conflicts.
TCAS II gives R.A. in vertical plane only.

» For R.A. to be generated “Mode C” or “Mode S” transponder must be ON.

When both A/C have mode C or mode S the equipment communicates with each other
and complimenting R.A. is generated.

» RA is of two types :-
1. Preventive R.A :
These prevent conflicts rather tha resolving them .
Ex. Monitor vertical speed .
2. Corrective R.A. :
These give corrective action to be taken to prevent a collision .
This includes instructions to climb/Descend or change ROC/ROD .



Chapter 12 RNAV-Area Navigation System

An area navigation (RNAV) system is any system that allows the aircraft to be navigated
to the required level of accuracy without the requirement to fly directly over ground
based facilities.

The required accuracy is achieved by using some, or all, of the following inputs of


The information is processed within the system to give the most accurate and
continuously updated position and the necessary outputs to provide the pilot with
course, ETA etc.

RNAV allows aircraft to take a more direct flight path appropriate to the route they are
flying thereby improving the operating efficiency and helping in relieving congestion on
the overcrowded airway system. To facilitate this, air traffic control centres have
established RNAV routes which are more direct than the traditional airways system
allows and do not require aircraft to regularly fly to the overhead of beacons. Hence the
benefits are:

A reduction in distance, flight time and fuel (and hence costs) by giving airlines and
pilots greater flexibility and choice of routes.

An increase in the present route capacity by making full use of the available airspace by
providing more direct routes, parallel or dual routes and bypass routes for overflying
aircraft in high density terminal areas.

A reduction in vertical and horizontal separation criteria.

There are two types of RNAV:


Basic RNAV (B-RNAV) which is required to give a position accuracy to within 5 nm on

95% of occasions. It is now mandatory for all aircraft carrying 30 passengers or more to
have B-RNAV capability within Euro-control airspace.

Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) must be accurate to within 1.0 nm on 95% of occasions. P-

RNAV routes are now being established in terminal airspace.
There are three levels of RNAV capability:

2D RNAV- which relates to the capabilities in the horizontal plane only.

3D RNAV -indicates the addition of a guidance capability in the vertical plane.
4D RNAV- indicates the addition to 3D RNAV of a timing function.


Chapter 13 Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)

The EHSI displays navigational information, radar information and TCAS information. For the
Radio Navigation examination knowledge of, and the ability to interpret, the navigational
information is essential.

The inputs to the EHSI are from:

 VOR, DME, ILS, and ADF

The information from all of the inputs is fed to the port and starboard EHSI, through the
respective symbol generators, which are the heart of the EFIS. They process the various inputs
to generate the correct symbology for the EHSI.

The display modes available are:

 Full rose Navigation (NAV)
 Full rose VOR/ILS
 Expanded rose Navigation (EXP NAV)
 Expanded rose VOR/ILS
 Centre Map (CTR MAP)

Weather radar and TCAS information can only be displayed on the expanded NAV, expanded
VOR/ILS and MAP displays. The selectable map background options are enabled in the Map,
Centre Map and Plan modes. The information available for display is:

 Tuned VOR/ADF radials (VOR/ADF)

 Navigation Aids (NAV AID)
 Airports (ARPT)
 Route Data (RTE DATA)
 Waypoints (WPT)
 Weather (WXR)




» It is a Satellite based Navigation system which gives position by measuring

simultaneous range from satellite.

» No of satellites is 21 active +3 standby.

» No of orbits is 6 at an angle of 55deg.
» Orbit time of each satellite is 12hrs.
» Distance from earth’s surface is 20200km.

» Working :- GPS space segment consists of 24 satellites in 6 orbital planes at an

inclination of 55deg.
The spacing of satellites in their orbit is such that an observer will have 5-8 satellites
(Minimum 5 in view) i.e. at least 5deg above horizon.
Each satellite has 4 atomic clocks with an accuracy of 1 nano second.
Each satellite broadcasts pseudo-random noise code of 1millisec on two frequencies in
UHF band .
1 freq – L1 – 1575.42 Mhz .
2 freq – L2 – 1227.6 Mhz .

» Error’s of GPS :-
1. Ephemeris Error
These are error’s in satellite calculation of positions caused by effect of gravitational
force of sun , moon and various planets.
Satellite position is checked every 12hrs and when necessary it is updated.
Maximum permissible error is 2.5mtrs


2. Satellite Clock Error

Satellite clock is checked at least every 12 hrs and any error is corrected in the
broadcast of satellite. Max permissible error is 1.5 mtrs.

