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Print your name neatly. If you forget to write your name, or if the grader can’t read your writing, you
can lose up to 100 points. Answer all the questions that you can. This is a 50 minute timed exam.
This exam will consist of 11 multiple-choice problems (worth 70%) and three computational/derive
problems worth 10% each. You may only use calculators on this exam. The use of any other device,
such as a cell phone, will be regarded as an attempt to cheat, and will be pursued accordingly.
Basic-skills component: No partial credit will be given for the multiple-choice problems. However,
you can miss one of the 11 problems without penalty. Your grade will be based on your best 10 problems.
You will not receive extra credit for getting all 11 right. Although there is no partial credit on this exam,
you must show your work on all computational problems in the space provided on the exam. If you fail
to show work you will receive a zero for the problem even if it is correct.
Your grade on the exam will be based entirely on the answers that you circle on this sheet. If you have
no answer or a wrong answer there, the grader will not look at the page with the problem to see if the
right answer appears there. Illegible or ambiguous answers will be graded as wrong. You are responsible
for copying your answers clearly, correctly, and in the right place.
The “Give up” option: If you have no idea how to solve a partial-credit problem, you can write “Give
up” and circle it instead of writing nonsense in hopes of getting partial credit. If I see “Give up”, I will
ignore everything else that you’ve written and award you 1.5 out of 5 points for the problem (30%).
This is your reward for knowing what you don’t know, and for being honest about it.
Circle your answers here. Do not detach this sheet from the test.
1. ○
a b c d e 6. a b ○
c d e 11. a ○
b c d e
2. a b c ○
d e 7. a b ○
c d e 12. (5 pts)
3. ○
a b c d e 8. a b c ○
d e 13. (5 pts)
4. ○
a b c d e 9. a ○
b c d e 14. (5 pts)
5. a b c ○
d e 10. a b ○
c d e
AME 302, sample exam 1 solns-s19 Copyright ©Wayne Hacker 2015. All rights reserved.2
Consider the statements given in (i) and (ii). Are the statements true or false?
(i) The MATLAB command >> B*A will return an error message.
(ii) The MATLAB command >> B*A’ will return a 2 by 3 matrix.
*(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are true (b) (i) is true; (ii) is false
(c) Both statements are false (d) (i) is false; (ii) is true
AME 302, sample exam 1 solns-s19 Copyright ©Wayne Hacker 2015. All rights reserved.3
Solution: Statement (i) is true. But if the function file also contains a sub-function,
then the sub-fcn name doesn’t need to match the function name.
>> x = −1;
>> y = 3;
>> r = 1;
if (x > 0)
r = 2;
elseif (y < −2)
r = 3;
else
r = 4;
end
>> r
Solution: Both. Presumably, the accuracy of the rod is good or else the parts will be
returned. The precision must also be good, or else the parts won’t work and they’ll have
to be returned.
Solution:
Statement (i) is true.
Statement (ii) is false. Let xt = 5×10−5 and xa = 4×10−5 . Then |Et | = |xt −xa | = 10−5 ,
but t = 15 × 102 = 20, which is most definitely not small!
|x − xa |
Solution: Starting from the inequality ≤ 10−3 , for positive x,
|x|
·x
−−−−→ |xa − x| ≤ x · 10−3
expand inequality
−−−−−−−−−−−−−→ − x · 10−3 ≤ xa − x ≤ x · 10−3
+x
−−−−−→ x − x · 10−3 ≤ xa ≤ x + x · 10−3
rewrite
−−−−−−−→ x(1 − 10−3 ) ≤ xa ≤ x(1 + 10−3 ) .
We now round our answer. Starting from the exact relative error we have
|π − xa |
= 10−3 (exact relative error)
π
·π
−−−−→ |π − xa | = π10−3 = .003
⇒ [3.138, 3.145] .
AME 302, sample exam 1 solns-s19 Copyright ©Wayne Hacker 2015. All rights reserved.6
f (x) = e−0.5x (4 − x) − 2 .
Employ initial guesses of (a) 2, (b) 6, and (c) 8. Explain your results. Check your results
using MATLAB’s build-in function fzero.
Solution:
AME 302, sample exam 1 solns-s19 Copyright ©Wayne Hacker 2015. All rights reserved.9
Problem 14 (Large Reynolds Number - [Module 1: SLO 1]). In the case of large
Reynolds number (Re 1), the drag force on an object moving through a fluid, denoted
by Fdrag , is known to be directly proportional to the square of the speed of the object
relative to the fluid (i.e., the object’s kinetic energy):
Fdrag = cd v 2 ,
Solution: (a) Choose the y-axis pointing downward in the direction of motion (see
figure).
t0 = 0 y0 = 0 at t = 0
v0 = 0
y = 0 (starts at origin)
0
Given:
v0 = 0 (released from rest) Fdrag = cd v 2
6
Fdrag = cd v 2 u
a
?
vterm
?w = mg
Want: y = y(t) ?
y-axis
v = v(t)
Assumptions:
• constant gravitational acceleration g
Equations: Apply Newton’s second law to the particle. From the free-body diagram
above, we see that the only two forces acting on the particle are gravity and the drag
force. Taking the downward direction as the positive direction, the net force in the
y-direction is
Fnet = w − Fdrag = mg − cd v 2 .
