Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
PHYSICS
1. Four identical particles of mass M are located at the corners of a square of side ‘a’.
What should be their speed if each of them revolves under the influence of others’
gravitational field in a circular orbit circumscribing the square?
GM GM GM GM
1. 1.21 2. 1.41 3. 1.16 4. 1.35
a a a a
Ans:. 3
GM 2 1 GM 2 MV 2
Sol: 2 2 2
2
a 2 2a a
GM
V 1.16
a
2. Two particles move at right angle to each other. Their de Broglie wavelengths are
1 and 2 respectively. The particles suffer perfectly inelastic collision. The de
Broglie wavelength , of the final particle, is given by:
1 2 2 1 1 1 1 1
1. 1 2 2. 3. 4.
2 1 2 2 12 22
Ans: 4
P1 P2 P
Sol:
P P12 P22
P 2 P12 P22
h 2 h2 h2
2 12 22
1 1 1
2 12 22
0
3. In SI units, the dimensions of is
0
3
1. AT 3 ML 2 2. A 1TML3 3. AT 2 M 1 L1 4. A 2T 3 M 1 L2
Ans: 4
1
Sol: P1 0 Impedence
0 z
A2T 3 M 1L2
4. A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the influence of a force that
varies with the distance travelled by the particle as shown in the figure. The kinetic
energy of the particle after it has travelled 3 m is:
1. 5 J 2. 6.5 J 3. 4 J 4. 2.5 J
Ans: 2
1
Sol: W 2 2 15 6.5 J
2
Final K.E.=6.5 J
5. An alternating voltage t 220sin100 t volt is applied to a purely resistive load
of 50 . The time taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the
peak value is:
1. 7.2 ms 2. 5 ms 3. 2.2 ms 4. 3.3 ms
Ans: 4
2 2 1
Sol: T
100 50
2 1
t 3.3 ms
3 4 6 50
6. A boy's catapult is made of rubber cord which is 42 cm long, with 6 mm diameter
of cross-section and of negligible mass. The boy keeps a stone weighing 0.02 kg on it
and stretches the cord by 20 cm by applying a constant force. When released, the
stone flies off with a velocity of 20 ms-1. Neglect the change in the area of cross-
section of
the cord while stretched. The Young's modulus of rubber is closest to:
1. 10 6 Nm 2 2. 103 Nm 2 3. 108 Nm 2 4. 10 4 Nm 2
Ans: 1
1 2 1
Sol: AL mV
2
2 2
2 4 0.42 106
2
3106 Nm2
9 410
7. The reverse breakdown voltage of a Zener diode is 5.6 V in the given circuit.
Ans: 1
dT AT T0 AT T0
4 4 4 4
Sol:
dt ms V s
s is more for B.
9. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along the x-direction. The
electric field component of the wave at a particular point of space and time is E = 6
Vm-1 along y-direction. Its corresponding magnetic field component, B would be:
1. 2 10 8 T along z-direction 2. 6 10 8 T along z-direction
3. 6 10 8 T along x-direction 4. 2 10 8 T along y – direction
Ans: 1
E 6
Sol: B0 0 2 108 T
C 3 10 8
Along z-direction
1
S
0
EB
10.
A wire of length 2L, is made by joining two wires A and B of same length but
different radii r and 2r and made of the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency
such that the joint of the two wires forms a node. If the number of antinodes in wire
A is p and that in B is q then the ratio p: q is:
1. 1 : 2 2. 3: 5 3. 1: 4 4. 4 : 9
Ans: 1
V V
Sol: nA A nB B
2L 2L
n A VB A1 r2
1: 2
2r
2
nB VA A2
11. Radiation coming from transitions n =2 to n=1 of hydrogen atoms fall on He+ ions
in n=1 and n=2 states. The possible transition of helium ions as they absorb energy
from the radiation is:
1. n 2 n 3 2. n 2 n 4 3. n 2 n 5 4. n 1 n 4
Ans: 2
2 1 1
Sol: For hydrogen, E 13.6 z 2 10.2 eV
1 2
2 1 1
For He+, E 13.6 z 2 2 10.2 eV
2 4
2 4 transition.
