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_________________________________________

Practice Exam for the ACE®


Personal Trainer Certification Exam
__________________________________________

Published by Tests.com LLC


PO Box 232
Lititz, PA 17543
www.Tests.com

Copyright © 2014 - 2015 Tests.com LLC


All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, distributed or transmitted in
any form or by any means without the prior written permission of Tests.com LLC. Published in
electronic format in the United States of America.

Contributing Authors

Christy Hamilton is a certified personal trainer with over five years of experience in the field.
She is also a professional writer on health and fitness subjects. Christy holds certifications as an
NSCA Certified Personal Trainer, an ACSM Inclusive Fitness Trainer and is a former ACE Certified
Personal Trainer and Group Fitness Instructor. Christy obtained her bachelor’s degree in
Exercise Science from Montana State University.

Susan Hill has worked as a personal trainer for over fifteen years. She was an ACE certified
personal trainer for ten years, in addition to holding certifications from ISSA and NASM. Susan
is an expert in golf fitness training and has worked and trained on tour. She currently works as
a health and fitness writer. She obtained a bachelor’s degree in economics from UC Davis.

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Table of Contents
Review of the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam ............................................................... 1

Practice Exam Questions

Section 1 – Client Interviews and Assessments ..................................................................... 6

Section 2 – Program Design and Implementation ............................................................... 30

Section 3 – Program Progression and Modification ............................................................. 56

Section 4 – Professional Conduct, Safety and Risk Management ........................................ 71

Practice Exam Answers ................................................................................................................ 85

Practice Exam Questions with Answers .................................................................................... 113

Test Preparation and Test Taking Tips ...................................................................................... 218

Bubble Sheet .............................................................................................................................. 221

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Review of the ACE® Personal Trainer Certification Exam
The American Council on Exercise (ACE) designed the personal trainer certification to be
the first step into a successful and growing career field. There are currently more than 50,000
ACE certified fitness professionals whom you will be joining through passing the exam. The ACE
Personal Trainer exam was designed to determine if an individual possesses the skills and
qualities necessary to work in the fitness industry as a trainer. The exam measures your
knowledge of assessments, exercise progressions, legalities and many other aspects of being a
good personal trainer.

Exam Overview

The ACE Personal Trainer exam is comprised of 150 multiple-choice questions based on
4 subject areas. These subject areas are broken down as follows:

- Client Interviews and Assessments (31%)


- Program Design and Implementation (33%)
- Program Progression, Modifications and Maintenance (19%); and
- Professional Role and Responsibilities (17%).

The exam will also test your foundational knowledge of applied sciences throughout the subject
areas.

You will be allotted 3 hours in which to take the 150-question exam. A passing score is
at least 500 out of 800 possible points. Only 125 of the questions are actually scored, as 25 of
the questions are experimental. You will not be informed which questions these are, so make
every answer count.

You may choose to take the exam in one of two formats: Computer-Based Testing or
Paper and Pencil. It is a personal preference, as some people may be comfortable with one
method over the other. Just keep in mind that it can take over 6 weeks to receive your results
from the Paper and Pencil exam, whereas the Computer-Based version gives you your results
immediately, along with a “Pass” or “Fail” status.

There are certain qualifications you must meet in order to sit for the ACE personal
trainer exam. You must be at least 18 years of age and hold an adult CPR and AED certificate.
Note that ACE does not accept certification from online CPR and AED courses. Once at the exam
location you must present a current form of official photo identification, which can be a driver's
license, passport or military ID.

Registering for the Exam

You will need to register for your exam online at www.ACEfitness.org. When you
register you will choose a day and time to take your exam. You must register for the exam at
least 10 days prior to the exam date. There is a cost to register for the exam which must be paid
at the time of registration. Once registered, you will receive an admissions ticket, which you will

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need to present at the exam location on the day of your scheduled exam. Calculators are not
permitted.

Exam Categories

The Client Interviews and Assessments questions will test your knowledge on forming a
relationship with clients and obtaining relevant information about their health and lifestyle in
order to design a program for them. This includes risk stratification and the use of necessary
questionnaires and documents as well as determining goals and evaluating the client’s strengths
and weaknesses.

The Program Design and Implementation questions test you on individualized wellness
plans for a healthy lifestyle. You will need to be able to utilize the results from client interviews
to design and implement an effective program for your client. You will be tested on exercise
parameters such as intensity and frequency and the ability to choose appropriate equipment to
meet your client’s needs.

The Program Progression, Modifications and Maintenance questions will test your
ability to evaluate exercise programs and maintain the adherence of your clients. You will be
tested on educating your clients and responding to breaks in adherence.

The Professional Role and Responsibilities questions will test your awareness of
standards and safety procedures. You will need to be aware of laws in place to protect you and
the client, how to document incidents, using safe equipment and staying current with your
knowledge.

Study Methods

When studying for any exam it is important to figure out your best study methods. You
may like to study in the morning or evening. You may like to have study partners or to study
alone. You may drink coffee, stay up late, or wake up early to study. It is your decision how to
study; it is just about finding what works best for you.

When studying it is helpful to determine what type of learner you are, which basically
means what helps you remember what you learn. You may be an auditory learner (hearing
things helps), visual learner (seeing things helps), or kinesthetic learner (doing or saying things
helps). If you are an auditory learner, try either having someone read to you or reading aloud. If
you are visual, take mental notes of how the study materials are laid out. If you are a kinesthetic
learner, try writing out and verbalizing your notes.

The following is a step-by-step process of studying that you might find helpful.

Step 1:

Take this practice exam. It is best to take the Tests.com practice test before you start studying to
assess your strengths and weaknesses and to evaluate how well you know the material. Taking
a practice test should be one part of your total study plan, including the review of reference
books and text books, class notes, study guides, flashcards and test prep courses. Highlight the

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questions you get wrong and use them as a study guide for the exam. Take notes as needed. You
can use the bubble sheet at the end of the test to track your answers. Print numerous copies of
the bubble sheet so you can take the test more than once. You will want to mix some test
taking into your study habits to vary your activities to keep the process interesting and to more
effectively commit the subject matter to memory. You also want to practice your test taking
skills. Use the online TestSIM function to create a practice test that simulates a real test. Limit
yourself to a certain time period for a certain number of questions randomly selected. You can
do this more than once throughout your preparation period. Finally, a few days prior to the
actual test, retake this practice test to evaluate your grasp of the material.

Step 2:

Read through the ACE Personal Trainer Manual 5th edition once, highlighting areas of
importance which pertain to the four subject areas noted above as well as anything you are
finding difficult to grasp or remember.

Step 3:

Go back through the manual a second time to re-read the highlighted portions. If you are
ambitious and colors help you, you can highlight each statement in a different color based on
which section of the exam it pertains to. Once you have read through your highlighted sections a
second time, I suggest taking the information with which you are still struggling as well as
information that seems important and putting it onto flash cards. You can color code these as
well and put them into different sections based on the format of the exam. When studying,
picture the answer on the back of the card. Answer them aloud if possible. Study your note
cards periodically until exam day.

Step 4:

The night before the exam, go through the study guide one more time, reading through the
sections you have highlighted. Read through all of your note cards and whichever questions you
missed on this practice exam. Read any topics you are struggling with aloud a few times.
Remove the note cards you struggle with most and set them aside to look over once more
before the exam. Make sure to get enough sleep.

Step 5:

On the day of the exam, eat breakfast. About an hour before the exam, study the note cards you
find most challenging. Take a deep breath and go take your ACE Personal Trainer exam with
confidence!

Test Taking Methods

When answering a question on any exam, read all of the answers at least once. Re-read
the question if needed, then choose the answer that best answers the question. When
answering a question, rule out all of the answers you know are not correct. If you are left with 2
possible answers, re-read the question and determine the best one. The following methods are

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not guaranteed to work every time, but if you are stumped on a question they provide a logical
plan of attack.

Similar Answers

Some exams tend to lead you to the correct answer by giving two similar options.

