Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
(c) Notwithstanding subsections (a) and (b), offenses arising under the revenue laws of the state shall be commenced
within the three (3) years following the commission of the offense, except that the period of limitation of prosecution
shall be six (6) years in the following instances: (1) Offenses involving the defrauding or attempting to defraud the
state of Tennessee or any agency of the state, whether by conspiracy or not, and in any manner; (2) The offense of
willfully attempting in any manner to evade or defeat any tax or the payment of a tax; (3) The offense of willfully
aiding or abetting, or procuring, counseling or advising, the preparation or presentation under, or in connection with,
any matter arising under the revenue laws of the state, or a false or fraudulent return, affidavit, claim or document,
whether or not the falsity or fraud is with the knowledge or consent of the person authorized or required to present the
return, affidavit, claim or document; and (4) The offense of willfully failing to pay any tax, or make any return at the
time or times required by law or regulation.
(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (b)(3) to the contrary, prosecution for the offense of arson as
prohibited by § 39-14-301 shall commence within eight (8) years from the date the offense occurs.
(e) Prosecutions for any offense committed against a child prior to July 1, 1997, that constitutes a criminal offense
under the provisions of §§ 39-2- 601, 39-2-603, 39-2-604, 39-2-606, 39-2-607, 39-2-608, 39-2- 612, 39-4-306, 39-4-
307, 39-6-1137, or § 39-6-1138, or under the provisions of §§ 39-13-502--39-13-505, § 39-15-302 or § 39-17-902
shall commence no later than the date the child attains the age of majority or within four years next after the
commission of the offense, whichever occurs later; provided, that pursuant to subsection (a), an offense punishable by
life imprisonment may be prosecuted at any time after the offense has been committed.
(f) For offenses committed prior to November 1, 1989, the limitation of prosecution in effect at that time shall govern.
(g) Prosecutions for any offense committed against a child on or after July 1, 1997, that constitutes a criminal offense
under the provisions of §§ 39-13- 502--39-13-505, § 39-13-522, § 39-15-302 or § 39-17-902 shall commence no later
than the date the child reaches twenty-one (21) years of age; provided, that if the provisions of subsection (a) or (b)
provide a longer period of time within which prosecution may be brought than this subsection (g), the applicable
provision of subsection (a) or (b) shall prevail.
(h) A person may be prosecuted, tried and punished for any offense committed against a child on or after June 20,
2006, that constitutes a criminal offense under the provisions of §§ 39-13-502--39-13-505, § 39-13-522, § 39-13-527
or § 39-15-302, no later than twenty-five (25) years from the date the child becomes eighteen (18) years of age.
TCA 40-2-102 Misdemeanors: (a) Except as provided in § 62-18-120(g) and subsection (b) of this section, all
prosecutions for misdemeanors shall be commenced within the twelve (12) months after the offense has been
committed, except gaming, which shall be commenced within six (6) months.
(b) Prosecutions for criminal impersonation accomplished through the use of a fraudulently obtained driver license
shall be commenced within one (1) year of the date the driver license expires or within three (3) years of the date the
non-expired driver license was last used to falsely impersonate the person in whose name the driver license was issued,
whichever is longer.
TCA 40-2-103Concealment of crime or absence from state
No period during which the party charged conceals the fact of the crime, or during which the party charged was not
usually and publicly resident within the state, is included in the period of limitation.
The 6th Amendment to the Constitution declares that in all criminal prosecutions the accused shall enjoy the right to a
public and speedy trial.
Habeas corpus is a form of collateral attack. An independent proceeding initiated to determine whether a defendant is
being unlawfully deprived of his or her liberty.
Speedy Trial is a trial that the prosecution, with reasonable diligence, begins promptly and conducts expeditiously.
In determining if the right to a speedy trial has been deprived the court will usually look at:
1.) length of delay
2.) reason for the delay
3.) the defendant’s assertion of the right
4.) the prejudice suffered
Speedy Trial Act of 1974- federal law; specific time limits and enumerates what events toll the running of the
specified time.
Barker v. Wingo
FACTS: An elderly couple was beaten to death by intruders and Barker was not brought to trial for murder until more
than five years after he was arrested, during which time the prosecution obtained numerous continuances. He
ultimately filed a motion to dismiss the indictment asserting that his right to a speedy trial had been violated.
ISSUE: is a defendant deprived of his due process right to a speedy trial if he does not complain about the ensuing
delay and is not prejudiced there by?
HOLDING/REASONING: no, the right to speedy trial is a balancing act between the interest of the defendant and
societal interest.
RULE: When addressing speedy trial claims, courts must apply a balancing test in which the conduct of both the
prosecution and the ^ are weighed, including a consideration of:
(a) The length of delay,
(b) The reason for delay,
(c) The ^’s assertion of his right (his responsibility), and
(d) Prejudice to the defendant.
Presumption is a legal inference or assumption that a fact exist, based on the known or proven existence of some other
fact or group of facts. A presumption shifts the burden of production or persuasion to the opposing party, who can
then attempt to overcome the presumption.
Statute of Repose is a statute that bars a suit a fixed number of years after the defendant acts in some way, even if this
period ends before the P has suffered any injury.
ISSUE: when a lengthy delay between indictment and trial is caused by the Government’s negligence in locating the ^,
is the ^ entitled to dismissal of the indictment?
HOLDING: yes
RULE: Lengthy delays between indictment and trial caused by the Government’s negligence violate the 6th
Amendment right to a speedy trial.
Due Process is the conduct of legal proceedings according to established rules and principles for the protection and
enforcement of private rights, including notice and the right to a fair hearing before a tribunal with the power to hear
the case.
Indictment is the formal written accusation of a crime, made by a GJ (and prosecutor) and presented to the court for
prosecution against the accused person.
Negligence in the sense of speedy trial- middle ground between diligence and bad-faith delay
ISSUE: does an unjust pre indictment delay violate the 6th amendment when the delay prejudices the ^’s defense?
HOLDING: no
RULE: To prosecute a ^ following investigative delay does not deprive him of due process, even if his defense might
have been somewhat prejudiced by the lapse of time.
Marion established the proof of prejudice is generally a necessary, but not sufficient element of due process claim, and
that the due process inquire must consider the reasons for the delay as well as the prejudice to the accused.
Investigative delay is wholly separate from delay to gain tactical advantage. The latter is bad-faith. Moreover,
investigative delay is rarely one-sided. The Due Process Clause does not require mere speed, but rather diligence and
orderly expedition of cases by prosecutors.
State v. Utley
Supreme Court of TN 1997
FACTS: On June 4, 1987, a criminal arrest warrant for armed robbery was issued for the defendant, Demetrius
Dewayne Utley, for an alleged offense committed on May 27, 1987, in Davidson County, Tennessee. The defendant
was not served with the warrant until June of 1992, even though he had been in the State's custody for unrelated
convictions for the majority of the five years. After the return of an indictment in September of 1992, the defendant
moved to dismiss the charge because he had been denied his constitutional right to a speedy trial. The motion was filed
in December of 1992 and granted in February of 1993.
Trial court held that the speedy trial right was triggered by the issuance of the arrest warrant in 1987, despite the fact
that the defendant was not arrested or indicted until 1992. The court found that the five and one-half year period was
“intolerable and egregious,” particularly since the defendant had been in the custody of the state. After concluding that
the defendant had been prejudiced, the trial court dismissed the armed robbery charge.
The Court of Criminal Appeals agreed that the issuance of the arrest warrant triggered the right to a speedy trial. Court
of Criminal Appeals concluded that the defendant's right to a speedy trial had been violated.
ISSUE: whether the defendant was denied his right to a speedy trial as required under the Sixth Amendment to the
United States Constitution and Tennessee Constitution. And, what type of state action which will engage the
defendant's right to a speedy trial.
HOLDING/REASONING: The defendant's right to speedy trial was not triggered when arrest warrant was issued, but
instead was triggered five years later, when defendant was served with arrest warrant and was arrested; The delay of
eight months between service of arrest warrant on defendant and argument on motion for speedy trial did not violate
defendant's speedy trial rights; and the remand was necessary to determine whether five-year delay between
commission of offense and defendant's arrest violated due process issue.
Speedy trial- TCA § 40-14-101 (1990) In all criminal prosecutions, the accused is entitled to a speedy trial.
Rule 4 is used in defendant motion. However, "neither Rule 4 nor the advisory comments address the right to a speedy
trial." p. 494.
US. v. Marion- prejudice to defendant caused by delay violates right to fair trial
TN. State v. Gray- Application of Marion rule for Pre-arrest Delay: "before an accused is entitled to relief based
upon the delay between the offense and the initiation of adversarial proceedings, the accused must prove that:
(a) There was a delay,
(b) The accused sustained actual prejudice as a direct and proximate result of the delay, and
(c) The State caused the delay in order to gain tactical advantage over or to harass the accused."
However, for pre-accusatorial delay during which the state was unaware of the commission of the crime, the trial court
must consider only:
(a) The length of delay,
(b) The reason for the delay, and
(c) The degree of prejudice to the accused. p. 495.
Case reversed b/c the lower court never gave any due process analysis, in regard to the 5 year delay from the
commission of the offense to the defendant's arrest. If the defendant shows that his right to due process was violated
under Marion, the trial court shall dismiss the charge; otherwise, the trial should proceed.
State v. Dykes
Court of Criminal Appeals 1990
FATCS: Bud Dykes, was convicted of selling more than one-half ounce of marijuana by a jury of his peers. The trial
judge, finding the appellant to be a Range I standard offender, sentenced the appellant to pay a fine of $5,000 and serve
one year and six months in the local jail.
ISSUE: The appellant raises five issues for our review. He contends that the evidence contained in the record is
insufficient to sustain his conviction. He further contends that the trial judge erred in overruling his motion to dismiss,
denying his motion for a continuance, refusing to suspend his sentence, and the sentence imposed by the trial judge is
excessive.
HOLDING/REASONING: The evidence was sufficient to support defendant's conviction; the delay of 16 months
between time of offense and initiation of adversarial proceedings did not violate defendant's due process rights; the
three months following return of indictment or presentment was insufficient, as matter of law, to trigger speedy trial
analysis; the defendant was not entitled to continuance due to missing defense witness; the since there were no
enhancement (and two mitigating) factors present, trial judge should have sentenced defendant to minimum sentence
within standard offender range for Class E felony; and the trial court properly refused to suspend defendant's sentence
and place him on probation.