12. For the circuit shown, with R1 =1.0 , R2=2.0 , El=2 V and E2=E3=4 V, the
potential difference between the points ’a' and ‘b’ is approximately (in V) :
Sol:
2 4 4
Va Vb 2 2 2 5 2 3.3V
1 1 1 3
2 2 2
13. Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is 500 V. Its dielectric can withstand a
maximum electric field of 106 V/ m. The plate area is 10-4 m2. What is the dielectric
constant if the capacitance is 15 pF ? (given 0 8.86 10 12 C 2 / Nm 2 )
1. 6.2 2. 4.5 3. 3.8 4. 8.5
Ans: 4
500
Sol: E 106 d 5104
d
K 0 A
151012
d
K 8.86 1012 104
4
151012
5 10
75
K 8.5
8.86
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Sol: Initial
Final
Potential difference doesn’t change.
15. A thin strip 10 cm long is on a U shaped wire of negligible resistance and it is
connected to a spring of spring constant 0.5 Nm-1 (see figure). The assembly is kept
in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T. If the strip is pulled from its equilibrium
position and released, the number of oscillations it performs before its amplitude
decreases by a factor of e is N. If the mass of the strip is 50 grams, its resistance 10
. and air drag negligible, N will be close to :
m
Time period T is = 25
k
t 2m
No. of oscillations is and t is given by t
T b
16. An upright object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of a convergent lens of
focal length 20 cm. A convergent mirror of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance
of 60 cm on the other side of the lens. The position and size of the final image will
be:
1. 40cm from the convergent lens, twice the size of the object
2. 40cm from the convergent mirror, same size as the object
3. 20cm from the convergent mirror, twice the size of the object
4. 20cm from the convergent mirror, same size as the object
Ans: 4
Sol: Actual final image (3rd image) is formed at object itself with same size but according
to the options best answer is taken for second image.
17. A steel wire having a radius of 2.0 mm, carrying a load of 4 kg, is hanging from a
ceiling. Given that g=3.1 ms-2, what will be the tensile stress that would be
developed in the wire?
1. 5.2 10 6 Nm 2 2. 4.8 10 6 Nm 2 3. 6.2 10 6 Nm 2 4. 3.1 10 6 Nm 2
Ans: 4
4 3.1 2
Sol: 3.110 Nm
6
2 10
3 2
18. A thermally insulated vessel contains 150 g of water at 0°C. Then the air from the
vessel is pumped out adiabatically. A fraction of water turns into ice and the rest
evaporates at 0°C itself. The mass of evaporated water will be closest to:
(Latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.10 106J kg-1 and Latent heat of Fusion of
water =3.36 105J kg-1)
1. 35g 2. 20g 3. 130g 4. 150g
Ans: 2
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2019_Jee-Main Question Paper_Key & Solutions
m 20 g
19. A thin circular plate of mass M and radius R has its density varying as r 0 r
with 0 as constant and r is the distance from its center. The moment of Inertia of
the circular plate about an axis perpendicular to the plate and passing through its
edge is
I= a MR2. The value of the coefficient a is:
1. 3 2. 3 3. 8 4. 1
2 5 5 2
Ans: 3
R
dI m dm r
2
Sol: 0
M dm 0 2 r 2 dr
R
2 0 r 4 dr
0
20 R 5
3MR 2
0 2 R 3
M
5 5 3
8
I edge I cm MR 2 MR 2
5
20. A 20 Henry inductor coil is connected to a 10 ohm resistance in series as shown in
figure. The time at which rate of dissipation of energy (Joule's heat) across
resistance is equal to the rate at which magnetic energy is stored in the inductor, is:
2 1
1. 2. ln 2 3. 2 ln 2 4. ln2
ln 2 2
Ans: 3
di
Sol: L i i 2 R
dt
i0e i0 1 et / R
L t /
10 20 t /
e 1 et / 10
20
t /
2e 1
t ln 2 2ln 2
21. Four particles A, B, C and D with masses mA=m, mB=2m, mC=3m and mD=4m
are at the corners of a square. They have accelerations of equal magnitude with
directions as shown. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the particles is:
a a
1.
