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Section – I: Verbal Ability

Reading Comprehension
Directions (1 - 16): Read the following passages carefully and answer
the questions that follow:

Passage 1
Market regulators and even governments have very few options when
financial markets go into the kind of panic-driven free fall as witnessed on
Monday. The shock waves triggered by an over 9 per cent fall in Chinese
stocks hit capital and currency markets worldwide. India was no exception
to the global sell-off, with the BSE Sensex shedding over 1,624 points —
nearly 6 per cent — and the rupee tumbling at one point to Rs.66.60
against the U.S. dollar, its lowest level since 2013. The immediate task for
the market regulator, the Securities and Exchange Board of India, will be to
put in place measures to ensure that there are no major settlement
defaults, which can trigger a systemic collapse. Other than that there is
little it can, or indeed should do, to prevent the current re-rating of asset
prices in the market running its course. On the currency front, Reserve Bank
of India Governor Raghuram Rajan has given out the assurance that the
central bank has sufficient foreign currency reserves — around $380 billion
— to dampen any major volatility of the rupee. However, it can only flatten
the trajectory of any fall, not reverse it. Besides, it needs to keep the
powder dry to tackle any further devaluation of the Yuan, which China
might be forced to do if growth continues to be slow. After all, Monday’s
global sell-off was prompted by poor industrial output numbers, only
confirming the fears of global investors that China’s ‘managed slowdown’
was proving less manageable than it had let on.

1. According to the passage, which one of the following cannot be the

after effect of global sell-off?

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a) Rapid selling of securities leading to a decline in the value of the

security.
b) Decline in the value of the Rupee.
c) Increase in the demand and buying of securities due to sell-off.
d) Capital and Currency market gets hit badly.
Answer: c)

Explanation: In case of sell-off, there is rapid selling of securities, such

as stocks, bonds and commodities. The increase in supply leads to a
decline in the value of the security. Hence, the third option is incorrect.

2. As a market regulator, what course of action should be taken by SEBI

to shield investors from the global sell-off?
a) Create strict rules for the free flow foreign exchange.
b) Create measures to ensure that there are no major settlement
defaults.
c) Compensate investors who suffered losses.
d) Ask RBI to take necessary action.
Answer: b)

Explanation: The immediate task for the market regulator, the

Securities and Exchange Board of India, will be to put in place measures
to ensure that there are no major settlement defaults, which can
trigger a systemic collapse.

3. According to the author of the passage, RBI’s assurance of sufficient

foreign exchange reserve against the shock waves of global set-off is:
a) Ultimate solution to reverse the effects of global set-off.
b) Not the ultimate solution to reverse the effects of global set-off.
c) One of the solutions to reverse the effects of global set-off
d) A solution to flatten the effects of global set-off.
Answer: d)

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Explanation: According to the author, the RBI’s assurance of sufficient

foreign exchange reserve can only flatten the trajectory of any fall, not
reverse it.

4. What does the author mean by the phrase ‘to keep the powder dry’ in
the passage?
a) To make policies and measures.
b) To be ready to take action if necessary.
c) To hide from the difficult situation.
d) To optimally utilize all the available resources.
Answer: b)

Explanation: The phrase ‘to keep the powder dry’ means to be ready to
take action if necessary.

Passage 2
The Korean Peninsula is no stranger to tensions. But the ultimatum
given by North Korea to the South to either stop its propaganda broadcasts
across the demilitarized zone (DMZ) or face war has raised them to their
highest level in many years. The Koreas are still technically at war, as the
1950-53 Korean War ended with an armistice agreement and not a proper
ceasefire. Since then there have been several incidents of border violence,
and leaders on both sides have occasionally exchanged high-decibel
rhetoric. The latest flare-up is particularly menacing because of at least two
factors — the growing unpredictability of the North Korean regime under
Kim Jong-un, and the relatively more assertive response by South Korea to
provocations. The North is going through several internal challenges. At
least 70 top-level government officials, including the Vice-Premier, were
reportedly executed since Mr. Kim took power in 2011, indicating that the
regime is using brute force to sustain itself and silence dissent. Second, the
North Korean state media have confirmed that the country is facing the
“worst drought” in a century. This spells a major economic crisis. Whipping

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up tensions with the South could be a deliberate strategy on the part of Mr.
Kim in order to divert attention from crucial internal problems. The latest
crisis started with a landmine blast in the DMZ in which two South Korean
soldiers were injured. Seoul retaliated by resuming anti-North propaganda,
which led to shelling from the North and counter-artillery fire from the
South.

5. According to the passage, Korean Peninsula is facing which tension

over the years?
a) Technological issues between the North Korea and South Korea.
b) Border and Political issues between the North Korea and South
Korea.
c) Infrastructural issues between the North Korea and South Korea.
d) Legal issues between the North Korea and South Korea.
Answer: b)

Explanation: The Koreans are still technically at war, as the 1950-53

Korean War ended with an armistice agreement and not a proper
ceasefire. Since then there have been several incidents of border
violence, and leaders on both sides have occasionally exchanged high-
decibel rhetoric.

6. What does the author mean by the term ‘high-decibel rhetoric’ in the
passage?
a) Loud and persuasive form of negative speech.
b) Loud and persuasive form of positive speech.
c) Ineffective form of negative speech.
d) Ineffective form of positive speech.
Answer: a)

Explanation: The author is saying that since the times of Korean War
there have been several incidents of border violence, and leaders on
both sides of Korea have occasionally exchanged high-decibel rhetoric.
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7. What is triggering a major economic crisis in Korea?

a) Riots situation in South Korea.
b) Drought situation in North Korea.
c) Climatic Conditions in South Korea.
d) War between North and South Korea.
Answer: b)

Explanation: It has been clearly stated in the passage that the North
Korean state media have confirmed that the country is facing the
“worst drought” in a century. This spells a major economic crisis.

8. According to the passage, Seoul belongs to which part of the Korean

Peninsula?
a) North Korea
b) South Korea
c) Neither North Korea nor South Korea
d) Between the borders of the North and South Korea
Answer: b)

Explanation: The last line of the passage clearly states that Seoul
retaliated by resuming anti-North propaganda, which led to shelling
from the North and counter-artillery fire from the South. It means that
Seoul belongs to the northern part of the Korean Peninsula.

Passage - 3
It is often forgotten that globalization, is not only about policies on
international economic relationships and transactions, but has equally to
do with domestic policies of a nation. Policy changes necessitated by
meeting the internationally set conditions (by WTO etc.) of free trade and
investment flows obviously affect domestic producers and investors. But
the basic philosophy underlying globalization emphasizes absolute freedom
to markets to determine prices and production and distribution patterns,

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and view government interventions as processes that create distortions

and bring in inefficiency. Thus, public enterprises have to be privatized
through disinvestments and sales; sectors and activities hitherto reserved
for the public sector have to be opened to the private sector. This logic
extends to the social services like education and health. Any restrictions on
the adjustments in workforce by way of retrenchment of workers should
also be removed and exit should be made easier by removing any
restrictions on closures. Employment and wages should be governed by
free play of market forces, as any measure to regulate them can discourage
investment and also create inefficiency in production. Above all, in line with
the overall philosophy of reduction in the role of the state, fiscal reforms
should be undertaken to have generally low levels of taxation and
government expenditure should be kept to the minimum to abide by the
principle of fiscal prudence. All these are policy actions on the domestic
front and are not directly related to the core items of the globalization
agenda, namely free international flow of goods and finance.

