MCQ

1
DBMS
Q.1 The concept of locking can be used to solve the problem of

Lost update
Uncommitted dependency
Inconsistent data
Deadlock
(a)1 and 4
(b)2,3 and 4
(c)1,2 and 3
(d)All 1,2,3 and 4 can be solved
Q.2 what are the potential problems when a DBMS executes multiple transactions
concurrently?
The lost update problem
The dirty read problem
The unrepeatable read problem
The phantom problem
(a)3 and 4 only
(b)1,2 and 4 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)All of 1,2,3 and 4
Q.3 The data flow model of an application mainly shows

(a) The underlying data and the relationships among them
(b) Processing requirements and the flow of data
(c) Decision and control information
(d) Communication network structure
Q.4 which of the following desired features are beyond the capability of relational
algebra?
(a) Aggregate computation
(b) Multiplication
(c) Finding transitive closure
(d) All of the above
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Q.5 Redundancy is dangerous as it is a potential threat to data
(a) Integrity
(b) Consistency
(c) Sufficiency
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
Q.6 The employee salary should not be greater than Rs. 2000.This is
(a) Integrity constraint
(b) Referential constraint
(c) Over-defined constraint
(d) Feasible constraint
Q.7 Manager’s salary details are hidden from the employee. This is
(a) Conceptual level data hiding
(b) Physical level data hiding
(c) External level data hiding
(d) None of the above
Q.8 A trigger is
(a) A statement that enables to start any DBMS
(b) A statement that is executed by the user when debugging an application
program
(c) A condition the system tests for the validity of the database user
(d) A statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of
a modification to the database
Q.9 Controlling redundancy in a database management system helps to

(a) Avoid duplication of effort
(b) Avoid unnecessary wastage of storage space
(c) Avoid inconsistence among data.
Q.10 The database environment has all of the following components except
(a) Users
(b) Separate files
(c) Database
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(d) Database administration
Q.11 The way a particular application views the data from the database that the
application uses is a
(a) Module
(b) Relational
(c) Schema
(d) Subschema
Q.12 A data dictionary doesn’t provide information about

(a) Where data is located
(b) The size of the disk storage disk
(c) Who owns or is responsible for the data
(d) How the data is used
Q.13 what does the data dictionary identify?

(a) Field names
(b) Field types
(c) Field formates
(d) all of the above
Q.14 which of the following best describes the internal level of the ANSI/SPARC
three level architecture?
(a)The internal level is concerned with the layout of records and their locations
within disk blocks.
(b) The internal level is concerned with the data as seen by individuals internal to
the enterprise.
(c) The internal level is concerned with the users view of the data.
(d) The internal level provides a conceptual view of the data structure.
Q.15 Select the correct statement from the following on referential integrity.
(a) Referential integrity constraints check whether the primary key values are
unique.
(b) Referential integrity constraints are specified between two relations in a
schema.
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(c) Referential integrity constraints check whether an attribute value lies in the
given range.
(d) Referential integrity constraints are specified between entities having
recursive relationships.
Q.16 Consider the following statements.

(a) An entity integrity constraint states that no primary key value can be null.
(b) A referential integrity constraint is specified between two relations.
(c) A foreign key cannot be used to refer to its own relation. Identify which of the
above statements is /are correct?
(1) Only 1
(2) Only 2
(3) Only 2 and 3
(4) Only 1 and 2
Q.17 Which of the following operations is not part of the five basic set operations
in relational algebra?
(a) Union
(b) Division
(c) Cartesian Product
(d) Set Difference
Q.18 Which of the following relational algebraic operation is not a commutative

operation?
(a) Union
(b) Intersection
(c) Selection
(d) Projection
Q.19 If a system can enforce referential integrity, then this ensures that
(a) A record can never contain a null value for a foreign key attribute.
(b) A non-null foreign key attribute always refers to another record
(c) A foreign key attributes in a record always refers to another record which
contains nulls
(d) A foreign key attribute in a record always refers to another record which does
not contain nulls
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Q.20 3NF is preferred than BCNF because
(a) We normally choose to retain dependency preservation
(b) A high penalty in system performance is to be paid or risk the integrity of the
data in our database.
(c) There isn’t any problem of repletion of information
(d) Given statement is wrong.
(1) Only 4 is true
(2) Only 2 and 3 are true
(3) Only 1 and 2 are true
(4) Only 3 is true
Q.21 Which of the following is generally a benefit of normalization?

(a) Performance is improved
(b) Insertion anomalies are avoided
(c) Selection anomalies are avoided
(d) Number of tables is reduced
Q.22 Which of the following is updatable?

(a) View with a single defining table if view at tributes contains the primary key or
some other candidate key of the base relation.
(b) View defined on multiple tables using joins
(c) View defined using grouping and aggregate functions
Q.23 Constraints are specified as a part of

(a) Data definition
(b) Data manipulation
(c) Data control
Q.24 Which of the following cannot be restarted?

(a) Transaction aborted due to software error.
(b) Transaction aborted due to hardware error.
(c) Transaction aborted due to hardware or software error that was created by
internal logic.
(d) Observable external writes.
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Q.25 Locking was introduced into database so that
(a) Keys can be provided to maintain security.
(b) All simultaneous transactions are prevented.
(c) Passwords can be provided to maintain security.
(d) Consistency can be enforced.
Q.26 Which level of locking provides the highest degree of concurrency flight in a
relational database?
(a) Page
(b) Table
(c) Row
(d) Page, table, and roe level locking allow the same degree of concurrency
Q.27 which of the following is true for two-phase locking?

(a) Lock acquisition is the second phase
(b) Locks can be acquired at any time
(c) Locks are acquired in the first phase
Q.28 Which of the following is not a file operation?

(a) Find Next
(b) Find
(c) Reset
Q.29 Index sequential file is made of all of these expect

(a) Primary data storage area
(b) Overflow area
(c) Hierarchy of indices
(d) Address of prime data track
Q.30 Relations produced from an ER model will always be in

(a)First normal form
(b)Second normal form
(c) Third normal form
(d) Fourth normal form
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Q.31 A primary key if combined with a foreign key creates
(a) Parent child relationship between the tables that connect them
(b) Many to-many relationship between the tables that connect them
(c) Network model between the tables that connect them
Q.32 What is the goal of concurrency control protocol?