i j 2. Zero 3. a i j
4.
i j
5 5
Ans: 1
m1 a1 m2 a2 m3 a3 m4 a4
Sol: acm
m1 m2 m3 m4
ai 2 a j 3 ai 4 a j
2ai 2a j
i j
a
10 10 5
22. A circular coil having N turns and radius r carries a current I. It is held in the XZ
plane in a magnetic field Bi . The torque on the coil due to the magnetic field is:
B r 2 I Br 2 I
1. 2. 3. zero 4. B r 2 IN
N N
Ans: 4
Sol: B N r 2 I B
BN r 2 I
23. If 1022 gas molecules each of mass 10-26 kg collide with a surface (perpendicular to it)
elastically per second over an area 1 m2 with a speed 104 m/s, the pressure exerted
by the gas molecules will be of the order of :
1. 1016 N / m 2 2. 10 3 N / m 2 3. 10 4 N / m 2 4. 108 N / m 2
27. Ship A is sailing towards north-east with velocity 30i 50 j km /hr where i
points east and j north. Ship B is at a distance of 80 km east and 150 km north of
Ship A and is sailing towards west at 10 km/hr. A will be at minimum distance from
B in:
1. 3.2 hr 2. 2.6 hr 3. 4.2 hr 4. 2.2 hr
Ans: 2
Sol: Velocity of A w.r.t B is VA, B 40i 50 j km / hr
rB , A 80i 150 j
r cos V .r
t 2 2.6hr
V V
a1 1
28. In an interference experiment the ratio of amplitudes of coherent waves is .
a2 3
The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities of fringes will be:
1. 2 2. 18 3. 4 4. 9
Ans: 3
2 2
I max a1 a2 4
Sol: 4 :1
I min a1 a2 2
29. Water from a pipe is coming at a rate of 100 liters per minute. If the radius of the
pipe is 5 cm, the Reynolds number for the flow is of the order of : (density of water
=1000 kg/m3, coefficient of viscosity of water= 1 mPa s)
1. 10 4 2. 103 3. 10 2 4. 10 6
Ans: 1
DV 103 10 1 100 10 3 4
Sol: Re 4 105 2.1 10 4 Order of 4
60 10 1 10
2 3
6
30. The wavelength of the carrier waves in a modern optical fiber communication
network is close to:
1. 600 nm 2. 2400nm 3. 1500nm 4. 900nm
Ans: 3
Sol: Wavelength used for communication are 1300nm and 1500nm.
CHEMISTRY
31. For the reaction 2A + BC, the values of initial rate at different reactant
concentrations are given in the table below. The rate law for the reaction is:
[A](mol L-1) [B](mol L-1) Initial Rate (mol L-1s-1)
0.05 0.05 0.045
0.10 0.05 0.090
0.20 0.10 0.72
2 2
1. Rate = k[A] [B] 2. Rate = k[A]2[B]
3. Rate = k[A][B] 4. Rate = k[A][B]2
Ans: 4
a b
Sol: rxpt 1 K A1 B 1
a b
rxpt 2 K A 2 B 2
a b
rxpt 3 K A3 B 3
a
rxpt 2 0.090 0.1
rxpt 1 0.045 0.05
a 1
rxpt 3 0.720 0.2 0.1 b
rxpt 2 0.090 0.1 0.05
b2
Therefore,
2
r K A B
32. The major product of the following reaction is:
O Cl
(i) AlCl3,heat
O+
(ii)H2O
O
O
O
Cl
1. COOH Cl 2. O
Cl O Cl
COOH
3. O 4. O
Ans: 1
O Cl O
(i) AlCl3,heat
O+
(ii)H2O
COOH Cl
Sol: O
33. If solubility product of Zr3(PO4)4 is denoted by KSP and its molar solubility is
denoted by S, then which of the following relation between S and KSP is correct ?