9. According to the passage, under the globalization, government

interventions are viewed as processes leading to
a) Distortions and inefficiency in the economy.
b) Optimum use of resources.
c) More profitability to industries.
d) Free play of market forces with regard to the industries.
Answer: a)

Explanation: The passage specifically states that the government

intervention leads to inefficiency and distortion.

10. According to the passage, the basic philosophy of globalization is to

a) Give absolute freedom to producers to determine prices and
production.
b) Give freedom to producers to evolve distribution patterns.

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c) Give absolute freedom to markets to determine prices, production

and employment.
d) Give freedom to producers to import and export.
Answer: c)

Explanation: Passage supports the statement the philosophy means

absolute freedom to markets to determine prices, production and
employment.

11. According to the passage, which of the following is/are necessary for
ensuring globalization?
1. Privatization of public enterprises
2. Expansionary policy of public expenditure
3. Free play of market forces to determine wages and employment
4. Privatization of social services like education and health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c)

Explanation: It is advocated that the role of government should be

minimum, so statement 2 is eliminated and as line 16 suggests
statement 3 is correct, so we are left only with (c).

12. According to the passage, in the process globalization the State

should have
a) Expanding role
b) Reducing role
c) Statutory role
d) None of the above roles.
Answer: c)
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Explanation: It is emphasized the role of State should be minimum and

economic reforms should be legislated, so it gives only Statutory Role
to the State.

Passage - 4
India’s decision to remove Iran from the list of countries in the
restricted visa category is another indication of New Delhi’s resolve to
reinvigorate its engagement with the Gulf country. The move will primarily
liberalise the visa approval process for Iranian citizens, paving the way for
enhanced people-to-people cooperation. But more important, it is part of a
series of steps India has taken to deepen partnership with Iran since an
interim agreement was reached between Tehran and six world powers
(P5+1) in November 2013 over its nuclear programme. Iran used to be
India’s second largest supplier of oil. But India, under pressure from
western nations, voted against Iran at the International Atomic Energy
Agency over its nuclear programme and subsequently cut energy imports.
The interim agreement offered India a window of opportunity to revisit its
Tehran policy. In February, National Security Adviser Ajit Doval went to
Tehran to discuss bilateral cooperation. In April, the Iranian Ambassador to
New Delhi, Gholamreza Ansari, said Prime Minister Narendra Modi had
accepted an invitation to visit Tehran. This new direction in India’s
approach to Iran got better clarity when the final nuclear agreement was
reached between Tehran and P5+1 in July: it will remove not just sanctions
against Iran but also the tag of untouchability given to it by the West.
Ties with Iran are vital for India’s economic and strategic interests.
India has to seize the momentum provided by the nuclear deal to step up
energy trade with Iran. Imports from Iran are relatively cheap because of
the geographical proximity and the extended credit period it offers. Iran
has one of the largest gas reserves, and these are expected to be opened
up soon for global investments. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation already
has interests in the Farzad-B gas field, and Iranian gas will help India’s fuel-
starved power stations. More important, New Delhi and Iran share an

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interest in stabilising Afghanistan. Both realise that a return of the Taliban

to Kabul would affect their key interests. Iran and India have signed an
agreement to develop the Chabahar port. The Iranian port, which lies
outside the Gulf region and is easily accessed from India’s western coast,
will give New Delhi an alternative sea-land access route into Afghanistan,
bypassing Pakistan and providing a gateway to the resource-rich Central
Asian region. But, for the success of these projects India needs to have a
consistent policy towards Iran that is defined by mutual interest and not by
global pressures. The period of tepid engagement with Iran has delayed the
Chabahar port project and affected India’s energy security. Now New Delhi
has to make up for lost time by accelerating bilateral diplomacy.
Nepal’s political parties have struck a historic deal on a new
constitution that will divide the country into eight provinces, ending years
of deadlock. Coming weeks after an earthquake that killed thousands and
devastated Nepal, the deal seems to be a result of the pressure on
politicians to end the stalemate. The agreement will be included in a draft
charter that must be approved by a two-thirds parliamentary majority.
Under it, Nepal will continue with its current system of governance, which
includes an executive prime minister and ceremonial president. A federal
commission that will be set up will get six months to draw up internal
borders and submit a proposal for approval in parliament. The agreement
has cleared a major hurdle in the making of the constitution, albeit some
areas of contention remain. It is time Nepal’s politicians realised that they
must work together to meet the challenge posed by the recent earthquake
and pool their energies to rebuild the nation.
Countries on India’s periphery haven’t been too lucky in setting their
houses in order. Sri Lanka has emerged from a civil war which has left bitter
memories, especially about the way it ended. Myanmar is still groping its
way towards democratic governance and is yet to solve the problem of
minorities like the Rohingyas. Afghanistan’s democracy continues to face
the menace of terrorism while Pakistan can hardly be described as a full-
fledged democracy in view of extra-constitutional powers wielded by the
army and the ISI. It was once feared that Nepal would go down the road of
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being a perennially troubled nation, given the inordinately long time it was
taking to frame a constitution. The latest developments suggest the worst
is over.
For India, such a turn of events is of considerable importance because
the virtually open border with Nepal in keeping with age-old norms gives
the Himalayan nation and its people a special position in Indian hearts.
After the earthquake, a dalliance with Maoism and a tragic massacre in the
royal palace, Nepal is awaiting a new future.

13. According to the passage,

the proposed deal for making a new
constitution in Nepal includes:
a) Provisions for dealing with the aftermath of earthquake.
b) Dividing the country into eight provinces.
c) Extending the international relations with the neighbouring
countries.
d) To develop new mechanism for regulating the system of Nepal.
Answer: b)

Explanation: The first paragraph clearly mentions that Nepal’s political

parties have struck a historic deal on a new constitution that will divide
the country into eight provinces, ending years of deadlock.

14. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

i. Myanmar is prospering because of its democratic governance.
ii. Pakistan is prospering because of its democratic governance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only (i)
b) Both (i) and (ii)
c) Only (ii)
d) Neither (i) Nor (ii)
Answer: d)

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Explanation: The second paragraph mentions that Myanmar is still

groping its way towards democratic governance. Pakistan can hardly be
described as a full-fledged democracy in view of extra-constitutional
powers wielded by the army and the ISI. Hence, both the statements
are incorrect.

15. What does the term ‘Stalemate’

mean in the passage?
a) A situation in which a winner is declared.
b) A situation in which an action can be taken on consensus.
c) A situation happened earlier in the past.
d) A situation in which further action is blocked.
Answer: d)

Explanation: ‘Stalemate’ means a situation in which further action is

blocked. Stalemate is a situation in the game of chess where the player
whose turn it is to move is not in check but has no legal move. The
rules of chess provide that when stalemate occurs, the game ends as a
draw (i.e. having no winner).

16. According to the passage

which of the following statement is true regarding
the relationship between India and Nepal?
a) India and Nepal share a cordial relationship with each other.
b) India and Nepal share an unfriendly relationship with each other.
c) India and Nepal share a competitive relationship with each other.
d) India and Nepal share an estranged relationship with each other.
Answer: a)

Explanation: The last paragraph clearly states that the virtually open
border with Nepal in keeping with age-old norms gives the Himalayan
nation and its people a special position in Indian hearts.

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Facts-Inference-Judgments
Direction (17–20): Each question has a set of four sequentially ordered
statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following:
 Facts (F), which deal with the pieces of information that one has
heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or
verification.
 Inferences (I), which are conclusions drawn about unknown, on the
basis of the known.
 Judgments (J), which are opinions that imply approval or
disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the
past, the present or the future.

