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Table of Contents

Table of Contents ..................................................................................................................................... 1


Chapter 1: General Considerations..................................................................................................... 3
Chapter 2: Deception Detection ........................................................................................................... 6
Chapter 3: Medico-Legal Aspect of Identification ........................................................................... 9
Chapter 4: Medico-Legal Aspects of Death .................................................................................... 14
Chapter 5: Medico-Legal Investigation of Death ........................................................................... 17
Chapter 6: Causes of Death ................................................................................................................ 22
Chapter 7: Special Death ..................................................................................................................... 27
Chapter 8: Disposal of the Dead Body ............................................................................................. 30
Chapter 9: Medico-Legal Aspects of Physical Injuries ................................................................ 32
Chapter 10: Medico-Legal Investigation of Wounds..................................................................... 36
Chapter 11: Physical Injuries in the Different Parts of the Body............................................... 40
Chapter 12: Death or Physical Injuries Caused by Explosion ................................................... 45
Chapter 13: Gunshot Wounds ............................................................................................................ 49
Chapter 14: Thermal Injuries or Death ............................................................................................. 54
Chapter 15: Physical Injuries or Death by Lightning and Electricity ....................................... 58
Chapter 16: Death or Physical Injuries Due To Change of Atmospheric Pressure .............. 62
Chapter 17: Death by Asphyxia .......................................................................................................... 65
Chapter 18: Death or Physical Injuries Due to Automotive Crash or Accident ..................... 69
Chapter 19: Death or Physical Injuries due to Athletic Sports .................................................. 73
Chapter 20: Child Abuse or Neglected Child .................................................................................. 78
Chapter 21: Medico-Legal Aspects of Sex Crimes ........................................................................ 82
Chapter 22: Pregnancy ......................................................................................................................... 86
Chapter 23: Delivery .............................................................................................................................. 90
Chapter 24: Abortion ............................................................................................................................. 94
Chapter 25: Birth .................................................................................................................................... 96
Chapter 26: Infanticide (Neonaticide) ............................................................................................. 100
Chapter 27: Paternity and Filiation .................................................................................................. 104
Chapter 28: Paternity and Filiation on Non-conventional Methods of Procreation ........... 108
Chapter 29: Medico-Legal Aspect of Marital Union and Dissolution ..................................... 112
Chapter 30: Impotency & Sterility .................................................................................................... 117
Chapter 31: Medico-Legal Aspect of Disturbance of Mentality ............................................... 121
Chapter 32: Drug Dependence ......................................................................................................... 127
Chapter 33: Alcoholism ...................................................................................................................... 129
Chapter 34: Medico-Legal Aspect of Poisoning .......................................................................... 134
ANSWER KEY (Legal Medicine Exam) ........................................................................................... 138
MCQ FOR MEDICAL JURISPRUDENCE ......................................................................................... 145
Chapter 1: General Considerations
1. It is the application of basic and clinical, medical and paramedical sciences to elucidate legal
matters.
a. Criminology
b. Legal Medicine
c. Criminal Law
d. Medical jurisprudence

2. The concept and practice of Legal Medicine in the Philippines originates from whom?
a. Americans
b. Spanish
c. Japanese
d. Filipinos

3. Knowledge of law in relation to the practice of medicine.


a. Criminology
b. Medical jurisprudence
c. Criminal Law
d. Legal Medicine

4. A physician who specializes or is involved primarily with medico-legal duties.


a. Medical Director
b. Medical Jurist
c. Medical supervisor
d. None of the above

5, 6, 7.To be involved in medico-legal duties, a physician must possess sufficient knowledge of:
o Pathology
o Surgery
o Gynecology
o Toxicology
o Other branches of Medicine germane to the issues involved

8. Point of view of an Ordinary physician vs. Medical Jurist respectively


a. cause vs. effect
b. treatment vs. cause
c. palliatie vs preventive
d. cause vs. treatment

9. Purpose in examining a patient of a Medical Jurist vs. an Ordinary Physician respectively


a. treatment vs. cause
b. testifying before an investigative body vs. arriving at a definite diagnosis for proper treatment
c. arriving at a definite diagnosis for proper treatment vs. testifying before an investigative body
d. none of the above
10. This is a rule of conduct, just, obligatory, laid by legitimate power for common observance and
benefit.
a. rule
b. law
c. decree
d. power assertion

11, 12, 13. What are the characteristics of law?


 It is a rule of conduct;
 It is dictated by legitimate power; and
 Compulsory and obligatory to all.

14, 15. Forms of law:


A. Written or Statutory Law (Lex Scripta)
B. Unwritten or Common Law (Lex non Scripta)

16. Form of law which is based on immemorial customs and usages. Sometimes referred to as
case law, common law, jurisprudence or customary law.
a. Lex Sripta
b. Lex non Scripta
c. Statutory
d. Inexistent

17. Laws which are defined, codified and incorporated by the law-making body. Ex. Philippine
Laws
a. Non-statutory
b. Lex Scripta
c. Scripted
d. Code of Hammurabi

18. Science of giving a wise interpretation of the law and making just application of them to all
cases as they arise.
a. Forensics
b. Jurisprudence
c. Legalities
d. Research

19. A science and art dealing with prevention, cure and alleviation of disease
a. Jurisprudence
b. Nursing
c. Medicine
d. Phamacy
20. A principle that, when the court has once laid down a principle of law or interpretation as
applied to a certain state of facts, it will adhere to and apply to all future cases where the facts
are substantially the same.
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Stare Decises
d. Starry Deceases

21-25

Civil Law - A
Criminal Law - D
Remedial Law - C
Special Law – B, E

A. Determination and termination of


civil personality (Art.40-41)
B. Dangerous Drug Act (RA 6425, as
amended)
C. Physical and mental examination of
a person (Rule 28)
D. Circumstances affecting criminal
liability
E. Labor Code (PD 442)
26. Indecency and Impropriety is a Limitation to the presentation of which evidence?
a. Testimonial
b. Documentary
c. Autoptic
d. Physical

27. The identification, collection, preservation and mode of presentation of physical evidence
a. criminality
b. criminal
c. criminalistics
d. crime logistics

28. A special method of preserving evidence


a. Minogue method
b. Manikin Method
c. Embalming
d. Description

29 – 30
Rough Sketch - B a. sketch for court presentation

Finished Sketch - A b. Sketch made at the crime scene

Chapter 2: Deception Detection


1. Example of supplementary test except.
a.Peak-of- tension test c. Silent answer test
b. Guilt complex test d. None of the above
2. This test emphasize that the subject may be given this test if he is not yet informed of the
details of the offense for which he is being interrogated by the investigator, or by other persons
or from other sources like the print media.
a.Peak-of- tension test c. Silent answer test
b. Guilt complex test d. None of the above
3. This test emphasize that when the response to relevant and control questions are similar in
degree and consistency and in a way that the examiner cannot determine whether the subject is
telling the truth or not.
a.Peak-of- tension test c. Silent answer test
b. Guilt complex test d. None of the above
4. Ability to evaluate the truth or falsity of the statement given by the suspect or witness.
a. Deception detection c. Hypnosis
b. Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis d. Interrogation
5. The questioning of a person suspected of having committed an offense or of persons who are
reluctant to make a full disclosure of information in his possession which is pertinent to the
investigation.
a. Deception detection c. Hypnosis
b. Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis d. Interrogation
6. The alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the subject manifests a heightened
of suggestibility while awareness is maintained.
a. Deception detection c. Hypnosis
b. Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis d. Interrogation
7. A person whose guilt is considered on reasonable ground to be a practical possibility.
a. killer c. suspect
b. witness d. investigator
8. A person, other than the suspect, who is requested to give information concerning the incident.
a. witness c. broker
b.suspect d. teacher
9. A technique of interrogation wherein the interrogator must create a mood that is onducive to
confession.
a. Mutt and Jeff technique c Stern approach
b. Emotional appeal d. Bluff on split-pair technique
10. In this technique there must be at least two investigators with opposite character.
a. Mutt and Jeff technique c Stern approach
b. Emotional appeal d. Bluff on split-pair technique
11. This is applicable where there are two or more persons who allegedly participated in the
commission of a crime.
a. Mutt and Jeff technique b. Bluff on split-pair technique c. Stern approach D. NOTA
12. The questions must be answered clearly, and the interrogator utilizes harsh language.
a. Mutt and Jeff technique c Stern approach
b. Emotional appeal d. Bluff on split-pair technique
13. Techniques of interrogation except
a. Mutt and Jeff technique c Stern approach
b. Emotional appeal d. None of the above
14. An expressed acknowledgment by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his guilt as to
the crime charged, or of some essentials thereof.
a. Deception detection c. Hypnosis
b. Confession d. Interrogation
15 .Elements of the crime:
a.The offender is a public officer or employee;
b.The offender has under his charge a (convicted) prisoner or a detention prisoner
c. The offender maltreats the prisoner
d. All of the above
16. Contains guidelines to be observed by physicians concerning torture and other cruel,
inhuman, and degrading treatment or punishment in relation to detention and imprisonment.
a. The Tokyo declaration c. Preamble
b. Emotional appeal d. Declaration torture
17. It is the privilege of the medical doctor to practice medicine in the service of humanity, to
preserve and restore bodily and mental health without distinction as to persons, to comfort and
ease the suffering of his or her patients.
c. The Tokyo declaration c. Preamble
d. Emotional appeal d. Declaration torture
18. Defined as the deliberate, systematic or wanton infliction of physical or mental suffering by
one or more persons acting alone or on the orders of any authority, to force another person to
yield information, to make a confession, or for any other reason.
a.The Tokyo declaration c. Preamble
b.Emotional appeal d. Declaration torture
19. They are persons who commit crime in an impulsive manner usually on account of their
aggressive behavior.
a. Active aggressive offenders c.Rational offenders
b. Passive inadequate offenders d. Irrational offenders
20. Persons who commit crimes because of inducement, promise or reward
a. Active aggressive offenders c.Rational offenders
b. Passive inadequate offenders d. Irrational offenders
21 They commit crime without knowing the nature and quality of his act.
a. Active aggressive offenders c.Rational offenders
b. Passive inadequate offenders d. Irrational offenders
22. Those who commit crime with motive or intention and with full possession of their mental
faculties.
a. Active aggressive offenders c.Rational offenders
b. Passive inadequate offenders d. Irrational offenders

23. These are the lowest form of criminal career.


a. Ordinary offenders c Rational offenders
b. . Professional offenders d. Irrational offenders
24. They are highly skilled and able to perform criminal acts with the least chance of being
detected.
a. Ordinary offenders c Rational offenders
b. . Professional offenders d. Irrational offenders
25. These are persons who commit crimes in the heat of passion, anger, or revenge, and also
who commit offenses of accidental nature.
a. Active aggressive offenders c.Rational offenders
b. Passive inadequate offenders d. . Emotional offenders
26. These are persons who commit crimes for financial gain and are usually recidivist or repeaters.
a. Ordinary offenders c Rational offenders
b. Professional offenders d. Non-emotional offenders
27 No person shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. Any person under investigation
for the commission of an offense shall have the right to remain silent and to counsel, and be
informed of such right.
a. Sec. 20 Art. V, Bill of Rights, Philippine Constitution
b. Sec. 20 Art. IV, Bill of Rights, Philippine Constitution
c. Sec. 19 Art. IV, Bill of Rights, Philippine Constitution
d. Sec. 20 Art. IIV, Bill of Rights, Philippine Constitution
28 Means the body of the crime or fact of specific loss or injury sustained. The reason for the
above rule is to guard against conviction based upon false confession of guilt.
a. Corpus delicti c. Preamble
b. Extra-judicial Confession d. Declaration of torture
29. Admissions made by the parties in the pleadings, or in the course of the trial or other
proceedings do not require proof and can not be contradicted unless previously shown to have
been made through palpable mistake
a. Sec. 2, Rule 125, Rule of Court — Judicial admissions
b. Sec. 3, Rule 129, Rule of Court — Judicial admissions
c. Sec. 2, Rule 127, Rule of Court — Judicial admissions
d. Sec. 2, Rule 129, Rule of Court — Judicial admissions
30. Known as truth serum
a. hyoscine citrate
b hyoscine sulfate
c hyoscine bromide
d hyoscine chloride

Chapter 3: Medico-Legal Aspect of Identification


1. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of 2 person
compared, the greater is the probability of the conclusion to be correct. This is
known as the
A. LAW OF MULTIPLICITY OF EVIDENCE IN IDENTIFICATION.
B. LAW OF SINGLE EVIDENCE IN IDENTIFICATION.
C. LAW OF MULTIPLICITY OF EVIDENCE THING
D. LAW OF DUAL EVIDENCE IN IDENTIFICATION.
2. All are true except
A. There is no rigid rule to be observed in the procedure of identification of persons.
B. In as much as the object to be identified is highly perishable, it is necessary for
the team to act in shortest possible time specially in case of mass disaster.
C. The longer the interval between the death and the examination of the remains for
purpose of identification, the greater is the need from experts in establishing identity.
D. None of the above
3. All are Characteristics which may easily be changed except.
a. Growth of hair, beard or mustache
b. Clothing
c. Frequent place of visit
d. Speech
4. Characteristics that may NOT easily be changed, except
a. Mental memory
b. Speech
c. Gait
d. None of the above
5. The angle between the 2 succeeding foot angles.
a. Foot angle
b. Principal angle
c. Hand angle
d. None of the above
6. Indicative of approaching death
a. Hippocratic facies
b. Mongolian facies
c. Facies leonine
d. Myxedemic facies

7. This is not a good point of identification for it is easily changed from time to time.
a. Tattoo marks
b. Moles
c. Weight
d. Birth marks
8. All statement about the BERTILLON SYSTEM is true, except.
a. The human skeleton in unchangeable after the 10th year.
b.. It is impossible to find 2 human beings having bones exactly like.
c. The necessary measurement can easily be taken with the aid of a simple
instrument.
d. The human skeleton in unchangeable after the 20th year.

9. A complete layout of the bones in their exact locations in the human body is necessary.
All plurality or excess of bones will always suggest that remains belong to more than one
person.
a. All statements are true
b. All statements are false
c. 1st statement is true and 2nd statement is false
d. 1st statement is false and 2nd statement is true
10. How do you measure actual length of a skeleton?
a. Add actual length of skeleton and add 1 to 1 ½ cm for the soft tissue correction
b. Subtract actual length of skeleton to soft tissue correction
c. Divide actual length by 5 and add 3 cm for soft tissue correction
d. No addition is necessary to actual height measurement
11. Determination of age can be determined by the following, except.
a. Appearance of ossification centers
b. Union of bones and epiphyses
c. Dental identification
d. None of the above
12. A special method used to identify a skull in which the negatives of the suspected individual
are superimposed and printed where it may show whether the contour of the skull fits the
contour of the suspected person.
a. Plain photography
b. Superimposed photography
c. Radiographic scintigraphy
d. Immunophotography
13. The following are legal importance of sex determination, except.
a. As an aid for identification
b. Marriage and union of a man and a woman
c. Rights granted by law are different to different sexes
d. None of the above
14. Problems encountered in Sex Determination
a. Gonadal agenesis
b. True hermaphroditism
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
15. Presumptive evidence of sex, except
a. Possession of vagina, uterus and accessories in female and penis in male
b. General features and contour of the face
c. Presence or absence of hair in some parts of the body
d. Voice and manner of speech
16. Conclusive evidence of sex
a. Presence of developed breast
b. Presence of ovary in female and testes in males
c. Muscular development and distribution of fats in body
d. Body figure
17. Hess’ rule states that:
a. For fetus less than 25 cm long (Crown-feel length), get square root of length in cm
= age of fetus in month
b. For fetus more than 25 cm long, divide length by 5 = age in month
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

18. It is a source of blood with bright scarlet in color, leaves the blood vessel with pressure,
and with high oxygen contents.
a. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood
c. Arterial blood
d. Child’s blood
19. A source of blood that does not clot, acidic in reaction owing to mixture with vaginal
mucous, on microscopic examination there are epithelial cells.
a. Menstrual blood flow
b. Venous blood
c. Arterial blood
d. Child’s blood
20. The mother’s blood type is A, the father’s blood type is AB. What will be the possible
blood type of the child?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. All of the above
21. Two methods may be utilized and both should be implied in the examination:
a. Detection of agglutinins
b. Detection of agglutinogens
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
22. The value of procedural test are the following except:
a. It may solve disputed parentage
b. Positive result- not conclusive that the one in question is the offspring.
c. Negative result- conclusive that he is not the child of the alleged parents. Grouping is
true not only with blood but also with other body fluids like saliva, vaginal secretion,
seminal fluid, milk, urine and others
d. None of the above
23. Source of blood at birth, it is thin and soft compared with that of adult, red blood cells are
nucleated and exhibit greater fragility, red blood cells count more than in adult.
a. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood
c. Arterial blood
d. Child’s blood
24. What are the points in identification of the hair?
a. Characteristic of hair
b. Length of hair
c. Color of hair
d. All of the above

25. What is the most valuable method of identification?


a. Fingerprinting
b. Dental identification
c. Handwriting
d. Skeleton identification

26. LMN, a 51-yr old drunkard accidentally shot his gun towards a bystander. Fearing that his
fingerprint may be recovered from the weapon, he decided to scrape off parts of the bulbs of the
distal phalanges of all his fingers. What will most likely happen next?
a. His fingerprint details will be distorted.
b. His fingerprints will reappear and will form another type of pattern.
c. All its details will never reappear.
d. All its details will reappear when the wound heals.

27. This is the hardest substance in the human body which outlasts all other tissues during
putrefaction or physical destruction.
a. Earwax
b. Tears
c. Enamel
d. Muscle fibers

28. ABC is a 30 yr old student who drinks fruit juices and carbonated drinks of approximately
750mL TID since she was 5 years old. Will this reflect in her dentition?
a. No, because excessive drinking of fruit juices and carbonated drinks do not affect
dentition.
b. No, because enamel is hard enough to resist erosion caused by chronic drinking of fruit
juices and carbonated drinks.
c. Yes, because it may cause dissolution of the enamel structure of the front teeth.
d. Uncertain.

29. This is also known as the science of handwriting analysis:


a. Bibliotics
b. Graphology
c. Bibliography
d. Graphesthesias

30. The action is produced by the entire arm without any rest wherein the source of motion comes
from the shoulder.
a. Finger movement
b. Hand movement
c. Toe movement
d. Whole arm movement
Chapter 4: Medico-Legal Aspects of Death
1. A condition in which the physician and the members of the family pronounced a person
to be dead based on the common sense or intuition.
a. Brain death c. Cardio-Respiratory Death
b. Post-mortem death d. Somatic death

2. Importance of death determination except:


a. The civil personality of a natural person is extinguished by death.
b. The property of a person is transmitted to his heirs at the time of death.
c. The death of either the principal or agent is a mode of extinguishment of agency.
d. The criminal liability of a person is not extinguished by death.

3. This is the state of the body in which there is complete, persistent and continuous
cessation of the vital functions of the brain, heart and lungs which maintain life and health.
a. Brain death c. Somatic death
b. Post-mortem death d. Cellular death

4. Death of individual cells, about 3 to 6 hours later.


a. Molecular death c. Both
b. Cellular death d. NOTA

5. Methods of Detecting Cessation of Respiration except:


a. Examine the person with the aid of a stethoscope.
b. Examination with a Mirror
c. Winslow’s Test
d. Magnus’ Test

6. The fall of temperature may occur before death in the following conditions except:
a. Cancer c. Yellow fever
b. Phthisis d. Collapse

7. Factors Accelerating Cooling.


a. Acute pyrexial diseases c. Leanness of the body
b. Sudden death in good health d. Obesity

8. Rigor Mortis
a. Appears immediately after death c. Asymmetrical
b. Involves All muscles d. Determines nature of crime

9. ANTE-MORTEM CLOT
a. Soft in consistency c. Clots can be stripped off in layers
b. Clot with uniform color d. Clot with distinct layer
10. Rigor Mortis appears
a. 3- 6 hours after death c. 6-10 hours after death
b. 3-6 hours before death d. After 24 hours

11. Conditions Stimulating Rigor Mortis


a. Heat Stiffening c. Cadaveric Spasm or Instantaneous Rigor
b. Cold Stiffening d. AOTA

12. Changes in the body following death.


a. Changes in muscles c. Post-mortem Lividity
b. Changes in the blood d. AOTA

13. Changes in the Muscles


a. Stage of primary flaccidity c. AOTA
b. Stage of post-mortem rigidity d. NOTA

14. Stage of post-mortem rigidity except:


a. Cadaveric rigidity c. Decay of muscles
b. Death struggle of muscles d. Rigor Mortis

15. Changes in the Skin undergone after death:


a. Pale and waxy looking due to the absence of circulation
b. Loss of Elasticity of the Skin: Post-mortem Contact Flattening
c. AOTA
d. NOTA

16. This refers to breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler components associated
with the evolution of foul smelling gasses and accompanied by the change of color of the
body.
a. Autolysis c. Post Mortem
b. Putrefaction d. Death

17. The following are the internal factors that affect the rate of putrefaction except:
a. Age c. Cause of Death
b. Condition of the Body d. Clothing

18. Which of the following factors influences the cahnges in the body after burial?
a. Time elapsed between death and burial and environment of the body
b. Effect of Coffin
c. Condition and type of soil
d. AOTA
19. Factors Influencing the Floating of the Body in Water except:
a. Age c. Conditions of the body
b. Sex d. NOTA

20. Dead body floats in a shallow and stagnant water of creeks or pond sooner than in deep
water in running streams
a. True
b. False

21. This refers to the dehydration of the whole body which results in the shivering and
preservation of the body.
a. Putrefaction c. Mummification
b. Autolysis d. NOTA

22. This refers to the softening of the tissues when in a fluid medium in the absence of
putrefactive microorganism which is frequently observed in the death of the fetus en utero.
a. Mummification c. Maceration
b. Molting d. Saponification

23. True statements regarding duration of death except:


a. In warm countries, rigor mortis sets in from 5-6 hrs after death
b. In tropical areas, decomposition is early and the average time is 24-48hrs after death
c. The approximate time of death may be deduced from the amount of food in the
stomach in relation to his last meal.
d. The approximate time of death may be inferred from the degree of decomposition

24. True statements on the changes in cerebro-spinal fluid except:


a. Blood clots inside the blood vessels in 6-8hrs after death
b. Under ordinary conditions, the soft tissues of the body may disappear 1-2yrs after
burial
c. Both A and B
d. NOTA

25. The following scenarios are valid for a person to be declared dead for all purposes except:
a. Lost on board a vessel lost during sea voyage, missing airplane, not been heard of for
4 years since loss of vessel or airplane.
b. Person in armed forces who has taken part in war, missing for 4 years
c. Person In danger of death other circumstances and his existence not known 4 years
d. AOTA

26. Tissue changes in Putrefaction except:


a. Changes in the color of the tissue c. Liquefaction of the Soft Tissues
b. Evolution of Gasses in the tissues d. NOTA
27. This refers to the prominence of the superficial veins with redddish discoloration during
the process of decomposition which develops on both flanks of the abdomen, root of the
neck and shoulder.
a. Extravasation c. Displacement
b. Marbolization d. Varicose

28. True statements on factors modifying rate of putrefaction except:


a. Bodies of persons whose cause of death is due to infection decomposes rapidly.
b. Bodies of still-born are usually sterile so decomposition is retarded
c. Both A and B
d. NOTA

29. The following are the effects of the pressure of gases of putrefaction except:
a. Displacement of organs c. Fluid coming out of both nostrils and mouth
b. Bloating of the body d. Floating of the body

30. True statements regarding the effect of free air on putrefaction except:
a. The accessibility of the body to free air will hasten decomposition
b. The optimimum temperture for specific decomposition is 70F to 100F.
c. The organism responsible for putrefaction prefers more the absence of light.
d. Moderate amount of moisture will delay decomposition

Chapter 5: Medico-Legal Investigation of Death


1. It refers to an external examination of the dead body without incision being made:
a. Autopsy
b. Non-official autopsy
c. Official autopsy
d. Post-mortem examination

2. All of the following are methods of conducting a search, except:


a. Spiral method
b. Linear method
c. Wheel method
d. Grid method

3. What comprises the search team?


a. Physician, photographer, chief of police
b. Physician, witness, assistant
c. Photographer, assistant, physician
d. Assistant, physician, chief of police

4. This equipment is needed for the search of the physical evidence:


a. Flashlight
b. Screw driver
c. Bottles
d. Measuring tape
5. It is an autopsy done on a human body with the consent of the deceased person’s
relatives?
a. Autopsy
b. Non-official autopsy
c. Official autopsy
d. Post-mortem examination

6. All are false regarding the persons authorized to perform autopsies and dissection,
except:
a. Health officers, medical officers of law enforcement agencies, medical director
b. Health officers, medical director, members of the medical staff of accredited
hospitals
c. Health officers, medical officers of law enforcement agencies, members of the
staff of accredited hospitals
d. Health officers, members of the medical staff of unaccredited hospitals, medical
officers of law enforcement agencies

7. Code of sanitation:
a. PD 658
b. PD 586
c. PD 856
d. PD 568

8. All of the following are purposes of a Non-official autopsy, except:


a. Determining the cause of death
b. Providing correlation of clinical diagnosis and clinical symptoms
c. Providing interpretation and correlation of facts and circumstances related to
death
d. Determining the effectiveness of therapy

9. Distinction between non-official and official autopsies:


a. Must have consent of the next kin; consent of relatives is not needed
b. Need to be mentioned in the report; it the investigator thinks it will be useful in the
administration of justice, it must be included.
c. Notation of selective findings; emphasis laid on the cause of wrongful act on the
body.
d. Correlation of clinical findings of research; confirmation of tissue changes to the
criminal act.

10. Manner of death that should be autopsied, except:


a. Death by violence
b. Accidental death
c. Suicides
d. Death occurring in a natural manner

11. Stages of medico-legal investigation:


a. Crime scene investigation
b. Autopsy
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
12. It is a place where the essential ingredients of the criminal took place:
a. Hospital ward
b. Emergency room
c. Crime scene investigation
d. OPD

13. Purpose of an official autopsy:


a. Determining the cause, manner (mode) and time of death
b. Providing correlation of clinical diagnosis and clinical symptoms
c. Determining the effectiveness of therapy
d. Studying the natural course of disease process

14. What are the methods for conducting a search?


a. Linear method
b. Zigzag method
c. Triangular method
d. Double strip method

15. It is an official state charged with the duty of inquiring into certain matters:
a. Police officer
b. Military officer
c. Inquest officer
d. Marine officer
16. Guidelines in the Performance of Autopsies: Except

A. Be it an official (medico-legal) or non-official autopsy, the pathologist must be properly


guided by the purposes for which autopsy is to be performed
B. The autopsy must be comprehensive and must not leave some parts of the body
unexamined
C. Bodies which are severely mutilated, decomposing or damaged by fire are still suitable for
autopsy
D A dead body must be embalmed before the autopsy

17. Precautions to be observed in Making Medico-Legal Post-mortem Examination: Except

A. The physician must have all the necessary permit or authorization to perform such an
examination
B. Examination must be made in a Well-lighted place and it is advisable that no unauthorized
person should be present
C. All steps and findings in the examination must be recorded
D. None of the above

18. Preservative used for blood:

A. Sodium fluoride
B. Thymol
C. Potassium oxalate
D. No preservative is needed
19. Best site for blood collection for toxicology sampling:

A. Abdominal aorta
B. Femoral vein
C. Carotid artery
D. Heart

20. Underwater autopsy of the heart is done in cases of:

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Air embolism
D. Pneumothorax

21. Stages in the Post-mortem Examination of the Dead Body Except


A. Preliminary Examination
B External Examination
C. Internal Examination
D. None of the above

22. Following are true about, Errors or omission in the collection of evidence required for
establishing the time of death: Except
A. Failure to report the rectal temperature of the body;
B. Failure to observe changes that may occur in the intensity and distribution of rigor mortis —
before, during and after autopsy.
C. Failure to observe the ingredients of the last meal and its location in the alimentary tract.
D. Failure to report the oral temperature of the body

23. Following are true about, Error or omission in the collection of evidence for identification:
Except

A. Failure to make frontal, oblique and profile photographs of the face;


B. Failure to have fingerprints made;
C. Failure to have a complete dental examination performed.
D. None of the above

24. Following are true about Errors or omission in the collection of evidence required for other
medico-legal examination: Except
A. Failure to collect specimens of blood and brain for determination of the contents of alcohol and
barbiturates;
B. Failure to determine the blood group of the dead person if death by violence was associated
with external bleeding;
C Failure to collect nail scrapings and samples of hair if there is reasonable chance that death
resulted from assault.
D Failure to observe changes that may occur in the intensity and distribution of rigor mortis —
before, during and after autopsy.
25. What is the significant finding of bluish- red color of lung during autopsy?

A. Anthracosis.
B. Hemosiderin brown induration
C. Atelectasis
D. Variation due to age, occupation, content of air and blood
26. True about Negative autopsy. Except
A. It is an autopsy which after a meticulous examination with the aid of other examinations does
not yield any definite cause of death.
B. An autopsy wherein no cause of death is found on account of imprudence, negligence, lack of
skill or lack of foresight of the examiner
C. if after all efforts, including gross and microscopic studies and toxicological analyses, fail to
reveal a cause of death
D. None of the above

27. What is the weight of the thymus in newborn?

A. 22.08 gms
B. 26.18 gms
C. 13.26 gms
D. 11.20 gms

28. In autopsy, spinal cord is opened through which approach:

A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Lateral
D. Anterolateral

29. What is the normal weight of human heart for male

A. 250 gms.
B. 300 gms
C. 120 gms
D. 350 gms

30. True about Negligence autopsy: Except

A. Failure to make a thorough external examination


B. Inadequate or improper internal examinations
C. Failure to have an adequate history or facts and circumstances surrounding the death
D. None of the above
Chapter 6: Causes of Death

1. The Primary purpose of a medico-legal autopsy is?


a. Determine the antecedent cause of death
b. Determine the immediate cause of death
c. Determine the cause of death
d. Determine the primary cause of death
2. In a medico-legal autopsy, death MUST be shown as what?
a. The direct and proximate consequence of the criminal or negligent act of
someone
b. The direct and proximate consequence of the criminal and negligent act of
someone
c. The direct or proximate consequence of the criminal or negligent act of someone
d. The direct or proximate consequence of the criminal and negligent act of
someone
3. If death developed independent of an unlawful act, the person who committed such an
act:
a. Must be punished to the fullest extent of the law
b. Cannot be held responsible for the death
c. Confined for an indeterminate period until proven innocent
d. Investigated thoroughly to ascertain that the act was truly unlawful
4. The following is/are true regarding cardiorespiratory arrest:
a. It is the initial mechanism of most causes of death
b. It can never stand independently as a reasonable explanation for the fatality
c. The cause of such an arrest may be stated to make it valid as specific cause of
death
d. Both a and b
5. This term explains as to how the cause of death came into being or how the cause of
death arose.
a. Mechanism of death
b. Process of death
c. Manner of death
d. Pathology of death
6. The following is true about a medico-legal masquerade, except:
a. Cases of such nature infer that the police investigation and police investigation is
near its completion
b. It may occur in cases where violent deaths may be accompanied by minimal
evidence of injury
c. It may occur in cases where violent deaths may be accompanied by no external
evidence of injury
d. It may occur in cases where natural death where signs of violence may be
present
7. You are a newly appointed MHO in a far flung area, on your first day in service you
receive a case of a 12 y.o. who came if for extreme scrotal pain. Upon history, you
discovered that 1½ minutes prior to admission your patient was practicing for a karate
match with his friends. Upon physical examination, you noted that the patient was
hypotensive. One minute after admission, the patient expired. How would you classify
the cause of death?
a. Accidental death
b. Dead on Arrival
c. Instantaneous Physiologic Death
d. Violent Death
8. In the emergency room you are presented with a case of a 94-year-old Japanese
billionaire who by careful history was found to have died in the wee hours of the morning
from unapparent reasons. Prior to death, the patient was in perfect health. The patient’s
family was concerned because they noted that the patient slept with a full stomach the
night prior to his death. They were worried that this might have been a case of “pok-kuri”.
After performing an autopsy, you were unable to determine any possible lesion which can
be attributed to any probable cause of death. All laboratory reports were negative. What
would you consider as the cause of death?
a. Sudden unexplained nocturnal death
b. Cardio-respiratory arrest
c. Death by inhibition
d. Natural death
9. In the emergency room you are presented with a dying patient who was screaming in
agony. The patient quickly perished 5 minutes after admission though emergency
measures to prevent death were done. On quick inspection of the patient you noticed a
he was jaundiced and had bluish discoloration on his umbilicus. You were uncertain as
to the cause of the bruise because the patient came in alone. No relative came to claim
the body. No autopsy was done. What would you put as the cause of death?
a. DOA
b. SUND
c. Undetermined
d. Death by inhibition
10. The medico legal classification of death due to injuries inflicted upon the body by some
form of outside force which is the proximate cause thereof is:
a. Natural
b. Violent
c. Sickness caused
d. Instantaneous
11. Which of the following classifications of violent death does not require intent to kill as a
requisite?
a. Homicide
b. Parricide
c. Murder
d. None of the above
Case for Numbers 12-15. You are given a case of a 90-year-old-woman who was stabbed 20
times by her 25-year-old common law husband and his adopted daughter in the early hours of
the morning. Further investigation revealed that the suspects were secretly having an affair.
12. Given the information you have presently, how would you go about to classify the crime
committed by the wife?
a. Parricide
b. Homicide
c. Murder
d. Improbable death
13. Given the information you have presently, how would you go about to classify the crime
committed by the son?
a. Parricide
b. Homicide
c. Murder
d. Improbable death
14. After autopsy of the body, you noted that the cause of death was STEMI. Given the
information you have presently, how would you go about to classify the crime committed
by the wife and son?
a. Parricide
b. Homicide
c. Murder
d. Improbable death
15. Further investigation of the crime revealed that the patient administered potassium
chloride the night before the incident. He was assisted by her gardener who was also
her lover. How would you now go about the punishment for the maid?
a. Prision mayor
b. Reclusion temporal
c. Arresto mayor
d. Prision correctional
16. This refers to breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler components associated
with the evolution of foul smelling gasses and accompanied by the change of color of the body.
A. Autolysis
B. Putrefaction
C. Post Mortem
D. Death

17. The following are the internal factors that affect the rate of putrefaction except:
A. Age
B.Condition of the Body
C.Cause of Death
D. Clothing
18. Which of the following factors influences the cahnges in the body after burial?
A. Time elapsed between death and burial and environment of the body.
B. Effect of Coffin
C. Condition and type of soil
D. AOTA
19. Factors Influencing the Floating of the Body in Water EXCEPT:
A. Age
B. Sex
C. Conditions of the body
D. NOTA

20. Dead body floats in a shallow and stagnant water of creeks or pond sooner than in deep
water in running streams
A. True
B. False

21. This refers to the dehydration of the whole body which results in the shivering and
preservation of the body.
A. Putrefaction
B. Autolysis
C. Mummification
D. NOTA

22. This refers to the softening of the tissues when in a fluid medium in the absence of putrefactive
microorganism which is frequently observed in the death of the fetus en utero.
A. Mummification
B. Molting
C. Maceration
D. Saponification

23. True statements regarding duration of death except:


A. In warm countries, rigor mortis sets in from 5-6 hrs after death
B. In tropical areas, decomposition is early and the average time is 24-48hrs after death
C. The approximate time of death may be deduced from the amount of food in the stomach in
relation to his last meal.
D. The approximate time of death may be inferred from the degree of decomposition

24. True statements on the changes in cerebro-spinal fluid except:


A. blood clots inside the blood vessels in 6-8hrs after death
B. Under ordinary conditions, the soft tissues of the body may disappear 1-2yrs after burial
C. Both A and B
D. NOTA

25. The following scenarios are valid for a person to be declared dead for all purposes except:
A. Lost on board a vessel lost during sea voyage, missing airplane, not been heard of for 4 years
since loss of vessel or airplane.
B. Person in armed forces who has taken part in war, missing for 4 years
C. Person In danger of death other circumstances and his existence not known 4 years
D. AOTA

26. Tissue changes in Putrefaction except:


A. Changes in the color of the tissue
B. Evolution of Gasses in the tissues
C. Liquefaction of the Soft Tissues
D. NOTA

27. This refers to the prominence of the superficial veins with redddish discoloration during the
process of decomposition which develops on both flanks of the abdomen, root of the neck and
shoulder.
A. Extravasation
B. Marbolization
C. Displacement
D. Varicose

28. True statements on factors modifying rate of putrefaction except:


A. Bodies of persons whose cause of death is due to infection decomposes rapidly.
B. Bodies of still-born are usually sterile so decomposition is retarded
C. Both A and B
D. NOTA

29. The following are the effects of the pressure of gases of putrefaction except:
A. Displacement of organs
B. Bloating of the body
C. Fluid coming out of both nostrils and mouth
D. Floating of the body