Example:

Which of the following is a red fruit that grows on a tree?

a. Banana
b. Apple
c. Pine Apple
d. Strawberry

The answer is b. Both b and d are red fruits. Therefore, you could have narrowed your answers
down to either b or d, and guessed between them if necessary.

Opposite Answers

Like the similar answer questions, some exams tend to lead you to the correct answer by giving
two opposite options. Therefore, it must be one of the two!

Example:

Johnny eats pancakes every day. He loves eating them, especially blueberry. If he did not have
pancakes he would be sad.

According to the above statement, which of the following is NOT true?

a. Johnny loves pancakes


b. Johnny hates pancakes
c. Johnny thinks pancakes taste good
d. Johnny likes blueberry pancakes

The answer is b. Since the question contained the word “not”, either the positive statement or
the negative statement must be the correct answer, as they cannot coexist.

Absolute Answers

If a question uses an absolute word in a possible answer, it is most likely not that answer, as
these types of answers are not logical. Absolute words include but are not limited to: all, always,
never, none, only.

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Example:

Which of the following is a true statement?

a. Kids only eat what they like.


b. People who own red cars always get pulled over.
c. All men like sports.
d. Most dogs like steak.

The answer has to be d, because a, b and c all used absolute answers.

Exam Day

• Don’t forget to breathe. Taking deep breaths is a great way of keeping yourself focused
and calm.
• Move around. Allow yourself time to stretch and look around (if allowed) throughout
the exam. This will help your mind remain focused through the remainder of the exam.
• Visualize your study guides, or hear yourself repeating the correct answers.

Additional Resources

There are more study guides other than the Personal Trainer Manual available for purchase on
the ACE website if you feel you need some extra help. ACEfitness.org also offers study help
through blogs, discussion groups and resource centers.

The following practice exam was designed to cover each of the four content areas and to
provide a sampling of the types of questions that may be found on the ACE personal trainer
certification exam.

Good luck on your exam!

Christy Hamilton

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ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam – Section 1
Client Interviews and Assessments

1. In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires
administered?

a. Rapport Stage
b. Investigation Stage
c. Planning Stage
d. Action Stage

2. Dan is a new client whom you are meeting with for the first time today. He will most likely be
evaluating you as a trainer through both your verbal and non-verbal communication. What stage
of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Dan?

a. Planning Stage
b. Action Stage
c. Rapport Stage
d. Investigation Stage

3. Kristin is in for her second session and you are conducting fitness assessments. While you are
checking her body fat percentage you ask her about types of exercise she prefers to do. What
stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kristin?

a. Rapport Stage
b. Planning Stage
c. Investigation Stage
d. Action Stage

4. Your client tells you that he understands that his family has a history of heart disease and that
being overweight can increase his risk for such conditions. He is still wary of beginning any kind
of exercise program and says that he has never had any weight loss success in the past.
According to the Theoretical Model of Behavioral Change, what stage of change is your client in?

a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Action

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5. In which stage of the Theoretical Model of Behavior Change is a client ready to adopt and live a
healthy lifestyle?

a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Action

6. According to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model, what step in the training process best
follows the testing of resting measures such as heart rate and blood pressure?

a. Core Function
b. Balance
c. Static Posture
d. Health Related Assessments

7. This Questionnaire serves as a non-invasive, minimal health-risk appraisal designed to


determine contraindications to exercise.

a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)


b. Readiness to Change Questionnaire
c. Health History Questionnaire
d. Liability Waiver

8. When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers
“yes” to chest pain during physical activity as well as currently taking a prescription blood
pressure medication. What is the next step in his fitness program?

a. Begin training at a low intensity.


b. Talk with his doctor about his readiness for exercise.
c. Conduct a fitness appraisal.
d. Fill out a Health History Questionnaire.

9. When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers
“yes” to a bone or joint problem that could be made worse by a change in physical activity.
What is the next step in his fitness program?

a. Begin training at a low intensity.


b. Talk with her doctor about her readiness for exercise.
c. Conduct a fitness appraisal.
d. Fill out a Health History Questionnaire.

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10. Bill is a 50-year-old man with a family history of heart disease. His body mass index is 20 and he
has been running 3 miles 3-4 days a week for a year. What are the exercise testing
recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk
factors?

a. Moderate risk, doctor’s supervision needed.


b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary.
c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.
d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

11. Wendy is a 50-year-old woman who has not exercised in 3 years. She has no family history of
heart disease and is a non-smoker. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to
risk stratification based on her cardiovascular disease risk factors?

a. Moderate risk, doctor’s supervision needed.


b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary.
c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.
d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

12. Bob is a 45-year-old man who quit smoking 2 months ago. He has not participated in any
exercise program in 2 years. His body mass index (BMI) is 32. What are the exercise testing
recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk
factors?

a. Moderate risk, doctor’s supervision needed.


b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary.
c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.
d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

13. What information does the Health History Questionnaire collect?

a. Evidence of disclosure.
b. Previous exercise history including adherence experience.
c. Detailed medical and health information.
d. Fitness measurement data.

14. What information does the Informed Consent form collect?

a. Evidence of disclosure.
b. Previous exercise history.
c. Detailed medical and health information.
d. Fitness measurement data.

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15. What information does the Exercise History and Attitude Questionnaire collect?

a. Evidence of disclosure.
b. Previous exercise including adherence experience.
c. Detailed medical and health information.
d. Fitness measurement data.

16. Which questionnaire asks the client if they have any negative feelings toward physical activity
programs?

a. Health History Questionnaire


b. Informed Consent Form
c. Medical Release Form
d. Exercise History and Attitude Questionnaire

17. What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

a. 130/70 mmHg
b. 120/80 mmHg
c. 121/81 mmHg
d. 140/90 mmHg

18. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD. is s condition that affects mainly which system?

a. Musculoskeletal
b. Integumentary
c. Cardiovascular
d. Respiratory

19. Your client has been complaining of pain in her anterior lower leg. What is the best course of
action to take in continuing her exercise program?

a. Continue as planned.
b. Tell her she has shin splints and to stretch and ice them when she gets home.
c. Modify the program with cross training.
d. Cancel her sessions until the pain goes away.

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20. Your client is complaining of pain with extension of her elbow. She has a history of lateral
epicondylitis (tennis elbow). What is the best course of action to take in continuing her exercise
program?

a. Continue as planned.
b. Tell her she has tennis elbow and to rest and ice it when she gets home.
c. Modify the program with cross training.
d. Cancel her sessions until the pain goes away.

21. Your new client informs you that she has diabetes and is taking insulin. What is the most
important thing to do for this client?

a. Make sure she eats a large meal before exercising.


b. Refer her to a physician prior to beginning an exercise program.
c. Monitor her blood glucose levels throughout the session.
d. Have her fill out a waiver of liability prior to exercise.

22. When filling out the “medications” portion of the Health History Questionnaire, your client lets
you know that he is taking a beta-blocking medication. Once obtaining a physician’s release for
exercise, what is the most important difference in this client’s exercise program versus a client
who is not taking beta-blockers?

a. Use Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE. to determine the level at which he is exercising as his heart
rate will not go up.
b. Check his blood pressure throughout his session to ensure it does not spike.
c. Check his heart rate throughout the session to ensure it does not spike.
d. Monitor his consciousness level as beta-blockers will make him drowsy.

23. Which of the following medications can affect a person’s exercising heart rate?

a. Diuretics
b. Antihistamines
c. Cold Medications
d. Antidepressants

24. Which of the following assessments should be repeated after 1-3 months?

a. Resting Vital Signs


b. Body Composition
c. Static Posture and Movement Screens
d. All of the Above
e. Both a and b

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25. When beginning an exercise program with a client, you determine that he has checked “yes” to 4
risk factors on the Health Questionnaire. The next step in the training process is to:

a. Design adaptive exercises that will work around his risks.


b. Ask to speak to his physician to obtain approval for exercise.
c. Give your client a form to be signed by his physician, approving the exercise program.
d. Apologize to the client and let him know that you cannot train him since he has 3 or more risk
factors.