(a)Schedule should be serializable
(b) Schedule should be recoverable
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Q.33 A given relation is known to be in third normal form. Select the statement
which can be inferred from this.
(a) All attributes contribute to the primary key
(b) Each non key attribute determine the primary key
(c) Each non-key attribute is determine by the primary key
(d) Every determinant is a candidate key
Q.34 Display all the information for everyone in the EMPLOYEE who is a clerk.
(a) SELECT*FROM employee
(b) SELECT*FROM employee. WHERE title =’-‘;
(c) SELECT*FROM employee WHERE title =’clerk’;
Q.35 If the precedency graph of a given schedule is acyclic, then schedule-

(a)Will be always serializable
(b) Will never serializable
(c) May be serializable
(d) Can’t say
Q.36 When n transactions are run concurrently and in an interleaved manner, the
number of possible schedules are__________
(a)Much larger than n!
(b) Much lower than n!
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(c) Much larger than (n-1)!
(d) Much lower than (n-1)!
Q.37 Which allocation scheme would work best for a file system implemented on
a device that can only be accessed sequentially, a tape drive, for instance?
(a) Contiguous allocation
(b) Non contiguous allocation
(c) Indexed allocation
Q.38 Which of the following is correct?
(a) B trees are for storing data on disk and B+ trees are for main memory.
(b) Range queries are faster on B+ trees.
(c) B trees are for primary indexes and B+ trees are for secondary indexes.
(d) The height of B+ tree is independent of the number of records.
Q.39 A B tree used as an index for a large database table has four levels including
the root node. If a new key is inserted in this index, then the maximum number of
nodes that could be newly created in the process are
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Q.40 With respect to the B+ tree index method, select the true statements
(a) Records are physically stored in primary key order.
(b) B+ trees use a hashing algorithm.
(c) The index tree may become unbalanced as a result of updates.
Q.41 Which is the best suitable for sequential access of data

(a) B tree
(b) B+ tree
(c) Both
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OPERATING SYSTEM
Q.1 Page fault occurs when
(a) The page is corrupted by application software
(b) The page is in main memory
(c) The page is not in main memory
(d) The tries to divide a number by 0
Q.2 Overlay is
(a) A part of an operating system
(b) A specific memory location
(c) A single contiguous memory that was used in the olden days for running large
programs by swapping
(d) Overloading the system with many users files
Q.3 Concurrent processes are processes that

(a) Do not overlap in time
(b) Overlap in time
(c) Are executed by a processor at the same time
Q.4 The page replacement policy that’s some time leads to more page faults when
the size of memory is increased is
(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) No such policy exists
Q.5 Fragmentation is
(a) Dividing the secondary memory into equal size fragments
(b) Dividing the main memory into equal size fragments
(c) Fragments of the memory words used in a page
(d) Fragments of the memory words unused in a page
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Q.6 Critical region is
(a) A part of the operating system which is not allowed to be accessed by ay
process
(b) A set of instructions that access common shared resource which exclude one
another in time
(c) The portion of the main memory which can be accessed only by one process at
a time
(d) None of these
Q.7 Kernel is
(a) Considered as the critical part of the operating system
(b) The software which monitors the operating system
(c) The set of primitive functions upon which the rest of operating system
functions are built up
Q.8 Supervisor call

(a) Is a call made by the supervisor of the system
(b) Is a call with control functions
(c) Are privileged calls that are used to perform resource management functions,
which are controlled by the operating system
(d) Is a call made by someone working in root directory
Q.9 Semaphores are used to solve the problem of

(1) Race condition
(2) Process synchronization
(3) Mutual exclusion
(4) None of the above
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) all of the above
Q.10 Mutual exclusion problem occurs

(a) Between two disjoint processes that donot interact
(b) Among processes that share resources
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(c) Among processes donot use the same resource
Q.11 Sector interleaving in disks is done by

(a) Single user system
(b) Non- multiprogramming system
(c) non-multitasking system
(d) None of these
Q.12 Dirty bit is used to show the

(a) Page with corrupted data
(b) Wrong page in the memory
(c) Page that is modified after being loaded into cache memory
(d) Page that is less frequently accessed
Q.13 The first- fit, best- fit and the worst –fit algorithm can be used for
(a) Contiguous allocation of memory
(b) Linked allocation of memory
(c) Indexed allocation of memory
Q.14 Distributed system should

(a) Meet prescribed time constraints
(b) Aim better resource sharing
(c) Aim better system utilization
(d) Aim low system overhead
Q.15 Memory protection is normally done by this

(a) Processor and the associated hardware
(b) Operating system
(c) Compiler
(d) User program
Q.16 In a paged segmented scheme of memory management, the segment table

itself must have a page table because
(a) The segment table is often too large to fit in one page
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(b) Each segment is spread over a number of pages
(c) Segment tables point to page tables and not to the physical location of the
segment
(d) The processor’s description base registers points to a page table
Q.17 Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from belady‘s
anomaly?
(a) Shortest job first
(b) Round robin
(c) first-come first-serve
(d) Elevator
Q.18 Thrashing
(a) Reduces page I/O
(b) Decreases the degree of multiprogramming
(c) Implies excessive page I/O
(d) Improves the system performance
Q.19 Dirty bit for a page in a page table

(a) Helps avoid unnecessary writes on a paging device
(b) Helps maintain LRU information
(c) Allows only read on a page
(d) None of these
Q.20 When a interrupt occurs, an operating system

(a) Ignores the interrupt
(b) Always changes the stage of the interrupted process after processing the
interrupt
(c) Always resume execution of the interrupted process after processing the
interrupt
(d) May change of interrupted process to “blocked” and schedule another process
Q.21 When more than one processes are running concurrently on a system
(a) Batched system
(b) Real-time system
(c) Multi programming system
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(d) Multi processing system
Q.22 DMA stand for

(a) Direct mode action
(b) Direct memory access
(c) Digital mode action
(d) Digital memory acceptor
Q.23 Bootstrap loader is always stored in

(a) Cache
(b) ROM
(c) RAM
(d) Disk
Q.24 A signal is a virtual interrupt which is created by which of the following

(a) Hardware
(b) OS
(c) PCB
(d) TLB
Q.25 Process control block (PCB) of all running process reside in which of the
following
(a) RAM
(b) Hard disk
(c) Cache
(d) None of these
Q.26 If a system contain CPU bound processes then which of the following
scheduling algorithm produces maximum efficiency of the CPU
(a) FIFO
(b) Round robin
(c) SJF
(d) Priority
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Q.27 The time interval between the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion of a process is known as which of the following?
(a) Waiting time
(b) Response time
(c) Turn around time
(d) None of these
Q.28 Peterson’s algorithm is the solution of which of the following problem

(a) Dead lock
(b) Mutual exclusion
(c) Trashing
(d) Paging
Q.29 Which of the following is NOT true of deadlock prevention and deadlock
avoidance schemes?
(a) In deadlock prevention, the request for resources is always granted if the
resulting state is safe
(b) In deadlock avoidance, the request for resources is always granted if the
resulting state is safe
(c) Deadlock avoidance is less restrictive than deadlock prevention
(d) Deadlock avoidance requires knowledge of resource requirements a priori
Q.30 An operating system implements a policy that requires a process to release

all resources before making a request for other resource
(a) Both starvation and deadlock can occur
(b) Starvation can occur but deadlock cannot occur
(c) Starvation cannot occur but deadlock can occur
(d) Neither starvation nor deadlock can occur
Q.31 The data block of a very large file in the Unix file system are allocated using
(a) Contiguous allocation
(b) Linked allocation
(c) Indexed allocation
(d) An extension of indexed allocation
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Q.32 Consider an address of 16 bit, with 4 bit as segment number, then maximum
possible segment size is…..
(a) 16
(b) 65536
(c) 4096
(d) 12
Q33 The cylinder skew problem is concern with which of the following
(a) Semaphore
(b) Thrashing
(c) Interleaving
(d) Deadlock
Q.34 The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is
(a) Block
(b) Dispatch
(c) Wakeup
Q.35 With a single resource, deadlock occurs

