Maxwell's Equations and Light Waves Longitudinal vs.

Transverse waves

Motion is along
Longitudinal:
the direction of
propagation

Longitudinal vs. transverse waves

Div, grad, curl, etc., and the 3D Wave equation Motion is transverse
Transverse:
to the direction of
Derivation of the wave equation from Maxwell's Equations
propagation
Why light waves are transverse waves

Why we neglect the magnetic field Space has 3 dimensions, of which 2 directions are transverse to
the propagation direction, so there are 2 transverse waves in ad-
Irradiance, superposition and interference dition to the potential longitudinal one.

Vector fields y The 3D vector wave equation for the

electric field
Light is a 3D vector field.
!
! !
A 3D vector field f (r )
!2 ! "2 E
Note the vector symbol

# E $ µ! 2 = 0
x over the E.
assigns a 3D vector (i.e., an "t
arrow having both direction ! ! ! ! This is really just
and length) to each point in "2 E "2 E "2 E "2 E three independent
3D space. + 2 + 2 $ µ! 2 = 0 wave equations,
A 2D vector field "x 2
"y "z "t one each for the
x-, y-, and z-
components of E.
A light wave has both electric and magnetic 3D vector fields: which has the vector field solution:
!" " !" " "
# ' (
E (r , t ) = A exp #i k % r & ! t & " $ )
(
!" " " " "
# # & ( )
E (r , t ) = E0 exp "i k $ r % ! t #
'
Waves using complex vector amplitudes Div, Grad, Curl, and all that

We must now allow the complex field E and its amplitude E0 to be

vectors: ! ! Types of 3D vector derivatives:

! ! ! ! !
" " & ( )
E (r , t ) = E0 exp "i k $ r % ! t #
'
Note the arrows
over the E’s! The Del operator:
! ! #
$ % & ,
#
,
#"
'
( #x #y #z )

The complex vector amplitude has six numbers that must be

specified to completely determine it! The Gradient of a scalar function f :
If you want to know
more about vector
! ! #f #f #f " calculus, read this

x-component y-component z-component $f % & , , '

book!

( #x #y #z )
!
E0 = (Re{Ex } + i Im{Ex }, Re{E y } + i Im{E y }, Re{Ez } + i Im{Ez })
" The gradient points in the direction of steepest ascent.

Div, Grad, Curl, and all that Div, Grad, Curl, and more all that
The Laplacian of a scalar function :
The Divergence of a vector function:
! ! ! ! #f #f #f "
$2 f % $ &$f = $&' , , (
! ! ) #x #y #z *
!f !f !f
"# f $ x + y + z
!x !y !z !2 f !2 f !2 f
= + +
!x 2
!y 2
!z 2
The Divergence is nonzero The Laplacian of a vector function is the same,
if there are sources or sinks. but for each component of f:

A 2D source with a y
! ! #2 f #2 fx #2 fx # f y # f y # f y #2 fz #2 fz #2 fz
2 2 2
"
large divergence: x $ 2 f = % 2x + + 2 , + + , + + 2
% #x &&
' #y 2
#z #x 2
#y 2
#z 2 #x 2 #y 2 #z (

Note that the x-component of this function changes rapidly in the x The Laplacian tells us the curvature of a vector function.
direction, etc., the essence of a large divergence.
Div, Grad, Curl, and still more all that A function with a large curl
! !
The Curl of a vector function f : f ( x, y, z ) = (! y, x, 0) y

!
! ! " !f !f !f !f !f !f # f (1, 0, 0) = (0,1, 0)
$% f & ( z ' y , x ' z , y ' x ) !
* !y dz !z dx !x dy + f (0,1, 0) = (!1, 0, 0) x
!
f (!1, 0, 0) = (0, !1, 0)
!
The curl can be treated as a matrix determinant : f (0, !1, 0) = (1, 0, 0)
" " "
,x y z -
. / ! ! # "f "f "f x "f z "f y "f x $
! ! ! ! !/
$% f = . %& f = ' z ! y ,
" " "
!
"
, !
"x "y )
*
. !x !y !z / ( y z z x
. / = (0 ! 0, 0 ! 0, 1 ! (!1) )
.0 f x fy f z /1
=( 0 , 0 , 2 )
Functions that tend to curl around have large curls So this function has a curl of 2z"

The equations of optics are Derivation of the Wave Equation

from Maxwell’s Equations
Maxwell’s equations.
! !
! ! ! ! ! ! ! !B
#B Take !" of: "# E = $
$%E = ! /" $& E = ' !t
#t !
! ! ! ! ! !B
! ! ! ! #E " # [" # E ] = " # [$ ]
$%B = 0 $ & B = µ" !t
#t
Change the order of differentiation on the RHS:

! ! ! ! ! ! ! !
where E is the electric field, B is the magnetic field, " # [" # E ] = $ [" # B]
!t
! is the charge density, " is the permittivity, and µ is
the permeability of the medium.
Derivation of the Wave Equation ! ! ! ! ! ! !
Lemma: ! " [! " f ] = !(! # f ) $ ! 2 f
from Maxwell’s Equations (cont’d)
Proof: Look first at the LHS of the above formula:
!
! ! "E ! ! ! ! " !f !f y !f x !f z !f y !f x #
But: # $ B = µ! $ % [$ % f ] = $ % ' z & , & , &
"t (
) !y !z !z !x !x !y *
! ! !
Substituting for ! " B , we have: Taking the 2nd ! " yields:

! ! #2 f y #2 fx " ! #2 fx #2 fz "
! ! ! x-component: = % $ && $ % 2 $ &
! ! ! ! ! ! " "E % #x#y #y 2
" # [" # E ] = $ [" # B] % # $ [# $ E ] = % [ µ! ] ' ( ' #z #x#z (
!t "t "t
" ! #2 fz # f y "
2
! #2 fx #2 fz
y-component: = % $ 2 & $ %% $ &
Or: ! ' #x#z #x ( ' #y 2 #z#y &(
! ! ! "2 E assuming that µ
# $ [# $ E ] = % µ! 2 and ! are constant ! #2 fz #2 f y " ! #2 f y #2 fx "
"t in time. z-component: = % $
% #z#y #z 2 && %%
$ $ &
' ( ' #x 2
#x#y &(

! ! ! ! ! ! !
Lemma (cont’d): ! " [! " f ] = !(! # f ) $ ! 2 f Derivation of the Wave Equation
Proof (cont’d):
from Maxwell’s Equations (cont’d)
!
! ! ! ! ! ! ! "2 E
Now, look at the RHS: !(! " f ) # ! 2 f Using the lemma, # $ [# $ E ] = % µ! 2
"t
! ! ! ! !f !f !f !
"(" # f ) = " ( x + y + z ) ! ! ! !
!x !y !z "2 E
becomes: #(# $ E ) % # 2 E = % µ! 2
!2 fx ! f y !2 fz
2
!2 fx ! f y !2 fz
2 "t
=( + + , + 2 + ,
!x 2
!x!y !x!z !x!y !y !y!z
If we now assume zero charge density: ! = 0, then
!2 fx ! f y !2 fz
2

+ + ) ! !
!x!z !z!y !z 2 !"E = 0
! and we’re left with the Wave Equation!
!2 f !2 f !2 f !2 f !2 f !2 f
"# 2 f = ( " 2x " 2x " 2x , " 2y " 2y " 2y , !
!x !y !z !x !y !z ! "2 E
# E = µ! 2
2
!2 fz !2 fz !2 fz "t
" " 2 " 2 )
!x 2 !y !z
Why light waves are transverse The magnetic-field direction in a light wave
Suppose a wave propagates in the x-direction. Then it’s a function
Suppose a wave propagates in the x-direction and has its electric field
of x and t (and not y or z), so all y- and z-derivatives are zero:
along the y-direction [so Ex = Ez= 0, and Ey = Ey(x,t)].
!E y !Ez !By !Bz
= = = =0 What is the direction of the magnetic field?
!y !z !y !z !
! ! ! ! !B ! ! " !E !E !E !E !E !E #
Now, in a charge-free medium, ! " E = 0 and ! " B = 0
Use: $ = %& E = ' z $ y , x $ z , y $ x (
!t ) !y !z !z !x !x !y *

that is, !Ex !E y !Ez !Bx !By !Bz !

!B " !E #
+ + =0 + + =0 $ = % 0, 0, y &
!x !y !z !x !y !z So:
!t ' !x (
Substituting the zero
!Ex !Bx In other words:
!Bz !E y
values, we have: =0 and =0 " =
!x !x !t !x
So the longitudinal fields are at most constant, and not waves. And the magnetic field points in the z-direction.

The magnetic-field strength in a light wave An Electromagnetic Wave

Suppose a wave propagates in the x-direction and has its electric
field in the y-direction. What is the strength of the magnetic field? The electric and magnetic fields are in phase. snapshot of the
wave at one time
!Bz !E y !
Start with: " = and E y (r , t ) = E0 exp %#i (kx " ! t )&$
!t !x "
t
!E y
We can integrate: Bz ( x, t ) = Bz ( x, 0) "
Take Bz(x,0) = 0
#
0
!x
dt

Differentiating Ey with
ik
E0 exp [i (kx " ! t ) ]
respect to x yields an ik,
So: Bz ( x, t ) = " and integrating with
"i! ! respect to t yields a 1/-i".
The electric field, the magnetic field, and the k-vector are all
perpendicular:

1 ! ! !
But " / k = c:
Bz ( x, t ) = E y ( x, t ) E!B " k
c
The Energy Density of a Light Wave Why we neglect the magnetic field
! !
1 The force on a charge, q, is: Felectrical Fmagnetic
The energy density of an electric field is: U E = ! E 2
! ! !
2
! ! where v is the
The energy density of a magnetic field is: U B =
11 2
B
F = qE + q v ! B charge velocity
2µ
1 Taking the ratio of
Using B = E/c, and c= , which together imply that B = E !µ the magnitudes Fmagnetic qvB ! !
!µ ! v " B = vB sin !
of the two forces:
we have: Felectrical qE # vB
UB =
11 2
2µ
( 1
)
E !µ = ! E 2 = U E
2
Fmagnetic v
Since B = E/c: !
Total energy density: U = UE +UB = !E 2
Felectrical c
So the electrical and magnetic energy densities in light are equal. So as long as a charge’s velocity is much less than the speed of light,
we can neglect the light’s magnetic force compared to its electric force.