1 1 1 1
7 9 6 7
K sp K sp K sp K sp
1. S 2. S 3. S 4. S
6912 929 144 216
Ans: 1
Sol: Zr3 PO4 4 s 3Zr aq4 4 Po43aq
Let “s” be the solubility, then
3 4
K sp 3s 4s
K sp 6912 s 7
1/7
K sp
s
6912
34. Maltose on treatment with dilute HCI gives:
1. D – glucose and D-Fructose 2. D – glucose
3. D-Fructose 4. D-Galactose
Ans: 2
Sol: Maltose on treatment with dil.HCl gives D-glucose.
35. The IUPAC name of the following compound is:
CH3 OH
H3C CH CH CH2 COOH
1. 3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
2. 4,4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid
3. 4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid
4. 2-Methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid
Ans: 1
CH3 OH
H3C CH CH CH2 COOH
3-hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
Sol:
36. The quantum number of four electrons are given below:
1
I. n = 4 l=2 ml = -2 ms =
2
1
II. n = 3 l=2 ml = 1 ms=
2
1
III. n = 4 l=1 ml = 0 ms =
2
1
IV. n = 3 l=1 ml = 1 ms =
2
The correct order of their increasing energies will be:
1. IV > III > II >I 2. I > II > III > IV
3. I > III > II > IV 4. IV > II > III > I
Ans: 3
Sol: lower (n +l) value, and followed by lower ‘n’ value (aufbau rule)
IV < II< III< I
(3p)(3d) (4p) (4d)
37. Diborane (B2 H6) reacts independently with O2 and H2O to produce, respectively:
1. B2 O3 and H 3 BO3 2. H 3 BO3 and B2 O3
3. B2 O3 and BH 4 4. HBO2 and H 3 BO3
Ans: 1
Sol: Diborane burns in O2 forming B2 O3
B2 H 6 3O2 B2O3 3H 2O
Diborane hydrolyses in water producing H 3 BO3
B2 H 6 6 H 2O 2 H 3 BO3 6 H 2
38. 100 mL of a water sample contains 0.81 g of calcium bicarbonate and 0.73 g of
magnesium bicarbonate. The hardness of this water sample expressed in terms of
equivalents of CaCO3 is: (molar mass of calcium bicarbonate is 162 g mol-1 and
magnesium bicarbonate is 146 g mol-1)
1. 1,000ppm 2. 100 ppm 3. 10,000 ppm 4. 5,000 ppm
Ans: 3
3 23 0.01T dT
300
=62KJmol-1
41. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moment of metal ions in the following
3 2
low- spin complexes, [V(CN)6]4- , [Fe(CN)6]4- , Ru NH 3 6
and Cr NH 3 6 is
1. V 2 Cr 2 Ru 3 Fe 2 2. V 2 Ru 3 Cr 2 Fe 2
3. Cr 2 V 2 Ru 3 Fe 2 4. Cr 2 Ru 3 Fe 2 V 2
Ans: 1
Sol: V 2 has d 3 configuration of which all the 3 are unpaired electrons,
Cr 2 has d 4 configuration. On low spin the 4 electrons are arranged as one pair
and 2 unpaired electrons,
Ru 3 has d 5 configuration. In low spin the 5 electrons are arranged as 2 pairs ard 1
electron remain unpaired
Fe 2 has d 6 configuration. In low spin complex all the six electrons are paired so no
unpaired electrons
42. Coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with 1-naphthol in alkaline medium will
give:
OH
OH
N N
N N
1. 2.
OH
OH
N N N N
3. 4.