26. Which of the following is important to consider when choosing which assessments to utilize with
a client?

a. Goals
b. Physical Limitations
c. Age
d. All of the Above
e. Both a and b only

27. When checking a client’s heart rate, what is a commonly palpated site?

a. Femoral artery
b. Jugular vein
c. Carotid artery
d. Tibial artery

28. When checking a client’s heart rate, what is a commonly palpated site?

a. Femoral artery
b. Jugular vein
c. Radial artery
d. Tibial artery

29. A client’s resting heart rate should always be checked ____________________.

a. Before breakfast
b. When the client is sitting
c. When the client is lying down
d. Before the client gets out of bed in the morning

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30. When measuring a client’s blood pressure, where should the stethoscope be placed?

a. On the inside of the client’s arm at the bend of the elbow.


b. On the inside of the client’s wrist.
c. Above the blood pressure cuff.
d. There is no need for a stethoscope.

31. After taking the Exercise-Induced Feeling Inventory 12 weeks into their program, your client
appears to have the mood profile of “Positive Engagement”. What might your client have
answered to feeling very strongly?

a. Worn out
b. Enthusiastic
c. Fatigued
d. Tired
e. a, c and d only

32. When performing a Static Postural Assessment on your client, you determine that your client
has a slight posterior pelvic tilt. This means that the line of symmetry is __________________.

a. Tilted Posteriorly
b. Tilted Anteriorly
c. Neutral
d. Tilted to one side of the body

33. Which action comes first after conducting static and dynamic analyses and determining alight
postural deviations?

a. Movement Training
b. Load and Performance Training
c. Stability and Mobility Training
d. None of the Above

34. When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae


b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings
c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius
d. Quardriceps and Anterior Tibialis

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35. When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through
restorative exercise?

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae


b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings
c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius
d. Quardriceps and Anterior Tibialis

36. When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae


b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings
c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius
d. Quardriceps and Anterior Tibialis

37. When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through
restorative exercise?

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae


b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings
c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius
d. Quardriceps and Anterior Tibialis

38. Which of the following is NOT necessary to monitor when observing a Bend and Lift Screen?

a. Degree of lordosis in the lower back


b. Stability of the feet
c. Position of the scapulae relative to the ribcage
d. Changes in head position

39. Tight hip adductors and weak gluteus medius muscles can lead to which compensation?

a. Knees moving inward


b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine
c. Lateral torso shift to one side
d. Lack of foot stability

40. Tight plantarflexors can lead to which compensation?

a. Knees moving inward


b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine
c. Raised heels
d. Lateral torso shift to one side

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41. Which movement screen can be utilized to test for tight plantarflexor muscles?

a. Hurdle Step Screen


b. Bend and Lift Screen
c. Thoracic Spine Mobility Screen
d. Shoulder Pull Stabilization Screen

42. Which of the following assessments does NOT determine body fat percentage?

a. Hydrostatic Weighing
b. Skinfold Measurement
c. Body Mass Index
d. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis

43. Which of the following assesses body fat percentage by measuring the amount of water a person
displaces when completely submerged?

a. Hydrostatic Weighing
b. Air Displacement Plethysmography (ADP)
c. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
d. Total Body Electrical Conductivity

44. Which method of body fat measurement is not accurate when used on obese clients?

a. Hydrostatic Weighing
b. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis
c. Skinfold Measurement
d. Total Body Electrical Conductivity

45. You have a new client who is extremely obese, and you realize that your body fat calipers
(skinfold measurement) may not be an accurate method to determine their body fat percentage.
You want to have a starting measurement to determine their progress. What is the best course
of action?

a. Do your best to use the calipers and get some kind of skinfold measurement.
b. Refer them to a medical fitness center that offers hydrostatic weighing.
c. Refer the client to a physician to have an MRI.
d. Utilize Body Mass Index (BMI) and girth measurements.

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46. Which form of body fat testing measures electrical signals as they pass through the body?

a. Hydrostatic Weighing
b. Air Displacement Plethysmography (ADP)
c. Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA)
d. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis (BIA)

47. What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in women?

a. Triceps, chest and thigh


b. Biceps, thigh and suprailium
c. Triceps, thigh and suprailium
d. Chest, thigh and abdominal

48. What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in men?

a. Triceps, chest and thigh


b. Biceps, thigh and suprailium
c. Triceps, thigh and suprailium
d. Chest, thigh and abdominal

49. What are the correct units of measurement for calculating body mass index (BMI)?

a. Weight (lB./Height (in)


b. Weight (kg)/Height (m)
c. Height (in)/Weight (lB.
d. Height (m)/Weight (kg)

50. Which woman has a waist to hip ratio that puts her at risk for obesity-related disease?

a. Jeanie with a ratio of 0.81


b. Emily with a ratio of 0.60
c. April with a ratio of .87
d. Both Jeanie and April

51. Which man has a waist to hip ratio that puts him at risk for obesity-related disease?

a. Mark with a ratio of 0.82


b. Jim with a ratio of 0.90
c. Alex with a ratio of .95
d. Both Jim and Alex

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52. Jeanette is a 55-year-old woman who exercises regularly. What is her estimated maximum heart
rate?

a. 165 bpm
b. 220 bpm
c. 185 bpm
d. 55 bpm

53. Mark is a 32-year-old man. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?

a. 200 bpm
b. 188 bpm
c. 168 bpm
d. 190 bpm

54. Which of the following is administered to assess a person’s level of cardiorespiratory function?

a. Maximum Heart Rate calculation


b. Body Mass Index (BMI)
c. Maximal Oxygen Uptake (VO2max)
d. Push up test

55. Which cardiorespiratory fitness test is better suited for younger, fit individuals?

a. Balke & Ware treadmill test


b. Bruce Submaximal treadmill test
c. Ebbeling Single-stage treadmill test
d. Cycle Ergometer test

56. What component of fitness does the push-up test measure?

a. Cardiorespiratory endurance
b. Muscular endurance
c. Muscular strength
d. Muscular power

57. What component of fitness does the body weight squat test measure?

a. Cardiorespiratory endurance
b. Muscular endurance
c. Muscular strength
d. Muscular power

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58. What is an example of testing absolute strength?

a. Bodyweight squat test


b. Push-up test
c. Pre-Agility test
d. 1 RM leg-press test

59. Which of the following is a contraindication to performing a 1 Repetition Maximum test?

a. Improper form
b. Beginning exercisers
c. Individuals with hypertension
d. All of the Above

60. Which individual might a muscular power test be inappropriate for?

a. A 30-year-old man who is interested in pushing his physical fitness to the next level.
b. A 13-year-old boy looking to improve soccer performance.
c. A 25-year-old woman looking to improve her body fat percentage and tone.
d. A 56-year-old woman looking to get back into skiing.

61. The Vertical Jump test assesses what component of fitness?

a. Endurance
b. Strength
c. Power
d. Agility

62. All of the following can cause a fitness test to be inaccurate EXCEPT:

a. Client
b. Trainer
c. Equipment
d. None of the Above

63. Which of the following is an example of empathy toward a client?

a. Asking questions about their relationships and personal life to show that you care.
b. Telling them about yourself in detail so they feel that they can relate to you.
c. Listening to what they say and repeating it back so they know you are listening.
d. None of the above.

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64. Which of the following is NOT a fitness indicator for SMART goal setting?

a. Skill level
b. Body weight
c. Body size
d. Clothing size

65. Molly is a 25-year-old woman who wants to lose weight and improve lower body strength.
Which of the following is an example of an effective SMART goal for Molly?

a. Molly will complete 30 squats in 2 minutes.


b. Molly will complete 30 body weight squats in 2 minutes within one week.
c. Molly will eat healthier within 2 weeks.
d. Molly will lose 5 pounds.

66. Which of the following is not a quality of effective listening?

a. Encouraging
b. Explaining
c. Questioning
d. Summarizing

67. Which of the following is an example of a question that may appear on the Readiness to Change
Questionnaire?

a. Do you have support for making this change from friends, family and loved ones?
b. Do you have a history of any illness?
c. Do you suffer from eating disorder(s)?
d. Do you eat a balanced diet?

