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2. The concept and practice of Legal Medicine in the Philippines originates from whom?
a. Americans
b. Spanish
c. Japanese
d. Filipinos
5, 6, 7.To be involved in medico-legal duties, a physician must possess sufficient knowledge of:
o Pathology
o Surgery
o Gynecology
o Toxicology
o Other branches of Medicine germane to the issues involved
16. Form of law which is based on immemorial customs and usages. Sometimes referred to as
case law, common law, jurisprudence or customary law.
a. Lex Sripta
b. Lex non Scripta
c. Statutory
d. Inexistent
17. Laws which are defined, codified and incorporated by the law-making body. Ex. Philippine
Laws
a. Non-statutory
b. Lex Scripta
c. Scripted
d. Code of Hammurabi
18. Science of giving a wise interpretation of the law and making just application of them to all
cases as they arise.
a. Forensics
b. Jurisprudence
c. Legalities
d. Research
19. A science and art dealing with prevention, cure and alleviation of disease
a. Jurisprudence
b. Nursing
c. Medicine
d. Phamacy
20. A principle that, when the court has once laid down a principle of law or interpretation as
applied to a certain state of facts, it will adhere to and apply to all future cases where the facts
are substantially the same.
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Stare Decises
d. Starry Deceases
21-25
Civil Law - A
Criminal Law - D
Remedial Law - C
Special Law – B, E
27. The identification, collection, preservation and mode of presentation of physical evidence
a. criminality
b. criminal
c. criminalistics
d. crime logistics
29 – 30
Rough Sketch - B a. sketch for court presentation
7. This is not a good point of identification for it is easily changed from time to time.
a. Tattoo marks
b. Moles
c. Weight
d. Birth marks
8. All statement about the BERTILLON SYSTEM is true, except.
a. The human skeleton in unchangeable after the 10th year.
b.. It is impossible to find 2 human beings having bones exactly like.
c. The necessary measurement can easily be taken with the aid of a simple
instrument.
d. The human skeleton in unchangeable after the 20th year.
9. A complete layout of the bones in their exact locations in the human body is necessary.
All plurality or excess of bones will always suggest that remains belong to more than one
person.
a. All statements are true
b. All statements are false
c. 1st statement is true and 2nd statement is false
d. 1st statement is false and 2nd statement is true
10. How do you measure actual length of a skeleton?
a. Add actual length of skeleton and add 1 to 1 ½ cm for the soft tissue correction
b. Subtract actual length of skeleton to soft tissue correction
c. Divide actual length by 5 and add 3 cm for soft tissue correction
d. No addition is necessary to actual height measurement
11. Determination of age can be determined by the following, except.
a. Appearance of ossification centers
b. Union of bones and epiphyses
c. Dental identification
d. None of the above
12. A special method used to identify a skull in which the negatives of the suspected individual
are superimposed and printed where it may show whether the contour of the skull fits the
contour of the suspected person.
a. Plain photography
b. Superimposed photography
c. Radiographic scintigraphy
d. Immunophotography
13. The following are legal importance of sex determination, except.
a. As an aid for identification
b. Marriage and union of a man and a woman
c. Rights granted by law are different to different sexes
d. None of the above
14. Problems encountered in Sex Determination
a. Gonadal agenesis
b. True hermaphroditism
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
15. Presumptive evidence of sex, except
a. Possession of vagina, uterus and accessories in female and penis in male
b. General features and contour of the face
c. Presence or absence of hair in some parts of the body
d. Voice and manner of speech
16. Conclusive evidence of sex
a. Presence of developed breast
b. Presence of ovary in female and testes in males
c. Muscular development and distribution of fats in body
d. Body figure
17. Hess’ rule states that:
a. For fetus less than 25 cm long (Crown-feel length), get square root of length in cm
= age of fetus in month
b. For fetus more than 25 cm long, divide length by 5 = age in month
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
18. It is a source of blood with bright scarlet in color, leaves the blood vessel with pressure,
and with high oxygen contents.
a. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood
c. Arterial blood
d. Child’s blood
19. A source of blood that does not clot, acidic in reaction owing to mixture with vaginal
mucous, on microscopic examination there are epithelial cells.
a. Menstrual blood flow
b. Venous blood
c. Arterial blood
d. Child’s blood
20. The mother’s blood type is A, the father’s blood type is AB. What will be the possible
blood type of the child?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. All of the above
21. Two methods may be utilized and both should be implied in the examination:
a. Detection of agglutinins
b. Detection of agglutinogens
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
22. The value of procedural test are the following except:
a. It may solve disputed parentage
b. Positive result- not conclusive that the one in question is the offspring.
c. Negative result- conclusive that he is not the child of the alleged parents. Grouping is
true not only with blood but also with other body fluids like saliva, vaginal secretion,
seminal fluid, milk, urine and others
d. None of the above
23. Source of blood at birth, it is thin and soft compared with that of adult, red blood cells are
nucleated and exhibit greater fragility, red blood cells count more than in adult.
a. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood
c. Arterial blood
d. Child’s blood
24. What are the points in identification of the hair?
a. Characteristic of hair
b. Length of hair
c. Color of hair
d. All of the above
26. LMN, a 51-yr old drunkard accidentally shot his gun towards a bystander. Fearing that his
fingerprint may be recovered from the weapon, he decided to scrape off parts of the bulbs of the
distal phalanges of all his fingers. What will most likely happen next?
a. His fingerprint details will be distorted.
b. His fingerprints will reappear and will form another type of pattern.
c. All its details will never reappear.
d. All its details will reappear when the wound heals.
27. This is the hardest substance in the human body which outlasts all other tissues during
putrefaction or physical destruction.
a. Earwax
b. Tears
c. Enamel
d. Muscle fibers
28. ABC is a 30 yr old student who drinks fruit juices and carbonated drinks of approximately
750mL TID since she was 5 years old. Will this reflect in her dentition?
a. No, because excessive drinking of fruit juices and carbonated drinks do not affect
dentition.
b. No, because enamel is hard enough to resist erosion caused by chronic drinking of fruit
juices and carbonated drinks.
c. Yes, because it may cause dissolution of the enamel structure of the front teeth.
d. Uncertain.
30. The action is produced by the entire arm without any rest wherein the source of motion comes
from the shoulder.
a. Finger movement
b. Hand movement
c. Toe movement
d. Whole arm movement
Chapter 4: Medico-Legal Aspects of Death
1. A condition in which the physician and the members of the family pronounced a person
to be dead based on the common sense or intuition.
a. Brain death c. Cardio-Respiratory Death
b. Post-mortem death d. Somatic death
3. This is the state of the body in which there is complete, persistent and continuous
cessation of the vital functions of the brain, heart and lungs which maintain life and health.
a. Brain death c. Somatic death
b. Post-mortem death d. Cellular death
6. The fall of temperature may occur before death in the following conditions except:
a. Cancer c. Yellow fever
b. Phthisis d. Collapse
8. Rigor Mortis
a. Appears immediately after death c. Asymmetrical
b. Involves All muscles d. Determines nature of crime
9. ANTE-MORTEM CLOT
a. Soft in consistency c. Clots can be stripped off in layers
b. Clot with uniform color d. Clot with distinct layer
10. Rigor Mortis appears
a. 3- 6 hours after death c. 6-10 hours after death
b. 3-6 hours before death d. After 24 hours
16. This refers to breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler components associated
with the evolution of foul smelling gasses and accompanied by the change of color of the
body.
a. Autolysis c. Post Mortem
b. Putrefaction d. Death
17. The following are the internal factors that affect the rate of putrefaction except:
a. Age c. Cause of Death
b. Condition of the Body d. Clothing
18. Which of the following factors influences the cahnges in the body after burial?
a. Time elapsed between death and burial and environment of the body
b. Effect of Coffin
c. Condition and type of soil
d. AOTA
19. Factors Influencing the Floating of the Body in Water except:
a. Age c. Conditions of the body
b. Sex d. NOTA
20. Dead body floats in a shallow and stagnant water of creeks or pond sooner than in deep
water in running streams
a. True
b. False
21. This refers to the dehydration of the whole body which results in the shivering and
preservation of the body.
a. Putrefaction c. Mummification
b. Autolysis d. NOTA
22. This refers to the softening of the tissues when in a fluid medium in the absence of
putrefactive microorganism which is frequently observed in the death of the fetus en utero.
a. Mummification c. Maceration
b. Molting d. Saponification
25. The following scenarios are valid for a person to be declared dead for all purposes except:
a. Lost on board a vessel lost during sea voyage, missing airplane, not been heard of for
4 years since loss of vessel or airplane.
b. Person in armed forces who has taken part in war, missing for 4 years
c. Person In danger of death other circumstances and his existence not known 4 years
d. AOTA
29. The following are the effects of the pressure of gases of putrefaction except:
a. Displacement of organs c. Fluid coming out of both nostrils and mouth
b. Bloating of the body d. Floating of the body
30. True statements regarding the effect of free air on putrefaction except:
a. The accessibility of the body to free air will hasten decomposition
b. The optimimum temperture for specific decomposition is 70F to 100F.
c. The organism responsible for putrefaction prefers more the absence of light.
d. Moderate amount of moisture will delay decomposition
6. All are false regarding the persons authorized to perform autopsies and dissection,
except:
a. Health officers, medical officers of law enforcement agencies, medical director
b. Health officers, medical director, members of the medical staff of accredited
hospitals
c. Health officers, medical officers of law enforcement agencies, members of the
staff of accredited hospitals
d. Health officers, members of the medical staff of unaccredited hospitals, medical
officers of law enforcement agencies
7. Code of sanitation:
a. PD 658
b. PD 586
c. PD 856
d. PD 568
15. It is an official state charged with the duty of inquiring into certain matters:
a. Police officer
b. Military officer
c. Inquest officer
d. Marine officer
16. Guidelines in the Performance of Autopsies: Except
A. The physician must have all the necessary permit or authorization to perform such an
examination
B. Examination must be made in a Well-lighted place and it is advisable that no unauthorized
person should be present
C. All steps and findings in the examination must be recorded
D. None of the above
A. Sodium fluoride
B. Thymol
C. Potassium oxalate
D. No preservative is needed
19. Best site for blood collection for toxicology sampling:
A. Abdominal aorta
B. Femoral vein
C. Carotid artery
D. Heart
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Air embolism
D. Pneumothorax
22. Following are true about, Errors or omission in the collection of evidence required for
establishing the time of death: Except
A. Failure to report the rectal temperature of the body;
B. Failure to observe changes that may occur in the intensity and distribution of rigor mortis —
before, during and after autopsy.
C. Failure to observe the ingredients of the last meal and its location in the alimentary tract.
D. Failure to report the oral temperature of the body
23. Following are true about, Error or omission in the collection of evidence for identification:
Except
24. Following are true about Errors or omission in the collection of evidence required for other
medico-legal examination: Except
A. Failure to collect specimens of blood and brain for determination of the contents of alcohol and
barbiturates;
B. Failure to determine the blood group of the dead person if death by violence was associated
with external bleeding;
C Failure to collect nail scrapings and samples of hair if there is reasonable chance that death
resulted from assault.
D Failure to observe changes that may occur in the intensity and distribution of rigor mortis —
before, during and after autopsy.
25. What is the significant finding of bluish- red color of lung during autopsy?
A. Anthracosis.
B. Hemosiderin brown induration
C. Atelectasis
D. Variation due to age, occupation, content of air and blood
26. True about Negative autopsy. Except
A. It is an autopsy which after a meticulous examination with the aid of other examinations does
not yield any definite cause of death.
B. An autopsy wherein no cause of death is found on account of imprudence, negligence, lack of
skill or lack of foresight of the examiner
C. if after all efforts, including gross and microscopic studies and toxicological analyses, fail to
reveal a cause of death
D. None of the above
A. 22.08 gms
B. 26.18 gms
C. 13.26 gms
D. 11.20 gms
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Lateral
D. Anterolateral
A. 250 gms.
B. 300 gms
C. 120 gms
D. 350 gms
17. The following are the internal factors that affect the rate of putrefaction except:
A. Age
B.Condition of the Body
C.Cause of Death
D. Clothing
18. Which of the following factors influences the cahnges in the body after burial?
A. Time elapsed between death and burial and environment of the body.
B. Effect of Coffin
C. Condition and type of soil
D. AOTA
19. Factors Influencing the Floating of the Body in Water EXCEPT:
A. Age
B. Sex
C. Conditions of the body
D. NOTA
20. Dead body floats in a shallow and stagnant water of creeks or pond sooner than in deep
water in running streams
A. True
B. False
21. This refers to the dehydration of the whole body which results in the shivering and
preservation of the body.
A. Putrefaction
B. Autolysis
C. Mummification
D. NOTA
22. This refers to the softening of the tissues when in a fluid medium in the absence of putrefactive
microorganism which is frequently observed in the death of the fetus en utero.
A. Mummification
B. Molting
C. Maceration
D. Saponification
25. The following scenarios are valid for a person to be declared dead for all purposes except:
A. Lost on board a vessel lost during sea voyage, missing airplane, not been heard of for 4 years
since loss of vessel or airplane.
B. Person in armed forces who has taken part in war, missing for 4 years
C. Person In danger of death other circumstances and his existence not known 4 years
D. AOTA
27. This refers to the prominence of the superficial veins with redddish discoloration during the
process of decomposition which develops on both flanks of the abdomen, root of the neck and
shoulder.
A. Extravasation
B. Marbolization
C. Displacement
D. Varicose
29. The following are the effects of the pressure of gases of putrefaction except:
A. Displacement of organs
B. Bloating of the body
C. Fluid coming out of both nostrils and mouth
D. Floating of the body
30. True statements regarding the effect of free air on putrefaction except:
A. The accessibility of the body to free air will hasten decomposition
B. The optimum temperature for specific decomposition is 70F to 100F.
C. The organism responsible for putrefaction prefers more the absence of light.
D. Moderate amount of moisture will delay decomposition
Chapter 7: Special Death
1. Which of the following can be inflicted in judicial death?
A. Cruel
B. Unusual
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
2. Arguments in favor of the death penalty include the following except:
A. Deters potential criminals
B. Reformative
C. Satisfies a sense of justice
D. Society is relieved of expenses to support irreformable criminals
3. What is the only method of judicial death recognized by our civil law?
A. Death by electrocution
B. Death by hanging
C. Death by musketry
D. Death by gas chamber
4. The execution of death by electrocution can take place on the following except:
A. On a working day
B. A day designated by the Director of Prisons
C. 8 hours after notification of the culprit
D. Before sunset
5. What voltage of alternating current is administered during death by electrocution
A. 1500 volts
B. > 1500 volts
C. 2500
D. > 2500 volts
6. This is considered as the most gruesome means of death
A. Death by electrocution
B. Death by hanging
C. Death by musketry
D. Death by gas chamber
7. Which of the following does not describe death by hanging?
A. The platform collapses with the person’s knowledge
B. Imposed by military tribunals
C. Imposed by court marshals
D. Applied to persons guilty of very grave offenses
8. Who can be given a death sentence of death by musketry?
A. Court marshals
B. Military tribunal
C. Military personnel
D. Guilty of very grave offenses
9. What is the most common gas given in administering death by gas chamber?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrogen dioxide
D. Phosgene
10. What is the most common way of beheading?
A. Axe
B. Sword
C. Guillotine
D. Machete
11. What causes death during crucifixion?
A. Extreme pain
B. Traumatic asphyxia
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. None of the above
12. This refers to mutilation of the body using a sharp heavy object until dead.
A. Beating
B. Cutting asunder
C. Flaying
D. None of the above
13. Which of the following does not describe euthanasia?
A. Deliberate and painless
B. Acceleration of death
C. With or without the knowledge of the person
D. None of the above
14. This concept refers to allowing a person to die without the application of any operation or
treatment:
A. Active euthanasia
B. Active euthanasia on demand
C. Orthothanasia
D. Dysthanasia
15. Which of the following is not a way of performing euthanasia?
A. Failure to institute essential management procedures
B. Injection of air into the bloodstream
C. Strong electric currents
D. None of the above
16. If a patient performs euthanasia himself, is this considered a crime?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. It depends on the motive
17. A physician assisted in euthanasia by injecting the patient with a lethal dose of poison. What
is his penalty?