(a) If there are more than two processes competing for that resource
(b) If there are only two processes competing for that resource
(c) If there is a single process competing for that resource
(d) None of these
Q.36 Pre-emptive scheduling, is strategy of temporarily suspending a running

process
(a) Before the CPU time slice expires
(b) To allow starving processes to run
(c) When I request I/O
(d) None of these
Q.37 Disk scheduling involves deciding

(a) Which disk should be deciding accessed next
(b) The order in which disk access requests must be serviced
(c) The physical location where files should be accessed in the disk
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Q.38 In Round Robin CPU scheduling, as the time quantum is increased, the
average turnaround time
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Varies irregularly
Q.39 The size of the virtual memory depends on the size of the
(a) Data base
(b) Main memory
(c) Address bus
(d) None of these
Q.40 In which of the following directory systems, is it possible to have multiple
complete paths for a files, starting from the root directory?
(a) Single level directory
(b) Two level directory
(c) Three structured directory
(d) Acyclic graph directory
Q.41 Which of the following is the most suitable scheduling scheme in a real- time
operating system
(a) Round – robin
(b) First – come – first- served
(c) Pre-emptive scheduling
(d) Random scheduling
Q.42 “Aging” is
(a) Keeping track of cache contents
(b) Keeping track of what pages are currently residing in the memory
(c) Keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
(d) Increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
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Q.43 Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting
time?
(a) FCFS
(b) SJF
(c) Round- Robin
(d) Priority
Q.44 A memory page containing a heavily used variable that was initialized very
early and is in constant use is removed, when the page replacement algorithm
used is
(a) LRU
(b) FIFO
(c) LFU
(d) None of these
Q.45 Which of the following algorithms favour CPU bound processes?

(1) Round robin
(2) first-come-first-served
(3) Multilevel feedback queues
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q.46 Which of the following scheduler reduces the degree of multiprogramming

(a) Long- term scheduler
(b) Short-term scheduler
(c) Mid-term scheduler
(d) None of these
Q.47 Multilevel feedback queue scheduling

(a) Allows selecting a process and loading it to memory for execution
(b) Allows to select a process that are ready to execute and allows to CPU to one
of them
(c) Does not allow a process to move between queues
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(d) Allows processes which are permanently assigned to a queue on the entry to
the system
Q.48 The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running
process in a virtual memory environment is determined by
(a) The instruction set architecture
(b) Page size
(c) Physical memory size
(d) Number of process in memory
Q.49 In a paging system

(a) A page frame is always larger than an incoming page
(b) A page frame is always smaller than the incoming page
(c) Given the virtual memory address v=(p,d),where page p is in address of v is
(p’+d)*ps
(d) When a process references a page that is not in a main memory, the operating
system loads the non-resident page into memory from secondary storage
Q.50 Spooling helps because

(a) It is more secured method of accessing data
(b) Print job go more smoothly with less stop and go
(c) The computer is released to do other things while still printing
(d) None of these
Q.51 When a computer is “swapping” ,it is

(a) Moving data from the hard drive to the floppy drive
(b) Moving data from memory to swap file on the hard drive
(c) Moving data between registers in memory
Q.52 An interrupt handler is a

(a) Location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts
(b) Peripheral device
(c) Utility program
(d) Special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request
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Q.53 Where does the swap space residable?
(a) RAM
(b) Disk
(c) ROM
(d) On-chip cache
Q.54 The time complexity of Banker’s algorithms to avoid deadlock having n

processes and m resources is
(a) O (m x n)
(b) O (m + n)
(c) O (m^2 x n)
(d) O (n^2 x m)
Q.55 The linker is given object modules for a set of programs that were compiled
separately. What information need not be include in an object modules?
(a) Object code
(b) Relocation bits
(c) Name and location of all external symbols defined in the object module
(d) Absolute addresses of internal symbols
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COMPUTER ORGANIZATION
Q.1 Spatial locality refers to the problem that once a location is referenced
(a) It will not be referenced again
(b) It will be referenced again
(c) A nearby location will be referenced soon
Q.2 Polled interrupt are handled by

(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) Firmware
(d) None of these
Q.3 In a 16-bit instruction code format 3 bit operation code , 12 bit address and 1
bit is assigned for address mode designation. For indirect addressing, the mode bit
is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) Pointer
(d) Off-set
Q.4 What does CISC and RISC means?

(a) Common instruction set controller and rare instruction set controller
(b) Complex instructions set controller and reduce instruction set controller
(c) Compiled instruction set resource code and recompiled instruction source
code
Q.5 During DMA transfer, DMA controller takes over buses to manage the transfer
(a) Directly from CPU to memory
(b) Directly from memory to CPU
(c) Indirectly between the I/O device and memory
(d) Directly between the I/O device and memory
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Q.6 Booth’s algorithm is used in floating-point
(a) Addition
(b) Subtraction
(c) Multiplication
(d) Division
Q.7 A 32- bit address bus allows access to a memory of capacity

(a) 64 mb
(b) 16mb
(c) 1 GB
(d) 4 GB
Q.8 Pipelining improves CPU performance due to

(a) Reduce memory access time
(b) Increased clock speed
(c) The introduction of parallelism
(d) Additional functional units
Q.9 Which of the following lists memory types from highest to lowest access
speed?
(a) Secondary storage, main memory, cache, registers
(b) Registers, cache, secondary storage, main memory
(c) Registers ,cache, main memory, secondary storage
(d) Cache, registers, main memory, secondary storage
Q.10 To prevent signal from colliding on the bus, ------------ prioritize access to
memory by I/O channels and processors.
(a) A register
(b) Interrupts
(c) The processor scheduler
(d) A controller
Q.11 ---------Improve system performance by temporarily storing data during

transfer between devices or processes that operate at different speeds.
(a) Caches
(b) Controllers
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(c) Buffers
(d) Registers
Q.12 According to temporal locality, processes are likely to reference pages that----
--
(a) Have been referenced recently
(b) Are located at address near recently referenced pages in memory
(c) Have been preloaded into memory
Q.13 In caching system, the memory reference made in any short time interval
tend to use only a small fraction of the total memory is called---
(a) Checker boarding
(b) Locality principle
(c) Memory interleaving
Q.14 The register which holds the address of the location to or from which data
are to be transferred is known as
(a) Index register
(b) Instruction registers
(c) Memory address register
(d) Memory data register
Q.15 Which one is required while establishing the communication link between
CPU and peripherals?
(a) Synchronization mechanism
(b) Conversion of signal values
(c) Operating modes
Q.16 The CPU initializes the DMA by sending--------

(a) The starting address of the memory blocks where data is available or where
data is to be stored
(b) The world count
(c) Control for mode and start the transfer
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Q.17 The minimum time delay between the initiations of two independent
memory operations is called
(a) Access time
(b) Cycle time
(c) Transfer rate
(d) Latency time
Q.18 Assembler directive s represents------