"When an accused seeks a continuance on the ground a witness is unavailable, the accused is required to file a written
motion which sets forth the grounds with particularity; and the motion must be supported by an affidavit. The affidavit
must allege:
(a) The substance of the facts that the accused expects to prove through the unavailable witness,
(b) Sufficient facts to establish the relevance and materiality of the testimony of the unavailable witness,
(c) The testimony would be admissible, if the witness was available,
(d) The testimony is not merely cumulative to other evidence,
(e) The witness will be available at a later date,
(f) Diligence was exercised to obtain the presence of the witness.
The failure to file a proper motion and/or a properly drafted affidavit, standing alone, will justify the denial of the
motion without a hearing." p. 256-57.
"Whether a criminal trial should be continued to a later date is matter which addresses itself to the sound discretion of
the trial judge." The appellate court won't intervene with the judge's decision unless it appears that "(a) the trial judge
has abused his discretion, and (b) prejudice endured to the accused as a result of the trial judge's ruling." p. 257.
Presumptive sentence- minimum sentence in the range, if not enhancing or mitigating factors
Enhancement factors-above the minimum, but still within range, if no mitigating factors
Both enhancement and mitigating factors- court must start at the min. sentence, enhance within the appropriate range,
and then reduce within the range as appropriate
04-05-07
Warrant obtained and not served then the issue is due process and statute of limitations
Time issue after the formal charge and the motion are speedy trial issues
SOL
1st degree murder has no statute of limitations
Class A felony-15 years
Class B-8
Class C-4
Class E-2
Misdemeanor 12months
If the ^ conceals the crime the statute is tolled, this is different from due process
Due Process Test (When the Government did not know the crime occurred)
1) delay
2) actual prejudice
3) reason for the delay
Must have Delay before the courts will consider the other factors, after length of delay the most important thing to
show is that there was an actual prejudice
Enhancement- TCA § 40-35-114. The enhancement factor can’t also be one of the elements that was proved in order
to meet the state’s burden as to that charge. The advisory factors in determining whether to enhance a ^’s sentence are:
(1) ^ has previous history of criminal convictions or criminal behavior, in addition to those necessary to
establish the appropriate range; [criminal background]
(2) ^ was a leader in the commission of an offense involving two (2) or more criminal actors; [leader of
conspiracy]
(3) offense involved more than one (1) victim;
(4) victim of the offense was particularly vulnerable because of age or physical or mental disability;
[especially vulnerable young or old victim]
(5) ^ treated, or allowed a victim to be treated, with exceptional cruelty during the commission of the offense;
(6) personal injuries inflicted upon, or the amount of damage to property sustained by or taken from, the victim
was particularly great; [much injury to victim or damage of his/her property]
(7) offense involved a victim and was committed to gratify the ^’s desire of pleasure or excitement; [sexual or
sadistic pleasure]
(8) ^, before trial or sentencing, has failed to comply with the conditions of a sentence involving release into
the community; [previous probation/parol/CC violations]
(9) ^ possessed or employed a firearm, explosive device, or other deadly weapon during the commission of the
offense;
(10) ^ had no hesitation about committing a crime when the risk to human life was high;
(11) felony resulted in death or serious bodily injury, or involved the threat of death or serious bodily injury to
another person, and the ^ has previously been convicted of a felony that resulted in death or serious bodily injury;
[death or threat of death, when ^ was previously convicted of murder or crime w/ serious bodily injury]
(12) during the commission of the felony, the ^ intentionally inflicted serious bodily injury upon another
person, or the actions of the ^ resulted in the death of or serious bodily injury to, a victim or a person other than the
intended victim; [this section sounds like felony murder is itself an enhancement factor]
(13) at the time the felony was committed, one of the following classifications was applicable to the ^:
(A) released on bail or pretrial release , if ^ is ultimately convicted of such prior misdemeanor or
felony; [committing another crime while out on bail or pretrial]
(B) released on parole;
(C)) on probation
(D) on work release; [ex. Ie. “furlough.” Darden v. Wainwright]
(E) on community corrections;
(F) on some form of judicially ordered release; [ROR, bond}
(G) on any other type of release into the community under the direct or indirect supervision of any
state or local governmental authority or private entity contracting with the state or local government;
(H) on escape status; or
(I) incarcerated in any penal institution on a misdemeanor or felony charge or a misdemeanor or
felony conviction;
(14) ^ abused a position of public or private trust, or used a professional license in a manner that significantly
facilitated the commission or the fulfillment of the offense;
(15) ^ committed the offense on the grounds or facilities of a pre-kindergarten (pre-K) through grade (twelve
(12) public or private institution of learning when minors were present; [Drug Free Zone]
(16) ^ was adjudicated to have committed a delinquent act or acts as a juvenile that would constitute a felony if
committed by an adult; [juvenile record has a crime that constitutes a felony]
(17) ^ intentionally selected the person (victim) against whom the crime was committed or selected the
property that was damaged or otherwise affected by the crime, in whole or in part because of the ^’s belief or
perception regarding the race, religion, color, disability, sexual orientation, national origin, ancestry, or gender of that
person or the owner or occupant of that property; however, this subdivision (17) should not be construed to permit the
enhancement of a sexual offense on the basis of gender selection alone; [Title VI- anti discrimination. Civil Rights Act
and Americans with Disabilities Act]
(18) offense was an act of terrorism, or was related to an act of terrorism;
(19) if ^ is convicted of aggravated assault pursuant to 39-13-102, the victim of the aggravated assault was a
LEO, firefighter, correctional officer, youth services officer, probation and parole officer, a state registered security
officer/guard, an employee of the TDOC or DCS, an emergency medical or rescue worker, emergency medical
technician, or paramedic, whether compensated or acting as a volunteer; provided, that the victim was performing an
official duty and the ^ knew or should have known that the victim was such an officer or employee; [victim if a gov’t
or medical agent in pursuit of their job of public safety or health care]
(20) if ^ is convicted of the offenses of rape pursuant to 39-13-503, sexual battery pursuant to 39-13-05, or
rape of a child pursuant to 39-13-522, the ^ caused the victim to be mentally incapacitated or physically helpless by
use of a controlled substance; [while victim was incapacitated by C/S]
(21) if ^ is convicted of the offenses of aggravated rape pursuant to 39-13-502, rape pursuant to 39-13-503,
rape of a child pursuant to 39-13-522, or statutory rape pursuant to 39-13-506, the ^ knew or should have known that,
at the time of the offense, such ^ was HIV positive; OR
(22)(A) if ^ is convicted of the offenses of aggravated arson pursuant to 39-14-302, or vandalism pursuant to
39-14-408, the damage or destruction was caused to a structure, whether temporary or permanent in nature, used as a
place of worship and the ^ knew or should have known that it was a place of worship.
(B) as used in this subdivision (22), “place of worship” means any structure that is: (i) approved,
or qualified to be approved, by the state board of equalization for property tax exemption pursuant to 67-5-212, based
on ownership and use of the structure by a religious institution; AND
(ii) utilized on a regular basis by such religious institution as the site of congregational service, rites or
activities communally undertaken for the purpose of worship.
(b) Permissive Joinder of Offenses. Two or more offenses may be joined in the same I/P/P with each offense
stated in a separate count, or consolidated pursuant to Rule 13, if:
(1) The offenses constitute parts of a common scheme or plan; OR
(2) They are of the same or similar character.
Advisory Footnote: Permissive joinder of section (b) allows even unrelated offenses to be joined in the same I/P, when
they are offenses of the same/similar character. These charged may be severed by the defendant as a matter of right
under Rule 14(b), unless part of common scheme or plan, AND the evidence of one would be admissible upon the
trial of the others
.
-a ^ has an absolute right to severance, under 8b
(c) Joinder of Defendants. An I/P/I may charge two or more defendants:
(1) If each of the defendants is charged with accountability for each offense included;
(2) If each of the defendants is charged with conspiracy, and some of the defendants are also charged
with one or more offenses alleged to be in furtherance of the conspiracy; OR
(3) even if conspiracy is not charged and all of the defendants are not charged in each count, if the
several offenses charged:
(A) Were part of a common scheme or plan; OR
(B) Were so closely connected in time, place, and occasion that it would be difficult to separate
proof of one charge from proof of the others.
Advisory Footnote: Section (c) aims at achieving improved judicial economy and efficiency. Severance of defendants
is addressed in Rule 14(c).
Advisory Footnote: Rules 8, 13, and 14 are closely tied together. Rule 13 allows the court to consolidate or sever
O’s/D’s when the state or defense could have moved to do so. Ie, if a motion would have achieved that purpose, the
court can do it of its own initiative. When the court orders a consolidation under section (a), the case is then in the
“permissive joinder” status, and the defendant(s) may exercise options available under Rule 14 to sever. A severance
ordered by the court under section (b) is final.
Advisory Footnote: Offenses permissively joined by the prosecution (or by the court) may be severed upon
motion by the defendant as a matter of right, with one exception: where the offenses are part of a common
scheme or plan AND the evidence of one would be admissible upon the trial of the others
(b)(2) sets out when and under what circumstances there may be a severance of cases consolidated under the
compulsory joinder rule.
Section (c) deals with US v. Bruton. 391 US 123 (1968). (c)(1) provides that severance is unnecessary where
no Bruton violation, as would be true in cases like Richardson v. Marsh.
RECAP (Notes from Midterm Outline)-
Rule 13. Consolidation or Severance.
Consolidation. Court can consolidate trial of two or more indictments. This creates a “permissive joinder” status.
Severance. Court may sever offenses or defendants before trial, upon motion of state or defense. Severance by the
court is final.
Defendants motion for severance shall be made before trial, unless grounds not previously shown during or right
before trial arise. Defendant waives severance if motion is not timely.
State’s motion to sever must be made before trial, or with defendant’s consent.
Defendant has the right to sever offenses, unless they are part of a common scheme or plan which would use the same
evidence.