A. Reclusion temporal
B. Prision mayor
C. Arresto mayor
D. None of the above
18. Which of the following is not considered a third degree suicide?
A. “accidental” suicide
B. Psychotic or highly intoxicated
C. Method of self-injury is relatively harmless
D. Provision for rescue can be present
19. Which of the following is not considered self-destruction due to self-negligence?
A. Chronic alcoholism
B. Reckless driving
C. Ignoring medical instructions
D. Suicide
20. A person with terminal illness performed self-destructive acts. What is this kind of suicide?
A. Second degree suicide
B. Third degree suicide
C. Justifiable suicide
D. Self-destruction due to self-negligence
21. Death due to use of drugs and poisons may be:
A. Accidental due to automatism
B. Suicidal due to automatism
C. Both
D. None of the above
22. Which of the following will infer that the death of a person was not due to suicide?
A. History of depression
B. Cadaveric spasm of the hand holding the weapon
C. Signs of struggle
D. Wounds are in areas accessible to the hand
23. Underpaid employees went on to a hunger strike to create sympathy. This is classified as:
A. Suicidal cause of starvation
B. Homicidal cause of starvation
C. Accidental cause of starvation
D. None of the above
24. A child was kept in a closed room and was deprived of food and water as part of a
punishment. This is classified as:
A. Suicidal cause of starvation
B. Homicidal cause of starvation
C. Accidental cause of starvation
D. None of the above
25. How much weight loss from starvation can cause death?
A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
26. Who among the following will most likely survive during starvation?
A. A person stranded in the desert
B. A 5-year old male
C. A 23-year old woman
D. An obese person
27. Which of the following is not a symptom of starvation?
A. Intellect remains
B. Epigastric pain not relieved by pressure after 30-48 hours
C. General decrease in subcutaneous fat after 4-5 days
D. Dilated pupils
28. Causes of death during starvation include the following except:
A. Circulatory failure
B. Brown atrophy of heart
C. Intercurrent infection
D. None of the above
29. Which of the following is not a post-mortem finding of a person who died from starvation?
A. Open and red eyes
B. Pale and soft muscles
C. Edematous lungs
D. Peripheral zone necrosis of the liver
30. Determination of the cause of starvation include:
A. Condition of surroundings
B. History of the person’s life
C. Mental condition
D. All of the above
20. It is usually caused by the impact of a blunt object and may appear as a radiating crack from
the site of the application of force and may involve the base of the cranial fossae.
a. Fissure Fractures
b. Localized Depressed Fracture
c. Penetrating injuries of the skull
d. Diffuse fracture
24. Contusion and hematoma of the scalp may only be appreciated during the
_______________
a. Premortem examination
b. Written examination
c. Postmortem examination
d. None of the above
27. What part of the face that when fractured is a common sequelae of fist blows, and may
cause severe epistaxis and facial deformity.
a. Ears
b. Nose
c. Eyes
d. mounth
28. What part of the face when you see a gunshot wound is occasionally a suicidal case.
a. Ears
b. Nose
c. Eyes
d. Mouth
1. This is the sudden release of potential energy producing a localized increase in pressure.
a. Explosion
b. Burst
c. Damage
d. Radioactive
3. Aside from the immediate traumatic effects, the radiation emitted by the radioactive
substances can also have:
a. General and Specific Effects
b. General and Local Effects
c. Overall and Specific Effects
d. Overall and Local Effects
4. These are uncharged rays and composed of highly penetrating particles and basic element in
nuclei of atoms
a. Alpha Rays
b. Beta Rays
c. Gamma Rays
d. Neutron Rays
5. These are rays composed of short rays with high energy and greater penetrating power
a. Alpha Rays
b. Beta Rays
c. Gamma Rays
d. Neutron Rays
6. The following are places of atomic explosion, except:
a. Aerial explosion
b. Ground explosion
c. Submarine explosion
d. Water explosion
7. Diphenylamine Reagent measurement:
a. Dissolve 1 mg sulfuric acid in 100 ml of 30% acetic acid
b. dissolve 1 g diphenylamine in 100 ml concentrated sulfuric acid
c. dissolve 1 g alpha-naphthylamine in 230 ml of boiling distilled water
d. dissolve 1 g alpha-naphthylamine in 250 ml of boiling distilled water
11. An explosive that easily detonates from heat, flame, spark or percussion
a. Stable Low Order Explosive
b. Unstable Low Order Explosive
c. Stable High Order Explosive
d. Unstable High Order Explosive
12. This compound will not detonate unless they are subjected to detonation
a. Stable Low Order Explosive
b. Unstable Low Order Explosive
c. Stable High Order Explosive
d. Unstable High Order Explosive
13. The _______ may go much deeper or the foreign body may lodge inside the body.
a. Channel wound
b. Shaved wound
c. Shrapnel wound
d. Shattered wound
14. Alcoholic KOH Reagent measurement
a. dissolve 10 g of potassium hydroxide in 50 ml of water
b. dissolve 10 g of potassium hydroxide in 100 ml of absolute alcohol
c. dissolve 10 g of potassium hydroxide in 70 ml of water
d. dissolve 10 g of potassium hydroxide in 90 ml of water
15. General effects under lesser dosage of Atomic Explosion consists of:
a. Localized redness
b. Easy fatigability
c. Disorientation followed coma and death
d. Nausea and vomiting
16. One of simplest way of collecting the gas samples for analysis is to:
a. take a bottle full of water in the area where odor is strongest and pour the water out of
the container
b. take a bottle full of vinegar in the area where odor is strongest and pour it out of the
container
c. take a bottle full of sand in the area where odor is strongest and pour it out of the
container
d. take a bottle full of coke in the area where odor is strongest and pour it out of the
container
22. This refers to a single dose that may be lethal when administered over a long interval of time.
a. Fractional Doses
b. Long-term Doses
c. Extended Doses
d. AOTA
24. General effects under massive dosage of Atomic Explosion consists of:
a. Localized redness
b. Easy fatigability
c. Disorientation followed coma and death
d. Rapid death
26. This refers to muscles and connective tissue being radio-resistant while actively dividing
tissues are radio-sensitive.
a. Sensitivity
b. Resistance
c. Factors
d. Characteristics
27. Ophthalmic local effects of Atomic Explosion consists of:
a. Cataract
b. Posterior uveitis
c. Conjunctivitis
d. blindness
30. The following explosives may cause shrapnel wound, match the correct pair
a. Grenade – arms
b. Mines – underground
c. Bomb – submarine
d. Missiles – airborne
1. Which among the ff. is the Section 2692, Revised Administrative Code?
a. Unlawful manufacture, dealing in acquisition, disposition, or possession of
firearms, or ammunitions therefor, or instrument used or intended to be used in the
manufacture of firearms or ammunition
b. Selling of firearms to unlicensed purchaser
c. Alarms and Scandals
d. Discharge of Firearms
4. Which among the ff. small firearms is also called “SELF-LOADING FIREARM?
a. Revolver
b. Automatic Pistol
c. Rifle
d. Shotgun
6. Which among the ff. are the additional parts for a self-loading firearms?
a. Powder and Bullet
b. Missile and Projectile
c. Cartridge or Ammunition and Firearm
d. Extractor and Ejector
7. The ff. are factors inherent on the missile responsible for injurious effects of firearms,
except:
a. Speed of the Bullet
b. Size and Shape of the Bullet
c. Character of the Missile's Movement in Flight
d. Density of Target
8. The ff. are nature of the target responsible for the injurious effects of firearms, except:
a. Density of Target
b. Length of Tissue Involvement in its Course
c. Nature of the Media Traversed
d. None of the above
9. _________ is the pressure of the bullet on the skin causing it to be depressed and as
the bullet lacerates the skin, the depressed portion will be rubbed with the rough surface
of the bullet.
a. Abrasion Collar
b. Contuso-abradded Collar
c. Marginal Abrasion
d. All of the above
10. __________is one of the destructive mechanisms of a gunshot wherein the bullet
traverses organs filled with fluid (like full stomach, cerebral ventricle, heart chambers), and
the liquid contents within the lumen of these organs are displaced radially away from the
bullet path producing extensive laceration.
a. Temporary Cavity
b. Hydrostatic Force
c. Shock Wave
d. Disintegration of the Bullet
11. The appearance of the gunshot wound of entrance depends on the following except:
a. Caliber of the wounding weapon
b. Range
c. Direction of the Fire
d. There is no exception.
12. The following are generally true about the gunshot wound of entrance except:
a. The higher the caliber of the wounding bullet, the greater will be the size of the
wound entrance
b. The wound of entrance is oval or circular with everted edges, except in near shot
or in grazing or slap wound.
c. Deformity of the bullet modifies the shape of the wound of entrance.
d. High power weapon has more destructive effect as compared with low power
one.
13. Which of the following is true regarding the nature and extent of injury caused by contact
fire?
a. If all gaseous product of combustion is allowed to be spilled out, there will be
more destructive effects on the tissues
b. The volume of gas liberated after explosion of the propellant is dependent on the
amount and nature of the powder.
c. Soft or hollow point bullet has the tendency to flatten and cause less damage to
tissues.
d. Bigger caliber bullet causes less destruction than a smaller one.
14. The following are characteristics of injuries of pressed and firm contact fire on parts of
the body where bone is superficial except:
a. The wound entrance is large, frequently star-shaped.
b. Edges of the wound are always inverted.
c. Areas in the entrance wound are blackened by burns, tattooing and smudging.
d. Singeing of the hair is confined only at the site of wound entrance.
15. The following are characteristics of injuries of pressed and firm contact fire on parts of
the body where bone is deeply located except:
a. Wound is usually large, circular and without radiating laceration.
b. Muzzle imprint is present due to outward slapping of the skin and heat.
c. Bluish color of the deeper structures due to carbon monoxide.
d. Singeing of hair, blackening of the wound due to fouling, burn, and tattooing.
16. Powder tattooing which is dense and has limited dimension is present in
a. Loose contact or near fire
b. Short range fire (1-15cm)
c. Medium range fire (>15 cm , < 60cm)
d. More than >60 cm distance
17. Gunpowder tattooing which is less dense but wider area of distribution is present in
a. Loose contact or near fire
b. Short range fire (1-15cm)
c. Medium range fire (>15 cm , < 60cm)
d. More than >60 cm distance
18. The following are factors which make the wound of entrance bigger than the caliber
except
a. In contact or near fire
b. Deformed bullet before entrance
c. Right angular approach of the bullet
d. Bullet might have entered the skin sidewise
19. Which of the following is an instance where there is no gunshot wound of exit but the
bullet is not found in the body?
a. When the bullet is lodged in the pharynx and was coughed out by the victim
b. When the bullet is lodged in the GIT and was dissolved by gastric acid
c. When the bullet is readily biodegradable upon contact with human tissue
d. When the bullet lodged in the body but disguises as a cartilage
20. A special form of bullet migration when the bullet loses its momentum while inside the
chamber of the heart or inside a big blood vessel and carried by the circulating blood to
some parts of the body where it may be lodged
a. Souvenir bullet
b. Tandem bullet
c. Bullet embolism
d. Bullet thrombus
21. The following are under the classes of shot in a shotgun shell except:
a.) Birdshot
b.) Buckshot
c.) Single Projectile
d.) Double Projectile
22. This is a type of shotgun wound of entrance not more than 6 inches:
a.) Contact or near contact shot
b.) Long range shot
c.) Faraway range shot
d.) Close shot
23. This is a type of test for the presence of gunpowder residues on colored clothing.
a.) Dermal Nitrate Test
b.) Walker’s Test
c.) Schilling’s Test
d.) Jones’ Test
24. What are the factors to consider in Firearm Identification?
a.) Caliber of Weapon
b.) Fingerprints
c.) Serial Number
d.) All of the Above
25. What is the most important procedure when restoring tampered firearm serial number?
a.) Cleaning
b.) Polishing
c.) Etching
d.) Ballistic examination
26. The following are distinct areas of ballistics except
a.) Interior Ballistics
b.) Exterior Ballistics
c.) Terminal Ballistics
d.) None of the Above
27. This instrument is used in firearm identification for the purpose of recovering the test
bullet and shell.
a.) Bullet Recover Box
b.) Comparison Microscopes
c.) Analytic Balance
d.) Caliper
28. In firearm identification, the examiner must take into consideration the following, except?
a.) Caliber of bullet
b.) Presence of foreign elements
c.) Identity marks placed by previous possessor
d.) Fresh blood
29. In this body part, a firearm wound may not cause serious trouble but can become a
potential avenue of infection and may cause marked deformity.
a.) Face
b.) Abdomen
c.) Brain
d.) Extremities
30. Gunshot wound to this body part may cause injury to the trachea and upper bronchi
causing asphyxia or aspiration pneumonia.
a.) Neck
b.) Extremities
c.) Spine
d.) Head
Chapter 14: Thermal Injuries or Death
1) An example of a thermal injury is:
a) Frostbite
b) Scalding
c) Both
d) None of the above
a) True
b) False
c) It depends upon the situation
d) None of the above
a) Vascular spasm
b) Vascular dilatation
c) Both
d) None of the above
a) Bradypnea
b) Tachycardia
c) Decreased metabolism
d) None of the above
5) External post-mortem findings on death or injuries by cold include the following, EXCEPT:
a) Cold stiffening
b) Frost Erythema
c) Delay of rigor mortis
d) None of the above
a) Cold stiffening
b) Frost Erythema
c) Delay of rigor mortis
d) None of the above
7) Audible cracking sound on flexing large joints during post-mortem exam is due to:
a) Contractures
b) Breakdown of fats
c) Breakdown of synovial fluid
d) Breakdown of the epithelial layer
8) Burns may be caused by:
a) Hydrochloric acid
b) X-ray
c) Lightning bolts
d) All of the above
a) Miner’s cramp
b) Fireman’s cramp
c) Sunstroke cramp
d) All of the above
a) Sudden syncope
b) Mydriasis
c) Pale face
d) All of the above
11) A pale face, cold skin, subnormal temperature, dilated pupils, weak and thread pulses with a
sighing respiration are characteristic symptoms of:
a) Heat cramps
b) Heat exhaustion
c) Heat stroke
d) Only A and C
12) A congested face, dry skin, sudden rise in temperature with full and pounding pulses are
characteristic symptoms of:
a) Heat cramps
b) Heat exhaustion
c) Heat stroke
d) Any of the above
a) Heat cramps
b) Heat exhaustion
c) Heat stroke
d) Any of the above
a) Early putrefaction
b) Temperature rise after death
c) Internal organ congestion
d) All of the above
15) Characteristic of scalds:
a) Geographical lesion
b) Clothings are affected
c) Presence of soot in the nasal mucosa
d) All of the above
a) Septic complications
b) Embolus
c) Myocardial Infarction
d) Pain intolerance
17) The term used when a building is set on fire to kill or with homicidal intent
a) Rigor mortis
b) Torch murder
c) Corpus delicti
d) Accelerant
a) Geographical lesion
b) Singeing of hair
c) Presence of soot on nasal mucosa
d) None of the above
a) Jones-Duke Classification
b) Braxton Hicks Classification
c) Dupuytren’s Classification
d) Myasthenic Classification
a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 5
22) Factors influencing the effects of burns in the body include:
24) Proofs that the victim was alive before burned to death:
26) During investigation of death due to thermal injury, identity can be established through:
a) Clothing
b) Size of footwear
c) Property in the pockets
d) All of the above
a) Pugilistic position
b) Side-lying position
c) Fencing position
d) A and C only
28) Internal post-mortem findings in burns and scalds include:
a) Hydrochloric acid
b) Nitric acid
c) Potash
d) Sulphuric acid
a) Flash burn
b) Spark burn
c) Contact burn
d) Oil of Vitriol burn
3. It is a gas law that states that "at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved in a
liquid is directly proportional to the pressure".