(1) Machine instruction to included in the object program
(2) Allocation of storage for constants or program variable
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.19 Relative Addressing Mode is used to write position-independent code

because
(a) The code in this mode is easy to atomize
(b) The code in this mode is easy to relocate in the memory
(c) The code in this mode is easy to make resident
(d) Code executes faster in this mode
Q.20 Hardwired control units are faster than Micro-programmed control unit
because
(a) They do not consist of slower memory elements
(b) They do not have slower elements such as Gates and flip-flops
(c) They are made using faster VLSI design technology
(d) They contain high speed digital components
Q.21 The register which contain the data to be written into or read out of the
addressed location is known as
(a) Memory address register
(b) Memory data register
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(c) Program computer
(d) Index register
Q.22 In which addressing mode, the effective address of the operand is generated
by adding a constant value of the contents of a register?
(a) Absolute mode
(b) Indirect mode
(c) Immediate mode
(d) Index mode
Q.23 A CPU have 24-bit instructions. A program starts at address 300 (in decimal).
Which one of the following is a legal program counter (all values is decimal)?
(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 600
(d) 700
Q.24 A processor that communicates with remote terminals over telephone and
other communication media in a serial fashion is called—
(a) I/O processor
(b) DMA controller
(c) Data communication processor
(d) USART
Q.25 The intra data transfer techniques are implemented using __

(a) Serial I/O
(b) Parallel I/O
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Q.26 Horizontal microprogramming

(a) Does not require use of signal decodes
(b) Result in larger sized micro-instructions than vertical microprogramming
(c) Uses one bit for each control signal
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Q.27 An interrupt that can be temporarily ignored by the counter is known as
(a) Vectored interrupt
(b) Non- maskable interrupt
(c) Maskable interrupt
(d) Low priority interrupt
Q.28 In case of the pipeline processor, loop buffer is------

(a) Very- high- speed memory maintained by instruction fetch stage
(b) Very- high- speed memory maintained by the instruction decode stage
(c) Very- high- speed memory maintained by the instruction execute stage
Q.29 The process of fetching and executing instruction one at a time, in the order
of increasing addresses is known as
(a) Instruction execution
(b) Straight line screening
(c) Instruction fetch
(d) Random screening
Q.30 A cache that stores both instructions and data is referred to as

(a) I- cache
(b) D- cache
(c) Unified
Q.31 Which memory is difficult to interface with processor?

(a) Static memory
(b) Dynamic memory
(c) ROM
(d) RAM
Q.32 A system which has a lot of crashes, data should be written to the disk using
(a) write- through
(b) write- back
(c) Both of the above
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Q.33 Given below are some statements associated with the registers of a CPU.
Identify the false statements.
(a) The program counter holds the memory address of the instruction in
execution.
(b) Only opcode is transferred to the control units.
(c) An instruction in the instruction register consists of the opcode and the
operand.
(d) The value of the program counter is incremented by 1 once its value has been
read to the memory address register.
Q.34 Given below are some statements associated with cache memory. Identify
the correct statements.
(a) The level 1 cache is always faster than level 2 cache.
(b) The level 2 cache is used to mitigate the dynamic slowdown every time a level
1 cache miss occurs.
(c) Level 2 cache comes as on board only.
(d) In modern day computers, the level 2 cache is considered an internal cache.
Q.35 What is the control unit’s function in the CPU?

(a) To decode program instructions
(b) To transfer data to primary storage
(c) To perform logical operation
(d) To store program instructions
Q.36 Addressing mode is-----------

(a) Explicitly specified
(b) Implied by the instruction
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Q.37 System calls are usually invoked by using

(1) An indirect jump
(2) A software interrupts
(3) Polling
(4) A privileged instruction
(a) 2 and 3
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(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Q.38 Which of the following holds data and processing instructions temporarily
until the CPU needs it?
(a) ROM
(b) Control unit
(c) Main memory
(d) Coprocessor chips
Q.39 Which of the following affects processing power?

(a) Data bus capacity
(b) Addressing scheme
(c) Clock speed
Q.40 Microinstruction length is determined by----

(1) The maximum number of simultaneous micro operation that must be
specified.
(2) The way in which the control information is represented or encoded.
(3) The way in which the next microinstruction address is specified.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
Q.41 In Flynn’s classification of computers, the vector and arry classes of machines
belong to
(a) Single instruction/ single data category
(b) Single instruction / multiple data category
(c) Multiple instruction / single data category
(d) Multiple instructions / multiple data category
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Q.42 The following are four statements regarding what a CPU with only a set of 32
bit registers can perform.
(1) Hold and operate on32 bit integers
(2) Hold and operate on 16 bit integers
(3) Hold and operate on 64 bit floating point arithmetic
(4) hold and operate on 16 bit UNICODE characters
Which of the following is true about such a CPU?
(a) All are true
(b)1,2 and 3 only
(c)1,2 and 4 only
(d)1,3 and 4 only
Q.43 Given below are some statements associated with computer memory.
Identify the correct statement.
(a) Dynamic random access memory is faster than static random access
memory.
(b) Main memory is used by the processor to store primary active programs and
data.
(c) The cache memory is of dynamic random access memory.
(d) The production cost of dynamic random access memory is higher than that of
static random access memory.
Q.44 The word length of a CPU is defined as

(a) The maximum addressable memory size
(b) The width of a CPU register (integer or float point)
(c) The width of the address bus
(d) The number of general purpose CPU registers
Q.45 The performance of a pipelined processor suffers if_________

(a) The pipeline stages have different delays
(b) Consecutive instructions are dependent on each other
(c) The pipeline stages share hardware resources
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Q.46 For interval arithmetic best rounding technique use is_______
(a) Rounding to plus and minus infinity
(b) Rounding to Zero
(c) Rounding to nearest
(d) None of these
Page 30
COMPUTER NETWORK
Q.1 Auto dialing allow
(a) You to dial a phone numbers by typing them on the keyboard
(b) A personal computer to answer incoming calls without human assistance
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
Q.2 A packet-switching network

(a) Is free
(b) Can reduce the cost of using an information utility
(c) Allows communications channels to be shared among more than one user
(d) Both (b) and (c) above
Q.3 Bulletin in board system

(a) Is a public access message system
(b) Is a modem capable of accepting commands
(c) Converts analog signals to digital signals
(d) Converts digital signals to analog signals
Q.4 Contention is
(a) One or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related
group of devices
(b) A continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a
second signal
(c) The condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at
the same time
(d) A collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data
communications service among stations attached to the network
Q.5 What is the default maximum packet size for 16 MB Token Ring Network?
(a) 576 bytes
(b) 1101 bytes
(c) 2202 bytes
(d) 4202 bytes
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Q.6 Which of the following has the smallest default maximum Physical Receive
Packet size?
(a) ARC net
(b) Ethernet
(c) Token Ring [4 Mbps]
(d) Token Ring [16 Mbps]
Q.7 The frame relay committed information rate represents

(a) Maximum data rate on the network
(b) Steady state data on the network
(c) Minimum data rate on the network
(d) Interface data rate
Q.8 Satellite switched Time division multiple access (SS/TDMA) is

(a) The method of determining which device has access to the transmission
medium at any time
(b) A medium access control technique for multiple access transmission media.
(c) A form of TDMA in which act switching is used to dynamically change the
channel assignments
Q.9 How many digits of the network user Address are known as the DNIC (Data
Network Identification Code)?
(a) First three
(b) First four
(c) First five
(d) First seven
Q.10 Which of the following is a product of LLC sublayer?