If defendant moves for severance b/c of an incriminating statement by the co-defendant, the state must either not admit
or redact the statement. [Richardson v. Marsh, US Supreme Court. See also Bruton v. U.S.]
Court shall grant motion to sever if it is necessary to protect defendant’s right to speedy trial, or it is necessary for
defendant to receive a fair trial.
Same conduct- refers to a single action which may be divisible into district offenses
[The Supreme court found that the alleged conduct was not a “single action”, and thus not the “same conduct”
in this case]
Same criminal episode- more difficult questions. Relates to several distinct offenses which arise out of separate
actions or conduct but which occur in a closely connected series of events in place and time.
American Bar Association Standards definition:
“Single criminal episode offenses normally are generated by separate physical actions. The actions may be committed
by separate defendants. In other respects, however, they are similar to same conduct offense: they occur
simultaneously or in close sequence, and they occur in the same place or in closely situated places. A critical
characteristic of single episode offenses, particularly in cases involving otherwise unrelated offense or offenders, is the
fact hat proof of one offense necessarily involves proof of the others.”
ABA Standards relating to Joinder and Severance.
Criminal episode- “an occurrence or connected series of occurrences and developments which may be viewed as
distinctive and apart although part of a larger or more comprehensive series.”
HOLDING: Trial court was correct in dismissing the case under Rule 8(a), because the second period of time did not
terminate the “criminal episode,” even if separate convictions were possible. 2nd indictment alleges illegal activities
that arose from the same criminal episode as the subject of the 1st indictment. Thus, the 2nd indictment violated the
mandatory joinder rule.
Note: The purpose of Rule 8(a) is to prevent multiple trials on charges arising from the same conduct or same episode.
The rule does not necessarily prohibit a subsequent indictment, provided it is consolidated with the prior indictment
before trial or disposition.
RULE: Same conduct or criminal episode consolidation of indictments into one trial
Bruton v. U.S. 391 U.S. 123, 88 S.Ct. 1620, 20 L.Ed.2d 476 (1968).
FACTS: ^ and co-^ tried jointly before a jury, and convicted on federal armed postal robbery charge. A postal
inspector testified that the co-^ admitted to both his and ^'s involvement. Judge instructed the jury that the co-^'s
statements were inadmissible hearsay against ^, and to be disregarded as to his guilt was concerned.
ISSUE: Whether the conviction of a defendant at a joint trial should be set aside although the jury was instructed that a
codefendant's confession inculpating the defendant had to be disregarded in determining his guilt or innocence.
RULE(S): Delli Paoli rule, overturned in this case, had previously held that it was reasonably possible for a jury to
follow sufficiently clear instructions to disregard statements of a co-^ that implicate the ^.
This Court states that it may also be a denial of due process to rely on a jury's presumed ability to disregard a co-^'s
confession against another ^, in terms of guilt or innocence. To deprive an accused of the right to cross-examine the
witnesses against him is a denial of the Fourteenth Amendment guarantee of due process of law.
Rule 14 of Federal Rules of Crim. Pro authorizes a severance where it appears that a defendant might be prejudiced
by a joint trial. Joinder of defendants is governed by Rules 8(b) and 14 of the F.R.Cr.P. The rules are designed to
promote economy and efficiency and avoid a multiplicity of trials, but only where these objectives can be achieved
without substantial prejudice to the right of defendants to a fair trial.
HOLDING: Because of the substantial risk that the jury, despite instructions to the contrary, looked at the
incriminating extrajudicial statements in determining ^'s guilt, admission of co-^'s confession violated ^'s right of
cross-examination secured by the Confrontation Clause of the Sixth Amendment. Prior rule of Delli Paoli
overturned. Case reversed. To hold otherwise would be completely contrary to the Rule of evidence, which would
require exclusion of the confession as to Bruton as "inadmissible hearsay". The effect of these jury instructions were
the same as if there had been no instruction at all.
Inadmissible hearsay- a presumptively unreliable out-of-court statement of a nonparty who was not a witness subject to
cross-examination.
Dissent- the idea that juries can effectively disregard inadmissible evidence against one co-^.
ISSUE: What is the proper standard of appellate review of a trial court's denial of a motion to sever offenses under
TRCrP 14(b)(1)?
RULE(S): Mandatory Joinder- Consolidation of multiple offenses in a single trial is now mandatory when the
offenses are "based upon the same conduct or arise from the same criminal episode." TRCrP 8(a). Rule 8(b) covers
permissive joinder.
Defendant has an absolute right to a severance of offenses that are of the same or similar character under Rule 14(b)
(1), upon request.
Rules 8(b) and 14(b) allow trial court wide discretion to join offenses for a single trial, when the offenses are part of a
common scheme or plan and when the offense sought to be severed would be admissible as evidence in the trial of the
other offenses.
The most common basis for offering evidence of a distinctive design (under part 1) is to establish the identity of a
perpetrator.
Before multiple offenses may be said to evince a distinctive design, the "modus operandi employed must be so unique
and distinctive as to be like a signature."
Modus operandi- unusual particularities, not likely to be employed by another person, substantially identical
and so unique that it tends to establish identity.
Black's Law definition- modus operandi is a method of operating or doing things. Used by police and criminal
investigators to describe the particular method of a criminal's activity.
The trial court must look for a distinctive method used to commit the crimes, and not simply for evidence tending to
show that the defendant was the offender.
HOLDING:
A denial of a severance will only be reversed for an abuse of discretion. This holding applies to decisions to
consolidate or sever offenses pursuant to Rules 8(b) and 14(b)(1). Trial court in this case abused its discretion in
denying a severance because the methods used to commit the offense were not so materially distinct or unique as to
rise to an inference of identity. Trial court applied an incorrect legal standard in finding that the offenses were parts of
a common scheme or plan. The result of not severing the cases invited the jury to infer the appellant's guilt from the
perceived propensity to commit armed robbery, with a result of unfair prejudice. Reversed and remanded.
Spicer v. State 12 S.W.3d 438 (Tenn. 2000).
FACTS: Defendant had two step-daughters. One daughter told her mother that defendant had been raping her. The
other daughter was confronted by the mother, and she advised that he had touched her sexually, but not raped her. The
mother reported this to the Sheriff's Department, who didn't want to get involved, because defendant was an employee
there. Mother then reported the incidents to the police, and sent the children for a rape kit. The results showed that the
rape of the one daughter had happened more than once, and that the other daughter's hymen was still intact. This was
consistent with the girls' stories. Two indictments were handed down- agg. sexual battery, and rape of a child. Both
alleged same time frame of July 1, 1993 to March 4, 1994. State moved to consolidate. Defendant objected.
Overruled and joined for trial. Defendant was convicted by a jury of misdemeanor assault and rape of a child. 11'29
concurrent with 18 years, plus fines.
ISSUE: 1. Whether this case is a consolidation case or a severance case. 2. Whether the trial court abused its
discretion by trying the offenses alleged in both indictments in a single trial. Ie. whether the evidence was admissible
at trial of both offenses.
Review of decisions concerning permissive joinder and severance of offenses pursuant to Rules 8(b) and 14(b)(1) for
abuse of discretion. Trial court will be reversed if applied an incorrect legal standard.
Offenses may not be parts of a "common scheme or plan" although the offenses may be of the same or similar
character. Rule 14(b)(1) can be used to sever permissively joined offenses, if the evidence of each offense is not
admissible in the trial of the others. The trial court can overrule defendant's objection to consolidate, only when the
offenses are parts of a common scheme or plan and evidence of each offense is admissible in the trial of the others.
When a defendant objects to a pre-trial motion to consolidate by the state, the trial court must consider the
motion by the severance provisions of Rule 14(b)(1), not the "same or similar character" standard of Rule 8(b).
Purpose of severing (Rule 8 advisory comments)- to ensure that the defendant is insulated from the evidence of other
offenses when that evidence is not otherwise admissible.
When the state alleges that sexual offenses have occurred over a period of time against a single victim, then the state
may introduce supporting evidence of sexual misconduct during that time. The state is required to make an election at
the close of its proof-in-chief as to the particular offense or offenses for which it is seeking a conviction.
Common scheme or plan must be shown pre-trial. When the indictment is open-dated, and the state elects which
offense to prosecute after the case in chief, then there is no way to meet the burden of production of the evidence pre-
trial.
HOLDING:
The trial court overlooked the fact that a defendant has an absolute right to sever offenses that are merely of the "same
or similar character." State introduced no evidence of a common scheme or plan.
Issue 2- Rule 14(b)(1) may have the practical effect of requiring the state to elect the offense for conviction pre-trial,
when seeking permissive joinder of open-dated indictments. Otherwise there is no way to show the common scheme
or plan pre-trial.
"When the state seeks to consolidate offenses that are alleged in open-dated indictments, the state must introduce
sufficient proof at the pre-trial hearing to support a finding that specific acts constitute parts of a common scheme or
plan."
It was probable that the testimony from each victim in this case bolstered the credibility of the other, and invited the
jury's reliance on the appellant's perceived propensity to sexually abuse his daughters. This would have created an
unfair prejudice, affecting the outcome of the trial.
Consolidation was not harmless error. Especially in light of the fact that the jury actually convicted defendant of a
different type of assault than the state's proof alleged. This shows some spill-over effect from the other victim's case
was likely.
4-19-07
There are 3 types of pleas
-Guilty
-not guilty
-No lo contendre
-no contest
-this plea cannot be brought in a civil case arising from the same actions b/c there is no
admission of guilt.
-accepts the punishment.
-you must have the agreement from the judge for this plea.
-Alford Plea
-also known as a best interest plea
-waive trial and accept punishment that is in his best interest w/o admitting guilt.
-judge also must agree to this plea
-the judge must agree to this b/c the ^ is waiving their rights.
Bordenkircher v. Hayes
FACTS: After being indicted on a charge of uttering a false instrument. Hayes was told by the prosecutor that if he
didn’t plea guilty to that charge the prosecutor would re-indict Hayes under the state’s Habitual Criminal Act, and if
convicted, he would be sentenced to life in prison, Hayes did not pled guilty and the prosecutor re-indicted him on the
more serious charge. Hayes was found guilty and, as required by the Act was sentenced to life in prison. After the
Kentucky Court of Appeals affirmed the sentence, Hayes petitioned the federal court for a writ of habeas corpus. The
federal court denied the writ, but the Sixth Circuit Court of Appeals reversed, holding that the prosecutor’s conduct
was a vindictive exercise of the prosecutor’s discretion.