30. True statements regarding the effect of free air on putrefaction except:
A. The accessibility of the body to free air will hasten decomposition
B. The optimum temperature for specific decomposition is 70F to 100F.
C. The organism responsible for putrefaction prefers more the absence of light.
D. Moderate amount of moisture will delay decomposition
Chapter 7: Special Death
1. Which of the following can be inflicted in judicial death?
A. Cruel
B. Unusual
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
2. Arguments in favor of the death penalty include the following except:
A. Deters potential criminals
B. Reformative
C. Satisfies a sense of justice
D. Society is relieved of expenses to support irreformable criminals
3. What is the only method of judicial death recognized by our civil law?
A. Death by electrocution
B. Death by hanging
C. Death by musketry
D. Death by gas chamber
4. The execution of death by electrocution can take place on the following except:
A. On a working day
B. A day designated by the Director of Prisons
C. 8 hours after notification of the culprit
D. Before sunset
5. What voltage of alternating current is administered during death by electrocution
A. 1500 volts
B. > 1500 volts
C. 2500
D. > 2500 volts
6. This is considered as the most gruesome means of death
A. Death by electrocution
B. Death by hanging
C. Death by musketry
D. Death by gas chamber
7. Which of the following does not describe death by hanging?
A. The platform collapses with the person’s knowledge
B. Imposed by military tribunals
C. Imposed by court marshals
D. Applied to persons guilty of very grave offenses
8. Who can be given a death sentence of death by musketry?
A. Court marshals
B. Military tribunal
C. Military personnel
D. Guilty of very grave offenses
9. What is the most common gas given in administering death by gas chamber?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrogen dioxide
D. Phosgene
10. What is the most common way of beheading?
A. Axe
B. Sword
C. Guillotine
D. Machete
11. What causes death during crucifixion?
A. Extreme pain
B. Traumatic asphyxia
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. None of the above
12. This refers to mutilation of the body using a sharp heavy object until dead.
A. Beating
B. Cutting asunder
C. Flaying
D. None of the above
13. Which of the following does not describe euthanasia?
A. Deliberate and painless
B. Acceleration of death
C. With or without the knowledge of the person
D. None of the above

14. This concept refers to allowing a person to die without the application of any operation or
treatment:
A. Active euthanasia
B. Active euthanasia on demand
C. Orthothanasia
D. Dysthanasia
15. Which of the following is not a way of performing euthanasia?
A. Failure to institute essential management procedures
B. Injection of air into the bloodstream
C. Strong electric currents
D. None of the above
16. If a patient performs euthanasia himself, is this considered a crime?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. It depends on the motive
17. A physician assisted in euthanasia by injecting the patient with a lethal dose of poison. What
is his penalty?
A. Reclusion temporal
B. Prision mayor
C. Arresto mayor
D. None of the above
18. Which of the following is not considered a third degree suicide?
A. “accidental” suicide
B. Psychotic or highly intoxicated
C. Method of self-injury is relatively harmless
D. Provision for rescue can be present
19. Which of the following is not considered self-destruction due to self-negligence?
A. Chronic alcoholism
B. Reckless driving
C. Ignoring medical instructions
D. Suicide
20. A person with terminal illness performed self-destructive acts. What is this kind of suicide?
A. Second degree suicide
B. Third degree suicide
C. Justifiable suicide
D. Self-destruction due to self-negligence
21. Death due to use of drugs and poisons may be:
A. Accidental due to automatism
B. Suicidal due to automatism
C. Both
D. None of the above
22. Which of the following will infer that the death of a person was not due to suicide?
A. History of depression
B. Cadaveric spasm of the hand holding the weapon
C. Signs of struggle
D. Wounds are in areas accessible to the hand
23. Underpaid employees went on to a hunger strike to create sympathy. This is classified as:
A. Suicidal cause of starvation
B. Homicidal cause of starvation
C. Accidental cause of starvation
D. None of the above
24. A child was kept in a closed room and was deprived of food and water as part of a
punishment. This is classified as:
A. Suicidal cause of starvation
B. Homicidal cause of starvation
C. Accidental cause of starvation
D. None of the above
25. How much weight loss from starvation can cause death?
A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
26. Who among the following will most likely survive during starvation?
A. A person stranded in the desert
B. A 5-year old male
C. A 23-year old woman
D. An obese person
27. Which of the following is not a symptom of starvation?
A. Intellect remains
B. Epigastric pain not relieved by pressure after 30-48 hours
C. General decrease in subcutaneous fat after 4-5 days
D. Dilated pupils
28. Causes of death during starvation include the following except:
A. Circulatory failure
B. Brown atrophy of heart
C. Intercurrent infection
D. None of the above
29. Which of the following is not a post-mortem finding of a person who died from starvation?
A. Open and red eyes
B. Pale and soft muscles
C. Edematous lungs
D. Peripheral zone necrosis of the liver
30. Determination of the cause of starvation include:
A. Condition of surroundings
B. History of the person’s life
C. Mental condition
D. All of the above

Chapter 8: Disposal of the Dead Body


1. Which of the following has the duty to lawfully bury a person?
a. The surviving spouse
b. Nearest kin
c. Municipal authority
d. All of the Above
2. Who has the utmost right to custody of the deceased body?
a. A friend of the deceased
b. Judge of Court
c. Person with Duty to Bury the body
d. Municipal Secretary
3. What does it mean to be an Executor?
a. To execute a person
b. To execute a will from the deceased
c. To put an end to misery
d. To put an end to slavery
4. What is Embalming?
a. the artificial way of preserving the body after death by injecting 6 to 8 quarts of
antiseptic solutions of formalin, perchloride of mercury or arsenic
b. explosive weapon that uses the exothermic reaction of an explosive material to
provide an extremely sudden and violent release of energy
c. Hair loss, also known as alopecia or baldness, refers to a loss of hair from part of the
head
d. the combustion, vaporization, and oxidation of cadavers to basic chemical
compounds, such as gases, ashes and mineral fragments retaining the appearance
of dry bone
5. When should we bury a deceased after death?
a. 48 hours
b. 16 hours
c. 7 days
d. 9 days
6. If the person died from a communicable disease, when should he or she be buried?
a. Immediately
b. Never
c. Within 12 hours
d. Cremate then bury
7. Who can sign the death certificate of a deceased person?
a. The attending physician
b. The local health officer
c. The municipal mayor
d. All of the Above

8. How deep should a grave be placed?


a. 1 km
b. 2 kms
c. 1 and ½ meters
d. 1 cm
9. If a person violates or desecrates a deceased person’s tomb, what is the maximum fine?
a. 200 pesos
b. 1 million
c. 1 billion
d. 1 peso
10. A burial ground shall be how many meters away from any dwelling house?
a. 1 km
b. 1 cm
c. 25 meters
d. 25 km
11. How many meters away from a water supply should a burial be?
a. 10 meters
b. 50 meters
c. 1 km
d. Can be placed near a water supply
12. Unless claimed by his family, the corpse of the culprit shall, upon the completion of the
legal proceedings subsequent to the execution, be:
a. Turned over to the bakery
b. Turned over to the institute of learning or scientific research
c. Turned over to the church
d. Buried in the sea
13. When can we dispose a deceased body in the sea?
a. If it does not suffer from a dangerous communicable disease
b. if it is in the deceased body’s will
c. if it is part of religious practice
d. all of the above
14. If a body has traces of radioactive isotope, what can be done?
a. Do not require any special handling precautions
b. Subject to further radiation to be sure
c. Cremate
d. Embalm
15. A grave can be put above the ground if the remains are:
a. Unsealed
b. Odorless
c. Fragrant
d. Sealed

Chapter 9: Medico-Legal Aspects of Physical Injuries


1. The effect of some forms of stimulus on the body.
a. Physical Injury
b. Physical violence
c. Vital Reaction
d. Disease
2. The effect of the application of physical violence on a person is the production of wound
(the disruption of the anatomic integrity of a tissue of the body), but not always.
a. Physical Injury
b. Physical violence
c. Vital Reaction
d. disease
3. The sum total of all the reactions of tissue or organ to trauma. The reaction may be
observed macroscopically and microscopically.
a. Physical Injury
b. Physical violence
c. Vital Reaction
d. disease
4. The following are vital reactions EXCEPT,
a. Rubor
b. Dolor
c. Calor
d. Loss of elasticity
5. It is the redness or congestion of the area due to an increase of blood supply as a part of
the reparative mechanism.
a. Rubor
b. Dolor
c. Calor
d. Loss of function
6. The sensation of heat or increase in temperature.
a. Rubor
b. Dolor
c. Calor
d. Loss of function
7. Pain on account of the involvement of the sensory nerve.
a. Rubor
b. Dolor
c. Calor
d. Loss of function
8. On account of the trauma, the tissue may not be able to function normally.
a. Rubor
b. Dolor
c. Calor
d. Loss of function
9. The presence of the vital reaction differentiates an ante-mortem from a post-mortem
injury.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. possibly
10. The wounding agent enters the body but did not come out or mere piercing of a solid
organ or tissue of the body.
a. Perforating
b. Penetrating
c. Defense wound
d. Hematoma
11. The wounding agent produces communication between the inner and outer portion of
the hollow organs.
a. Perforating
b. Penetrating
c. Defense wound
d. Hematoma
12. As regards to the Relation of the Site of the Application of Force and the Location of
Injury the following are correct except,
a. Coup Injury
b. Contre-Coup Injury
c. Coup Contre-Coup Injury
d. Expensive
13. The following are Special Types of Wounds EXCEPT,
a. Patterned wound
b. Self-inflicted Wound
c. Deep wound
d. Defense wound
14. The following are legal classification of physical injury except,
a. Mutilation
b. Mayhem
c. Serious Physical Injury
d. None of the above
15. The unlawful and violent deprival of another of the use of a part of the body so as to
render him less able in fighting, either to defend himself or to annoy his adversary.
a. Mutilation
b. Mayhem
c. Serious Physical Injury
d. None of the above
16. True about antemortem abrasions EXCEPT:
a. Reddish- bronze due to slight exudation of blood
b. Can occur anywhere in the body
c. Occurs with separation or complete loss of the epidermis
d. There is a positive intravital reaction
17. An injury that is produced by a heavy cutting instrument.
a. Impact cut
b. Lacerated wound
c. Slice cut
d. Chopped wound
18. Characteristic of incised wounds:
a. Edges are clean.
b. Healing is relatively fast.
c. Shallow near the extremities and deeper at the middle portion.
d. All of the above.
19. Change seen in an incised wound after 12 hours:
a. Capillary network complete with fibroblasts at right angles to the vessels.
b. Adherent with blood; swollen edges evident and with leukocytic infiltration.
c. Proliferation of vascular endothelium and connective tissue cells.
d. Thickening of vessel.
20. Most common site for self-inflicted incised wound:
a. Neck
b. Thigh
c. Arms
d. Palms
21. Which of the following is true?
a. Suicidal cut-throat: Horizontal across the neck.
b. Hesitation marks are always present in homicidal cuts.
c. The wounding instrument may be found grasped by the victim if it was a suicide.
d. Homicidal cut-throat: the hands of the victim will be smeared with blood.
22. The most serious consequence of stab wounds:
a. Bowel rupture
b. Infection
c. Hemorrhage
d. Pneumoperitoneum
23. Included in the description of the stab wound except:
a. Depth of penetration
b. Tissues involved
c. Condition of the edges
d. Name of the assailant
24. Proof that the stab wound is suicidal:
a. The location of the wound is accessible to the victim
b. Injuries other than stab wound may be present
c. Numerous stab wounds were evident
d. The wound is located anywhere in the body
25. A wound that is easily sealed off and is characteristically more deep than it is wide:
a. Incised wound
b. Punctured wound
c. Stab wound
d. Abrasion
26. Body surface involved in burns that could be fatal to children and elderly:
a. >85%
b. >80%
c. >75%
d. >70%
27. Neurotoxic effect of snake venom except:
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Coma
c. Pain of affected area
d. Convulsion
28. Factors affecting wound healing
a. Nature of the injury
b. Vascularity
c. Age of person
d. All of the above
29. A statement that describes a fistula:
a. Communication between an inner cavity and the outside.
b. Contraction of the fibrous tissue of the scar formed.
c. Large bulging scar produce by abnormal collagen amount.
d. None of the above.
30. True of the rule of nine:
a. The whole of one lower extremity is 9%
b. The posterior chest and back is collectively 18%
c. Pudendal areas comprises another 9%
d. The whole of one upper extremity is 18%
Chapter 10: Medico-Legal Investigation of Wounds
1. The following statements are true, except:
a. All injuries must be described however small, for it may be important later
b. The description of the wounds must be comprehensive. A sketch or photograph
may not be necessary in any circumstance.
c. The examination must not be influenced by any other information obtained from
others in making a report or a conclusion.
d. None of the above
2. The following are factors in determining whether wounds were inflicted during life or after
death except:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Signs of inflammation
c. Signs of repair
d. None of the above

3. Which of the following is/are true of post-mortem wound?


a. There is slight hemorrhage or none at all
b. Hemorrhage, if any, is always venous
c. a and b are correct
d. None of the above
4. Which of the statements is/are true of the nature of the wound inflicted?
a. Abrasion is common in homicide and accidental cause of death
b. Contusion is rare in homicide
c. Incised wound is common in accidental cause of death
d. All of the above
5. External signs and position and attitude of the body when found in determining whether
the wound is homicidal, suicidal or accidental include/s which of the following?
a. Motive
b. Manner in which the weapon was held
c. Location of the weapon
d. All of the above
6. Referring to question number 5, what other information may be helpful in deciding whether
the wound is homicidal, suicidal or accidental?
a. Signs of struggle
b. Number and direction of wound
c. Nature and extent of wound
d. All of the above
7. A wound resulting from a sharp-pointed instrument as weapon:
a. Contusion
b. Abrasion
c. Punctured wound
d. Lacerated
8. Which type/s of wound is/are a result of a blunt instrument used as weapon?
a. Contusion
b. Laceration
c. a and b
d. None of the above
9. If death occurred after a medical intervention, offender is still liable provided:
a. Death is shown to be inevitable and even without intervention, death is a normal
and direct consequence
b. Physician must be competent and exercised care and diligence
c. Minor wounds were received by victim but death resulted in account of gross
incompetence or negligence of physician, offender is liable only for the physical
injuries inflicted
d. All are correct
10. The determination of the victim’s capacity to perform volitional acts rests upon the:
a. Medical witness
b. Police
c. Civilian
d. All of the above
11. Severe injury of the brain and cranial box:
a. Victim may still be capable of locomotion
b. Not prevent performance of voluntary acts
c. Usually produce unconsciousness but power to perform volitional acts depends
upon the area of the brain involved
d. a and b
12. Penetrating wound of the heart
a. Victim may still move and speak
b. Not prevent performance of voluntary acts
c. Usually produce unconsciousness but power to perform volitional acts depends
upon the area of the brain involved
d. Instantaneously fatal but experience shows victim may still be capable of
locomotion
13. Which of the following is/are extrinsic evidence/s in wounds?
a. From wound weapon
b. In the clothing of the victim
c. Evidence from the examination of the assailant
d. All of the above
14. Which of the following pertains to the evidence derived from the examination of the
assailant?
a. Paraffin test of the assailant’s hands
b. Amount of hemorrhage
c. The wounding instrument
d. Hole in the clothing after a gunshot wound
15. Which of the following describes an Ante-mortem wound?
a. Clotted blood
b. No spouting of blood
c. No inflammation or reparative process
d. Soft clot
16. Examinations that are applicable to both the living and dead:
a. Age of the wound from the degree of healing
b. Determination whether the wound is ante-mortem or post-mortem
c. Determination whether the injuryis accidental, suicidal or homicidal
d. a and c
17. This is measurable if the outer wound and the inner end is fixed
a. Character
b. Depth
c. Condition of surroundings
d. Location
18. This is important in determining the trajectory or course of the wounding weapon inside
the body
a. Character
b. Depth
c. Condition of surroundings
d. Location
19. This includes the size, shape, nature of the edges, extremities and other characteristic
marks
a. Character
b. Depth
c. Condition of surroundings
d. Location
20. Conditions of the locality, except:
a. Degree of hemorrhage
b. Evidence of struggle
c. Presence of letter or suicide note
d. All of the above
21. Swelling of the area surrounding the wound, effusion of lymph or pus and adhesion of the
edges
a. Hemorrhage
b. Signs of inflammation
c. Signs of repair
d. Retraction of the edges of the wound
22. More profuse when the wound was inflicted during the lifetime of the victim
a. Hemorrhage
b. Signs of inflammation
c. Signs of repair
d. Retraction of the edges of the wound
23. Fibrin formation, growth or epithelium, scab or scar formation conclusively that the wound
was inflicted during life
a. Hemorrhage
b. Signs of inflammation
c. Signs of repair
d. Retraction of the edges of the wound

24. Which of the following describes a wound inflicted during life?


a. Retract and cause gaping
b. Edges do not gape and are closely approximated to each other
c. a and b
d. None of the above
25. Which of the following describes a wound inflicted after death?
a. Retract and cause gaping
b. Edges do not gape and are closely approximated to each other
c. a and b
d. None of the above
26. Which of the following is not true?
a. A physician can determine definitely that a certain specific was used in inflicting a
wound
b. In a case wherein the victim is a recipient of multiple injuries, the determination as
to which of the injuries caused death is dependent on the testimony of the
physician
c. In a gunshot wound the diameter of the wound of entrance may approximate the
caliber of the wounding firearm.
d. The actual witness may testify in court as to the exact time the wound was inflicted
by the offender
27. Suggestive of accidental death especially in death due to traffic accident
a. Abrasion
b. Contusion
c. Laceration
d. Incision

28. This is important in the case of cut-throat


a. State of the clothing
b. Direction of the wound
c. Nature and Extent of the wound
d. Number of wounds
29. The following rules must not be observed by the physician in the examination of wounds
a. All injuries must be described, however small for it may be important later
b. The description of the wounds must be comprehensive, and if possible a sketch or
photograph must be taken.
c. Both
d. Neither
30. Which of the following accurately describes degree of healing?
a. The capillaries are dilated and edema develops at once
b. Fibroblasts begin to proliferate later with the formation of the granulation tissue
c. Both
d. Neither

Chapter 11: Physical Injuries in the Different Parts of the Body


1. Which of the following is/are true, except;
a. Contusion and laceration are forms of chest wall injuries.
b. Rib fracture can lacerate the parietal pleura causing injuries to the lungs and
heart.
c. Direct violence is the chest wall usually caused a mid-axillary line fracture.
d. A and C
2. Which of the following is/are false, except;
a. Example of rib fracture due to direct violence to the chest wall is stab wound
related fracture
b. Direct violence as a cause of chest wall injury commonly cause oblique fracture.
c. Indirect violence causes fractures at the site of the application of force.
d. None of the above
3. Which of the following is true regarding fracture of the sternum?
a. The common site of fracture in the xiphoid process
b. Causes an oblique type of fracture
c. The fracture is usually not associated with rib fracture but associated with
laceration of the pericardium.
d. Sudden impact of heavy object can cause the fracture.
4. Complications associated with lung injuries are the following;
a. Cerebral air embolism
b. Diaphragmatic herniation
c. Contusion of the heart
d. None of the above
5. The most common site of heart injuries due to external violence is/are;
a. Left ventricle
b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Right atrium
6. Which of the following is/are true, except;
a. Small and transverse wounds in the ventricles are less dangerous compared to
the auricles.
b. Foreign bodies maybe embedded in the myocardium without any cardia
embarrassment.
c. Contusion is easily produced on slight trauma to the heart.
d. None of the above
7. The site of the heart that is prone to rupture is the;
a. Right side towards the apex
b. Right side towards the base
c. Left side towards the apex
d. Left side towards the base
8. The following is/are regarding injuries to the diaphragm;
a. Any penetrating wound may cause diaphragmatic herniation
b. Rupture can be caused by stab wound
c. Diaphragm is usually spared by vehicular accidents
d. Traumatic compression of the chest cannot cause rupture of the diaphragm.
9. Which of the following is/are false, except;
a. The middle superior half of the abdomen is prone to trauma
b. Only anterior application of force can cause trauma to the abdominal wall
c. All of the above
d. none of the above
10. which of the following is/are true about injuries to the abdominal wall
a. The middle inferior half of the abdomen, forming a triangle bounded by the ribs
on the two sides and a line drawn horizontally through the umbilicus forming its
base, is the vulnerable to trauma applied from any direction.
b. Part of the retroperitoneal content is the transverse colon.
c. the contents of the triangle includes the stomach and pancreas
d. all of the above
11. The most common site of rupture of the stomach is/are the following;
a. Pyloric end and body
b. fundus
c. hiatus
d. greater curvature
12. Which of the following is true;
a. Injuries to the chest wall can be a form of stab wounds, fractures, and bullet
wounds.
b. One of the complication of lung injury is hemoptysis
c. Traumatic rupture of the intestines may be due to blow, kick, fall or VA.
d. All of the above
13. Which of the following is true, except;
a. Fracture to the pubis is common in VA and crush injuries.
b. Injuries to the urinary bladder may be caused by blow, crush or kick at the
hypogastrium.
c. Spontaneous rupture of the urinary bladder is common
d. A non-gravid uterus is rarely involve in pelvic injuries.
14. Which of the following is false;
a. Injuries to the vagina may be due to a sexual act
b. Gravid uterus is likely to be ruptured in a blow, kick, or crush injuries.
c. Spontaneous rupture is commonly observed among pregnant women due to the
injudicious use of drugs or abnormal presentation.
d. None of the above
15. which of the following is false, except;
a. Incised wounds are commonly observed in portion where the bones are
superficially located as in the anterior aspect of the leg.
b. Punctured wounds of the hands are uncommon.
c. Contusion and abrasion are frequent lesions of the extremities
d. Fracture of the bones may be due to a direct violence and indirect violence only.

16. Augments the difficulty of appreciating head injuries


a. Nose
b. Hands
c. Hair
d. Ears
17. Most common lesion of the scalp
a. Ischemia
b. Necrosis
c. Lacerated wound
d. Sclerosis

18. May complain of HEADACHE, VOMITING, DROWSINESS. CSH: Absence of blood


a. Subarachnoid hmg
b.Cerebralhmg
c. Epidural hmg
d. Subdural hmg

19. It is the most common cause of cerebral compression.


a. Subarachnoid hmg
b.Cerebralhmg
c. Epidural hmg
d. Subdural hmg

20. It is usually caused by the impact of a blunt object and may appear as a radiating crack from
the site of the application of force and may involve the base of the cranial fossae.
a. Fissure Fractures
b. Localized Depressed Fracture
c. Penetrating injuries of the skull
d. Diffuse fracture

21. Sometimes called "Fracture a La Signature".


a. Fissure Fractures
b. Localized Depressed Fracture
c. Penetrating injuries of the skull
d. Diffuse fracture

22. Sharp-edged instrument produces clean-cut fracture of the skull.


The size and shape of the fracture may correspond to the shape of the wounding instrument.
a. Fissure Fractures
b. Localized Depressed Fracture
c. Penetrating injuries of the skull
d. Diffuse fracture

23. Subarachnoid haemorrhage is caused by, except


a. It may be produced by severe head injury especially in contre coup kind.
b. It may be due to ruptured cerebral aneurysm and is commonly seen at the base of the brain.
c. It may be an extension of the spontaneous hemorrhage of the brain which extends to the
subarachnoid space.
d. none of the above

24. Contusion and hematoma of the scalp may only be appreciated during the
_______________
a. Premortem examination
b. Written examination
c. Postmortem examination
d. None of the above

25. Always caused by trauma.


a. Extradural hmg
b. Epidural hmg
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

26. It may be a result of a simple compression of the skull, as in a pingpong ball.


a. Pond fracture
b. Indented fracture
c. Penetrating injuries of the skull
d. A & B

27. What part of the face that when fractured is a common sequelae of fist blows, and may
cause severe epistaxis and facial deformity.
a. Ears
b. Nose
c. Eyes
d. mounth

28. What part of the face when you see a gunshot wound is occasionally a suicidal case.
a. Ears
b. Nose
c. Eyes
d. Mouth

29. VOMITING, HEADACHE, IRREGULAR BREATHING, INCONTINENCE OF URINATION


AND DEFECATION, AND PARALYSIS are usually present.
a. Compression of the brain
b. Contusion of the brain
c. Hemorrhage of the brain
d. None of the above.
30. These are injuries in the head which are not found at the site of the application of force.
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Continuous
d. Focal

Chapter 12: Death or Physical Injuries Caused by Explosion

1. This is the sudden release of potential energy producing a localized increase in pressure.
a. Explosion
b. Burst
c. Damage
d. Radioactive

2. Factors responsible for the effects of radiation, except:


a. Age
b. Dosage
c. Time
d. Sensitivity

3. Aside from the immediate traumatic effects, the radiation emitted by the radioactive
substances can also have:
a. General and Specific Effects
b. General and Local Effects
c. Overall and Specific Effects
d. Overall and Local Effects

4. These are uncharged rays and composed of highly penetrating particles and basic element in
nuclei of atoms
a. Alpha Rays
b. Beta Rays
c. Gamma Rays
d. Neutron Rays

5. These are rays composed of short rays with high energy and greater penetrating power
a. Alpha Rays
b. Beta Rays
c. Gamma Rays
d. Neutron Rays
6. The following are places of atomic explosion, except:
a. Aerial explosion
b. Ground explosion
c. Submarine explosion
d. Water explosion
7. Diphenylamine Reagent measurement:
a. Dissolve 1 mg sulfuric acid in 100 ml of 30% acetic acid
b. dissolve 1 g diphenylamine in 100 ml concentrated sulfuric acid
c. dissolve 1 g alpha-naphthylamine in 230 ml of boiling distilled water
d. dissolve 1 g alpha-naphthylamine in 250 ml of boiling distilled water

8. Investigation of death or physical injuries that is produced by explosion must be concerned in


determining the following:
a. What exploded?
b. How it produced the injury?
c. How was it initiated?
d. AOTA

9. Classification of Explosion as to the Source of Energy


a. Diffused Explosion
b. Mechanical (Hydraulic) Explosion
c. Condensed Explosion
d. Deflagrating Explosion

10. The most common example of dispersed gas explosion


a. internal combustion engine
b. external combustion engine
c. dynamite
d. Picric Acid

11. An explosive that easily detonates from heat, flame, spark or percussion
a. Stable Low Order Explosive
b. Unstable Low Order Explosive
c. Stable High Order Explosive
d. Unstable High Order Explosive

12. This compound will not detonate unless they are subjected to detonation
a. Stable Low Order Explosive
b. Unstable Low Order Explosive
c. Stable High Order Explosive
d. Unstable High Order Explosive

13. The _______ may go much deeper or the foreign body may lodge inside the body.
a. Channel wound
b. Shaved wound
c. Shrapnel wound
d. Shattered wound
14. Alcoholic KOH Reagent measurement
a. dissolve 10 g of potassium hydroxide in 50 ml of water
b. dissolve 10 g of potassium hydroxide in 100 ml of absolute alcohol
c. dissolve 10 g of potassium hydroxide in 70 ml of water
d. dissolve 10 g of potassium hydroxide in 90 ml of water

15. General effects under lesser dosage of Atomic Explosion consists of:
a. Localized redness
b. Easy fatigability
c. Disorientation followed coma and death
d. Nausea and vomiting

16. One of simplest way of collecting the gas samples for analysis is to:
a. take a bottle full of water in the area where odor is strongest and pour the water out of
the container
b. take a bottle full of vinegar in the area where odor is strongest and pour it out of the
container
c. take a bottle full of sand in the area where odor is strongest and pour it out of the
container
d. take a bottle full of coke in the area where odor is strongest and pour it out of the
container

17. Other tests that can be utilized to analyze the extracts


a. Infra-red spectrophotometry
b. X-ray diffraction
c. Gas chromatographic analysis
d. AOTA

18. What is the approximate diameter of fireball produced


a. 1, 000 feet
b. 7, 200 feet
c. 10, 000 feet
d. 100, 000 feet

19. Griess Reagent measurement for solution 2:


a. Dissolve 1 mg sulfuric acid in 100 ml of 30% acetic acid
b. Dissolve 1 mg sulfanilic acid in 100 ml of 30% acetic acid
c. dissolve 1 g alpha-naphthylamine in 230 ml of boiling distilled water
d. dissolve 1 g alpha-naphthylamine in 250 ml of boiling distilled water
20. This explosion takes pace underneath the surface of a body of water.
a. Submarine explosion
b. Aerial explosion
c. Underneath explosion
d. NOTA

21. The site of explosion may be identified by the presence of a:


a. crater
b. hole
c. space warp
d. NOTA

22. This refers to a single dose that may be lethal when administered over a long interval of time.
a. Fractional Doses
b. Long-term Doses
c. Extended Doses
d. AOTA

23. What is the approximate height of fireball produced


a. 1, 000 feet
b. 7, 200 feet
c. 10, 000 feet
d. 100, 000 feet

24. General effects under massive dosage of Atomic Explosion consists of:
a. Localized redness
b. Easy fatigability
c. Disorientation followed coma and death
d. Rapid death

25. A source of radiation chiefly from radiothorium series of granite rocks


a. Cataract
b. Posterior uveitis
c. Terrestrial Origin
d. blindness

26. This refers to muscles and connective tissue being radio-resistant while actively dividing
tissues are radio-sensitive.
a. Sensitivity
b. Resistance
c. Factors
d. Characteristics
27. Ophthalmic local effects of Atomic Explosion consists of:
a. Cataract
b. Posterior uveitis
c. Conjunctivitis
d. blindness

28. Nuclear Bomb Explosion vs Conventional High Explosive Bomb Explosion


a. composed of positively or negatively charged electrons with a higher penetrating power
b. the substance which remains after the explosion has dissipated in emitting radiation
c. the effects of the blast are less prominent
d. A large proportion of its energy is emitted as thermal radiation

29. Reagent result for chlorate (Griess-Diphenylamine-Alcoholic KOH) is as follows:


a. No color — no color — red
b. No color — blue — no color
c. Pink — blue — no color
d. Pink — blue-black — no color

30. The following explosives may cause shrapnel wound, match the correct pair
a. Grenade – arms
b. Mines – underground
c. Bomb – submarine
d. Missiles – airborne

Chapter 13: Gunshot Wounds

1. Which among the ff. is the Section 2692, Revised Administrative Code?
a. Unlawful manufacture, dealing in acquisition, disposition, or possession of
firearms, or ammunitions therefor, or instrument used or intended to be used in the
manufacture of firearms or ammunition
b. Selling of firearms to unlicensed purchaser
c. Alarms and Scandals
d. Discharge of Firearms

2. The person selling firearms to unlicensed purchaser will be punished by?


a. Imprisonment for a period of not less than 1 year and 1 day not more than 5 years.
or both such imprisonment and a fine of not less than 1,000 pesos nor more than
5,000 pesos, in the discretion of the court.
b. Imprisonment shall be not less than 5 years nor more than 10 years.
c. Fine not exceeding 2,000 pesos, or by imprisonment not exceeding 2 years, or
both.
d. Fine not exceeding 500 pesos or by imprisonment not exceeding 6 months, or
both.
3. The ff. are classification of small firearms, except:
a. As to Wounding Power
b. As to Nature of the Bore
c. As to the Manner of Firing
d. As to the Nature of Heat

4. Which among the ff. small firearms is also called “SELF-LOADING FIREARM?
a. Revolver
b. Automatic Pistol
c. Rifle
d. Shotgun

5. What are the 2 principal component parts of a weapon?


a. Powder and Bullet
b. Missile and Projectile
c. Cartridge or Ammunition and Firearm
d. Extractor and Ejector

6. Which among the ff. are the additional parts for a self-loading firearms?
a. Powder and Bullet
b. Missile and Projectile
c. Cartridge or Ammunition and Firearm
d. Extractor and Ejector
7. The ff. are factors inherent on the missile responsible for injurious effects of firearms,
except:
a. Speed of the Bullet
b. Size and Shape of the Bullet
c. Character of the Missile's Movement in Flight
d. Density of Target

8. The ff. are nature of the target responsible for the injurious effects of firearms, except:
a. Density of Target
b. Length of Tissue Involvement in its Course
c. Nature of the Media Traversed
d. None of the above

9. _________ is the pressure of the bullet on the skin causing it to be depressed and as
the bullet lacerates the skin, the depressed portion will be rubbed with the rough surface
of the bullet.
a. Abrasion Collar
b. Contuso-abradded Collar
c. Marginal Abrasion
d. All of the above
10. __________is one of the destructive mechanisms of a gunshot wherein the bullet
traverses organs filled with fluid (like full stomach, cerebral ventricle, heart chambers), and
the liquid contents within the lumen of these organs are displaced radially away from the
bullet path producing extensive laceration.
a. Temporary Cavity
b. Hydrostatic Force
c. Shock Wave
d. Disintegration of the Bullet

11. The appearance of the gunshot wound of entrance depends on the following except:
a. Caliber of the wounding weapon
b. Range
c. Direction of the Fire
d. There is no exception.
12. The following are generally true about the gunshot wound of entrance except:
a. The higher the caliber of the wounding bullet, the greater will be the size of the
wound entrance
b. The wound of entrance is oval or circular with everted edges, except in near shot
or in grazing or slap wound.
c. Deformity of the bullet modifies the shape of the wound of entrance.
d. High power weapon has more destructive effect as compared with low power
one.
13. Which of the following is true regarding the nature and extent of injury caused by contact
fire?
a. If all gaseous product of combustion is allowed to be spilled out, there will be
more destructive effects on the tissues
b. The volume of gas liberated after explosion of the propellant is dependent on the
amount and nature of the powder.
c. Soft or hollow point bullet has the tendency to flatten and cause less damage to
tissues.
d. Bigger caliber bullet causes less destruction than a smaller one.
14. The following are characteristics of injuries of pressed and firm contact fire on parts of
the body where bone is superficial except:
a. The wound entrance is large, frequently star-shaped.
b. Edges of the wound are always inverted.
c. Areas in the entrance wound are blackened by burns, tattooing and smudging.
d. Singeing of the hair is confined only at the site of wound entrance.
15. The following are characteristics of injuries of pressed and firm contact fire on parts of
the body where bone is deeply located except:
a. Wound is usually large, circular and without radiating laceration.
b. Muzzle imprint is present due to outward slapping of the skin and heat.
c. Bluish color of the deeper structures due to carbon monoxide.
d. Singeing of hair, blackening of the wound due to fouling, burn, and tattooing.
16. Powder tattooing which is dense and has limited dimension is present in
a. Loose contact or near fire
b. Short range fire (1-15cm)
c. Medium range fire (>15 cm , < 60cm)
d. More than >60 cm distance
17. Gunpowder tattooing which is less dense but wider area of distribution is present in
a. Loose contact or near fire
b. Short range fire (1-15cm)
c. Medium range fire (>15 cm , < 60cm)
d. More than >60 cm distance
18. The following are factors which make the wound of entrance bigger than the caliber
except
a. In contact or near fire
b. Deformed bullet before entrance
c. Right angular approach of the bullet
d. Bullet might have entered the skin sidewise
19. Which of the following is an instance where there is no gunshot wound of exit but the
bullet is not found in the body?
a. When the bullet is lodged in the pharynx and was coughed out by the victim
b. When the bullet is lodged in the GIT and was dissolved by gastric acid
c. When the bullet is readily biodegradable upon contact with human tissue
d. When the bullet lodged in the body but disguises as a cartilage
20. A special form of bullet migration when the bullet loses its momentum while inside the
chamber of the heart or inside a big blood vessel and carried by the circulating blood to
some parts of the body where it may be lodged
a. Souvenir bullet
b. Tandem bullet
c. Bullet embolism
d. Bullet thrombus
21. The following are under the classes of shot in a shotgun shell except:
a.) Birdshot
b.) Buckshot
c.) Single Projectile
d.) Double Projectile
22. This is a type of shotgun wound of entrance not more than 6 inches:
a.) Contact or near contact shot
b.) Long range shot
c.) Faraway range shot
d.) Close shot
23. This is a type of test for the presence of gunpowder residues on colored clothing.
a.) Dermal Nitrate Test
b.) Walker’s Test
c.) Schilling’s Test
d.) Jones’ Test
24. What are the factors to consider in Firearm Identification?
a.) Caliber of Weapon
b.) Fingerprints
c.) Serial Number
d.) All of the Above
25. What is the most important procedure when restoring tampered firearm serial number?
a.) Cleaning
b.) Polishing
c.) Etching
d.) Ballistic examination
26. The following are distinct areas of ballistics except
a.) Interior Ballistics
b.) Exterior Ballistics
c.) Terminal Ballistics
d.) None of the Above
27. This instrument is used in firearm identification for the purpose of recovering the test
bullet and shell.
a.) Bullet Recover Box
b.) Comparison Microscopes
c.) Analytic Balance
d.) Caliper
28. In firearm identification, the examiner must take into consideration the following, except?
a.) Caliber of bullet
b.) Presence of foreign elements
c.) Identity marks placed by previous possessor
d.) Fresh blood
29. In this body part, a firearm wound may not cause serious trouble but can become a
potential avenue of infection and may cause marked deformity.
a.) Face
b.) Abdomen
c.) Brain
d.) Extremities

30. Gunshot wound to this body part may cause injury to the trachea and upper bronchi
causing asphyxia or aspiration pneumonia.
a.) Neck
b.) Extremities
c.) Spine
d.) Head
Chapter 14: Thermal Injuries or Death
1) An example of a thermal injury is:
a) Frostbite
b) Scalding
c) Both
d) None of the above