(a) 802.3 frame
(b) 802.5 frame
(c) PDU (Protocol Data Unit)
(d) Preamble
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Q.11 Non-polling system is
(a) TDMA
(b) Stop and wait
(c) Continuous ARQ
(d) None of these
Q.12 BSC is a
(a) Character-oriented protocol
(b) Bit-oriented protocol
(c) Full-duplex protocol
(d) None of these
Q.13 Which TCP/IP transport layer protocol is faster?

(a) ICMP- because it is connection-oriented
(b) TCP- because it is connected-oriented
(c) UDP- because it is connection-less
(d) IP- because it is connection-less
Q.14 What is the maximum size of data that the application layer can pass on the
TCP layer below?
(a) Any size
(b) 116 byte
(c) 216 byte
(d) 1500 byte
Q.15 Packets of the same session may be round through different paths in
(a) TCP, but not UDP
(b) TCP and UDP
(c) UDP, but not TCP
(d) Neither TCP nor UDP
Q.16 The maximum window size for data transmission using selective reject
protocol with n bit frame sequence number is
(a) 2n
(b) 2n-1
(c) 2n-1
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(d) 2n-2
Q.17 Which of the following error correction methods can be successfully

employed on a simplex communication line?
(a) A Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) code
(b) A hamming code
(c) A RSA code
(d) Run length encoding
Q.18 Brouter-
(a) Is a type of bridge
(b) Works at all the layers of OSI model
(c) Is able to bridge those protocols that ate not routable
Q.19 Pick the system that can be used in both priority and non-priority modes.
(a) TDM
(b) Register insertion
(c) Carrier sense system
(d) Token passing
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 3 and 4
(3) 1 and 3
(4) None of these
Q.20 The parameter which gives the probability of the transport layer itself
spontaneously terminating a connection due to internal problems is called
(a) Protection
(b) Resilience
(c) Option negollation
(d) Transfer failure
Q.21 To prevent silly window syndrome created by a sender that is sending data at
a very slow rate________ can be used.
(a) Clark’s solution
(b) Nagle’s algorithm
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(d) Delayed acknowledgement
Q.22 A Go-Back-N ARQ uses a window into segments, is a function of the

(a) 15
(b) 4
(c) 16
(d) 5
Q.23 A repeated takes a weekend or corrupted signal and_____it.

(a) Amplifiers
(b) Regenerates
(c) Resembles
(d) Reroutes
Q.24 A subnet mask in class A can have __________ 1’s with remaining bits 0’s.
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 33
(d) 3
Q.25 An ACK number of 1000 in TCP always means that

(a) 999 bytes have been successfully received
(b) 1000 bytes have been successfully received
(c) 1001 bytes have been successfully received
Q.26 If N is the maximum sequence number, then the window sizes in selective
reject and Go- Back-N protocols are respectively-
(a) n/2,n-1
(b) n,n+1
(c) (n+1)/2,n
(d)n-1,n+1
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Q.27 In a Go-back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence
numbers?
(a) 0 to 63
(b) 0 to 64
(c) 1 to 63
(d) 1 to 64
Q.28 For stop and wait ARQ, for n data packets sent, ___________
acknowledgments are needed.
(a) n
(b) 2n
(c) n-1
(d) n+1
Q.29 In token ring, the tokens can be removed by________

(a) The nearest down stream neighbor
(b) The receiving station
(c) The ring monitor
(d) The nearest upstream neighbor
Q.30 Which of the following indicates the increasing order of accuracy in error
detection?
(a) CRC, single Parity, Block Sum Check
(b) Block sum check, CRC, Single Parity
(c) Single parity, Block sum Check, CRC
(d) CRC, Block Sum Check, Single Parity
Q.31 Which error detection method consists of a parity bit for each data unit as
well as an entire data unit of parity bits?
(a) Simply parity check
(b) Two –dimensional parity check
(c) CRC
(d) Checksum
Page 36
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Q.1 An independently deliverable piece of functionality providing access to its
services through interfaces is called
(a) Software measurement
(b) Software composition
(c) Software measure
(d) Software component
Q.2 Infrastructure software are covered under

(a) Generic products
(b) Customised products
(c) Generic and Customised products
Q.3 The term module used during design phase refers to

(a) Function
(b) Procedure
(c) Sub program
Q.4 Which model is most popular for student’s small projects?

(a) Waterfall model
(b) Spiral model
(c) Quick and fix model
(d) Prototyping model
Q.5 If user participation is available, which model is to be chosen?

(a) Waterfall
(b) Interative enhancement model
(c) Spiral model
(d) RAD model
Q.6 If limited user participation is available, which model is to be selected?

(a) Waterfall model
(b) Spiral model
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(c) Interative enhancement model
(d) Any of the above
Q.7 If project is the enhancement of existing system, which model is best suited?
(a) Waterfall model
(b) Prototyping model
(d) Spiral model
Q.8 Most suitable model for new technology that is not well understood is
(a) Waterfall model
(b) RAD model
(d) Evolutionary development model
Q.9 Statistically, the maximum percentage of errors belong to the following phase
of SDLC
(a) Coding
(b) Design
(c) Specifications
(d) Installation and maintenance
Q.10 The development is supposed to proceed linearly through the phases in

(a) Spiral model
(b) Waterfall model
(c) Prototyping model
Q.11 Requirements review process is carried out to

(a) Spend time in requirements gathering
(b) Improve the quality of SRS
(c) Document the requirements
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Q.12 Function point analysis (FPA) method decomposes the system into functional
units. The total number of functional units is
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 1
Q.13 IFPUG stand for

(a) Initial function point uniform group
(b) International function point uniform group
(c) International function point user group
(d) Initial function point user group
Q.14 COCOMO-II estimation model is based on

(a) Complex approach
(b) Algorithmic approach
(c) Bottom up approach
(d) Top down approach
Q.15 How many stages are in COCOMO-II?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Q.16 The worst type of cohesion is

(a) Temporal cohesion
(b) Coincidental cohesion
(c) Logical cohesion
(d) Sequential cohesion
Q.17 Temporal cohesion means

(a) Cohesion between temporary variables
(b)Cohesion between local variables
(c) Cohesion with respect to time
(d) Coincidental cohesion
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Q.18 Functional cohesion means
(a) Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in same
procedures
(b) Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in multiple
procedures
(c) Operations are part of multiple tasks
Q.19 The module in which instructions are related through flow of control is
(a) Temporal cohesion
(b) Logical cohesion
(c) Procedural cohesion
(d) Functional cohesion
Q.20 A system that does not interact with external environment is called
(a) Closed system
(b) Logical system
(c) Open system
(d) Hierarchal system
Q.21 Which one is not a phase of “bath tub curve” of hardware reliability
(a) Burn-in
(b) Useful life
(c) Wear-out
(d) Test-out
Q.22 NHPP stands for

(a) Non Homogeneous Poisson Process
(b) Non Hetrogeneous Poisson Process
(c) Non Homogeneous Poisson Product
(d) Non Hetrogeneous Poisson Product
Q.23 CMM stands for

(a) Capacity maturity model
(b) Capability maturity model
(c) Cost management model
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(d) Comprehensive maintenance model
Q.24 In McCall quality model; product revision quality factor consist of

(a) Maintainability
(b) Flexibility
(c) Testability
Q.25 Beta testing is carried out by

(a) Users
(b)Developers
(c) Mutation testing
(d)All of the above
Q.26 Regression testing is primarily related to