ISSUE: Is a vindictive exercise of the prosecutor’s discretion and a violation of the Due Process Clause to carry out a
threat made during plea negotiations to re-indict a criminal ^ on more serious charges if the ^ does not pled to the
offenses with which he was originally charged?
RULE OF LAW: It is not a vindictive exercise of the prosecutor’s discretion and a violation of the Due Process Clause
to carry out a threat made during plea negotiations to re-indict a criminal ^ on more serious charges if the ^ does not
pled to the offenses with which he was originally charged
REASONING: A prosecutor does not vindictively exercise his or her discretion, and therefore does not violate due
process, by carrying out a threat to re-indict a ^ on more serious charges if the ^ does not pled to the more original
offense. Hayes was fully informed of the terms of the plea offer and understood that he risked being re-indicted under
the Habitual Criminal Act if he did not pled guilty. As a practical matter, the case was no different than if Hayes had
initially been indicted as a recidivist and the prosecutor had offered to drop that charge as part of a plea agreement.
While it is a violation of the Due Process Clause to punish a person for legally attacking a conviction, there is no such
element of punishment or retaliation in plea bargaining so long as the ^ is free to accept to accept or reject the
prosecutor’s offer.
ISSUE: Is the prosecutor’s office bound by a promise not to make a sentencing recommendation when that promise
was the consideration for a plea of guilty.
RULE OF LAW: when a plea of guilty has been entered in consideration of a promise made by a prosecutor, the
prosecutor must fulfill that promise.
REASONING: Plea agreements presuppose a fairness in securing the agreement between the ^ and the prosecutor.
When a promise or agreement of the prosecutor is the inducement for the ^ to pled guilty, that promise must be
fulfilled. Here, the state failed to keep a commitment concerning a sentencing recommendation on the ^’s guilty plea,
so the case must be remanded to the state court to decide whether the circumstances require only that there be specific
performance of the agreement on the guilty plea, or whether the circumstances require that the petitioner be granted the
opportunity to withdraw his guilty plea.
Mabry v. Johnson
FACTS: Johnson was convicted of burglary, assault, and murder, but the Arkansas Supreme Court set aside the murder
conviction. As a result, ^ began serving concurrent twenty-one and twelve year sentences for burglary and assault.
During the retrial of the murder charges, the prosecutor proposed to recommend a concurrent 21 year sentence to the
judge if ^ would pled guilty to a charge of accessory to felony murder. When ^ accepted the plea bargain the next day,
however, the prosecutor claimed the offer was a mistake and that the recommendation would be a 21 year consecutive
sentence in exchange for the guilty plea. ^ declined the offer and went to trial. After a mistrial was declared, the
prosecutor made a second offer, which ^ accepted, and ^ was sentenced to another 21 year sentence to e served
consecutively. On habeas review, a federal court of appeals reversed the conviction, holding that the ^’s acceptance of
the plea proposal prevented the prosecutor from withdrawing it.
ISSUE: Does a ^’s acceptance of a prosecutor’s proposed plea bargain create a constitutional right to specific
enforcement of the bargain?
RULE OF LAW: A voluntary and intelligent plea of guilty made by an accused person, who has been advised by
competent counsel, may not be collaterally attacked.
REASONING: A voluntary and intelligent plea of guilty made by an accused person, who has been advised by
competent counsel, may not be collaterally attacked. The validity of a plea is called into question only when its
voluntariness may be in debate. Here, ^ freely pleaded guilty knowing that the prosecutor would recommend a
consecutive sentence. His inability to enforce the prosecutor’s earlier mistaken offer has no constitutional
significance, for it does not affect the voluntariness of his acceptance of the second plea. ^ was not denied a liberty
interest in a fundamentally unfair way.
ISSUE: must the government explain the reasons underlying a sentencing recommendation to comply w/ a plea
bargain?
RULE OF LAW: Each party must comply w/ the precise terms of a plea agreement.
REASONING: Under Rule 11(e) of the federal rules of criminal procedure, the government may agree to recommend
a particular sentence or to not oppose a ^’s recommended sentence as part of a plea bargain. The rule, however, does
not define the degree of enthusiasm w/ which the government must act. The government may, as part of the plea,
agree to explain to a court its reasoning for its recommendation, but the evidence here does not suggest it made such an
agreement.
Concurrence Stevens
Dissent Brennan
FACTS: ^ was offered a “fast track” plea bargain on drug possession charges. The bargain required ^ to waive
indictment, trial, and appeal. In return the U.S. would recommend a downward departure from the sentence that would
otherwise have been imposed on Ruiz. The agreement also contained a statement that the U.S. had turned over any
known information regarding the factual innocence of ^ and acknowledged the continuing duty of the U.S. to provide
such information, but required ^ to waive her right to receive impeachment information regarding any informants or
witnesses, as well as the right to receive information supporting any affirmative defense. ^ refused to agree w/ the
waiver of the right to receive impeachment information and the plea bargain was withdrawn. ^ pleaded guilty w/o an
agreement, and her request for a downward departure in her sentence was denied. The 9th Circuit vacated her sentence,
holding that the obligation to provide impeachment information is the same prior to a plea agreement as it is at trial.
The court held that the right to receive this information could not be waived.
ISSUE: Do the 5th and 6th Amendments require federal prosecutors, before entering into a binding plea agreement w/ a
criminal ^, to disclose impeachment information relating to any informants of other witnesses?
RULE OF LAW: the Constitution does not require disclosure of impeaching information about witness testimony
before entry of a guilty plea.
REASONING: the constitution does not require disclosure of impeaching information about witness testimony before
entry of a guilty plea. Impeachment Information relates to the fairness of a trial, not whether a plea is voluntary. The
law ordinarily considers a waiver knowing, intelligent, and sufficiently aware if the ^ fully understands the nature of
the right and how it would likely apply in general in the circumstances- even thought the ^ may not know the specific
detailed consequences of invoking it. The usefulness of impeachment information is not critical information required
to ensure someone a fair trial b/c it largely depends on the ^’s misapprehension about various factors, including the
penalties, the quality of the prosecution’s case, and constitutional flaws in the prosecution. Nor do due process
considerations support any right to receive impeachment information. Whether a process is constitutionally required
involves a consideration of:
1.) The nature of the private interest at stake,
2.) the value of the additional safeguard, and
3.) the adverse impact of the requirement on the interest of the government.
As stated, the value of any pre-plea right to impeachment information would depend on the independent knowledge of
the ^ about the government’s case, and, in any event, even innocence of the ^. At the same time, a constitutional
obligation could interfere w/ the government’s interest in securing factually justified plea agreements and disrupt
ongoing criminal investigations.
Concurrence: Thomas
Boykin v. Alabama
FACTS: ^ was arrested and indicted for five counts of common-law robbery, an offense punishable by death under
state law. B/c ^ was indigent, counsel was appointed. As his arraignment, ^ pleaded guilty to all 5 indictments. A
sentencing trial was thereafter conducted to hear evidence of the character of the offenses. After trial, the jury
sentenced ^ to death on all 5 indictments. At no time did the judge question ^ concerning his plea.
ISSUE: Did ^ voluntarily and knowingly waive his constitutional right to a trail by jury by his guilty plea?
RULE OF LAW: A waiver of constitutional rights through a guilty plea must be voluntarily and willingly made.
REASONING: A guilty plea involves the loss of several constitutional rights, including the right to trial by jury, the
right against self-incrimination, and the right to confront one’s accusers. Before a court accepts a guilty plea as a
waiver of those rights, it must be satisfied that the waiver is voluntary and willful. A waiver may not be presumed
from the ^’s silence. Instead, it must be established on the record and in order to evaluate the validity of the waiver on
review and to avoid collateral attacks. B/c the court dialed to question the ^ concerning his plea, his constitutional
rights may not be presumed to have been waived.
Dissent: Harlan
Henderson v. Morgan
FACTS: ^, who was mentally challenged, was charged with first-degree murder. His attorneys advised ^ to accept the
prosecutor’s offer to plea guilty to the lesser charge of second-degree murder. His attorney did not, however, advised
^ that the intent to cause the death of his victim was an element of that offense. When ^ appeared in court to enter his
guilty plea, there was no discussion of the elements of the offense of 2nd degree murder, no indication that the nature of
the offense had ever been discussed w/ him, and no reference of any kind to the requirement of intent to cause the
death of his victim. ^ petitioned for a writ of habeas corpus in federal court, and the court granted the writ b/c the
failure to explain the elements of the pleaded offense rendered the plea involuntary. The court of appeals affirmed
ISSUE: is a guilty plea voluntarily made if the ^ was not informed of the elements of the offense?
HOLDING: No, Affirmed.
RULE OF LAW: a guilty plea is not knowingly and intelligently made, and therefore not voluntarily made, if the ^ did
not receive adequate notice of the offense which he pleaded guilty.
REASONING: a plea of guilty cannot support a judgment of guilty unless it is voluntary in a constitutional sense. A
plea cannot be voluntary in the sense that it constituted a intelligent admission of an offense unless the ^ received real
notice of the true nature of the charge against him or her. ^’s plea of guilty to a second-degree murder was not
voluntary b/c he was not advised by either his attorney or the court that intent to cause the death of his victim was an
element of the offense that he pled guilty to. His plea was not voluntary and cannot support his conviction.
Concurrence: White
Dissent: Rehnquist
FACTS: ^ was indicted for 1st degree murder, a crime punishable by death upon conviction by a jury of lie
imprisonment upon a guilty plea. The ^, after hearing the evidence against him, decided to plea guilty to a lesser
charge of 2nd degree murder. At the time ^ entered a plea, he maintained to the court that he was innocent of the
charge. The judge accepted the ^’s plea and sentenced him to prison. ^ argued in federal habeas proceedings that, b/c
he continued to maintain that he did not commit the murder, the judge should not have accepted his guilty plea. The
court denied the writ of habeas corpus, but the court of appeals reversed, finding that the plea was involuntary and
motivated by fear of the death penalty
ISSUE: should the court accept a plea of guilty when the ^ continues to profess his innocence at the time the plea is
entered?