2) Cold damp air is more fatal than cold dry air.

a) True
b) False
c) It depends upon the situation
d) None of the above

3) Local effects of cold include:

a) Vascular spasm
b) Vascular dilatation
c) Both
d) None of the above

4) Systemic effects of cold include the following, EXCEPT:

a) Bradypnea
b) Tachycardia
c) Decreased metabolism
d) None of the above

5) External post-mortem findings on death or injuries by cold include the following, EXCEPT:

a) Cold stiffening
b) Frost Erythema
c) Delay of rigor mortis
d) None of the above

6) Internal post-mortem findings on death or injuries by heat include the following:

a) Cold stiffening
b) Frost Erythema
c) Delay of rigor mortis
d) None of the above

7) Audible cracking sound on flexing large joints during post-mortem exam is due to:

a) Contractures
b) Breakdown of fats
c) Breakdown of synovial fluid
d) Breakdown of the epithelial layer
8) Burns may be caused by:
a) Hydrochloric acid
b) X-ray
c) Lightning bolts
d) All of the above

9) Other terms for heat cramps include, EXCEPT:

a) Miner’s cramp
b) Fireman’s cramp
c) Sunstroke cramp
d) All of the above

10) Symptoms of heat cramps are:

a) Sudden syncope
b) Mydriasis
c) Pale face
d) All of the above

11) A pale face, cold skin, subnormal temperature, dilated pupils, weak and thread pulses with a
sighing respiration are characteristic symptoms of:

a) Heat cramps
b) Heat exhaustion
c) Heat stroke
d) Only A and C

12) A congested face, dry skin, sudden rise in temperature with full and pounding pulses are
characteristic symptoms of:

a) Heat cramps
b) Heat exhaustion
c) Heat stroke
d) Any of the above

13) Death 30 minutes to 1 hours after onset of symptoms is characteristic of:

a) Heat cramps
b) Heat exhaustion
c) Heat stroke
d) Any of the above

14) Post-mortem findings of death by heat include:

a) Early putrefaction
b) Temperature rise after death
c) Internal organ congestion
d) All of the above
15) Characteristic of scalds:

a) Geographical lesion
b) Clothings are affected
c) Presence of soot in the nasal mucosa
d) All of the above

16) Death in scalds, although rare, is usually due to:

a) Septic complications
b) Embolus
c) Myocardial Infarction
d) Pain intolerance

17) The term used when a building is set on fire to kill or with homicidal intent

a) Rigor mortis
b) Torch murder
c) Corpus delicti
d) Accelerant

18) The following are characteristic of burns, EXCEPT:

a) Geographical lesion
b) Singeing of hair
c) Presence of soot on nasal mucosa
d) None of the above

19) Classification of burns by degree is also known as:

a) Jones-Duke Classification
b) Braxton Hicks Classification
c) Dupuytren’s Classification
d) Myasthenic Classification

20) A first degree burn is characterized by:

a) Destruction of the cuticle and part of the true skin


b) Vesicle formation and acute inflammation
c) Formation of slough
d) Erythema or simple redness of the skin with acute inflammation

21) How many degrees of burn classification are there?

a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 5
22) Factors influencing the effects of burns in the body include:

a) Degree of heat applied


b) Duration of exposure or contact
c) Age of the victim
d) All of the above

23) Which of the following is/are true?

a) Women are more resistant to cold than men.


b) Men are more resistant to burn than women.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

24) Proofs that the victim was alive before burned to death:

a) Presence of smoke in the air passage


b) Increase carboxy-hemoglobin blood level
c) Subendocardial left ventricular hemorrhage
d) All of the above

25) In ante-mortem patients, the following are seen, EXCEPT:

a) Blister is scanty in albumen and chlorides


b) Presence of inflammatory area
c) Base of the vesicle is red in color
d) All of the above

26) During investigation of death due to thermal injury, identity can be established through:

a) Clothing
b) Size of footwear
c) Property in the pockets
d) All of the above

27) External post-mortem findings in burns and scalds include:

a) Pugilistic position
b) Side-lying position
c) Fencing position
d) A and C only
28) Internal post-mortem findings in burns and scalds include:

a) Cherry red blood


b) Exposure of internal organs
c) Blackening of the body
d) Singeing of the hairs of the body
29) Formation of yellow or yellowish-brown slough is a characteristic lesion of what chemical?

a) Hydrochloric acid
b) Nitric acid
c) Potash
d) Sulphuric acid

30) The following are kinds of electrical burns, EXCEPT:

a) Flash burn
b) Spark burn
c) Contact burn
d) Oil of Vitriol burn

Chapter 15: Physical Injuries or Death by Lightning and Electricity


1. It is an electrical change in the atmosphere in which place of occurrence and intensity are
unpredictable.
a. Thunder
b. Lightning
c. Fire
d. Force field
2. The flash of lightning is due to passage of what medium to produce direct electric current
of enormous potential?
a. Thunder cloud
b. Thunder clap
c. Air
d. Smog
3. How much volts is required to produce an electric current of enormous potentials?
a. 1 million volts
b. 2 million volts
c. 1 billion volts
d. 2 billion volts
4. It is a unit of measure of the rate of electron flow or current in an electrical conductor.
a. Amperes
b. Ohm
c. Volts
d. Watts
5. How much current is required to produce an electric current of enormous potentials?
a. 1,000 amperes
b. 2,000 amperes
c. 1,000 ohm
d. 2,000 ohm
6. A great portion of lightning is converted to what type of energy?
a. Electrical
b. Chemical
c. Mechanical
d. Heat
7. What is the direct effect to the body from the electrical charge?
a. Headache
b. Shock
c. Electrocution
d. Retrograde amnesia
8. This is caused by the superheated air from electrical energy in a lightning characterized
as arborescent marking on skin.
a. Erythema
b. Superficial burns
c. Purpura
d. Flash burn
9. This is caused by the expansion of the air on the account of superheated atmosphere.
a. Mechanical injury
b. Electrical injury
c. Chemical injury
d. Physical injury
10. What characteristic lesion is caused by compressed air pushed before the current with
superheated atmosphere that produces backward wave?
a. Sledgehammer burn
b. Mercedes-benz blow
c. Sledge hammerblow
d. Nicoladoni-Branham burn
11. What is the first point to consider in making the diagnosis of death from lightning?
a. Survey the scene
b. Rule out lesions from suicide/homicide cases
c. History of thunderstorm in the locality
d. Look for metals in the surroundings
12. All of these are points to consider in making a diagnosis of death from lightning except:
a. Fused and magnetized metallic articles.
b. Fusion of glass materials because severe heat.
c. Skin often shows arborescent markings due to superficial erythema which disappear
1-2 days if the person lives.
d. Damage to electric lines due to a weather disturbance
13. Arborescent burns is also known as
a. Filigree burns
b. Asclepias burns
c. Zea burns
d. Mangifera burns
14. What is the immediate effect of lightning in the human body?
a. Linear burn
b. Syncope
c. Death
d. Shock
15. Which of the following is a symptom of mild attack?
a. No pulse
b. Stuporous
c. Miosis of the pupil
d. External lesion of almost any description
16. Which of the following is NOT a delayed effect of lightning?
a. Insomnia and defective memory.
b. Progressive cerebral syndrome
c. Irritability and inability to concentrate.
d. Paralysis or an increasing weakness of the limbs with progressive wasting of the
muscles.
17. What type post-mortem finding includes marked tearing of apparel and wounds of any
description?
a. External
b. Internal
c. Global
d. Focal
18. True or false. Investigation of death due to lightning is an accidental death which not by
itself of any medico-legal interest.
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. No comment
19. What is the main common cause of death in electricity?
a. Syncope
b. Stress
c. Shock
d. Extensive burn
20. An ordinary domestic line contains _______ volts which is sufficient to cause death.
a. > 300
b. 100-250
c. < 300
d. 250-300
21. This is a factor which increases the resistance to an electrical current.
a. Rest
b. Stress
c. Eating
d. Sleep
22. What nature of current is more dangerous to the human body from electric shock?
a. Alternating current
b. Direct current
c. Rip current
d. Electric current
23. Which is not a mechanism of death in electric shock?
a. Ventricular fibrillation which may lead to the rupture of some of the muscle fibers and
focal hemorrhages in low voltage.
b. Anemia from shock
c. Respiratory failure due to bulbar paralysis in high voltage.
d. Mechanical asphyxia due to violent and prolonged convulsion.
24. What is the other term for electric burns?
a. Fat necrosis
b. Current burn
c. Electrical necrosis
d. Fat burn

25. Compression of what layer of the skin is evident in electric burns?


a. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum basale
c. Stratum spinosum
d. Stratum granulare
26. Which of the following is NOT a symptom in person who escaped death from electric
burns?
a. Surface of the body is cold and moistened.
b. Breath is stertorous.
c. Pulse is rapid, filiform and may be irregular.
d. Erythematous face
27. This is a specific feature of electric injury that may cause extensive darkening of skin of
the affected area?
a. Crystallization
b. Metallization
c. Saponification
d. Ventilation
28. Damage to what vessels cause necrosis and eventually gangrene to the affected area?
a. Arterial
b. Venous
c. Capillary
d. AV malformation
29. Which of the following is NOT a late manifestation of nervous injury from electrical injuries?
a. Retrograde amnesia
b. Changes in personality
c. Hemiplegia
d. Shock
30. True or false. Accidental electrocutions rarely occur in grounded laundry line, electric
stoves and outlets.
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. No comment

Chapter 16: Death or Physical Injuries Due To Change of Atmospheric


Pressure
1. What is the normal atmospheric pressure at sea level?
a. 100 mmHg
b. 200 mmHg
c. 760 mmHg
d. 300 mmHg

2. Which of the following is true regarding BAROTRAUMA?


a. It is defined as death or physical injuries due to change of atmospheric pressure.
b. It is an increase of atmospheric pressure.
c. It is an adjective.
d. It is a verb.

3. It is a gas law that states that "at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved in a
liquid is directly proportional to the pressure".
a. Henry’s law
b. Genezen’s law
c. 3rd year medicine’s law
d. TRAIN law

4. The following is/ are the effect/s of barotrauma by increased atmospheric pressure
during descent:
a. Euphoria
b. Pulmonary edema
c. Rupture of the blood vessels and haemorrhage
d. All of the Above
5. The following is/ are the effect/s of barotrauma by increased atmospheric pressure
during ascent:
a. Potent emboli in different parts of the body
b. Interstitial emphysema at its chest wall and also at the neck and face
c. Pneumothorax and pulmonary air embolism
d. All of the above

6. It is a process in which nitrogen gas is dissolved in the bodily fluid and produces the
feeling of euphoria.
a. Oxygen narcosis
b. Narcos: Mexico
c. Nitrogen narcosis
d. Love and other drugs

7. The following is/are other effect/s a diver may suffer due to increased atmospheric
pressure during ascent, except:
a. Interstitial emphysema at its chest wall and also at the neck and face
b. Pneumothorax and pulmonary air embolism
c. "bends”
d. None of the above

8. Which of the following statement/s is/are true regarding ascent from a high atmospheric
pressure of the deep sea to the surface atmosphere?
a. If ascent is made gradually, the chances of untoward effects may not be observed.
b. If ascent is made rapidly, the diver may suffer from the effects of the sudden release
of the gases from the body fluid.
c. Both a and b
d. Not applicable

9. These are air emboli during decompression that are lodged in the capillaries of the big
joints causing it to adopt a semi-flexed position.
a. “Bends”
b. Bend and snap
c. Ben&Ben
d. “Snaps”

10. The following are post- mortem findings found if death has been an immediate process,
except:
a. Subcutaneous emphysema and the presence of gas bubbles.
b. Extra-vascular bubbles and hemorrhages in adipose tissues
c. Osteonecrosis
d. generalized visceral congestion
11. The following are post- mortem finding/s found if death has occurred after a lapse of
several days, except:
a. Degeneration and softening of the white matter of the spinal cord.
b. Fat necrosis of the liver.
c. Osteonecrosis.
d. None of the above

12. It is an increase in atmospheric pressure.


a. Hypobarism
b. Barotrauma
c. Hyperbarism
d. Ascent

13. At what feet level will hypoxia be felt?


a. Between 5 to 8 ft.
b. Between 8,000 to 15,000 ft.
c. Between 1 to 2 ft.
d. 6 ft.

14. Which of the following is the concept behind hypobarism?


a. At a higher altitude, the atmospheric pressure becomes lower and more gas will be
liberated by the body fluid.
b. at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is directly
proportional to the pressure
c. Winter is coming.
d. Death or physical injuries due to change of atmospheric pressure

15. The following are causes of injuries and fatalities in an aircraft during a flight, except:
a. Altitude
b. Speed
c. Toxins
d. None of the above
.
Chapter 17: Death by Asphyxia
1. What type of asyphyxial death is associated with the failure of the arterial blood to
become normally saturated with oxygen?
A. Anemic Anoxic Death
B. Histotoxic Anoxic Death
C. Anoxic Death
D. Stagnant Anoxic Death

2. Which of the following is not included in the phases of asphyxia death?


A. Dyspneic Phase
B. Convulsive Phase
C. Apneic Phase
D. None of the above.

3. Which of the following is a form of violent death brought about by the suspension of the
body by a ligature which encircles the neck and the constricting force is the weight of the
body?
A. Asphyxia by Hanging
B. Strangulation
C. Garroting
D. None of the above.

4. Which of the following is not a symptom of asphyxia by hanging?


A. Gradual loss of sensibilities.
B. Sensation of constriction of the neck.
C. Loss of consciousness and muscular power.
D. None of the above.

5. Which of the following is a cause of death in strangulation by ligature?


a. Asphyxia due to the occlusion of the windpipe.
b. Coma due to arrest of cerebral circulation.
c. Shock or syncope.
d. All of the above.

6. Which is not a special form of strangulation?


A. Palmar Strangulation
B. Garroting
C. Mugging
D. None of the above.
7. Which of the following is a form of asphyxial death caused by the closing of the external
respiratory orifices, either by the use of the hand or by some other means?
A. Strangulation
B. Hanging
C. Smothering
D. None of the above.

8. Which of the following is the most common accidental smothering in children?


A. Choking
B. Overlaying
C. Plastic Bag suffocation
D. All of the above.

9. This is a form of suffocation brought about by the impaction of foreign body in the
respiratory passage.
A. Choking
B. Mugging
C. Strangulation
D. None of the above.

10. The most common foreign bodies impacted are:

A. Vomitus, especially when the person is under the influence of alcohol.


B. Regurgitation of food from the stomach, as coagulated milk in children.
C. Bolus of food.
D. All of the above.

11. This is a form of strangulation with the assailant standing at the back and the forearm is
applied in front of the neck.
A. Mugging
B. Choking
C. Hugging
D. None of the above.

12. This is a mode of judicial execution during the 19th century and it is still being practiced in
Spain and Turkey.
A. Mugging
B. Hugging
C. Garroting
D. None of the above.
13. This a form of asphyxial death whereby the constricting force applied in the neck is the
hand.
A. Throttling
B. Manual Strangulation
C. Both A&B
D. None of the above.

14. These are caused by the haemorrhage produced by the rupture of the capillaries on
account of the increase of intra-capillary pressure..
A. Tardieu Spots
B. Petechiae
C. Cephalhematoma
D. None of the above.

15. This is the general term applied to all forms of violent death which results primarily from
the interference with the process of respiration or the condition in which the supply of
oxygen to the blood or to the tissues or both has been reduced below normal level.
A. Strangulation
B. Choking
C. Asphyxia
D. Spanking

16. This is a form of asphyxia wherein the nostrils and mouth has been submerged in any
watery, viscid or pultaceous fluid for a time to prevent the free entrance of air into the air
passage and lungs?
a. Asphyxia by submersion or drowning
b. Asphyxia by breathing irresponsible gases
c. Asphyxia by suffocation
d. Asphyxia by strangulation
17. It is primary cause of death in ordinary submersion in water is asphyxia. The water
interferes with the free exchange of air in the air sacs.
a. Primary Drowning
b. Secondary Drowning
c. Typical Drowning
d. Atypical Drowning
18. Cardiac inhibition following submersion due to the stimulation of the vagus nerve is an
example of:
a. Primary Drowning
b. Secondary Drowning
c. Typical Drowning
d. Atypical Drowning
19. 4 minutes of drowning could:
a. Be fatal
b. Be that the person may still survive
c. Is the average time required for death in drowning
d. Be wrong
20. This is an emergency treatment for drowning with face down, the patient must be in a
prone position. The operator kneels astride the body and exerts pressure on the lower
ribs at the rate of 12 to 15 times a minute.
a. Schaefer’s Method
b. Sylvester’s Method
c. Valsalva Maneuver
d. Aquosum Method
21. This is an emergency treatment for drowning with the patient lying on his back, and the
operator astriding over the body, swinging the arms forward up and then pressing the
chest wall. This is repeated every 3 to 5 seconds.
a. Schaefer’s Method
b. Sylvester’s Method
c. Valsalva Maneuver
d. Aquosum Method
22. All are external findings of the skin of a drowned person, except:
a. “cutis anserine”
b. “goose-skin”
c. “gooseflesh”
d. None of the above
23. All are findings of the respiratory system of a drowned person, except:
a. “Emphysema aquosum”
b. “Edema aquosum”
c. “Champignon d’ocume”
d. None of the above
24. It is a quantitative determination of the chloride content of the blood in the right and left
ventricle of the heart.
a. Gettler’s Test
b. Legal medicine Test
c. Rinne Test
d. Confrontation Test
Chapter 18: Death or Physical Injuries Due to Automotive Crash or
Accident
1. Reckless Driving
A. Human Factor
B. Mechanical Factor
C. Environmental Factor
D. Social Factor
2. Influenced by the condition of the tire, condition of the ground and the amount of weight
of the load.
A. Sked time
B. Mechanical time
C. Skid time
D. Clutch time
3. Impact of the moving vehicle with another vehicle or a fixed object.
A. Second collision
B. First collision
C. Side crash
D. Rear crash
4. Factors Responsible for passenger and driver injury
A. Displacement of the occupant within the vehicle with Impact against structures
B. Ejection
C. Distribution of the passengers in the compartment resulting in direct impact
injuries
D. AOTA
5. Also known as Turn-Turn Impact
A. Rear Impact Crash
B. Roll Over Crash
C. Side Impact Crash
D. Suicidal Crash
6. The backward and forward movement of the head is known as:
A. Whiplash
B. Acceleration-deceleration Injury
C. AOTA
D. NOTA
7. Impact a that may involve the gas tank
A. Rear Impact Crash
B. Side Impact Crash
C. Roll Over Crash
D. Suicide Crash
8. Common impact in street intersection with more severe injuries
A. Front Impact Crash
B. Rear Impact Crash
C. Side Impact Crash
D. Roll Over Crash
9. Crime scene investigation may show the foot still on the accelerator pedal.
A. Rear Impact Crash
B. Side Impact Crash
C. Roll Over Crash
D. Suicide Crash
10. Acute flexion of the trunk with the seatbelt
A. Jacknifing
B. Jackflipping
C. Jacksniffing
D. Jackthebeanstalk
11. First violent contact between the pedestrian and the motor vehicle.
A. Primary Impact
B. Secondary Impact
C. Tertiary Impact
D. Quaternary Impact
12. This usually happens when the driver is drunk or “high”, at night time, in an isolated road
A. Hit-and-run Injuries
B. Run-and-Hit Injuries
C. Side sweep Injuries
D. Run Over Injuries
13. Fracture of the leg bones as a consequence of the primary impact
A. Primary Fracture
B. Bumper Fracture
C. Bright Fracture
D. Shocking Fracture
14. Marks most utilized in the identification of the vehicle in “hit-and-run” cases
A. Tire thread marks
B. Abrasion marks
C. Paint marks
D. Blood, hair or clothing marks
15. A person with at least 0.15% alcohol in the blood
A. Alcoholic drunkenness
B. Drunk driving
C. Driving under influence
D. Social drunkenness
16. Reasons why there is a high percentage of motorcycle crash
A. A motorcycle can attain a low speed compared with other ordinary road vehicle
B. It has a large profile that the driver of other vehicles may fail to see it
C. At low speed and frequently in curves , the cyclist may lose control of the bike
D. NOTA
17. Laceration of the spleen and kidneys with pelvic fracture
A. Side Impact
B. Front Impact
C. Roll Over Impact
D. Rear Impact
18. Injuries sustained when the car is running with high velocity and the steering wheel may
be driven back into the passenger compartment
A. Chest, neck or facial injury
B. Lower extremities injury
C. Laceration or rupture of the heart
D. Laceration of spleen and kidney
19. Defect in the steering wheel, poor brake transmission failure, worn out tires
A. Mechanical Factor
B. Social Factor
C. Human Factor
D. Environmental Factor
20. Space of time the driver perceives an impending danger and the actual application of the
brake
A. Reaction time
B. Realization time
C. Clutch time
D. Brake time
21. Unable to perceive whistle of train or automotive horn
A. Perceptive defect
B. Delayed or sluggish reaction time
C. Mental attitude
D. Environmental Factor
22. Driver may develop an epileptic fit or suffer from a heart attack
A. Episodes
B. Disease
C. Defect
D. Psychosocial
23. May strike the dashboard and windshield
A. Driver
B. Front Seat Passenger
C. Rear Occupant Passenger
D. AOTA
24. Means employed to minimize injury to driver and passenger
A. Use of soft padded dashboard
B. Fender, bumper, and other parts are made of metal
C. AOTA
D. NOTA
25. The victim dies of shock and death that in most cases it is instantaneous , especially
when there is crashing injury on the head
A. Run Over Injuries
B. Secondary Impact
C. Hit-and-run Injuries
D. Primary Impact
26. Primary impact of the vehicle may forcibly open the unlocked door.
A. Ejection of the Occupant
B. Acceleration
C. Mechanical defect
D. Social factor
27. Unrestrained passenger may tumble inside the vehicle and may sustain injuries from
striking the interior of the vehicle
A. Roll Over Crash
B. Rear Impact Crash
C. Side Impact Crash
D. Front Crash
28. Insurance develop a “devil may care” attitude
A. Social Factor
B. Environmental Factor
C. Human Factor
D. Pedestrian
29. Factors responsible to an automotive crash, except
A. Human Factor
B. Environmental Factor
C. Pedestrian
D. NOTA
30. Involve in a Front Impact Crash
A. Driver
B. Front Seat Passenger
C. Rear Seat Occupant
D. NOTA
Chapter 19: Death or Physical Injuries due to Athletic Sports
1. The following are aspects of sports development, except:
a. training method
b. injuries
c. nutrition
d. none of the above

2. This is the psychological concept where people can channel their energy through sports
instead of committing crime.
a. projection
b. regression
c. rationalization
d. sublimation

3. Reasons why boxing should not be prohibited:


a. Discipline
b. Self-confidence
c. Physical Fitness
d. All of the above

4. The most common site of lacerated wound in boxing


a. forehead
b. eyebrow and cheek
c. jaw
d. None of the above

5. Also known as “black eye”.


a. orbital hematoma
b. optic umbriation
c. spectacle hematoma
d. none of the above

6. Trauma on the pinna of the ear may produce hematoma with subsequent necrosis of the
auricular cartilage. After healing and scarring process, the pinnas appear to be thick and
irregular, also known as:
a. cabbage ears
b. broccoli ears
c. cauliflower ears
d. none of the above
7. The transitory period of unconsciousness is a result from a blow on the head that may last for
a few seconds or longer. The loss of consciousness should never be dismissed lightly because
recovery may only be an interlude to some serious intracranial changes.
a. cerebral concussion
b. subdural hemorrhage
c. pontine hemorrhage
d. none of the above

8. It is the most common injury which may be localized or extensive. The most common site of
hemorrhage is the middle cranial fossa. A blow on the jaw is transmitted to the temporo-
mandibular joint and then to the middle cranial fossa. Repeated trauma on the skull
cause tearing of the dural emmissary veins.
a. cerebral concussion
b. subdural hemorrhage
c. pontine hemorrhage
d. none of the above

9. It is known to some as boxers hemorrhage that may be the result of severe beating. The
acute flexion and extension of the head during a series of blows may cause the brain stem to be
pinched over the tentorium causing hemorrhage. The effect on the brain of a boxing blow
depends on the location, direction, intensity, velocity and number of blows.
a. cerebral concussion
b. subdural hemorrhage
c. pontine hemorrhage
d. none of the above

10. A blow which causes the rotation of the movable head will cause the inert brain to lag
behind the accelerated skull. This is particularly true to a groggy fighter who has lost control of
his neck muscles in the head which is most susceptible to sudden acceleration.
a. Rotation(angular) Acceleration
b. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
c. Injury to the carotid
d. Impact Deceleration

11. A straight blow on the face may cause focal ischemic lesions, notably in the cerebellum.
Vascular spasm associated with focal ischemia are known to occur after subarachnoid
hemorrhage and often manifest themselves a few days after bleeding.
a. Rotation (angular) Acceleration
b. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
c. Injury to the carotid
d. Impact Deceleration
12. Dissecting aneurysm or occlusion by thrombus are its sequelae. It may induce a reflex
mechanism that causes hypotension and bradycardia associated with decreased blood flow to
the brain.
a. Rotation (angular) Acceleration
b. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
c. Injury to the carotid
d. Impact Deceleration

13. After a knockout, the boxer may hit the rope or mat. A fall on the back typically results in
contre-coup contusions of the orbital surface of the frontal lobes and the tips of the temporal
lobes.
a. Rotation(angular) Acceleration
b. Linear (Translational) Acceleration
c. Injury to the carotid
d. Impact Deceleration

14. The following moves are allowed in boxing except:


a. jab
b. straight
c. hook
d. low blow

15. The appropriate spacing between matches for a boxer.


a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 6 months

16. The following are protective equipment in boxing, except:


a. mouth guard
b. gloves
c. groin guard
d. shin guard

17. In case of death after the injury due to intracranial hemorrhage in boxing, the following are
possible post-mortem findings:
a. Generalized edema of the brain.
b. Presence of intracranial hemorrhage usually subdural.
c. Compression of the brain on account of massive hemorrhage.
d. All of the above
18. Histologically, the following findings may be seen in case of death due to intracranial
hemorrhage:
a. Perivascular and pericellular space.
b. Capillaries show congestion with endothelial swelling.
c. Axons are swollen and poorly stained.
d. All of the above

19. The 3rd person inside the ring that oversees the safety of both combatants.
a. umpire
b. referee
c. arbiter
d. none of the above

20. The ways a boxer can win in a boxing match.


a. points
b. knockout
c. the opposing corner throwing in the towel
d. all of the above

21. In the popular boxing movies “Rocky”, this movie had a death in boxing occur.
a. Rocky I
b. Rocky II
c. Rocky III
d. Rocky IV

22. In wrestling, this is a way of winning where the opponent’s shoulders are held on the mat for
3 counts.
a. fall
b. countout
c. submission
d. none of the above

23. In wrestling, this is a way of winning where the opponent is placed in a lock or hold so
painful that he has to tap out.
a. fall
b. countout
c. submission
d. none of the above
24. In boxing, this is a punch that is not too powerful, but only used to gauge the distance and
get a rhythm from your opponent
a. jab
b. straight
c. hook
d. uppercut

25. In boxing, this is a linear punch that is usually followed up after a jab for a one-two combo.
a. straight
b. hook
c. uppercut
d. none of the above

26. A boxing stance of right-handed boxers where they place their left foot forward and right foot
behind.
a. orthodox
b. southpaw
c. triangle stance
d. none of the above

27. A boxing stance of left-handed boxers where they place their right foot forward and left foot
behind.
a. orthodox
b. southpaw
c. triangle stance
d. none of the above

28. The number of counts before a “knockout” is declared.


a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 12

29. A victory in boxing where two out of three judges scored one boxer higher than the other.
a. disqualification
b. unanimous decision
c. split decision
d. none of the above

30. A victory in boxing where all three judges scored one boxer higher than the other.
a. disqualification
b. unanimous decision
c. split decision
d. none of the above
Chapter 20: Child Abuse or Neglected Child
1. Child abuse or neglected child EXCEPT:
a. Battered child
b. Battered child syndrome
c. Maltreatment Syndrome
d. Bad Syndrome
2. Which is true according to Art. 46, The Child and Youth Welfare Code — General
Duties?
a. To not provide him the benefits of moral guidance, self-discipline and religious
instruction
b. To sometimes set a good example
c. To supervise his activities, including his recreation
d. To give him affection, companionship and misunderstanding
3. All are true about child abuse EXCEPT:
a. The physical and mental injury of a child
b. Child’s welfare is harmed
c. Occurs in all levels of economic strata
d. Parents are frequently mature and well-mannered
4. Rights of Parents EXCEPT:
a. Right to provide wants, not needs
b. Right to discipline the child
c. duty to support the child
d. power to correct them
5. Act or Omission affecting the child’s health except:
a. Physical abuse
b. Physical neglect
c. Failure to provide necessities of life
d. Failure to provide shopping spree
6. Causes of Child Abuse or Neglect except
a. Unwanted child
b. Caring Child
c. Abusive parent
d. Child as center of triangle
7. Causes of Child Abuse or Neglect: Unwanted Child except
a. Husband disputing the paternity of the child
b. Illegitimacy
c. Congenital deformity
d. Beautiful child
8. Causes of Child Abuse or Neglect: Abusive Parent except
a. Uncontrollable abuse
b. Bedtime routine
c. Psychotic, pervasively angry parent
d. Compulsive disciplinarian
9. Classification of Child Abuser except:
a. Intermittent Child Abuser
b. One-time Child Abuser
c. Constant Child Abuser
d. Shopping Child Abuser
10. Intermittent Child Abuser except
a. Always batter a child
b. Periodically batter a child
c. Periods of proper are between battering
d. Become sincerely remorseful afterwards
11. Constant Child Abuser except
a. Actually hates his or her child
b. Deliberately beats and miscares for it
c. Periodically batter a child
d. Intention to hurt the child
12. Medical Evidence Tending to Show Injuries Due to Abuse except:
a. Skin imprints
b. Nailpolish
c. Multiple bruises
d. Trauma
13. Child as a center of triangle except
a. Perfect couple
b. Mother with live-in boyfriend
c. Child is placed in the middle
d. Child is a target of the man’s hostility
14. One-Time child abuser except
a. Never repeat the act
b. Manhandle children for a time
c. Always repeat the act
d. More likelihood to repeat the act
15. Ignorant abuser except
a. most tragic
b. result in permanent injury or death
c. parents mean well
d. perfect parent
16. Medical evidences tending to show injuries due to abuse except:
a. cord, chain
b. scars on the face
c. cigarette burn
d. pigtails
17. Sexual abuse except:
a.injury to genitalia
b. conservative
c. injury to peri-rectal
d. peri-vaginal
18. Which is true among Facts to be Considered to Suspect that a Child is a Victim of Abuse:
a. The child is happy
b. The child is emotional, fearful
c. The child watches a movie
d. The child is drawing

19. Which is true among Facts to be Considered to Suspect that a Child is a Victim of Abuse
a. Too many toys
b. Proper school
c. Too many previous unexplained signs of injuries
d. Homework at night

20. Which is true among Facts to be Considered to Suspect that a Child is a Victim of Abuse
a. Cereal for breakfast
b. Poor growth and development of the child.
c. 4 meals a day
d. Consistent allowance

21. Other battered victims except


a.Battered chicken
b.Battered wife
c.Battered grannies
d.maltreated by the husband

22. Battered grannies except


a. ederly
b. may be extremely demanding
c. pedia patients
d.child-like behavior

23. Definition of support except


a. everything that is induspensible for sustenance
b. for dwelling
c. education
d. guns

24. Right to discipline the child except


a. as may be necessary
b. for the formation of good character
c. to be a gangster
d. may therefore require obedience

25. report of a maltreated child except


a. name of child
b. date of birth
c. age and sex
d. color of nailpolish
26. The court may deprive parents of their authority over the child:
a. adopt other measures for the welfare of the child
b. go to the market for groceries
c. give the child back to parents
d. send child to jail
27. Abuse of children is made a criminal act or omission except
a. If the child dies, then the offender is guilty of parricide
b.The offender can be charged with frustrated parricide
c.the offender can be charged for abandonment of minors
d. The offender will not be charged

28. Advantages of requiring mandatory reporting of the child except


a. proper remedial measures can be applied
b. to protect the child
c. cannot give aid to child
d. compels physician to report

29.Disadvantages of requiring mandatory reporting of the child except


a. increases health hazard
b possibility of danger to other siblings
c anger may be released against vulnerable child
d family may be given a vacation

30. Social Reaction to child abuse and neglect except


a report of maltreated child or abused child
b The court may deprive parents of their authority over the child
c establishment of public and private welfare institutions for the care of abused, neglected
d free food
Chapter 21: Medico-Legal Aspects of Sex Crimes
1. Microscopic examination wherein the stained fabric is boiled with tannin solution then
dissolved to potassium cyanide and placed on a slide teased with carbol-fuchsin.
a. Berberio’s Test
b. Florence’s Test
c. Dr. Hankin’s Test
d. Gangulin’s Method
2. Article 337 of the Revised Penal Code discusses punishments about what crime against
chastity?
a. Adultery
b. Qualified Seduction
c. Act of Lasciviousness
d. Abduction
3. The following are elements of the crime on acts of lasciviousness with the consent of the
offended party, except;
a. The offender commits the act by abuse of authority, confidence, relationship or deceit.
b. The victim must be a woman, virgin, single, or widow of good reputation, except when she is
the sister or descendant of the offender where virginity is not required.
c. The man with whom she had sexual intercourse knows her to be married even if the marriage
has subsequently been declared void.
d. The offended women must be over 12 but under 18 years of age, except when the victim is the
sister or descendant of the offender.
4. The following are penalties on prostitution stated in Art. 202, last par., Revised Penal Code,
except;
a. arresto menor
b. arresto mayor
c. prision correctional
d. None of the above

5. Type of prostitution house which only employs 4 to 8 girls in the business.


a. Disorder House
b. Call House
c. Furnished Room House
d. None of the above
6. The penalty imposed on any person who shall promote or facilitate the prostitution or
corruption of persons’ under-age to satisfy the lust of another stated on Article 341 under
“Corruption of Minors” is what?
a. Prision Correcional
b. Reclussion Temporal
c. Arresto Mayor
d. Arresto Minor
7. “Abuse against Chastity” was discussed under what article of the Revised Penal Code?
a. Article 341
b. Article 289
c. Article 301
d. Article 245
8. The general expression of compulsive neurosis as to instinctual strength and sexual urge.
a. Bestiality
b. Promiscuity
c. Over-sex
d. Dyspareunia
9. Pain and humiliation from opposite sex is the primary factor for sexual gratification.
a. Active algonalgia
b. Passive Algonalgia
c. Urolagnia
d. Coprolognia

10. Sexual abnormality wherein there is compulsion to peep to see persons undress or perform
other personal activities is called what?
a. Voyeurism
b. Pygmalionism
c. Incendiarism
d. Tribadism
11. Sex organ is anatomically of one sex but the sex characters are that of the opposite sex.
a. Pseudohermaphroditism
b. Intersexuality
c. Exhibitionism
d. Don Juanism
12. Those who abuse through “abuse of confidence” in qualified seduction stated in Art. 337 of
the Revised Penal Code, except;
a. Priest
b. House-servant
c. Domestics
d. School Teacher
13. The intent of the abductor to have sexual intercourse with the woman abducted. This can be
inferred from the acts of the offender.
a. Lewd design
b. Perversion
c. Lustrous urge
d. Nymphomania
14. The penalty given to concubines in Art. 334, Revised Penal Code – Concubinage is what?
a. Destierro
b. Prision correctional
c. Reclussion temporal
d. Arresto mayor
15. A sexual abnormality wherein there is a compulsive desire to rub his sex organ against some
parts of the body of another is called what?
a. Frottage
b. Fetishism
c. Uranism
d. Sodomy
16. Virginity that is conscious of the nature of sexual life but never engaged in sexual
relation.
A. Moral virginity
B. Demi-virginity
C. Physical virginity
D. All of the above

17. Type of breast that is slightly elevated from the chest with no distinct shape.
A. Conical breast
B. Pendulous breast
C. Flat breast
D. Hemispherical breast

18. All of the following body parts are considered in determining the condition of virginity
except.
A. Fourchette
B. Hymen
C. Lungs
D. Breast

19. Rupture of the hymen as a result of sexual intercourse.


A. Desquamation
B. Disintegration
C. Defloration
D. Defruitation

20. Laceration of the hymen as a result of sexual intercourse.


A. Disintegration
B. Defruitation
C. Defloration
D. Desquamation
21. All of the following are included in the examination of the general condition of the hymen
except.
A. Elasticity
B. Laxity
C. Odor
D. Width

22. Location of hymen laceration may be described corresponding to.


A. Petals in a flower
B. Arrow in the face of a compass
C. Time in the face of a watch
D. All of the above

23. All of the following are complications of laceration except.


A. Secondary infection.
B. Hemorrhage
C. Formation of a second hymen
D. Stricture

24. All of the following are possible cause of death of the male partner related to sexual act
except.
A. Death from natural cause
B. Death due to female defensive acts
C. Death by genital sprain
D. Death in the saddle