Ans: 1
OH N2Cl OH
+ Alkaline
medium
N N
Sol:
43. Which of the following amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide reaction ?
1. n- butylamine 2. neo-pentylamine
3. t-butylamine 4. triethylamine
Ans: 1
Sol: Only primary amine can be prepared by Gabriel Pthalimide reaction with better
SN2.
44. Given that EO / H O 1.23V
2 2
E S O 2 / SO 2 2.05V
2 8 4
E Br2 / Br
1.09V
E Au 3
/ Au
1.4V The strongest oxidizing agent is:
1. Br2 2. O2 3. Au 3 4. S 2O82
Ans: 2
Sol: Strongest oxidizing agent may have higher reduction potential in standard state
45. Assertion : Ozone is destroyed by CFCs in the upper stratosphere.
Reason : Ozone holes increase the amount of UV radiation reaching the earth.
3 2
1. P 2
2. P 3 3. P 2 4. P 3
Ans: 4
x 1 x 1
Sol: p n log log P
m m n
1 2
n 3
x
p2 3
m
47. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to predict the feasibility of its
1. Thermal reduction 2. Electrolysis
3. Zone refining 4. Vapour phase refining
Ans: 1
Sol: Ellingham diagrams are related to the G 0 values for the formation of oxides and
can be used for the thermal reduction of ores
CH2
Br OH
OH Br
Br Br
1. 2. Br CH3 3. 4. Br CH3
Ans: 4
OCH3 OH
Conc.HBr(excess)
heat
CH2 Br CH3
Sol:
49. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each of FeC2O4, Fe2(C2O4)3, FeSO4 and
Fe2(SO4)3 in acidic medium, the number of moles of KMnO4 required is:
1. 1.5 2. 3 3. 2 4. 1
Ans: 3
Sol: FeC2O4, Fe2(C2O4)3, FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 have valence factors as 3, 6,1 and 0 and
that of KMnO4 is 5. Therefore two moles of oxidizing agent is required
50. The following ligand is
51. Which is wrong with respect to our responsibility as a human being to protect
our environment ?
1. Avoiding the use of floodlighted facilities
2. Setting up compost tin in gardens
3. Restricting the use of vehicles
4. Using plastic bags
Ans: 4
Sol: plastic bags are not biodegradable. So usage of plastic bags causes much harm to
environment
52. In the following compounds, the decreasing order of basic strength will be:
1. C 2 H 5
2
NH NH 3 C 2 H 5 NH 2
2. C H
2 5 2
NH C2 H 5 NH 2 NH 3
3. C 2 H 5 NH 2 NH 3 C 2 H 5 2
NH
4. NH 3 C 2 H 5 NH 2 C H
2 5 2
NH
Ans: 2
Sol: basic strength in aq.solution:(C2H5)2NH > C 2H5NH2> NH 3
53. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400 and 600 mmHg, respectively
at
298 K. On mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the
volume of the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in the mixture. The
vapour pressure of the final solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in
vapour phase, respectively are:
1. 500 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6 2. 450 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6
3. 500 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5 4. 450 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
Ans: 1
Sol: A and B forms ideal mixture
PT PA0 X A PB0 X B 500mm of H8
X A PA0
YA
PB0 PA0 PB0 X A
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2019_Jee-Main Question Paper_Key & Solutions
0.5 400
600 200 0.5
200
0.4
500
YB 1 YA 1 0.4 0.6
54. The major product of the following reaction is:
O
Br
NaBH4
MeOH,250C
OH
OMe OMe
1. 2.
OH
O
Br
3. 4.