RULE OF LAW: A court may not enter a judgment upon a plea of guilty unless it is satisfied that there is a factual
basis for the plea.
REASONING: although a ^ professes innocence, a guilty plea may be accepted when there is a factual basis
supporting the charge against the ^. Here, though ^’s plea included a disclaimer of guilt, the evidence demonstrates a
sufficient factual basis to support the plea. The state’s evidence shows that ^ took a gun from his house, stated his
intention to kill the victim, and returned home declaring that he had killed the victim. An express admission of guilt is
not a constitutional prerequisite to the imposition of a criminal penalty, and an individual accused of a crime may
voluntarily, knowingly, and understandingly consent to the imposition of a prison sentence even if he is unwilling to
admit commission of the crime. There is also no “material difference” between a plea that refuses to admit the
commission of the criminal act and a plea containing a protestation of innocence when a ^ intelligently concludes that
his interest require entry of a guilty plea and that the record before the judge contains strong evidence of actual guilt.
(a) An affirmative defense in this title is so labeled by the phrase: "It is an affirmative defense to prosecution under...,
which must be proven by a preponderance of the evidence, that...," or words of similar import.
(b) The state is not required to negate the existence of an affirmative defense in the charge alleging
commission of the offense.
(c)(1) If a person intends to rely upon an affirmative defense, the person shall, no later than ten (10) days
before trial, notify the district attorney general in writing of the intention, or at such time as the court may direct
naming the affirmative defense(s) to be asserted, and file a copy of the notice with the clerk.
(2) Except as provided in this title, if there is a failure to comply with the provisions of this subsection (c), the
affirmative defense may not be raised; provided, that this shall not limit the right of the person to testify on the person's
own behalf.
(3) The court may, for cause shown, allow late filing of the notice or grant additional time to the parties to
prepare for trial or make other orders as may be appropriate.
(4) Evidence of an intention to raise an affirmative defense, which is later withdrawn, is not admissible in any
civil or criminal proceeding against the person who gave the notice of the intention.
(5) The provisions of this subsection (c) shall only apply in courts of record.
(d) The issue of the existence of an affirmative defense may not be submitted to the jury unless it is fairly raised
by the proof and notice has been provided according to subsection (c).
(e) If the issue of the existence of an affirmative defense is submitted to the jury, the court shall instruct the jury
that the affirmative defense must be established by a preponderance of the evidence.
There is no right to not have a jury trial, there is no right to a plea bargain.
Steps in a trial
1.) Motions in limine, address any issues that can come in trial (pretrial)
2.) Jury selection. You get 15 and each defendant gets 15(death Pen) (8 felony ) (3 misd)
3.) Swear in jury
4.) Judge asks the state to read the charges
5.) State reads the charges
6.) Opening statements to help the jury to understand what they are about to hear.
7.) State then starts calling there witnesses
8.) Jencks material- the verbatim statement of the witness Rule 26.2
9.) Can review this material before cross examine
10.) Cross- can be about anything that is relevant.
11.) Redirect- limited to matters already addressed
12.) Re-cross –“”
13.) At the close of the states proof
14.) Defense can make a motion for dismissal (rarely granted)
15.) Defense proof
16.) Jury instructions
17.) Jury deliberates
18.) Foreman is chosen
19.) Verdict, in TN there is a written verdict form
Jury Selection
TRCrP Rule 23
(a) Right to Jury Trial. In all criminal prosecutions except for small offenses, the defendant is entitled to a jury
trial unless waived.
(b) Waiver.
(1) Timing. The defendant may waive a jury trial at any time before the jury is sworn.
(2) Procedures. A waiver of jury trial must:
(A) be in writing;
(B) have the consent of the district attorney general; and
(C) have the approval of the court.
This rule assures counsel the right to conduct at least part of the voir dire examination of prospective jurors.
A prospective juror who has formed or expressed an opinion as to the merits of the case may still be qualified
to serve, but only upon an unequivocal showing of impartiality. The commission disapproves of questions tending to
lead the prospective juror or suggest partiality in the first instance, and also disapproves of that procedure in
"rehabilitating" the prospective juror into vocalizing impartiality.
Subdivision (d) permits trial judges to seat more than twelve prospective jurors for purposes of voir dire--possibly but
not necessarily a number equal to twelve plus the number of peremptories to each side and the number of alternates
available. All of these persons in the jury "universe" could be questioned at once. Note that if the "separate entities"
procedure of Rule 24(f)(2)(B) is used, challenges are initially made to only the first twelve seated. Note also that under
this procedure "replacement jurors will be seated in the panel of twelve in the order of their selection."
For example, a judge might chose to impanel thirty-two prospects. Each would be assigned a number. If during the
initial round of peremptory challenges jurors number 3 and 6 are excused, juror 13 would replace 3 and juror 14 would
replace 6. By this method lawyers would know who is coming up next.
Subdivision (e) gives the state the same number of challenges as the accused. For example, in most felony trials each
side would have eight strikes. This amendment conforms the rule to T.C.A. § 40-18-118.
Subdivision (f) deletes the earlier limitation on the number of alternate jurors. Now more than four alternates can be
selected, which may be necessary for protracted trials.
Rule 24(a)(2) gives counsel the right to make brief, non-argumentative statements near the beginning of the jury
selection process. These may be made before selection begins or when counsel is first permitted to ask questions of
prospective jurors. During these remarks counsel should introduce themselves and briefly describe the nature of the
case. This process should give jurors a better sense of the participants in the trial and the nature of the responsibility
the jurors may be chosen to undertake.
Rule 24(f)(2)(A) gives the court the option of using a procedure that eliminates the distinction between regular and
alternate jurors. This procedure should facilitate juror attention to the evidence. If the court decides to use extra jurors
in case a regular juror becomes unable to serve, the additional juror is combined with the other jurors for all purposes
during the trial. Thus, if a court decides to use twelve jurors plus two additional jurors, all fourteen jurors are
considered to be the jurors during the entire trial. Under this new rule, before the jury retires to deliberate the court will
randomly deselect the additional jurors, leaving the desired number of jurors, ordinarily twelve. The deselected jurors
are then discharged when the remaining jurors retire to deliberate.
Each side is given one peremptory challenge for each additional juror. Since under this model both regular and
additional jurors are considered as part of a single jury, peremptory challenges may be used against any such juror, a
process commonly known as "backstriking." This procedure provides counsel with considerable flexibility in the
exercise of peremptory challenges.
TRCrP Rule 26
The language of Rule 26.2 is similar to the language in Rule 26.2 of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure. There
are, however, two differences that deserve comment.
First, the Committee deliberately did not incorporate that provision of subdivision (e)(3) of the federal Jenck's Act, 18
U.S.C. § 3500, which applies to statements of witnesses before a grand jury, and such statements are not meant to be
obtainable simply because a grand jury witness testifies for the state. Such statements may only be obtained under the
limited provisions of existing law now contained in Rule 6(k)(2).
Second, Rule 26.2(e) now makes it clear that this rule applies not only to trial situations, but also to pretrial testimony
such as might be given at a suppression hearing. There would be little logic in requiring statement production only at
trial, and not at pretrial hearings where testimony as to the facts of the case is being given under oath. This provision is
similar to language found in Rule 12(i) of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure, but the Tennessee rules
commission elected to treat all witness statements in one rule. However, the Tennessee rule applies to all pretrial
motions under Rule 12(b). Further, the Federal rule treats law enforcement officials as witnesses called by the state,
but the commission elected not to adopt this provision. Obviously, Rule 26.2(b) applies to such pretrial motion
hearings. Thus, only part of a witness' statement may be relevant to the hearing. The remainder may then be disclosed
at trial under the provisions of Rule 26.2(a).
The commission desires to make clear that this entire rule in no way applies to a preliminary hearing or any other
hearing conducted in general sessions court. Rather, Rule 26.2 applies only in criminal court.
This rule is designed to assist jurors in understanding conflicting expert testimony by providing judges and lawyers
with considerable flexibility in the scheduling and mode of that testimony. There are many possible methods that can
be used pursuant to this rule. On rare occasions, it may be helpful if expert testimony on the same subject be given in
the same block of time rather than separated by days or weeks and given during each party's proof process. For
example, in a criminal homicide case where both sides will present expert testimony on causation, jurors may benefit if
the prosecution's causation experts testify, followed immediately by the defendant's causation experts. This procedure
may give the jurors a better way of resolving the critical issue of causation. Because of the tactical, financial,
scheduling, and procedural issues raised by this new procedure, it can only be utilized with the consent of the court and
all parties.
The court may appoint an interpreter pursuant to section 3 of Tennessee Supreme Court Rule 42. Reasonable costs
associated with an interpreter's services may be assessed against the indigent defense fund pursuant to Tennessee
Supreme Court Rule 13 if the party is indigent and is involved in a proceeding in which he or she has a statutory or
constitutional right to appointed counsel. In all other proceedings the court may fix the reasonable compensation of
an interpreter, and such compensation shall be taxed as costs.
This revised rule distinguishes between indigent and other litigants. It also cross-references the procedure judges
should follow in selecting interpreters pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 42.
Thirty days are allowed after the date the order of sentence is entered within which to move for a judgment of
acquittal. This time period was selected to conform to that allowed for filing a motion for a new trial, and it is
permissible to file the two together; indeed, the commission anticipates that this will be the case. The same time
period of thirty days applies to motions for judgment of acquittal, motions for new trials, and motions in arrest of
judgment. They may be filed in any order or together, without any waiver, but all must come within the thirty days
after the date the order of sentence is entered.
This rule gives the court the discretion to allow counsel to speak directly to the jury during the trial in order to assist
the jurors in understanding the context of the evidence. For example, the court may allow counsel to make a short
explanation of what legal issue the next two witnesses will address. The court is given the discretion to place time
and content limits on these statements, but each counsel must be given a chance to respond to the interim
commentary of any lawyer.
This rule generally assures that counsel will know what the charge will contain before making the summation
argument to the jury.
The requirement that a written charge be used in felony cases, which must be taken by the jury to the jury room,
returned to the judge, and filed with the other papers, reiterates present law.
Rule 30(d) deals with the timing of jury instructions.