Select the answer option that best describes

the set of four statements:

17.
(A) A study about bees reported that the queen goes off with about
two-thirds of the worker bees to live in a new home leaving a
daughter queen in the nest with the remaining worker bees.
Among the bees that depart are scouts that search for the new
nest site and report back using a waggle dance to advertise suitable
locations.
(B) Another form of groupthink occurs when people are either isolated
from crucial sources of information or dominated by other
members of the group, some of whom may have malevolent
intent. This too has now been demonstrated in animals.
(C) Animals that live in groups make two sorts of choices: consensus
decisions in which the group makes a single collective choice, as
when house- hunting rock ants decide where to settle; and
combined decisions, such as the allocation of jobs among worker
bees.

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(D) Condorcet's theory describes consensus decisions, outlining how

democratic decisions tend to outperform dictatorial ones. If each
member of a jury has only partial information, the majority
decision is more likely to be correct than a decision arrived at by an
individual juror.
a) FIFI
b) JJFF
c) IFIF
d) FFJJ
Answer: a)

Explanation: Clearly, first & third statements are facts and second &
fourth statements are inferences.

18.
(A) Any country that cannot stay ahead of credit-crunched Greece is in
deep trouble.
(B) That triggered a deal on €7.16bn in emergency funding, to enable
the government to pay its arrears with the International Monetary
Fund (IMF) and its July bill from the European Central Bank (ECB).
(C) Any hopes that the euro area would be more resilient to the global
credit crisis have been firmly dashed.
(D) Prudence is not always a virtue: the instinct to save for a rainy day
seems only to harden when the rains set in.
a) FFJJ
b) JFJJ
c) IIJJ
d) FFJJ
Answer: b)

Explanation: Clearly, first, third and fourth statements are judgments

and second statement is a fact.

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19.
(A) "Hot.Cool.Yours" is one of Russia’s slogans for the Olympic games.
(B) For the first time since 1991 global average income per head is
falling. Even as growth in emerging markets has come to a halt, the
rich economies look set to shrink.
(C) Financial markets promised prosperity; instead they have brought
hardship.
(D) Does the quirkiness of the slogan have something to do with the
vagaries of Russian-English translation? Yes, partially, although it
sounds equally awkward in Russian and plenty of Russians were
thrown for a loop by its announcement, even if they have since
come to embrace it.
a) JFJF
b) IFIF
c) FFJJ
d) FIJI
Answer: d)

Explanation: Clearly, first statement is a fact; third is a judgment and

2nd & 4th are inferences.

20.
(A) Many of the varieties of arrogance and know-it-allness are left
under the interacting scrutiny of scholars who were encouraged to
enlarge their understanding of real problems.
(B) Several of the patterns of impatience and impulsiveness seem
modified in a situation in which each man knows that it is better to
be sure, than sorry he opened his mouth too soon.
(C) Irving Lee often said that general semantics is not something that
happens to you-it is something you do. It's an operational
discipline, it's something you perform.
(D) Since Jane was at the game, she would have seen the runback on
the opening kick-off.
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a) JJJJ
b) JJFI
c) FJJI
d) FFJJ
Answer: b)

Explanation: Clearly, 1st and 2nd statements are the judgments; 3rd is a
fact and 4th is an inference.

Parajumbles

Directions (21-24): The first line (A) and last line (F) of the following
question is fixed. Arrange the other four lines in a logical sequence.

21.
(A) The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has added another
feather to its cap with the successful launch of the largest-ever
satellite made in India.
(B) The GSLV D-6 rocket, which launched the communication satellite
GSAT-6 into its pre-destined orbit, used an indigenous cryogenic
engine.
(C) It is satisfying that all the systems are found to be in perfect
working condition.
(D) True, the cryogenic system was used only in the third stage when
the satellite was lifted and placed in its permanent orbit.
(E) The satellite that has new features will serve as India’s eye in the
outer space for as long as nine years.
(F) Soon, the satellite is expected to send pictures and data to the
tracking centre at Hasan in Karnataka.
a) BDEC
b) BDCE
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c) BECD
d) BCDE
Answer: a)

Explanation: The proper sequence of sentences to make a meaningful

paragraph will be ‘BDEC’:
1) The GSLV D-6 rocket, which launched the communication satellite
GSAT-6 into its pre-destined orbit, used an indigenous cryogenic
engine.
2) True, the cryogenic system was used only in the third stage when
the satellite was lifted and placed in its permanent orbit.
3) The satellite that has new features will serve as India’s eye in the
outer space for as long as nine years.
4) It is satisfying that all the systems are found to be in perfect
working condition.

22.
(A) Onion has always been a political instrument in India.
(B) Such knee-jerk responses have become the standard operating
procedure for successive governments since the 1980s.
(C) Its prices have affected the fortunes of parties and even brought
down governments.
(D) No wonder the Union government decided to import 10,000 metric
tonnes of the vegetable as well as initiate anti-hoarding measures
to stabilize prices ahead of voters lining up in Bihar.
(E) It has been raising its political head again in recent weeks — with
assembly election in Bihar within hailing distance.
(F) At best, they treat the symptoms, not the disease. A temporary
lowering of prices does nothing towards finding a permanent
solution.
a) CDEB
b) CEDB
c) CEBD
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d) CDBE
Answer: a)

Explanation: The proper sequence of sentences to make a meaningful

paragraph will be ‘CEDB’:
1) Its prices have affected the fortunes of parties and even brought
down governments.
2) It has been raising its political head again in recent weeks — with
assembly election in Bihar within hailing distance.
3) No wonder the Union government decided to import 10,000 metric
tonnes of the vegetable as well as initiate anti-hoarding measures
to stabilize prices ahead of voters lining up in Bihar.
4) Such knee-jerk responses have become the standard operating
procedure for successive governments since the 1980s.

23.
(A) In his Independence Day speech, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
reiterated his commitment to implement the one-rank-one-
pension (OROP) scheme for ex-service personnel.
(B) But this brought no cheer to tens of thousands of soldiers —
retired and serving — because they have been hearing such
promises for a long time.
(C) Modi himself blamed the previous Congress-led UPA government
that did little to implement the demand that has been pending for
decades.
(D) He referred to some talks currently going on in this regard — which
amounts to decades of talk being followed by still more talks.
(E) What the troopers of this nation need are not empty promises but
concrete action.
(F) No one has clarified why the government has difficulty in
implementing the scheme.
a) DCEB
b) CEBD
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c) EBCD
d) BCDE
Answer: d)

Explanation: The proper sequence of sentences to make a meaningful

paragraph will be ‘BCDE’:
1) But this brought no cheer to tens of thousands of soldiers —
retired and serving — because they have been hearing such
promises for a long time.
2) Modi himself blamed the previous Congress-led UPA government
that did little to implement the demand that has been pending for
decades.
3) He referred to some talks currently going on in this regard — which
amounts to decades of talk being followed by still more talks.
4) What the troopers of this nation need are not empty promises but
concrete action.