2
You don’t need to solve the governing equation for the general solution v = v(t) to find this!
AME 302, sample exam 1 solns-s19 Copyright ©Wayne Hacker 2015. All rights reserved.10
Applying Newton’s second law to the particle and letting ay = dv/dt gives the governing
equation for velocity:
dv
m = may = Fnet = mg − cd v 2
dt
÷m dv cd
−−−−−→ = g − v2 (first-order nonlinear ODE) , (0.1)
dt m
where v = v(t) and y = y(t) is the velocity and position of the particle, respectively.
Letting v = dy/dt, we can also get the governing equation for the position of the particle
as a function of time y = y(t). Thus, the governing equation for the particle’s position
is a second-order nonlinear ODE:
2
d2 y cd dy
=g−
dt2 m dt
with initial conditions y(0) = 0 and v(0) = 0.
Comment: It turns out to be easier to first solve for v = v(t), then integrate this
expression w.r.t. time and get the expression for position of the particle as a function of
time.
(b) To find the terminal velocity for this situation, we’ll apply some basic physical rea-
soning. By definition, terminal velocity means that the particle is not accelerating (i.e.,
ay = 0), so there is no force imbalance in the case. Thus, in steady state the net force
on the particle vanishes. The governing equation becomes:
0 = may = Fnet = mg − cd v 2
√ r
÷cd ; mg
−−−−−−−−→ vterm = (terminal velocity) (0.2)
cd
Since equation (0.6) must hold for all ũ, we can equate coefficients to get
( ( (
A+B =1 2A = 1 A = 21
⇒ ⇒ (0.7)
A−B =0 B=A B = 12
Evaluate:
1−u 2gt
ln =−
1+u vterm
Exponentiate:
1−u
= e−2gt/vterm
1+u
Multiply by 1 + u:
1 − u = e−2gt/vterm (1 + u)
Multiply by e2gt/vterm :
e2gt/vterm − e2gt/vterm u = 1 + u
Rearrange:
1 + e2gt/vterm u = e2gt/vterm − 1
AME 302, sample exam 1 solns-s19 Copyright ©Wayne Hacker 2015. All rights reserved.12
Solve:
e2gt/vterm − 1 e−gt/vterm
u(t) = ·
e2gt/vterm + 1 e−gt/vterm
egt/vterm − e−gt/vterm 1/2
= gt/vterm · u
e + e−gt/vterm 1/2 u=1 6
gt
sinh vterm
gt
u = tanh
= vterm
gt
cosh vterm -t
gt
= tanh u=−1
vterm
We defined u = v/vterm ; so by back-substituting, we get
gt
v(t) = vterm tanh (0.9)
vterm
gt
Equation check: v(t) = vterm tanh
vterm
By Fourier’s principles (rules) for dimensional equations, (i) the equation must be di-
mensionally consistent, and (ii) any functions that show up in the equation must have
dimensionless arguments. We now check these conditions:
(i) Since tanh() is a dimensionless quantity (it’s a pure number), the equation is obviously
dimensionally consistent:
Thus the equation is dimensionally consistent. However, that doesn’t necessarily mean
that it’s correct!
Now, let’s look at the geometric behavior of the solution:
• At t = 0, v(0) = 0. The particle starts from rest, as expected.
• For t > 0, 0 < v(t) < vterm , as expected.
• v(t) increases toward vterm as t → ∞, and the increase is strictly monotonic, as
expected.
The last check is the definitive one. The governing equation (0.1) is of the form:
(
dv k 2
dt
= f (v) (with f (v) = g − m v )
v(0) = 0 (initial condition)
∂f 2k
f (t, v) and = − v,
∂v m
AME 302, sample exam 1 solns-s19 Copyright ©Wayne Hacker 2015. All rights reserved.13
are both continuous on some region of the tv-plane containing the initial condition (point)
(t0 , v0 ) = (0, 0), then the IVP has a unique solution. Thus, if we can find a solution, we
have found the unique solution.
We now check our solution. Before we do this let’s rescale our ODE in terms of u to
put the equation and solution in a little simpler form. While this is unnecessary, it is a
standard trick which I will now show you for completeness sake. Multiplying and dividing
the left-hand side of equation (∗) by vterm gives
2
1 dv v
=1− (∗)
g dt vterm
2
rewrite vterm d v v
−−−−−−−→ =1−
g dt vterm vterm
let u=v/vterm vterm du
−−−−−−−−−−−→ = 1 − u2
g dt
It suffices to let
v gt
u≡ = tanh
vterm vterm
and substitute into the rescaling of equation (∗):
vterm du
= 1 − u2
g dt
to find that u is indeed a solution, where we’ve applied the identities:
d
tanh x = sech2 x
dx