Rule 30(d)(1) requires the court to give basic instructions on procedures and law at the beginning of the trial. This
requirement should better enable jurors to understand the evidence and apply the proof to the applicable law. With
this background, jurors will be able to put the proof in the context of the legal rules involved in the dispute.
Rule 30(d)(2) provides the court the option of giving the bulk of the final jury instructions before closing argument.
This procedure may improve the utility of counsel's closing argument by enabling the lawyers to make specific
reference to the law at issue in the case. This option should greatly assist jurors in their efforts to apply the facts to
the law. If such instructions are given before closing argument, the court should provide additional housekeeping
instructions after that argument. The court may also repeat some of the substantive instructions already given before
the closing argument.
Burden of Proof
TCA 39-11-201
(a) No person may be convicted of an offense unless each of the following is proven beyond a reasonable doubt:
(1) The conduct, circumstances surrounding the conduct, or a result of the conduct described in the definition of the
offense;
(2) The culpable mental state required;
(3) The negation of any defense to an offense defined in this title if admissible evidence is introduced supporting the
defense; and
(4) The offense was committed prior to the return of the formal charge.
(b) In the absence of the proof required by subsection (a), the innocence of the person is presumed.
(c) A person charged with an offense has no burden to prove innocence.
(d) Evidence produced at trial, whether presented on direct or cross-examination of state or defense witnesses, may
be utilized by either party.
(e) No person may be convicted of an offense unless venue is proven by a preponderance of the evidence.
(f) If the issue is raised in defense, no person shall be convicted of an offense unless jurisdiction and the
commission of the offense within the time period specified in title 40, chapter 2 are proven by a preponderance of the
evidence.
Under subsection (e), proof of venue by a preponderance of the evidence is required in every case. Subsection (f)
states that jurisdiction and time limitations need be proven only in cases where those issues are raised by the defendant.
Once these issues are raised, the state must prove proper jurisdiction and timely prosecution by a preponderance of the
evidence.
Subsection (a) reduces the number of mental elements to four. Section 39-11-302 defines each of the four. The former
confusing distinction between general and specific intent has been abandoned.
The four mental elements are in a hierarchy. While each of the four elements is unique, subdivision (a)(2) provides that
lesser levels of culpability are included in greater levels. For example, a person who acts "intentionally" also acts
knowingly, recklessly and with criminal negligence.
Subsection (b) creates a presumption that at least one of the four mental states is required for offenses within the
criminal code
An intent to punish without the requirement of a culpable mental state must be clear from the language of the statute
creating the offense
Under subsection (c), offenses within this title which are silent regarding whether a culpable mental state is required
will be presumed to require at least recklessness. The better reasoned cases from other jurisdictions have reached this
result in interpreting common law authorities.
SENTENCE RANGES
RELEASE ELIGIBILITY DATES
_________________________________________________________________________
FELONY MITIGATED STANDARD MULTIPLE PERSISTENT CAREER
CLASS RANGE I RANGE II RANGE III
_________________________________________________________________________
A
15-60 YRS (13.5 years) (15-25 years) (25-40 years) (40-60 years) (60 years)
(1) Every defendant shall be punished by the imposition of a sentence justly deserved in relation to the seriousness of
the offense;
(2) This chapter is to assure fair and consistent treatment of all defendants by eliminating unjustified disparity in
sentencing and providing a fair sense of predictability of the criminal law and its sanctions;
(3) Punishment shall be imposed to prevent crime and promote respect for the law by:(A) Providing an effective
general deterrent to those likely to violate the criminal laws of this state;(B) Restraining defendants with a lengthy
history of criminal conduct;(C) Encouraging effective rehabilitation of those defendants, where reasonably feasible, by
promoting the use of alternative sentencing and correctional programs that elicit voluntary cooperation of defendants;
and(D) Encouraging restitution to victims where appropriate; (4) Sentencing should exclude all considerations
respecting race, gender, creed, religion, national origin and social status of the individual;
(5) In recognition that state prison capacities and the funds to build and maintain them are limited, convicted felons
committing the most severe offenses, possessing criminal histories evincing a clear disregard for the laws and morals
of society, and evincing failure of past efforts at rehabilitation shall be given first priority regarding sentencing
involving incarceration; and
(6) A defendant who does not fall within the parameters of subdivision (5), and who is an especially mitigated or
standard offender convicted of a Class C, D or E felony, should be considered as a favorable candidate for alternative
sentencing options in the absence of evidence to the contrary. A court shall consider, but is not bound by, this advisory
sentencing guideline.
40-35-103. Principles
To implement the purposes of this chapter, the following principles apply:
(1) Sentences involving confinement should be based on the following considerations:(A) Confinement is necessary to
protect society by restraining a defendant who has a long history of criminal conduct; (B) Confinement is necessary to
avoid depreciating the seriousness of the offense or confinement is particularly suited to provide an effective
deterrence to others likely to commit similar offenses; or (C) Measures less restrictive than confinement have
frequently or recently been applied unsuccessfully to the defendant; (2) The sentence imposed should be no greater
than that deserved for the offense committed; (3) Inequalities in sentences that are unrelated to a purpose of this
chapter should be avoided; (4) The sentence imposed should be the least severe measure necessary to achieve the
purposes for which the sentence is imposed; (5) The potential or lack of potential for the rehabilitation or treatment of
the defendant should be considered in determining the sentence alternative or length of a term to be imposed. The
length of a term of probation may reflect the length of a treatment or rehabilitation program in which participation is a
condition of the sentence; and (6) Trial judges are encouraged to use alternatives to incarceration that include
requirements of reparation, victim compensation or community service or all of these.
-If you commit a new crime while you are on bond then it is necessary for that crime to be consecutive to the
charge you are on bond for.
-Can be sentenced to a misdemeanor sentence for a class E Felony (serve 6 months)
If appropriate for the offense, mitigating factors may include, but are not limited to:
(1) The defendant's criminal conduct neither caused nor threatened serious bodily injury;
(2) The defendant acted under strong provocation;
(3) Substantial grounds exist tending to excuse or justify the defendant's criminal conduct, though failing to establish a
defense;
(4) The defendant played a minor role in the commission of the offense;
(5) Before detection, the defendant compensated or made a good faith attempt to compensate the victim of criminal
conduct for the damage or injury the victim sustained;
(6) The defendant, because of youth or old age, lacked substantial judgment in committing the offense;
(7) The defendant was motivated by a desire to provide necessities for the defendant's family or the defendant's self;
(8) The defendant was suffering from a mental or physical condition that significantly reduced the defendant's
culpability for the offense; however, the voluntary use of intoxicants does not fall within the purview of this factor;
(9) The defendant assisted the authorities in uncovering offenses committed by other persons or in detecting or
apprehending other persons who had committed the offenses;
(10) The defendant assisted the authorities in locating or recovering any property or person involved in the crime;
(11) The defendant, although guilty of the crime, committed the offense under such unusual circumstances that it is
unlikely that a sustained intent to violate the law motivated the criminal conduct;
(12) The defendant acted under duress or under the domination of another person, even though the duress or the
domination of another person is not sufficient to constitute a defense to the crime; or
(13) Any other factor consistent with the purposes of this chapter.
40-35-114. Enhancement factors (only ones that the Judge can consider)
If appropriate for the offense and if not already an essential element of the offense, the court shall consider, but is not
bound by, the following advisory factors in determining whether to enhance a defendant's sentence:
(1) The defendant has a previous history of criminal convictions or criminal behavior, in addition to those necessary to
establish the appropriate range;
(2) The defendant was a leader in the commission of an offense involving two (2) or more criminal actors;
(3) The offense involved more than one (1) victim;
(4) A victim of the offense was particularly vulnerable because of age or physical or mental disability;
(5) The defendant treated, or allowed a victim to be treated, with exceptional cruelty during the commission of the
offense;
(6) The personal injuries inflicted upon, or the amount of damage to property sustained by or taken from, the victim
was particularly great;
(7) The offense involved a victim and was committed to gratify the defendant's desire for pleasure or excitement;
(8) The defendant, before trial or sentencing, failed to comply with the conditions of a sentence involving release into
the community;
(9) The defendant possessed or employed a firearm, explosive device, or other deadly weapon during the commission
of the offense;
(10) The defendant had no hesitation about committing a crime when the risk to human life was high;
(11) The felony resulted in death or serious bodily injury, or involved the threat of death or serious bodily injury, to
another person, and the defendant has previously been convicted of a felony that resulted in death or serious bodily
injury;
(12) During the commission of the felony, the defendant intentionally inflicted serious bodily injury upon another
person, or the actions of the defendant resulted in the death of, or serious bodily injury to, a victim or a person other
than the intended victim;
(13) At the time the felony was committed, one (1) of the following classifications was applicable to the defendant:
(A) Released on bail or pretrial release, if the defendant is ultimately convicted of the prior misdemeanor or felony;
(B) As used in this subdivision (22), "place of worship" means any structure that is:
(i) Approved, or qualified to be approved, by the state board of equalization for property tax exemption pursuant to §
67-5-212, based on ownership and use of the structure by a religious institution; and
(ii) Utilized on a regular basis by a religious institution as the site of congregational services, rites or activities
communally undertaken for the purpose of worship.
40-35-210. Imposition of sentence; evidence
(a) At the conclusion of the sentencing hearing, the court shall first determine the appropriate range of sentence.
(b) To determine the specific sentence and the appropriate combination of sentencing alternatives that shall be imposed
on the defendant, the court shall consider the following:
(1) The evidence, if any, received at the trial and the sentencing hearing;
(2) The presentence report;
(3) The principles of sentencing and arguments as to sentencing alternatives;
(4) The nature and characteristics of the criminal conduct involved;
(5) Evidence and information offered by the parties on the mitigating and enhancement factors set out in §§ 40-35-113
and 40-35-114;
(6) Any statistical information provided by the administrative office of the courts as to sentencing practices for similar
offenses in Tennessee; and
(7) Any statement the defendant wishes to make in the defendant's own behalf about sentencing.