68. Which of the following is an example of a non-correctible factor for postural deviation?

a. Structural deviations
b. Lack of joint stability
c. Repetitive motions
d. Imbalanced strength-training programs

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69. In which stage of the client-trainer relationship should the trainer learn their client’s likes and
dislikes?

a. Planning Stage
b. Investigation Stage
c. Action Stage
d. Maintenance Stage

70. In which assessment can a personal trainer determine potential movement compensations
associated with poor posture?

a. Movement screens
b. Static postural assessments
c. Balance and core assessments
d. Body composition assessments

71. What is the best method for discussing nutrition with your client?

a. Instruct them to go to choosemyplate.gov and to follow the instructions on the web site.
b. Formulate a diet plan for your client.
c. Discuss supplements that can help them to achieve their goals.
d. Let them know which foods to avoid and which they should aim to eat more of.

72. Which of the following tests evaluates muscular fitness?

a. Balke & Ware Treadmill Exercise Test


b. YMCA Submaximal Step Test
c. Push Up Test
d. YMCA Bike Test

73. Which of the following tests evaluates cardiorespiratory fitness?

a. Rockport Fitness Walking Test


b. Bodyweight Squat Test
c. Bench Press Test
d. Leg Press Test

74. A one-repetition maximum test evaluates which type of strength?

a. Relative strength
b. Endurance
c. Power
d. Absolute strength

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75. Which of the following symptoms merit test termination during any test that involves muscular
endurance?

a. Angina
b. Cyanosis
c. Wheezing
d. All of the above
e. Both a and c

76. Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates the rate at which an individual
responds to a stimulus?

a. Anaerobic Power
b. Agility
c. Reactivity
d. Coordination

77. Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates the amount of work performed in a
given unit of time?

a. Anaerobic Power
b. Anaerobic Capacity
c. Agility
d. Speed

78. Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates how accurately and rapidly a person
can change direction?

a. Anaerobic Power
b. Speed
c. Reactivity
d. Agility

79. Which of the following is a step in determining an individual’s goal weight based on their goal
body fat percentage?

a. Determine lean body weight


b. Administer aerobic fitness test
c. Calculate Body Mass Index
d. Calculate waist-to-hip ratio

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80. Which of the following individuals would be least likely to benefit from Body Mass Index?

a. A woman with 30% body fat who weighs 165 pounds.


b. A man with 8% body fat who weighs 230 pounds.
c. A man with 8% body fat who weighs 160 pounds.
d. A woman with 15% body fat who weighs 120 pounds.

81. In what specific location is the abdominal circumference measured?

a. Around the ribcage.


b. Around the pelvic bone.
c. Around the smallest portion of the abdomen.
d. At the level of the umbilicus.

82. In what specific location is the circumference of the upper thigh measured?

a. Just above the knee.


b. Just below the gluteal fold.
c. Half way between the knee and the gluteal fold.
d. At the smallest part of the thigh.

83. In what specific location should the arm be measured?

a. Around the largest part of the upper arm with the bicep flexed.
b. Around the largest part of the upper arm with the arm relaxed.
c. Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the arm relaxed.
d. Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the bicep flexed.

84. Which of the following is true when taking circumference measurements?

a. Measurements should be made with an elastic-style tape measure.


b. Tape should be pulled as tightly as possible around the body part.
c. Take duplicate measurements at each site and average them together.
d. Rotate through measurement sites to allow skin to regain normal quality.

85. How do you determine a person’s waist-to-hip ratio?

a. Hip measurement divided by waist measurement


b. Waist measurement multiplied by hip measurement
c. Waist measurement divided by hip measurement
d. Use a chart to determine

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86. Jose is 18 years old. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?

a. 202 bpm
b. 200 bpm
c. 220 bpm
d. 218 bpm

87. What is the approximate standard deviation of an individual’s maximum heart rate?

a. +/- 10 bpm
b. +/- 15 bpm
c. +/- 12 bpm
d. +/- 18 bpm

88. At what times should heart rate be monitored throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment?

a. Every 30 seconds
b. Every minute
c. Every 3 minutes
d. Continuously

89. What is the workload of 1 MET associated with?

a. Oxygen consumption at rest


b. Energy expenditure at rest
c. Energy expenditure while performing a low-level task
d. Oxygen consumption while performing a low-level task

90. How often should Ratings of Perceived Exertion (RPEs) be taken throughout a cardiorespiratory
assessment?

a. Once every 3 minutes


b. Once every 30 seconds
c. Once every minute
d. Once every 2 minutes

91. What is the best definition of VO2 max?

a. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per pound of body weight.
b. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per kg of body weight.
c. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide a person can expel in one minute per pound of body weight.
d. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide a person can expel in one minute per kg of body weight.

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92. At what point in a maximal aerobic capacity assessment are carbohydrates the primary source of
fuel?

a. Throughout the entire test


b. After reaching the first ventilatory threshold
c. After reaching the second ventilatory threshold
d. In the last 2 minutes of the test

93. Collecting heart rate throughout a cardiovascular assessment is important in order to determine
if an individual is experiencing which of the following conditions?

a. Thermoregulation
b. Blood lactate accumulation
c. Cardiovascular drift
d. Anaerobic threshold

94. Which of the following demographic factors does not affect adherence to physical activity
programs?

a. Age
b. Income
c. Gender
d. Education

95. Which of the following statements is not true regarding participation and adherence in an
exercise program?

a. A client’s past exercise history is a predictable behavior with exercise.


b. Social support plays an important role in maintaining an exercise program.
c. A client’s location relative to the exercise facility can have an influence.
d. Clients who perform moderate intensity exercises are almost twice as likely to drop out.

96. What is considered the natural progression of exercise considerations when working with a new
client?

a. Performance, fitness, health and function


b. Fitness, health, function, performance
c. Function, health, fitness, performance
d. Health, fitness, performance, function

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97. Before adding weighted loads to client exercises, you should make sure your client is proficient
in which of the following movement patterns?

a. Core stabilization
b. 1 RM
c. Plyometric jumps
d. Dynamic warm ups

98. Each of the following questions are likely to appear on a Par-Q questionnaire with the exception
of one. Which question would likely not appear on a Par-Q?

a. Have you experienced chest pain?


b. Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs?
c. Do you have any joint pain?
d. Can you exercise during your work day?

99. The informed consent form is best used for which purpose?

a. As a liability waiver
b. To record fitness assessments
c. An understanding between the client and trainer as to the risks associated with exercise
d. A release form detailing medical information

100. Peter is a 47 year old male with a BMI of 31. He has been leading a sedentary lifestyle until
recently hiring you. What is his risk stratification?

a. +3
b. +2
c. +1
d. -1

101. What is considered the easiest method for assessing a client’s exercise intensity?

a. Rating of perceived exertion


b. Talk test
c. Lactate threshold
d. Second ventilator threshold

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102. Which of the following factors influence a client’s resting heart rate?

a. Fatigue
b. Drugs and medication
c. Caffeine
d. All of the above

103. Which of the following is not an effective cognitive behavioral technique?

a. Decision making
b. Feedback
c. A written contract
d. Goal setting

104. Amy is a 48 year old woman with 3 risk factors according to the ACSM risk stratification. Which
of the following statements is true regarding her ability to participate in an exercise program?

a. Low risk, moderate exercise approved.


b. High risk, medical exam necessary.
c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.
d. Moderate risk, medical exam not necessary before vigorous exercise.