24.
(A) The Korean Peninsula is no stranger to tensions.
(B) The Koreas are still technically at war, as the 1950-53 Korean War
ended with an armistice agreement and not a proper ceasefire.
(C) Since then there have been several incidents of border violence,
and leaders on both sides have occasionally exchanged high-
decibel rhetoric.
(D) But the ultimatum given by North Korea to the South to either stop
its propaganda broadcasts across the demilitarized zone (DMZ) or
face war has raised them to their highest level in many years.
(E) The latest flare-up is particularly menacing because of at least two
factors — the growing unpredictability of the North Korean regime
under Kim Jong-un, and the relatively more assertive response by
South Korea to provocations.
(F) The North is going through several internal challenges.
a) DCBE
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b) DBCE
c) DBEC
d) DCEB
Answer: b)

Explanation: The proper sequence of sentences to make a meaningful

paragraph will be ‘DBCE’:
1) But the ultimatum given by North Korea to the South to either stop
its propaganda broadcasts across the demilitarized zone (DMZ) or
face war has raised them to their highest level in many years.
2) The Koreas are still technically at war, as the 1950-53 Korean War
ended with an armistice agreement and not a proper ceasefire.
3) Since then there have been several incidents of border violence,
and leaders on both sides have occasionally exchanged high-
decibel rhetoric.
4) The latest flare-up is particularly menacing because of at least two
factors — the growing unpredictability of the North Korean regime
under Kim Jong-un, and the relatively more assertive response by
South Korea to provocations.

Critical Reasoning
25. The problem of traffic congestion in Athens has been testing the
ingenuity of politicians and town planners for years. But the measures
adapted to date have not succeeded in decreasing the number of cars
on the road in the city centre. In 1980, an odd and evens number-
plate legislation was introduced, under which odd and even plates
were banned in the city centre on alternate days, thereby expecting
to halve the number of cars in the city centre. Then in 1993 it was
decreed that all cars in use in the city centre must be fitted with
catalytic converters; a regulation had just then been introduced,
substantially reducing import taxes on cars with catalytic converters,

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the only condition being that the buyer of such a 'clean' car offered
for destruction a car at least 15 years old. Which one of the following
options, if true, would best support the claim that the measures
adapted to date have not succeeded?
a) In the 1980s, many families purchased second cars with the
requisite odd or even number plate.
b) In the mid-1990s, many families found it feasible to become first-
time car owners by buying a car more than 15 years old and turning
it in for a new car with catalytic converters.
c) Post-1993, many families seized the opportunity to sell their more-
than-If-year-old cars and buy 'clean' cars from the open market,
even if it meant forgoing the import tax subsidy.
d) All of the above.
Answer: d)

Explanation: Each of the three options mentioned in the question is a

way to circumvent the moves of the government to reduce traffic
congestion. The first option will nullify any effect of the government's
regulation during the mid 1990s. Also, the second and third options
would nullify the benefits the town planners would expect to derive
out of their 'clean cars' regulation of 1993. Thus, we should choose 'all
of these' as the correct option.

26. Szymanski suggests that the problem of racism in football per cent
may be present even today. He begins by verifying an earlier
hypothesis that clubs' wage bills explain 90 per cent of their
performance. Thus, if players' salaries were to be only based on their
abilities, clubs that spend more should finish higher. If there is pay
discrimination against some group of players-fewer teams bidding for
black players thus lowering the salaries for blacks with the same
ability as whites-that neat relation may no longer hold. He concludes
that certain clubs seem to have achieved much less than what they

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could have, by not recruiting black players. Which one of the

following findings would best support Szymanski's conclusion?
a) Black players were hired by some clubs who wanted to take
advantage of the situation.
b) White Players who did not show comparatively good performance
were hired by the clubs at relatively high wages.
c) During the professor’s study period, she discovered that clubs in
towns that discriminated against blacks since their inception under-
performed.
d) Clubs have to pay lower wages to black players, as compared to
their competitors who hired only white players.
Answer: b)

Explanation: The conclusion Szymanski is getting to is that clubs

achieved less due to not hiring black players. Obviously, clubs which
invested only in the costlier white players and did not show
proportionately good performance (as expected based on their
investments) would be explained by the fact that less costly (but equal
ability wise) black players would be creating better performance for
their clubs and consequently if clubs which hired white players did not
show proportionately good performance-that would tend to support
the argument Szymanski is making.

27. The Shveta-chattra the "White Umbrella" was a symbol of sovereign

political authority placed over the monarch's head at the time of the
coronation. The ruler so inaugurated was regarded not as a temporal
autocrat but as the instrument of protective and sheltering firmament
of supreme law. The white umbrella is a symbol of great antiquity and
its varied use illustrates the ultimate common basis of non-theocratic
nature of states in the Indian tradition. As such, the umbrella is found,
although not necessarily a white one, over the head of Lord Ram, the
Mohammedan sultans and Chatrapati Shivaji. Which one of the
following best summarizes the above passage?
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a) It was a ritual in India to place an umbrella over the ruler's head.

b) The white umbrella was depicted as tool for the firmament of the
supreme law and the non-theocratic nature of Indian states.
c) Sovereign political authority was symbolized by the umbrella.
d) The non-theocratic nature of states in the Indian tradition was
symbolized by the varied use of the umbrella.
Answer: d)

Explanation: Option (b) looks close and is confusing. But a focused

reading of the same shows that it is just using words from the
paragraph and constructing a sentence, which does not really end up
summarizing the idea of the paragraph. The fourth option is a much
better summary of the idea contained in the paragraph.

28. The theory of games is suggested to some extent by parlour games

such as chess and bridge. Friedman illustrates two distinct features of
these games. First, in a parlour game played for money, if one wins
the other (others) loses (lose). Second, these games are games
involving a strategy. In a game of chess, while choosing what action is
to be taken, a player tries to guess how his / her opponent will react
to the various actions he or she might take. In contrast, the card-
pastime, 'patience' or 'solitaire' is played only against chance. Which
one of the following can best be described as a "game"?
a) In the first time of the human history, Mt. Everest was climbed by
the team of Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary.
b) A decisive war between the armed forces of Iraq and Iran over
border disputes.
c) A state level story writing competition.
d) Labor Union deciding on wages, completely disregarding the
company’s financial strength.
Answer: c)

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Explanation: The definition of 'game' as defined in the paragraph has to

be interpreted as one in which:

1) There is a win-loss situation and

2) Players try to guess the reaction of the opponent to their actions.
Both these features would be present in a 'decisive' war between
India and Pakistan. The other options do not have both these
features.

29. Three airlines Indigo, Go Air and Air India-operate on the Delhi-
Bangalore route. To increase the number of seats sold, Air India
reduced its fares and this way emulated by Indigo and Go Air
immediately. The general belief was that the volume of air travel
between Delhi and Bangalore would increase as and result.
Which of the following, if true, would add credence to the general
belief?
a) Increase in profitability of the three airlines.
b) Extension of the discount scheme to other routes.
c) A study that shows that air travelers in India are price-conscious.
d) A study that shows that as much as 80 percent of air travels in India
is company-sponsored.
Answer: c)

Explanation: Answer goes without guess work. Passage clearly

indicates that price-reduction increased volume of air travel.

30. According to McNeill, a Brahmin priest was expected to be able to

recite at least one of the Vedas. The practice was essential for several
centuries when the Vedas had not yet been written down. It must
have had a selective effect, since priests would have been recruited
from those able or willing to memorize long passages. It must have
helped in the dissemination of the work, since a memorized passage
can be duplicated many times.
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Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

a) The Vedic priest memorized long passages like a recorded audio
CD.
b) It was Brahmin’s obligation to recite the Vedas.
c) Brahmin priest’s behaviour was studied by McNeill.
d) The hymns from Vedas were not scripted.
Answer: a)

Explanation: Option (b) uses 'audio-cassette' which can be correlated

to words mentioned in passage such as recite, dissemination (diffusion)
and 'duplication many times'.

Sentence Correction

Directions (31 – 34): In each of the following sentences, four options

are given. You are required to identify the best of way of writing the
sentence in the context of the correct usage of standard written English.
While doing so, you have to ensure that the message being conveyed
remains the same in all the cases.