(c) The court shall impose a sentence within the range of punishment, determined by whether the defendant is a
mitigated, standard, persistent, career, or repeat violent offender. In imposing a specific sentence within the range of
punishment, the court shall consider, but is not bound by, the following advisory sentencing guidelines:
(1) The minimum sentence within the range of punishment is the sentence that should be imposed, because the general
assembly set the minimum length of sentence for each felony class to reflect the relative seriousness of each criminal
offense in the felony classifications; and
(2) The sentence length within the range should be adjusted, as appropriate, by the presence or absence of mitigating
and enhancement factors set out in §§ 40-35-113 and 40-35-114.
(d) The sentence length within the range should be consistent with the purposes and principles of this chapter.
(e) When the court imposes a sentence, it shall place on the record, either orally or in writing, what enhancement or
mitigating factors were considered, if any, as well as the reasons for the sentence, in order to ensure fair and consistent
sentencing.
(f) A sentence must be based on evidence in the record of the trial, the sentencing hearing, the presentence report, and
the record of prior felony convictions filed by the district attorney general with the court, as required by § 40-35-
202(a).
40-35-303. Probation
(a) A defendant shall be eligible for probation under the provisions of this chapter, if the sentence actually imposed
upon the defendant is ten (10) years or less. However, no defendant shall be eligible for probation under the provisions
of this chapter, if convicted of a violation of § 39-13-304, § 39-13-402, § 39-13-504, § 39-13-532, § 39-15-402, or §
39-17-417(b) or (i). A defendant shall also be eligible for probation pursuant to § 40-36-106(e)(3).
(b) A court shall have authority to impose probation as part of its sentencing determination at the conclusion of the
sentencing hearing. There shall be no "petition for probation" filed by the defendant, and probation shall be
automatically considered by the court as a sentencing alternative for eligible defendants; provided, that nothing in this
chapter shall be construed as altering any provision of present statutory or case law requiring that the burden of
establishing suitability for probation rests with the defendant.
(c)(1) If the court determines that a period of probation is appropriate, the court shall sentence the defendant to a
specific sentence but shall suspend the execution of all or part thereof and place the defendant on supervised or
unsupervised probation either immediately or after a period of confinement for a period of time no less than the
minimum sentence allowed under the classification and up to and including the statutory maximum time for the class
of the conviction offense.
(2)(A) Except as provided in subdivision (c)(2)(B), if probation is to be granted to a defendant convicted of any of the
misdemeanor offenses set out in subdivision (c)(2)(C), the provisions of subdivision (c)(1) shall govern the length of
the term of probation.
(B) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (c)(2)(A), the judge may sentence a defendant convicted of any of
the misdemeanor offenses set out in subdivision (c)(2)(C) to a period of probation not to exceed two (2) years, if the
judge finds that the period of probation is necessary:
(i) For the defendant to complete any appropriate treatment program or programs, including, but not limited to, a
sanctioned batterer's intervention program, an anger management program or any court-ordered drug or alcohol
treatment program;
(ii) To make restitution to the victim of the offense;
(iii) To otherwise effect a change in the behavior of the defendant, including, but not limited to, imposing any of the
conditions set forth in subsection (d); or
(iv) To protect and better ensure the safety of the victim or any other member of the victim's family or household, as
set out in subsections (m) and (n).
(C) The offenses to which this subdivision (c)(2) applies are:
(i) Domestic assault, as prohibited by § 39-13-111;
(ii) Assault as prohibited by § 39-13-101, vandalism as prohibited by § 39-14-408, or false imprisonment as prohibited
by § 39-13-302, where the victim of the offense is a person identified in § 36-3-601(8);
(iii) Violation of a protective order, as prohibited by § 36-3-612; and
(iv) Stalking, as prohibited by § 39-17-315.
(d) Whenever a court sentences an offender to supervised probation, the court shall specify the terms of the supervision
and may require the offender to comply with certain conditions that may include, but are not limited to:
(1) Meet the offender's family responsibilities;
(2) Devote the offender to a specific employment or occupation;
(3) Perform, without compensation, services in the community for charitable or governmental agencies;
(4) Undergo available medical or psychiatric treatment, and enter and remain in a specified institution whenever
required for that purpose by voluntary self-admission to the institution pursuant to § 33-6-201;
(5) Pursue a prescribed secular course of study or vocational training;
(6) Refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;
(7) Remain within prescribed geographical boundaries and notify the court or the probation officer of any change in
the offender's address or employment;
(8) Submit to supervision by an appropriate agency or person, and report as directed by the court;
(9) Satisfy any other conditions reasonably related to the purpose of the offender's sentence and not unduly restrictive
of the offender's liberty, or incompatible with the offender's freedom of conscience, or otherwise prohibited by this
chapter; or
(10) Make appropriate and reasonable restitution to the victim or the family of the victim involved pursuant to § 40-35-
304.
(e) Probation shall be granted, if at all, at the time of the sentencing hearing except for sentences served in a local jail
or workhouse, or except during the time a defendant sentenced to the department of correction is being housed in a
local jail or workhouse awaiting transfer to the department as provided in § 40-35-212(d).
(f) The trial judge shall not have the authority to require that the defendant either secure or pay the costs accrued in the
case at the instance of the state as a condition of conducting a hearing on the defendant's request for suspension of
sentence and probation.
(g) The powers granted in this section shall be exercised by the judge of the trial court presiding at the trial of original
conviction, or by any successor judge holding court in that jurisdiction.
(h) No probationer shall be allowed to leave the jurisdiction of the probationer's probation officer without the express
permission of the trial judge.
(i)(1) In misdemeanor cases, as a condition precedent, the defendant must pay not less than ten dollars ($10.00) nor
more than forty-five dollars ($45.00) per month as part payment of expenses incurred by the agency, department,
program, group or association in supervising the defendant. The payment shall be made to the clerk of the court in
which proceedings against the defendant were pending, to be sent to the agency, department, program, group or
association responsible for the supervision of the defendant, unless the defendant is found to be indigent and without
anticipated future funds with which to make the payment. The clerk of the court collecting the payment is permitted to
retain five percent (5%) of the proceeds collected for the handling and receiving of the proceeds. The court may order
the payments to be made directly to the agency, department, program, group or association responsible for the
supervision of the defendant in lieu of making the payments to the clerk of the court.
(2) In addition to the costs imposed by subdivision (i)(1), the court may require the defendant to pay any or all costs
for the defendant's supervision, counseling or treatment in a specified manner, based on the defendant's ability to pay.
(j) The provisions of this section relative to the payment of a supervision fee shall not apply to any person subject to
the provisions of chapter 28, part 2 of this title.
(k) The commissioner of correction, sheriff, warden, superintendent or other official having authority and
responsibility for convicted defendants may contract with any appropriate public or private agency not under the
commissioner's, sheriff's, warden's, superintendent's or other official's control for custody, care, subsistence, education,
treatment or training of the defendants. The cost of the contract services shall be paid by the appropriate state or local
entity to the department or the local jail or workhouse.
(l) A probation officer shall make reasonable and diligent effort to notify a victim of any felony which involved
violence or the threat of violence that the defendant convicted of that offense is statutorily eligible for probation and
that a hearing will be held to determine whether the defendant should be granted probation. The notice shall be given
at least three (3) days prior to the hearing. If the victim is less than eighteen (18) years of age or is otherwise
unavailable, the probation officer shall make all reasonable and diligent efforts to so notify the family, if any, of the
victim.
(m) In determining whether a person convicted of the offense of stalking, aggravated stalking, or especially aggravated
stalking, as defined in § 39- 17-315, or any criminal offense defined in Title 39, Chapter 13, in which the victim falls
within the definition set forth in § 36-3-601(8), should be granted probation, the court shall consider the safety and
protection of the victim of the offense, and of any other member of the victim's family or household.
(n) If the court grants probation to a person convicted of an offense specified in subsection (m), it may condition the
probation on compliance with one (1) or more orders of the court including, but not limited to:
(1) Enjoining the perpetrator from threatening to commit or committing acts of violence against the victim or other
household members;
(2) Prohibiting the perpetrator from harassing, annoying, telephoning, contacting or otherwise communicating, either
directly or indirectly, with the victim;
(3) Requiring the perpetrator to stay away from the residence, school, place of employment or a specified place
frequented regularly by the victim and by any designated family or household member;
(4) Prohibiting the perpetrator from possessing or consuming alcohol or controlled substances; and
(5) Prohibiting the perpetrator from using or possessing a firearm or any other specified weapon and requiring the
perpetrator to surrender and forfeit any weapon currently possessed.
(o)(1) Probation officers meeting the requirements of this subsection (o) shall have the authority to serve warrants and
make arrests solely relating to their duties as probation officers. A probation officer shall also have the authority to
bring probationers before the court, when directed by the court to do so. While acting in the performance of their duties
as probation officers, the probation officers shall have the same authority as a peace officer while serving warrants and
making arrests that relate solely to their duties as probation officers.
(2) The provisions of subdivision (o)(1) shall only apply to a probation officer:
(A) In any county having a charter form of government with a population of less than five hundred thousand
(500,000), according to the 2000 federal census or any subsequent federal census;
(B) Employed by a probation office operated by a governmental entity;
(C) Who has completed training equal to the training required by the standards of the peace officer's standards and
training commission (POST); and
(D) Who successfully completes at least forty (40) hours of appropriate in-service training each year.
(3) Because a probation officer meets the standards and requirements of subdivision (o)(2), does not mean the officer
is eligible for the pay supplement for state certified officers authorized in § 38-8-111.
(4) The provisions of this subsection (o) shall not apply to a state probation officer employed by the board of probation
and parole and paid by the state of Tennessee.
40-35-313. Probation; conditions; discharge and expungement (a)(1)(A) The court may defer further proceedings
against a qualified defendant and place the defendant on probation upon such reasonable conditions as it may require
without entering a judgment of guilty and with the consent of the qualified defendant. The deferral shall be for a period
of time not less than the period of the maximum sentence for the misdemeanor with which the person is charged, or not
more than the period of the maximum sentence of the felony with which the person is charged. The deferral is
conditioned upon the defendant paying an amount to be determined by the court of not less than ten dollars ($10.00)
nor more than thirty-five dollars ($35.00) per month as part payment of expenses incurred by the agency, department,
program, group or association in supervising the defendant, and upon the defendant paying any or all additional costs
of the defendant's supervision, counseling or treatment in a specified manner, based upon the defendant's ability to pay.