a. Henry’s law
b. Genezen’s law
c. 3rd year medicine’s law
d. TRAIN law
4. The following is/ are the effect/s of barotrauma by increased atmospheric pressure
during descent:
a. Euphoria
b. Pulmonary edema
c. Rupture of the blood vessels and haemorrhage
d. All of the Above
5. The following is/ are the effect/s of barotrauma by increased atmospheric pressure
during ascent:
a. Potent emboli in different parts of the body
b. Interstitial emphysema at its chest wall and also at the neck and face
c. Pneumothorax and pulmonary air embolism
d. All of the above
6. It is a process in which nitrogen gas is dissolved in the bodily fluid and produces the
feeling of euphoria.
a. Oxygen narcosis
b. Narcos: Mexico
c. Nitrogen narcosis
d. Love and other drugs
7. The following is/are other effect/s a diver may suffer due to increased atmospheric
pressure during ascent, except:
a. Interstitial emphysema at its chest wall and also at the neck and face
b. Pneumothorax and pulmonary air embolism
c. "bends”
d. None of the above
8. Which of the following statement/s is/are true regarding ascent from a high atmospheric
pressure of the deep sea to the surface atmosphere?
a. If ascent is made gradually, the chances of untoward effects may not be observed.
b. If ascent is made rapidly, the diver may suffer from the effects of the sudden release
of the gases from the body fluid.
c. Both a and b
d. Not applicable
9. These are air emboli during decompression that are lodged in the capillaries of the big
joints causing it to adopt a semi-flexed position.
a. “Bends”
b. Bend and snap
c. Ben&Ben
d. “Snaps”
10. The following are post- mortem findings found if death has been an immediate process,
except:
a. Subcutaneous emphysema and the presence of gas bubbles.
b. Extra-vascular bubbles and hemorrhages in adipose tissues
c. Osteonecrosis
d. generalized visceral congestion
11. The following are post- mortem finding/s found if death has occurred after a lapse of
several days, except:
a. Degeneration and softening of the white matter of the spinal cord.
b. Fat necrosis of the liver.
c. Osteonecrosis.
d. None of the above
15. The following are causes of injuries and fatalities in an aircraft during a flight, except:
a. Altitude
b. Speed
c. Toxins
d. None of the above
.
Chapter 17: Death by Asphyxia
1. What type of asyphyxial death is associated with the failure of the arterial blood to
become normally saturated with oxygen?
A. Anemic Anoxic Death
B. Histotoxic Anoxic Death
C. Anoxic Death
D. Stagnant Anoxic Death
3. Which of the following is a form of violent death brought about by the suspension of the
body by a ligature which encircles the neck and the constricting force is the weight of the
body?
A. Asphyxia by Hanging
B. Strangulation
C. Garroting
D. None of the above.
9. This is a form of suffocation brought about by the impaction of foreign body in the
respiratory passage.
A. Choking
B. Mugging
C. Strangulation
D. None of the above.
11. This is a form of strangulation with the assailant standing at the back and the forearm is
applied in front of the neck.
A. Mugging
B. Choking
C. Hugging
D. None of the above.
12. This is a mode of judicial execution during the 19th century and it is still being practiced in
Spain and Turkey.
A. Mugging
B. Hugging
C. Garroting
D. None of the above.
13. This a form of asphyxial death whereby the constricting force applied in the neck is the
hand.
A. Throttling
B. Manual Strangulation
C. Both A&B
D. None of the above.
14. These are caused by the haemorrhage produced by the rupture of the capillaries on
account of the increase of intra-capillary pressure..
A. Tardieu Spots
B. Petechiae
C. Cephalhematoma
D. None of the above.
15. This is the general term applied to all forms of violent death which results primarily from
the interference with the process of respiration or the condition in which the supply of
oxygen to the blood or to the tissues or both has been reduced below normal level.
A. Strangulation
B. Choking
C. Asphyxia
D. Spanking
16. This is a form of asphyxia wherein the nostrils and mouth has been submerged in any
watery, viscid or pultaceous fluid for a time to prevent the free entrance of air into the air
passage and lungs?
a. Asphyxia by submersion or drowning
b. Asphyxia by breathing irresponsible gases
c. Asphyxia by suffocation
d. Asphyxia by strangulation
17. It is primary cause of death in ordinary submersion in water is asphyxia. The water
interferes with the free exchange of air in the air sacs.
a. Primary Drowning
b. Secondary Drowning
c. Typical Drowning
d. Atypical Drowning
18. Cardiac inhibition following submersion due to the stimulation of the vagus nerve is an
example of:
a. Primary Drowning
b. Secondary Drowning
c. Typical Drowning
d. Atypical Drowning
19. 4 minutes of drowning could:
a. Be fatal
b. Be that the person may still survive
c. Is the average time required for death in drowning
d. Be wrong
20. This is an emergency treatment for drowning with face down, the patient must be in a
prone position. The operator kneels astride the body and exerts pressure on the lower
ribs at the rate of 12 to 15 times a minute.
a. Schaefer’s Method
b. Sylvester’s Method
c. Valsalva Maneuver
d. Aquosum Method
21. This is an emergency treatment for drowning with the patient lying on his back, and the
operator astriding over the body, swinging the arms forward up and then pressing the
chest wall. This is repeated every 3 to 5 seconds.
a. Schaefer’s Method
b. Sylvester’s Method
c. Valsalva Maneuver
d. Aquosum Method
22. All are external findings of the skin of a drowned person, except:
a. “cutis anserine”
b. “goose-skin”
c. “gooseflesh”
d. None of the above
23. All are findings of the respiratory system of a drowned person, except:
a. “Emphysema aquosum”
b. “Edema aquosum”
c. “Champignon d’ocume”
d. None of the above
24. It is a quantitative determination of the chloride content of the blood in the right and left
ventricle of the heart.
a. Gettler’s Test
b. Legal medicine Test
c. Rinne Test
d. Confrontation Test
Chapter 18: Death or Physical Injuries Due to Automotive Crash or
Accident
1. Reckless Driving
A. Human Factor
B. Mechanical Factor
C. Environmental Factor
D. Social Factor
2. Influenced by the condition of the tire, condition of the ground and the amount of weight
of the load.
A. Sked time
B. Mechanical time
C. Skid time
D. Clutch time
3. Impact of the moving vehicle with another vehicle or a fixed object.
A. Second collision
B. First collision
C. Side crash
D. Rear crash
4. Factors Responsible for passenger and driver injury
A. Displacement of the occupant within the vehicle with Impact against structures
B. Ejection
C. Distribution of the passengers in the compartment resulting in direct impact
injuries
D. AOTA
5. Also known as Turn-Turn Impact
A. Rear Impact Crash
B. Roll Over Crash
C. Side Impact Crash
D. Suicidal Crash
6. The backward and forward movement of the head is known as:
A. Whiplash
B. Acceleration-deceleration Injury
C. AOTA
D. NOTA
7. Impact a that may involve the gas tank
A. Rear Impact Crash
B. Side Impact Crash
C. Roll Over Crash
D. Suicide Crash
8. Common impact in street intersection with more severe injuries
A. Front Impact Crash
B. Rear Impact Crash
C. Side Impact Crash
D. Roll Over Crash
9. Crime scene investigation may show the foot still on the accelerator pedal.
A. Rear Impact Crash
B. Side Impact Crash
C. Roll Over Crash
D. Suicide Crash
10. Acute flexion of the trunk with the seatbelt
A. Jacknifing
B. Jackflipping
C. Jacksniffing
D. Jackthebeanstalk
11. First violent contact between the pedestrian and the motor vehicle.
A. Primary Impact
B. Secondary Impact
C. Tertiary Impact
D. Quaternary Impact
12. This usually happens when the driver is drunk or “high”, at night time, in an isolated road
A. Hit-and-run Injuries
B. Run-and-Hit Injuries
C. Side sweep Injuries
D. Run Over Injuries
13. Fracture of the leg bones as a consequence of the primary impact
A. Primary Fracture
B. Bumper Fracture
C. Bright Fracture
D. Shocking Fracture
14. Marks most utilized in the identification of the vehicle in “hit-and-run” cases
A. Tire thread marks
B. Abrasion marks
C. Paint marks
D. Blood, hair or clothing marks
15. A person with at least 0.15% alcohol in the blood
A. Alcoholic drunkenness
B. Drunk driving
C. Driving under influence
D. Social drunkenness
16. Reasons why there is a high percentage of motorcycle crash
A. A motorcycle can attain a low speed compared with other ordinary road vehicle
B. It has a large profile that the driver of other vehicles may fail to see it
C. At low speed and frequently in curves , the cyclist may lose control of the bike
D. NOTA
17. Laceration of the spleen and kidneys with pelvic fracture
A. Side Impact
B. Front Impact
C. Roll Over Impact
D. Rear Impact
18. Injuries sustained when the car is running with high velocity and the steering wheel may
be driven back into the passenger compartment
A. Chest, neck or facial injury
B. Lower extremities injury
C. Laceration or rupture of the heart
D. Laceration of spleen and kidney
19. Defect in the steering wheel, poor brake transmission failure, worn out tires
A. Mechanical Factor
B. Social Factor
C. Human Factor
D. Environmental Factor
20. Space of time the driver perceives an impending danger and the actual application of the
brake
A. Reaction time
B. Realization time
C. Clutch time
D. Brake time
21. Unable to perceive whistle of train or automotive horn
A. Perceptive defect
B. Delayed or sluggish reaction time
C. Mental attitude
D. Environmental Factor
22. Driver may develop an epileptic fit or suffer from a heart attack
A. Episodes
B. Disease
C. Defect
D. Psychosocial
23. May strike the dashboard and windshield
A. Driver
B. Front Seat Passenger
C. Rear Occupant Passenger
D. AOTA
24. Means employed to minimize injury to driver and passenger
A. Use of soft padded dashboard
B. Fender, bumper, and other parts are made of metal
C. AOTA
D. NOTA
25. The victim dies of shock and death that in most cases it is instantaneous , especially
when there is crashing injury on the head
A. Run Over Injuries
B. Secondary Impact
C. Hit-and-run Injuries
D. Primary Impact
26. Primary impact of the vehicle may forcibly open the unlocked door.
A. Ejection of the Occupant
B. Acceleration
C. Mechanical defect
D. Social factor
27. Unrestrained passenger may tumble inside the vehicle and may sustain injuries from
striking the interior of the vehicle
A. Roll Over Crash
B. Rear Impact Crash
C. Side Impact Crash
D. Front Crash
28. Insurance develop a “devil may care” attitude
A. Social Factor
B. Environmental Factor
C. Human Factor
D. Pedestrian
29. Factors responsible to an automotive crash, except
A. Human Factor
B. Environmental Factor
C. Pedestrian
D. NOTA
30. Involve in a Front Impact Crash
A. Driver
B. Front Seat Passenger
C. Rear Seat Occupant
D. NOTA
Chapter 19: Death or Physical Injuries due to Athletic Sports
1. The following are aspects of sports development, except:
a. training method
b. injuries
c. nutrition
d. none of the above
2. This is the psychological concept where people can channel their energy through sports
instead of committing crime.
a. projection
b. regression
c. rationalization
d. sublimation
6. Trauma on the pinna of the ear may produce hematoma with subsequent necrosis of the
auricular cartilage. After healing and scarring process, the pinnas appear to be thick and
irregular, also known as:
a. cabbage ears
b. broccoli ears
c. cauliflower ears
d. none of the above
7. The transitory period of unconsciousness is a result from a blow on the head that may last for
a few seconds or longer. The loss of consciousness should never be dismissed lightly because
recovery may only be an interlude to some serious intracranial changes.
a. cerebral concussion
b. subdural hemorrhage
c. pontine hemorrhage
d. none of the above
8. It is the most common injury which may be localized or extensive. The most common site of
hemorrhage is the middle cranial fossa. A blow on the jaw is transmitted to the temporo-
mandibular joint and then to the middle cranial fossa. Repeated trauma on the skull
cause tearing of the dural emmissary veins.
a. cerebral concussion
b. subdural hemorrhage
c. pontine hemorrhage
d. none of the above
9. It is known to some as boxers hemorrhage that may be the result of severe beating. The
acute flexion and extension of the head during a series of blows may cause the brain stem to be
pinched over the tentorium causing hemorrhage. The effect on the brain of a boxing blow
depends on the location, direction, intensity, velocity and number of blows.
a. cerebral concussion
b. subdural hemorrhage
c. pontine hemorrhage
d. none of the above
10. A blow which causes the rotation of the movable head will cause the inert brain to lag
behind the accelerated skull. This is particularly true to a groggy fighter who has lost control of
his neck muscles in the head which is most susceptible to sudden acceleration.
a. Rotation(angular) Acceleration
b. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
c. Injury to the carotid
d. Impact Deceleration
11. A straight blow on the face may cause focal ischemic lesions, notably in the cerebellum.
Vascular spasm associated with focal ischemia are known to occur after subarachnoid
hemorrhage and often manifest themselves a few days after bleeding.
a. Rotation (angular) Acceleration
b. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
c. Injury to the carotid
d. Impact Deceleration
12. Dissecting aneurysm or occlusion by thrombus are its sequelae. It may induce a reflex
mechanism that causes hypotension and bradycardia associated with decreased blood flow to
the brain.
a. Rotation (angular) Acceleration
b. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
c. Injury to the carotid
d. Impact Deceleration
13. After a knockout, the boxer may hit the rope or mat. A fall on the back typically results in
contre-coup contusions of the orbital surface of the frontal lobes and the tips of the temporal
lobes.
a. Rotation(angular) Acceleration
b. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
c. Injury to the carotid
d. Impact Deceleration
17. In case of death after the injury due to intracranial hemorrhage in boxing, the following are
possible post-mortem findings:
a. Generalized edema of the brain.