105. Which of the following muscles is not responsible for hip extension?

a. Biceps femoris
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Semitendinosus
d. Gluteus medius

106. Which phase of cardiorespiratory training is considered the highest level of work and the
majority of your clients will never reach this phase?

a. Anaerobic-power training
b. Anaerobic-endurance training
c. Aerobic-base training
d. Aerobic-efficiency training

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107. You have observed that a client is exhibiting a muscle imbalance commonly associated with
lordosis posture. Which muscle do you suspect is shortened?

a. Hip extensors
b. Neck flexors
c. Lumbar extensors
d. Scapular stabilizers

108. What style of listening is considered most effective when building rapport with your clients?

a. Indifferent listening
b. Selective listening
c. Passive listening
d. Active listening

109. Which of the following tests will help you determine your client’s muscular endurance?

a. Push up test
b. Step test
c. 1.5 mile run test
d. VT2 threshold test

110. A new client informs you she is taking a diuretic. What effect would you expect to see on her
heart rate response during exercise?

a. Resting heart rate up


b. No significant change
c. Exercising heart rate down
d. Resting heart rate down

111. One of your new clients has metabolic syndrome. He has been cleared for exercise by his
physician. Which of the following recommendations are best suited to begin training your new
client?

a. Moderate impact activities. No resistance training.


b. Low impact activities. Twice a week resistance training.
c. Clients should begin with 500 minutes total for the week.
d. Clients should exercise 7 days a week with low intensity.

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112. Your client has osteoporosis. When designing her exercise program, you may need to avoid
which of the following movements?

a. Spinal flexion
b. Pulling exercises from behind the head
c. Adducting or abducting the legs against resistance
d. All of the above

113. In the sagittal plane, which fundamental movements occur?

a. Flexion and extension


b. Circumduction and opposition
c. Rotation and supination
d. Adduction and abduction

114. Which term describes muscle action which shortens to create muscle tension?

a. Isometric
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. None of the above

115. There are six external rotators of the hip. Which of the following muscles is not one of them?

a. Adductor magnus
b. Gluteus minimus
c. Gluteus medius
d. Quadratus femoris

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116. What is the total number of calories in this container and the total number of calories that come
from fat?

a. 280/13
b. 560/234
c. 560/56
d. 280/113

117. Which of the following statements is true based on a one inch increase in a man’s waist
circumference and his risk level?

a. His blood pressure increases by 10%


b. His risk for metabolic syndrome increases by 18%
c. His triglycerides increase by 18%
d. All of the Above
e. Only a and b

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118. You have performed the Thomas test with Mary and have observed that her lower thigh does
not touch the table and her knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscles do you suspect to be
tight?

a. Hamstrings
b. Rectus femoris
c. Iliopsoas
d. Primary hip flexor muscles

119. Many common muscle imbalances and postural deviations can be corrected through exercise.
Which of the following is not correctable through exercise?

a. Scoliosis
b. Scapular protraction
c. Forward head position
d. Pelvic tilting

120. When conducting the Stork-Stand balance test on John, he is able to hold the position for 12
seconds before his foot touches the ground. What is the level of his performance based on the
Stork-Stand Balance test results?

a. Poor
b. Fair
c. Good
d. Excellent

121. You notice a forward head position when assessing your client. Which muscles are considered
tight and restricted?

a. Upper trapezius, rhomboids, levator scapula


b. Pectoralis major, subscapularis, latissimus dorsi
c. Cervical spine extensors, serratus anterior, latissimus dorsi
d. Cervical spine extensors, levator scapulae, upper trapezius

122. You decide to run some assessments to test a client’s mobility. Which of the following tests
would be most appropriate?

a. Thomas test
b. Thoracic spine mobility screen
c. Sharpened Romberg test
d. Trunk flexor endurance test

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123. The trunk lateral endurance test measures the endurance of which primary muscle?

a. Multifidi
b. Iliocostalis
c. Obliques
d. Subscapularis

124. What is the total number of calories you would consume if you ate all of the servings of this
snack?

a. 155
b. 310
c. 620
d. 830

ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam – Section 2


Program Design and Implementation

125. Which of the following is typically considered by clients to be the most important factor in
creating a positive first impression?

a. A trainer who is in good shape.


b. A trainer who communicates well.
c. A trainer who offers to listen to his or her home-life problems.
d. A trainer who has good posture and appears sure of themselves.

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126. What is an example of non-verbal communication?

a. Tone of voice.
b. Facial expression.
c. Body language.
d. All of the above.
e. Both B and C only

127. Saying things like, “I understand, 125 feels like your ideal weight.” Is an example of which
positive listening skill?

a. Encouraging
b. Planning
c. Questioning
d. Paraphrasing

128. Which of the following is an example of a good open-ended question?

a. Do you feel that you are ready to begin a fitness program?


b. Do you have any questions about personal training?
c. Are there any exercises that you dislike?
d. What made you decide to pursue personal training?

129. You have been working with Judy for 1 month now. Her initial goals were to gain strength in her
lower body and you have been working on body weight squats and lunges. She can perform 3
sets of 15 squats without a struggle. What is the best course of action to continue to increase her
lower body strength significantly?

a. Continue with the program as it is.


b. Add resistance to her squats and lunges.
c. Increase the number of squats to 20 repetitions per set.
d. Discontinue the squats and lunges until she finds them difficult again.

130. What is an example of the “tell, show, do” technique used in the early stages of training?

a. Telling your client to show you how to correctly perform an exercise.


b. Showing your client proper form of every exercise and allowing them to try it on their own later.
c. Explaining the proper way to perform an exercise, showing your client, and then allowing them to
try the exercise.
d. Watching the client perform the exercise and giving feedback about the proper form.

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131. What is the main muscle group involved in the extension portion of a leg extension exercise?

a. Hamstrings
b. Quadriceps
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Gastrocnemius

132. What is the major muscle group involved in the flexion portion of a leg curl exercise?

a. Hamstrings
b. Quadriceps
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Gastrocnemius

133. Your client tells you that he wants to get into better shape because his wife loves to play tennis
and he wants to be able to play with her. Which principle of behavior change is this an example
of?

a. Observational Learning
b. Cognitions and Behavior
c. Shaping
d. Cognitive Behavioral Techniques

134. What is the recommended frequency of cardiorespiratory training generally accepted by ACSM
for healthy adults?

a. 2-3 days per week


b. 5-7 days per week
c. 1-2 days per week
d. 3-5 days per week

135. What is the recommended frequency of resistance training generally accepted by ACSM for
healthy adults?

a. 2-3 days per week


b. 5-7 days per week
c. 1-2 days per week
d. 3-5 days per week

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136. What are the two principal training components of the ACE IFT Model?

a. Functional/resistance training and cardiorespiratory training


b. Agility training and functional/resistance training
c. Cardiorespiratory training and flexibility training
d. Functional/resistance training and flexibility training

137. What tests are typically administered in the first week of training a client?

a. Muscular Endurance and Strength


b. Health Related Assessments (body composition, etc.)
c. Skill Related Assessments
d. Movement Screens

138. According to the ACE IFT Model, what is phase 1 of the functional movement & resistance
training component?

a. Movement Training
b. Load Training
c. Performance Training
d. Stability and Mobility Training

139. According to the ACE IFT Model, what is phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training component?

a. Anaerobic Power Training


b. Anaerobic Endurance Training
c. Aerobic Efficiency Training
d. Aerobic Base Training

140. Becky is in the aerobic base training phase of her plan. She is walking at an inclined grade on the
treadmill. When she answers you her words come out two at a time between breaths. Above
which of the following levels is Becky exercising using the talk test?

a. Lactate Threshold
b. First Ventilatory Threshold
c. 9 rating of Perceived Exertion
d. Second Ventilatory Threshold

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141. Which phase of cardiorespiratory training challenges the phosphagen system and is typically
only entered into for clients with sport specific training goals?

a. Anaerobic-endurance Training
b. Aerobic-base Training
c. Aerobic-efficiency Training
d. Anaerobic-power Training

142. Your client is on the treadmill exercising at 5 METs and 50% of her VO2max, a level that she
sustains for 45 minutes. What level of exercise is she performing at?

a. Moderate Exercise
b. Vigorous Exercise
c. Light Exercise
d. High Risk Exercise

143. Your client is doing intervals on the stair machine. Each interval contains a portion of intensity in
which his MET level is a 7 and he is performing at 70% of his VO2max. He maintains at this level
for 2-minute intervals. What level of exercise is he performing at?

a. Moderate Exercise
b. Vigorous Exercise
c. Light Exercise
d. High Risk Exercise

144. Which of the following has been thought to represent the highest sustainable level of exercise
intensity?

a. Anaerobic threshold
b. Aerobic threshold
c. First ventilator threshold
d. Talk test threshold