3. Ionospheric Propagation Error

Ionosphere affects radio waves of all frequencies dependent on the frequency being
transmitted. The state of ionosphere is continuously checked by a monitoring station
and is updated at least every 12hrs.This is the most significant error for any satellite
based navigation system .Max error for single frequency operation is 5mtrs.If two
different frequencies are available then the satellite can calculate ionosphere effect
and make appropriate adjustment to reduce the error.
The purpose of using two frequency is to reduce ionospheric error .

4. Tropospheric Propagation Error

Variation in pressure , temp , density , humidity effect the propagation speed which
induces error in the calculated position .Max permissible error is 0.5mtrs.


If the SV information degrades, the GPS receiver has no means of determining the degradation.
Consequentially the safety of flight may be seriously endangered. DGPS is a means of improving
the accuracy of GPS by monitoring the integrity of the SV data and warning the user of any
errors which occur. DGPS systems will provide warning of failure in the SV data and prevent or
minimize the effect of such errors, or provide failure warning and improve the accuracy of the
deduced position.
There are three kinds of DGPS currently in use or under development:

 Air based augmentation systems (ABAS)

 Ground based augmentation systems (GBAS)
 Satellite based augmentation systems (SBAS)



It generates aural and visual alerts and warnings when A/C is dangerously close to the
ground .
» Inputs to GPWS
Radio altimeter(ht) G
Flaps / gear(landing configuration) W
ILS glideslope equipment S
(DH deviation from G/S)


R Excessive Rate of Descent .

E Excessive Rate of Terrain Clearence.
N Negative Rate of Climb after T/O.
U Unsafe Landing Configuration
G Glideslope
D Decision height .


GPWS doesn’t give you warning from terrain ahead .Therefore EGPWS is

E G – Bank angle on apprch
N same as P – Terrain ahead
U GPWS W – Wind shear
G S – All GPWS warnings
» Inputs of EGPWS
1. Radio Altimeter.
2. Ground position of a/c from FMS or IRS or INS or Navigation or system of a/c .
3. ADC – V.S.I, Altimeter, TAS, SAT, etc.
4. ILS Glideslope equipment.
5. Landing gear and flaps position.


» Working :- CPU of EGPWS is pre-fed with Terrain Data Base in 3 dimensions .

Input of present position of A/C is obtained by various sensors.
System compare’s both of these info and generates alerts and warnings .

Mode 1 – Same as GPWS
Mode 2 – Same as GPWS
Mode 3 – Same as GPWS
Mode 4(a) – Same as GPWS
4(b) – It gives alert for flaps below 250ft
4(c) – It gives alert if Radio altimeter indications decrease by a certain proportion of its
previous value after t/off .

Mode 5 – same as GPWS .

On approach if deviator of G/S is more than 1.3 deg below glideslope , it will give SOFT
ALERT ( half volume )
If deviation is more than 2.5deg it gives HARD ALERT ( full volume)

Mode 6 – Gives alert for Minimums and also provides alert for bank angle .Audio alert is
The Bank Angle limit changes with Radio altimeter and decreases rapidly below 150ft.

Mode 7 – Warning for wind shear on approach below 1500’

» Pilots action in case of Alert :

1. If Alert is received the descent is to stopped immediately .
2. Analyze indications and determine best course of action .
3. At an appropriate place inform controlling agency about the alert .

» Actions in case of Warnings :-

1. Apply max power smoothly and increase pitch attitude towards pitch limit or
stick shaker.
2. Actions are to be continued till warning is been eliminated .
3. At an appropriate place inform controlling agency about warning and action .

» BITE :-Built in Test Equipment .

GPWS and EGPWS can only be tested on ground . It cannot be tested in flight.



 Principle :- FMCW
Frequency Modulated Continuous Wave .

Continuous wave with changing frequency at fixed interval of time. Radio

Altimeter shows height by measuring time difference between transmitted and
received wave .

 Frequency :- 4200 – 4400Mhz.

 Band – SHF
 Working – Transmitter transmits a FMCW at continuously and regularly changing
frequency .
Deflected signal from ground is received at receiver at a difference frequency than being
transmitted at that time .
If the height of a/c is more , difference between transmitted and received frequency will
be more and therefore time measured will be more . If frequency diff is less ,time
difference is less which indicates lower height.

» Indicator :
It gives indication below ht of 2500ft AGL in steps of 5ft.

» ACCURACY OF RADIO ALTIMETER IS 5ft +/- 3% of Indicated ALT.

»Radio Altimeter cannot be tested in Air or on Ground because No Reference Datum is
available in Air.