25. Which of the following is/are included in the evidence gathering from the rape victim
during medical examination.
A. Maternal history
B. Examination of the ears
C. Examination of the genitalia
D. Feeding history
26. Following are possible cause of death of the female partner during a sexual act except.
A. Accidental strangulation
B. Asphyxia during oral sex
C. Death by pleasure
D. Shock due to physical trauma in rape cases
27. Results from contraction or the pelvic floor, bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernous
muscles.
A. Elongation
B. Multiplication
C. Ejaculation
D. Climax
28. Physiological difference of the female from the male during orgasm.
A. Fake orgasm
B. Numbness
C. Speed of response
D. Both a and b

29. Indentation of the hymen simulating lacerations


A. Incomplete laceration
B. Compound lacerarion
C. Notches
D. Toothpick laceration

30. Other causes of hymen laceration except.


A. Masturbation
B. Falling on hard and sharp object
C. Imagining your crush
D. Jumping or running

Chapter 22: Pregnancy


1. Which of the following is defined as the state of a woman who has within her body a
growing product of conception or a fecundated germ?
a. Birth
b. Pregnancy
c. Coitus
d. Fertilization
2. The legal importance of the study of Pregnancy includes all of the following, EXCEPT?
a. Pregnancy is a ground for the suspension of the execution of the death sentence in a
woman
b. A conceived child may exercise civil rights
c. A conceived child is not capable of receiving donations
d. Concealment of the woman that she is pregnant at the time of marriage is a ground
for the annulment of marriage
3. The legal importance of the study of Pregnancy includes all of the following, EXCEPT?
a. Pregnancy is a ground for the suspension of the execution of the death sentence in a
woman
b. Concealment of the woman that she is pregnant at the time of marriage is a ground
for the annulment of marriage
c. A conceived child may exercise civil rights
d. None of the above
4. Suspension of the execution of the death sentence is written in:
a. Art. 83, Penal Code
b. Art. 83, Civil Code
c. Art. 742, Penal Code
d. Art. 742, Civil Code
5. A marriage be annulled for any of the following causes, existing at the time of the
marriage
a. That the consent of either party was obtained from fraud, unless such party
afterwards, with the full knowledge of the facts constituting the fraud, freely cohabited
with the other as her husband or his wife, as the case may be
b. Concealment by the wife of the fact that at the time of the marriage, she was
pregnant by a man other than her husband
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
6. The following are Instances Why Some Women Claim Pregnancy Even if None Exists,
Except
a. Pregnancy is a ground for the suspension of the death sentence in a woman
b. A ground for widow’s larger claim
c. Claim for the posthumous child
d. None of the above
7. The following are Instances Why Some Women Claim Pregnancy Even if None Exists
a. For black-mailing purpose
b. A lawful plea in mitigation when charged with theft;
c. Both A and B
d. None of the Above
8. The following are Instances Why Some Women Deny the Existence of Pregnancy,
Except
a. When there is no ground for them to become pregnant
b. Defense when accused of infanticide or abortion
c. Marriage inducement.
d. None of the above
9. The following are Presumptive or Probable Signs and Symptoms, Except:
a. Cessation of Menstruation
b. Morning Sickness
c. Hearing Fetal Heart Sounds
d. Ballotment
10. The following are Presumptive or Probable Signs and Symptoms, Except:
a. Changes in the Breast
b. Progressive Enlargement of the Abdomen
c. Bladder Irritability
d. None of the above
11. The following are Presumptive or Probable Signs and Symptoms, Except
a. Changes in color of the Vagina and softening of the Cervix
b. Movement of the Fetus (Quickening)
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
12. The following are Positive Signs and Symptoms of Pregnancy, Except
a. Outlining of the Fetal Parts
b. Capricious Appetite
c. X-ray Examination
d. Movement of the Fetus (Quickening)
13. Which of the following is not a part of Positive Signs and Symptoms of Pregnancy?
a. Goodell’s Sign
b. Mayor’s Sign
c. Quickening
d. X-ray Examination
14. The following are laboratory test for pregnancy
a. Pregnancy Slide Test
b. Gravindex hCG Slide Test
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
15. Which of the following is a sign of pregnancy in the dead?
a. Presence of Ovum or Fetus;
b. Mark of placental attachment
c. Well-developed corpus luteum
d. All of the above
16. The average duration of pregnancy is _____.
a. 260-270
b. 270-280
c. 280-290
d. 290-300

17. Are there means of determining duration of pregnancy?


a. Yes
b. No
c. Probably
d. Highly likely
18. Abnormally prolonged duration extends to _____ days.
a. 290
b. 300
c. 310
d. 320
19. Methods of estimating Date of Delivery
a. From the date of the 2nd day of the last menstruation, add 7 days and count three
months backwards.
b. From the date of the 1st day of the last menstruation, add 8 days and count two
months backwards.
c. From the date of the 1st day of the last menstruation add 7 days and count three
months backwards.
d. From the date of the 1st day of the last menstruation, add 8 days and count two
months backwards.
20. Methods of estimating Date of Delivery
a. Count forward 9 calendar months from the date of the first day of the last
menstruation and add 1 week
b. Count 40 weeks or 10 lunar months from the date of the first day of the last
menstruation.
c. Determination of the level of the fundus of the uterus
d. All of the above
21. Which of the following is not a proof of pregnancy?
a. Vestige only of the hymen is present (carancula myrtiformis)
b. Breast is lax with enlarged nipples
c. Vaginal examination shows previous laceration of the cervix
d. None of the above
22. This is the fertilization made by separate intercourses of two ova which have escaped at
the same act of ovulation.
a. Superfecundation
b. Superfetation
c. Psuedocyesis of Spurious Pregnancy
d. Both A and C
23. This is the fertilization of two ova which have escaped from different acts of ovulation
a. Superfecundation
b. Superfetation
c. Psuedocyesis of Spurious Pregnancy
d. Both A and C

24. It is an imaginary pregnancy usually observed among women nearing menopause or in


younger women who are very desirious of having children.
a. Superfecundation
b. Superfetation
c. Psuedocyesis of Spurious Pregnancy
d. Both A and C
25. The fetus inside the uterus must be presumed to be alive unless there are evidences to
the contrary. The following are proofs that the fetus is dead, except?
a. Repeated examination of the uterus show that the size remains stationary even
after the lapse of a number of weeks and months
b. Endocrine test for pregnancy is positive on more than one occasion
c. Cessation of the fetal movement after they have been felt
d. Absence of fetal hearts sounds after a repeated and prolonged examination
26. May a Woman be Unconcious of Her Preganancy?
a. Absolutely not.
b. Yes, it happens often times
c. It is hardly credible but may happen in rare instances.
d. None of the above
27. Is it possible for a child to be born without human form?
a. no child can be born without human form
b. No child can be born with a human form
c. It is possible with mutations
d. It is possible with chromosomal abnormalities
28. Can Impregnation Occur when the woman is unconscious?
a. Yes under the influence of knockout drugs
b. Yes under the influence of media
c. Yes under the influence of friends
d. No, it could not occur.
29. When does menstruation typically commence in the Philippines?
a. 10-12 yo
b. 12-14 yo
c. 14-16 yo
d. 17-19 yo
30. On average, when does menstruation cease?
a. 45 yo
b. 50 yo
c. 55 yo
d. 60 yo

Chapter 23: Delivery


1. Process by which a woman gives birth to her offspring.
a. Delivery
b. Puerperium
c. Labor
d. Peripartum
2. Interval between the termination of labor (delivery) to the complete return of the reproductive
organ to its normal nonpregnant state
a. Delivery
b. Puerperium
c. Labor
d. Peripartum
3. Puerperium usually lasts from
a. 6-8 weeks
b. 6-8 days
c. 6-8 months
d. 6-8 years
4. The study of delivery is important because proof of delivery is necessary in judicial action on:
a. legitimacy
b. abortion
c. infanticide
d. all of the above
5. Expulsion of the products of conception through the normal passage, that is through the
vaginal canal.
a. Natural
b. Surgical
c. Alternative
d. Classical
6. Expulsion of the products of conception is not through normal openings of the female
generative tract but through some artificial openings brought about by surgery.
a. Natural
b. Surgical
c. Alternative
d. Classical
7. Examples of Natural Route EXCEPT
a. Spontaneous
b. Surgical Intervention
c. Instrumentation
d. Caesarean
8. When the products of conception passed out of the vagina without the aid of physician,
midwife, instrumentation or surgical intervention.
a. Spontaneous
b. Surgical Intervention
c. Instrumentation
d. Caesarean
9. When delivery is effected with the aid of surgery
a. Spontaneous
b. Surgical Intervention
c. Instrumentation
d. Caesarean
10. The second stage of labor is modified by the use of instruments.
a. Spontaneous
b. Surgical Intervention
c. Instrumentation
d. Caesarean
11. Examples of Surgical Route EXCEPT
a. Abdominal Caesarian Section
b. Vaginal Caesarian Section
c. Post-mortem Caesarian Section
d. Instrumentation Caesarian Section
12. The child is delivered by opening the abdominal wall and the anterior wall of the uterus.
a. Abdominal Caesarian Section
b. Vaginal Caesarian Section
c. Post-mortem Caesarian Section
d. Instrumentation Caesarian Section
13. The child is delivered thru the surgical opening made through the vagina.
a. Abdominal Caesarian Section
b. Vaginal Caesarian Section
c. Post-mortem Caesarian Section
d. Instrumentation Caesarian Section
14. When the pregnant woman meet sudden death either naturally or through violence and
there is no chance of life, any person may open the abdomen to get the viable fetus en utero.
a. Abdominal Caesarian Section
b. Vaginal Caesarian Section
c. Post-mortem Caesarian Section
d. Instrumentation Caesarian Section
15. Peculiar odor which is present up to the 10th day of confinement is due to
a. Lochial Discharge
b. Cervical Secretions
c. Amniotic Fluid
d. Lactobacillus
16. Striae of Pregnancy
a. Linea albicantes
b. Linea rubra
c. Linea negra
d. Linea serosa
17. Reddish striae
a. Linea albicantes
b. Linea rubra
c. Linea negra
d. Linea serosa
18. Discharge from the vagina after delivery
a. Paramecia
b. Logia
c. Zoan
d. Lochia
19. Bloody discharge
a. Lochia rubra
b. Lochia serosa
c. Lochia alba
d. Lochia negra
20. Signs of Recent Delivery EXCEPT
a. Languid look, with pulse and temperature slightly increased.
b. Peculiar odor which is present up to the 10th day of confinement.
c. Changes in the breast (sensation of tightness in breasts and milk may be expressed).
d. None of the above
21. Signs of Recent Delivery
a. Linea Albicantes (Striae of Pregnancy) absent in the abdominal wall.
b. Absence of Linea Negra.
c. Positive pregnancy slide test
d. No evidence of placenta, umbilical cord and newborn child.
22. Remnant of the hymen
a. Carunculae myrtiformis
b. Corpus Luteum
c. Carunculae Luteum
d. Corpus myrtiformis
23. Post mortem findings in a women who died recently after delivery
a. Carunculae myrtiformis
b. Corpus Luteum
c. Carunculae Luteum
d. Corpus myrtiformis
24. Signs of remote delivery in the living
a. Carunculae myrtiformis
b. Corpus Luteum
c. Carunculae Luteum
d. Corpus myrtiformis
25. Findings in the uterus in a post mortem women who died recently after delivery
a. Laceration or contusion of the cervix.
b. Uterus is enlarged and flabby.
c. There is presence of corpus luteum.
d. The inner surface of the uterus is bloody and rugged-looking
26. Pathology accountable for a cause of death EXCEPT
a. Signs of eclampsia.
b. Findings of endometritis, peritonitis, toxemia, etc.
c. Signs of cardiac, renal or pulmonary affection.
d. None of the above
27. Post mortem findings in other organs
a. Hydremia of the blood.
b. Slight anemia depending upon the amount of hemorrhage in the delivery and
immediately thereafter.
c. Congestion and hypertrophy of the milk glands of the breast.
d. All of the above
28. Signs of remote delivery
a. Breast becomes pendulous and linea albicantes are found on the skin. There is dark
color of the areolae and the consistency is soft.
b. Scar of the previous laceration may be present. There is marked retraction of the
fourchette and perineum.
c. Signs of previous laceration of the cervix
d. All of the above
29. Forceps delivery
a. Spontaneous
b. Surgical Intervention
c. Instrumentation
d. Caesarean
30. Symphysiotomy
a. Spontaneous
b. Surgical Intervention
c. Instrumentation
d. Caesarean

Chapter 24: Abortion


1. Immediate untoward effects of abortion, except:
A. Shock C. Embolism
B. Fistula formation D. Anemia
2. Delayed untoward effect of abortion:
A. Hemorrhage C. Poisoning
B. Vagal Inhibition D. Pelvic Adhesions
3. Examination of Generative Tract, except:
A. size and consistency of uterus C. vaginal spotting
B. lacerations and contusions D. tear in external os
4. Signs of previous pregnancy, except:
A. changes in bowel movement C. paleness
B. laxity of the abdominal wall D. lochial discharge
5. Types of embolism, except:
A. Fat C. Air
B. Foreign body D. Bacterial
6. Plugging of fallopian tubes and infection of the ovaries may cause:
A. Adhesions C. Ectopic Pregnancy
B. Fistula D. Sterility
7. Legal Justification of Therapeutic Abortion:
A. Art. 11, No. 4, Revised Penal Code C. Art. 22, No. 12, Revised Penal Code
B. Art. 1, No. 40, Revised Penal Code D. Art. 19, No. 1, Revised Penal Code
8. Reason for Liberal Abortion Law:
A. Rich, low-risk, legal C. Poor, high-risk, illegal
B. Rich, High-risk, illegal D. Poor, low-risk, legal
9. Protestants consider abortion to be:
A. permissible C. allowable under specific justification
B. obligatory D. sinful
10. Deliberate expulsion of the product of conception and is never permitted by the Catholic
Church:
A. Direct Abortion C. Therapeutic Abortion
B. Indirect Abortion D. NOTA
11. Abortion which may occur incidental to suppressing hemorrhage or removal of a new growth
and is permitted by the Catholic Church:
A. Direct Abortion C. Both
B. Indirect Abortion D. NOTA
12. Reason for Justifying Restrictive Abortion Law:
A. Philosophy that God created man and only God can destroy it.
B. It raises serious issue of justice and equal protection under the law.
C. A woman should have the right to decide whether or not to bear children.
D. Causes an overburdened social welfare institution.
13. Biological tests for Medical Evidence of Abortion:
A. Paternity Test C. Pregnancy kit
B. B-hCG D. AOTA
14. Grounds for Therapeutic Abortion, except:
A. Severe Anemia C. Cosmetic purposes
B. Heart Failure D. Insanity
15. Jews’ view on abortion:
A. Destruction of the fetus for the purpose of saving the life of the mother is not
only permissible but obligatory
B. Abortion is generally considered sinful.
C. Requires specific justification for it to be allowed.
D. No comment on abortion.
16. Type of abortion caused by an ovum destroyed by hemorrhage into the choriospace usually
before the 4th month of pregnancy.
A. Missed abortion C. Inevitable abortion
B. Threatened abortion D. Incomplete abortion
17. Type of abortion caused by hemorrhage without dilatation of the internal os.
A. Missed abortion C. Inevitable abortion
B. Threatened abortion D. Incomplete abortion
18. Type of abortion caused by hemorrhage with dilatation of the internal os and presence of
rhythmical pain.
A. Missed abortion C. Inevitable abortion
B. Threatened abortion D. Incomplete abortion
19. What kind of abortion occurs without any form of inducement or intervention?
A. Spontaneous C. Induced
B. Natural D. Both A and B
20. It is the expulsion of the product of conception after death of the pregnant woman brought
about by the post-mortem contraction of the uterine muscles.
A. Spontaneous abortion C. Induced abortion
B. Natural abortion D. Post-mortem abortion
21. In what way is abortion procured when general violence and the use of drug fails to give the
desired result?
A. By general violence C. By the use of drugs
B. By means of local violenceD. None of the above
22. What drug increases menstrual flow?
A. Paracetamol C. Emmanagogues
B. Aspirin D. ACE inhibitor
23. What drug causes death or expulsion of the product of conception by stimulation of the
uterine muscles?
A. Paracetamol C. Emmanagogues
B. Aspirin D. Ecbolics
24. This includes intentional violence and other forms of strenuous and exhaustive exercises.
A. general violence C. use of drugs
B. local violence D. None of the above
25. Most common method resorted to by women to produce abortion
A. general violence C. use of drugs
B. local violence D. None of the above
26. This will not take place had it not been for some form of inducement or intervention.
A. Spontaneous C. Induced
B. Natural D. Both A and B
27. Abortion purposely done to preserve the life of the mother.
A. Spontaneous C. Induced
B. Natural D. Therapeutic
28. Abortion done without any therapeutic indication but with criminal intent is punishable by
law.
A. Spontaneous C. Induced
B. Criminal D. Therapeutic
29. What offense is given to pharmacist who dispense abortives?
A. Arresto mayor C. reclusion temporal
B. prison correccional D. all of the above
30. What penalty is defined as the use violence upon the person of the pregnant woman.
A. Arresto mayor C. reclusion temporal
B. prison correccional D. all of the above

Chapter 25: Birth


1. According to article 40, Birth is determined by?
a. Personality
b. Figure
c. Face
d. Character
2. Appearance of a child is a ground for the revocation of donation is under what Article of
the civil code?
a. Article 1
b. Article 760
c. Article 5
d. Article 4
3. Proof of livebirth must first be shown before death of the child by the prosecution in the
case of?
a. Parricide
b. Homicide
c. Infanticide
d. Neonatacide
4. In what article Infanticide belongs?
a. Article 2
b. Article 3
c. Article 4
d. Article 255
5. The penalty for parricide under article 246 is?
a. Reclusion perpetua to death
b. Bail with offense
c. Community Service
d. Community Service with bail
6. When the child has not breathed or has not shown any sign of life after being completely
born is termed?
a. Livebirth
b. Stillbirth
c. Abortion
d. Living
7. Causes of stillbirth, except?
a. Immaturity
b. Hemorrhage
c. HIV
d. Placenta previa
8. General debilitating diseases that causes stillbirth are, except?
a. Syphilis
b. Toxemia
c. Kidney disease
d. None of the above
9. Local disease of the generative organ that causes stillbirth are, except?
a. Spasm of the Larynx
b. Syphilis
c. Placenta Previa
d. Extensive Infarction
10. Accidents in the delivery that causes stillbirth are, except?
a. Hemorrhage
b. Placenta Previa
c. Prolapse of the cord
d. Influence of Narcotics
11. Proofs of livebirth are, except?
a. Movement of the child and crying
b. Presence of Respiration
c. Presence of Dilatation
d. Presence of Heart beat
12. The first instinct of the child after birth is?
a. Restlessness
b. Crying
c. Eating
d. A and B
13. This test determines whether respiration took place on a newborn child before death?
a. Hydrostatic Test
b. Electric Test
c. Earth Test
d. Wind Test
14. Other term for hydrostatic test?
a. Footzeh Test
b. Fodere’s Test
c. Footahmen Test
d. Foncor Test
15. What organ is tested for hydrostatic test?
a. Brain
b. Pancreas
c. Lungs
d. Foot
16. It is the entire delivery of a child with or without its separation from the body of the
mother?
a. Delivery
b. Expulsion
c. Explosive
d. Birth
17. To differentiate naturally expanded lung from an artificially expanded lung, it is
necessary to know the level of?
a. Diaphragm
b. Air
c. Water
d. Soil
18. True of Unexpanded lung?
a. Edges are rounded
b. Edges are sharp
c. Positive Hydrostatic Test
d. 900-1000 gms
19. True of Expanded lung?
a. Volume is small
b. Feels solid
c. Color is bright vermillion
d. Little blood exudes
20. The normal content of stomach before birth are?
a. Albuminous substances
b. Mucous
c. Saliva
d. A and B
21. To note the changes in the middle ear. What test?
a. Wredin’s Test
b. Leila D. Test
c. Mocha Test
d. Liberal Test
22. The skin of newly born infant is?
a. Violet
b. Bright red
c. Magenta
d. Purple
23. The portion of the umbilical cord attached to the skin of the child begins to shrink and dry
within?
a. 80 hours
b. 90 hours
c. 12-24 hours
d. 100 hours
24. Pulsation seen or felt in the umbilical cord indicates?
a. Dead on arrival
b. Stillbirth
c. Death
d. Livebirth

25. Ductus arteriosus closes within?


a. 3 days
b. 24 days
c. 25 days
d. 26 days
26. Proof of livebirth can be deduced in the following?
a. No breathing
b. Well developed signs of breathing
c. No pulse
d. No gag reflex
27. Signs of maturity of the child at Birth includes?
a. Length
b. Weight
c. A and B
d. None of the above
28. Signs of maturity of the child at Birth interms of weight should be?
a. 9 kg
b. 7 kg
c. 6 kg
d. 3 kg
29. Signs of maturity of the child at Birth interms of length should be?
a. 50 cm
b. 190 cm
c. 180 cm
d. 160 cm
30. Signs of maturity of the child at Birth interms of skin should be?
a. Covered with gel
b. Covered with vernix caseosa
c. Hairy
d. Dry

Chapter 26: Infanticide (Neonaticide)


1. What is infanticide?
a. It is the killing of a child less than 3 days old
b. It is the killing of a child less than 3 months old
c. It is the killing of a child less than 1 day old
d. It is the killing of a child less than 1 year old
2. Infanticide is also called as _______.
a. Child murder
b. Neonaticide
c. Infantism
d. All of the above
3. Infanticide is under _____________.
a. Article 255 of the Revised Penal Code
b. Article 255 of the 1987 Philippine Constitution
c. Article 267 of the Revised Penal Code
d. Article 267 of the 1987 Philippine Constitution
4. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Article 255 – Murder
b. Article 256 – Infanticide
c. Article 248 – Parricide
d. Article 255 – Infanticide
5. What is the penalty if the crime is committed by the mother of the child for purpose of
concealing her dishonor?
a. Prision correccional in its medium and maximum periods
b. Prision correctional in its maximum period
c. Prision mayor
d. Lenient penalty
6. What is the minimum amount of time a convicted person has to render if s/he is
sentenced with prision correccional?
a. 6 months and 1 day
b. 6 days
c. 6 years
d. 6 months and 7 days
7. What is the maximum amount of time a convicted person has to render if s/he is
sentenced with prision correcional?
a. 6 months and 1 day
b. 6 days
c. 6 years
d. 6 months and 7 days
8. What is the minimum amount of time a convicted person has to render if s/he is
sentenced with prision mayor?
a. 6 months and 1 day
b. 6 years
c. 6 years and 1 day
d. 12 years
9. What is the maximum amount of time a convicted person has to render if s/he is
sentenced with prision mayor?
a. 6 months and 1 day
b. 6 years
c. 6 years and 1 day
d. 12 years
10. What is the penalty if the crime is committed by the maternal grandparents of the child
for purpose of concealing dishonor?
a. Prision correccional in its medium and maximum periods
b. Reclusion perpetua
c. Prision mayor
d. Lenient penalty
11. What is the penalty if the crime is committed by the paternal grandparents of the child for
purpose of concealing dishonor?
a. Prision correccional in its medium and maximum periods
b. Reclusion perpetua
c. Prision mayor
d. NOTA
12. What is the penalty if the crime is committed by the paternal grandparents of the child?
a. Prision correccional in its medium and maximum periods
b. Reclusion perpetua
c. Prision mayor
d. NOTA
13. What is the penalty if the crime is committed by the father of the child for purpose of
concealing dishonor?
a. Prision correccional in its medium and maximum periods
b. Reclusion perpetua
c. Prision mayor
d. Lenient penalty
14. What is the penalty if the crime is committed by the neighbor for purpose of concealing
dishonor?
a. Prision correccional in its medium and maximum periods
b. Reclusion perpetua
c. Prision mayor
d. Lenient penalty
15. What is the minimum amount of time a convicted person has to render if s/he is
sentenced with reclusion perpetua?
a. 20 years
b. 6 years and 1 day
c. 20 years and 1 day
d. 40 years
16. What is the minimum amount of time a convicted person has to render if s/he is
sentenced with reclusion perpetua?
a. 20 years
b. 6 years and 1 day
c. 20 years and 1 day
d. 40 years
17. A child was born less than 7 months of uterogestation. Under ordinary condition,
considering prematurity and underdevelopment, there is more chance for the child to die,
but with modern neonatal management the child had all the chances to live. A few hours
after birth the child was deliberately killed. Is the killing a case of infanticide?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Perhaps
d. I don’t know
18. A child was born 8 months of uterogestation. A few hours after birth the child was
deliberately killed. Is the killing a case of infanticide?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Perhaps
d. I don’t know
19. All are motives or committing infanticide, EXCEPT:
a. To conceal dishonor
b. For financial reasons
c. As a substitute for ineffective family planning
d. NOTA
20. Criminological characteristics of infanticide:
a. Most often committed by the mother
b. Maximum trauma is applied
c. Criminal act is always committed in the home
d. Crime scene shows disturbance
21. Criminological characteristics of infanticide, except:
a. Most often committed by the mother
b. A newly born child found dead was definitely killed
c. The burden of proof that a living child has been killed is placed on the prosecution
d. NOTA
22. In cases of alleged infanticide, the prosecution must show the following proofs:
a. That the child was born alive
b. That the child was deliberately killed
c. That the child was less than 3 days old
d. AOTA
23. In a case of infanticide, who has the burden of proof that a living child has been killed?
a. Child’ parents
b. Nobody
c. Prosecution
d. Judge
24. This is commonly made by placing a tight cord or rope around the neck.
a. Suffocation
b. Strangulation
c. Poisoning
d. Drowning
25. Failure to supply the child with proper food means that _________.
a. The child may be deliberately starved to death.
b. The child was accidentally starved to death.
c. The child’s caretakers forgot the buy groceries.
d. The child does not want to eat.
26. What should be thoroughly examined in cases of poisoning?
a. Skin surfaces
b. Brain
c. Lungs
d. Gastrointestinal tract
27. There are 2 ways that a crime of infanticide may be committed. Which of the following is
under omission?
a. Suffocation
b. Drowning
c. Failure to ligate the umbilical cord
d. Burning
28. Which is true about burning?
a. This form of killing an infant is common.
b. This may be resorted to with the simultaneous burning of the swelling place to
conceal offense.
c. Both A and B
d. NOTA
29. Which of the following is not included in the post-mortem findings in cases of infanticide?
a. Skin surfaces for marks of physical violence
b. Mouth and lower portion of the alimentary tract for signs of irritation
c. Upper portion of air passage for deformities of the trachea and larynx
d. AOTA
30. In cases of poisoning, organs must be preserved and sent to a competent toxicologist for
proper analysis.
a. True
b. False
c. Perhaps
d. I don’t know

Chapter 27: Paternity and Filiation


1. What is the civil status of the father with respect to the child begotten by him?
A. Paternity
B. Papa
C. Tatay
D. Papi
2. What is the civil status of the child in relation to its mother or father?
A. Filiation
B. Baby
C. Bata
D. Sis
3. What is the Right of legitimate children is different from that of illegitimate children?
A. Right for succession
B. Right for battle
C. Right for cry
D. Right for war
4. Who are children conceives or born during the marriage of parents?
A. Legitimate children
B. True children
C. Children of God
D. Recent children
5. Who are children conceived as a result of artificial insemination of the wife with the
sperm of the husband or that of a donor or both are likewise legitimate children of the
husband and his wife?
A. Legitimate children
B. True children
C. Children of God
D. Recent children
6. Who may adopt are any Filipino citizen:
A. Of legal age
B. In possession of full civil capacity and legal rights
C. Of good moral character
D. All of the above
7. Who may adopt are any Filipino citizen:
A. Has not been convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude
B. Emotionally and psychologically capable of caring for children
C. At least sixteen (16) years older than the adoptee
D. All of the above
8. What is the required age between adopter and adoptee?
A. 16 y.o.
B. 40 y.o.
C. 50 y.o.
D. 70y.o.
9. Who are children conceived and born outside a valid marriage are illegitimate, unless
otherwise provided?
A. Illegitimate children
B. Illegal children
C. Ellegit children
D. All of the above
10. Who are children who were born out of lawful wedlock or after a competent time after its
dissolution?
A. Illegitimate children
B. Illegal children
C. Ellegit children
D. All of the above
11. Who are the illegitimate children who are born outside wedlock of parents who, at the
time of the conception of the former, were not disqualified by any impediment to marry
each other?
A. Natural Children (Proper)
B. Natural na mga bata
C. Natural babies
D. Natural newborn
12. Who are the illegitimate children who are natural children acknowledged by the father or
the mother separately if the acknowledging parent was legally competent to contract
marriage at the time of conception?
A. Natural Children by Presumption
B. Natural na mga bata
C. Natural babies
D. Natural newborn
13. Who are the illegitimate children who are born out of void marriages or those born of
voidable marriages after the decree of annulment?
A. Natural Children by Legal Fiction
B. Natural na mga bata
C. Natural babies
D. Natural newborn
14. Who are illegitimate children who are not natural?
A. Natural Children
B. Spurious Children
C. New Children
D. All of the above
15. Who are spurious children conceived in an act of adultery or concubinage?
A. Aldulterous children
B. Natural children
C. Both
D. None
16. Who are spurious children born of parents who have been ordained in sacris (priest and
nun)?
A. Sacrilegious children
B. Natural children
C. Both
D. None
17. Who are spurious children born by parents who are legally incapable of contracting valid
marriage because of their blood relationship?
A. Incestuous children
B. Natural children
C. Both
D. None
18. Who are spurious children conceived by prostitutes?
A. Manceres
B. Natural children
C. Both
D. None
19. What is the Art. 345, Revised Penal Code?
A. Civil Liability of Persons Guilty of Crimes Against Chastity
B. Civil Liability of Persons Who are Very Bad
C. Civil Liability of Person Who Should be Punished
D. All of the above
20. In the revised penal code Civil Liability of Persons Guilty of Crimes Against Chastity
includes persons guilty of
A. Rape
B. Seduction
C. Abduction
D. All of the above
21. What is a medical evidence wherein heredity transmits traits and characteristics from
parents to the offsprings?
A. Parental likeness
B. Look-alike
C. Carbon-copy
D. All of the above
22. What is a medical evidence wherein gross manifestation of the children which may be
common with the father?
A. Parental likeness
B. Look-alike
C. Carbon-copy
D. All of the above
23. What are medical evidences from the mother?
A. Proofs of previous delivery
B. Proofs of physical potency and fertility
C. Proofs of capacity to have access with the husband
D. All of the above
24. What are medical evidences from the mother?
A. Proof of Physical Potency and Fertility
B. Proof of Access
C. Both
D. None
25. What medical evidence from the father states that the physician must determine the
health and vigor of the father?
A. Proof of access
B. Proof of credit card
C. Proof of purchase
D. All of the above
26. What medical evidence from the father states that the medical examination must be
done whether husband is capable of erection?
A. Proof of physical potency and fertility
B. Proof of credit card
C. Proof of purchase
D. All of the above
27. What medical evidence from the mother states that the supposed mother may be
subjected to an examination to determine the presence of signs of previous childbirth
and which are compatible with the age of the child?
A. Proof of previous delivery
B. Proof of credit card
C. Proof of purchase
D. All of the above
28. What medical evidence from the mother states that the the woman may be manifesting
some acquired or congenital defect wherein impotency may be inferred?
A. Proof of physical potency and fertility
B. Proof of credit card
C. Proof of purchase
D. All of the above
29. What medical evidence from the mother states that the general physical examination of
the woman is necessary to determine whether she is physically capable of having sexual
intercourse with her husband?
A. Proof of capacity to have access with the husband
B. Proof of credit card
C. Proof of purchase
D. All of the above
30. What is/are non-medical evidence of paternity and filiation?
A. Record of birth in the Civil Registrar, or by an authentic document or a final judgment
(Art. 265, Civil Code).
B. Continuous possession of the status of a legitimate child (Art. 266, Civil Code).
C. Any other evidences allowed by the Rules of Court and special laws (Art. 267, Civil
Code).
D. All of the above

Chapter 28: Paternity and Filiation on Non-conventional Methods of


Procreation
1. It is the introduction of the male sperm into generative organ of a female through sexual
intercourse followed by fertilization, growth and development of the conceptus and its
subsequent delivery?
a. Artificial insemination
b. Therapeutic insemination
c. Standard method of reproduction
d. Surrogate mother
2. Also called “therapeutic insemination”.
a. In Vitro Fertilization
b. Cloning
c. Artificial Insemination
d. Parthenogenesis
3. Classification of Artificial Insemination According to Source of semen, except?
a. Artificial insemination Homologous / Artificial Insemination husband
b. Artificial Insemination Donor/ Artificial Insemination Heterologous
c. Artificial Insemination Husband Donor / Polled Donor Semen
d. Artificial Insemination of Wife Donor
4. True about the obligation imposed to the physician in selection of donor; except?
a. Proper screening must be made of the donor including chromosomes for genetic
defects.
b. The donor must have racial characteristics and physical proportion as those of the
husband and wife and a blood type must be compatible with ABO and Rh genotype of
the wife.
c. The donor’s identity must be kept known to the parents and vice versa.
d. Physical examination and standard test for syphilis and gonorrhea must be done 1
week prior to seminal fluid collection.
5. Is the fertilization of the egg by the sperm cell extracted from the respective donors placed
in an artificial medium and after reaching a certain stage of cellular division and
development implanted into a women’s uterus or gestation in an artificial womb?
a. Cloning
b. Parthenogenesis
c. Ectogenesis
d. In Vitro Fertilization
6. Who is the first recorded child born by In Vitro Fertilization on July 24, 1978 in England?
a. Michelle brown
b. Louise Brown
c. Agatha Brown
d. Leo Brown
7. The ovum implanted from the wife is fertilized by sperm from the husband and resulting
zygote is implanted to the mother’s uterus. This procedure is done because the:
a. the wife cannot conceive on account of the occlusion of the fallopian tube
b. although the couple could possibly have a child through normal intercourse but they
want early screening of the conceptus for genetic defects, control the timing of the
pregnancy or select a blastocyst with certain characteristics
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
8. The ovum taken from a third party (ovum donor) is fertilized by a sperm coming from a third
party (sperm donor) and the blastocyst is implanted to the wife’s uterus. This procedure is
done because?
a. Both husband and wife are sterile
b. Both of them refuse to transmit genetic defects to the child
c. Both committed adultery
d. only a and b
9. This states that freedom of personal choice in matters of marriage and family life is one of
the basic liberties protected by the due process of law clause?
a. right to procreation
b. right to marital privacy
c. right to freedom
d. right to self-determination
10. This is the right of a person to determine whether to carry or not to carry a product of
conception, to be or not to be a mother or to raise or not to raise a family.
a. right to freedom
b. right to be a parent
c. right to marital privacy
d. Right to decide whether to bear or beget
11. The constitution provides that no person shall be deprived of life, liberty or poverty without
due process of law, nor shall any person be denied the equal protection of the law.
a. (14th amendment of US and Article IV sec 1, Philippines)
b. Meyer v. Nebraska (262 US 390)
c. Griswold v. Connecticut (381 US 479, 1965)
d. George Washington (452 US 1966)
12. According to _______, The right of privacy denotes not only freedom from bodily restrains but
also right of the individual to contract, to engage in any of the common occupations of life, to
acquire useful knowledge, to marry, to establish home and bring up children, to worship God
according to the dictate of his own conscience, and generally to enjoy those privileges long
recognized by law as essential to orderly pursuit of happiness as a free man.
a. Meyer v. Nebraska (262 US 390)
b. Griswold v. Connecticut (381 US 479, 1965)
c. George Washington (452 US 1966)
d. James Bond (405 UK 1984)
13. The ovum removed from a single woman is fertilized by the sperm taken from a male donor,
the blastocyst is implanted to a single women’s uterus. This can be done by:
a. a single woman wishes to have a child but cannot conceive naturally or by A.I
b. a single man wishes to have a child but cannot conceive naturally or by A.I
c. a single aunt wishes to have a child but cannot conceive naturally or by A.I
d. none of the above
14. Every human being of adult age and of sound mind has the right to determine what shall be
done on his own body.
a. self-love
b. self-determination
c. self-appreciation
d. self-identification

15. It is administered to induce more oocytes to give the physician privilege of selecting which
among is the best for fertilization?
a. estrogen
b. gonadotropin hormone
c. luteinizing hormone
d. prolactin
16. It is a woman who is not the source of the ovum and in whose uterus the in vitro fertilized egg
is implanted to develop up to full term and delivered child. The surrogate becomes the gestational
mother of the of the child?
a. grandmother
b. biological mother
c. fake mother
d. surrogate mother
17. Reasons why service of the surrogate mother may be necessary, except?
a. Necessity
b. convenience
c. consistent
d. both a and b
18. It is the willingness to be a surrogate mother for the sake of humanity. What type of motivation
is this?
a. maternal consideration
b. paternal consideration
c. altruistic motive
d. arcuate motive
19. Problem that may arise in the agreement in the use of surrogate mother for gestational
purpose; except?
a. If the surrogate mother decided to abort the child contrary to the wish of genetic parents.
b. The surrogate mother may decide to keep the child after birth rather than surrender him to
the genetic parents.
c. The parents decide to abort the child because of the fear that an abnormality may be
present but the surrogate mother refuse to do so.
d. if the payment agreed upon is beyond reasonable cost of pregnancy then it is tantamount
to “rental” for the use of uterus.
20. It is removal of a fertilized egg from a women’s uterus to transfer to another woman’s uterus?
a. parthenogenesis
b. in vitro fertilization
c. manual extraction
d. Embryo Transplantation
21. It is a type of sexual reproduction whereby the nucleus of a female egg is removed which
contains genetic material and replaced with a nucleus of body cell of the same and another
woman.
a. cloning
b. In vitro
c. Artificial insemination
d ectogenesis

22. The conception of a child by a man rather than the husband constituted as adultery and that
therefore the resulting offspring is therefore?
a. legitimate
b. adopted
c. illegitimate
d. aborted
23. A child born in wedlock is considered
a. illegitimate
b. legitimate
c. adopted
d. none of the above
24. If the husband has consented to artificial insemination procedure there arose an implied
contract to support the child although the court considered the child as?
a. illegitimate
b. legitimate
c. adopted
d. none of the above
25. When the child is born within marriage by whatever legal method, there is legal presumption
that both marriage partners are the child’s?
a. guardians
b. angels
c. parents
d. grandparents
26. True about Consent on A.I.D, except?
a. In A.I.D the consent and release for any future claim must be obtained by the physician
from all parties in writing.
b. The consent of the child is necessary to avoid being held liable for an assault.
c. The consent of the husband is necessary to avoid the wife being charged with adultery, or
to ward the question of legitimacy of the child, issues of divorce, separation or inheritance.
d. The consent and release of the donor should be obtained for the unrestricted use of semen
supplied and also certify in writing that he will make no effort to ascertain the identity of the
couple involved. If the donor is married, the consent of the wife is not obtained to the giving of
semen because her marital interest must be affected by the donation.
27. True about status of the child born by A.I, except?
a. In A.I.H there is no doubt that the child is a legitimate child of the husband because the
semen came from him.
b. In A.I.D., with the consent of the husband, the child born is considered as legitimate
although the semen is not from the husband.
c. In A.I.D., without consent or if it is against the will of the husband, the child must be
considered illegitimate, specifically child born because of adultery.
d. none of the above
28. Define as less than 10-15 million sperm per cc of semen with infertility of long duration?
a. oligospremia
b. infertility
c. sterility
d. ectogenesis
29. what is the tittle of chapter XXVIII?
a. Paternity and filiation on non-conventional methods of procreation
b. Maternal and filiation on non-convention methods of procreation
c. Paternal and filiation on non-conventional methods of procreation
d. Maternity and filiation on non-conventional methods of procreation
30. Paternity and filiation on non-conventional methods of procreation is what chapter?
a. XXVI
b. XVIII
c. XXXVIII
d. XXVIII

Chapter 29: Medico-Legal Aspect of Marital Union and Dissolution


1. The following are the requisites to a valid marriage, except
A. Their consent, freely given;
B. Authority of the person performing the marriage
C. A marriage license, except in a marriage of exceptional character
D. None of the above
2. The age for a male and female to contract a marriage
A. Male of the age of sixteen years or upwards, and any female of the age of fourteen
years or upwards
B. Male of the age of fifteen years or upwards, and any female of the age of fourteen
years or upwards
C. Male of the age of sixteen years or upwards, and any female of the age of eighteen
years or upwards
D. Male of the age of eighteen years or upwards, and any female of the age of sixteen
years or upwards

3. Marriage may be solemnized by the following persons except


A. Mayors of cities and municipalities
B. The Chief Justice and Associate Justices of the Supreme Court
C. Chief of Hospital
D. Municipal judges and justices of the peace
4. The following marriages shall be void from the beginning, except
A. Bigamous or polygamous marriages
B. Incestuous marriages
C. Those between stepbrothers and stepsisters
D. None of the above

5. Marriages between the following are incestuous, except


A. Bigamous or polygamous marriages
B. Ascendants and descendants of any degree
C. Between brothers and sisters, whether of the full or half blood
D. Collateral relatives by blood within the fourth civil degree

6. The following marriages shall also be void from the beginning, except
A. Between stepfathers and stepdaughters, and stepmothers and stepsons
B. Between the adopting father or mother and the adopted, between the latter and the
surviving spouse of the former, and between the former and the surviving spouse of
the latter
C. Male of the age of sixteen years or upwards, and any female of the age of fourteen
years or upwards
D. Between the legitimate children of the adopter and the adopted

7. The following are the obligations of a husband, except


A. Fix the residence of the family
B. Responsible for the support of the wife and the rest of the family
C. Administrator of the conjugal property
D. None of the above

8. Under Art. 5 of the Family Code, legal capacity has three components, except
A. Age requirement
B. Sex of the parties
C. Solemnizing authority
D. Absence of legal impediments mentioned in Articles 37 and 38

9. Causes of sexual dissatisfaction after marital union, except


A. Faulty contraceptive methods
B. Fear of coitus
C. Size and weight of partner
D. Masturbation preferred to coitus

10. A marriage may be annulled for any of the following causes, except
A. The former husband or wife believed to be dead was in fact living
B. Either party was of sound mind
C. The consent of either party was obtained by fraud
D. The consent of either party was obtained by force or intimidation
11. Any of the following circumstances shall constitute fraud, except
A. Non-disclosure of assets and liabilities
B. Non-disclosure of the previous conviction of the other party of a crime involving moral
turpitude, and the penalty imposed was imprisonment for two years or more
C. Misrepresentation as to the identity of one of the contracting parties
D. Concealment by the wife of the fact that at the time of the marriage, she was pregnant
by a man other than her husband.