Ans: 4
O
Br O
NaBH4
MeOH,250C
Sol:
55. Element ‘B’ forms ccp structure and ‘A’ occupies half of the octahedral voids, while
oxygen atoms occupy all the tetrahedral voids. The structure of bimetallic oxide is:
1. AB2 O4 2. A2 B2O 3. A2 BO4 4. A4 B2O
Ans: 1
1 1
Sol: B forms Fcc lattice per unit cell 8 6 4 Batoms
8 2
‘A’ occupies half the octahedral voids number of octahedral voids 1 4 4
Per Unit cell 2 A atoms
Per unit cell 8 O atoms
Formula of the compound A2 B4O8 i.e. AB2 O4
56. An organic compound neither reacts with neutral ferric chloride solution nor with
Fehling solution. It however, reacts with Grignard reagent and gives positive
iodoform test. The compound is :
OH
O O O
CH3 CH3
C 2H 5 H CH3 C 2H 5
CH3
1. O 2. O 3. OH 4. O
Ans: 4
Sol:
OH
gives postive iodoform
CH3
C 2H 5
reacts with grignard reagent
O
57. An organic compound ‘X’ showing the following solubility profile is:
Water
Insoluble
5%HCl
Insoluble
'X'
10%NaOH Soluble
10%NaHCO3
Insoluble
58. The size of the iso-electronic species Cl- ,Ar and Ca2+is affected by:
1. Nuclear charge
2. Principal quantum number of valence shell
3. azimuthal quantum number of valence shell
4. electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
Ans: 1
Sol: Isoelectone species contain same number of shells so their size is effected by the
nuclear charge
59. Which one of the following equations does not correctly represent the first law of
thermodynamics for the given processes involving an ideal gas? (Assume non-
expansion work is zero)
1. Isothermal process: q = -w 2. Cyclic process: q = -w
3. Isochoric process: U q 4. Adiabatic Process: U w
Ans: 4
Sol; For ideal gas
Isothermal process q = -w as U 0
Sol:
La 3 f 0 , ba 3 f 7 and Lu 3 ( f 14 ) ions are colourless ions. Having exactly half
MATHEMATICS
1 x 2x
61. If f x log e , x 1, then f 2
is equal to
1 x 1 x
1. 2 f x 4. 2 f x
2
2. f x 3. 2 f x 2
Ans: 1
1 x 2x 1 x 2
Sol: f x log e f 2 log 2 2 f x
1 x 1 x 1 x
62. All possible numbers are formed using the digits 1,1,2,2,2,2,3,4,4, taken all at a time.
The number of such numbers in which the odd digits occupy even places is:
1. 160 2. 162 3. 175 4. 180
Ans: 4
3 6
Sol: No. of ways 4C3 180
2 42
2 x cos x
63. If f x and g x log e x , (x>0) then the value of the integral
2 x cos x
4
g f x dx is:
4
65. Let A and B be two non-null events such that A B . Then, which of the following
statements is always correct?
1. P A | B P B P A 2. P A | B 1
3. P A | B P A 4. P A | B P A
Ans: 4
p A R P A
Sol: A B P A / B P A
PB P B
66. The magnitude of the projection of the vector 2i 3 j k on the vector
perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors i j k and i 2 j 3k is
3 3
1. 2. 3 6 3. 6 4.
2 2
Ans: 4
3
Sol: i j k i 2 j 3k i 2 j k RV
2
67. The sum of all natural numbers ‘n’ such that 100 < n < 200 and H.C.F. (91, n) > 1 is:
1. 3303 2. 3121 3. 3203 4. 3221
Ans: 2
Sol: Given numbers are 101, 102, 103, …..199
Req. value = sum of numbers divisible by 7+sum of numbers divisible by 13-sum of
numbers divisible by 91
14 8
98 7r 91 13r 182 3121
r 1 r 1
‘a’ is:
1 1 1
1. 2. 1 3. 4.
4 16 2
Ans: 3
2x
dy 2 xy 1 2 dx
Sol; 2 2 I .F e 1 x x 2 1
dx x 1 x 1
1
y x2 1 2
x 1
dx tan 1 x c & y 0 0 c 0
1
2 y 1 a
4 16
69. The shortest distance between the line y = x and the curve y 2 x 2 is
11 7 7
1. 2. 3. 2 4.