31. His elder sister along with his parents insist that he remain in the
same profession.
a) His elder sister along with his parents, insist that he remain in the
same profession.
b) His elder sister along with his parents insists that he remain in the
same profession.
c) His elder sister along with his parents are insisting that he remain
in the same profession.
d) His elder sister along with his parents have insisted that he remain
in the same profession.
e) His elder sister along with his parents insisted on that he remained
in the same profession.

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Answer: b)

Explanation: Option b) is the best way of phrasing the message and is

grammatically correct also.

32. The entire group of college students, enjoyed splashing in the pool,
bathing in the ocean, and, particularly, to sun bathe on the shore.
a) The entire group of college students, enjoyed splashing in the pool,
bathing in the ocean, and, particularly, to sun bathe on the shore.
b) The entire group of college students, enjoyed splashing in the pool,
to have a bath in the ocean, and, particularly, to sun bathe on the
shore.
c) The entire group of college students, enjoyed swimming in the pool
to bathe in the ocean, and, particularly, sun bathing on the shore.
d) The entire group of college students, enjoyed swimming in the
pool, bathing in the ocean, and, particularly, sun bathing on the
shore.
e) The entire group of college students enjoyed splashing in the pool,
bathing in the ocean, particularly to sun bathing on the shore.
Answer: d)

Explanation: Option d) is the best way of expressing the idea and is

grammatically correct also.

33. My mentor seldom ever wants to try and face the truth.
a) My mentor seldom ever wants to try and face the truth.
b) My mentor seldom if ever wants to try and face the truth.
c) My mentor seldom ever wants to try to face the truth.
d) My mentor seldom wants to try to face the truth.
e) My mentor seldom want to try face the truth.
Answer: d)

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Explanation: Option d) is the best way of phrasing the message and is

grammatically correct also.

34. Being a rationalist, the officer could not accept the statement of the
accused that ghosts had caused the disturbance.
a) Being a rationalist, the officer could not accept the statement of
the accused that ghosts had caused the disturbance.
b) Since he was a rationalist, the officer could not accept the
statement of the accused that ghosts had caused the disturbance.
c) Being that he was a rationalist, the officer could not accept the
statement of the accused that ghosts had caused the disturbance.
d) Rationalist that he was, the officer could not accept the statement
of the accused that ghosts had caused the disturbance.
e) Being a rationalist that he was, the officer could not accept the
statement of the accused that ghosts had caused the disturbance.
Answer: a)

Explanation: There is no error in the original sentence.

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Section – II: Quantitative Aptitude

Number System
35. What is the least value of , If p + q + r = 1 and
p, q, r are positive real numbers ?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

Explanation: The value of the expression will be least when p = q = r =

1/3.
Hence, the least value = =2×2×2=8

36. The last digit of , is

a) 0
b) 4
c) 8
d) 2
Answer: b)

Explanation: Consider 34k = (81)k = (1 + 80)k = 1 + 80q, q K


Since the last digit of (81)20q is 1, so the last
digit of is 1 × 3 = 4

37. How many positive integer values of ‘p’ are possible

such tat is an integer?

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a) 12
b) 13
c) 14
d) 15
Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Therefore, (p + 4) must be a factor of 216.
The number of factors of 216 = 16
But (p + 4) cannot be equal to 1, 2, 3 and 4 as ‘p’ has to
be a positive integer.
Total possible values = 16 – 4 = 12

H.C.F and L.C.M

38. Find the largest number among .

a)
b)
c)
d) both (a) & (b)
Answer: (d)

Explanation: LCM of 2, 4, 8 and 16 is 16

We can write it as

Hence are largest numbers.

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39. What is the LCM of first 100 natural numbers, if LCM of first 90
natural numbers is M?
a) 5! × N
b) 97 N
c) 105N/103
d) 4N
Answer: (b)

Explanation: If we look at the numbers 90 < M  100, we see only 97

do not have their factors in M (because it is prime). So, obviously the
new LCM will be 97 × N.

40. The product of two numbers is 2352 and their H.C.F. is 14. How many
such pairs are possible?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 0
Answer: (b)

Explanation: H.C.F. = 14
Let two numbers be 14a & 14b
Now a & b are co-prime
Product of two numbers = 14a × 14b = 2352

 a × b = 12 and a, b are co-prime
Hence, (a, b) could be (1, 12) or (3,4)

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AP/GP/HP/ Sequence & Series

41. If p, (2p + 2), (3p + 3), … are in GP, then the next term of this
sequence is:
a) 27
b) –27
c) 13.5
d) –13.5
Answer: (d)

Explanation: Since p, 2p + 2, 3p + 3, … are in GP


 r = 3/2
and
 4p + 4 = 3p
 p = –4
Then next term = r (3p + 3)
=
=
= –13.5


42. If  (0, /2), then is always greater than or

equal to:
a) 2 tan 
b) 1
c) 2
d) sec2
Answer: (a)

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Explanation:  (0, /2)

 |tan | = tan 
AM  GM




Solving RHS,
=  
= tan 

 

43. If An infinite GP has first term y and sum 50, then y belongs to:
a) y< –10
b) –10 < y< 0
c) 0 < y< 100
d) y> 10
Answer: (c)

Explanation: a = y, S = 50
If r be the common ratio, then
 0


–1 < r < 1 (for infinite GP)


 100 > y> 0
 0 < y< 100

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Decimal Fractions

44. Simplify:

a)
b) 3
c)
d)
Answer: (b)

Explanation: Given =

45. If , where x, y, z are natural numbers, then x, y, z are:

a) 1, 2, 5
b) 1, 11,1
c) 5, 2, 11
d) 11, 2, 5
Answer: (b)

Explanation:

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⇒ ⇒

⇒ x = 1,

⇒ x = 1, y = 11, z = 1.

Inequalities

46. If the equation is |(4x – 5) + 4| < 10; the find out the range of x (M).
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: (c)

Explanation: |(4x – 5) + 4| < 10

–10– 4 < |4x – 5| < 10 – 4
–14< |4x – 5| < 6
|4x – 5| is always greater than –14, so we need to look
at only one part of this inequality
|4x – 5| < 6
 –6 < 4x – 5 < 6
 –6+ 5 < 4x < 6 + 5
 -1 < 4x < 11


47. The solution of is

a) x 0
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b) x>0
c) x  (1, )
d) None of these
Answer: c)

Explanation:



 x (1, )  {0}.

48. The number of real values of y for which the equation

becomes true is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) Infinitely many
Answer: a)

Explanation: …(i)
AM  GM

 2
 cos (e )  2
y
[from Eq. (i)]
Impossible, i.e., zero solutions.
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Quadratic Equations
49. The value of x which satisfy the equation

are
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer: (c)

Explanation:
=
 (5x2 – 8x + 3) – (5x2 – 9x + 4)
= (2x2 – 2x) – (2x2 – 3x + 1)
 (x – 1) = (x – 1)
Hence, x = 1 is the solution.

50. If p, q are the roots of the equation 8x2 – 3x + 27 = 0, then the value of
[(p2/q)1/3 + (q2/p)1/3] is
a) 1/3
b) ¼
c) 1/5
d) 1/6
Answer: (b)

Explanation: p + q = 3/8, pq = 27/8


=

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= .