145. Muscular Power takes what two performance factors into account?

a. Force and Velocity


b. Agility and Force
c. Strength and Force
d. Work and Distance

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146. Which comes first in the sequence of dysfunctional movement?

a. Muscle Imbalance
b. Altered Neurological Properties
c. Dysfunctional Movement
d. Mobility and Stability are Compromised

147. Which of the following is an example of a Muscle Imbalance?

a. Poor exercise technique


b. Low energy level
c. Compromises in the mobility-stability relationship
d. Altered neurological properties

148. During a leg extension exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the agonist?

a. Hamstrings
b. Soleus
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps

149. During a leg curl exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the agonist?

a. Hamstrings
b. Soleus
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps

150. During a leg extension exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the antagonist?

a. Hamstrings
b. Soleus
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps

151. During a leg curl exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the antagonist?

a. Hamstrings
b. Soleus
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps

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152. Which of the following is an example of an isometric contraction?

a. Hamstrings in a Leg Press


b. Quadriceps in a Squat
c. Quadriceps in a Wall Sit
d. Pectoralis Major in a Bench Press

153. Which of the following is an example of a concentric contraction?

a. Hamstrings in a leg extension


b. Hamstrings in a leg curl
c. Triceps in a bicep curl
d. Erector spinae in the upward portion of an abdominal crunch

154. Which of the following is an example of an eccentric contraction?

a. Quadriceps in a leg extension


b. Biceps in a bicep curl
c. Rectus abdominis in the upward motion of an abdominal crunch
d. Quadriceps in a leg curl

155. The force generating capacity of a muscle based on the relationship between the contractile
proteins of a sarcomere refers to which movement principle?

a. Neural Control
b. Force-couple Relationships
c. Length-tension Relationships
d. Reciprocal Inhibition

156. Achieving efficient movement through opposing and contralateral pulls at joints refers to which
movement principle?

a. Neural Control
b. Force-couple Relationships
c. Length-tension Relationships
d. Reciprocal Inhibition

157. Which movement principle ensures that impulses are transmitted to the intended muscles?

a. Neural Control
b. Force-couple Relationships
c. Length-tension Relationships
d. Reciprocal Inhibition

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158. Which of the following is an example of the force-couple relationship working properly?

a. Anterior pelvic tilt


b. Posterior pelvic tilt
c. Scapular protraction
d. Neutral pelvic position

159. Which component of stability and mobility training should be addressed first?

a. Proximal stability of the lumbar spine


b. Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine
c. Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint
d. Stability of distal extremities

160. Which component represents the final stage of stability and mobility training?

a. Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine


b. Proximal stability of the scapulothoracic spine
c. Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint
d. Static balance

161. Maggie is a 50-year-old woman who has not participated in an exercise program in 8 years. She
had a measurement 70 degrees of movement with a passive straight-leg raise. She exhibits slight
femoral internal rotation. What stretching techniques should be utilized before her workout
based on her fitness level?

a. Myofascial release, AIS and dynamic stretches


b. Myofascial release, warm-up and static stretches
c. Dynamic and ballistic stretches
d. None of the above.

162. Matt is a 26-year-old man who is training for a mixed martial arts competition. He has been
training in this area for 3 years. He has good shoulder mobility and has successfully completed
all stability and mobility tests. What stretching techniques should be utilized before his workout
based on his fitness level?

a. Myofascial release, AIS and dynamic stretches


b. Myofascial release, warm-up and static stretches
c. Dynamic and ballistic stretches
d. None of the above.

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163. When referring to the body’s “core” muscles, which of the following is not a part of this group?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Iliopsoas
c. External obliques
d. Rectus femoris

164. Which of the following exercises is best suited for improving hip mobility for an individual with
lumbar stability concerns?

a. Supine bent-knee marches


b. Pelvic tilts
c. Shoulder/glute bridge
d. Spinal twists

165. When designing static-balance training programs, which stance is the most appropriate in the
beginning stage of progression?

a. Split-stance
b. Staggered Stance
c. Hip-width stance
d. Single-leg stance

166. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in the knee joint is responsible for which of the following
actions?

a. Connecting the femur to the fibula


b. Stabilizing the femur on the tibia during knee extension
c. Preventing the tibia from sliding backward
d. Preventing excessive external rotation of the tibia

167. Which of the following best defines the “Q-angle”?

a. The angle of the femur to the patellar ligament, which is generally larger in men.
b. The angle of the tibia to the patellar ligament, which is generally larger in women.
c. The angle of the femur to the patellar ligament, which is generally larger in women.
d. The angle of the femur to the patellar ligament, which varies from person to person and is not sex-
specific.

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168. When performing a squat, what is the optimal alignment of the tibia and the trunk?

a. An angle of 90 degrees between the tibia and torso.


b. An angle of 30 degrees between the tibia and torso
c. The tibia parallel to the torso
d. It doesn’t matter as long as the knees don’t pass the toes

169. Which of the following compensatory movements is most likely to occur during the downward
phase of a single-leg squat?

a. Lateral hip shift


b. Shifting backward
c. Medial hip shift
d. Hip extension

170. Moving the leg laterally away from the body in the frontal plane is referred to as:

a. Adduction
b. External Rotation
c. Hip Flexion
d. Abduction

171. Moving the leg medially toward the body in a frontal plane is referred to as:

a. Adduction
b. External Rotation
c. Hip Flexion
d. Abduction

172. Which exercise is an example of a pushing movement?

a. Lat pulldown
b. Row
c. Chest press
d. Spinal rotation

173. Which exercise is an example of a pulling movement?

a. Chest press
b. Spinal rotation
c. Shoulder press
d. Unilateral row

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174. Without strength training, a woman loses approximately half a pound of muscle per year. At the
age of 30 Linda weighs 130lbs with a body fat percentage of 25%, which means she has
approximately 110 pounds of lean weight. If Linda weighs the same at age 50, approximately
how many pounds of body fat will she have gained?

a. 25 pounds of body fat


b. 10 pounds of body fat
c. 30 pounds of body fat
d. Not enough information given

b - If Linda loses muscle but maintains the same weight, she has to have gained body fat at the
same rate as the muscle was lost. If muscle was lost at the projected rate of 0.5 pounds per year
and it has been 20 years, Linda will have gained approximately 10 pounds of body fat.

175. Which of the following can result in the reduction of a person’s Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR)?

a. Loss of muscle mass


b. Increase in body fat percentage
c. Increase in food consumption
d. Increase in BMI

176. Which of the following are utilized for anaerobic energy production?

a. Glycogen
b. Fatty Acids
c. Amino acids
d. Oxygen

177. Which of the following are utilized for aerobic energy production?

a. Creatine phosphate
b. Fatty acids
c. Glycogen
d. None of the above.

178. During the first two weeks of an exercise program, strength gains are typically a result of what
adaptation?

a. Hypertrophy
b. Motor learning
c. Increased numbers of Mitochondria
d. Transient hypertrophy

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179. Which of the following adaptations to exercise refers to the increase the number of myofibrils
in a muscle fiber?

a. Sarcoplasmic hypertrophy
b. Myofibrillar hypertrophy
c. Transient hypertrophy
d. Catabolic Hypertrophy

180. Which of the following adaptations to exercise is caused by general fluid accumulation in the
spaces between muscle cells?

a. Sarcoplasmic hypertrophy
b. Myofibrillar hypertrophy
c. Transient hypertrophy
d. Catabolic Hypertrophy

181. Which of the following is NOT a factor that may influence muscular hypertrophy?

a. Amount of lean muscle mass a person has when beginning a resistance program
b. Whether the person is male or female
c. The muscle fiber types a person has
d. The length of a person’s muscles

182. Which type of muscle fiber has a larger aerobic capacity?

a. Type IIa
b. Type IIx
c. Type I
d. Type Ib

183. Jim’s 1 repetition maximum for bench press is 100 pounds. If Jim follows the typical relative
muscular endurance pattern, approximately what resistance should he be able to bench press
for 10 repetitions?