(a) Functional testing
(b) Data flow testing
(c) Development testing
(d) Maintenance testing
Q.27 Adaptive maintenance is related to

(a) Modification in software due to failures
(b) Modification in software due to demand of new functionalities
(c) Modification in software due to increase in complexity
(d) Modification in software to match changes in the ever-changing environment
Q.28 Perfective maintenance refers to enhancements

(a) Making the product better
(b) Making the product faster and smaller
(c) Making the product with new functionalities
Q.29 Regression testing is known as

(a) The process of retesting the modified parts of the software
(b) The process of testing the design documents
(c) The process of reviewing the SRS
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Q.30 The purpose of regression testing is to

(a) Increase confidence in the correctness of the modified program
(b) Locate errors in the modified program
(c) Preserve the quality and reliability of software
Q.31 Which one is not a selective retest technique

(a)Coverage technique
(b) Minimization technique
(c) Safe technique
(d) Maximization technique
Q.32 Purpose of reverse engineering is to

(a) Recover information from the existing code or any other intermediate
document
(b) Redocumentation and/or document generation
(c) Understand the source code and associated documents
Q.33 Legacy systems are

(a) Old systems
(b) New system
(c) Undeveloped systems
Q.34 Which one is not a user documentation?

(a) Beginner’s guide
(b) Installation guide
(c) SRS
(d) System administration
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Q.35 The process by which existing processes and methods are replaced by new
techniques is
(a) Reverse engineering
(b) Business process re-engineering
(c) Software configuration management
(d) Technical feasibility
Q.36 The process of transforming a model into source code is

(a) Reverse Engineering
(b) Forward engineering
(c) Re-engineering
(d) Restructuring
Page 43
Oracle MCQ:
1)In the DISPATCHERS Initialization Parameter Attributes which specify the service
names the dispatchers register with the listeners?
A) LISTENER
B) SERVICE
C) CONNECTIONS
D) MULTIPLEX
2)In Diagnosing and Repairing Locally Managed Tablespace Problems which

migrates a locally managed tablespace to dictionary-managed?
A) TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL
B) TABLESPACE_REBUILD_QUOTAS
C) TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_FROM_LOCAL
D) TABLESPACE_VERIFY
3)In Monitoring Shared Server which contains information for tuning shared
server?
A) V$SHARED_SERVER
B) V$CIRCUIT
C) V$SHARED_SERVER_MONITOR
D) V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED
4)To create a cluster index, one of the following conditions must be true?
A) Your schema contains the cluster
B) You have the CREATE ANY INDEX system privilege
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
5)Which view describes all clusters in the database?

A) DBA_CLUSTER_HASH_EXPRESSIONS
B) DBA_CLUSTERS
C) DBA_CLUSTERS_ALL
D) DBA_CLUSTERS_INFO
Page 44
6)For even better resource management, shared server can be configured for
which that lets a dispatcher support more users by enabling the database server to
time-out protocol connections and to use those connections to service an active
session?
A) Connection pooling
B) Session multiplexing
C) Session
D) None of the above
7)In Displaying Control File Information which view lists the names of control files?
A) V$DATABASE
B) V$PARAMETER
C) V$CONTROLFILE
D) V$CONTROLFILE_RECORD_SECTION
8)To create an index in your own schema, give the following conditions which is
true?
A) The table or cluster to be indexed is in another schema
B) You don’t have INDEX privilege on the table to be indexed
C) You have CREATE ANY INDEX system privilege
9)A transportable tablespace set consists of datafiles for the set of tablespaces
being transported and an export file containing structural information (metadata)
for the set of tablespaces we use?
A) Data Pump
B) EXP
C) IMP
D) Both A & B
10)Window groups provide an easy way to schedule jobs that must run during
multiple time periods throughout the day, week, and so on. In which schema does
this window group reside?
A) system
B) sysdba
Page 45
C) sys
D) both B and C
11)Which privilege is required to alter a job class?

A) MANAGE SCHEDULAR
B) SYSTEM PRIVILEGE
C) ALTER ANY CLUSTER
D) SELECT
12)Every Oracle Database has a control file, which is a small binary file that records
the physical structure of the database; the control file does not include?
A) The database name
B) Names and locations of associated data files and redo log files
C) The timestamp of the database creation
D) The current log sequence number
E) None of the above
13)You can drop HASH cluster using which command from the following?
A) DROP CLUSTER
B) DROP HASH CLUSTER
C) DROP_CLUSTER_HASH
D) DROP ANY CLUSTER
14)Select the correct privilege which is required for manually committing an in-
doubt transaction.
A) System privilege
B) Force any transaction
C) Both a & b
15)The job of the commit point site is to initiate a commit or roll back operation as
instructed by _____________
A) Global coordinator
B) Local coordinator
C) Database servers
D) Commit point site
Page 46
16)Which view shows all chains?
A) *_scheduler_chains
B) *_scheduler_chain_rules
C)*_scheduler_chain_steps
17)Which procedure is used for altering an event based job?

A) set_attribute
B) create_event_schedule
C) create_job
D) create_event_program
18)Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. What are the

implications of this?
A) You can perform open database backups
B) You can perform closed database backups
C) You cannot perform schema-level logical backups
D) You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database
is open
19)Which transmission involves transmitting files ta a local disk?

A) Standby transmission
B) Normal transmission
C) Both A & B
20)To use a function-based index?

A) The table must be analyzed after the index is created
B) The query must be guaranteed need NULL values from the indexed expression,
since NULL values are not stored in indexes
C) Both A & B
Page 47
21)In a sorted hash cluster, the rows corresponding to each value of the hash
function are sorted on a specified set of columns in which order and that can
improve response time during subsequent operations on the clustered data?
A) Descending order
B) Ascending Order
C) Equal
22)For maximum distribution of rows in a hash cluster, the database rounds the
HASHKEYS value up to the nearest?
A) Prime Number
B) ODD Number
C) Null
23)In the scheduler event queue which attribute is currently not implemented?
A) run_count
B) failure_count
C) retry_count
D) spare1-spare8
24)You analyze a schema object (table, index, or cluster) to?

A) No need to Collect and manage statistics for it
B) Does not verify the validity of its storage format
C) Un identify migrated and chained rows of a table or cluster
25)In Schema Objects Data Dictionary Views which view List the name, type, and
owner (USER view does not display owner) for all tables, views, synonyms, and
sequences in the database?
A) DBA_OBJECTS, ALL_OBJECTS, USER_OBJECTS
B) DBA_DEPENDENCIES, ALL_DEPENDENCIES, USER_DEPENDENCIES
C) DBA_CATALOG, ALL_CATALOG, USER_CATALOG
Page 48
26)In which all data in a database is stored in a table to include user data and the
Data Dictionary?
A) Tables
B) Temporary Segments
C) Schemas
D) Segments
27)How many partitioning keys columns are specified for range-and-hash-

partitioning tables?
A) 18
B) 14
C) 16
D) 17
28)Controlling Trace Output Generated by the Archivelog Process in which trace

value 64 is?
A) Track FAL (fetch archived log) server related activities
B) Supported in a future release
C) Tracks asynchronous LGWR activity
D) Track ARCn process state activity
29)Which of the following are supported by transaction control statements?