12. The following are conjugal partnership property, except


A. That which is acquired by onerous title during the marriage at the expense of the
common fund, whether the acquisition be for the partnership, or for only one of the
spouses
B. That which was obtained through the last will and testament after the parent/parents
died
C. That which is obtained by the industry, or work, or as salary of the spouses, or of either
of them
D. The fruits, rents or interests received or due during the marriage, coming from the
common property or from the exclusive property of each spouse.

13. Damages may be awarded in the following cases when the marriage is judicially annulled
or declared void from the beginning, except
A. If there has been consent and the partners are on a legal age in contracting the
marriage
B. If there has been fraud, force or intimidation in obtaining the consent of one of the
contracting parties
C. If one party was insane and the other was aware thereof at the time of the marriage
D. If the person solemnizing the marriage was not legally authorized to perform
marriages, and that fact was known to one of the contracting parties, but he or she
concealed it from the other
14. A petition for legal separation may be filed, except
A. For adultery on the part of the wife
B. For concubinage on the part of the husband
C. An attempt by one spouse against the life of the other
D. None of the above
15. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The husband and wife are obliged to live together, observe mutual respect and
fidelity, and render mutual help and support.
B. The spouses shall be entitled to live separately from each other if they want to
C. In every case the court must take steps, before granting the legal separation, toward
the reconciliation of the spouses
D. The husband is the administrator of the conjugal property

16. Defined as either party was already married to another person at the time of the
marriage
A. Bigamy
B. Monogamy
C. Fraud
D. None of the above
17. Defined as one of the spouses agreed to the marriage based on the lies or
misrepresentation of the other
A. Bigamy
B. Monogamy
C. Fraud
D. Mental illness

18. A legal dissolving, termination, and ending of a legally valid marriage. It ends a legal
marriage and declares the spouses to be single again.
A. Divorce
B. Annulment
C. Dissolution
D. Separation
19. A legal ruling that erases a marriage by declaring the marriage null and void and that the
union was never legally valid.
A. Divorce
B. Annulment
C. Dissolution
D. Separation

20. It is a special contract of permanent union between a man and a woman entered into in
accordance with law for the establishment of conjugal and family life
A. Union
B. Marriage
C. Legal contract
D. None of the above

21. The following marriages shall be void from the beginning, except
A. Those solemnized without a marriage license
B. Those where one or both contracting parties have been found innocent of the killing
of the spouse of either of them
C. Bigamous or polygamous marriages
D. Between ascendants and descendants of any degree

22. Which of the following is TRUE?


A. The first spouse had been absent for seven consecutive years at the time of the
second marriage without the spouse present having news of the absentee being
alive
B. The first spouse had been absent for eight consecutive years at the time of the
second marriage without the spouse present having news of the absentee being
alive
C. The first spouse had been absent for nine consecutive years at the time of the
second marriage without the spouse present having news of the absentee being
alive
D. The first spouse had been absent for ten consecutive years at the time of the second
marriage without the spouse present having news of the absentee being alive
23. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Children conceived or born of marriages which are void from the beginning shall
have the same status, rights and obligations as acknowledged natural children, and
are called natural children by legal fiction
B. Children conceived or born of marriages which are void from the beginning shall
have the same status, rights and obligations as acknowledged natural children, and
are called fictional children by legal fiction
C. Children conceived or born of marriages which are void from the beginning shall
have the same status, rights and obligations as acknowledged natural children, and
are called legitimate children by legal fiction
D. Children conceived or born of marriages which are void from the beginning shall
have the same status, rights and obligations as acknowledged natural children, and
are called legalized children by legal fiction

24. Which of the following is TRUE?


A. An action for legal separation cannot be filed except within five years from and after the
date on which the plaintiff became cognizant of the cause and within ten years from and
after the date when such cause occurred.
B. An action for legal separation cannot be filed except within one year from and after the
date on which the plaintiff became cognizant of the cause and within five years from and
after the date when such cause occurred.
C. An action for legal separation cannot be filed except within two years from and after the
date on which the plaintiff became cognizant of the cause and within six years from and
after the date when such cause occurred.
D. An action for legal separation cannot be filed except within 6 years from and after the
date on which the plaintiff became cognizant of the cause and within ten years from and
after the date when such cause occurred.

25. Which of the following is FALSE?


A. Freedom of religion shall be observed by public officials in the issuance of authorization
to solemnize marriages
B. In every case the court must take steps, before granting the legal separation, toward the
reconciliation of the spouses, and must be fully satisfied that such reconciliation is highly
improbable
C. When a marriage is annulled, the court shall award the custody of the children as it may
deem best, and make provision for their education and support.
D. None of the above

26. A legal remedy available to parties in a valid but failed marriage for the purpose of
obtaining a decree from court entitling him or her to certain reliefs such as the right to
live separately from each other without affecting the marital bond that exists between
them
A. Divorce
B. Annulment
C. Legal Separation
D. Dissolution
27. Refers to the inability of the male organ to copulation, to perform its proper function.
A. Sterility
B. Impotence
C. Flaccidity
D. Dyspareunia

28. Marriage may be solemnized by the following persons except


A. Ship captains, airplane chiefs, military commanders, and consuls and vice-consuls in
special cases
B. Priests, rabbis, ministers of the gospel of any denomination, church, religion or sect,
duly registered
C. Judges of the Courts of First Instance
D. None of the above

29. Valid marriage except


A. Parties of legal age
B. Consent are freely given
C. Married to his/her 3rd cousin
D. With marriage license

30. What God has joined together, let no man separate


A. Mark10:9
B. Luke 12:20
C. Matthew 5:10
D. John: 9:15

Chapter 30: Impotency & Sterility


1. It is the physical incapacity of either sex to allow or grant to other legitimate sexual
gratification.
a. Impotence c. Sexual incapacity
b. Sterility d. All of the above
2. General Causes of Sterility
a. Age
b. Emotion
c. Illness
d. None of the above
3. All of the following are true, except
a. Impotency, if proven, will overthrow the presumption of legitimacy
b. Impotency may be a ground for the annulment of marriage
c. Impotency cannot be used as a defense in rape
d. Impotency may be a cause for the development of suicide tendency
4. True about Impotency
a. physical incapacity of either sex to allow or grant to other legitimate sexual
gratification
b. A person may be impotent but not sterile, or sterile but not impotent
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
5. Impotency:
a. If proven, will overthrow the presumption of legitimacy:
b. may be a defense in rape:
c. may be a cause to the development of abnormal sexual behavior:
d. All of the above
6. In the Art. 255, Civil Code, the physical impossibility may be caused by, EXCEPT?
a. By the impotence of the husband;
b. By the fact that the husband and wife were living separately. In such a way that
access was not possible; and
c. By a healthy husband.
d. None of the above
7. In order that such impotency may be ground for the annulment of marriage, the following
requisites must be present:
a. The impotency must be present at the time of the celebration of marriage.
b. The impotency suffered by the party must be incurable.
c. Such impotency must be absolute.
d. All of the above
8. In order that such impotency may be ground for the annulment of marriage, the following
requisites must be present, except:
a. One of the parties to the marriage is aware of the existing impotency of the other
party.
b. The impotency must be present at the time of the celebration of marriage.
c. Such impotency must be absolute.
d. The impotency suffered by the party must be incurable.
9. All of the following are true, EXCEPT:
a. If the other party to the marriage know of the impotency of the future spouse before
the marriage, then it is considered a waiver on his part.
b. If the impotency can be remedied by medical or surgical intervention, then it cannot
be a ground for annulment of marriage.
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
10. Congenital Defects in males except:
a. Full development of the penis
b. Maldevelopment of the penis
c. Duplex organ
d. None of the above
11. Congenital Defects in females except:
a. Absence of vagina
b. Vagina ill-developed
c. Vagina occluded by intrauterine disease
d. None of the above
12. The source of sperm production can be eliminated by removing both testicle.
a. Orchiectomy c. Both
e. Vasectomy d. None of the above
13. The tubular appendages of the uterus (Fallopian Tube) through which eggs enter the
uterine cavity where fertilization takes place, can be divided and the cut ends tied.
a. Salphingectomy c. Both
b. Tubal ligation d. None of the above
14. The uterus itself can be removed by:
a. Hysterectomy c. Tubal ligation
b. Salphingectomy d. None of the above
15. True of impotency.
a. Is the physical incapacity of either sex to allow or grant to other legitimate sexual
gratification.
b. A person may be impotent but not sterile, or sterile but not impotent although both
conditions may exist at the same time.
c. Both
d. None of the above
16. Impotency may be a ground for the annulment of marriage:
a. Art. 85, Civil Code c. Art. 80, Civil Code:
b. Art. 805, Civil Code d. None of the above
17. Impotency, if proven, will overthrow the presumption of legitimacy:
a. Art. 255, Civil Code
b. Art. 555, Civil Code
c. Art. 055, Civil Code
d. None of the above

18. In order that such impotency may be ground for the annulment of marriage, the following
requisites must be present:
a. One of the parties to the marriage is not aware of the existing impotency of the
other party.
b. The impotency must be present at the time of the celebration of marriage.
c. Both
d. None of the above
19. Impotency may be a defense in rape:
a. An accused in the crime of rape may claim of his inability to commit the offense on
account of his impotency.
b. Medical evidence must be shown in support of his allegation.
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
20. Impotency may be a cause for the development of suicide tendency:
a. A person who is not in a capacity to give gratification to the sexual partner may
consider himself to be “biologically dead”
b. This results in humiliation, or a feeling of uselessness.
c. He may then result to self-destruction.
d. All of the above
21. Methods of sterilization in male except:
a. Orchiectomy c. All of the above
b. Vasectomy d. None of the above
22. Methods of sterilization in female except:
a. Oophorectomy c. Salpingectomy
b. Tubal ligation d. None of the above
23. Method of sterility wherein the ovary is removed.
a. Oophorectomy c. Salpingectomy
b. Tubal ligation d. None of the above
24. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Before puberty there is no spermatozoa in the seminal fluid, hence sterile.
b. The source of sperm production can be eliminated by removing both ovaries.
c. The uterus itself can be removed.
d. None of the above
25. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Some females manifests vaginismus due to actual pain on contact or to the fear of
pain on sexual intercourse.
b. Diseases of the brain and of the spinal cord may yield to permanent loss of
impotency.
c. Mumps occasionally leads to the atrophy of the sex organs.
d. None of the above
26. An impotent may resort to:
a. Uranism
b. Cunnilingus
c. Homosexuality
d. All of the above
27. Which of the following statements is false?
a. A person may be impotent but not sterile.
b. A person may be sterile but not impotent.
c. Both conditions may not exist at the same time.
d. None of the above
28. Art. 85, Civil Code states, except:
a. Marriage may only be annulled for existing conditions at the time of marriage.
b. The impotency must be present at the time of the celebration of marriage.
c. Such impotency must be absolute.
d. Children born after one hundred and eighty days following the celebration of
marriage, and therefore three hundred days following in dissolution or the
separation of the spouses shall be presumed to be legitimate.
29. Art. 255, Civil Code states, except:
a. Against this presumption no evidence shall be admitted other than that of physical
impossibility of the husband’s having access to his wife within the first one hundred
and twenty days of the three hundred days which preceded the birth of the child.
b. This physical impossibility may be caused by impotence of the husband.
c. This physical impossibility may be caused by serious illness of the husband.
d. None of the above
30. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Hormonal dysfunction may also lead to temporary or permanent impotency.
b. Sterility is the loss of power of procreation and is absolutely independent of
whether or not impotence is present. A man or a woman may be sterile and yet not
impotent, and impotent yet not sterile.
c. Before puberty there is no spermatozoa in the seminal fluid, hence sterile, but as
age increases, fertility also increases.
d. None of the above

Chapter 31: Medico-Legal Aspect of Disturbance of Mentality


1. He is devoid of moral sense and often shows intellectual deficiency, though he may be
mentally alert.
a. mongoloid
b. Moral defective
c. Trisomy 18
d. Idiot

2. A feeble-minded person of considerably higher intelligence as that of an imbecile but his


intellectual faculties and judgement are not well developed as a normal individual.
a. Moron
b. Idiot
c. Mongoloid
d. Trisomy 18
3. A state of arrested or incomplete development of mind which includes abnormality of
intelligence and is of such nature or degree that the patient is incapable of living an
independent life or of guarding himself against serious exploitation, or will be incapable
when an age to do.
a. Super Abnormality
b. Super duper abnormality
c. Severe abnormality
d. super severe abnormality

4. This depends essentially on words and numbers


a. Alphabet test
b. Computation test
c. Verbal test
d. Motor test

5. Several test types are prepared corresponding to every age in months and these are
answered by the person examined.
a. Equality test
b. Intelligence quotient
c. Equality Quotient
d. Intelligence test

6. It is the following or simulation of a disease or injury characterized by ostentation,


exaggeration and inconsistency.
a. Malingering
b. Maltesting
c. Exaggerating
d. Protesting

7. Malingering is built up out of pure imagination and does not have the slight basis of fact.
a. Feigned Malingering
b. Fictitious Malingering
c. Both
d. Neither

8. This is a form of malingering whereby something really exists as a fact but is converted
to a more serious disability or injury, or to an exaggeration of the real
a. Feigned Malingering
b. Fictitious Malingering
c. Both
d. Neither
9. It is the below-normal intellectual functioning which originates from the arrest or
incomplete development of the mind during the development period below the age of 18.
a. Mental deficiency
b. Idiot
c.Malingering
d. Trisomy

10. This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a person is performing an act while in the
state of natural sleep.
a. Idiot
b. Trisomy
c. Malingering
d. Somnambulism

11. A person is made unconscious by the suggestive influence of the hypnotist.


a. hypnotism
b. mesmerism
c. both
d. neither

12. State of confusion of the mind. It is characterized by incoherent speech, hallucination,


illusions, delusions, restlessness, and apparently purposeless motions.
a. delirium
b. Idiot
c. trisomy
d. malingering

13. A keen observation of the behavior coupled with the history and physical findings
probably are the most reliable thing to do to test for this
a. Idiot
b. Trisomy
c. Malpractice
d. Feigning insanity

14. The following are causes of Malingering except:


a. To avoid Military or Naval Training
b. To Avoid Court Summons
c. As a defense to a Criminal Prosecution
d. He is bored

15. Ways of hospitalizing an insane person:


a. Judicial method
b. Extra-judicial method
c. Both
d. neither
16. Insanity in medicine is defined as:
a. the persistent inability through mental causes to adapt oneself to the
ordinary environment.
b. the relation of a person and the particular act which is the subject of judicial
investigation.
c. the prolonged departure of the individual from his natural mental state
arising from bodily disease
d. all of the above

17. All of the statements are correct regarding the legal importance of insanity
determination in the civil code EXCEPT:
a. Insanity is a restriction on the capacity of a natural person to act
b. Insanity at the time of marriage of any or both parties is a ground for the
annulment of marriage
c. An insane cannot give consent to a contract
d. Insanity is an exemption of the incapacitated person from certain
obligations

18. It is an addition or supplement to a will.


a. Succession
b. Codicil
c. Testament
d. Annexation

19. In the revised penal code, these exempts a person from criminal liability
EXCEPT:
a. An imbecile or an insane person acting during his lucid state
b. When a convict shall become insane or an imbecile after final sentence has been
pronounced, the execution of said sentence shall be suspended.
c. If at any time the convict shall recover his reason, his sentence shall be
executed, unless the penalty shall have prescribed in accordance with the
provision of this Code
d. None of the above

20. Under this rule, the word 'incompetent" includes. . .those who are of unsound mind, even
though they have lucid intervals.
a. Revised penal code
b. Rules of Court
c. Court of law
d. Rules of law
21. Who may petition for appointment of guardian for resident?
a. Relative
b. Federal administration of the United states
c. Director of Health
d. All of the above

22. The following cannot give consent to a contract EXCEPT:


a. Unemancipated minors
b. Insane or demented person
c. Deaf-mutes who do not know how to write
d. None of the above

23. All are factors having positive correlation with the development of mental disorder
EXCEPT:
a. Heredity
b. Impaired vitality
c. Incestuous marriage
d. Love

24. False of feigned insanity EXCEPT:


a. Insidious development
b. No remission of symptoms
c. Observes rules of personal hygiene
d. Can withstand violent exertions without signs of exhaustion

25. True insanity is characterized by:


a. Sudden development
b. Peculiar expression
c. Symptoms may refer to a specific clinical disease
d. Violent exertion leads to early exhaustion

26. These are steps in the diagnostic procedure of mental affection EXCEPT:
a. Obstetric history
b. Physical examination
c. Mental examination
d. Anamnesis
27. According to the revised penal code, these are mitigating circumstances to
criminal liability EXCEPT:
a. That the offender is deaf and dumb, blind or otherwise suffering from physical
defect
b. Illness of the offender would diminish the exercise of the will-power of the offender
without however depriving him of consciousness of his acts.
c. Any other circumstance of a similar nature and analogous to those above
mentioned
d. None of the above

28. This rule states that “A person is exempted from criminal liability if he is totally deprived of
his understanding and memory and knows no more than an infant, a brute, or a wild beast
of what he is doing”
a. Delusion Rule
b. Wild beast rule
c. McNaghten’s Rule
d. Lawyer Rule

29. These are criticisms to the irresistible impulse rule:


a. opens the door for the escape of many persons who are sane and should be
prosecuted as criminals.
b. difficulty in differentiating irresistible impulse from impulse which can be actually
resisted
c. fails to differentiate between real insanity and mere impulsive condition.
d. All of the above

30. The Currens rule states that:


a. It must be proven that at the time of committing the prohibited act the defendant,
as a result of mental disease or defect, lacked substantial capacity to conform his
conduct to the requirements of the law which he has allegedly violated.
b. A person is not responsible for his criminal conduct if at the time of such conduct
as a result of mental disease or defect he lacks essential capacity to appreciate
the criminality of his conduct or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the
law
c. A & B
d. None of the above
Chapter 32: Drug Dependence
____1. Grown in Southern Mexico a. Vietnam Green
____2. Coming from Southeast Asia b. Acapulco Gold
____3. Grown in Canal Zone c. Panama Red
____4. Reputedly strongest of all
____5. Twice as potent as those varieties grown in US

____6. Hashish a. Made into cigarettes and smoked


____7. Bhang b. Mixed with flour, milk, butter, and sugar
____8. Ganja c. With rusty green color and characteristic color
____9. Majun d. In the form of beverage
____10. Reefers e. Obtained by separating the pure resin

____11. Dangerous drug a. Use is attended by risk and therefore unsafe,


____12. Drug perilous and hazardous to people and/or to
____13. Drug dependence a society.
____14. Drug addiction b. A state of periodic or chronic intoxication
____15. Drug habituation produced by the repeated consumption of a
drug and found to be detrimental to the
individual and to the society.
c. A state of psychic or physical dependence, or
both, on a dangerous drug.
d. Any substance, vegetable, mineral or animal in
origin, used in composition or preparation of
medicine or any substance used as
medicine.
e. The desire to have continuous use of the drug
but with the capacity to refrain physically
from using it.
16. A drug that does not cause aggressive criminal behavior?
a. MDMA
b. LSD
c. Heroine
d. Marijuana
17. Marijuana interferes with the immune system by reducing whish of the ff cells?
a. B-Cells
b. Macrophages
c. T-Cells Lymphocytes
d. NK- Cells
18. Which of the ff is not part of the major components of marijuana?
a THD
b Cannabidiol
c THC
d Cannabinol
19. LSD stands for?
a. Lysergic acetylamine
b. Lysergic acid diethylamide
c. Lysergic acetate diamide
d. Lysergic acid diethyleneamide
20. LSD came from what fungus?
a. C. purpur
b. Chlamydia purpurea
c. Claviceps purpurea
d. Cyclops purpurea
21. Who were the first to synthesize LSD?
a. Dr. Alfred Hoffman & Dr. Arnett Stall
b. Dr. Albert Hoffman & Dr. Arthur Stell
c. Dr. Albert Huffman & Dr. Arthur Stall
d. Dr. Alfred Hoffman & Dr. Arnett Stell
22. What is the other name of MDA?
a. “love me”
b. “love high”
c. “love pill”
d. “love you”
23. Also called as Ololiuqui, “heavenly blue” and “pearly gates”.
a. “pearly whites”
b. Morning Pill
c. Heavenly pill
d. Morning Glory
24. Was first synthesized in 1927 from a Chinese herb called ephedra vulgaris.
a. Amphetamine
b. Amphotamine
c. ASA
d. Ampetamine
25. Magnan’s Syndrome is caused by the abusive use of which of the ff?
a. THC
b. MDMA
c. Cocaine
d. LSD
26. Popular among sexual perverts.
a Meth
b Shabu
c MDMA
d Cocaine
27. Active ingredient of Cactus-Peyote.
a. Peyotaline
b. Mescaline
c. Cactaline
d. Mectaline
28. Commonly used in baking that has similar effects as atropine.
a. Cardamom
b. Theobroma cacao
c. Nutmeg
d. Cinnamon
29. Absence of ears and cranial nerve paralysis happens when one takes this after the 35th-
36th day of LMP. What drug is it?
a Thaiazine
b Thalido
c Thalidime
d Thalidomide
30. Constituent of “Asthmador”.
a. Datura
b. Dati
c. Dura
d. Daturi

Chapter 33: Alcoholism


1. Each individual may react differently to alcohol. One may be tolerant while others may
be sensitive.
a. True
b. False
c. Definitive test must be done first.
d. Only a good history and PE can tell.
2. Factors affecting tolerance to alcohol include
a. Consumption tolerance
b. Constitutional tolerance
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
3. Which of the following states that those habituated to alcohol eliminate faster as
compared with non-habitual drinkers?
a. Consumption tolerance
b. Constitutional tolerance
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
4. “Habitual drinkers develop a certain degree of adaptation thereby increasing body
threshold.”
a. Consumption tolerance
b. Constitutional tolerance
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
5. The following factors make a person susceptible to the effects of alcohol, except
a. Exposure to cold temperature
b. Constitutional tolerance
c. Fatigue
d. Psychological disorders
6. The following are true about how alcohol may influence the production of trauma, except
a. It increases irritability and decreases the sense of responsibility resulting to
quarrels and accidents.
b. Its anesthetic effect obscures pain and other symptoms of injury.
c. Being a depressant, it renders the person susceptible to effects of traumatic
shock or hemorrhage.
d. NOTA
7. The following are true about how alcohol diminishes the driving skill, except
a. Increases reaction time. Driver becomes sluggish.
b. Creates false feeling of confidence.
c. Impairs concentration, dulls judgment, and degrades muscular coordination.
d. Increases and improves visual and auditory acuity.
8. This compound is also known as “rubbing alcohol.” When ingested, it is converted to
acetone, excreted through the lungs causing hemorrhagic tracheobronchitis,
bronchopneumonia, and hemorrhagic pulmonary edema.
a. Ethylene glycol
b. Methyl alcohol
c. Isopropyl alcohol
d. Formaldehyde
9. It is characterized by an attack of acute insanity with sleeplessness, marked tremors,
excitement, fear, and sometimes suicidal tendencies.
a. Fatty Liver
b. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis
c. Delirium tremens
d. Alcoholic polyneuritis
10. Which of the following is/are true regarding Post-Mortem Findings in Death Due to
Alcoholism?
a. “Alcoholic odor” of stomach contents
b. Dilated and flabby heart, congested and frothy lungs
c. Blood, alveolar air, and urine examinations reveal the presence of alcohol.
d. AOTA
11. This may be observed among professional boxers who may have developed a peculiar
physical and mental condition on account of repeated trauma on the head.
a. Constitutional tolerance
b. Delirium tremens
c. Punch Drunkenness
d. Technical Knock-out
12. Which of the following can be used from a living subject for the qualitative and
quantitative determination of alcohol?
a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Respired air
d. AOTA
13. Blood preferably extracted from the heart, and urine taken directly from the urinary
bladder may be used to determine the presence of alcohol in the dead.
a. True
b. False
c. If the jury permits
d. If the family allows
14. Alcohol concentration below __________ may be ascribed to possible putrefactive
alcohol production.
a. 0.20%
b. 1.13%
c. 2.41%
d. 3.68%
15. Most widely accepted way to determine the concentration of alcohol in the body
a. Analysis of Semen
b. Analysis of Breastmilk
c. Analysis of Saliva
d. Analysis of Blood

16. These substances are simultaneously formed during the fermentation process. It imparts
the “odor of alcohol” among drinkers.

a. Sugar
b. Esters
c. Congeners
d. Carbon dioxide

17. A person who habitually drinks any intoxicating alcoholic beverage. While under the
influence of alcohol, he is either harmful or a cause of harm or serious annoyance to
others.

a. Habitual drunkard
b. Drunkard
c. Both
d. None of the above

18. The following are causes of drinking alcoholic beverages, EXCEPT:

a. Escape from unpleasant realities


b. Religious ceremonies
c. Curiosity
d. None of the above
19. Alternative circumstances are those which must be taken into consideration as
aggravating or mitigating to the nature and effects of the crime and the other conditions
attending its commission. They are the relationship, intoxication, and the degree of
instruction and education of the offender.
What law regarding alcoholism is this?

a. Public scandal committed by a person while drunk is punishable


b. Intoxication is an alternative circumstance to criminal liability: Art. 15, Revised
Penal Code
c. Contracts agreed to in a state of drunkenness are voidable: Art. 1328
d. The state may prevent some people from drinking highly spirited wine

20. Contracts entered into during a lucid interval are valid. Contracts agreed to in a state of
drunkenness or during a hypnotic spell are voidable.
What law regarding alcoholism is this?

a. Public scandal committed by a person while drunk is punishable


b. Intoxication is an alternative circumstance to criminal liability: Art. 15, Revised Penal
Code
c. Contracts agreed to in a state of drunkenness are voidable: Art. 1328
d. The state may prevent some people from drinking highly spirited wine

21. To be drunk is not punishable, but if alarm and scandal happens in a public place while
at the state of intoxication, it is punishable.
What law regarding alcoholism is this?

a. Public scandal committed by a person while drunk is punishable


b. Intoxication is an alternative circumstance to criminal liability: Art. 15, Revised Penal
Code
c. Contracts agreed to in a state of drunkenness are voidable: Art. 1328
d. The state may prevent some people from drinking highly spirited wine

22. The state may promulgate laws which may prevent people of lower degree of civilization
from drinking scientifically manufactured, highly spirited liquor. The reason is to promote
peace and order.
What law regarding alcoholism is this?

a. Public scandal committed by a person while drunk is punishable


b. Intoxication is an alternative circumstance to criminal liability: Art. 15, Revised Penal
Code
c. Contracts agreed to in a state of drunkenness are voidable: Art. 1328
d. The state may prevent some people from drinking highly spirited wine
23. What is the maximum period of absorption after initial intake of alcohol?

a. 30-60 minutes
b. 20-25 minutes
c. 10-15 minutes
d. 25-40 minutes

24. Effects of alcohol on the special senses include:


a. Diminished visual acuity
b. Depressed sense of smell
c. Diminished ability to perceive and appreciate varying intensities of sound.
d. All of the above

25. Person is talkative, argumentative, and over-confident. There is slight impairment of


mental faculties, difficulty of articulation, and loss of coordination to finer movements.
The face is flushed with eyeballs congested. He is reckless and shows motor
incoordination. He may be certified as being “under the influence of alchohol”. What
degree of intoxication is this?

a. Drunk
b. Slight inebriation
c. Moderate inebriation
d. Very drunk

26. The following are diagnostic points of drunkenness, EXCEPT:

a. Irregular behavior
b. Decreased salivation
c. Hesitancy of speech with impaired articulation
d. Alcoholic smell of the breath or of the vomitus.