a. 100 pounds
b. 50 pounds
c. 75 pounds
d. 65 pounds

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184. What is the optimal amount of resistance for power exercises?

a. Light resistance
b. Moderate resistance
c. Heavy resistance
d. Very Heavy resistance

185. Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that affects strength development and
program design?

a. Aerobic capacity
b. Muscular endurance
c. Flexibility
d. Speed

186. Which of the following is a health-related parameter that affects strength development and
program design?

a. Power
b. Balance
c. Muscular strength
d. Coordination

187. Jenna has not participated in an exercise program for 2 years. She wants to get back into a
resistance training routine to gain strength and reduce her body fat percentage. How many
times should you suggest she perform resistance training per week?

a. 2-3
b. 3-4
c. 3-5
d. Once a week

188. What is the minimum amount of time you should allow each muscle group to recover before
performing resistance training with the same muscle group again?

a. 36 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 12 hours

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189. Which of the following is an example of a “superset”?

a. 3 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and leg press with no rests in between.
b. 3 sets of 10 repetitions of leg press with 30 second rests in between.
c. 4 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and lat pulldown with 30 second rests in between.
d. 3 sets of 10 repetitions alternating bench press and lat pulldown with 60 second rests in between

190. Which of the following is an example of alternating pushing and pulling exercises within a
session?

a. 3 sets of chest press alternating with 3 sets of chest flys


b. 3 sets of leg press alternating with 3 sets of squats
c. 3 sets of bicep curls alternating with 3 sets of tricep push-downs
d. 3 set of lat pulldowns alternating with 3 sets of rows

191. John performs 3 sets of 10 bicep curls with a 50-pound barbell. What is the training volume of
his bicep curls?

a. 150 pounds
b. 500 pounds
c. 1500 pounds
d. 50 pounds

192. Janice is a 35-year-old woman who wants to improve her overall muscular fitness. When
resistance training, how many repetitions should she perform per set?

a. 12 or more
b. 6-12
c. Less than 6
d. 8-15

193. Tim is a 25-year-old soccer player looking to improve muscular endurance. When resistance
training, how many repetitions should he perform per set?

a. 12 or more
b. 6-12
c. Less than 6
d. 8-15

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194. Alan is a 28-year-old body builder looking to increase muscle size. When resistance training, how
many repetitions should he perform per set?

a. 12 or more
b. 6-12
c. Less than 6
d. 8-15

195. Diana is looking to improve her hiking endurance. What are the main muscle groups that should
be targeted?

a. Pectoralis major and biceps


b. Hip flexors and extensors
c. Latissimus dorsi and erector spinae
d. Rectus abdominis and erector spinae

196. Diana is looking to improve her hiking endurance. What type of repetitions is right for her?

a. Low-moderate resistance, high repetitions.


b. Low resistance, low repetitions.
c. High resistance, low repetitions.
d. High resistance, high repetitions.

197. Which of the following best describes the principle of training overload?

a. Exercising the appropriate muscles.


b. Applying the appropriate amount of resistance for the desired outcome.
c. Exercising within the range of anaerobic glycolysis.
d. Gradually adding more resistance than the muscles have encountered.

198. Which of the following is an example of Stability and Mobility training?

a. Bend and lift movements


b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

199. Which of the following is an example of Movement training?

a. Bend and lift movements


b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

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200. Which of the following is an example of Load training?

a. Bend and lift movements


b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

201. Which of the following is an example of Performance training?

a. Bend and lift movements


b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

202. John is in the Movement training phase of resistance training. What is an example of an exercise
he should be performing at this time?

a. Weighted squat
b. Leg extension machine
c. Leg press
d. Body weight lunge

203. Tim is training to increase muscular strength. What percent of his 1 repetition maximum should
he be training at to accomplish this goal?

a. 60-75% of 1RM
b. 70-90% of 1RM
c. 50-60% of 1RM
d. 90-100% of 1RM

204. What is the optimal training intensity when resistance training for hypertrophy?

a. 60-75% of 1RM
b. 70-80% of 1RM
c. 50-60% of 1RM
d. 90-100% of 1RM

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205. What is the optimal training intensity when resistance training for muscular endurance?

a. 60-70% of 1RM
b. 70-80% of 1RM
c. 50-60% of 1RM
d. 90-100% of 1RM

206. Which skill-related training parameter involves the stretch-shortening cycle?

a. Speed
b. Balance
c. Reactivity
d. Power

207. Which part of the muscle senses differences in the magnitude and rate of stretching that is
imposed on a muscle?

a. Myofascia
b. Muscle spindle
c. Mitochondria
d. Muscle fiber

208. Which of the following factors contribute to the intensity of performance training?

a. Complexity of movement
b. Speed
c. Body weight
d. All of the above

209. How many days per week should a 13-year-old boy perform resistance training?

a. 1-2 days/wk
b. 3-4 days/wk
c. 2-3 days/wk
d. 5-6 days/wk

210. Which type of exercise should older adults avoid in order to prevent spikes in blood pressure?

a. Eccentric contractions
b. Concentric contractions
c. Flexibility training
d. Isometric contractions

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211. Which of the following is NOT a myth about resistance training?

a. Specific resistance training can target fat deposits in certain areas.


b. Children are too young to lift weights.
c. Training with very light resistance that can be performed for more than two minutes is not
beneficial for muscle development.
d. Light weight and high repetitions will improve muscle tone, while heavy weight and low repetitions
will increase muscle mass.

212. Which of the following is NOT a possible physiological adaptation to cardiorespiratory exercise?

a. Increasing number of mitochondria within the cells


b. Increase in capilarization of muscle fibers
c. Higher cardiac output
d. Reduction of blood volume

213. What is the minimum amount of time a bout of aerobic exercise should last?

a. 30 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 45minutes
d. 10 minutes

214. According to ACSM guidelines, what are the recommendations of cardiorespiratory exercise
intensity and frequency for healthy adults?

a. Moderate-intensity exercise at least 5 days/wk


b. Moderate-intensity exercise at least 3 days/wk
c. Vigorous-intensity exercise at least 3 days/wk
d. Either a or c

215. Monica is a 40-year-old woman with a resting heart rate of 70 bpm. What is her Heart Rate
Reserve (HRR)?

a. 110 bpm
b. 150 bpm
c. 180 bpm
d. 220 bpm

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216. Michael is a 50-year-old man who has not exercised in 8 years. His fitness classification is “poor”.
What should Michael’s heart rate stay between during cardiorespiratory exercise?

a. 68-93 bpm
b. 96-114 bpm
c. 125-143 bpm
d. 136-155 bpm

217. Michelle is a 30-year-old dancer who regularly exercises at a vigorous pace. Her fitness
classification is “excellent”. What should Michelle’s heart rate stay between during
cardiorespiratory exercise?

a. 108-127 bpm
b. 160-179 bpm
c. 179-190 bpm
d. 86-105 bpm

218. On the classical Borg Rate of Perceived Exertion scale, what level of exertion does a “6”
represent?

a. Fairly Light
b. Hard
c. Very Weak
d. Nothing at all

219. Which of the following does aerobic exercise utilize but anaerobic does not?

a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Oxygen
d. Carbon dioxide

220. How many minutes should a client who is of an average fitness level exercise for per day?

a. 20-30 minutes
b. 30-60 minutes
c. 30-90 minutes
d. 60-120 minutes

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221. How many minutes should a client who is of a poor fitness level exercise for per day?

a. 10-20 minutes
b. 20-30 minutes
c. 30-60 minutes
d. 30-90 minutes

222. Which of the following training modes involves an unstructured varying of intensities
throughout a workout, involving both the aerobic and anaerobic systems?

a. Cardiorespiratory training
b. Interval training
c. Agility training
d. Fartlek training

223. Which cardiorespiratory training zone is characterized by moderate to vigorous intensity


exercise?

a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 4

224. Which of the following factors does not directly influence muscular strength performance?

a. Hormone levels
b. Age
c. Limb Length
d. Muscle circumference

225. Casey is a new client and you are ready to begin your first couple of sessions. Which variable is
the most important to monitor?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Duration
d. Exercise Progression