b. Presence of intracranial hemorrhage usually subdural.
c. Compression of the brain on account of massive hemorrhage.
d. All of the above
18. Histologically, the following findings may be seen in case of death due to intracranial
hemorrhage:
a. Perivascular and pericellular space.
b. Capillaries show congestion with endothelial swelling.
c. Axons are swollen and poorly stained.
d. All of the above
19. The 3rd person inside the ring that oversees the safety of both combatants.
a. umpire
b. referee
c. arbiter
d. none of the above
21. In the popular boxing movies “Rocky”, this movie had a death in boxing occur.
a. Rocky I
b. Rocky II
c. Rocky III
d. Rocky IV
22. In wrestling, this is a way of winning where the opponent’s shoulders are held on the mat for
3 counts.
a. fall
b. countout
c. submission
d. none of the above
23. In wrestling, this is a way of winning where the opponent is placed in a lock or hold so
painful that he has to tap out.
a. fall
b. countout
c. submission
d. none of the above
24. In boxing, this is a punch that is not too powerful, but only used to gauge the distance and
get a rhythm from your opponent
a. jab
b. straight
c. hook
d. uppercut
25. In boxing, this is a linear punch that is usually followed up after a jab for a one-two combo.
a. straight
b. hook
c. uppercut
d. none of the above
26. A boxing stance of right-handed boxers where they place their left foot forward and right foot
behind.
a. orthodox
b. southpaw
c. triangle stance
d. none of the above
27. A boxing stance of left-handed boxers where they place their right foot forward and left foot
behind.
a. orthodox
b. southpaw
c. triangle stance
d. none of the above
29. A victory in boxing where two out of three judges scored one boxer higher than the other.
a. disqualification
b. unanimous decision
c. split decision
d. none of the above
30. A victory in boxing where all three judges scored one boxer higher than the other.
a. disqualification
b. unanimous decision
c. split decision
d. none of the above
Chapter 20: Child Abuse or Neglected Child
1. Child abuse or neglected child EXCEPT:
a. Battered child
b. Battered child syndrome
c. Maltreatment Syndrome
d. Bad Syndrome
2. Which is true according to Art. 46, The Child and Youth Welfare Code — General
Duties?
a. To not provide him the benefits of moral guidance, self-discipline and religious
instruction
b. To sometimes set a good example
c. To supervise his activities, including his recreation
d. To give him affection, companionship and misunderstanding
3. All are true about child abuse EXCEPT:
a. The physical and mental injury of a child
b. Child’s welfare is harmed
c. Occurs in all levels of economic strata
d. Parents are frequently mature and well-mannered
4. Rights of Parents EXCEPT:
a. Right to provide wants, not needs
b. Right to discipline the child
c. duty to support the child
d. power to correct them
5. Act or Omission affecting the child’s health except:
a. Physical abuse
b. Physical neglect
c. Failure to provide necessities of life
d. Failure to provide shopping spree
6. Causes of Child Abuse or Neglect except
a. Unwanted child
b. Caring Child
c. Abusive parent
d. Child as center of triangle
7. Causes of Child Abuse or Neglect: Unwanted Child except
a. Husband disputing the paternity of the child
b. Illegitimacy
c. Congenital deformity
d. Beautiful child
8. Causes of Child Abuse or Neglect: Abusive Parent except
a. Uncontrollable abuse
b. Bedtime routine
c. Psychotic, pervasively angry parent
d. Compulsive disciplinarian
9. Classification of Child Abuser except:
a. Intermittent Child Abuser
b. One-time Child Abuser
c. Constant Child Abuser
d. Shopping Child Abuser
10. Intermittent Child Abuser except
a. Always batter a child
b. Periodically batter a child
c. Periods of proper are between battering
d. Become sincerely remorseful afterwards
11. Constant Child Abuser except
a. Actually hates his or her child
b. Deliberately beats and miscares for it
c. Periodically batter a child
d. Intention to hurt the child
12. Medical Evidence Tending to Show Injuries Due to Abuse except:
a. Skin imprints
b. Nailpolish
c. Multiple bruises
d. Trauma
13. Child as a center of triangle except
a. Perfect couple
b. Mother with live-in boyfriend
c. Child is placed in the middle
d. Child is a target of the man’s hostility
14. One-Time child abuser except
a. Never repeat the act
b. Manhandle children for a time
c. Always repeat the act
d. More likelihood to repeat the act
15. Ignorant abuser except
a. most tragic
b. result in permanent injury or death
c. parents mean well
d. perfect parent
16. Medical evidences tending to show injuries due to abuse except:
a. cord, chain
b. scars on the face
c. cigarette burn
d. pigtails
17. Sexual abuse except:
a.injury to genitalia
b. conservative
c. injury to peri-rectal
d. peri-vaginal
18. Which is true among Facts to be Considered to Suspect that a Child is a Victim of Abuse:
a. The child is happy
b. The child is emotional, fearful
c. The child watches a movie
d. The child is drawing
19. Which is true among Facts to be Considered to Suspect that a Child is a Victim of Abuse
a. Too many toys
b. Proper school
c. Too many previous unexplained signs of injuries
d. Homework at night
20. Which is true among Facts to be Considered to Suspect that a Child is a Victim of Abuse
a. Cereal for breakfast
b. Poor growth and development of the child.
c. 4 meals a day
d. Consistent allowance
10. Sexual abnormality wherein there is compulsion to peep to see persons undress or perform
other personal activities is called what?
a. Voyeurism
b. Pygmalionism
c. Incendiarism
d. Tribadism
11. Sex organ is anatomically of one sex but the sex characters are that of the opposite sex.
a. Pseudohermaphroditism
b. Intersexuality
c. Exhibitionism
d. Don Juanism
12. Those who abuse through “abuse of confidence” in qualified seduction stated in Art. 337 of
the Revised Penal Code, except;
a. Priest
b. House-servant
c. Domestics
d. School Teacher
13. The intent of the abductor to have sexual intercourse with the woman abducted. This can be
inferred from the acts of the offender.
a. Lewd design
b. Perversion
c. Lustrous urge
d. Nymphomania
14. The penalty given to concubines in Art. 334, Revised Penal Code – Concubinage is what?
a. Destierro
b. Prision correctional
c. Reclussion temporal
d. Arresto mayor
15. A sexual abnormality wherein there is a compulsive desire to rub his sex organ against some
parts of the body of another is called what?
a. Frottage
b. Fetishism
c. Uranism
d. Sodomy
16. Virginity that is conscious of the nature of sexual life but never engaged in sexual
relation.
A. Moral virginity
B. Demi-virginity
C. Physical virginity
D. All of the above
17. Type of breast that is slightly elevated from the chest with no distinct shape.
A. Conical breast
B. Pendulous breast
C. Flat breast
D. Hemispherical breast
18. All of the following body parts are considered in determining the condition of virginity
except.
A. Fourchette
B. Hymen
C. Lungs
D. Breast
24. All of the following are possible cause of death of the male partner related to sexual act
except.
A. Death from natural cause
B. Death due to female defensive acts
C. Death by genital sprain
D. Death in the saddle
25. Which of the following is/are included in the evidence gathering from the rape victim
during medical examination.
A. Maternal history
B. Examination of the ears
C. Examination of the genitalia
D. Feeding history
26. Following are possible cause of death of the female partner during a sexual act except.
A. Accidental strangulation
B. Asphyxia during oral sex
C. Death by pleasure
D. Shock due to physical trauma in rape cases
27. Results from contraction or the pelvic floor, bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernous
muscles.
A. Elongation
B. Multiplication
C. Ejaculation
D. Climax
28. Physiological difference of the female from the male during orgasm.
A. Fake orgasm
B. Numbness
C. Speed of response
D. Both a and b
15. It is administered to induce more oocytes to give the physician privilege of selecting which
among is the best for fertilization?
a. estrogen
b. gonadotropin hormone
c. luteinizing hormone
d. prolactin
16. It is a woman who is not the source of the ovum and in whose uterus the in vitro fertilized egg
is implanted to develop up to full term and delivered child. The surrogate becomes the gestational
mother of the of the child?
a. grandmother
b. biological mother
c. fake mother
d. surrogate mother
17. Reasons why service of the surrogate mother may be necessary, except?
a. Necessity
b. convenience
c. consistent
d. both a and b
18. It is the willingness to be a surrogate mother for the sake of humanity. What type of motivation
is this?
a. maternal consideration
b. paternal consideration
c. altruistic motive
d. arcuate motive
19. Problem that may arise in the agreement in the use of surrogate mother for gestational
purpose; except?
a. If the surrogate mother decided to abort the child contrary to the wish of genetic parents.
b. The surrogate mother may decide to keep the child after birth rather than surrender him to
the genetic parents.
c. The parents decide to abort the child because of the fear that an abnormality may be
present but the surrogate mother refuse to do so.
d. if the payment agreed upon is beyond reasonable cost of pregnancy then it is tantamount
to “rental” for the use of uterus.
20. It is removal of a fertilized egg from a women’s uterus to transfer to another woman’s uterus?
a. parthenogenesis
b. in vitro fertilization
c. manual extraction
d. Embryo Transplantation
21. It is a type of sexual reproduction whereby the nucleus of a female egg is removed which
contains genetic material and replaced with a nucleus of body cell of the same and another
woman.
a. cloning
b. In vitro
c. Artificial insemination
d ectogenesis
22. The conception of a child by a man rather than the husband constituted as adultery and that
therefore the resulting offspring is therefore?
a. legitimate
b. adopted
c. illegitimate
d. aborted
23. A child born in wedlock is considered
a. illegitimate
b. legitimate
c. adopted
d. none of the above
24. If the husband has consented to artificial insemination procedure there arose an implied
contract to support the child although the court considered the child as?
a. illegitimate
b. legitimate
c. adopted
d. none of the above
25. When the child is born within marriage by whatever legal method, there is legal presumption
that both marriage partners are the child’s?
a. guardians
b. angels
c. parents
d. grandparents
26. True about Consent on A.I.D, except?
a. In A.I.D the consent and release for any future claim must be obtained by the physician
from all parties in writing.
b. The consent of the child is necessary to avoid being held liable for an assault.
c. The consent of the husband is necessary to avoid the wife being charged with adultery, or
to ward the question of legitimacy of the child, issues of divorce, separation or inheritance.
d. The consent and release of the donor should be obtained for the unrestricted use of semen
supplied and also certify in writing that he will make no effort to ascertain the identity of the
couple involved. If the donor is married, the consent of the wife is not obtained to the giving of
semen because her marital interest must be affected by the donation.
27. True about status of the child born by A.I, except?
a. In A.I.H there is no doubt that the child is a legitimate child of the husband because the
semen came from him.
b. In A.I.D., with the consent of the husband, the child born is considered as legitimate
although the semen is not from the husband.
c. In A.I.D., without consent or if it is against the will of the husband, the child must be
considered illegitimate, specifically child born because of adultery.
d. none of the above
28. Define as less than 10-15 million sperm per cc of semen with infertility of long duration?
a. oligospremia
b. infertility
c. sterility
d. ectogenesis
29. what is the tittle of chapter XXVIII?
a. Paternity and filiation on non-conventional methods of procreation
b. Maternal and filiation on non-convention methods of procreation
c. Paternal and filiation on non-conventional methods of procreation
d. Maternity and filiation on non-conventional methods of procreation
30. Paternity and filiation on non-conventional methods of procreation is what chapter?
a. XXVI
b. XVIII
c. XXXVIII
d. XXVIII
6. The following marriages shall also be void from the beginning, except
A. Between stepfathers and stepdaughters, and stepmothers and stepsons
B. Between the adopting father or mother and the adopted, between the latter and the
surviving spouse of the former, and between the former and the surviving spouse of
the latter
C. Male of the age of sixteen years or upwards, and any female of the age of fourteen
years or upwards
D. Between the legitimate children of the adopter and the adopted
8. Under Art. 5 of the Family Code, legal capacity has three components, except
A. Age requirement
B. Sex of the parties
C. Solemnizing authority
D. Absence of legal impediments mentioned in Articles 37 and 38
10. A marriage may be annulled for any of the following causes, except
A. The former husband or wife believed to be dead was in fact living
B. Either party was of sound mind
C. The consent of either party was obtained by fraud
D. The consent of either party was obtained by force or intimidation
11. Any of the following circumstances shall constitute fraud, except
A. Non-disclosure of assets and liabilities
B. Non-disclosure of the previous conviction of the other party of a crime involving moral
turpitude, and the penalty imposed was imprisonment for two years or more
C. Misrepresentation as to the identity of one of the contracting parties
D. Concealment by the wife of the fact that at the time of the marriage, she was pregnant
by a man other than her husband.
13. Damages may be awarded in the following cases when the marriage is judicially annulled
or declared void from the beginning, except
A. If there has been consent and the partners are on a legal age in contracting the
marriage
B. If there has been fraud, force or intimidation in obtaining the consent of one of the
contracting parties
C. If one party was insane and the other was aware thereof at the time of the marriage
D. If the person solemnizing the marriage was not legally authorized to perform
marriages, and that fact was known to one of the contracting parties, but he or she
concealed it from the other
14. A petition for legal separation may be filed, except
A. For adultery on the part of the wife
B. For concubinage on the part of the husband
C. An attempt by one spouse against the life of the other
D. None of the above
15. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The husband and wife are obliged to live together, observe mutual respect and
fidelity, and render mutual help and support.
B. The spouses shall be entitled to live separately from each other if they want to
C. In every case the court must take steps, before granting the legal separation, toward
the reconciliation of the spouses
D. The husband is the administrator of the conjugal property
16. Defined as either party was already married to another person at the time of the
marriage
A. Bigamy
B. Monogamy
C. Fraud
D. None of the above
17. Defined as one of the spouses agreed to the marriage based on the lies or
misrepresentation of the other
A. Bigamy
B. Monogamy
C. Fraud
D. Mental illness
18. A legal dissolving, termination, and ending of a legally valid marriage. It ends a legal
marriage and declares the spouses to be single again.
A. Divorce
B. Annulment
C. Dissolution
D. Separation
19. A legal ruling that erases a marriage by declaring the marriage null and void and that the
union was never legally valid.
A. Divorce
B. Annulment
C. Dissolution
D. Separation
20. It is a special contract of permanent union between a man and a woman entered into in
accordance with law for the establishment of conjugal and family life
A. Union
B. Marriage
C. Legal contract
D. None of the above
21. The following marriages shall be void from the beginning, except
A. Those solemnized without a marriage license
B. Those where one or both contracting parties have been found innocent of the killing
of the spouse of either of them
C. Bigamous or polygamous marriages
D. Between ascendants and descendants of any degree
26. A legal remedy available to parties in a valid but failed marriage for the purpose of
obtaining a decree from court entitling him or her to certain reliefs such as the right to
live separately from each other without affecting the marital bond that exists between
them
A. Divorce
B. Annulment
C. Legal Separation
D. Dissolution
27. Refers to the inability of the male organ to copulation, to perform its proper function.
A. Sterility
B. Impotence
C. Flaccidity
D. Dyspareunia
18. In order that such impotency may be ground for the annulment of marriage, the following
requisites must be present:
a. One of the parties to the marriage is not aware of the existing impotency of the
other party.
b. The impotency must be present at the time of the celebration of marriage.
c. Both
d. None of the above
19. Impotency may be a defense in rape:
a. An accused in the crime of rape may claim of his inability to commit the offense on
account of his impotency.
b. Medical evidence must be shown in support of his allegation.