27. The subject stands straight with the heels together and with eyes closed for at least 1
minute. If not drunk, he will not sway to the front or to the sides. If drunk, the body will be
unstable even without any existing disease. What physical test is this which is performed
to determine drunkenness?

a. FABER test
b. Trendelenburg test
c. Romberg’s test
d. McMurray’s test

28. There is flushing of the face, with exaggerated mood, however the person is still able to
control his behaviour. There are no signs of mental impairment, incoordination of
movement and difficulty of speech. What degree of intoxication is this?
a. Moderate inebriation
b. Coma
c. Drunk
d. Slight inebriation

29. The following are effects of alcohol, EXCEPT:

a. Blunting of judgment
b. Enhanced proprioception or “sixth sense”
c. Disturbed recall memory
d. Blunted moral standard

30. These factors cause slower rate of absorption of alcohol in the stomach or intestine,
EXCEPT:

a. Fatty food
b. Gastric atony
c. Sufficient amount of food and water in the stomach
d. Subtotal gastrectomy

Chapter 34: Medico-Legal Aspect of Poisoning


1. It is capable of destroying life either by chemical or physiological reaction.
A. Allergen
B. Bee sting
C. Poison
D. Parasites
2. A poison applied or administered internally is essential legally if:
A. Given in enormous amount
B. Given accidentally
C. Given with intention to kill or harm
D. Given in small amount
3. It is not advisable to confine the toxicological analysis to the stomach and its content
because:
A. Poison gains entrance into the body via other route
B. Poison passed out of the stomach after a period of time
C. Poison could be possible introduced post mortem to conceal the real cause of death
D. All of the above
4. Poison that act on skin or mucous membrane
A. Remote action
B. Local action
C. Both a and b
D. Recent action
5. Remote action act remotely in any of the following:
A. Production of shock
B. Absorption in blood and carried into organs
C. Transmission through the nerves
D. All of the above
6. Poisons at the site remote to the brain are:
A. Caffeine
B. Alcohol
C. Narcotics
D. All of the above
7. Poison at the site remote to the cord is:
A. Strychnine
B. Digitalis
C. Arsenic
D. Corrosives
8. Poison at the site remote to the peripheral nerves are:
A. Conium
B. Curare
C. Both a and b
D. Phosphorus
9. Poison at the site remote to the alimentary tracts is:
A. Corrosive
B. Arsenic
C. Narcotics
D. Ergot
10. Poison at the site remote to the kidneys is:
A. Cantharides
B. Caffeine
C. Alcohol
D. Mercury
11. Poison at the site remote to the salivary glands is:
A. Mercury
B. Digitalis
C. Arsenic
D. Phosphorus
12. Poison at the site remote to the liver is:
A. Phosphorus
B. Arsenic
C. Narcotics
D. Ergot
13. Poison at the site remote to the mucous membrane is:
A. Arsenic
B. Caffeine
C. Alcohol
D. Mercury
14. Poison at the site remote to the heart is:
A. Digitalis
B. Mercury
C. Arsenic
D. Phosphorus
15. Poison at the site remote to the blood vessels is:
A. Ergot
B. Nitrates
C. both a and b
D. Phosphorus
16. Poison at the site remote to the blood cells is:
A. Snake venom
B. Digitalis
C. Arsenic
D. Phosphorus
17. For testing arsenic (acute poisoning) the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Stomach Contents
D. All of the above
18. For testing arsenic (chronic poisoning) the following organs should be saved to be
submitted:
A. Liver
B. Urine
C. Hair
D. All of the above
19. For testing alcohol the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Blood
B. Urine
C. Brain
D. All of the above
20. For testing cyanide the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. both a and b
D. Kidney
21. For testing carbon monoxide the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Blood placed in sealed container
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Kidney
22. For testing alkali the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Esophagus
B. Stomach contents
C. both a and b
D. Kidney
23. For testing morphine and other alkaloids the following organs should be saved to be
submitted:
A. Liver
B. Urine
C. Stomach and contents
D. All of the above
24. For testing arsenic barbiturates the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Liver
B. Urine
C. Brain
D. All of the above
25. For testing phosphorus the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Kidney
D. All of the above
26. For testing lead the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Bone
D. All of the above
27. For testing phenol the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Stomach
D. All of the above
28. For testing pestisides the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Liver
B. Blood
C. Stomach and contents
D. All of the above
29. For testing antibiotoic the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Liver
B. Blood
C. both a and b
D. Kidney
30. For testing kerosene the following organs should be saved to be submitted:
A. Liver
B. Blood
C. Brain
D. All of the above
ANSWER KEY (Legal Medicine Exam)

Chapter 1 Chapter 2 Chapter 3 Chapter 4 Chapter 5


1. B 1. D 1. A 1. C 1. D
2. B 2. A 2. D 2. D 2. B
3. B 3. B 3. D 3. C 3. C
4. B 4. A 4. D 4. B 4. A
5 – 7. All 5. D 5. B 5. D 5. B
8. B 6. C 6. A 6. C 6. C
9. B 7. C 7. C 7. C 7. C
10. B 8. A 8. A 8. B 8. C
11 – 13. All 9. B 9. C 9. B 9. A
14 – 15. A & B 10. A 10. A 10. A 10. D
16. B 11. B 11. D 11. D 11. C
17. 12. C 12. B 12. D 12. C
18. B 13. D 13. D 13. C 13. A
19. C 14. B 14. C 14. C 14. D
20. C 15. D 15. A 15. C 15. C
21. A 16. A 16. B 16. B 16. D
22. D 17. C 17. C 17. D 17. D
23. C 18. D 18. C 18. D 18. A
24-25. B, E 19. A 19. A 19. D 19. B
26. C 20. B 20. D 20. A 20. B
27. C 21. D 21. C 21. C 21. D
28. C 22. C 22. D 22. C 22. D
29. B 23. A 23. D 23. A 23. D
30. A 24. B 24. D 24. D 24. D
25. D 25. A 25. D 25. C
26. D 26. D 26. D 26. B
27. B 27. C 27. B 27. C
28. A 28. C 28. D 28. C
29. D 29. A 29. A 29. B
30. C 30. D 30. D 30. D
Chapter 6 Chapter 7 Chapter 8 Chapter 9 Chapter 10
1. C 1. D 1. D 1. A 1. B
2. A 2. B 2. C 2. B 2. D
3. B 3. A 3. B 3. C 3. C
4. B 4. B 4. A 4. D 4. A
5. C 5. B 5. A 5. A 5. C
6. A 6. B 6. C 6. C 6. D
7. D 7. A 7. D 7. B 7. C
8. C 8. C 8. C 8. D 8. C
9. A 9. B 9. A 9. A 9. D
10. B 10. C 10. C 10. B 10. A
11. A 11. B 11. B 11. A 11. C
12. C 12. B 12. B 12. D 12. D
13. A 13. D 13. D 13. C 13. D
14. D 14. C 14. A 14. D 14. A
15. A 15. D 15. D 15. B 15. A
16. B 16. B 16. 16. C 16. B
17. D 17. A 17. 17. D 17. B
18. D 18. B 18. 18. D 18. D
19. D 19. D 19. 19. B 19. A
20. A 20. C 20. 20. A 20. D
21. C 21. A 21. 21. C 21. B
22. C 22. C 22. 22. C 22. A
23. A 23. A 23. 23. D 23. C
24. D 24. B 24. 24. A 24. A
25. D 25. B 25. 25. B 25. B
26. D 26. C 26. 26. D 26. A
27. B 27. B 27. 27. C 27. A
28. D 28. D 28. 28. D 28. B
29. A 29. D 29. 29. A 29. D
30. D 30. D 30. 30. B 30. C
Chapter 11 Chapter 12 Chapter 13 Chapter 14 Chapter 15
1. C 1. A 1. A 1. C 1. B
2. A 2. C 2. C 2. A 2. A
3. D 3. B 3. D 3. C 3. C
4. A 4. D 4. B 4. B 4. A
5. B 5. C 5. C 5. D 5. B
6. A 6. D 6. D 6. D 6. D
7. B 7. B 7. D 7. C 7. C
8. A 8. D 8. D 8. D 8. D
9. A 9. B 9. D 9. C 9. A
10. C 10. A 10. B 10. B 10. C
11. D 11. D 11. D 11. B 11. C
12. D 12. C 12. B 12. C 12. D
13. C 13. C 13. B 13. C 13. A
14. D 14. B 14. B 14. D 14. C
15. C 15. D 15. C 15. A 15. D
16. C 16. A 16. B 16. A 16. B
17. C 17. D 17. C 17. B 17. A
18. C 18. B 18. C 18. A 18. A
19. D 19. C 19. A 19. C 19. C
20. A 20. A 20. C 20. D 20. B
21. A 21. A 21. D 21. C 21. D
22. C 22. A 22. A 22. D 22. A
23. D 23. B 23. B 23. C 23. B
24. C 24. C 24. D 24. D 24. C
25. C 25. C 25. B 25. A 25. A
26. D 26. A 26. D 26. D 26. D
27. B 27. A 27. A 27. D 27. B
28. D 28. D 28. D 28. A 28. A
29. A 29. B 29. A 29. B 29. D
30. B 30. B 30. A 30. D 30. B
Chapter 16 Chapter 17 Chapter 18 Chapter 19 Chapter 20
1. C 1. C 1. A 1. D 1. D
2. A 2. D 2. A 2. D 2. C
3. A 3. A 3. B 3. D 3. D
4. D 4. D 4. D 4. B 4. A
5. D 5. D 5. B 5. C 5. D
6. C 6. D 6. C 6. C 6. B
7. D 7. C 7. A 7. A 7. D
8. C 8. B 8. C 8. B 8. B
9. A 9. A 9. D 9. C 9. D
10. C 10. D 10. A 10. A 10. A
11. D 11. A 11. A 11. B 11. C
12. C 12. C 12. A 12. C 12. B
13. B 13. C 13. B 13. D 13. A
14. A 14. A 14. A 14. D 14. C
15. D 15. C 15. A 15. A 15. D
16. A 16. D 16. D 16. D
17. C 17. A 17. D 17. B
18. D 18. A 18. D 18. B
19. B 19. A 19. B 19. C
20. A 20. A 20. D 20. B
21. B 21. A 21. D 21. A
22. D 22. B 22. A 22. C
23. D 23. D 23. C 23. D
24. A 24. C 24. A 24. C
25. 25. A 25. A 25. D
26. 26. A 26. A 26. A
27. 27. A 27. B 27. D
28. 28. A 28. C 28. C
29. 29. D 29. C 29. D
30. 30. D 30. B 30. D
Chapter 21 Chapter 22 Chapter 23 Chapter 24 Chapter 25
1. C 1. B 1. A 1. B 1. A
2. B 2. C 2. B 2. D 2. B
3. C 3. D 3. A 3. C 3. C
4. D 4. A 4. D 4. A 4. D
5. A 5. C 5. A 5. B 5. A
6. A 6. D 6. B 6. D 6. B
7. D 7. C 7. D 7. A 7. C
8. C 8. D 8. A 8. C 8. D
9. B 9. D 9. B 9. D 9. A
10. A 10. C 10. C 10. A 10. B
11. A 11. B 11. D 11. B 11. C
12. D 12. B 12. A 12. A 12. D
13. A 13. A 13. B 13. D 13. A
14. A 14. C 14. C 14. C 14. B
15. A 15. D 15. A 15. A 15. C
16. C 16. B 16. A 16. A 16. D
17. C 17. B 17. B 17. B 17. A
18. C 18. B 18. D 18. C 18. B
19. C 19. C 19. A 19. D 19. C
20. C 20. D 20. D 20. D 20. D
21. C 21. D 21. C 21. B 21. A
22. C 22. A 22. A 22. C 22. B
23. C 23. B 23. B 23. D 23. C
24. C 24. C 24. A 24. A 24. D
25. C 25. B 25. C 25. C 25. A
26. C 26. C 26. D 26. C 26. B
27. C 27. A 27. D 27. D 27. C
28. C 28. A 28. D 28. B 28. D
29. C 29. C 29. C 29. A 29. A
30. C 30. A 30. B 30. C 30. B
Chapter 26 Chapter 27 Chapter 28 Chapter 29 Chapter 30
1. A 1. A 1. C 1. D 1. A
2. B 2. A 2. C 2. A 2. D
3. A 3. A 3. D 3. C 3. C
4. D 4. A 4. C 4. D 4. C
5. A 5. A 5. D 5. A 5. D
6. A 6. D 6. B 6. C 6. D
7. C 7. D 7. C 7. D 7. D
8. C 8. A 8. D 8. C 8. A
9. D 9. D 9. B 9. C 9. D
10. C 10. A 10. D 10. B 10. A
11. D 11. A 11. A 11. A 11. D
12. B 12. A 12. A 12. B 12. A
13. B 13. A 13. A 13. A 13. C
14. B 14. B 14. B 14. D 14. A
15. C 15. A 15. B 15. B 15. C
16. D 16. A 16. D 16. A 16. A
17. A 17. A 17. D 17. C 17. A
18. D 18. A 18. C 18. A 18. C
19. D 19. A 19. D 19. B 19. C
20. A 20. D 20. D 20. B 20. D
21. B 21. A 21. A 21. B 21. D
22. D 22. A 22. C 22. A 22. D
23. C 23. D 23. A 23. A 23. A
24. B 24. A 24. A 24. B 24. B
25. A 25. A 25. C 25. D 25. D
26. D 26. A 26. D 26. C 26. D
27. C 27. A 27. D 27. B 27. C
28. B 28. A 28. A 28. D 28. D
29. B 29. A 29. A 29. C 29. D
30. A 30. D 30. D 30. A 30. D
Chapter 31 Chapter 32 Chapter 33 Chapter 34
1. B 1. B 1. A 1. C
2. A 2. A 2. C 2. C
3. C 3. C 3. A 3. D
4. C 4. C 4. B 4. C
5. B 5. A 5. B 5. D
6. A 6. E 6. D 6. D
7. C 7. D 7. D 7. A
8. D 8. C 8. C 8. C
9. A 9. B 9. C 9. A
10. D 10. A 10. D 10. A
11. C 11. A 11. C 11. A
12. A 12. D 12. D 12. A
13. D 13. C 13. A 13. A
14. D 14. B 14. A 14. A
15. C 15. E 15. D 15. C
16. C 16. D 16. C 16. A
17. D 17. C 17. B 17. D
18. B 18. A 18. D 18. D
19. A 19. B 19. B 19. D
20. B 20. C 20. C 20. C
21. D 21. B 21. A 21. A
22. D 22. C 22. D 22. C
23. D 23. D 23. A 23. D
24. C 24. A 24. D 24. D
25. B 25. C 25. C 25. D
26. A 26. D 26. B 26. D
27. D 27. B 27. C 27. D
28. B 28. C 28. D 28. D
29. D 29. D 29. B 29. C
30. A 30. A 30. D 30. D
MCQ FOR MEDICAL JURISPRUDENCE

1. Agency tasked to issue certification of registration and licenses


a. Professional Regulatory Commission
b. Office of the President
c. Board of Medical Education
d. Board of Medicine
2. Members of the Board of Medical Education includes:
a. Secretary of Health
b. Secretary of Finance
c. Secretary of Labor and Employment
d. Secretary of Budget
3. Members of the Board of Medical Education includes:
a. Representative of Philippine Pharmacists Association
b. Representative of Philippine Association of Medical Technologist
c. Representative of Philippine Nurses Association
d. Representative of Philippine Medical Association
4. Members of the Board of Medical Education includes:
a. Dean, Cebu Institute of Medicine
b. Dean, RTRMF College of Medicine
c. Dean, UP College of Medicine
d. Dean, Cebu Doctors College of Medicine
5. Members of the Board of Medical Education includes:
a. Secretary of Education
b. Executive Cabinet Secretary
c. Undersecretary of Tourism
d. Presidential Spokesperson
6. Which of the ff. must be a qualification of a member of the Board of Medicine?
a. A natural born citizen of the Philippines
b. A naturalized person of the Philippines
c. A naturalized foreigner of the Philippines
d. A naturalized citizen of a foreign country
7. Which of the ff. must be a qualification of a member of the Board of Medicine?
a. A registered teacher in the Philippines
b. A registered midwife in the Philippines
c. A registered nutritionist in the Philippines
d. A registered physician in the Philippines
8. Which of the ff. must be a qualification of a member of the Board of Medicine?
a. Has good moral character certified by the Philippine Medical Association
b. Has good moral character certified by the alumni College of School
c. Has good moral character certified by police clearance
d. Has good moral character certified by National Bureau of Investigation
9. Which of the ff. must be a qualification of a member of the Board of Medicine?
a. Must have pecuniary interest in a medical institution
b. Must be an existing faculty member in a medical school
c. Must have no direct or indirect financial interest in a medical institution
d. Must be a dean of a medical school
10. Which of the ff. agencies/authorities that regulates the profession of medicine?
a. Commission of Audit
b. Philippine National Police
c. Department of Finance
d. Board of Medicine
11. Which of the ff agencies/authorities that regulates the profession of medicine?
a. Technical Education and Skills Development Authority
b. Department of Labor and Employment
c. Professional Regulation Commission
d. Department of Science and Technology
12. Which of the ff agencies/authorities that regulates the profession of medicine?
a. Board of Medical Education
b. Board of Technical Education
c. Board of Vocational Education
d. Board of Veterinary Education
13. The degree which requires the minimum requirement in obtaining the physician license
a. Doctor of Medicine
b. Juris Doctor
c. Doctor in Philosophy
d. Doctor of Canon Law
14. Which of the ff. are the pertinent laws in regulating the practice of medical profession?
a. Medical Act of 1959, RA 2982
b. Tax Reform for Acceleration and Inclusion, RA 10963
c. Labor Code, RA 10741
d. Anti-money Laundering Act, RA 9160
15. Which of the ff. are the pertinent laws in regulating the practice of medical profession?
a. Presidential Decree No. 2026, tax privileges on rural banks
b. Presidential Decree No. 2015, reduction on monthly amortization due to NHA
c. Presidential Decree No. 223, creation of Professional Regulation Commission
d. Presidential Decree No. 1997, incentives to coconut productivity program
16. Who appoints the members of the Board of Medicine?
a. President of the Philippines
b. Commission of Appointments, Senate
c. Speaker of the House
d. Senate President
17. A commissioner of Professional Regulation Commission must be at least at the age of
a. 25
b. 30
c. 40
d. 20
18. Foreigners can practice their profession or occupation in the Philippines provided all of the ff
are met, except
a. Professional foreigner must be a resident of the Philippines
b. Professional foreigner must be a registered professional on that foreign state
c. Professional foreigner of that foreign state must also grants the same privilege for the
Filipinos practicing their profession
d. Professional foreigner must submit competent documentary evidence from the DFA
19. The term used as the head of Board of Medical Education
a. Chairman
b. President
c. Chief Executive Officer
d. Commissioner
20. Who appoints the commissioners of Professional Regulation Commission?
a. Congressman
b. Governor
c. Baranggay Captain
d. President of Philippines
21. Who prepares the physician licensure exam in the Philippines?
a. Board of Medicine, PRC
b. Council of Deans of Medical Schools
c. Medical faculty members
d. Executive council Philippine Medical Association
22. Who scores and rates the examination paper in the physician licensure exam?
a. Board of Trustees, WHO
b. Council of Association of Philippine Medical Colleges
c. Executive Cabinet Members
d. Board of Medicine, PRC
23. What organization that provides/suggest a list of recommendations to the President in
selection of members of the Board of Medicine?
a. Department of Health
b. Philippine Medical Association
c. Commission of Appointments, Senate
d. Medical faculty members
24. Which of the ff. must be a qualification of a member of the Board of Medicine?
a. Practicing medicine for at least 10 years
b. Practicing medicine for at least 2 years
c. Practicing medicine for at least 4 years
d. Practicing medicine of newly passed physician
25. One of the ff. are the tasks/powers of the Board of Medicine to its covered professionals
a. Decide on matters relating to criminal violations
b. Collect the bail from the accused individual
c. Issue hold departure order to violators
d. Investigate violations from the alleged professionals
26. The Board of Medicine is an attached body of what organization
a. Professional Regulation Commission
b. Department of Health
c. World Health Organization
d. International Red Cross
27. All of the following are the members of Board of Medical Education, except
a. Secretary of Education
b. Representative of Philippine Medical Association
c. Chairman of the Board of Medicine
d. Representative of the 1st district of Leyte
28. All of the following are the members of Board of Medical Education, except
a. Representative of the Council of Deans of Philippine Medical Schools
b. Secretary of Health
c. Dean, College of Medicine UP
d. Secretary of Budget

29. One of the ff. are the tasks/powers of the Professional Regulation Commission
a. To administer and conduct licensure examinations to various boards
b. To give recommendation to the President on matters of security
c. To promulgate rules and regulations that concerns with inflation
d. To maintain exchange rate of foreign currencies

30. All of the ff. are the tasks/powers of the Professional Regulation Commission, except
a. Prescribe or revise collegiate courses as a prerequisite in admission to practice the
profession
b. Exercise general supervision of the various Board of profession
c. Fix and collect amount charged for a respective licensure examination
d. Appoint the Secretary of Health

1. It is privilege or franchise granted by the state to any person to any person to perform medical
acts upon compliance with law (Medical Act of 1959) as amended promulgated by the state
to protect its citizenry from unqualified medical practitioners.
A. Practice of Health Care
B. Practice of Nursing
C. Practice of Medicine
D. Practice of Rehabilitation

2. Which of the following are the Acts constituting the Practice of Medicine?
A. Who shall for compensation, fee, reward in any form paid to him directly or through
another, or even without the same, physically examine any person, and diagnose,
treat, operate or prescribe any remedy for human disease, injury, deformity, physical,
mental, psychical condition or any ailment, real or imaginary, regardless of the nature
of the remedy or treatment administered, prescribed or recommended;
B. Who shall by means of signs, cards, advertisement, written or printed matter, or
through the radio, television or any other means of communication, either offer or
undertake by any means or method to diagnose, treat, operate, or prescribe any
remedy for human disease, injury, deformity, physical, mental or psychical condition;
C. Who shall falsely use the title of M.D. after his name, shall be considered as engaged
in the practice of medicine
D. All of the above

3. It is the nature of the infirmity suffered by the patient.


A. Treatment
B. Diagnosis
C. Operation
D. Prescription

4. It is the application of all steps to effect a cure to an injury or disease.


A. Treatment
B. Diagnosis
C. Operation
D. Prescription
5. It is an act or succession of acts performed upon the body of a patient.
A. Treatment
B. Diagnosis
C. Operation
D. Prescription

6. It is a direction of remedy or remedies for a disease and the manner of using them; a
formula for the preparation of a drug and the medicine.
A. Treatment
B. Diagnosis
C. Operation
D. Prescription

7. Which of the following is/are acts of diagnosis and treatment considered not to be practice
of medicine?
A. The use of an electric machine by barbers giving treatment to ones who sought to
beautify his body rather than to secure treatment of a disease or deformity
B. The administration of anesthesia by a licensed nurse under the supervision of a
physician in connection with a surgical operation
C. A only
D. A and B are both correct
8. The following are NOT considered by the provisions of law to constitute the practice of
medicine (Sec 11, Art III, Medical Act of 1959 as amended) except:
A. Any legally registered dentist
B. Who shall falsely use the title of M.D. after his name, shall be considered as
engaged in the practice of medicine
C. Any duly registered optometrist
D. Any medical student duly enrolled in an approved medical college or school, or
graduate under training, serving without any professional fee in any government or
private hospital, provided he renders such service under the supervision and control
of a registered physician
9. The following statements are true except?
A. If a person acted in pursuance of his religious belief and the act is in accordance with
the tenets of the church he professes, then his act is not a practice of medicine
B. If the act is deceitful or not in accordance with the principles of the church, then the
act of diagnosis and/or treatment becomes illegal.
C. The Medical Act exempts faith healing, from the definition of the acts which
constitute the practice of medicine. But there is constitutional guarantee to
religious freedom.
D. Freedom to believe and freedom to act in accordance with one’s belief are
constitutional guarantees to religious freedom.
10. It is known to be a miracle cure and its scientific explanation is “balancing of energy
forces” in the body.
A. Acupuncture
B. Chiropractic
C. Yoga
D. Meditation
11. The statements below about Acupuncture are false except:
A. It primary concern is not with the relief of pain when applied.
B. The technique is based on science, and performance should be done in caution.
C. The use of the experimental devices used in acupuncture must be done under
the direct supervision of a licensed physician or dentist
D. Acupuncture is said founded more in science than mystery.
12. The stand of Philippine Medical Association on Acupuncture as a mode of treatment:
A. It is allowed for the licensed physician to utilize acupuncture in their practice
B. Philippine Medical Association still does not believe that acupuncture is still in the
experimental stage
C. A only
D. Both A and B are correct
13. No person shall engage in the practice of medicine in the Philippines unless:
A. He is atleast 18 years of age
B. He satisfactorily passed the corresponding Board Examination
C. Is not yet a holder of a valid Certificate of Registration duly issued by the Board of
Medicine
D. All of the above
14. The following are qualified to practice medicine in the Philippines:
A. Those who have complied with the prerequisites to the practice of medicine in
accordance with Sec. 8, Art. III, Medical Act of 1959
B. “Balikbayan” Physician pursuant to Presidential Decree 541
C. Medical Students or graduates under training under the direct supervision of a
registered physician
D. All of the above
15. This term refers to foreign physicians may be allowed to practice medicine in the
Philippines, provided that Filipino physicians are also allowed to be admitted to practice
medicine in a foreign country:
A. Reciprocity
B. Endorsement
C. Validity
D. Credibility
16. This term refers to foreign physicians may be allowed to practice medicine in the
Philippines if the qualifications of those allowed in a foreign country are substantially
similar to that of the Philippines, provided the same privileges are granted to Filipino
Physicians in that country.
A. Reciprocity
B. Endorsement
C. Validity
D. Credibility
17. “Balikbayan” Physician can practice medicine in the as long as they fulfill which of the
following provisions?
A. Professionals of good standing prior to their departure and in their adopted country;
B. Prior to the practice of their profession they shall have registered with PRC and paid
their professional fee;
C. A only
D. A & B are both correct
18. The following are limited practitioners of healing art with specific licensure laws:
A. Naturopathist
B. Occupational Therapist
C. Osteopathist
D. Neuropathis
19. The following are limited practitioners of healing art without specific licensure laws:
A. Physical Therapist
B. Optometrist
C. Midwife
D. Naturopathist
20. It refers to one whose personality starts at birth and ends in death
A. Natural Person
B. Holistic Person
C. Judicial Person
D. Medical Person
21. It refers to one who is created by law, whose life attributes are those provided by law:
A. Natural Person
B. Holistic Person
C. Judicial Person
D. Medical Person
22. This is an obligation of any physician who has been authorized to practice medicine must
actually or impliedly take his Hippocratic Oath as it has been accepted by the medical
profession universally.
A. Obligations Imposed in the Administrative Oath
B. Obligations Imposed in the Bureaucratic Oath
C. Obligations Imposed in the Hippocratic Oath
D. Obligations Imposed in the Licensure Oath
23. This oath contains the following obligations imposed on a person before admission to the
practice of medicine.
A. Obligations Imposed in the Administrative Oath
B. Obligations Imposed in the Bureaucratic Oath
C. Obligations Imposed in the Hippocratic Oath
D. Obligations Imposed in the Licensure Oath
24. This is kind a medical practice wherein the physician attends to all kinds of injuries,
deformities, and may institute all forms of treatment and technique used, may be limited
only by their availability or by his conscious incompetency.
A. Specialist Practice
B. Diplomate Practice
C. Fellowship Practice
D. General Practice
25. This is a kind of medical practice wherein a physician who has undergone special training
in certain field of medicine may only practice on cases within the scope of his
specialization.
A. Specialist Practice
B. Diplomate Practice
C. Fellowship Practice
D. General Practice
26. A kind of medical practice where a physician entertains patients only in a hospital
A. Clinical Practice
B. Hospital Practice
C. Emergency Practice
D. Rehabilitation Practice
27. A kind of medical practice where the physician has his own private clinic where he attends
to his patients.
A. Clinical Practice
B. Hospital Practice
C. Emergency Practice
D. Rehabilitation Practice
28. A kind of medical practice wherein a physician Practices alone without any relationship
with other physicians and Makes his own personal decisions with regard to the diagnosis
and treastment
A. Group practice
B. Dual practice
C. Individual practice
D. None of the above
29. Which of the following are forms of Group practice?
A. Employer-employee relationship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. All of the above
30. Other requirements in order to practice medicine except
A. Registration Fee
B. Practicing Fee
C. Sign-board Fee
D. Professional License Fee
1. Based on mutual consent on both party
a. Consensual
b. Fiduciary
c. Both
d. None of the above
2. Based on mutual trust and confidence in one another
a. Consensual
b. Fiduciary
c. Both
d. None of the above
e. contract
3. It is the meeting of minds between two persons wherein one binds himself with respect
to the other to give something or render some services
a. Contract
b. Faith
c. Hope
d. Love
4. Requisites of the Contractual Relationship
a. There must be consent of the contracting parties
b. There must be an object which is the subject of the matter of the contract
c. There must be a cause or consideration
d. All of the above
5. Consent of the contracting parties means
a. It is the agreement between both parties that the nature of medical services
to be rendered must be voluntary, and consent obtained through mistake,
violence, intimidation, undue influence, or fraud will make the contract
voidable.
b. The object or subject of the matter is the medical service which the which the
patient wants to be rendered to him by his physician.
c. The cause or consideration is the factor that instigated the physician to render
medical service. The fact that the patient cannot pay for the services does not
affect the existence of the contract.
d. None of the above
6. Nature of the Relationship, except
a. Consensual
b. Fiduciary
c. Both
d. None
7. Forms of Physician-Patient Contractual Relation
a. Expressed Contract
b. Implied Contract
c. Both
d. None
8. When the nature and extent of the medical service is explicitly stated orally or in written.
a. Expressed Contract
b. Implied Contract
c. Relationship contract
d. Friendship contract
9. Agreement that is inferred by law as a matter of justice and reason.
a. Expressed Contract
b. Implied Contract
c. Relationship contract
d. Friendship contract
10. Instances when there is no Physician-Patient Relationship
a. A pre-employment physical examination by the physician for the purpose of
determining whether the applicant is suitable for employment does not create a
Physician-Patient relationship.
b. Physical examinations for the purpose of determining eligibility for insurance does
not create Physician-Patient relationship.
c. When the physician was appointed by a trial court to examine the accused and to
report whether he was insane, the relation did not exist.
d. All of the above
11. Patterns of Physician-Patient relationship
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. All of the above
12. There is no interaction between physician and patient because the patient is unable to
contribute activity
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. None of the above
13. When the patient is in pain, anxiety and other distressing symptoms, he seeks help and
is ready to cooperate
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. None of the above
14. The physician usually feels that the patient is uncooperative while the patient thinks that
the physician lacks sympathy and understanding.
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. All of the above
15. Duties and Obligations imposed on the physician in the Physician-Patient Relationship,
except:
a. Possessing the knowledge and skill expected in a physician.
b. Using his knowledge and skill to choose patients and ask for money.
c. Using his knowledge to exercise best judgement.
d. Observing utmost good faith.
16. The Physician-Patient relationship implies:
a. That the treatment instituted will be 100% successful.
b. That the treatment will produce the result that the patient wants.
c. That there is a guarantee that the physician will not commit any error.
d. None of the above.
17. Guarantees provided by the physician-patient relationship:
a. There are no promises or guarantees in this relationship.
b. The treatment will benefit the patient.
c. The treatment will not harm the patient.
d. The treatment will be successful.
18. Obligations of the patient towards the physician:
a. Provision of an honest medical history.
b. Cooperation in the course of care and management.
c. Statement of understanding when given necessary instructions.
d. All of the above
19. Termination of the physician-patient relationship, except:
a. When the patient is dead.
b. It can never be terminated.
c. When the patient called for another physician.
d. When the patient already recovered.
20. Medical service which the patient may solicit from his physician
a. specific tests or examinations
b. diagnosis of his condition
c. treating his disease
d. All of the above
21. Termination of the physician- patient relationship
a. Recovery of the patient from the condition for which he was receiving treatment
or when the physician considers that his further services will no longer beneficial
to the patient.
b. Withdrawal of the patient.
c. Discharge of the physician by the patient.
d. All of the above
22. Termination of the physician- patient relationship
a. Death of the patient.
b. Death or incapacity of the physician.
c. Fulfilment of the obligations stipulated in contract.
d. All of the above
23. Termination of the physician- patient relationship, except
a. In cases of emergency, when the attending physician or the physician of choice
by the patient is already available, or whenever there is cessation of the condition
of emergency.
b. Patient’s dog died
c. Expiration of the period, if the contract of medical service is for a specific period.
d. Mutual agreement between the physician and the patient that the physician-
patient relationship is terminated.
24. Terms which are not included in the Physician-Patient Relationship
a. It does not imply any promise or guarantee by physician that the treatment will be
successful
b. It does not imply any promise or guarantee that the treatment will benefit the
patient
c. It does not imply any promise or guarantee that the treatment will produce certain
result
d. All of the above
25. Duties and Obligations imposed on the physician in the Physician-Patient Relationship,
except
a. He should possess the knowledge and skill of which an average physician is
expected
b. He should use such knowledge and skill with ordinary care and diligence
c. He can make fun of his patients
d. He has the duty to observe the utmost good faith

26-30 : Identify the Pattern of Physician Patient Relationship.


26. A patient came in extreme pain and stated that he will do everything as instructed by the
doctor if only he could make the pain go away.
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. None of the above
27. A patient in coma being cared for by Dr. Mejica.
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. None of the above
28. Dr. Potty feels like her patient, Clarisse, is not compliant with her medications and does
not cooperate with the plan of care despite prescribing her with the best drugs. On the
other hand, Clarisse feels resentment towards Dr. Potty because she does not even ask
if Clarisse can afford the medicines and yet prescribes her with the most expensive
drugs.
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. None of the above
29. An unconscious patient has been wheeled into the ER due to a vehicular crash. He was
immediately managed by a trauma doctor without even talking to him.
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. None of the above
30. Lilian decided to consult with a psychiatrist due to her feelings of anxiety.
a. “Activity- Passivity” relation
b. “Guidance- Cooperation” relation
c. “Mutual Participation” relation
d. None of the above
1. What doctrine states that physician has a superior knowledge over his patient and that
the patient just follows the instructions or orders of the physician and usually places
himself in the command and control of the physician?
a. Doctrine of the unknown
b. Doctrine of superiority
c. Doctrine of inferiority
d. Doctrine of superior knowledge
2. A medical practitioner cannot devote all of his time in the practice of his profession. He is
also entitled to rest, relax, or attend to other personal matters which ought to be given
prior attention. What limitation is being imposed by the statement?
a. Limitation on practice within political or geographical boundary
b. Limitation of practice in the private clinic or hospital
c. Limitation of practice of certain days of the week and/or certain hours of the
day
d. Limitation of practice by the dictates of his conscience
3. A physician who accepts house calls may limit his service within a political or
geographical boundary. What limitation is being imposed by the statement?
a. Limitation on practice within political or geographical boundary
b. Limitation of practice in the private clinic or hospital
c. Limitation of practice of certain days of the week and/or certain hours of the day
d. Limitation of practice by the dictates of his conscience
4. A physician who publicly announces to accept patients only in his clinic or hospital
cannot be held liable if he refused to make house calls except in emergency cases.
What limitation is being imposed by the statement?
a. Limitation on practice within political or geographical boundary
b. Limitation of practice in the private clinic or hospital
c. Limitation of practice of certain days of the week and/or certain hours of the day
d. Limitation of practice by the dictates of his conscience
5. Ambulances and physicians’ vehicles may violate minor traffic rules if utilized as a time-
saving device in his response to the call of emergency, provided they exercise care and
proper precaution and that they are properly identified.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. NOTA
6. Any person who is given the right to practice medicine is obliged to practice the healing
art.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. NOTA
7. A private hospital may not curtail the right of a duly licensed physician to use the
facilities of the hospital provided he complies with the rules concerning internal discipline
and those designed to enhance better public service.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. NOTA
8. The following are the rights of the physicians except:
a. RIGHT TO LIMIT HIS MEDICAL PRACTICE
b. RIGHT TO CHOOSE PATIENTS
c. RIGHT TO AVAIL OF HOSPITAL SERVICES
d. NOTA
9. The following limitations may be imposed on his practice of the healing art except:
a. Limitation on practice within political or geographical boundary
b. Limitation of practice in the home
c. Limitation of practice of certain days of the week and/or certain hours of the day
d. Limitation of practice by the dictates of his conscience
10. A physician is free to choose whom to serve. He may refuse calls, or other medical
services for reasons satisfactory to his professional conscience.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. NOTA
11. A physician in the exercise of his profession has the right to limit his medical practice for
personal convenience or to minimize the effectiveness of his management procedure.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. NOTA
12. Refusal of a physician to attend to a patient in danger of death is not a sufficient ground
for revocation or suspension of his registration certificate if there is a risk to the
physician’s life.
a. Medical act of 1950
b. Medical act of 1951
c. Medical act of 1959
d. Medical act of 1958
13. The physician is given the full authority to determine the diagnostic and treatment
procedure to be adopted. He determines the number of visits he is going to make, the
drugs to be administered, and the extent of the after-care treatment to be applied.
a. RIGHT TO LIMIT HIS MEDICAL PRACTICE
b. RIGHT TO CHOOSE PATIENTS
c. RIGHT TO AVAIL OF HOSPITAL SERVICES
d. NOTA
14. A physician is free to choose whom to serve. He may refuse calls, or other medical
services for reasons satisfactory to his professional conscience.
a. RIGHT TO LIMIT HIS MEDICAL PRACTICE
b. RIGHT TO CHOOSE PATIENTS
c. RIGHT TO AVAIL OF HOSPITAL SERVICES
d. NOTA
15. There are certain acts with the law and medical science permit to be done to the patient
but which the physician in conscience refuses to do.
a. RIGHT TO LIMIT HIS MEDICAL PRACTICE
b. RIGHT TO CHOOSE PATIENTS
c. RIGHT TO AVAIL OF HOSPITAL SERVICES
d. NOTA

16. It is an act or process of taking care or seizing property, by virtue of a writ or other
judicial order, and bringing the same into the custody of the law.
a. Attachment
b. Adjustment
c. Judgment
d. Detachment
17. No person can be appointed municipal or city health officer, member of the medical staff
of a hospital, colony, etc unless he is duly medical practitioner.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. NOTA
18. In this theory, each member has a property interest in the medical society to protect
against a loss of that right without due process of law.
a. Contract theory
b. Property theory
c. General theory
d. Big bang theory
19. In this theory, the members enter into contract expressed in the constitution and by-laws
to observe the duly adopted rules of the association.
a. Contract theory
b. Property theory
c. General theory
d. Big bang theory
20. Membership in the medical society may be
a. General and specific
b. Simple and complex
c. Professional and nonprofessional
d. Voluntary and involuntary

21. This doctrine means no one must enrich himself at the expense of another and it is
based on the sound philosophy that “service rendered service paid”.
a. Res Ipsa Loquitur
b. Force Majuere
c. Respondeat superior
d. L’enrichissement sans cause
22. True about medical societies:
a. promote camaraderie, esprit-de-corps and cohesiveness among its members
b. enhances the sharing the knowledge and keeping abreast with the development of
medical science
c. increases the status and prestige of physicians
d. AOTA
23. Medical fee in which the physician may enter into a contractual relationship with the
patient and stating the value of such medical service, either orally or in writing.
a. Simple Contractual Fee
b. Retainer Fee
c. Contingent Fee
d. Dichotomous Fee
24. The value of the medical professional fee depends upon the success or failure of the
treatment instituted.
a. Simple Contractual Fee
b. Retainer Fee
c. Contingent Fee
d. Dichotomous Fee
25. The physician may require the services of a third person who may act as an agent to
solicit patients.
a. Simple Contractual Fee
b. Retainer Fee
c. Contingent Fee
d. Dichotomous Fee
26. Also called as Fee Splitting
a. Simple Contractual Fee
b. Retainer Fee
c. Contingent Fee
d. Dichotomous Fee
27. Also called as “Pakyaw System” and the amount is dependent on what will be the
remaining balance when all other expenses have been paid.
a. Simple Contractual Fee
b. Contingent Fee
c. Dichotomous Fee
d. Straight Fee
28. Methods of collection of payments for medical services include:
a. Billing
b. Referral to a bill collection agency
c. Judicial methods
d. AOTA
29. Facts to be proven in court in an action for the recovery of the medical fee except
a. That the plaintiff-physician is duly qualified and licensed to practice medicine in the
Philippines.
b. That the physician has performed professional services to the patient.
c. That the defendant failed to pay the professional fee which is reasonable after
repeated demands.
d. NOTA
30. Any qualified medical practitioner has the right to become member of the Philippine
Medical Association through one of its component medical societies and he is obliged to
comply with the provisions of the constitution and by-laws together with the
implementing rules and regulations of the organization.
a. Right to membership to medical societies
b. Right to compensation
c. Right to certain services which can only be performed by a physician
d. Right to hold certain public or private offices which can only be filled up by a
physician

1. Factors that may be responsible for the increasing frequency of complaints against
physicians are the following, EXCEPT _____.
A. Re-emergence of family physician.
B. Unethical coaching of other physicians
C. Disservices made by the mass communication media.
D. Incompetence of the practitioner and commercialization of medical practice.
2. The liabilities of a physician which may arise from his wrongful act of omission may be
classified into the following, EXCEPT ____.
A. Social liabilities
B. Civil liabilities
C. Criminal liabilities
D. Suspension or revocation of certificate of registration

3. What governing body is given much leeway in imposing liability from simple reprimand to
revocation of license to practice medicine?
A. Lower Court
B. Court of Appeals
C. Supreme Court
D. Board of Medicine, Professional Regulation Commission

4. The decision of the Board of Medicine shall automatically become final for how many
days after the date of its promulgation?
A. 20 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days

5. The Board of Medicine may order reinstatement of any physician whose certificate of
registration has been revoked after what period?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years

6. Which of the following constitute a personal disqualification as a ground for


suspension or revocation of license?
A. Insanity
B. Performance of or aiding in any criminal abortion
C. Fraud in the acquisition of the certificate of registration
D. Conviction by a court of competent jurisdiction of any criminal offense involving moral
turpitude

7. Which of the following constitute a criminal act as a ground for suspension or


revocation of license?
A. Insanity
B. Immoral or dishonorable conduct
C. False or unethical advertisements
D. Knowingly issuing a false medical certificate
8. It is a charge that a physician has conspired with an attorney to solicit patients and
employed the attorney in their claims for personal injuries.
A. Fraud
B. Fee splitting
C. Gross negligence
D. Complete ignorance

9. It signifies entire want of care which raises the presumption of conscious indifference to
consequence; an entire disregard for and indifference to safety and welfare of others;
the want of even slight care or diligence.