4 2 8 4 2
Ans: 4
1 7
Sol: Eq. of tangent to y 2 x 2 , which is parallel to y =x is y x 2 y x
4 4
7
S .D
4 2
3 5
70. If cos ,sin and 0 , , then 2 is equal to
5 13 4
63 33 63 21
1. 2. 3. 4.
16 52 52 16
Ans: 1
3 4 5 5
Sol: cos tan ,sin tan
5 3 13 12
4 5
tan 2 tan 3 12 48 15 63
4 5 36 20 16
1
3 12
cos sin R 32 0 1
71. Let A , such that A 1 0 then a value of is
sin cos
1. 0 2. 3. 4.
32 16 64
Ans: 4
cos sin 2 cos 2 sin 2 3 cos3 sin 3
Sol: A A sin 2 cos 2 A sin 3
sin cos cos3
cos 32 sin 32 0 1
A32
sin 32 cos 32 1 0 64
72. If S1 and S 2 are respectively the sets of local minimum and local maximum points of
the function, f x 9 x 4 12 x 3 36 x 2 25 , x R , then:
1. S1 1 ; S 2 0, 2 2. S1 2,1 ; S 2 0
3. S1 2 ; S 2 0,1 4. S1 2,0 ; S 2 1
Ans: 2
Sol;
f ' x 36 x 3 36 x 2 72 x 36 x x 2 x 2 36 x x 1 x 2
S1 2,1 , S 2 0
73. The mean and variance of seven observations are 8 and 16, respectively. If 5 of the
observations are 2,4,10,12,14, then the product of the remaining two observations is:
1. 48 2. 45 3. 40 4. 49
Ans: 1
Sol; Let the remaining numbers are a,b
a b 42 a 2 b 2 460
8 a b 14, 64 16 a 2 b 2 100
7 7
a, b 6,8 ab 48
74. A point on the straight line, 3x+5y=15 which is equidistant from the coordinate axes
will lie only in
1. 1st and 2nd quadrants 2. 1st quadrant
3. 1st ,2nd and 4th quadrants 4. 4th quadrant
Ans: 1
Sol: req.point lies on y=x or x + y = 0
15 15 15 15
,
Req.point is 8 8 or ,
2 2
75. The sum of the squares of the lengths of the chords intercepted on the circle,
x 2 y 2 16 , by the lines, x + y = n, n N , where N is the set of all natural
numbers, is:
1. 210 2. 105 3. 160 4. 320
Ans: 1
5
Sol: l 2
2 32 n 2 210
n1
76. The contra positive of the statement “If you are born in India then you are a citizen
of India” is
1. If you are not born in India, then you are not a citizen of India
2. If you are born in India, then you are not a citizen of India
3. If you are not a citizen of India then you are not born in India
4. If you are a citizen of India then you are born in India
Ans: 3
Sol: If you are not a citizen of India then you are not born in India
77. The sum of the co-efficient of all even degree terms in x in the expansion of
6 6
x
x 1 x x 1 , x 1 is equal to:
3 3
1. 32 2. 24 3. 29 4. 26
Ans:2
Sol:
2
2 6C 0 x 6 6C 2 x 4 x 3 1 6C 4 x 2 x 3 1 6C 6 x 3 1
3
Sum of coefficient of even powers of x = 2 6C0 6 C2 2 6C4 3 6C6 6C6 24
78. If and be the roots of the equation x 2 2 x 2 0 , then the least value of n for
n
which 1 is:
1. 3 2. 4 3. 2 4. 5
Ans: 2
Sol; x 1 2 1 i 2 x 1 i
n n
1 i
in 1 n 4
1 i
79. The equation of a plane containing the line of intersection of the planes 2x – y – 4 = 0
and y + 2z – 4 = 0 and passing through the point (1 , 1, 0) is:
1. x – 3y -2z = -2 2. x – y – z = 0 3. 2x – z = 2 4. x + 3y + z = 4
Ans: 2
x4 y4 z
Sol; Eq of the line is
1 2 1
x 1 y 1 z
Eq of plane is 3 3 0 0 x yz 0
1 2 1
sin 2 x
lim
80.