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
20. Impotency may be a cause for the development of suicide tendency:
a. A person who is not in a capacity to give gratification to the sexual partner may
consider himself to be “biologically dead”
b. This results in humiliation, or a feeling of uselessness.
c. He may then result to self-destruction.
d. All of the above
21. Methods of sterilization in male except:
a. Orchiectomy c. All of the above
b. Vasectomy d. None of the above
22. Methods of sterilization in female except:
a. Oophorectomy c. Salpingectomy
b. Tubal ligation d. None of the above
23. Method of sterility wherein the ovary is removed.
a. Oophorectomy c. Salpingectomy
b. Tubal ligation d. None of the above
24. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Before puberty there is no spermatozoa in the seminal fluid, hence sterile.
b. The source of sperm production can be eliminated by removing both ovaries.
c. The uterus itself can be removed.
d. None of the above
25. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Some females manifests vaginismus due to actual pain on contact or to the fear of
pain on sexual intercourse.
b. Diseases of the brain and of the spinal cord may yield to permanent loss of
impotency.
c. Mumps occasionally leads to the atrophy of the sex organs.
d. None of the above
26. An impotent may resort to:
a. Uranism
b. Cunnilingus
c. Homosexuality
d. All of the above
27. Which of the following statements is false?
a. A person may be impotent but not sterile.
b. A person may be sterile but not impotent.
c. Both conditions may not exist at the same time.
d. None of the above
28. Art. 85, Civil Code states, except:
a. Marriage may only be annulled for existing conditions at the time of marriage.
b. The impotency must be present at the time of the celebration of marriage.
c. Such impotency must be absolute.
d. Children born after one hundred and eighty days following the celebration of
marriage, and therefore three hundred days following in dissolution or the
separation of the spouses shall be presumed to be legitimate.
29. Art. 255, Civil Code states, except:
a. Against this presumption no evidence shall be admitted other than that of physical
impossibility of the husband’s having access to his wife within the first one hundred
and twenty days of the three hundred days which preceded the birth of the child.
b. This physical impossibility may be caused by impotence of the husband.
c. This physical impossibility may be caused by serious illness of the husband.
d. None of the above
30. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Hormonal dysfunction may also lead to temporary or permanent impotency.
b. Sterility is the loss of power of procreation and is absolutely independent of
whether or not impotence is present. A man or a woman may be sterile and yet not
impotent, and impotent yet not sterile.
c. Before puberty there is no spermatozoa in the seminal fluid, hence sterile, but as
age increases, fertility also increases.
d. None of the above
5. Several test types are prepared corresponding to every age in months and these are
answered by the person examined.
a. Equality test
b. Intelligence quotient
c. Equality Quotient
d. Intelligence test
7. Malingering is built up out of pure imagination and does not have the slight basis of fact.
a. Feigned Malingering
b. Fictitious Malingering
c. Both
d. Neither
8. This is a form of malingering whereby something really exists as a fact but is converted
to a more serious disability or injury, or to an exaggeration of the real
a. Feigned Malingering
b. Fictitious Malingering
c. Both
d. Neither
9. It is the below-normal intellectual functioning which originates from the arrest or
incomplete development of the mind during the development period below the age of 18.
a. Mental deficiency
b. Idiot
c.Malingering
d. Trisomy
10. This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a person is performing an act while in the
state of natural sleep.
a. Idiot
b. Trisomy
c. Malingering
d. Somnambulism
13. A keen observation of the behavior coupled with the history and physical findings
probably are the most reliable thing to do to test for this
a. Idiot
b. Trisomy
c. Malpractice
d. Feigning insanity
17. All of the statements are correct regarding the legal importance of insanity
determination in the civil code EXCEPT:
a. Insanity is a restriction on the capacity of a natural person to act
b. Insanity at the time of marriage of any or both parties is a ground for the
annulment of marriage
c. An insane cannot give consent to a contract
d. Insanity is an exemption of the incapacitated person from certain
obligations
19. In the revised penal code, these exempts a person from criminal liability
EXCEPT:
a. An imbecile or an insane person acting during his lucid state
b. When a convict shall become insane or an imbecile after final sentence has been
pronounced, the execution of said sentence shall be suspended.
c. If at any time the convict shall recover his reason, his sentence shall be
executed, unless the penalty shall have prescribed in accordance with the
provision of this Code
d. None of the above
20. Under this rule, the word 'incompetent" includes. . .those who are of unsound mind, even
though they have lucid intervals.
a. Revised penal code
b. Rules of Court
c. Court of law
d. Rules of law
21. Who may petition for appointment of guardian for resident?
a. Relative
b. Federal administration of the United states
c. Director of Health
d. All of the above
23. All are factors having positive correlation with the development of mental disorder
EXCEPT:
a. Heredity
b. Impaired vitality
c. Incestuous marriage
d. Love
26. These are steps in the diagnostic procedure of mental affection EXCEPT:
a. Obstetric history
b. Physical examination
c. Mental examination
d. Anamnesis
27. According to the revised penal code, these are mitigating circumstances to
criminal liability EXCEPT:
a. That the offender is deaf and dumb, blind or otherwise suffering from physical
defect
b. Illness of the offender would diminish the exercise of the will-power of the offender
without however depriving him of consciousness of his acts.
c. Any other circumstance of a similar nature and analogous to those above
mentioned
d. None of the above
28. This rule states that “A person is exempted from criminal liability if he is totally deprived of
his understanding and memory and knows no more than an infant, a brute, or a wild beast
of what he is doing”
a. Delusion Rule
b. Wild beast rule
c. McNaghten’s Rule
d. Lawyer Rule
16. These substances are simultaneously formed during the fermentation process. It imparts
the “odor of alcohol” among drinkers.
a. Sugar
b. Esters
c. Congeners
d. Carbon dioxide
17. A person who habitually drinks any intoxicating alcoholic beverage. While under the
influence of alcohol, he is either harmful or a cause of harm or serious annoyance to
others.
a. Habitual drunkard
b. Drunkard
c. Both
d. None of the above
20. Contracts entered into during a lucid interval are valid. Contracts agreed to in a state of
drunkenness or during a hypnotic spell are voidable.
What law regarding alcoholism is this?
21. To be drunk is not punishable, but if alarm and scandal happens in a public place while
at the state of intoxication, it is punishable.
What law regarding alcoholism is this?
22. The state may promulgate laws which may prevent people of lower degree of civilization
from drinking scientifically manufactured, highly spirited liquor. The reason is to promote
peace and order.
What law regarding alcoholism is this?
a. 30-60 minutes
b. 20-25 minutes
c. 10-15 minutes
d. 25-40 minutes
a. Drunk
b. Slight inebriation
c. Moderate inebriation
d. Very drunk
a. Irregular behavior
b. Decreased salivation
c. Hesitancy of speech with impaired articulation
d. Alcoholic smell of the breath or of the vomitus.
27. The subject stands straight with the heels together and with eyes closed for at least 1
minute. If not drunk, he will not sway to the front or to the sides. If drunk, the body will be
unstable even without any existing disease. What physical test is this which is performed
to determine drunkenness?
a. FABER test
b. Trendelenburg test
c. Romberg’s test
d. McMurray’s test
28. There is flushing of the face, with exaggerated mood, however the person is still able to
control his behaviour. There are no signs of mental impairment, incoordination of
movement and difficulty of speech. What degree of intoxication is this?
a. Moderate inebriation
b. Coma
c. Drunk
d. Slight inebriation
a. Blunting of judgment
b. Enhanced proprioception or “sixth sense”
c. Disturbed recall memory
d. Blunted moral standard
30. These factors cause slower rate of absorption of alcohol in the stomach or intestine,
EXCEPT:
a. Fatty food
b. Gastric atony
c. Sufficient amount of food and water in the stomach
d. Subtotal gastrectomy
29. One of the ff. are the tasks/powers of the Professional Regulation Commission
a. To administer and conduct licensure examinations to various boards
b. To give recommendation to the President on matters of security
c. To promulgate rules and regulations that concerns with inflation
d. To maintain exchange rate of foreign currencies
30. All of the ff. are the tasks/powers of the Professional Regulation Commission, except
a. Prescribe or revise collegiate courses as a prerequisite in admission to practice the
profession
b. Exercise general supervision of the various Board of profession
c. Fix and collect amount charged for a respective licensure examination
d. Appoint the Secretary of Health
1. It is privilege or franchise granted by the state to any person to any person to perform medical
acts upon compliance with law (Medical Act of 1959) as amended promulgated by the state
to protect its citizenry from unqualified medical practitioners.
A. Practice of Health Care
B. Practice of Nursing
C. Practice of Medicine
D. Practice of Rehabilitation
2. Which of the following are the Acts constituting the Practice of Medicine?
A. Who shall for compensation, fee, reward in any form paid to him directly or through
another, or even without the same, physically examine any person, and diagnose,
treat, operate or prescribe any remedy for human disease, injury, deformity, physical,
mental, psychical condition or any ailment, real or imaginary, regardless of the nature
of the remedy or treatment administered, prescribed or recommended;
B. Who shall by means of signs, cards, advertisement, written or printed matter, or
through the radio, television or any other means of communication, either offer or
undertake by any means or method to diagnose, treat, operate, or prescribe any
remedy for human disease, injury, deformity, physical, mental or psychical condition;
C. Who shall falsely use the title of M.D. after his name, shall be considered as engaged
in the practice of medicine
D. All of the above
6. It is a direction of remedy or remedies for a disease and the manner of using them; a
formula for the preparation of a drug and the medicine.
A. Treatment
B. Diagnosis
C. Operation
D. Prescription
7. Which of the following is/are acts of diagnosis and treatment considered not to be practice
of medicine?
A. The use of an electric machine by barbers giving treatment to ones who sought to
beautify his body rather than to secure treatment of a disease or deformity
B. The administration of anesthesia by a licensed nurse under the supervision of a
physician in connection with a surgical operation
C. A only
D. A and B are both correct
8. The following are NOT considered by the provisions of law to constitute the practice of
medicine (Sec 11, Art III, Medical Act of 1959 as amended) except:
A. Any legally registered dentist
B. Who shall falsely use the title of M.D. after his name, shall be considered as
engaged in the practice of medicine
C. Any duly registered optometrist
D. Any medical student duly enrolled in an approved medical college or school, or
graduate under training, serving without any professional fee in any government or
private hospital, provided he renders such service under the supervision and control
of a registered physician
9. The following statements are true except?
A. If a person acted in pursuance of his religious belief and the act is in accordance with
the tenets of the church he professes, then his act is not a practice of medicine
B. If the act is deceitful or not in accordance with the principles of the church, then the
act of diagnosis and/or treatment becomes illegal.
C. The Medical Act exempts faith healing, from the definition of the acts which
constitute the practice of medicine. But there is constitutional guarantee to
religious freedom.
D. Freedom to believe and freedom to act in accordance with one’s belief are
constitutional guarantees to religious freedom.
10. It is known to be a miracle cure and its scientific explanation is “balancing of energy
forces” in the body.
A. Acupuncture
B. Chiropractic
C. Yoga
D. Meditation
11. The statements below about Acupuncture are false except:
A. It primary concern is not with the relief of pain when applied.
B. The technique is based on science, and performance should be done in caution.
C. The use of the experimental devices used in acupuncture must be done under
the direct supervision of a licensed physician or dentist
D. Acupuncture is said founded more in science than mystery.
12. The stand of Philippine Medical Association on Acupuncture as a mode of treatment:
A. It is allowed for the licensed physician to utilize acupuncture in their practice
B. Philippine Medical Association still does not believe that acupuncture is still in the
experimental stage
C. A only
D. Both A and B are correct
13. No person shall engage in the practice of medicine in the Philippines unless:
A. He is atleast 18 years of age
B. He satisfactorily passed the corresponding Board Examination
C. Is not yet a holder of a valid Certificate of Registration duly issued by the Board of
Medicine
D. All of the above
14. The following are qualified to practice medicine in the Philippines:
A. Those who have complied with the prerequisites to the practice of medicine in
accordance with Sec. 8, Art. III, Medical Act of 1959
B. “Balikbayan” Physician pursuant to Presidential Decree 541
C. Medical Students or graduates under training under the direct supervision of a
registered physician
D. All of the above
15. This term refers to foreign physicians may be allowed to practice medicine in the
Philippines, provided that Filipino physicians are also allowed to be admitted to practice
medicine in a foreign country:
A. Reciprocity
B. Endorsement
C. Validity
D. Credibility
16. This term refers to foreign physicians may be allowed to practice medicine in the
Philippines if the qualifications of those allowed in a foreign country are substantially
similar to that of the Philippines, provided the same privileges are granted to Filipino
Physicians in that country.
A. Reciprocity
B. Endorsement
C. Validity
D. Credibility
17. “Balikbayan” Physician can practice medicine in the as long as they fulfill which of the
following provisions?
A. Professionals of good standing prior to their departure and in their adopted country;
B. Prior to the practice of their profession they shall have registered with PRC and paid
their professional fee;
C. A only
D. A & B are both correct
18. The following are limited practitioners of healing art with specific licensure laws:
A. Naturopathist
B. Occupational Therapist
C. Osteopathist
D. Neuropathis
19. The following are limited practitioners of healing art without specific licensure laws:
A. Physical Therapist
B. Optometrist
C. Midwife
D. Naturopathist
20. It refers to one whose personality starts at birth and ends in death
A. Natural Person
B. Holistic Person
C. Judicial Person
D. Medical Person
21. It refers to one who is created by law, whose life attributes are those provided by law:
A. Natural Person
B. Holistic Person
C. Judicial Person
D. Medical Person
22. This is an obligation of any physician who has been authorized to practice medicine must
actually or impliedly take his Hippocratic Oath as it has been accepted by the medical
profession universally.
A. Obligations Imposed in the Administrative Oath
B. Obligations Imposed in the Bureaucratic Oath
C. Obligations Imposed in the Hippocratic Oath
D. Obligations Imposed in the Licensure Oath
23. This oath contains the following obligations imposed on a person before admission to the
practice of medicine.
A. Obligations Imposed in the Administrative Oath
B. Obligations Imposed in the Bureaucratic Oath
C. Obligations Imposed in the Hippocratic Oath
D. Obligations Imposed in the Licensure Oath
24. This is kind a medical practice wherein the physician attends to all kinds of injuries,
deformities, and may institute all forms of treatment and technique used, may be limited
only by their availability or by his conscious incompetency.
A. Specialist Practice
B. Diplomate Practice
C. Fellowship Practice
D. General Practice
25. This is a kind of medical practice wherein a physician who has undergone special training
in certain field of medicine may only practice on cases within the scope of his
specialization.
A. Specialist Practice
B. Diplomate Practice
C. Fellowship Practice
D. General Practice
26. A kind of medical practice where a physician entertains patients only in a hospital
A. Clinical Practice
B. Hospital Practice
C. Emergency Practice
D. Rehabilitation Practice
27. A kind of medical practice where the physician has his own private clinic where he attends
to his patients.