A. Fee splitting
B. Incompetence
C. Gross negligence
D. Complete ignorance

10. It is the lack of ability; lack of fitness to discharge the required duty. A condition of status
of a person who is unable to do a thing.

A. Incompetence
B. Innocence
C. Ignorance
D. Negligence

11. It is a want or absence of knowledge or lack of information.

A. Incompetence
B. Innocence
C. Ignorance
D. Negligence

12. A state of periodic or chronic intoxication, detrimental to the individual and to society,
produced by repeated consumption of drug.

A. Addiction
B. Habituation
C. Gambling
D. Overdosage

13. Acquisition of the certificate of registration done by falsifying documents is an example of


___?

A. Ignorance
B. Fraud
C. Fee splitting
D. Gross immorality

14. It is any advertisement which tends to deceive or mislead the public.


A. Fake news
B. False advertisements
C. Unethical advertisements
D. Extravagant advertisements

15. Falsification may be committed in the following ways, EXCEPT ___?


A. Altering true dates
B. Counterfeiting signatures
C. Making untruthful statements in the narration of facts
D. Use of expensive, elaborate and oversized announcement in newspaper

1. Acts of omissions of a physician constituting a crime.


A. Criminal liabilities C. Tort
B. Civil liabilities D. None of the above

2. True statements regarding crimes against Revised Penal Code and crimes against
Special Laws, EXCEPT.
A. Crimes against Revised Penal Code need criminal intent
B. Crimes against Special Laws does not need criminal intent.
C. Either A & B is true.
D. None of the above.
3. Penalties of health care professional who is involved in abortion (Art. 26).
A. Reclusion temporal C. Prision correcional
B. Prision mayor D. All of the above
4. Law imposes maximum penalty against abortion because the scientific knowledge and
skill of the physician is primarily intended to:
A. his own benefit
B. welfare of his family
C. preserve and maintain the health of the people
D. None of the above
5. If the abortion was procured for the purpose of saving the life of the mother, then he may
be justified in doing so, and may not incur criminal liability.
A. True C. Both
B. False D. None of the above.
6. Reason why concealment or abandonment of a legitimate child is a criminal act.
A. Introduction of a stranger into the family which may result to the prejudice of the
legitimate heirs.
B. Deprivation or loss of civil status of the child.
C. Negligence
D. None of the above
7. Under P.D. 169, a physician is obliged, under the penalty of law, to inform the nearest
Philippine Constabulary Unit the name and address of his patient, nature of injury and
disposition of his patient whom he has tread if such patient suffered from
A. Serious physical injuries as defined and penalized by Article 262 and 263 of the
Revised Penal Code
B. Serious and less serious injuries as defined and penalized by Artcle 262 up
to Article 265 of the Revised Penal Code
C. Deformity that will possibly develop as a consequence of physical injury inflicted
D. Patient suffered serious, less serious, and slight physical injuries
8. A woman was stabbed in the abdomen and was taken to the ER of a hospital at 12 AM
complaining of severe abdominal pain and body weakness. The ER nurse called by phone
the physician on duty who told her to admit the woman and he would see him after 3 hours.
The patient was placed in the hall outside the nurse station died in shock 1 hour after
admission. Who is liable?
A. Nurse
B. All of the three
C. Physician
D. Hospital
9. How many hours shall all hospitals, clinics or other institution as well as private physicians
providing treatment to any case of a maltreated or abused child or exploitation of any
employed child, report in writing to the city or provincial or to the nearest unit of the DSWD,
from knowledge of the case?
A. 24 hours C. 12 hours
B. 72 hours D. 48 hours
10. The testimony of an expert witness is NOT needed to prove a negligent act when which
doctrine is applicable?
A. Res ipsa loquitur C. ostensible agent
B. Borrowed servant D. captain of the ship
11. Example(s) of prohibited drugs
A. Phenobarbital C. Benzidrine
B. Morphine D. None of the above
12. When is the testimony of another physician necessary in an action for medical practice
against a physician? When
A. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitur is applicable
B. Action for breach of contract
C. Either A or B
D. Physician departed from the accepted practice
13. True statements regarding the importance of a physician to keep up with medical
developments, EXCEPT
A. He must be aware of the modern medical or surgical procedures, recently
manufactured therapeutic drugs, including indications, mode of action, side
effects and after effects.
B. Modern methods of transportation and communication, frequent seminars and
use of scientific journals and other printed materials enhance transmission of
information even in remote areas.
C. A physician may not be liable if he used methods which are still
experimental.
D. Physician must be abreast with the development and progress of medical
science.
14. Elements of medical malpractice, EXCEPT
A. Duty C. Dereliction
B. Diligence D. Direct
15. An action for damages against a physician for his wrongful act refers to:
A. Administrative liability C. Civil liability
B. Criminal Liability D. All of the above

1. It is the “Doctrine of Respondeat Superior”


A. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
B. Doctrine of vicarious liability
C. Doctrine of ostensible agent
D. Doctrine of contributory negligence
2. The relationship that exists between two parties and that leads a person to believe that the
first is an agent of the second, or vice versa.
A. Doctrine of ostensible agent
B. Doctrine of foreseeability
C. Fellow servant doctrine
D. Rescue doctrine
3 The residents physician, nurses and other personnel of the hospital are employees or
servants of the hospital. Sometimes, they are temporarily under the supervision and control of
another while performing their duties.
.A.Doctrine of contributory negligence
B. Doctrine of continuing negligence
C. Doctrine of assumption of risk
D. Barrowed servant doctrine
4. During an operation in an operating room, a surgeon of record liable for all actions conducted
in the course of the operation.
A. Doctrine of last clear chance
B. Doctrine of foreseeability
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Fellow servant doctrine

5. There is no need of an expert medical testimony because the injury is a proof of negligence.
A. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
B. Doctrine of assumption of risk
C. Doctrine of last clear chance
D. Doctrine of foreseeability
6. It is the physician’s duty to make the necessary investigation or examination of his patient
whenever an unusual development occurs in the course of the management.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Doctrine of contributory negligence
7. It is the also known as Doctrine of common fault
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Doctrine of continuing negligence
C.Rescue doctrine
D. Doctrine of proximate cause
8. This doctrine is usually applied to foreign body cases, improper setting of broken bones, in the
application of casts, and in wrongful diagnoses.
A. Doctrine of assumption of risk
B. Barrowed servant doctrine
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
9. The doctrine implies thought, appreciation, mental direction and lapse of sufficient time to
effectually act upon impulse to save the life or prevent injury to another.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Doctrine of last clear chance
D. Doctrine of proximate cause
10. Foreseeable injury may be ascertained from the history, physical examination, observation
and from information gathered from another member of the family.
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Doctrine of foreseeability
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
11 The doctrine is usually applied to the negligence of the medial staff of commercial or industrial
establishment in the treatment of their co-employees who were injured while performing the work
assigned to them.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Fellow servant doctrine
12. when the injury suffered by the patient is caused by the negligent act of two or more persons,
each of them acting concurrently or successively in the production of injury.
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Shared responsibility
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
13. 2 physicians are employed, on the same case and by agreement divide the service as their
best judgement may dictate, they are considered
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D independent contractors
14. when the negligent act or omission which is the proximate cause of the injury suffered by the
patient is attributed to the wrongful act of a person.
A. Shared responsibility
B. Doctrine of proximate cause
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
15. This doctrine even applies to situations where the rescuer is attempting to save the negligent
person.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Rescue doctrine
16. Person who may be held financially liable to the patient for the negligence of the person who
actually caused it.
A. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
B. Doctrine of vicarious liability
C. Doctrine of ostensible agent
D. Doctrine of contributory negligence
17.Sharing or charging of the fee by the following hospital will mean the practice of medicine by
the hospital which is in violation of the forbidding corporations to engage in the practice of
medicine.
A. Doctrine of ostensible agent
B. Doctrine of foreseeability
C. Fellow servant doctrine
D. Rescue doctrine
18.Borrowed from the hospital by someone and for any wrong act committed by them during the
period, their new and temporary employer must be held liable.
.A.Doctrine of contributory negligence
B. Doctrine of continuing negligence
C. Doctrine of assumption of risk
D. Barrowed servant doctrine
19 Common knowledge doctrine; “ the thing speaks for itself”
A. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
B. Doctrine of assumption of risk
C. Doctrine of last clear chance
D. Doctrine of foreseeability
20. In the physician-patient relationship, the physician has a superior knowledge over his
patient.
A. Doctrine of superior knowledge
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
E. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
21. If the physician, after a prolonged treatment of a patient which is normally produces alleviation
of the condition, fails to investigate non response, he may be liable if in the exercise of care and
diligence he could have discovered the cause of non response.
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Doctrine of continuing negligence
C.Rescue doctrine
D. Doctrine of proximate cause
22. Anyone who consents to the application of a medical or surgical procedure involving certain
risks cannot recover damages for injury resulting from inherent or ordinary risks in the procedure.
A. Doctrine of assumption of risk
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
E. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
23. A physician who has the last chance of avoiding damage or injury to his patient but
negligently fails to do so is liable.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Doctrine of last clear chance
D. Doctrine of proximate cause
24. A physician cannot be held liable for the negligence if the injury sustained by the patient is
on account of unforeseen conditions; failure to ascertain the condition of the patient.
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Doctrine of foreseeability
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
25. Negligence of the medical staff (employee is liable if the injury is caused by his negligence;
employer will be responsible if the negligence is because the employee is disabled,
unskillful,drunk, vicious, or habitually negligent.
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Fellow servant doctrine
26.Wrongful act of the person when his negligence or omission caused the injury of the patient.
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Soled responsibility
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
27. Neglected by two or more persons; share the liability
A. Doctrine of foreseeability
B. Shared responsibility
C. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
D. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
28. Is the failure of a medical practitioner to properly perform his duty resulting in some injury to
the patient.
A. Medical Malpractice
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
E. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
29. Specific people ( always call for help)
A, Doctrine of vicarious liability
B. Doctrine of ostensible agent
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Rescue doctrine
30. May be applied now but later becomes obsoles because of the demand of justice and
changing social norm
A. Doctrine
C. Barrowed servant doctrine
D. Captain-of-the ship doctrine
E. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
1. All are specific acts which constitutes to medical malpractice except:
a. Failure to take the medical history
b. Failure to examine
c. Not consulting with the prior physician
d. None of the above
2. True or False: Physician cannot be held liable if the incomplete history is due to failure of
the patient or family member to give the full information regarding the history regarding
the present illness of the patient.
a. True
b. False
3. Neglect of duty. It is a physicians’s failure to act as any ordinary and prudent peer would
act in a similar circumstance.
a. Dereliction
b. Malpractice
c. Damage
d. Duty
4. Four D’s of medical malpractice
a. Duty, dereliction, damages and direct cause
b. Drop, delay, delegate, do
c. Define, discuss, document, develop
d. None of the above
5. Medical negligence:
a. He/she ignores basic responsibilities
b. Unintentional mistakes or ovesights
c. Indirectly causes a victim to be injured or killed
d. All of the above
6. The declaration of Kelsinki was issued by the World Medical Association in:
a. 1962
b. 1963
c. 1964
d. 1965
7. Elements of abandonment
a. There must have been physician and patient relationship
b. The relationship must be terminated by the physician without the mutual consent of
both parties
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
8. The following are instances when a physician may be held liable for abandonment of his
patient except:
a. Refusal by a physician to treat a case after he has seen the person needing
treatment
b. Refusal to attend a case for which he has already assumed responsibility
c. Failure to provide follow-up attention
d. None of the above
9. Two most important considerations to avoid controversies in Experimental treatment
except :
a. Awareness and consent of the patient
b. The physician to perform the experimental treatment must be capable to perform the
innovative technique.
c. both A and B
d. None of the above
10. A type of experimental treatment that is not yet accepted as modality:
a. Costumary experimental treatment
b. Innovative experiment
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
11. Issued by the World Medical Association in 1964
a. Declaration Kelsinki
b. Abandonment of patient
c. Experimental treatment
d. None of the above

12.Physician maybe held liable for malpractice if he knew he should have known that the condition
of the patient is beyond his ability, knowledge and capacity.
a.Failure to take the Medical History
b. Not consulting with the prior Physician
c. Non-referreal of the patient to a specialist
d. None of the above
13. It is highly recommended to avoid the risk in the application of the treatment procedure
a.Failure to take the Medical History
b. Consulting with the prior Physician
c. Non-referreal of the patient to a specialist
d. None of the above
14. The best interest of the pharmacist patient, physician and nurse is served if the physician’s
order is in:
a. Writing
b. phone call
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
15. Customary experimental treatments
a. Ordinary cases
b. Not yet accepted as modality
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

1. INSTRUCTION OF A PHYSICIAN must be, except


a. adequate
b. intelligible
c. sufficient
d. Precise

2. All statement are true, except.


Injuries or deaths in blood transfusion may occur account of laboratory error in:
a. typing and cross-matching of the doctor and donor’s blood
b. Clerical error whereby blood intended for one patient was given to another.
c. Infection emanating from transfusion or extraction from the donor.
d. Failure to transfuse blood when necessary and too much blood has been transfused.

3. Some of the problem of blood transfusion has been solved on account of the
a. Discovery of the Rh factor which led to the new test for the detection of the
incompatibilities whitih the group.
b. Discovery of the cause of pyrogenic reactions and the development of methods to
prevent them.
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

4. Most mismatches are caused by _________________ERROR either in the


examination or in clerical reporting.
a. Nurse
b. Patient
c. Technician
d. Janitor
5.All statement about the transfusion of the wrong type of blood are true, except.
a. If the technician is a hospital employee, then the hospital must be held liable for the
negligence.
b. However, if the examination and reporting was done under direct supervision and
control of the pathologist, then the pathologist may also be held liabe.
c. If the pathologist is an employee of the hospital, then the hospital is liable.
d. if the pathologist is an employee of the hospital, the pathologist still is liable
6. In blood transfusion on a wrong patient. Who is or are liable?
a. Medtech
b. Radtech
d. Hospital nurse
c. Guard
7.In slipping of the needle outside the vein and infusion of blood into the soft tissue. Who
is liable?
a. The one who bring the blood
b. The patient
c. The one who inject the needle for transfusion
d. The one who inject the needle for lab test
8. Donors of blood in blood bank are properly screened for the presence of infection
particularly
a. Malaria
b. Syphilis
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
9. Based on provision Act. 12. No. 4 of Revised Penal Code – Which provides that “Any
person who, while performing a lawful act with due care caused injury by mere accident
without fault or intention of causing it” IS EXCEMPTED FROM CRIMINAL LIABILITY.
a. Based on provision Act. 16. No. 42 of Revised Penal Code
b. Based on provision Act. 12. No. 4 of Revised Penal Code.
c. Based on provision Act. 16. No. 17 of Revised Penal Code
d. Based on provision Act. 12. No. 17 of Revised Penal Code

10. Physician must know the ____ of drugs.


a. dosage
b. manner of action
c. site of action
d. All of the above
11. In case of drug reaction, inference of negligence may be established in the following.
a. Failure to note history of allergy
b. Failure to test for signs of reaction
c. All of the above
D. None of the above
12. Over dosage has been common in the administration of
a. electric shock therapy
b. Paracetamol
c. Antibiotic
d. Analgesic
13. Effect that is inforeseeable
a. Side effect
b. Untoward effect
c. Backward effect
d. Walking effect
14. Effect that is maybe expected to develop as normal consequence of drug
administration.
a. Side effect
b. Untoward effect
c. Backward effect
d. Walking effect
15. All statement about Infection following injection are true except.
a.Abscess and other form of infection which develop at the site of injection is not an
inference of negligence.
b. Infection which develops may be exogenous or endogenous in origin.
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

1. What is the most tragic reaction of a physician to malpractice?


a. Suicide by hanging himself.
b. Stress eating.
c. Partial or complete abandonment of his medical practice.
d. Enroll again in Legal Medicine.
2. It means any act or omission on the part of a physician that is motivated primarily by the
desire to avoid malpractice liability.
a. Intensive Medicine
b. Defensive Medicine
c. Offensive Medicine
d. Ultra defensive Medicine
3. The physician avoids performance of hazardous procedures even though the procedures
are deemed essential for the welfare of the patient.
a. Negative defensive Medicine
b. Negative intensive Medicine
c. Negative offensive Medicine
d. Negative Medicine
4. The physician orders or performs additional management procedures to avoid liability.
a. Positive defensive Medicine
b. Positive intensive Medicine
c. Positive offensive Medicine
d. Positive Medicine
5. The performance of ceasarian section to a normal uncomplicated pregnancy is a kind of
Overtreatment.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
6. The application of cast without any justifiable reason is a kind of qualitative overtreatment.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
7. The hospitalization of a patient for a minor ailment is a kind of qualitative overtreatment.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
8. To justify the demand for a higher medical fee is one the reasons why a physician “Over
Act”.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
9. To make the management more dramatic and impressive is one the reasons why a
physician “Over Act”.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
10. To build up or aggravate the criminal and civil liability of the person who caused such injury
or disease is one the reasons why a physician “Over Act”.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
11. To satisfy the will of the patient is one the reasons why a physician “Over Act”.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
12. This may be done unintentionally is one the reasons why a physician “Over Act”.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
13. Excessive testing is an example of a quantitative kind of overtreatment.
a. False
b. True
c. Both
d. None of the above
14. Making of more x-ray examinations than would be required is an example of a quantitative
kind of overtreatment.
a. False
b. True
c. Both
d. None of the above
15. Greater frequency of visits is an example of a quantitative kind of overtreatment.
a. False
b. True
c. Both
d. None of the above
16. Longer period of treatment is an example of a quantitative kind of overtreatment.
a. False
b. True
c. Both
d. None of the above
17. Indiscriminately prescribing medicine having similar effect is an example of a quantitative
kind of overtreatment.
a. False
b. True
c. Both
d. None of the above
18. It may cause unnecessary financial losses to the patient is one of the effects of
overtreatment.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
19. The patient may suffer physical and emotional harm is one of the effects of overtreatment.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
20. The physician may be treating symptoms which are actually the results of overtreatment.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
21. There is a risk of possible injury to the patient which may be a potential catalyst to a
malpractice suit is one of the effects of overtreatment.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
22. A physician should care for every patient with scrupulous attention to the requirements of
a good medical practice.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
23. The physician must know his legal duty to his patient.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
24. Destructive and unethical criticisms of the work of other physicians must be avoided.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
25. “ideal” medical records should be kept in every case.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
26. The physician should exercise tact, as well as professional ability in handling a patient.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
27. The physician should avoid refrain from overoptimistic prognosis.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
28. The physician should unfailingly secure an informed consent for an operation or autopsy.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
29. The physician should have knowledge of the statute of limitation and its significance.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above
30. The physician should keep inviolate all confidential information.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. None of the above

1. Liability endured on another person’s behalf.


a. Corporate liability
b. Direct liability
c. Vicarious liability
d. Product liability
2. If a patient makes his/her condition worse by ignoring medical advice, that may be
considered:
a. Patient negligence
b. Contributory negligence
c. Patient malpractice
d. Secondary malpractice
3. Which of these is most important when dealing with medical records?
a. Accessibility
b. Confidentiality
c. Legibility
d. Availability
4. Which of these is the only one entitled to immediate access to patient medical records?
a. The patient's physician
b. The patient's lawyer
c. Law enforcement officials
d. The patient's insurance company
5. Who should explain the costs of their care to a patient?
a. The physician
b. The nurse
c. The insurance company
d. The administrative staff
6. Which of these would be best placed under the heading of “medical etiquette”?
a. The way you talk to a patient
b. The way you decide on a patient’s treatment
c. Obeying the law regarding patient confidentiality
d. The way a patient’s medical fees are calculated
7. In law, what does “respondeat superior” mean?
a. An employer can be held responsible for employee actions
b. Employers are not responsible for employee actions
c. Only employers are responsible for employee actions
d. Employees are the only ones responsible for their actions
8. Who has ownership of a patient's medical records?
a. The care provider
b. The insurance company
c. The patient
d. The state medical board

9. To give informed consent to a medical procedure or course of treatment, a patient must


be…?
a. Mentally competent
b. Physically able
c. Medically qualified
d. Legally trained
10. Which of these is not a type of patient record?
a. Active
b. Suspended
c. Inactive
d. Closed
11. Under which of these circumstances patient records must be released?
a. Demand from an insurance company
b. Demand from law enforcement
c. Demand from patient's next of kin
d. Court subpoena
12. An Act Requiring Government and Private Hospitals and Clinics to Extend Medical
Assistance in Emergency Cases.
a. House Bill No. 7303
b. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 6615
c. P.D. 442
d. E.O. 51
13. Hospital Licensure Act
a. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 4226
b. House Bill No. 7303
c. P.D. 442
d. E.O. 51
14. P.D. 442
a. Labor Code of the Philippines
b. Civil Code
c. Insurance Code
d. Local Government Code
15. Patients often seek release from the hospital despite the fact that discontinuation of
treatment may be detrimental to the patient’s health
a. Informed refusal
b. Informed consent
c. Waiver
d. Expert testimony
1. The following statements is/are true regarding surgeon who enters in a contractual
relationship with a patient, except;
a. He must comply with the stipulation of the contract.
b. He must perform the operation.
c. He can delegate its performace.
d. He cannot play the minor role in the operation.
2. Which of the following is/true regarding ghost surgery,except;
a. Operating surgeon is held liable for breach of contract
b. Contacting surgeon may be criminally liable.
c. Contracting surgeon should only play the minor role, because the operating surgeon
should have the principal role.
d. All of the above
3. The following is true, except;
a. The surgeon performing a delicate operation of deep surgery in the abdomen cannot
assign details of the operation to his assistant, who is unknown to the patient.
b. Contracting surgeon cannot be held liable if the operating surgeon causes
harm/negligence to the patient.
c. Surgeons enter in contractual relationship to the patient to perform a surgery.
d. None of the above
4. The osteopath was commissioned to perform a CS operation on Princess Bubblegum
who used to have still-birth. When Princess Bubblegum was about to deliver, she was
turned over to the OB department who did the CS. The child was born was dead. Which
of the following is true regarding the case;
a. The OB can be held liable for any suit that the woman will file because she is the
principal operator.
b. It is presumed that there is contractual relationship that exist between the OB and
the women because she is the principal operator of the act.
c. Princess Bubblegum can file a suit to the osteopath for failure to perform
obligation.
d. The OB and the osteopath can be held liable for the death of the newborn.
5. Which of the following is false;
a. Physician can delegate his/her duty to the nurses.
b. Physician can delegate IV medication to the family member of the patient.
c. Patient can be delegated to record his/her temperature periodically.
d. Suturing of wounds can be delegated to the nurses.
6. Which of the following is/true regarding delegation of duty;
a. In the absence of any special agreement, some aspects of the professional
management may be delegated.
b. When a physician enter into a contract with the patient to give special personal
attention he can still delegate some of his/her duty because physicians cannot be in
constant attendance.
c. Physicians cannot delegate certain parts of the management to the patient nor to
other members of the household.
7. Which of the following is/are requisites for a valid delegation;
a. Such duty of the physician can validly be delegated
b. The person to whom such duty is delegated is competent to perform such duty
c. The patient consented expressly or implied to such delegation of duty
d. All of the above
8. The validity of delegation of the duty depends on the following, except;
a. Circumstance of the case
b. Nature of the duty to be delegated
c. Specific standard or guidelines in delegation of duty
d. None of the above
9. The following is/true statements regarding delegation, except;
a. The duty cannot be delegated when such duty is the principal subject matter of the
contract.
b. When a patient consent the delegation of duty even the physician agreed to
render strictly personal services to the patient is permissible.
c. Physician cannot delegate task/duty when no one is with sufficient competency to
perform such duty.
d. None of the above
10. The following duties are well delegated, except;
a. Ward nurse was delegated to do lumbar puncture because the physician is
attending an emergency in the ward.
b. The nurse-anesthetist was ordered to apply anesthesia on a patient in the course of
an operative procedure.
c. The patient himself was instructed by the physician to administer his/her medication
per orem.
d. A member of the household was instructed to record the patient’s temperature
periodically.
11. Jake the Dog was under treatment by a physician. The physician ordered the application
of ointment but failed to state that if it burns, it must be removed. Jake the Dog burned
his skin. Which of the following statement is true regarding the case?
a. The physician is not liable because he instructed Jake the Dog but he failed to ask
questions regarding the ointment.
b. The physician is not liable because the burns are part of the side effects of the drug.
c. The physician is not liable because he is attending other patient who is in
cardiopulmonary collapse.
d. None of the above
12. Finn the Human was suffering from diabetes and wished to eliminate the use of insulin.
The attending physician put him on strict diet and drastically reduced the insulin dosage.
The physician further advised Finn the Human to report any untoward symptoms.
However, on account of the failure of Finn the Human to report progress of the
experiment, he suffered injury as a consequence. Which of the following is true about
the case?
a. Proper instruction must be given to the person who will perform the delegated
duty.
b. The physician is not liable.
c. There is no delegation happened in the case.
d. All of the above
13. The following statements are true, except;
a. In order for a delegation to be valid, the patient should consented expressly or
implied such delegation of duty.
b. If the patient has full knowledge that the person to perform a medical duty on him is
incompetent, he may object or refuse it.
c. If a patient is in doubt whether the person ordered by the physician is in capacity to
do so, he must ask the attending physician.
d. None of the above.
14. Which of the following is false?
a. Person performing the delegated duty can be held liable.
b. Physician may not be held liable if he was present when the negligent act occurred
due to the person who was delegated to perform the task.
c. Physician may not be held liable if he was in a capacity to control the act the person
to whom the delegated duty is assigned.
d. All of the above
15. Doctor Princess reduced Ice King’s fracture but assigned to another physician the
placing of Ice King’s leg traction. The placing of the traction was done in such a way that
the bone did not heal properly. Doctor Princess was Ice King in traction at the hospital
for four days before he went to another state. Which of the following statement is true?
a. Doctor Princess in not liable if Ice King will file a suit.
b. Doctor Princess is out of the picture of the law suit because she only reduced the
fracture.
c. Doctor Princess will be held liable.
d. Both A and B

1. It is the kind of transplantation from animal donor to human patient.


a. Homotransplantation
b. Heterotransplantation
c. Isotransplantation
d. Autotransplantation
2. It is the kind of transplantation from unrelated human donor to human recipient.
a. Homotransplantation
b. Heterotransplantation
c. Isotransplantation
d. Autotransplantation
3. It is the kind of transplantation when the donor and recipient are twin.
a. Homotransplantation
b. Heterotransplantation
c. Isotransplantation
d. Autotransplantation
4. It is the kind of transplantation when the patient is donor and recipient himself.
a. Homotransplantation
b. Heterotransplantation
c. Isotransplantation
d. Autotransplantation
5. Sources for Human to human Transplantation
a. Transplantation from a living donor
b. Transplantation from a cadaver donor
c. only a
d. both a and b
6. Inadequacy of supply of materials for transplantation because of: Refusal of potential
donors on account of
a. Customary beliefs
b. Sociocutural beliefs
c. None of the Above
d. Both a and b
7. Systems of organ availability from sources include:
a. Altruistic system
b. Commercial system
c. Industrial system
d. a and b only
8. A type of sytems of organ availability from sources when the persons do not donate their
organs but sell their organs for a a price:
a. Altruistic system
b. Industrial system
c. Commercial system
d. Economic system
9. Requirements for the valid authorization to donate include except:
a. Must be written
b. Must not specify the person of institution granted the authorization
c. Must specify an organ, part or parts to be detached from cadaver
d. Must state specific use or uses to which the organ, part or parts are to be employed
10. Type of sytems of organ availability from sources when the individuals relinquish organs
without financial compensation
a. Altruistic system
b. Industrial system
c. Commercial system
d. Economic system
11. It is said to be of great confirmatory value on the basis of definition of death
a. No reflexes
b. No movement or breathing
c. Flat electro-encephalogram
d. Unresposiveness
12. This means that there is total unawareness to externally applied stimuli and inner need
a. Unreceptivity
b. Unresponsiveness
c. A only
d. A and b
13. In the certification of death, criteria A – F should be present for at least how many hours
before death is certified:
a. 10
b. 8
c. 4
d. 2
14. Death should be certified by how many physicians other than the physician of the
potential organ recipient.
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 0
15. Donation of organs or tissues for transplantation from the dead body is provided by RA
349 ammended by what another RA?
a. 1056
b. 1057
c. 1058
d. 1059
16. No reflexes is best described with the following:
a. Pupil will be fixed and dilated
b. Ocular movement and blinking is minimally present
c. Only a
d. Both a and b
17. In 1967, the three phases criteria in establishing brain death includes:
a. No reflex
b. No spontaneous breathing
c. No muscle activity
d. All of 1the above
18. The shortage of transplantable organs under the altruistic system can be attributed to:
a. Lack of knowledge of public
b. Unwillingness by many persons
c. Only a
d. Both a and b
19. Diasadvantages of commercial system includes
a. It may possible increase the supply of free organs
b. Financially unable patient will be deprived of transplantation
c. Only b
d. Both a and b
20. In death without a written donation, the body can only be considered’’unclaimed’’ by how
many hours?
a. 24
b. 48
c. 72
d. 106
21. Parts of the body to which rejection is virtually non-existent
a. Cornea
b. Kidney
c. Bone
d. A and c
22. Parts of the body where deterioration is fast and transplantation must be done
immediately except:
a. Kidneys
b. Lungs
c. Heart
d. Blood vessels
23. Donation of organs or tissues for transplantation which will be removed from the dead
body is provided for by what Republic act:
a. RA 349
b. RA 143
c. RA 249
d. RA 268
24. After the death of the person, donation may be made by the nearest relative or guardian:
This statemen is:
a. True
b. False
c. Neither
d. Either
25. The people who presented the three phase criteria in establishing brain death:
a. Ad Hoc committee
b. Rosoff and Schwab
c. Rosai and Dorfman
d. Robins and Cotran
26. In the documentation of death, absence of spontaneous breathing movements for how
many minutes?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 10
d. 5
27. These are the reflexes and responses included in the documentation of death except:
a. Pupils fixed and dilated
b. With minimal superficial reflexes
c. No deep tendon reflexes
d. No plantar responses
28. In the requirements for valid authorization to donate, this statement’’ It must be signed
by the grantor and two disinterested witnesses’’ is:
a. True
b. False
c. Neither
d. Either
29. Ad Hoccommitee of the Harvard Medical School includes except:
a. Unreceptivity and responsiveness
b. With minimal movement or breathing
c. No reflexes
d. Flat EEG
30. With regards to flat EEG this statement ‘’The patient could be under the influence of
sedationor anesthetic drugs’’ is
a. True
b. False
c. Neither
d. Either
1. The problem in rapid growth of population is:
a. decrease in death rate
b. no proportionate increase in food production
c. lack of housing spaces
d. increase in heredofamilial diseases
2. Included in the General Order No. 18, except:
a. all universities, colleges and schools
b. mass media, civic and voluntary organizations
c. religious organizations of all creeds
d. nongovernment offices
3. The Letter of Instruction No. 47 is directed to inform all schools except:
a. schools of medicine
b. schools of nursing
c. schools of commerce
d. schools of midwifery
4. Letter of Instruction No. 47-A is addressed to the:
a. Secretary of the Department of Public Information
b. Postmaster General
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
5. Presidential Decree No. 965 is an/a:
a. Instruction on Family Planning as a requisite for marriage license
b. Instruction on Family Planning as a requisite for birth certificate
c. Instruction on Family Planning as a requisite for employment
d. None of the above
6. Duty of the Family Planning Office:
a. shall give instructions on how to carry out proper abortion
b. shall give lectures on abortion
c. shall give instructions and information on family planning and responsible
parenthood to applicants for marriage license
d. shall administer vaccines
7. A form instructions and information on family planning and responsible parenthood
a. personal instruction
b. handbooks
c. pamphlets or brochures
d. all of the above
8. The one that issues marriage licenses:
a. Civil Service
b. Local Civil Registrar
c. National Bureau of Investigation
d. Commission on Population
9. The certificate issued by an Office of Family Planning costs:
a. Php 100.00
b. Php 150.00
c. Php 200.00
d. For free
10. They are authorized to provide, dispense and administer acceptable methods of
contraception:
a. Nurses
b. Midwives
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
11. True about Paramedic Certifying Board except:
a. established by POPCOM
b. handles all accreditation and certification Family Planning Midwives and Family
Planning Nurses
c. designates nurses and midwives to specific offices of Family Planning
d. None of the above
12. The Letter of Instruction No. 436 direct government officials to:
a. Integrate population and family planning in their overall socioeconomic
development plan
b. Instruct their action officers on development to allocate and obligate funds for their
respective socioeconomic development programs
c. Require their action officers on socioeconomic development to coordinate with the
POPCOM in the preparation, planning, implementation and monitoring of all
population and family planning related
d. All of the above
13. Conditions in compliance for the use of any method of fertility control:
a. It must be involuntary
b. No life must be destroyed
c. Public welfare must be amply protected
d. Sexual enjoyment must not be impaired
14. The following are guidelines in the application of contraceptive procedures:
a. Informed consent must be obtained before the procedure
b. The provider must respect the right of religion of the patient
c. Care and diligence must be observed during the procedure
d. All of the above
15. The following are true except:
a. Expressed consent may be done orally or in writing
b. It is advisable to make the consent in writing
c. Consent of the wife is necessary for the sterilization operation to be done on
the husband
d. Consent of the husband is not necessary for the sterilization operation to be done
on the wife
16. The following are contraceptive methods except:
a. Physiological
b. Biological
c. Chemical
d. None of the above
17. It is the withdrawal of the male sex organ during the pre-ejaculatory state:
a. Withdrawal
b. Onanism
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
18. Modified sexual intercourse that is not recommended for contraceptive method:
a. Coitus rectalis
b. Coitus reservatus
c. Coitus interruptus
d. Coitus incompletus
19. A modified sexual intercourse where the man avoids a condition close to orgasm and
allows detumescence to take place over a prolonged period
a. Coitus incompletus
b. Coitus saxonicus
c. Coitus rectalis
d. Coitus reservatus
20. A modified sexual intercourse where the man exerts pressure on his perineum so as to
cause the spermatozoa to be refluxed to the bladder:
a. Coitus incompletus
b. Coitus saxonicus
c. Coitus rectalis
d. Coitus reservatus
21. Example of a physical barrier as contraceptive method:
a. Condom
b. Cervical cap or cervical diaphragm
c. Foam tablet or aerosol
d. All of the above
22. An intrauterine device used in contraception except:
a. Non-medicated IUD
b. Testosterone-releasing IUD
c. Progesterone-releasing IUD
d. None of the above
23. A physiological method of contraception:
a. Rhythm method
b. Prolonged lactation
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
24. Method of surgical sterilization on females except:
a. Oophorectomy
b. Orchiectomy
c. Salpingectomy
d. Hysterectomy
25. It is the division and ligation of the fallopian tubes:
a. Tubal ligation
b. Orchiectomy
c. Salpingectomy
d. Hysterectomy
26. It is the partial or complete removal of the fallopian tubes
a. Tubal ligation
b. Orchiectomy
c. Salpingectomy
d. Hysterectomy
27. It is the removal of the testicle:
a. Tubal ligation
b. Orchiectomy
c. Salpingectomy
d. Hysterectomy
28. It is the removal of the uterus:
a. Tubal ligation
b. Orchiectomy
c. Salpingectomy
d. Hysterectomy
29. Advantages of vasectomy and tubal ligation:
a. More easily performed especially vasectomy
b. Less associated with discomfort, disability, risk and expense
c. None of the organs or hormone-producing part of the body is removed
d. All of the above
30. Advantages of vasectomy over tubal ligation:
a. Anatomic location of the fallopian tubes requires entry into the abdominal cavity
b. Tubal ligation usually requires general anesthesia and is usually associated with
hospitalization
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