A) Commit, Rollback, Savepoint
B) Alter,Execute,Drop
C) Insert, Remove, Delete
D) All of the above
30)When a node is told to prepare, it can respond in several ways, one of the ways
is “no data on the node has been or can be modified, so no preparation is
necessary”. This response is called as?
A) Prepared
B) Read-only
C) Abort
Page 49
31)Database users interact with the database through applications or utilities. A
typical user's responsibilities include which of these tasks?
A) Entering, modifying, and deleting data
B) Generating reports from the data
C) Both A & B
32)Abbreviate the term OUI?

A) Oracle Unicode Installer
B) Oracle Universal Installer
C) Oracle Universal Information
D) Oracle Unicode Information
33)In Data Utilities several utilities are available to help you maintain the data in
your Oracle Database?
A) SQL*Loader
B) Export and Import Utilities
C) Both A & B
34)To rename an object, it must be in your schema. You can rename schema
objects in either of the following ways?
A) Drop and re-create the object
B) Rename the object using the RENAME statement
C) Create the object
D) Both A & B
35)Which of the following is the fastest query method for a table?

A)Fetch by columnid
B)Fetch by tableid
C)Fetch by rowid
D)Fetch by indexed
36)___________ contains the physical structure of a database

A)Archive log files
B)Initialization files
Page 50
C)Control files
D)SGA definition files
37)A cluster is a schema object that contains data from _____________ , all of
which have one or more columns in common.
A)one table
B)one or more tables
C)two or more tables
D)atleast two tables
38)Distributed transactions can become in-doubt in which of the following way?

A) A server machine running Oracle Database software crashes
B) A network connection between two or more Oracle Databases involved in
distributed processing is connected
C) An unhandled software error does not occurs
39)The disks in a disk group are referred to as ASM disks, On Windows operating
systems, an ASM disk is always a partition, on all other platforms, an ASM disk can
be?
A) A partition of a logical unit number (LUN)
B) A network-attached file
C) Both A & B
40)Which file allows a no default parameter file to be used to configure the

Instance?
A) SPFILE
B) PFILE
C) Both A & B
Page 51
DATA STRUCTURE & ALGORITHMS
Q.1 The order of a B-tree is defined as the
(a) Minimum no. of keys in a non root node
(b) Maximum no. of keys in non root node
(c) (n+1)/2
(d) Maximum no. of pointers in any node
Q.2 The depth of a complete binary tree with ‘n’ nodes is (log is to the base two)
(a) log(n+1)-1
(b) log(n)
(c) log(n-1)+1
(d) log(n)+1
Q.3 Sorting is useful for

(a) Report generation
(b) Minimizing the storage needed and responding to queries easily
(c) Making searching easier and efficient
Q.4 You want to check whether a given set of items is sorted. Which of the
following sorting methods will be the most efficient if it is already is sorted order?
(a) Bubble sort
(b) Selection sort
(c) Insertion sort
(d) Merge sort
Q.5 The information about an array that is used in a program will be stored in
(a) Symbol table
(b) Activation record
(c) System table
(d) Dope vector
Page 52
Q.6 Sparse matrices have
(a) Many zero entries
(b) Many non-zero entries
(c) Higher dimension
Q.7 Which of the following abstract data types can be used to represent a many
relation?
(a) Tree
(b) Stack
(c) Graph
(d) Queue
Q.8 The process of accessing data stored in tape is similar to manipulating data on
(a) Stack
(b) Set
(c) List
(d) Heap
Q.9 Unrestricted use of goto is harmful, because it

(a) Makes debugging difficult
(b) Increases the running time of programs
(c) Increases memory requirement of programs
(d) Results in the compiler generating longer machine code
Q.10 Which of the following algorithm design technique is used in the quick sort
algorithm?
(a) Dynamic programming
(b) Backtracking
(c) Divide and conquer
(d) Greedy method
Q.11 Likned lists are not suitable for implementing

(a) Insertion sort
(b) Binary search
(c) Radix sort
Page 53
(d) Polynomial manipulation
Q.12 Which of the following is not possible algorithmically?

(a) Regular grammar to context free grammar
(b) Non-deterministic FSA to deterministic FSA
(c) Non-deterministic PDA to deterministic PDA
(d) Non-deterministic turing machine to deterministic turing machine
Q.13 The concept of order (Big O) is important because

(a) It can be used to decide the best algorithm that solves a given problem
(b) It determines the maximum size of a problem that can be solved in a given
amount of time
(c) It is the lower bound of the growth rate of algorithm
(d) Both(a) and (b) above
Q.14 Which of the following operations is performed more efficiently by double

linked list than by linear linked list?
(a) Deleting nodes whose location is given
(b) Searching an unsorted list for a given item
(c) Inserting a node after the node with a given location
(d) Traversing the list to process each node.
Q.15 The smallest element of an array’s index is called its

(a) Lower bound
(b) Upper bound
(c) Range
(d) Extraction
Q.16 The goal of hashing is to produce a search that takes

(a) O(1) time
(b) O(n2) time
(c) O(log n) time
(d) O (n log n) time
Page 54
Q.17 Search tables used by compilers for efficient searching generally use
(a) Hash tables
(b) Lists of records
(c) Binary search tables
(d) Binary search trees
Q.18 High level languages are not concerned with the computers but with
(a) Problems
(b) Machine code
(c) Assembler
(d) Compiler
Q.19 Which sort will operate in quadratic time relative to the number of elements
in the array (on the average)?
(a) Quick sort
(b) Bubble sort
(c) Heap sort
(d) Merge sort
Q.20 The Ackermann’s function

(a) Has quadratic time complexity
(b) Has exponential time complexity
(c) Can’t be solved iteratively
(d) Has logarithmic time complexity
Q.21 The average search time of hashing, with linear probing will be less if the load
factor
(a) Is far less than one
(b) Equals one
(c) Is far greater than one
Q. 22 The concatenation of two lists is to be performed in O(1) time. Which of the

following implementation of a list could be used?
(a) Singly linked list
(b)Doubly linked list
Page 55
(c) Circular doubly linked list
(d) Array implementation of list
Q.23 Which of the following is essential for converting an infix expression to the
postfix form efficiently?
(a) An operator stack
(b) An operand stack
(c) An operator stack and an operand stack
(d) A parse tree
Q.24 Quick sort gives O (nlogn) worst case performance if the pivot is selected as:
(a) First element of the array
(b) Median of first, last and middle element
(c) Arithmetic mean of the elements
Q.25 Which of the following is not an application of binary search trees?