A. Clinical Practice
B. Hospital Practice
C. Emergency Practice
D. Rehabilitation Practice
28. A kind of medical practice wherein a physician Practices alone without any relationship
with other physicians and Makes his own personal decisions with regard to the diagnosis
and treastment
A. Group practice
B. Dual practice
C. Individual practice
D. None of the above
29. Which of the following are forms of Group practice?
A. Employer-employee relationship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. All of the above
30. Other requirements in order to practice medicine except
A. Registration Fee
B. Practicing Fee
C. Sign-board Fee
D. Professional License Fee
1. Based on mutual consent on both party
a. Consensual
b. Fiduciary
c. Both
d. None of the above
2. Based on mutual trust and confidence in one another
a. Consensual
b. Fiduciary
c. Both
d. None of the above
e. contract
3. It is the meeting of minds between two persons wherein one binds himself with respect
to the other to give something or render some services
a. Contract
b. Faith
c. Hope
d. Love
4. Requisites of the Contractual Relationship
a. There must be consent of the contracting parties
b. There must be an object which is the subject of the matter of the contract
c. There must be a cause or consideration
d. All of the above
5. Consent of the contracting parties means
a. It is the agreement between both parties that the nature of medical services
to be rendered must be voluntary, and consent obtained through mistake,
violence, intimidation, undue influence, or fraud will make the contract
voidable.
b. The object or subject of the matter is the medical service which the which the
patient wants to be rendered to him by his physician.
c. The cause or consideration is the factor that instigated the physician to render
medical service. The fact that the patient cannot pay for the services does not
affect the existence of the contract.
d. None of the above
6. Nature of the Relationship, except
a. Consensual
b. Fiduciary
c. Both
d. None
7. Forms of Physician-Patient Contractual Relation
a. Expressed Contract
b. Implied Contract
c. Both
d. None
8. When the nature and extent of the medical service is explicitly stated orally or in written.
a. Expressed Contract
b. Implied Contract
c. Relationship contract
d. Friendship contract
9. Agreement that is inferred by law as a matter of justice and reason.
a. Expressed Contract
b. Implied Contract
c. Relationship contract
d. Friendship contract
10. Instances when there is no Physician-Patient Relationship
a. A pre-employment physical examination by the physician for the purpose of
determining whether the applicant is suitable for employment does not create a
Physician-Patient relationship.
b. Physical examinations for the purpose of determining eligibility for insurance does
not create Physician-Patient relationship.
c. When the physician was appointed by a trial court to examine the accused and to
report whether he was insane, the relation did not exist.
d. All of the above
11. Patterns of Physician-Patient relationship
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. All of the above
12. There is no interaction between physician and patient because the patient is unable to
contribute activity
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. None of the above
13. When the patient is in pain, anxiety and other distressing symptoms, he seeks help and
is ready to cooperate
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. None of the above
14. The physician usually feels that the patient is uncooperative while the patient thinks that
the physician lacks sympathy and understanding.
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. All of the above
15. Duties and Obligations imposed on the physician in the Physician-Patient Relationship,
except:
a. Possessing the knowledge and skill expected in a physician.
b. Using his knowledge and skill to choose patients and ask for money.
c. Using his knowledge to exercise best judgement.
d. Observing utmost good faith.
16. The Physician-Patient relationship implies:
a. That the treatment instituted will be 100% successful.
b. That the treatment will produce the result that the patient wants.
c. That there is a guarantee that the physician will not commit any error.
d. None of the above.
17. Guarantees provided by the physician-patient relationship:
a. There are no promises or guarantees in this relationship.
b. The treatment will benefit the patient.
c. The treatment will not harm the patient.
d. The treatment will be successful.
18. Obligations of the patient towards the physician:
a. Provision of an honest medical history.
b. Cooperation in the course of care and management.
c. Statement of understanding when given necessary instructions.
d. All of the above
19. Termination of the physician-patient relationship, except:
a. When the patient is dead.
b. It can never be terminated.
c. When the patient called for another physician.
d. When the patient already recovered.
20. Medical service which the patient may solicit from his physician
a. specific tests or examinations
b. diagnosis of his condition
c. treating his disease
d. All of the above
21. Termination of the physician- patient relationship
a. Recovery of the patient from the condition for which he was receiving treatment
or when the physician considers that his further services will no longer beneficial
to the patient.
b. Withdrawal of the patient.
c. Discharge of the physician by the patient.
d. All of the above
22. Termination of the physician- patient relationship
a. Death of the patient.
b. Death or incapacity of the physician.
c. Fulfilment of the obligations stipulated in contract.
d. All of the above
23. Termination of the physician- patient relationship, except
a. In cases of emergency, when the attending physician or the physician of choice
by the patient is already available, or whenever there is cessation of the condition
of emergency.
b. Patient’s dog died
c. Expiration of the period, if the contract of medical service is for a specific period.
d. Mutual agreement between the physician and the patient that the physician-
patient relationship is terminated.
24. Terms which are not included in the Physician-Patient Relationship
a. It does not imply any promise or guarantee by physician that the treatment will be
successful
b. It does not imply any promise or guarantee that the treatment will benefit the
patient
c. It does not imply any promise or guarantee that the treatment will produce certain
result
d. All of the above
25. Duties and Obligations imposed on the physician in the Physician-Patient Relationship,
except
a. He should possess the knowledge and skill of which an average physician is
expected
b. He should use such knowledge and skill with ordinary care and diligence
c. He can make fun of his patients
d. He has the duty to observe the utmost good faith
16. It is an act or process of taking care or seizing property, by virtue of a writ or other
judicial order, and bringing the same into the custody of the law.
a. Attachment
b. Adjustment
c. Judgment
d. Detachment
17. No person can be appointed municipal or city health officer, member of the medical staff
of a hospital, colony, etc unless he is duly medical practitioner.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. NOTA
18. In this theory, each member has a property interest in the medical society to protect
against a loss of that right without due process of law.
a. Contract theory
b. Property theory
c. General theory
d. Big bang theory
19. In this theory, the members enter into contract expressed in the constitution and by-laws
to observe the duly adopted rules of the association.
a. Contract theory
b. Property theory
c. General theory
d. Big bang theory
20. Membership in the medical society may be
a. General and specific
b. Simple and complex
c. Professional and nonprofessional
d. Voluntary and involuntary
21. This doctrine means no one must enrich himself at the expense of another and it is
based on the sound philosophy that “service rendered service paid”.
a. Res Ipsa Loquitur
b. Force Majuere
c. Respondeat superior
d. L’enrichissement sans cause
22. True about medical societies:
a. promote camaraderie, esprit-de-corps and cohesiveness among its members
b. enhances the sharing the knowledge and keeping abreast with the development of
medical science
c. increases the status and prestige of physicians
d. AOTA
23. Medical fee in which the physician may enter into a contractual relationship with the
patient and stating the value of such medical service, either orally or in writing.
a. Simple Contractual Fee
b. Retainer Fee
c. Contingent Fee
d. Dichotomous Fee
24. The value of the medical professional fee depends upon the success or failure of the
treatment instituted.
a. Simple Contractual Fee
b. Retainer Fee
c. Contingent Fee
d. Dichotomous Fee
25. The physician may require the services of a third person who may act as an agent to
solicit patients.
a. Simple Contractual Fee
b. Retainer Fee
c. Contingent Fee
d. Dichotomous Fee
26. Also called as Fee Splitting
a. Simple Contractual Fee
b. Retainer Fee
c. Contingent Fee
d. Dichotomous Fee
27. Also called as “Pakyaw System” and the amount is dependent on what will be the
remaining balance when all other expenses have been paid.
a. Simple Contractual Fee
b. Contingent Fee
c. Dichotomous Fee
d. Straight Fee
28. Methods of collection of payments for medical services include:
a. Billing
b. Referral to a bill collection agency
c. Judicial methods
d. AOTA
29. Facts to be proven in court in an action for the recovery of the medical fee except
a. That the plaintiff-physician is duly qualified and licensed to practice medicine in the
Philippines.
b. That the physician has performed professional services to the patient.
c. That the defendant failed to pay the professional fee which is reasonable after
repeated demands.
d. NOTA
30. Any qualified medical practitioner has the right to become member of the Philippine
Medical Association through one of its component medical societies and he is obliged to
comply with the provisions of the constitution and by-laws together with the
implementing rules and regulations of the organization.
a. Right to membership to medical societies
b. Right to compensation
c. Right to certain services which can only be performed by a physician
d. Right to hold certain public or private offices which can only be filled up by a
physician
1. Factors that may be responsible for the increasing frequency of complaints against
physicians are the following, EXCEPT _____.
A. Re-emergence of family physician.
B. Unethical coaching of other physicians
C. Disservices made by the mass communication media.
D. Incompetence of the practitioner and commercialization of medical practice.
2. The liabilities of a physician which may arise from his wrongful act of omission may be
classified into the following, EXCEPT ____.
A. Social liabilities
B. Civil liabilities
C. Criminal liabilities
D. Suspension or revocation of certificate of registration
3. What governing body is given much leeway in imposing liability from simple reprimand to
revocation of license to practice medicine?
A. Lower Court
B. Court of Appeals
C. Supreme Court
D. Board of Medicine, Professional Regulation Commission
4. The decision of the Board of Medicine shall automatically become final for how many
days after the date of its promulgation?
A. 20 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
5. The Board of Medicine may order reinstatement of any physician whose certificate of
registration has been revoked after what period?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years
9. It signifies entire want of care which raises the presumption of conscious indifference to
consequence; an entire disregard for and indifference to safety and welfare of others;
the want of even slight care or diligence.
A. Fee splitting
B. Incompetence
C. Gross negligence
D. Complete ignorance
10. It is the lack of ability; lack of fitness to discharge the required duty. A condition of status
of a person who is unable to do a thing.
A. Incompetence
B. Innocence
C. Ignorance
D. Negligence
A. Incompetence
B. Innocence
C. Ignorance
D. Negligence
12. A state of periodic or chronic intoxication, detrimental to the individual and to society,
produced by repeated consumption of drug.
A. Addiction
B. Habituation
C. Gambling
D. Overdosage
A. Ignorance
B. Fraud
C. Fee splitting
D. Gross immorality
2. True statements regarding crimes against Revised Penal Code and crimes against
Special Laws, EXCEPT.
A. Crimes against Revised Penal Code need criminal intent
B. Crimes against Special Laws does not need criminal intent.
C. Either A & B is true.
D. None of the above.
3. Penalties of health care professional who is involved in abortion (Art. 26).
A. Reclusion temporal C. Prision correcional
B. Prision mayor D. All of the above
4. Law imposes maximum penalty against abortion because the scientific knowledge and
skill of the physician is primarily intended to:
A. his own benefit
B. welfare of his family
C. preserve and maintain the health of the people
D. None of the above
5. If the abortion was procured for the purpose of saving the life of the mother, then he may
be justified in doing so, and may not incur criminal liability.
A. True C. Both
B. False D. None of the above.
6. Reason why concealment or abandonment of a legitimate child is a criminal act.
A. Introduction of a stranger into the family which may result to the prejudice of the
legitimate heirs.
B. Deprivation or loss of civil status of the child.
C. Negligence
D. None of the above
7. Under P.D. 169, a physician is obliged, under the penalty of law, to inform the nearest
Philippine Constabulary Unit the name and address of his patient, nature of injury and
disposition of his patient whom he has tread if such patient suffered from
A. Serious physical injuries as defined and penalized by Article 262 and 263 of the
Revised Penal Code
B. Serious and less serious injuries as defined and penalized by Artcle 262 up
to Article 265 of the Revised Penal Code
C. Deformity that will possibly develop as a consequence of physical injury inflicted
D. Patient suffered serious, less serious, and slight physical injuries
8. A woman was stabbed in the abdomen and was taken to the ER of a hospital at 12 AM
complaining of severe abdominal pain and body weakness. The ER nurse called by phone
the physician on duty who told her to admit the woman and he would see him after 3 hours.
The patient was placed in the hall outside the nurse station died in shock 1 hour after
admission. Who is liable?
A. Nurse
B. All of the three
C. Physician
D. Hospital
9. How many hours shall all hospitals, clinics or other institution as well as private physicians
providing treatment to any case of a maltreated or abused child or exploitation of any
employed child, report in writing to the city or provincial or to the nearest unit of the DSWD,
from knowledge of the case?
A. 24 hours C. 12 hours
B. 72 hours D. 48 hours
10. The testimony of an expert witness is NOT needed to prove a negligent act when which
doctrine is applicable?
A. Res ipsa loquitur C. ostensible agent
B. Borrowed servant D. captain of the ship
11. Example(s) of prohibited drugs
A. Phenobarbital C. Benzidrine
B. Morphine D. None of the above
12. When is the testimony of another physician necessary in an action for medical practice
against a physician? When
A. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitur is applicable
B. Action for breach of contract
C. Either A or B
D. Physician departed from the accepted practice
13. True statements regarding the importance of a physician to keep up with medical
developments, EXCEPT
A. He must be aware of the modern medical or surgical procedures, recently
manufactured therapeutic drugs, including indications, mode of action, side
effects and after effects.
B. Modern methods of transportation and communication, frequent seminars and
use of scientific journals and other printed materials enhance transmission of
information even in remote areas.
C. A physician may not be liable if he used methods which are still
experimental.
D. Physician must be abreast with the development and progress of medical
science.
14. Elements of medical malpractice, EXCEPT
A. Duty C. Dereliction
B. Diligence D. Direct
15. An action for damages against a physician for his wrongful act refers to:
A. Administrative liability C. Civil liability
B. Criminal Liability D. All of the above
5. There is no need of an expert medical testimony because the injury is a proof of negligence.
A. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
B. Doctrine of assumption of risk
C. Doctrine of last clear chance
D. Doctrine of foreseeability
6. It is the physician’s duty to make the necessary investigation or examination of his patient
whenever an unusual development occurs in the course of the management.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Doctrine of contributory negligence
7. It is the also known as Doctrine of common fault
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Doctrine of continuing negligence
C.Rescue doctrine
D. Doctrine of proximate cause
8. This doctrine is usually applied to foreign body cases, improper setting of broken bones, in the
application of casts, and in wrongful diagnoses.
A. Doctrine of assumption of risk
B. Barrowed servant doctrine
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
9. The doctrine implies thought, appreciation, mental direction and lapse of sufficient time to
effectually act upon impulse to save the life or prevent injury to another.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Doctrine of last clear chance
D. Doctrine of proximate cause
10. Foreseeable injury may be ascertained from the history, physical examination, observation
and from information gathered from another member of the family.
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Doctrine of foreseeability
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
11 The doctrine is usually applied to the negligence of the medial staff of commercial or industrial
establishment in the treatment of their co-employees who were injured while performing the work
assigned to them.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Fellow servant doctrine
12. when the injury suffered by the patient is caused by the negligent act of two or more persons,
each of them acting concurrently or successively in the production of injury.
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Shared responsibility
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
13. 2 physicians are employed, on the same case and by agreement divide the service as their
best judgement may dictate, they are considered
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D independent contractors
14. when the negligent act or omission which is the proximate cause of the injury suffered by the
patient is attributed to the wrongful act of a person.
A. Shared responsibility
B. Doctrine of proximate cause
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
15. This doctrine even applies to situations where the rescuer is attempting to save the negligent
person.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Rescue doctrine
16. Person who may be held financially liable to the patient for the negligence of the person who
actually caused it.
A. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
B. Doctrine of vicarious liability
C. Doctrine of ostensible agent
D. Doctrine of contributory negligence
17.Sharing or charging of the fee by the following hospital will mean the practice of medicine by
the hospital which is in violation of the forbidding corporations to engage in the practice of
medicine.
A. Doctrine of ostensible agent
B. Doctrine of foreseeability
C. Fellow servant doctrine
D. Rescue doctrine
18.Borrowed from the hospital by someone and for any wrong act committed by them during the
period, their new and temporary employer must be held liable.
.A.Doctrine of contributory negligence
B. Doctrine of continuing negligence
C. Doctrine of assumption of risk
D. Barrowed servant doctrine
19 Common knowledge doctrine; “ the thing speaks for itself”
A. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
B. Doctrine of assumption of risk
C. Doctrine of last clear chance
D. Doctrine of foreseeability
20. In the physician-patient relationship, the physician has a superior knowledge over his
patient.
A. Doctrine of superior knowledge
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
E. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
21. If the physician, after a prolonged treatment of a patient which is normally produces alleviation
of the condition, fails to investigate non response, he may be liable if in the exercise of care and
diligence he could have discovered the cause of non response.
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Doctrine of continuing negligence
C.Rescue doctrine
D. Doctrine of proximate cause
22. Anyone who consents to the application of a medical or surgical procedure involving certain
risks cannot recover damages for injury resulting from inherent or ordinary risks in the procedure.
A. Doctrine of assumption of risk
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
E. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
23. A physician who has the last chance of avoiding damage or injury to his patient but
negligently fails to do so is liable.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Doctrine of last clear chance
D. Doctrine of proximate cause
24. A physician cannot be held liable for the negligence if the injury sustained by the patient is
on account of unforeseen conditions; failure to ascertain the condition of the patient.
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Doctrine of foreseeability
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
25. Negligence of the medical staff (employee is liable if the injury is caused by his negligence;
employer will be responsible if the negligence is because the employee is disabled,
unskillful,drunk, vicious, or habitually negligent.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Fellow servant doctrine
26.Wrongful act of the person when his negligence or omission caused the injury of the patient.
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Soled responsibility
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
27. Neglected by two or more persons; share the liability
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Shared responsibility
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
28. Is the failure of a medical practitioner to properly perform his duty resulting in some injury to
the patient.
A. Medical Malpractice
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
E. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
29. Specific people ( always call for help)
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Rescue doctrine
30. May be applied now but later becomes obsoles because of the demand of justice and
changing social norm
A. Doctrine
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
E. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
1. All are specific acts which constitutes to medical malpractice except:
a. Failure to take the medical history
b. Failure to examine
c. Not consulting with the prior physician
d. None of the above
2. True or False: Physician cannot be held liable if the incomplete history is due to failure of
the patient or family member to give the full information regarding the history regarding
the present illness of the patient.
a. True
b. False
3. Neglect of duty. It is a physicians’s failure to act as any ordinary and prudent peer would
act in a similar circumstance.
a. Dereliction
b. Malpractice
c. Damage
d. Duty
4. Four D’s of medical malpractice
a. Duty, dereliction, damages and direct cause
b. Drop, delay, delegate, do
c. Define, discuss, document, develop
d. None of the above
5. Medical negligence:
a. He/she ignores basic responsibilities
b. Unintentional mistakes or ovesights
c. Indirectly causes a victim to be injured or killed
d. All of the above
6. The declaration of Kelsinki was issued by the World Medical Association in:
a. 1962
b. 1963
c. 1964
d. 1965
7. Elements of abandonment
a. There must have been physician and patient relationship
b. The relationship must be terminated by the physician without the mutual consent of
both parties
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
8. The following are instances when a physician may be held liable for abandonment of his
patient except:
a. Refusal by a physician to treat a case after he has seen the person needing
treatment
b. Refusal to attend a case for which he has already assumed responsibility
c. Failure to provide follow-up attention
d. None of the above
9. Two most important considerations to avoid controversies in Experimental treatment
except :
a. Awareness and consent of the patient
b. The physician to perform the experimental treatment must be capable to perform the
innovative technique.
c. both A and B
d. None of the above
10. A type of experimental treatment that is not yet accepted as modality:
a. Costumary experimental treatment
b. Innovative experiment
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
11. Issued by the World Medical Association in 1964
a. Declaration Kelsinki
b. Abandonment of patient
c. Experimental treatment
d. None of the above
12.Physician maybe held liable for malpractice if he knew he should have known that the condition
of the patient is beyond his ability, knowledge and capacity.
a.Failure to take the Medical History
b. Not consulting with the prior Physician
c. Non-referreal of the patient to a specialist
d. None of the above
13. It is highly recommended to avoid the risk in the application of the treatment procedure
a.Failure to take the Medical History
b. Consulting with the prior Physician
c. Non-referreal of the patient to a specialist
d. None of the above
14. The best interest of the pharmacist patient, physician and nurse is served if the physician’s
order is in:
a. Writing
b. phone call
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
15. Customary experimental treatments
a. Ordinary cases
b. Not yet accepted as modality
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
3. Some of the problem of blood transfusion has been solved on account of the
a. Discovery of the Rh factor which led to the new test for the detection of the
incompatibilities whitih the group.
b. Discovery of the cause of pyrogenic reactions and the development of methods to
prevent them.
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
3. Plan program of the Philippine Medical Care Act which covers the members of GSIS and
SSS.
a. Program I
b. Program II
c. Program III
d. Program IV
6. How many days of hospitalization in a year will be covered by the Philippine Medical Care
Act?
a. 10 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 90 days
7. How much is the allowance for a hospital room per day in a primary institution?
a. 12.00
b. 15.00
c. 18.00
d. 20.00
8. How much is the allowance for a hospital room per day in a tertiary institution?
a. 12.00
b. 15.00
c. 18.00
d. 20.00
9. What is the maximum amount for the allowance of laboratory expenses for an employee
who will undergo a major surgery?
a. 150.00
b. 250.00
c. 300.00
d. 500.00
10. The anaesthesiologist’s allowance should not exceed to how many percentage of the
surgeon’s fee?
a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
12. What is the insurance system of the country that caters to the employees in the private
sectors?
a. Pag-IBIG
b. Government Service Insurance System
c. Philam Life Health and Life Plan
d. Social Security System
13. When should the employer deduct the employee’s salary for his contribution?
a. Daily
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Yearly
14. What is the contribution base of an employee earning 86.00 in a month?
a. 10.00
b. 75.00
c. 175.00
d. 750.00
15. The following procedures are not part of the coverage of the Medicare Act, except:
a. Cosmetic surgery
b. Psychiatric illness
c. Optometric services
d. None of the above
16. As of Oct. 1, 1978, an operating room fee in addition to the current surgical benefits is
available as follows except:
a) P75.00 for a major operation
b) P50.00 for a medium operation
c) P20.00 for a minor operation
d) None of the above
17. Allowance for medical and dental practitioner’s fee of ten pesos (P10.00) per each daily
visit not to exceed two hundred pesos (P200.00) for a single period of confinement of for
any sickness or injury is according to what section of P.D. 1519?
a) Sec. 12
b) Sec. 13
c) Sec. 14
d) Sec. 15
18. All claims for benefits must be filed within how many calendar days from the last day of
confinement?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
19. Claims for payment of services which are filed beyond sixty days after the discharge of
the patient shall be barred from payment according to what section of P.D. 1517?
a) Sec. 20
b) Sec. 21
c) Sec. 22
d) Sec. 23
20. During settlement of claims, the hospital shall require which of the following?
a) The fact of his SSS or GSIS membership and his number
b) The name of his attending physician or surgeon
c) Both a and b
d) Only one of the following
21. When an employee, hospital or medical practitioner fails without good cause to comply
with the advice of the medical practitioner with respect to hospitalization, payment for
services may be reduced or denied by the SSS or GSIS.
a) True
b) False
c) Maybe
d) I don’t know
22. If any person who, for the purpose of securing entitlement to any benefit or payment shall
commit fraud, collusion, falsification, misrepresentation or any similar anomaly, that
person shall suffer the penalties provided for in what article of the Revised Penal Code?
a) Article 170
b) Article 171
c) Article 172
d) Article 173
23. This article of the Revised Penal Code defines and penalizes “Falsification by private
individuals and use of falsified documents” and impose the penalty of prision correctional
in its medium and maximum periods and a fine of not more than 5,000 pesos?
a) Article 170
b) Article 171
c) Article 172
d) Article 173
24. Punishment for failure or refusal to comply with the provision of Art. 172 of the Revised
Penal Code is a fine of not less than 500 nor more than how many pesos?
a) P3,000
b) P4,000
c) P5,000
d) P6,000
25. Punishment for failure or refusal to comply with the provision of Art. 172 of the Revised
Penal Code is imprisonment for not less than 6 months nor more than how many years?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
26. Any employer who shall deduct directly or indirectly from the compensation of the covered
employees or otherwise recover from them his own contribution on behalf of such
employees shall be punished with a fine not exceeding how many pesos?
a) P500
b) P1,000
c) P1,500
d) P2,000
27. Article 217 (Malversation of public funds or property) imposes which of the following
penalties, if the amount involved in the misappropriation or malversation does not exceed
two hundred pesos?
a) Prision correctional
b) Prision mayor
c) Reclusion temporal
d) Reclusion perpetua
28. Article 217 (Malversation of public funds or property) imposes which of the following
penalties, if the amount involved is more than two hundred pesos but does not exceed six
thousand pesos?
a) Prision correctional
b) Prision mayor
c) Reclusion temporal
d) Reclusion perpetua
29. Article 217 (Malversation of public funds or property) imposes which of the following
penalties in its minimum period if the amount involved is more than six thousand pesos
but is less than twelve thousand pesos?
a) Prision correctional
b) Prision mayor
c) Reclusion temporal
d) Reclusion perpetua
30. Article 217 (Malversation of public funds or property) imposes which of the following
penalties in its minimum and maximum periods, if the amount involved is more than twelve
thousand pesos but is less than twenty-two thousand pesos?
a) Prision correctional
b) Prision mayor
c) Reclusion temporal
d) Reclusion perpetua
1. One which is concerned with admission and treatment of a substantial range of disease
or injuries
A. Specailized Hospital
B. Diagnostic Hospital
C. General Hospital
D. NOTA
2. established to admit specific illness, treatments, organ affected or for a class of people
A. Specailized Hospital
B. Diagnostic Hospital
C. General Hospital
D. NOTA
3. devoted solely to the diagnosis of the disease, injury, deformity, or physical and mental
conditions
A. Specailized Hospital
B. Diagnostic Hospital
C. General Hospital
D. NOTA
4. established for the reception, care and treatment of expectant mothers and care of the
newly born infants
A. Maternity Hospital
B. Diagnostic Hospital
C. General Hospital
D. NOTA
5. established to enhance return of a disabled to his usual activities and adapts his
condition to a specific environment
A. Rehabilitation Hospital
B. Maternity Hospital
C. Diagnostic Hospital
D. General Hospital
13. one who enters the property of another without being granted the privilege to do so
A. Licensee
B. Invitee
C. Trespasser
D. NOTA
14. One who is either a customer, a servant or a trespasser. He has no contractual relation
with the hospital
A. Licensee
B. Invitee
C. Trespasser
D. NOTA
15. One who is essential to the operation of a hospital or for whom the hospital has a
purpose.
A. Licensee
B. Invitee
C. Trespasser
D. NOTA
3. In Section 6 of the Medical Act of 1959 states that the medical course leading to the degree
of doctor of medicine shall be at least:
a. four years
b. five years
c. three years
d. seven years
4. In Section 6 of the Medical Act of 1959 states that the medical course leading to the degree
of doctor of medicine shall consist of the following subjects, EXCEPT:
a. Anatomy
b. Physiology
c. Biochemistry and Nutrition
d. Zoology
5. In Section 7 of the Medical Act of 1959, admit any student who HAS BEEN convicted by any
court of competent jurisdiction of any offense involving moral turpitude
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither
6. In Section 7 of the Medical Act of 1959, the term “College of Medicine” shall mean to include
the following, EXCEPT:
a. faculty of medicine
b. institute of medicine
c. school of medicine
d. Hospital admin
7. In Section 8 of the Medical Act of 1959, all but one is NOT a Prerequisite to the Practice of
Medicine:
a. he must be at least twenty-one years of age
b. he must be at least twenty years of age
c. has satisfactorily passed the corresponding Board of Examination
d. holder of a valid Certificate of Registration duly issued to him by the Board of Medical
Examiners
8. In Medical Act of 1959, the Chairman of the Board of Medical Education is:
a. Secretary of Education or his duly authorized representative
b. the Secretary of Health or his duly authorized representative
c. the Director of the Bureau of Private Schools or his duly authorized representative
d. a representative of the Philippine Medical Association
9. Every college of medicine must publish each year a catalogue giving the following
information, EXCEPT:
a. Date of publication
b. Calendar of academic year
c. Faculty roll indicating whether on full-time or part-time basis
d. Campus map
10. In Section 9 of the Medical Act of 1959, Candidates for Board Examinations includes:
a. He shall be a citizen of the Philippines or a citizen of any foreign country who has
submitted competent and conclusive documentary evidence, confirmed by the
Department of Foreign Affairs, showing that his country’s existing laws permit
citizens of the Philippines to practice medicine under the same rules and
regulations governing citizens thereof;
b. He shall be of worst moral character;
c. He shall be of unpleasant mind;
d. He have been convicted by a court of competent jurisdiction of any offense involving moral
turpitude;
11. In Section 10 of the Medical Act of 1959, Acts Constituting Practice of Medicine states that
any person shall be considered as engaged in the practice of Medicine shall, for
compensation, fee, salary or reward in any form paid to him directly or through another, or
even without the same, physically examine any person, and diagnose, treat, operate or
prescribe any remedy for human disease, injury, deformity, physical, mental, psychical
condition or any ailment, real or imaginary, regardless of the nature of the remedy or
treatment administered, prescribed or recommended.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither
12. Refusal of a physician to attend a patient in danger of death is not a sufficient ground for
revocation for suspension of his registration certificate if there is a risk to the physician’s life.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither
13. In Section 17 of Medical Act of 1959, Rules and Regulations shall take effect _______ after
the date of their publication in the Official Gazette and shall not be changed within sixty days
immediately before any examination:
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
14. Section 16 of Medical Act of 1959, Executive Office and Secretary of the Board:
a. shall also be the secretary of the Board of Medical Examiners, who shall keep all the
records, including examination papers and the minutes of the deliberations of the Board.
b. shall keep an up-to-date registration book of all duly registered physicians in the
Philippines.
c. shall keep all the records and proceedings, and issue and receive all papers in connection
with any and all complaints presented to the Board.
d. All of the above
15. In Section 22 of Medical Act of 1959, Administrative Investigations shall be conducted by at
least 2 members of the Board of Medical Examiners with 1 legal officer sitting during the
investigation, otherwise the proceedings shall be considered void.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither
16. In Section 23 of Medical Act of 1959, Procedure and Rules. States that Within __________
after the filing of written charges under oath, the respondent physician shall be furnished a
copy thereof, without requiring him or her to answer the same, and the Board shall conduct
the investigation within five days after the receipt of such copy by the respondent.