Ratio and Proportion

51. What is the ratio of the speeds of horse A to that of horse B and horse
C if it is seen that while running in a park when horse A takes 5 steps,
horse B takes 6 steps and horse C takes 7 steps. But 6 steps of horseA
are equal to 7 steps of horse B and 8 steps of horse C.
a) 140:144:147
b) 40:44:47
c) 15:21:28
d) 252:245:240
Answer: (a)

Explanation: Frequency of steps of A:B:C = 5:6:7

But in terms of size of steps; 6A = 7B = 8C
Ratio of the speeds of A:B:C = (5/6) : (6/7) : (7/8)
= 140:144:147

52. If p:q = r:s, and t:u = v:w, then (pt + qu) : (pt – qu) = ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: (b)

Explanation: Solve by taking values of p, q, r, s and t, u, v and w

independently of each other.
p = 1, q = 2, r = 3, s = 6
and t = 3, u = 9, v = 4
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and w = 12
Gives (pt + qu) : (pt – qu) = 21: – 15 =
Option (b)

Functions
53. If f be a bijective function from Y to Y, then the number
of such functions for which f() ,  = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 is
(Given Y = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6})
a) 44
b) 265
c) 325
d) 4585
Answer: (b)

Explanation: If no, object goes to its scheduled place, then

derangement
Number of such functions
=
=
= 360 – 120 + 30 – 6 + 1
= 265

54. If f:R R be a function satisfying f(2x + 3) + f(2x + 7) = 2,

 x  R, then period of f(x) is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
Answer: (c)
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Explanation: Given, f(2x + 3) + f(2x + 7) = 2 …(i)

Replacing x by x + 1 and x by x + 2 in Eq. (i), then
…(ii)
and …(iii)
Now, subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (iii), then we get

 Period = 8

Permutation & Combination

55. The number of different ways the letters of the word DEVIKA can be
Placed in the 8 boxes of the given below such that no row empty is
equal to

   
   

a) 26
b) 26 × 6!
c) 6!
d) 2! × 6!
Answer: (b)

Explanation: Total ways = (8C2 – 2) ×

= (28 – 2) ×
= 26 ×

56. Number of positive integral solutions of pqr = 30 is

a) 9

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b) 27
c) 81
d) 243
Answer: (b)

Explanation: pqr = 30 = 2 × 3 × 5
2 will be a factor of p or q or r in 3 ways
3 will be a factor of p or q or r in 3 ways
5 will be a factor of p or q or r in 3 ways
 Total number of ways = 3 × 3 × 3 = 27 ways

57. For is equal to

a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: (d)

Explanation:
= nCr + 2· nCr–1 + nCr–2
= (nCr + nCr–1) + (nCr–1 + nCr–2)
= n+1Cr + n+1Cr–1 = n+2Cr =

Probability

58. If p [–18, 0], then the probability that the graph of the function y =
16x2 + 8(p + 5)x – 7p – 5 is strictly above the x–axis is
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a) ½
b) 1/17
c) 17/20
d) None of these
Answer: d)

Explanation: Since, the graph of y = 16x2 + 8(p + 5)x

– 7p – 5 is strictly above x–axis, therefore
y> 0 for all x
 16x2 + 8(p + 5)x – 7p – 5 > 0 for all x
 Discriminant < 0  64(p + 5)2 + 64(7p + 5) < 0
 p2 + 17p + 30 < 0
 –15 < p< –2
Required probability

59. The maximum value of P(A’  B) if A and B are events at the same
experiments with P(A) = 0.3, P(B) = 0.6
a) 0.6
b) 0.5
c) 0.7
d) 0.8
Answer: (a)

Explanation: P(A’  B)  P(B)

Maximum value = 0.6

60. If are probabilities of three mutually exclusive events,

then
a)
b)

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c)
d) none of these
Answer: (d)

Explanation: As and are probabilities of three

mutually exclusive events, we must have

and

and
 max
  k=

Geometry
61. In a Right angle triangle ABC which of the following ratio of angles is
not possible:
a) 1:2:3
b) 1:1:2
c) 2:3:6
d) None of these
Answer: (c)

Explanation: Clearly option (a) shows the angles would be 30, 60 and
90. It can be the ratio of angle in a right angled triangle.
Option (b) shows the angles would be 45, 45 and 90, then it can be the
ratio of angle in a right angled triangle. But option (c) cannot form the
ratio of angles of right angled triangle.
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62. Find out the number of sides of the polygon if each interior angle of a
regular polygon exceeds its exterior angle by 140°.
a) 9
b) 18
c) 12
d) None of these
Answer: (b)

Explanation: Using options

Exterior angle = (for n = 18)
 Interior angle = 180° – 20° = 160°
 Interior – Exterior = 160 – 20 = 140°
Hence, option (b) is correct.

63. If the sides of triangle of sides 14 cm, 10 cm and 6 cm then what is the
largest angle …..
a) 45°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 120°
Answer: (d)

Explanation: As triangle is obtuse.

So (d) is the correct option.

64. Two similar s ABC and PQR have perimeter 72 cm and 48 cm

respectively. If PQ = 20 cm, then AB is equal to:
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 30 cm
d) 9 cm
Answer: (c)

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Explanation: Perimeter of ABC = 72 cm.

Perimeter of PQR = 48 cm and PQ = 20 cm.
We have to find AB.
Perimeter of ABC = AB + BC + AC.
Perimeter of PQR = PQ + QR + PR.
Since ABC ~ PQR


cm

65. What is ratio of CM:AM in the following figure if the area of

trapezium ABNM is twice the area of triangle CMN and in the triangle
ABC, MN is parallel to AB.

a)
b)
c)
d) None of these
Answer: (c)


Explanation:

 
⇒
⇒ [MA = (CA – CM)]

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Mensuration

66. Find the percentage error in calculating the volume of the sphere, if
an error of +1.25% is found while measuring the radius of a sphere.
a) 4.2%
b) 3.6%
c) 4.5%
d) 3.3%
Answer: (a)
Explanation: V = 4/3r3; V' = 4/3 (1.125r)3 ⇒ V'/V = 1.4238
Error = 4.2%.

67. If the radius of a circle is diminished by 20%, by what percentage will

the area gets diminished by?
a) 36%
b) 20%
c) 39%
d) 10%
Answer: (a)

Explanation: If the radius is diminished by r%, then

Area is diminished by
= 2 × 20 –

68. The area of larger square is four times the area of smaller square and
one of the sides of larger square is 4 cm greater than that of smaller
square. What is the perimeter of smaller square?
a) 16 cm
b) 24 cm
c) 8 cm

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d) 32 cm
Answer: (a)

Explanation: Let, side of smaller square = x cm.

 Side of larger square = (x + 4) cm
By the question; (x + 4)2 = 4x2
⇒ x2 + 8x + 16 = 4x2 ⇒ 3x2 – 8x – 16 = 0
⇒ 3x2 – 12x + 4x – 16 = 0
⇒ 3x(x – 4) + 4(x – 4) = 0
⇒ (x – 4)(3x + 4) = 0,  x = 4 cm
⇒ Perimeter of smaller square = 4 × 4 = 16 cm.

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Section – III: Logical Reasoning

and Data Interpretation

Game Based Logical reasoning

Directions (69-72): Answer the questions based on the following
information.
A leading industrialist decided to organize a seminar and invited a few
entrepreneurs. Only the male presenter and the female presenter were
sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along
each side. The persons were seated in such a manner that each person
must be seated such that at least on one side it has a person of opposite
sex. Afzal is opposite of Shabnam, who is not the female presenter. Rajan
has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite of a woman. Mamta is
sitting to the female presenter's right, next to Dheeraj. One person is
seated between Mahesharvi and Unnati, who is not the female presenter.
The men were Afzal, Rajan, Dheeraj and John, while the women were
Mahesharvi, Unnati, Shabnam and Mamta.