The payments shall be made to the clerk of the court in which proceedings against the defendant were pending, who
shall send the payments to the agency, department, program, group or association responsible for the supervision of the
defendant, unless the defendant is found to be indigent and without anticipated future funds with which to make the
payment. The clerk of the court collecting the payment is permitted to retain five percent (5%) of the proceeds
collected for the handling and receiving of the proceeds as provided in this subdivision (a)(1)(A).
(B)(i) As used in this subsection (a), "qualified defendant" means a defendant who:
(a) Is found guilty of or pleads guilty or nolo contendere to the offense for which deferral of further proceedings is
sought;
(b) Is not seeking deferral of further proceedings for a sexual offense or a Class A or Class B felony; and
(c) Has not previously been convicted of a felony or a Class A misdemeanor.
(ii) As used in subdivision (a)(1)(B)(i), "sexual offense" means conduct that constitutes:
(a) Aggravated prostitution, as described in § 39-13-516;
(b) Aggravated rape, as described in § 39-13-502;
(c) Aggravated sexual battery, as described in § 39-13-504;
(d) Aggravated sexual exploitation of a minor, as described in § 39-17-1004;
(e) Attempt, as described in § 39-12-101, solicitation, as described in § 39-12-102, or conspiracy, as described in § 39-
12-103, to commit any of the offenses enumerated in this subdivision (a)(1)(B)(ii).
(f) Especially aggravated sexual exploitation of a minor, as described in § 39-17-1005;
(g) Rape, as described in § 39-13-503;
(h) Rape of a child, as described in § 39-13-522;
(i) Sexual battery by an authority figure, as described in § 39-13-527; or
(j) Statutory rape by an authority figure, as described in § 39-13-532.
(2) The provisions of this subsection (a) relative to the payment of a supervision fee shall not apply to any person
subject to the provisions of chapter 28, part 2 of this title. Upon violation of a condition of the probation, the court may
enter an adjudication of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided. If, during the period of probation, the person does not
violate any of the conditions of the probation, then upon expiration of the period, the court shall discharge the person
and dismiss the proceedings against the person. Discharge and dismissal under this subsection (a) is without court
adjudication of guilt, but a non-public record thereof is retained by the court solely for the purpose of use by the courts
in determining whether or not, in subsequent proceedings, the person qualifies under this subsection (a), or for the
limited purposes provided in subsections (b) and (c). The discharge or dismissal shall not be deemed a conviction for
purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime or for any other purpose,
except as provided in subsections (b) and (c). Discharge and dismissal under this subsection (a) may occur only once
with respect to any person.
(3)(A) No order deferring further proceedings and placing the defendant on probation as authorized by this subsection
(a) may be entered by the court on or after July 1, 1998, unless there is attached to it a certificate from the Tennessee
bureau of investigation stating that the defendant does not have a prior felony or Class A misdemeanor conviction. No
order deferring further proceedings and placing the defendant on probation as authorized by this subsection (a) may be
entered by the court if the defendant was charged with a violation of a criminal statute the elements of which constitute
abuse, neglect or misappropriation of the property of a vulnerable person as defined in § 68-11-1004(a) on or after
JUly 1, 2004, unless the order contains a provision that the defendant agrees without contest or any further notice or
hearing that the defendant's name shall be permanently placed on the registry governed by § 68-11-1004 a copy of
which shall be forwarded to the department of health.
(B) The certificate provided by the bureau pursuant to this section is only a certification that according to its expunged
criminal offender and pretrial diversion database the defendant is not disqualified from deferral and probation under
this section by virtue of a prior felony or Class A misdemeanor conviction. The certificate is not a certification that the
defendant is eligible for the deferral and probation, and it shall continue to be the duty of the district attorney general,
and judge to make sufficient inquiry into the defendant's background to determine eligibility.
(b) Upon the dismissal of the person and discharge of the proceedings against the person under subsection (a), the
person may apply to the court for an order to expunge from all official records, other than the non-public records to be
retained by the court under subsection (a) and the public records that are defined in § 40-32-101(b), all recordation
relating to the person's arrest, indictment or information, trial, finding of guilty, and dismissal and discharge pursuant
to this section; provided, that no records of a person who is dismissed from probation and whose proceedings are
discharged pursuant to this section shall be expunged if the offense for which deferral and probation was granted was a
sexual offense as defined by § 40-39-102(5). Each application shall contain a notation by the clerk evidencing that all
court costs are paid in full, prior to the entry of an order of expunction. If the court determines, after hearing, that the
person was dismissed and the proceedings against the person discharged, it shall enter the order. The effect of the order
is to restore the person, in the contemplation of the law, to the status the person occupied before the arrest or
indictment or information. No person as to whom the order has been entered shall be held thereafter under any
provision of any law to be guilty of perjury or otherwise giving a false statement by reason of the person's failures to
recite or acknowledge the arrest, or indictment or information, or trial in response to any inquiry made of the person
for any purpose, except when the person who has been availed of the privileges of expunction then assumes the role of
plaintiff in a civil action based upon the same transaction or occurrence as the expunged criminal record. In that
limited situation, notwithstanding any provision of this section or § 40-32-101(a)(3)-(c)(3) to the contrary, the non-
public records are admissible for the following purposes: (1) A plea of guilty is admissible into evidence in the civil
trial as a judicial admission; and(2) A verdict of guilty by a judge or jury is admissible into evidence in the civil trial as
either a public record or is admissible to impeach the truthfulness of the plaintiff. In addition, the non-public records
retained by the court, as provided in subsection (a), shall constitute the official record of conviction and are subject to
the subpoena power of the courts of civil jurisdiction. (c) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section or § 40-32-
101(a)(3)- (c)(3) to the contrary, a plea of guilty or a verdict of guilty by a judge or jury for a criminal felony offense
involving an act of terrorism or any other felony offense involving violence, coercion, dishonesty or the disruption of
the operations of a state or local government is admissible into evidence in a civil action for the purpose of impeaching
the truthfulness, veracity or credibility of a witness if the plea or verdict occurred within ten (10) years of the date the
evidence is sought to be admitted and the witness is a party to the civil action. The plea or verdict is admissible for the
purposes set out in this subsection (c) notwithstanding the fact that the public records of the plea or verdict have been
expunged pursuant to this section either prior to or after the commencement of the civil action at which the plea or
verdict is sought to be admitted. In addition, the non-public records retained by the court, Tennessee bureau of
investigation or a local law enforcement agency shall constitute official records of plea or verdict and are subject to the
subpoena power of the courts of civil jurisdiction.
(d)(1) Any court dismissing charges against a person and ordering the expunction of a person's public records
following the discharge of proceedings pursuant to this section after October 1, 1998, shall send or cause to be sent a
copy of the dismissal and expunction order to the Tennessee bureau of investigation for entry into its expunged
criminal offender and pretrial diversion database; provided, however, the court shall not be required to send to the
bureau a copy of any dismissal and expunction order dated on or after July 1, 1999, if the charge dismissed is classified
as a Class B or C misdemeanor. The order shall contain the name of the person seeking dismissal and expunction, the
person's date of birth and social security number, the offense that was dismissed and the date the dismissal and
expunction order is entered.
(2) A defendant applying to a court for expunction of the defendant's records following successful completion of the
diversion program authorized by this section shall be assessed a fifty dollar ($50.00) fee. The fee shall be transmitted
by the clerk of the court to the state treasurer for deposit in the special fund established in § 40-32-101(d).
40-35-401. Defendants (a) The defendant in a criminal case may appeal from the length, range or the manner of
service of the sentence imposed by the sentencing court. The defendant may also appeal the imposition of consecutive
sentences. An appeal pursuant to this section shall be taken within the same time and in the same manner as other
appeals in criminal cases. If there is an appeal of the conviction, the appeal of the sentence shall be taken at the same
time. There is no appellate review of the sentence in a post-conviction or habeas corpus proceeding.
(b) An appeal from a sentence may be on one (1) or more of the following grounds:
(1) The sentence was not imposed in accordance with this chapter;
(2) The sentence is excessive under the sentencing considerations set out in §§ 40-35-103 and 40-35-210; or
(3) The sentence is inconsistent with the purposes of sentencing set out in §§ 40-35-102 and 40-35-103.
(c) If a sentence is appealed, the appellate court may:
(1) Dismiss the appeal;
(2) Affirm, reduce, vacate or set aside the sentence imposed;
(3) Remand the case or direct the entry of an appropriate sentence or order; or
(4) Direct any further proceedings appropriate or required under the circumstances.
(d) When reviewing sentencing issues raised pursuant to subsection (a), including the granting or denial of probation
and the length of sentence, the appellate court shall conduct a de novo review on the record of the issues. The review
shall be conducted with a presumption that the determinations made by the court from which the appeal is taken are
correct.
40-35-402. State (a) The district attorney general in a criminal case may appeal from the length, range or manner of
the service of the sentence imposed by the sentencing court. The district attorney general may also appeal the
imposition of concurrent sentences. In addition, the district attorney general may also appeal the amount of fines and
restitution imposed by the sentencing court. An appeal pursuant to this section shall be taken within the same time and
in the same manner as other appeals in criminal cases. The right of the appeal of the state is independent of the
defendant's right of appeal.
(b) An appeal from a sentence is limited to one (1) or more of the following conditions:
(1) The court improperly sentenced the defendant to the wrong sentence range;
(2) The court granted all or part of the sentence on probation;
(3) The court ordered all or part of the sentences to run concurrently;
(4) The court improperly found the defendant to be an especially mitigated offender;
(5) The court failed to impose the fines recommended by the jury;
(6) The court failed to order the defendant to make reasonable restitution; or
(7) The sentence is inconsistent with the purposes or considerations of sentencing set out in §§ 40-35-102 and 40-35-
103.
(c) If the sentence is appealed by the state, the appellate court may affirm, vacate, set aside, increase or reduce the
sentence imposed or remand the case or direct the entry of an appropriate order.
(d) When reviewing sentencing issues raised pursuant to this section, the appellate court shall conduct a de novo
review on the record of the issues. The review shall be conducted with a presumption that the determinations made by
the court from which the appeal is taken are correct.