The Poynting Vector: S = c2 ! E x B The Irradiance (often called the Intensity)

t +T / 2
! ! 1 ! !
"
The power per unit area in a beam. U = Energy density A light wave’s average power
per unit area is the irradiance. S (r , t ) = S (r , t ') dt '
T
Justification (but not a proof): A t !T / 2

Substituting a light wave into the expression for the Poynting vector,
Energy passing through area A in time #t: ! ! !
S = c 2 ! E " B, yields:
real amplitudes
= U V = U A c #t ! ! ! ! ! !
S (r , t ) = c 2 ! E0 $ B0 cos 2 (k % r & " t & # )
So the energy per unit time per unit area: c #t
The average of cos2 is 1/2: vector magnitude
= U V / ( A #t ) = U A c #t / ( A #t ) = U c = c " E2 ! ! !
" I (r , t ) = S (r , t ) =
= c2 "EB
! !
! ! ! = c 2 ! E0 # B0 (1/ 2)
And the direction E ! B " k is reasonable.
The Irradiance (continued)
Computing the Irradiance (Intensity)
Since the electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular and B0 = E0 / c,
! ! ! 2 Sometimes, you’re given the electric field, in which case the
I = 1
c 2 ! E0 " B0 becomes: I = 1
2 c ! E0
2 previous result works.
! 2 because the real amplitude
or: I = 1 c ! E0 squared is the same as the
2 ~ mag-squared complex one. But sometimes, you’re given the energy (U), duration (#t), (or
power, P = U/ #t), and area (A). Then it’s easy:
where:
! 2
E0 = E0 x E0*x + E0 y E0* y + E0 z E0*z
" " " " " " " I = U / (A #t)

Remember: this formula only works when the wave is of the form: or:
! ! ! ! !
" & (
E (r , t ) = Re E0 exp "i k $ r % ! t #
' ) I = P/A
! !
that is, when all the fields involved have the same k " r # ! t

Sums of fields: Electromagnetism is linear, The irradiance of the sum of two waves
so the principle of Superposition holds. ! !
If they’re both proportional to exp "&i (k $ r % ! t ) #' , then the irradiance is:
! !
If E1(x,t) and E2(x,t) are solutions to the wave equation, I = 12 c! E0 $ E0* = 12 c! "% E0 x E0 x* + E0 y E0 y* + E0 z E0 z * #&
" " " " " " " "
then E1(x,t) + E2(x,t) is also a solution.
Different polarizations (say x and y): Intensities
add.
I = c! "% E0 x $ E0 x + E0 y $ E0 y #& = I x + I y
1 * *
! 2 ( E1 + E2 ) ! 2 E1 ! 2 E2 ! 2 ( E1 + E2 ) ! 2 E1 ! 2 E2 2
! ! ! !
Proof: = + and = +
! x2 ! x2 ! x2 ! t2 ! t2 ! t2
Same polarizations (say E0 x = E1 + E2 ):
! 2 ( E1 + E2 ) 1 ! 2 ( E1 + E2 ) " ! 2 E1 1 ! 2 E1 # " ! 2 E2 1 ! 2 E2 # ! ! !
$ 2 =% 2 $ 2 &+% $ 2 &=0
! x2 c ! t2 '!x c ! t 2 ( ' ! x2 c ! t2 ( I = 12 c! "% E1 $ E1* + 2 Re {E1 $ E2*}+ E2 $ E2* #&
! ! ! ! ! !

This means that light beams can pass through each other.
Therefore: I = I1 + c! Re {E1 " E2*}+ I 2 Note the
cross term!
! !
It also means that waves can constructively or destructively interfere. The cross term is the origin of interference!
Interference only occurs for beams with the same polarization.
The irradiance of the sum of two waves Irradiance of a sum of two waves
of different color
Same polarizations Different polarizations
We can’t use the formula because the k’s and "’s are different.
! ! ! !
So we need to go back to the Poynting vector, S ( r , t ) = c 2! E " B
! ! ! ! ! ! I = I1 + I 2 +
Same I = I1 + I 2
S (r , t ) = c 2! "% E1 + E2 #& $ "% B1 + B2 #& colors c! Re {E1 " E2*}
! ! ! ! ! ! ! !
{
= c 2! E1 " B1 + E1 " B2 + E2 " B1 + E2 " B2 } ! !

! ! ! ! ! !
E10 cos(k1 $ r % !1 t % "1 ) # B20 cos(k2 $ r % !2 t % " 2 )
Different
! ! I = I1 + I 2 I = I1 + I 2
This product averages to zero, as does E2 ! B1 colors

Different colors: I = I1 + I 2 Intensities add.

Interference only occurs when the waves have the same color and
Waves of different color (frequency) do not interfere! polarization.