69. The eighth person present, John, must be

I. the male presenter.
II. Seated to Shabnam's right.
III. seated opposite of Unnati.
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
Answer (c)

Explanation: From the information given in the question, it is clear John

is the host and is sitting to Shabnam's right.

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70. Which of the following persons is definitely not seated next to a

person of the same sex?
a) Afzal
b) Mahesharvi
c) John
d) Shabnam
Answer (d)
Explanation: Shabnam is sitting next to John and
Dheeraj. So, she is the only person who is not seated next
to a person of the same sex.

71. If Rajan would have exchanged seats with a person four places to his
left, which of the following would have been true after the exchange?
I. No one was seated between two persons of the opposite sex (eg,
no man was seated between two women.)
II. One side of the table consisted entirely of persons of the same sex.
III. Either the host or the hostess changed their seats.
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
Answer (a)

Explanation: If Rajan would have exchanged seat with a person four

places to his left, i. e, Shabnam then option (I) will follow.

72. Who is sitting immediate left to John?

a) Mamta
b) Rajan
c) Afzal
d) None of these
Answer (d)

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Directions (73-76): Answer the following questions based on the

information given below.
Olive, Jack and Mac are market research analyst who trade in
preference share capital of HSBC capital. Olive follows the strategy of
buying at the opening of the day at 10am and selling the whole lot at the
close of the day at 3 pm. Jack follows the strategy of buying at hourly
intervals: 10am, 11 am, 12 noon, 1 pm and 2 pm, and selling the whole lot
at the close of the day. Further; he buys an equal number of shares in each
purchase. Mac follows a similar pattern as Jack but his strategy is
somewhat different. Mac's total investment amount is divided equally
among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the
difference between the sale values at the close of the day less the
investment in purchase. The "return" for each investor is defined as the
ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a
percentage.

73. On a day of fluctuating market prices, the share price of HSBC capital
ends with a gain, ie, it is higher at the close of the day compared to
the opening value. Which trader got the maximum return on that
day?
a) Mac
b) Olive
c) Jack
d) Cannot be determined.
Answer (d)

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Explanation: The trading pattern followed by each of the three traders

is as follows:

The profits of jack and Mac depend upon the share prices at which they
bought. Since, we do not know what the share prices are during different
times of the day we cannot draw any conclusions.

74. On a "boom" day the share price of HSBC capital keeps rising
throughout the day and peaks at the close of the day. Which trader
got the maximum return on that day?
a) Jack
b) Mac
c) Olive
d) Either Mac or Olive
Answer (d)

75. Which one of the following statements is always true?

a) Olive will not be the one with the minimum return.
b) Return for Mac will be higher than that of Jack.
c) Return for Jack will be higher than that of Mac.
d) None of these
Answer (d)

Explanation: As olive buys all his shares at a single point of time,

whereas each of the other two persons buy once every hour. As the
direction of movement of share price is not given, we cannot compare
the returns of olive with any other two persons.
But if we compare the buying strategies of Jack and Mac as follows
Jack: Jack buys the same number of share every time, irrespective
of the price.
Mac: Mac spends the same amount of every time; his buying
depends on the price of share. The more the price of share, the loss the
number of shares he buys. As his strategy is based on the prices,
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whenever the prices are changing, Mac's returns will be more than that
of Jack. But if there is no change in the price' of share. The returns of
Jack and Mac will be the same. Hence, no conclusions can be made.

76. On a "boom" day the share price of HSBC capital keeps rising
throughout the day and peaks at the close of the day. Which trader
got the minimum return on that day?
a) Jack
b) Mac
c) Olive
d) Either Mac or Olive
Answer (a)

Explanation: As the prices are rising continuously the earlier a

person invests. The more profit it would be. Olive invested in the
beginning only and hence received maximum return. Between Jack and
Mac, Mac always invested the same amount but Jack invested more
and more amount towards the end. Hence, Jack got the minimum
return.

Seating arrangement
Directions (77-80): Answer the following questions based on the
statements given below.
(i) There are three houses each on opposite sides of an auditorium.
(ii) These six houses are labeled as A, B, C, D, E and F.
(iii) The houses are of different names, alpha, beta, Gamma, pi, Eros
and Hudson.
(iv) The houses are of different heights.
(v) E, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Alpha house.
(vi) The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Gamma house.
(vii) F, the Pi house, is located between A and D.

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(viii) C, the Erdos house, is exactly opposite to C

(ix) B, the Gamma house, is exactly opposite to F.
(x) A, the Hudson house, is taller than C, but shorter than D and B.

77. What is the name of the house diagonally opposite to the Erdos
house?
a) Gamma
b) Beta
c) Alpha
d) Pi
Answer ( C)

78. Which is the second tallest house?

a) B
b) A
c) D
d) Either (a) or (c)
Answer (d)

79. What is the name of the tallest house?

a) Beta
b) Gamma
c) Pi
d) None of these
Answer (a)

80. Which of the following statement is true?

a) Hudson is diagonally opposite to Pi,
b) Alpha and Pi are not adjacent to each other.
c) Beta and Hudson is diagonally opposite to each other.
d) None is true
Answer (c)

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Explanation (77-80): From the information given in the question we

can prepare a table deciding the colour of each house.

The second step is to arrange the houses on either sides of Road. In

deciding the arrangement of houses information (vii) can be used first
which decides two possibilities as follows.

Now, since, we know the colour of each houses the other informations
can easily be used to decide the final arrangement as below

And last, the arrangement of houses in descending orders of their

heights
EDBACF
EBDACF

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Venn diagram
Directions (81-84): Each question has a set of four statements. Each
statement has three segments. Choose the alternative where the third
segment in the statement can be logically deduced using both the
preceding two, but not just from one of them.

81.
A. No animal laugh. Some who laugh are humans. Some humans are
not animals.
B. All flowers are roses. Some flowers do not smell. Some, which smell
singers, are not roses.
C. Dancers indulge in concert. Those who indulge in concert are
banned. Some who are banned are not dancers.
D. Some intelligent people are scientists. All intelligent people are
doctors. Some doctors are scientists.
a) A and B
b) C only
c) A and D
d) D only
Answer(c)
Explanation:

82.
A. All altruists are man. All heroes are altruists. All man is heroes.
B. No Tennis player is actor. All Tennis players are calm. Some actors
are handsome.
C. All burger are diet. Some foods are burgers. Some foods are diet.
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D. Some island is blue - colored. All islands are weak, Some weak are
blue –coloured.
a) C and D
b) Band C
c) A only
d) C only
Answer (a)

Explanation:

83.
A. Camels are historic creatures. Horses are not Camels. Horses are
not historic creatures.
B. All diplomats are flexible. No flexible people are snakes. No snakes
are diplomats.
C. No gold is silver. No opal is silver. Gold’s are opals.
D. All Cows like leaves bananas. Some birds like leaves. Some birds are
cows.
a) C only
b) B only
c) A and D
d) B and C
Answer (b)

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Explanation:

84.
A. CEO is a hero. Some heroes are rigid. CEO is rigid.
B. Some bird is viviparous. All viviparous are mammal. Some mammal
is viviparous.
C. All heroes are mammal. Some birds are viviparous. Some birds are
mammal.
D. All heroes are rigid; CEO is not a hero; CEO is not rigid.
a) D only
b) C only
c) A only
d) Band C
Answer (b)

Explanation:

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Data Interpretation

Directions (85 - 88): Answer these questions based on the chart given
below.
The information given below indicates the annual sales tax revenue
collections from automobile companies (in crores of rupees) of seven cities
from 2001 to 2006. The values given at the top of each bar represents the
total collections in that year.