x 0 2 1 cos x equals:
1. 2 2 2. 4 3. 4 2 4. 2
Ans: 3
sin 2 x x2
Sol; lim
x 0
lim
2 1 cos x x 0 1 cos x
2 1 cos x 2 2 2 4 2
81. The length of the perpendicular from the point (2, -1, 4) on the straight line,
x3 y2 z
is:
10 7 1
1. Less than 2 2. greater than 3 but less than 4
3. Greater than 4 4. greater than 2 but less than 3
Ans: 2
x3 y2 z
Sol;
10 7 1
10 3, 7 2,
2, 1, 4
Dr’s 10 5, 7 3, 4
10 10 5 7 7 3 1 4 0
1
2
50
perpendicular distance = 3, 4
4
82. Let O(0,0) and A(0,1) be two fixed points. Then the locus of a point P such that the
perimeter of AOP is 4, is:
1. 9 x 2 8 y 2 8 y 16 2. 8 x 2 9 y 2 9 y 18
3. 8 x 2 9 y 2 9 y 18 3. 9 x 2 8 y 2 8 y 16
Ans: 4
Sol: OP AP OA 4 OP AP 3 , locus of P is an ellipse and eq. to the locus is
1
2 y
x 2
1
8 9
4 4
83. The greatest value of c R for which the system of linear equations
x –c y –c z = 0
cx - y + c z = 0
cx + cy – z = 0 has non – trivial solution, is:
1
1. -1 2. 0 3. 4. 2
2
Ans: 3
1 c c
Sol: c 1 c 0
c c 1
2 1 1
2c 3 3c 2 1 0 c 1 c 0 c 1,
2 2
x
2
Sol: 3x dx 8
0
59
6
3 1
85. If cos 1 , tan 1 , where 0 , , then is equal to:
5 3 2
1 9 1 9 1 9 1 9
1. tan 2. tan 3. sin 4. cos
5 10 14 5 10 5 10
Ans: 3
4 1
4 1 1
33 1 9
Sol; tan , tan tan tan
3 3 4 1
13
1 .
3 3
86. Let f:[0, 2] R be a twice differentiable function such that f’’(x)>0, for all
x 0, 2 . If x f x f 2 x , then is:
1. Increasing on (0, 1) and decreasing on (1, 2)
2. Decreasing on (0, 1) and increasing on (1, 2)
3. Decreasing on (0, 2)
4. Increasing on (0, 2)
Ans: 2
Sol: f '' x 0 f’(x) is increasing in [0,2].
x f x f 2 x ' x f ' x f ' 2 x
x 2 1 x 3 or 1 x 1 or 9
2
3 cos x sin x dy
88. If 2 y cot 1 , x 0, then is equal to:
cos x 3 sin x 2 dx
1. x 2. x 3. 2 x 4. x
6 3 3 6
Ans: 1
2
3 cos x sin x
Sol: 2 y cot 1 , x 0,
2
cos x 3 sin x
2
dy
2 y x x
6 dx 6
89. If the tangents on the ellipse 4 x 2 y 2 8 at the points (1, 2) and (a, b) are
1 2
m2 2 cot tan 4 a 2
2 17
5x
sin
2 dx is equal to:
90. x
sin
2
(Where c is a constant of integration)
1. x + 2 sinx + 2 sin2x + c 2. 2x + sinx + sin2x + c
3. 2x + sinx + 2 sin2x + c 4. x + 2 sinx + sin2x + c
Ans: 4
5x
sin
2 dx sin 3 x sin x dx
Sol;
sin x
3 4sin 2 x 2cos x dx
sin
2
x sin 2 x 2sin x c