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
18. In Section 26 of Medical Act of 1959, Appeal for judgment states that if the final decision is
not satisfactory, the respondent may ask for a review of the case, or may file in court a petition
for certiorari.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither
19. In Section 27 of Medical Act of 1959, after _______, the Board may order the reinstatement
of any physician whose certificate of registration has been revoked, if the respondents has
acted in an exemplary manner in the community wherein he resides and has not committed
any illegal, immoral or dishonorable act.
a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. Lifetime
20. In Section 21 of Medical Act of 1959 states that in order that a candidate may be deemed to
have passed his examination successfully he must have obtained a general average of
________ without a grade lower than fifty percent in any subject.
a. 75%
b. 80%
c. 70%
d. 60%
21. Who shall fill any vacancy that may occur during any examination from the list of names
submitted by the Philippine Medical Association in accordance with the provisions of this Act?
a. The President of the Philippines
b. Commissioner of Civil Service
c. The Secretary of the Health
d. the Director of the Bureau of Fire and Protection
22. In Section 12 of Medical Act of 1959, Limited practice without any certificate of registration
includes foreign physicians employed as exchange professors in special branches of medicine
or surgery whose service may, upon previous authorization of the Board of Medical Examiners.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither
23. In Section 24 of Medical Act of 1959, any of the following shall be sufficient ground for
reprimanding a physician, or for suspending or revoking a certificate of registration, EXCEPT:
a. Good moral character
b. Insanity
c. Fraud in the acquisition of the certificate of registration
d. Performance of or aiding in any criminal abortion
24. In Section 29 of Medical Act of 1959, Who may file an action to enjoin any person illegally
practicing medicine from the performance of any Act constituting the practice of medicine if the
case of warrants until the necessary certificate therefor is secured?
a. The Board of Medical Examiners
b. Commision on Higher Education
c. Department of Health
d. Philippine Medical Association
25. In Section 2 of Medical Act of 1959 states that for the purpose of implementing the provisions
of this Act, there are created the following agencies:
a. the Board of Medical Education under the Department of Education
b. the Board of Medical Examiners under the Commissioner of Civil Service under the
Commission of Civil Service.
c. Both
d. Neither
26. The examination papers shall be under the custody of the___________________________,
and shall be distributed to each member of the Board who shall correct, grade, and sign, and
submit them to the said Commissioner within one hundred twenty days from the date of the
termination of the examination.
a. Commissioner of Civil Service or his duly authorized representative
b. Commissioner on Election
c. Commissioner on Higher Education
d. Commissioner on all Commissioners
27. Who shall submit to the President of the Philippines for approval of the tabulation of results
without names and immediately upon receipt of the approved tabulation from the Office of the
President, he shall insert the names and cause the publication of the names of successful
candidates in alphabetical order without the rating obtained by each, at the same time transmit
a copy thereof to office of the President.?
a. The Secretary of the Board of Medical Examiner
b. The Secretary of the Department of Health
c. The Secretary of the Commission on Higher education
d. The Secretary of the Civil Service
28. In Section 26 of Medical Act of 1959, the decision of the Board of Medical Examiners shall
automatically become final ________ after the date of its promulgation unless the respondent,
during the same period, has appealed to the Commissioner of Civil Service and later to the
Office of the President of the Philippines:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
29. In Section 18 of Medical Act of 1959, the Board of Medical Examiners shall give examinations
for the registration of physicians________, on dates to be determined by it provided that the
interval between the first and the second examinations in a year shall be six months, in the
City of Manila or any of its suburbs after giving not less than ten days notice to each candidate
who had filed his name and address with the Secretary of the Board.
a. twice a year
b. thrice a year
c. Once a year
d. Four times a year
30. In Section 14 of Medical Act of 1959, Qualifications of Examiner includes not a member of the
faculty of any medical school and has no pecuniary interest, directly or indirectly, in any college
of medicine or any institution where any branch of medicine is taught, at the time of his
appointment.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither
Matching
C 11. Article I a. Duties of Physicians to to Allied
Professionals
D 12. Article II b. Duties of Physician to their Colleagues
E 13. Article III and to the Profession
B 14 Article IV c. General Principles
A 15. Article V d. Duties of Physician to their Patients
F 16. Article VI e. Duties of Physician to the Community
G 17. Article VII f. Amendments
H 18. Article VIII g. Penal Provisions
h. None of the above
19. How many vote/s is/are needed to adopt a new code of ethics?
a. few
b. many
c. majority
d. all members
20. after how many days will be the code of ethics be effective after amendment?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30
21. Physician should never sign or allow to be published any testimonial certifying the efficacy,
value and superiority and recommending the use of any drug, medicine, food product
a. True
b. False
22. Before the proper medical or legal tribunals corrupt or dishonest conduct of members
of the profession, physician should?
a. happy
b. expose without fear or favor
c. NOTA
d. AOTA
23. When patient is referred by one physician to another, to receive commission is:
a. professional
b. unprofessional
c. a must
b. blessing
24. When will all the questions affecting the professional reputation of a
member/s of the medical society be considered for proper medical tribunals?
a. before
b. 3 days after
c. 3 days before
d. after
25. It is unprofessional for a physician to:
a. offer to pay
b. receive or solicit
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
26. Relationship between government and private physicians should be:
a. friendly and cordial
b. mutual
c. complicated
d. AOTA
27. A physician should?
a. Willingly render gratuitous service to a colleague
b. should not meet in consultation with anyone who is not qualified by law to
practice medicine.
c. should never cover-up, help, aid or act as a dummy of any illegal practitioner, quack or
charlatan.
d. AOTA
28. Difference of opinion should not be divulged; but when there is an irreconcilable
disagreement, the circumstances should be:
a. frankly
b. courteously
c. impartially explained to the patients family or friends
d. AOTA
29. It is the duty of physicians to warn the public against the danger and false
pretensions of charlatans and quacks
a. true
b. false
30. The physician columnist must be in the subject matter of his column?
a. well informed
b. up-to-date
c. AOTA
d NOTA
2. The patient has the right to give consent to diagnostic or treatment procedures he needs to
undertake. Which of the following is not valid?
a. A specialist who performs a procedure with care and diligence is not exempt from liability
even if no injury was sustained if he fails to inform and get the patient’s consent.
b. After the physician patient relationship is established the patient is authorized to
institute immediately the diagnostic or treatment procedure which he thinks best
for the patient.
c. The patient is the final arbiter and is given the right to choose alternative procedure which
he thinks will serve his best interest.
d. A physician may be held liable for failure to inform the patient of what he contemplated to
do or for failure to get the patient’s consent before application.
3. A privileged communication between patient and physician must be guarded to protect the
patient’s?
a. right to give consent c. right to refuse treatment
b. right to privacy d. right to religious belief
4. The condition that has to be satisfied before an emergency operation can be performed by a
surgeon without consent are
a. the patient must be unconscious or otherwise unable to give consent
b. the situation must be such as it would make it actually or apparently necessary to act
before there is no opportunity to obtain consent.
c. the surgeon in the exercise of his best judgement believe that the patient will die unless
the operation is performed.
d. all of the above
5. A physician may perform a diagnostic r therapeutic procedure without the consent of the patient
or of his relatives
a. when the physician believes the procedure is necessary
b. when the patient is merely being stubborn
c. when the patient is unconscious
d. is an acute emergency when there is no time to discuss the situation in order to seek
consent.
6. A physician may apply a procedure even if it is against the wishes of the patient if
a. the procedure is known to be safe
b. the procedure is necessary for the good of the patient
c. the procedure is required by law
d. there is implied consent by the patient’s spouse
7. Although information gathered by physicians from his patient is considered confidential and
physician cannot disclose such information to others, however he is obliged to disclose such
information
a. pattern of such information if disclosed will blacken the character of his patient
b. when public interest demand disclosure of such information
c. when such information was in connection with the physician patient relationship.
d. when the patient has never waived the privileged nature of such information
9. A patient confided a very personal matter to the physician when he was about to die. After
death of the patient, the family pleaded to the doctor to reveal the confidential story related
to him by the deceased. The physician declined because of the patient’s rights. Which right?
a. the right disclosure c. the right of privacy
b. the right of confidentiality d. the right to give consent
10. A patient has incurred AIDS and his work is in contact with patients in the hospital. Choose
what is the best and ethical thing which his physician is bound to do:
a. to make arrangement so that the risk of infecting the patients is eliminated
b. to expose the patient’s disease to the public
c. To advise the patient to seek treatment and counsel at DOH center for the treatment
of AIDS
d. to treat the patient
13. Privilege communication is a right granted by law in favor of the patient who may waive such
privilege. Which statement is not correct?
a. waiver is made by the guardian of a minor patient
b. successor in interest may waive for a deceased patient.
c. waiver must always be an expressed written waiver
d. once waive it can longer be claimed
15. Information obtained by a physician from his patient in the course of treating the latter is no
longer privileged in
a. instances when the patient fails to pay the physician
b. suits by the patient against the physician
c. the event the patient dies later
d. all of the above
16. The right of the patient to be left alone and act exposed to public or unwarranted publicity is
called
a. right of disclosure of information c. right of confidential information
b. right of privacy d. right of self determination
17. “Living will” refers to written instructions given by a patient to relatives and attending
physicians for them to
a. keep her alive with all available resources
b. discontinue all life support systems
c. use her organs for transplant
d. cremate her body upon death
21. The patient consented for the physician to use his case for a case presentation. The physician
can also use the patient’s case in for the following:
a. Publishing a journal
b. Magazine article about the disease
c. The physician can use the case in any media as he have the consent for case
presentation anyway
d. The physician can’t use the patient’s case other than what he consented
24. A physician, while in the course of suturing a perineal tear, caused by childbirth, broke the
needle and left it in the body. He did not inform the patient but asked the midwife to watch
the patient if the surgical needle was not found in six weeks, she would be operated again to
remove the fragment. Is the physician culpable?
a. Yes, because he withhold information
b. Yes, he’s culpable of neglect
c. No, because disclosure might prejudice the patient
d. No, because the operation was successful anyway
26. Can a physician testify in court and present information about his patient?
a. Yes, if disclosure is necessary for justice
b. No, because of patient’s privacy
c. The physician should ask colleague to be a professional consult
d. Yes, the physician may testify in court but not against his patient
27. A 45 year old patient came in the OPD department complaining of uncontrolled hypertension.
He was looking for a pediatric doctor because he trust that doctor. Can he seek consult to a
pediatrician?
a. No, he should go to an IM
b. Yes, it’s his right
c. No, because HTN is a rare case in pediatrics
d. Yes, to avoid dispute
28. A private hospital deferred an emergency case from admission because it’s their policy to
have down payment first. They then refer the patient to a public hospital. Is the private hospital
culpable?
a. No, because there were other hospital that can cater the need of the patient
b. Yes, because of the down payment
c. No, because they refer the patient anyway
d. Yes, it’s against the right to treatment
30. A 5 year old male is in need of an eye operation, his parents did not consent for the operation
because it is against their belief system, but the child said that he doesn’t want to lost his
sight. What is your next action?
a. File a court petition compelling the parents to give consent
b. Divest the parents their custody
c. Don’t perform the operation
d. Refer the patient to other Doctors
1. What section of the Code of Ethics provides that “it is the duty of every physician, when called
upon by the judicial authorities, to assist in the administration of justice on matters which are
medico-legal in character”?
2. This refers to the representation of physician in the court in which he is allowed to give his
inference, deduction, conclusion or opinion from the facts presented to him.
A. Prosecutor C. Judge
4. “All persons who, having organs of sense, can perceive, and perceiving, can make known
their perception to others, may be witnesses…”
A. Sec. 18, Rule 130, Rules of Court C. Sec. 20, Rule 130, Rules of Court
B. Sec. 19, Rule 130, Rules of Court D. Sec. 21, Rule 130, Rules of Court
5. This states that no descendant can be compelled, in a criminal case, to testify against his
parents and descendants.
A. Sec. 18, Rule 130, Rules of Court C. Sec. 20, Rule 130, Rules of Court
B. Sec. 19, Rule 130, Rules of Court D. Sec. 21, Rule 130, Rules of Court
6. This states that children who appear to the court to be of such tender age and capacity
cannot become witness on account of physical disqualification.
A. Sec. 18, Rule 130, Rules of Court C. Sec. 20, Rule 130, Rules of Court
B. Sec. 19, Rule 130, Rules of Court D. Sec. 21, Rule 130, Rules of Court
B. Conditional/Qualified D. Neither
A. Absolute C. Both
B. Conditional/Qualified D. Neither
9. Although containing defamatory imputations, would not be actionable unless made with
malice or bad faith
A. Absolute C. Both
B. Conditional/Qualified D. Neither
10. It is when the physician is expressedly allowed by the patient to testify on matters that are
privileged; may be oral or in writing
11. These are the grounds for the admissibility of a dying declaration as evidence.
A. Necessity C. Both
B. Trustworthiness D. Neither
12. This statement of the deceased made while the declarant was still alive but gravely injured
and in contemplation of death, which followed shortly thereafter.
13. It is a belief that in the legal sense, something more than a mere speculation or conjecture.
A. Opinion C. Sentiment
B. Conviction D. Verdict
14. It a process to cause a witness to appear and give testimony commanding him to lay aside
all pretenses and excuses, and appear before a court stated at a time mentioned.
A. Summon C. Subpoena
16. This is an evidence not proceeding from the personal knowledge of the witness, but from
mere repetition of what he had heard others say.
19. When an expert has given an opinion and cited a particular treatise as his authority, the
book cited may be offered in evidence by the adverse party as:
20. Subpoena is served by the sheriff, by his deputy, or by any other person especially
authorized who is not a party and is not less than:
A. 21 y.o. C. 20 y.o.
B. 18 y.o. D. None
21. Penalty for indirect contempt if against a superior court or judge is a fine not exceeding one
thousand pesos or imprisoned not more than how many months?
A. 12 mos. C. 6 mos.
B. 1 mo. D. 10 mos.
23. In the re-cross examination by the opponent, the medical witness may be recalled.
A. Sec. 3, Rule 132, Rules of Court C. Sec. 14, 123, Rules of Court
B. Sec. 3, Rule 123, Rules of Court D. Sec. 14, 132, Rules of Court
24. In the re-cross examination by the opponent, the medical witness is bound to answer
questions propounded to him in the trial.
A. Sec. 3, Rule 132, Rules of Court C. Sec. 14, 123, Rules of Court
B. Sec. 3, Rule 123, Rules of Court D. Sec. 14, 132, Rules of Court
A. Sec. 19, Rule 132, Rules of Court C. Sec. 14, 123, Rules of Court
B. Sec. 3, Rule 123, Rules of Court D. Sec. 14, 132, Rules of Court
26. This is a false testimony against a defendant, if the defendant in said case have been
sentenced to death.
28. This is a false testimony against a defendant, if the defendant shall have been sentenced to
any other afflictive penalty.
29. This is a false testimony against a defendant, if the defendant shall have been sentenced to
a correccional penalty or fine, or shall have been acquitted.
30. This states that the party representing the medical witness may profound some more
questions to refute or clarify matters during the cross-examination.