85. If for each year, the states are ranked in terms of the descending
order of sales tax collections, how many cities don’t change the
ranking more than once the five years.
a) 1
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b)

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Explanation:
Position Year
Of
States 2001 -02 2002 -03 2003 - 04 2004 - 05 2005 - 06
(Rank)
1 Bangalore Bangalore Bangalore Bangalore Bangalore
2 Chennai Chennai Chennai Chennai Chennai
3 Ahmadabad Hyderabad Hyderabad Hyderabad Hyderabad
4 Hyderabad Ahmadabad Ahmadabad Ahmadabad Lucknow
5 Pune Lucknow Lucknow Lucknow Ahmadabad
6 Lucknow Pune Pune Pune Pune
7 Kolkata Kolkata Kolkata Kolkata Kolkata
From above, we can conclude that option (b) is correct.

86. Which of the following cities has changed its relative ranking most
number of times when you rank the cities in terms of the descending
volume of sales tax collections each year?
a) Hyderabad
b) Lucknow
c) Pune
d) Chennai
Answer: b)

Explanation: On referring to the above table, we can see that Lucknow

is the state which changed its relative ranking most number of times.

87. The percentage share of sales tax revenue of which state has
increased from 2002 to 2006?
a) Chennai
b) Surat
c) Kolkata
d) Hyderabad
Answer: d)
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Explanation: We can say directly on observing the graph that the

sales tax revenue collections for AP have more than doubled from 2002
to 2006.

88. Which pair of successive years shows the maximum growth rate of tax
revenue in Maharashtra?
a) 2005 to 2006
b) 2003 to 2004
c) 2004 to 2005
d) 2002 to 2003
Answer: c)

Explanation: Growth rate of tax revenue can be calculated as:

(Sales tax revenue of correct year – Sales tax revenue
of previous year)
For year 2002-2003 = 78267826
– 7290
= 0.068
8067 – 7826
For year 2003-2004 = 7826
= 0.030
10284 – 8067
For year 2004-2005 = 8067
= 0.274
12034 – 10284
For year 2005-2006 = 10284
= 0.170

Directions (89-92): Answer the questions based on the following

information.
In the following chart, the price of three different types of raw silk
shown in per metres

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89. What is the respective ratio of average price of mulberry in the year
1988, 1991 and 1993 to Muga silk in the year 1990 and 1993?
a) 27 : 102
b) 29 : 105
c) 21: 99
d) 28 : 105
Answer (d)

Explanation: Average price of mulberry in the year 1988, 1991 and

1993 =
Average price of Muga silk in the year 1990 and 1993 =
Required ratio = 28: 105

90. What is the maximum percentage increase in price per

meter of silk over the previous year?
a) 33.33%
b) 85%
c) 50%
d) Cannot be determined
Answer(c)

Explanation: From the graph, it is clear that maximum increase is

registered in mulberry silk from 1991 to 1992 and is equal to
64
100  50%.
4

91. The prices of Mulberry silk in 1990 are approximately what

percent of prices of Muga silk in 1988?
a) 31.25%
b) 42%
c) 41%
d) None of these

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Answer (a)
Explanation: Required % = 100 = 31.255

92. Which type of Silk shows maximum percentage increase in price over
the period?
a) Tasar
b) Mulberry
c) Muga
d) Cannot be determined
Answer (b)

73
Explanation: Percentage increase in Mulberry  100  133.33%,
3
19  10
In Tasar silk it is 100  90%
10
And in Muga it is 20  15 100  33.33%.
15
Thus, we see that maximum percentage increase over
the period is shown by Mulberry.

Directions (93-96): Out of the two bar graphs provided below, one
shows the total number of candidates appeared in an examination over the
years and the other shows the number of candidates selected over the
years.

Number of candidates appeared over the year

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Number of selected candidates over the year

93. During which of the following year the difference between the
numbers of candidates appeared and selected was maximum?
a) 2005
b) 2009
c) 2007
d) 2010
Answer(c)

Explanation: The difference between the numbers of candidates

appeared and selected
For 2005 = (200 - 120) l = 80.
For 2006 = (300 - 225) = 75
For 2007 = (500 - 375) = 125
For 2008 = (400 - 330) = 70.
For 2009 = (600 - 525) = 75.
For 2010 = (460 - 420) = 40.
Clearly, maximum difference was during 2007.

94. What was the difference between the average number of appeared
candidates and average number of selected candidates during this
period (in hundreds)?
a) 72.5

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b) 76.2
c) 77.5
d) 70.5
Answer (c)

Explanation: Average of appeared candidates = (200 + 300 + 500 +

400 + 600 +460) = 410
Average of selected candidates = (120 + 225 + 375 +
330 + 525 + 420) = 332.5
Required difference =(410 - 332.5) = 77.5
95. In which year, the percentage change (compared to the previous year)
in the selected candidates is same as that of appeared candidates?
a) 2005
b) 2007
c) 2008
d) 2009
Answer (b)

Explanation: The percentage change in the selected candidates and

appeared candidates for different years are:
Percentage change in appeared candidates:
For 2006 = x 100 = 50%.
For 2007 = = 66.7%.
For 2008 = 100 = -20%.
For 2009 = 100 = 50%.
For 2010 = 100 = -23.33%.
Percentage change in selected candidates:
For 2006 = x 10 = 87.5%.
For 2007 = x 100 = 66.67%.
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For 2008 = x 100 = -12%.

For 2009 = x 100 = 59.09%.
For 2010 = x 100 = -20%.
Thus, the percentage difference is same during the year
2007.

96. What is the respective ratio of selected candidates in the year 2005,
2007 and 2009 and that of appeared candidates in the years 2006,
2008 and 2010?
a) 53 : 58
b) 51 : 59
c) 41 : 47
d) None of these
Answer (d)

Explanation: Total selected candidates in the year 2005, 2007 and

2009 = (120 +375 + 525) = 1020
Total appeared candidates in the years 2006, 2008 and
2010 =(300 + 400 +460) =1160
Respective ratio = 1020: 1160
51: 58

Directions (96 - 100): Answer the questions on the basis of the

information given below.
In a oligopolistic market structure, there are H.P and Dell two market
players in the market for laptop industry. Dell was introduced in 1991,
while H.P was introduced in 1999. For both these brands, 20% of the
laptops bought in a particular year are disposed off as obsolete exactly two
years later. It is known that 10 Dell laptops were disposed off in 1998. The
following figures show the number of Dell and H.P. in operation from 1996
to 2001, as at the end of the year.

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97. How many H.P. laptops were obsolete by the end of 2001?
a) 10
b) 16
c) 22
d) Cannot be determined from the data
Answer: b)

Explanation: Number of H.P. laptops disposed in 2000  6

Number of H.P. laptops disposed in 2001  10
Total disposed by end of 2001 = 16

98. How many H.P. laptops were purchased in 2000?

a) 44
b) 50
c) 55
d) 64
Answer: b)

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Explanation: In 2000, total number of H.P. laptops = 124

Number of H.P. laptops disposed = 20% of 30 = 6
Number of laptops bought 124 = [50 + 24] 50

99. How many Dell laptops grinders were disposed off in 2001?
a) 0
b) 5
c) 6
d) Cannot be determined from the data
Answer: d)

Explanation: Initial number of Dell laptops not available, hence cannot

be determined.

100. How many Dell laptops were purchased in 2000?

a) 20
b) 23
c) 50
d) Cannot be determined from the data
Answer: a)

Explanation: 20 Dell laptops were purchased in 2000.

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