1. When was the Philippine Medical Care Act promulgated?


a. November 4, 1993
b. April 16, 1960
c. June 11, 1978
d. June 1, 2011

2. It is a social legislation and a hospitalization and medical services insurance scheme.


a. Philippine Medical Care Act
b. Generic Drugs Act
c. Senior Citizens Act
d. National Health Insurance Act

3. Plan program of the Philippine Medical Care Act which covers the members of GSIS and
SSS.
a. Program I
b. Program II
c. Program III
d. Program IV

4. This is a government-owned insurance system which caters to government employees.


a. Insular Life
b. Government Service Insurance System
c. Social Security System
d. Manulife

5. What is the contribution base of an employee earning 551.00 in a month?


a. 60.00
b. 100.00
c. 300.00
d. 600.00

6. How many days of hospitalization in a year will be covered by the Philippine Medical Care
Act?
a. 10 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 90 days

7. How much is the allowance for a hospital room per day in a primary institution?
a. 12.00
b. 15.00
c. 18.00
d. 20.00
8. How much is the allowance for a hospital room per day in a tertiary institution?
a. 12.00
b. 15.00
c. 18.00
d. 20.00

9. What is the maximum amount for the allowance of laboratory expenses for an employee
who will undergo a major surgery?
a. 150.00
b. 250.00
c. 300.00
d. 500.00

10. The anaesthesiologist’s allowance should not exceed to how many percentage of the
surgeon’s fee?
a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%

11. The Philippine Medical Care Act is


a. P.D. 1234
b. P.D. 1519
c. E.O. 768
d. A.O 34

12. What is the insurance system of the country that caters to the employees in the private
sectors?
a. Pag-IBIG
b. Government Service Insurance System
c. Philam Life Health and Life Plan
d. Social Security System

13. When should the employer deduct the employee’s salary for his contribution?
a. Daily
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Yearly
14. What is the contribution base of an employee earning 86.00 in a month?
a. 10.00
b. 75.00
c. 175.00
d. 750.00
15. The following procedures are not part of the coverage of the Medicare Act, except:
a. Cosmetic surgery
b. Psychiatric illness
c. Optometric services
d. None of the above
16. As of Oct. 1, 1978, an operating room fee in addition to the current surgical benefits is
available as follows except:
a) P75.00 for a major operation
b) P50.00 for a medium operation
c) P20.00 for a minor operation
d) None of the above
17. Allowance for medical and dental practitioner’s fee of ten pesos (P10.00) per each daily
visit not to exceed two hundred pesos (P200.00) for a single period of confinement of for
any sickness or injury is according to what section of P.D. 1519?
a) Sec. 12
b) Sec. 13
c) Sec. 14
d) Sec. 15
18. All claims for benefits must be filed within how many calendar days from the last day of
confinement?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
19. Claims for payment of services which are filed beyond sixty days after the discharge of
the patient shall be barred from payment according to what section of P.D. 1517?
a) Sec. 20
b) Sec. 21
c) Sec. 22
d) Sec. 23
20. During settlement of claims, the hospital shall require which of the following?
a) The fact of his SSS or GSIS membership and his number
b) The name of his attending physician or surgeon
c) Both a and b
d) Only one of the following
21. When an employee, hospital or medical practitioner fails without good cause to comply
with the advice of the medical practitioner with respect to hospitalization, payment for
services may be reduced or denied by the SSS or GSIS.
a) True
b) False
c) Maybe
d) I don’t know
22. If any person who, for the purpose of securing entitlement to any benefit or payment shall
commit fraud, collusion, falsification, misrepresentation or any similar anomaly, that
person shall suffer the penalties provided for in what article of the Revised Penal Code?
a) Article 170
b) Article 171
c) Article 172
d) Article 173
23. This article of the Revised Penal Code defines and penalizes “Falsification by private
individuals and use of falsified documents” and impose the penalty of prision correctional
in its medium and maximum periods and a fine of not more than 5,000 pesos?
a) Article 170
b) Article 171
c) Article 172
d) Article 173
24. Punishment for failure or refusal to comply with the provision of Art. 172 of the Revised
Penal Code is a fine of not less than 500 nor more than how many pesos?
a) P3,000
b) P4,000
c) P5,000
d) P6,000
25. Punishment for failure or refusal to comply with the provision of Art. 172 of the Revised
Penal Code is imprisonment for not less than 6 months nor more than how many years?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
26. Any employer who shall deduct directly or indirectly from the compensation of the covered
employees or otherwise recover from them his own contribution on behalf of such
employees shall be punished with a fine not exceeding how many pesos?
a) P500
b) P1,000
c) P1,500
d) P2,000

27. Article 217 (Malversation of public funds or property) imposes which of the following
penalties, if the amount involved in the misappropriation or malversation does not exceed
two hundred pesos?
a) Prision correctional
b) Prision mayor
c) Reclusion temporal
d) Reclusion perpetua

28. Article 217 (Malversation of public funds or property) imposes which of the following
penalties, if the amount involved is more than two hundred pesos but does not exceed six
thousand pesos?
a) Prision correctional
b) Prision mayor
c) Reclusion temporal
d) Reclusion perpetua
29. Article 217 (Malversation of public funds or property) imposes which of the following
penalties in its minimum period if the amount involved is more than six thousand pesos
but is less than twelve thousand pesos?
a) Prision correctional
b) Prision mayor
c) Reclusion temporal
d) Reclusion perpetua

30. Article 217 (Malversation of public funds or property) imposes which of the following
penalties in its minimum and maximum periods, if the amount involved is more than twelve
thousand pesos but is less than twenty-two thousand pesos?
a) Prision correctional
b) Prision mayor
c) Reclusion temporal
d) Reclusion perpetua

1. One which is concerned with admission and treatment of a substantial range of disease
or injuries
A. Specailized Hospital
B. Diagnostic Hospital
C. General Hospital
D. NOTA
2. established to admit specific illness, treatments, organ affected or for a class of people
A. Specailized Hospital
B. Diagnostic Hospital
C. General Hospital
D. NOTA
3. devoted solely to the diagnosis of the disease, injury, deformity, or physical and mental
conditions
A. Specailized Hospital
B. Diagnostic Hospital
C. General Hospital
D. NOTA
4. established for the reception, care and treatment of expectant mothers and care of the
newly born infants
A. Maternity Hospital
B. Diagnostic Hospital
C. General Hospital
D. NOTA
5. established to enhance return of a disabled to his usual activities and adapts his
condition to a specific environment
A. Rehabilitation Hospital
B. Maternity Hospital
C. Diagnostic Hospital
D. General Hospital

6. Where operative procedures are employed as a mode of treatment.


A. Rehabilitation Hospital
B. Maternity Hospital
C. Diagnostic Hospital
D. Surgical Hospital
7. For the improvement of the physical or aesthetic condition either by surgery or by
physical means.
A. Maternity Hospital
B. Diagnostic Hospital
C. Surgical Hospital
D. Cosmetic Hospital
8. operated and maintained either partially or wholly by the national, provincial, municipal,
or city government or other political subdivision, or by any department, division, board or
other agency thereof
A. Diagnostic Hospital
B. Surgical Hospital
C. Cosmetic Hospital
D. Public hospital
9. privately owned, especially established and operated with funds raised or contributed
through donations, or private capital or other means, by private individuals, associations,
corporation, religious organization, firm, company or joint stock association
A. Private Hospital
B. Surgical Hospital
C. Cosmetic Hospital
D. Public hospital
10. Duties of the governing board of a hospital
A. To determine the policies of the hospital in relation to the community needs;
B. To see to it that the proper professional standards are maintained in the care of the
sick;
C. To coordinate the professional interest of the hospital with administrative, financial
and community needs;
D. AOTA
11. State regulation of the hospital, except:
A. A minimum standard requirements for ground and building including facilities for
ventilation, waste disposal, fire protection, drainage, congestion and pollution,
explosives and other hazards.
B. To determine the policies of the hospital in relation to the community needs
C. It may provide for provisions for minimum number of equipment and supplies for
certain number of bed patients.
D. The state may set standard qualification of medical and paramedical staff members.
12. Primary duties of a hospital, except:
A. To furnish a safe and well maintained building and ground
B. To determine the policies of the hospital in relation to the community needs
C. To furnish adequate and safe equipment
D. To exercise a reasonable care in the selection of the members of hospital staff

13. one who enters the property of another without being granted the privilege to do so
A. Licensee
B. Invitee
C. Trespasser
D. NOTA

14. One who is either a customer, a servant or a trespasser. He has no contractual relation
with the hospital
A. Licensee
B. Invitee
C. Trespasser
D. NOTA

15. One who is essential to the operation of a hospital or for whom the hospital has a
purpose.
A. Licensee
B. Invitee
C. Trespasser
D. NOTA

1. Age requirement for admission to the practice of medicine:


a. 18
b. 19
c. 20
d. 21
2. The following are requirements for admission in a college of medicine, except:
a. Certificate of good moral
b. Record showing completion of a bachelor’s degree
c. Certificate of eligibility for entrance
d. None of the above
3. Which of the following is true for Sec 7 of Medical Act of 1959:
a. The board is hereby authorized to modify or add to the subjects listed above as
the need and demands of progress in the medical profession may require
b. Provides that a person must have satisfactorily passed the corresponding Board
Examination before he can practice medicine
c. All fees paid as provided herein shall accrue to the fund of the Board of Medicine
d. None of the above
4. Which of the following is false regarding qualifications of candidates for the Board of
Examination
a. He must be at least nineteen years of age
b. He must be of good moral character
c. He must have completed the first two years of the medical course
d. None of the above
5. Which of the following is true regarding the Date and Place of the Examination
a. It can be conducted anytime
b. Should only be conducted in Manila
c. It should last for a month
d. It may be done twice a year provided that the interval between the first and
second examinations in a year shall be six months
6. No certificate of registration shall be issued to any candidate, except:
a. Who has been convicted by any court of competent jurisdiction of any criminal
offense involving moral turpitude
b. Who has been found guilty of immoral or dishonorable conduct after the
investigation by the Board of Medicine
c. Who has been declared to be found of unsound mind
d. None of the above
7. No certification of registration shall be issued to a person who have been declared of
unsound mind is stated in what section of the Medical Act of 1959?
a. Section 1
b. Section 10
c. Section 2
d. Section 20
8. The following are scope of the examination during the preliminary exam, except:
a. Anatomy and Histology
b. Physiology
c. Biohemistry
d. Pathology
9. The following are scope of the examination during the final exam, except:
a. Pathology
b. Medicine
c. Obstetrics and Gynecology
d. Biochemistry
10. Qualifications of candidates for the Board of Examination during the preliminary exam,
except:
a. He must be at least nineteen years of age
b. He must be of good moral character
c. He must have completed the first two years of the medical course
d. None of the above
11. Qualifications of candidates for the Board of Examination during the final exam, except:
a. He shall be a citizen of the Philippines
b. He must be of good moral character
c. He shall not have been convicted by a court of competent jurisdiction of any
offense involving moral amplitude
d. None of the above
12. A candidate for admission in a college of medicine must present:
a. A certificate of eligibility for entrance to a medical school
b. A birth certificate
c. Recommendation from two former professors
d. All of the above
13. An applicant of a board examination may take or pass the board exam below the age of
majority but:
a. He should pay a fine
b. He should get a board exam rating of 85%
c. He should belong in the top 10 in his class
d. The certificate of registration will only be issued to him when he reaches
the age of 21
14. In order that a candidate may have deemed to have passed his examination
successfully, he must have obtained a general average of:
a. 50%
b. 70%
c. 80%
d. 75%
15. Refers to the science or philosophy of law
a. Justice
b. Judgement
c. Jurisdiction
d. Jurisprudence

1. Also called Republic Act No. 2382?


a. The Medical Act of 1959
b. Aristocratic oath
c. Code of Ethics of Medical Profession
d. The Practice of Medicine

2. All but one is NOT an objective of the Medical Act of 1959?


a. the standardization and regulation of medical education;
b. the examination for registration of physicians; and
c. the supervision, control and regulation of the practice of medicine in the Philippines.
d. To carry out the provisions of Medical Act of 1959

3. In Section 6 of the Medical Act of 1959 states that the medical course leading to the degree
of doctor of medicine shall be at least:
a. four years
b. five years
c. three years
d. seven years
4. In Section 6 of the Medical Act of 1959 states that the medical course leading to the degree
of doctor of medicine shall consist of the following subjects, EXCEPT:
a. Anatomy
b. Physiology
c. Biochemistry and Nutrition
d. Zoology

5. In Section 7 of the Medical Act of 1959, admit any student who HAS BEEN convicted by any
court of competent jurisdiction of any offense involving moral turpitude
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither

6. In Section 7 of the Medical Act of 1959, the term “College of Medicine” shall mean to include
the following, EXCEPT:
a. faculty of medicine
b. institute of medicine
c. school of medicine
d. Hospital admin

7. In Section 8 of the Medical Act of 1959, all but one is NOT a Prerequisite to the Practice of
Medicine:
a. he must be at least twenty-one years of age
b. he must be at least twenty years of age
c. has satisfactorily passed the corresponding Board of Examination
d. holder of a valid Certificate of Registration duly issued to him by the Board of Medical
Examiners
8. In Medical Act of 1959, the Chairman of the Board of Medical Education is:
a. Secretary of Education or his duly authorized representative
b. the Secretary of Health or his duly authorized representative
c. the Director of the Bureau of Private Schools or his duly authorized representative
d. a representative of the Philippine Medical Association

9. Every college of medicine must publish each year a catalogue giving the following
information, EXCEPT:
a. Date of publication
b. Calendar of academic year
c. Faculty roll indicating whether on full-time or part-time basis
d. Campus map

10. In Section 9 of the Medical Act of 1959, Candidates for Board Examinations includes:
a. He shall be a citizen of the Philippines or a citizen of any foreign country who has
submitted competent and conclusive documentary evidence, confirmed by the
Department of Foreign Affairs, showing that his country’s existing laws permit
citizens of the Philippines to practice medicine under the same rules and
regulations governing citizens thereof;
b. He shall be of worst moral character;
c. He shall be of unpleasant mind;
d. He have been convicted by a court of competent jurisdiction of any offense involving moral
turpitude;

11. In Section 10 of the Medical Act of 1959, Acts Constituting Practice of Medicine states that
any person shall be considered as engaged in the practice of Medicine shall, for
compensation, fee, salary or reward in any form paid to him directly or through another, or
even without the same, physically examine any person, and diagnose, treat, operate or
prescribe any remedy for human disease, injury, deformity, physical, mental, psychical
condition or any ailment, real or imaginary, regardless of the nature of the remedy or
treatment administered, prescribed or recommended.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither

12. Refusal of a physician to attend a patient in danger of death is not a sufficient ground for
revocation for suspension of his registration certificate if there is a risk to the physician’s life.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither

13. In Section 17 of Medical Act of 1959, Rules and Regulations shall take effect _______ after
the date of their publication in the Official Gazette and shall not be changed within sixty days
immediately before any examination:
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days

14. Section 16 of Medical Act of 1959, Executive Office and Secretary of the Board:
a. shall also be the secretary of the Board of Medical Examiners, who shall keep all the
records, including examination papers and the minutes of the deliberations of the Board.
b. shall keep an up-to-date registration book of all duly registered physicians in the
Philippines.
c. shall keep all the records and proceedings, and issue and receive all papers in connection
with any and all complaints presented to the Board.
d. All of the above
15. In Section 22 of Medical Act of 1959, Administrative Investigations shall be conducted by at
least 2 members of the Board of Medical Examiners with 1 legal officer sitting during the
investigation, otherwise the proceedings shall be considered void.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither

16. In Section 23 of Medical Act of 1959, Procedure and Rules. States that Within __________
after the filing of written charges under oath, the respondent physician shall be furnished a
copy thereof, without requiring him or her to answer the same, and the Board shall conduct
the investigation within five days after the receipt of such copy by the respondent.
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days

17. Section 25 of Medical Act of 1959, Rights of respondents includes:


a. shall be entitled to be represented by counsel or be heard in person
b. to have a speedy and public hearing
c. to cross-examine witnesses against him or her
d. All of the above

18. In Section 26 of Medical Act of 1959, Appeal for judgment states that if the final decision is
not satisfactory, the respondent may ask for a review of the case, or may file in court a petition
for certiorari.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither

19. In Section 27 of Medical Act of 1959, after _______, the Board may order the reinstatement
of any physician whose certificate of registration has been revoked, if the respondents has
acted in an exemplary manner in the community wherein he resides and has not committed
any illegal, immoral or dishonorable act.
a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. Lifetime

20. In Section 21 of Medical Act of 1959 states that in order that a candidate may be deemed to
have passed his examination successfully he must have obtained a general average of
________ without a grade lower than fifty percent in any subject.
a. 75%
b. 80%
c. 70%
d. 60%

21. Who shall fill any vacancy that may occur during any examination from the list of names
submitted by the Philippine Medical Association in accordance with the provisions of this Act?
a. The President of the Philippines
b. Commissioner of Civil Service
c. The Secretary of the Health
d. the Director of the Bureau of Fire and Protection

22. In Section 12 of Medical Act of 1959, Limited practice without any certificate of registration
includes foreign physicians employed as exchange professors in special branches of medicine
or surgery whose service may, upon previous authorization of the Board of Medical Examiners.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither

23. In Section 24 of Medical Act of 1959, any of the following shall be sufficient ground for
reprimanding a physician, or for suspending or revoking a certificate of registration, EXCEPT:
a. Good moral character
b. Insanity
c. Fraud in the acquisition of the certificate of registration
d. Performance of or aiding in any criminal abortion

24. In Section 29 of Medical Act of 1959, Who may file an action to enjoin any person illegally
practicing medicine from the performance of any Act constituting the practice of medicine if the
case of warrants until the necessary certificate therefor is secured?
a. The Board of Medical Examiners
b. Commision on Higher Education
c. Department of Health
d. Philippine Medical Association

25. In Section 2 of Medical Act of 1959 states that for the purpose of implementing the provisions
of this Act, there are created the following agencies:
a. the Board of Medical Education under the Department of Education
b. the Board of Medical Examiners under the Commissioner of Civil Service under the
Commission of Civil Service.
c. Both
d. Neither
26. The examination papers shall be under the custody of the___________________________,
and shall be distributed to each member of the Board who shall correct, grade, and sign, and
submit them to the said Commissioner within one hundred twenty days from the date of the
termination of the examination.
a. Commissioner of Civil Service or his duly authorized representative
b. Commissioner on Election
c. Commissioner on Higher Education
d. Commissioner on all Commissioners

27. Who shall submit to the President of the Philippines for approval of the tabulation of results
without names and immediately upon receipt of the approved tabulation from the Office of the
President, he shall insert the names and cause the publication of the names of successful
candidates in alphabetical order without the rating obtained by each, at the same time transmit
a copy thereof to office of the President.?
a. The Secretary of the Board of Medical Examiner
b. The Secretary of the Department of Health
c. The Secretary of the Commission on Higher education
d. The Secretary of the Civil Service

28. In Section 26 of Medical Act of 1959, the decision of the Board of Medical Examiners shall
automatically become final ________ after the date of its promulgation unless the respondent,
during the same period, has appealed to the Commissioner of Civil Service and later to the
Office of the President of the Philippines:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days

29. In Section 18 of Medical Act of 1959, the Board of Medical Examiners shall give examinations
for the registration of physicians________, on dates to be determined by it provided that the
interval between the first and the second examinations in a year shall be six months, in the
City of Manila or any of its suburbs after giving not less than ten days notice to each candidate
who had filed his name and address with the Secretary of the Board.
a. twice a year
b. thrice a year
c. Once a year
d. Four times a year

30. In Section 14 of Medical Act of 1959, Qualifications of Examiner includes not a member of the
faculty of any medical school and has no pecuniary interest, directly or indirectly, in any college
of medicine or any institution where any branch of medicine is taught, at the time of his
appointment.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither

1. How many articles are there in Code of Medical Ethics?


a. 6 c. 8
b. 7 d. 9

2. Physician should cooperate with the proper authorities in the enforcement of


sanitary laws and regulations
a. True
b. False
3. all of the following statements are under article II of Code of Ethics except:
a. Physician should attend to his patients faithfully and conscientiously
b. A physician is free to choose whom he will serve
c. Primary objective- service to mankind irrespective of race, cred or political
affiliation.
d. A physician must exercise good faith and strict honesty in expressing his
opinion as to the diagnosis, prognosis and treatment of the cases under his
care.
4. When was the Code of Ethics approved?
a. November 15, 1959
b. November 1, 2018
c. Deccember 14, 1804
d. November 16, 1900
5. Code of Ethics shall take effect after howmany days following the completion of
its publication in the Official Gazette?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
6. What is the first article of Code of Ethics?
a. Duties of Physicians to their Patients
b. Duties of Physicians to their Colleagues and to the Profession
c. General Principles
d. Penal Provision
7. Copies of Code of Ethics shall be distributed to physicians every?
a. year
b. day
c. month
d. decade
8. What is the third Article of Code of Ethics?
a. Duties of Physicians to their Patients
b. Duties of Physicians to their Colleagues and to the Profession
c. General Principles
d. Duties of Physicians to the Community
9. Code of Ethics was ratified by?
a. Philippine Nursing Association
b. House of Delegates of the Philippine Medical Association
c. American Medical Association
10. Article number 7?
a. Duties of Physicians to their Patients
b. Duties of Physicians to their Colleagues and to the Profession
c. Penal Provision
d. Duties of Physicians to the Community

Matching
C 11. Article I a. Duties of Physicians to to Allied
Professionals
D 12. Article II b. Duties of Physician to their Colleagues
E 13. Article III and to the Profession
B 14 Article IV c. General Principles
A 15. Article V d. Duties of Physician to their Patients
F 16. Article VI e. Duties of Physician to the Community
G 17. Article VII f. Amendments
H 18. Article VIII g. Penal Provisions
h. None of the above

19. How many vote/s is/are needed to adopt a new code of ethics?
a. few
b. many
c. majority
d. all members
20. after how many days will be the code of ethics be effective after amendment?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30

21. Physician should never sign or allow to be published any testimonial certifying the efficacy,
value and superiority and recommending the use of any drug, medicine, food product
a. True
b. False

22. Before the proper medical or legal tribunals corrupt or dishonest conduct of members
of the profession, physician should?
a. happy
b. expose without fear or favor
c. NOTA
d. AOTA
23. When patient is referred by one physician to another, to receive commission is:
a. professional
b. unprofessional
c. a must
b. blessing
24. When will all the questions affecting the professional reputation of a
member/s of the medical society be considered for proper medical tribunals?
a. before
b. 3 days after
c. 3 days before
d. after
25. It is unprofessional for a physician to:
a. offer to pay
b. receive or solicit
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
26. Relationship between government and private physicians should be:
a. friendly and cordial
b. mutual
c. complicated
d. AOTA
27. A physician should?
a. Willingly render gratuitous service to a colleague
b. should not meet in consultation with anyone who is not qualified by law to
practice medicine.
c. should never cover-up, help, aid or act as a dummy of any illegal practitioner, quack or
charlatan.
d. AOTA
28. Difference of opinion should not be divulged; but when there is an irreconcilable
disagreement, the circumstances should be:
a. frankly
b. courteously
c. impartially explained to the patients family or friends
d. AOTA
29. It is the duty of physicians to warn the public against the danger and false
pretensions of charlatans and quacks
a. true
b. false
30. The physician columnist must be in the subject matter of his column?
a. well informed
b. up-to-date
c. AOTA
d NOTA

1. Which statement is valid?


a. A patient under 21 years of age who needs an operation can give his consent.
b. When a wife needs an operation, the consent of the husband is necessary
c. Under no circumstances may a brother and sister give consent to sibling’s operation.
d. When a wife needs an operation involving the sex organs, it is desirable to get the
husband’s consent.

2. The patient has the right to give consent to diagnostic or treatment procedures he needs to
undertake. Which of the following is not valid?
a. A specialist who performs a procedure with care and diligence is not exempt from liability
even if no injury was sustained if he fails to inform and get the patient’s consent.
b. After the physician patient relationship is established the patient is authorized to
institute immediately the diagnostic or treatment procedure which he thinks best
for the patient.
c. The patient is the final arbiter and is given the right to choose alternative procedure which
he thinks will serve his best interest.
d. A physician may be held liable for failure to inform the patient of what he contemplated to
do or for failure to get the patient’s consent before application.

3. A privileged communication between patient and physician must be guarded to protect the
patient’s?
a. right to give consent c. right to refuse treatment
b. right to privacy d. right to religious belief

4. The condition that has to be satisfied before an emergency operation can be performed by a
surgeon without consent are
a. the patient must be unconscious or otherwise unable to give consent
b. the situation must be such as it would make it actually or apparently necessary to act
before there is no opportunity to obtain consent.
c. the surgeon in the exercise of his best judgement believe that the patient will die unless
the operation is performed.
d. all of the above

5. A physician may perform a diagnostic r therapeutic procedure without the consent of the patient
or of his relatives
a. when the physician believes the procedure is necessary
b. when the patient is merely being stubborn
c. when the patient is unconscious
d. is an acute emergency when there is no time to discuss the situation in order to seek
consent.

6. A physician may apply a procedure even if it is against the wishes of the patient if
a. the procedure is known to be safe
b. the procedure is necessary for the good of the patient
c. the procedure is required by law
d. there is implied consent by the patient’s spouse

7. Although information gathered by physicians from his patient is considered confidential and
physician cannot disclose such information to others, however he is obliged to disclose such
information
a. pattern of such information if disclosed will blacken the character of his patient
b. when public interest demand disclosure of such information
c. when such information was in connection with the physician patient relationship.
d. when the patient has never waived the privileged nature of such information

8. In the course of physician-patient relationship, confidentiality of information is applicable in


which instance?
a. when the patient allowed a third party to be present while being examined
b. when disclosure of information will serve public health and safety
c. information obtained by a physician to the course of physician-patient relationship
which should damage the patient’s reputation
d. when such disclosure is necessary to serve the best interest of justice

9. A patient confided a very personal matter to the physician when he was about to die. After
death of the patient, the family pleaded to the doctor to reveal the confidential story related
to him by the deceased. The physician declined because of the patient’s rights. Which right?
a. the right disclosure c. the right of privacy
b. the right of confidentiality d. the right to give consent

10. A patient has incurred AIDS and his work is in contact with patients in the hospital. Choose
what is the best and ethical thing which his physician is bound to do:
a. to make arrangement so that the risk of infecting the patients is eliminated
b. to expose the patient’s disease to the public
c. To advise the patient to seek treatment and counsel at DOH center for the treatment
of AIDS
d. to treat the patient

11. Which of the following statement is not valid?


a. Once the privilege communication is involved it can no longer be claimed by the patient
b. the main purpose of privileged communication is for the patient to make a full disclosure
of all information that will help the physician form a correct opinion and be able to safely treat
his patient.
c. the privilege communication between physician and patient does not apply after
death
d. privileged communication is granted by law to a patient which he may waive.

12. Privileged communication refers to


a. confidential information related to patient’s health
b. secret about the physician’s fee
c. accessibility of the physician over other patient
d. the privilege of the patient to communicate with the doctor anytime

13. Privilege communication is a right granted by law in favor of the patient who may waive such
privilege. Which statement is not correct?
a. waiver is made by the guardian of a minor patient
b. successor in interest may waive for a deceased patient.
c. waiver must always be an expressed written waiver
d. once waive it can longer be claimed

14. When is information obtained by a physician not a privilege communication?


a. when the patient cannot pay the professional fee
b. when the patient accuses the physician for malpractice
c. when the patient examined by the physician, on order of a court.
d. when the patient subsequently lies

15. Information obtained by a physician from his patient in the course of treating the latter is no
longer privileged in
a. instances when the patient fails to pay the physician
b. suits by the patient against the physician
c. the event the patient dies later
d. all of the above

16. The right of the patient to be left alone and act exposed to public or unwarranted publicity is
called
a. right of disclosure of information c. right of confidential information
b. right of privacy d. right of self determination

17. “Living will” refers to written instructions given by a patient to relatives and attending
physicians for them to
a. keep her alive with all available resources
b. discontinue all life support systems
c. use her organs for transplant
d. cremate her body upon death

18. Consent to surgery on a minor may be given to the following except


a. Parents c. Friends even if the above are available
b. Grandparents d. Guardian when the above is not available

19. A patient may refuse medical procedure EXCEPT


a. The procedure is necessary for his survival c. It is completely free
b. It is standard operating procedure d. It is required by Law

20. Which of the following is/are the legal right/s of a patient?


a. a patient has a legal right to informed participation of all decisions involving her health care
program
b. a patient has a right not to be transferred to another facility unless the need for such transfer
has been understood by her, agreed to the transfer and other facility has accepted the patient for
transfer
c. the patient has a legal right to prompt attention especially in an emergency situation
d. all of the above

21. The patient consented for the physician to use his case for a case presentation. The physician
can also use the patient’s case in for the following:
a. Publishing a journal
b. Magazine article about the disease
c. The physician can use the case in any media as he have the consent for case
presentation anyway
d. The physician can’t use the patient’s case other than what he consented

22. The following are invasion of privacy except:


a. Physical Intrusion
b. Publishing Information
c. By appropriating for commercial purposes
d. No exception

23. The following are included in information disclosure, except:


a. Diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment
b. Give assurance to patient to boast his morale
c. Timely notice of the serious tendency
d. Gravity of the patient’s condition

24. A physician, while in the course of suturing a perineal tear, caused by childbirth, broke the
needle and left it in the body. He did not inform the patient but asked the midwife to watch
the patient if the surgical needle was not found in six weeks, she would be operated again to
remove the fragment. Is the physician culpable?
a. Yes, because he withhold information
b. Yes, he’s culpable of neglect
c. No, because disclosure might prejudice the patient
d. No, because the operation was successful anyway

25. Which of the following analogy is true:


a. Confidential Information: Code of Ethics
b. Privileged Communication: Law
c. Both are true
d. None is true

26. Can a physician testify in court and present information about his patient?
a. Yes, if disclosure is necessary for justice
b. No, because of patient’s privacy
c. The physician should ask colleague to be a professional consult
d. Yes, the physician may testify in court but not against his patient

27. A 45 year old patient came in the OPD department complaining of uncontrolled hypertension.
He was looking for a pediatric doctor because he trust that doctor. Can he seek consult to a
pediatrician?
a. No, he should go to an IM
b. Yes, it’s his right
c. No, because HTN is a rare case in pediatrics
d. Yes, to avoid dispute

28. A private hospital deferred an emergency case from admission because it’s their policy to
have down payment first. They then refer the patient to a public hospital. Is the private hospital
culpable?
a. No, because there were other hospital that can cater the need of the patient
b. Yes, because of the down payment
c. No, because they refer the patient anyway
d. Yes, it’s against the right to treatment

29. Which of the following statement is true?


a. Freedom to believe is not absolute
b. Freedom to act in accordance with one's belief is absolute
c. If the patient is unconscious and no one is available to give consent the physicians
may institute the necessary treatment
d. None of the above

30. A 5 year old male is in need of an eye operation, his parents did not consent for the operation
because it is against their belief system, but the child said that he doesn’t want to lost his
sight. What is your next action?
a. File a court petition compelling the parents to give consent
b. Divest the parents their custody
c. Don’t perform the operation
d. Refer the patient to other Doctors
1. What section of the Code of Ethics provides that “it is the duty of every physician, when called
upon by the judicial authorities, to assist in the administration of justice on matters which are
medico-legal in character”?

A. Article III. Section 2 C. Article III. Section 4

B. Article III. Section 3 D. Article III. Section 5

2. This refers to the representation of physician in the court in which he is allowed to give his
inference, deduction, conclusion or opinion from the facts presented to him.

A. Ordinary Witness C. Valuable Witness

B. Expert Witness D. Responsible Witness

3. The presiding officer of the court

A. Prosecutor C. Judge

B. Solicitor General D. PAO

4. “All persons who, having organs of sense, can perceive, and perceiving, can make known
their perception to others, may be witnesses…”

A. Sec. 18, Rule 130, Rules of Court C. Sec. 20, Rule 130, Rules of Court

B. Sec. 19, Rule 130, Rules of Court D. Sec. 21, Rule 130, Rules of Court

5. This states that no descendant can be compelled, in a criminal case, to testify against his
parents and descendants.

A. Sec. 18, Rule 130, Rules of Court C. Sec. 20, Rule 130, Rules of Court

B. Sec. 19, Rule 130, Rules of Court D. Sec. 21, Rule 130, Rules of Court

6. This states that children who appear to the court to be of such tender age and capacity
cannot become witness on account of physical disqualification.

A. Sec. 18, Rule 130, Rules of Court C. Sec. 20, Rule 130, Rules of Court

B. Sec. 19, Rule 130, Rules of Court D. Sec. 21, Rule 130, Rules of Court

7. Types of privileged communication


A. Absolute C. Both

B. Conditional/Qualified D. Neither

8. Not actionable even if its author acted in bad faith

A. Absolute C. Both

B. Conditional/Qualified D. Neither

9. Although containing defamatory imputations, would not be actionable unless made with
malice or bad faith

A. Absolute C. Both

B. Conditional/Qualified D. Neither

10. It is when the physician is expressedly allowed by the patient to testify on matters that are
privileged; may be oral or in writing

A. Expressed waiver C. Exception waiver

B. Implied waiver D. Declaring waiver

11. These are the grounds for the admissibility of a dying declaration as evidence.

A. Necessity C. Both

B. Trustworthiness D. Neither

12. This statement of the deceased made while the declarant was still alive but gravely injured
and in contemplation of death, which followed shortly thereafter.

A. Postmortem declaration C. Premortem declaration

B. Antemortem declaration D. Perimortem decalaration

13. It is a belief that in the legal sense, something more than a mere speculation or conjecture.

A. Opinion C. Sentiment

B. Conviction D. Verdict
14. It a process to cause a witness to appear and give testimony commanding him to lay aside
all pretenses and excuses, and appear before a court stated at a time mentioned.

A. Summon C. Subpoena

B. Affidavit D. All of the above

15. Technical and descriptive term for the ordinary subpoena

A. Subpoena duces tecum C. Both

B. Subpoena as testifindum D. Neither

16. This is an evidence not proceeding from the personal knowledge of the witness, but from
mere repetition of what he had heard others say.

A. Hearsay evidence C. Both

B. Affidavit evidence D. Neither

17. The followings are the scope of the privilege except:

A. Oral testimony C. Hospital records

B. Affidavits D. Statement of account

18. This is one of the exception/s to the hearsay rule:

A. Living declaration C. Both

B. Dying declaration D. Neither

19. When an expert has given an opinion and cited a particular treatise as his authority, the
book cited may be offered in evidence by the adverse party as:

A. Impeaching testimony C. Both

B. Impeachment testimony D. Neither

20. Subpoena is served by the sheriff, by his deputy, or by any other person especially
authorized who is not a party and is not less than:

A. 21 y.o. C. 20 y.o.
B. 18 y.o. D. None

21. Penalty for indirect contempt if against a superior court or judge is a fine not exceeding one
thousand pesos or imprisoned not more than how many months?

A. 12 mos. C. 6 mos.

B. 1 mo. D. 10 mos.

22. The testimony of the medical witness must be in the?

A. Open court C. Course of trial

B. Close court D. None

23. In the re-cross examination by the opponent, the medical witness may be recalled.

A. Sec. 3, Rule 132, Rules of Court C. Sec. 14, 123, Rules of Court

B. Sec. 3, Rule 123, Rules of Court D. Sec. 14, 132, Rules of Court

24. In the re-cross examination by the opponent, the medical witness is bound to answer
questions propounded to him in the trial.

A. Sec. 3, Rule 132, Rules of Court C. Sec. 14, 123, Rules of Court

B. Sec. 3, Rule 123, Rules of Court D. Sec. 14, 132, Rules of Court

25. This gives protection to a medical witness in court:

A. Sec. 19, Rule 132, Rules of Court C. Sec. 14, 123, Rules of Court

B. Sec. 3, Rule 123, Rules of Court D. Sec. 14, 132, Rules of Court

26. This is a false testimony against a defendant, if the defendant in said case have been
sentenced to death.

A. Penalty of reclusion temporal C. Penalty of prision correctional

B. Penalty of prison mayor D. Penalty of arresto mayor


27. This is a false testimony against a defendant, if the defendant shall have been sentenced to
reclusion temporal or perpetua.

A. Penalty of reclusion temporal C. Penalty of prision correctional

B. Penalty of prison mayor D. Penalty of arresto mayor

28. This is a false testimony against a defendant, if the defendant shall have been sentenced to
any other afflictive penalty.

A. Penalty of reclusion temporal C. Penalty of prision correctional

B. Penalty of prison mayor D. Penalty of arresto mayor

29. This is a false testimony against a defendant, if the defendant shall have been sentenced to
a correccional penalty or fine, or shall have been acquitted.

A. Penalty of reclusion temporal C. Penalty of prision correctional

B. Penalty of prison mayor D. Penalty of arresto mayor

30. This states that the party representing the medical witness may profound some more
questions to refute or clarify matters during the cross-examination.

A. Redirect examination by the proponent

B. Re-cross examination by the opponent

C. Direct examination by the proponent

D. Cross-examination by the opponent

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