(a) Finding duplicates from a list of number
(b) Sorting a list of number
(c) Representing arithmetic expression and converting them into infix postfix
and prefix expressions
(d) Minimizing length of a message by encoding it
Q.26 You are asked to sort 15 randomly generated numbers. You should prefer
(a)Bubble Sort
(b)Selection Sort
(c)Insertion Sort
(d)Quick Sort
Q.27 The average successful search time taken by binary search on a sorted array
of 10 items is
(a)2.6
(b)2.7
(c)2.9
(d)2.8
Page 56
C++ Questions:
1)Which of the following statements are true about Catch handler ?
1. It must be placed immediately after try block T
2. It can have multiple parameters
3. There must be only one catch handler for every try block
4. There can be multiple catch handler for a try block T
5. Generic catch handler can be placed anywhere after try block.
a. Only 1, 4, 5
b. Only 1, 2, 3
c. Only 1, 4
d. Only 1, 2
2)In nested try block, if inner catch handler gets executed, then______________
a. Program execution stops immediately
b. Outer catch handler will also get executed
c. Compiler will jump to the outer catch handler and then executes remaining
executable statements of main()
d. Compiler will execute remaining executable statements of outer try block and
then the main()
3) Inline functions may not work ______

1. If function contain static variables
2. If function contain global and register variables
3. If function returning value consists looping construct(i.e. for, while)
4. If inline functions are recursive
5. If function contains const value
a. Only 1,4,5
b. Only 2,3,5
c. Only 1,3,4
d. All of these
Page 57
4)Assigning one or more function body to the same name is
called_______________
a. Function Overriding
b. Function Overloading
c. Both a and b
d. None
5)A constructor that does not have any parameters is called____________

constructor.
a. Custom
b. dynamic
c. static
d. default
6)The explicit keyword is an optional decoration for the constructors that takes
exactly_____argument.
a. No argument
b. Two
c. Three
d. One
7)Which of the followings are false statements about Local class?

1. A local class type name can only be used in the enclosing function
2. All the methods of Local classes must be defined inside the class only
3. A Local class can contain static data members.
4. A Local class may contain static functions.
5. Non-static variables of the enclosing function are not accessible inside local
classes.
6. Local classes cannot access global types, variables and functions.
a. Only 1,3
b. Only 3, 6
c. Only 2 , 4 , 6
d. None of these
Page 58
8)If we have object from ofstream class, then default mode of opening the file
is________
a. ios::in
b. ios::out
c. ios::in|ios::trunc
d. ios::out|ios::trunk
9)Which of the following is not used to seek a file pointer?

a. ios::cur
b: ios::end
c. ios::set
d. ios::beg
10)While redefining a virtual function in the derived class, if its prototype is

changed then___________________
a. It will be overloaded by the compiler
b. Its virtual nature will be lost
c. both a and b
d. Compiler will generate “Prototype mismatch error”
11)During a class inheritance in CPP, if the visibility mode or mode of derivation is

not provided, then by default visibility mode is___________.
a. public
b. protected
c. private
d. friend
12)In case of inheritance where both base and derived class are having
constructors, when an object of derived class is created then___________
a. constructor of derived class will be invoked first
b. constructor of base class will be invoked first
c. constructor of derived class will be executed first followed by base class
d. constructor of base class will be executed first followed by derived class
Page 59
13) In case of operator overloading, operator function must be______
1. Static member functions
2. Non- static member functions
3. Friend Functions
a. Only 2
b. Only 1, 3
c. Only 2 , 3
d. All 1 , 2, 3
14)In case of binary operator overloading with member function, which of

following statement should be taken into consideration?
a. Right hand operand must be object
b. Left hand operand must be object
c. Both the operands must be objects
d. All of these should be considered
15)In CPP, dynamic memory allocation is done using ______________ operator

a. calloc()
b. malloc()
c. allocate
d. new
16)Which of the followings is/are not a manipulator/s ?

1. flush
2. base
3. ends
4. oct
5. bin
6. skipws
a. Only 1, 6
b. Only 1,4,6
c. Only 1,3,6
d. Only 2,5
Page 60
17)If an argument to a function is declared as const, then
a. function can modify the argument
b. Function can’t modify the argument
c. const argment to a function is not possible
d. None of these
18)Which of the following is not a casting operator in CPP?

a. explicit_cast
b. static_cast
c. dynamic_cast
d. reinterpret_cast
19)Choose the correct statements

a. 0 represent a false condition
b. Non zero value represent a false condition
c. 1 represent a false condition
d. Anything that is not 1, represent a false condition
20)As soon as a pointer variable is freed, its value

a. is set to null
b. becomes unpredictable
c. is set to 1
d. remains the same
21)Use of macro instead of functions is recommended

a. when one wants to reduce the execution time
b.when there is a loop with a function call inside
c.when a function is called in many places in a program
d.In a and b above
22)The content of a file will be lost if it is opened in

a. a mode
b. w mode and w+ mode
c. r+ mode
d. a+ mode
Page 61
Page 62

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1

Q.1 The concept of locking can be used to solve the problem of

Q.3 The data flow model of an application mainly shows

Q.9 Controlling redundancy in a database management system helps to

Q.12 A data dictionary doesn’t provide information about

Q.13 what does the data dictionary identify?

Q.16 Consider the following statements.

Q.18 Which of the following relational algebraic operation is not a commutative

Q.21 Which of the following is generally a benefit of normalization?

Q.22 Which of the following is updatable?

Q.23 Constraints are specified as a part of

Q.24 Which of the following cannot be restarted?

Q.27 which of the following is true for two-phase locking?

Q.28 Which of the following is not a file operation?

Q.29 Index sequential file is made of all of these expect

Q.30 Relations produced from an ER model will always be in

Q.32 What is the goal of concurrency control protocol?

Q.35 If the precedency graph of a given schedule is acyclic, then schedule-

Q.41 Which is the best suitable for sequential access of data

Q.3 Concurrent processes are processes that

Q.8 Supervisor call

Q.9 Semaphores are used to solve the problem of

Q.10 Mutual exclusion problem occurs

Q.11 Sector interleaving in disks is done by

Q.12 Dirty bit is used to show the

Q.14 Distributed system should

Q.15 Memory protection is normally done by this

Q.16 In a paged segmented scheme of memory management, the segment table

Q.19 Dirty bit for a page in a page table

Q.20 When a interrupt occurs, an operating system

Q.22 DMA stand for

Q.23 Bootstrap loader is always stored in

Q.24 A signal is a virtual interrupt which is created by which of the following

Q.28 Peterson’s algorithm is the solution of which of the following problem

Q.30 An operating system implements a policy that requires a process to release

Q.35 With a single resource, deadlock occurs

Q.36 Pre-emptive scheduling, is strategy of temporarily suspending a running

Q.37 Disk scheduling involves deciding

Q.45 Which of the following algorithms favour CPU bound processes?

Q.46 Which of the following scheduler reduces the degree of multiprogramming

Q.47 Multilevel feedback queue scheduling

Q.49 In a paging system

Q.50 Spooling helps because

Q.51 When a computer is “swapping” ,it is

Q.52 An interrupt handler is a

Q.54 The time complexity of Banker’s algorithms to avoid deadlock having n

Q.2 Polled interrupt are handled by

Q.4 What does CISC and RISC means?

Q.7 A 32- bit address bus allows access to a memory of capacity

Q.8 Pipelining improves CPU performance due to

Q.11 ---------Improve system performance by temporarily storing data during

Q.16 The CPU initializes the DMA by sending--------

Q.18 Assembler directive s represents------

Q.19 Relative Addressing Mode is used to write position-independent code

Q.25 The intra data transfer techniques are implemented using __

Q.26 Horizontal microprogramming

Q.28 In case of the pipeline processor, loop buffer is------

Q.30 A cache that stores both instructions and data is referred to as

Q.31 Which memory is difficult to interface with processor?

Q.35 What is the control unit’s function in the CPU?

Q.36 Addressing mode is-----------

Q.37 System calls are usually invoked by using

Q.39 Which of the following affects processing power?