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226. Under which of the following general guidelines can most healthy adults between the ages of 18
and 64 exercise?

a. Perform 150 minutes of exercise per week


b. Perform 250 minutes of exercise per week
c. Can perform muscle strengthening exercises at least once daily
d. All of the above

227. What is the major benefit of performing a cool down?

a. Help your client lose weight faster


b. It increases flexibility faster
c. Prevents blood from pooling in your arms and legs
d. Helps a client stick to a routine

228. Carol is struggling with focus and is getting burnt out with exercising. To keep her motivated,
which type of exercise should you consider incorporating?

a. Circuit training
b. Water-based exercise
c. Mind-body exercise
d. High intensity training

229. Which one of the following is not a fast acting hormone in the body?

a. Insulin
b. Cortisol
c. Glucagon
d. Catecholamines

230. Of the three energy systems in the body, which one is considered the most rapid in ATP
production?

a. Aerobic
b. Anaerobic glycolysis
c. Phosphagen
d. None of the above

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231. Which of the following muscles are not included as one of the four SITS?

a. Infraspinatus
b. Teres Minor
c. Trapezius
d. Subscapularis

232. What joint in the body is considered the most mobile?

a. Elbow joint
b. Shoulder joint
c. Wrist joint
d. Hip joint

233. Your new client is excited to lose weight and has asked your opinion on a popular diet program
she will be starting. Which of the following is most appropriate for your role as a personal
trainer?

a. Set up a meal plan for her


b. Recommend one or more supplements
c. Calculate her calories and recommend how to lose weight even faster
d. Ask probing questions about the diet and direct her to endorsed government websites

234. What is the primary goal of Phase 1 of the ACE Integrated Training Model?

a. Stability and mobility training


b. Movement training
c. Load training
d. Performance training

235. When the body exercises on a regular basis, there are a number of cardiorespiratory adaptations
that occur. Which of the following is an example of these adaptations?

a. An enlarged heart
b. An Increase in blood volume
c. Blood pressure is improved
d. All of the above

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236. What is an example of an effort you can make to decrease DOMS when working with a client?

a. Exercise only one day per week


b. Minimize eccentric actions as you get started in a new program
c. Start with high intensity exercise then move to low intensity
d. Perform reps as quickly as possible

237. Which of the following stretch techniques should be used before a workout or sport event?

a. Dynamic stretching
b. Static stretching
c. Active isolated stretching
d. Ballistic stretching

238. Mark is overweight and has not exercised in a year or more. As a trainer, you will start him in
Phase 1 of Aerobic Base Training. This phase is best characterized by which of the following?

a. Cardio interval training


b. Moderate intensity training for 3 or 4 days per week
c. 15 minute jog per day
d. Start cardio training with an exertion level below the talk test

239. Prior to introducing lower body plyometrics to your client, what performance goal should he
met first?

a. Squat 1.5 times his weight


b. Perform 3 to 5 box jumps
c. Perform upper body plyometric exercises with good form
d. Squat 10 times with 70% of his body weight

240. Allan is at an intermediate level with his plyometric training. How many contacts per session
should he be completing with low intensity drills?

a. 80 to 100
b. 100 to 150
c. 140 to 200
d. 200 to 220

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241. Which of the following exercise drills is ideal for agility training?

a. Lateral shuffles
b. ABC drills
c. Horizontal chest pass
d. Jumps in place

242. Your client is mildly deconditioned with a fair to average fitness classification. What is the
recommended exercise intensity for her to start with?

a. 57 to 67% MHR
b. 74 to 84% MHR
c. 84 to 94% MHR
d. 80 to 91%MHR

243. A proper warm up should always consist of how many minutes?

a. No warm up time needed for short workouts


b. 1 to 3 minutes
c. 5 to 10 minutes
d. 10 to 15 minutes

244. What is the recommended movement speed per repetition for most machines and free weight
exercises for beginners?

a. 6 seconds
b. 2 seconds
c. 4 seconds
d. 10 seconds

245. A client should demonstrate the proper movement of 5 primary exercises in all three planes
prior to progressing from movement training. Which of the following exercises is not included in
the main 5?

a. Pushing movements
b. Single leg movements
c. Bend and lift movements
d. Core movements

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246. Which of the following reasons can be the cause of a muscle imbalance?

a. Structural issues
b. Poor exercise technique
c. One side dominance
d. All of the above

247. The order of exercises you recommend should reflect a beginning group of exercises which move
to more progressive exercises. Which of the following represents a typical recommended
progression?

a. Muscle isolation to unsupported machines


b. Unilateral to bilateral exercises
c. Unsupported to supported machines
d. Muscle isolation to multijoint exercises

248. Which training principle describes the need for an ongoing maintenance program to keep any
gains you have made while strength training?

a. Specificity principle
b. Reversibility
c. Diminishing Returns
d. Overload Principle

249. Which of the following factors has the most influence over flexibility?

a. Tendons
b. Muscle
c. Joint capsule
d. Skin

250. Which major system in the body handles the breakdown of food and elimination of waste?

a. Lymphatic system
b. Respiratory system
c. Pulmonary system
d. Digestive system

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251. You have identified a need for one of your clients to strengthen his posterior chain as a result of
poor posture. What is the proper progression of suggested exercises?

a. Isometric contractions to dynamic ROM exercises


b. Dynamic ROM exercises to isometric contractions
c. Dynamic ROM exercises to myofascial release
d. Isometric contractions to myofascial release

252. All of the following joints are responsible for stability except:

a. Knee
b. Glenohumeral
c. Lumbar spine
d. Foot

253. What is the biggest issue most people face when squatting?

a. Not enough ankle dorsiflexion


b. Too much ankle dorsiflexion
c. Quadriceps are not strong enough
d. None of the above

254. How many days a week should a new client exercise with intermediate experience, according to
general guidelines?

a. 2 to 3 sessions per week


b. 3 to 4 sessions per week
c. 4 to 7 sessions per week
d. Twice daily

255. Which of the following is not one of the four mechanisms used by the body to give off heat?

a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Evaporation
d. Receptors

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256. John has hired a personal trainer to develop more power in his tennis game. However, after
various assessments his trainer has him focused on movement training before he progresses to
the next level. What might be holding him back?

a. He is not able to control his range of motion.


b. He has poor exercise form.
c. He cannot complete more than 15 reps of any exercise.
d. Both a and b

ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam – Section 3


Program Progression and Modification

257. Beth is a 28-year-old woman who is looking to improve her overall fitness. How long should she
rest for in between sets on a leg press exercise?

a. Less than 30 seconds


b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 30-60 seconds

258. Bob is a 30-year-old man looking to increase muscular endurance for distance running. How long
should he rest in between sets on the leg extension machine?

a. Less than 30 seconds


b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 30-60 seconds

259. Andrew is a 35-year-old man who is looking to increase strength in his upper body. How long
should he rest in between sets of a bench press exercise?

a. Less than 30 seconds


b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 30-60 seconds

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260. When training a client to activate their core for the purpose of gaining proximal stability, what
exercise modality should come first in the progression?

a. A sequence of movements in alternating planes with contralateral limbs raised off the floor.
b. Sagittal plane shoulder movements with one arm raised off the floor.
c. Frontal plane hip movements with one knee raised off the floor.
d. Transverse plane hip movements with one knee raised off the floor.

261. James has been training for and competing in triathlons for 5 years. He wants to increase
running speed and cycling power. How many times should you suggest he train per week?

a. 2-3
b. 3-4
c. 4-6
d. 4-7

262. Bill is training at 80-90% of his 1 repetition maximum on leg press. How long should he typically
wait before training his legs again?

a. 24 hours
b. 36 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

263. Which stance is most challenging in the final stage of progression for static-balance training?

a. Split-stance
b. Staggered Stance
c. Hip-width stance
d. Single-leg stance

264. Jim has been resistance training with you for a month. He has been performing sets of 10-15
repetitions on the leg press. You have been gradually increasing the exercise workload, and he
can currently perform 15 leg presses per set with 200 pounds. Which of the following is the best
way to progress from here?

a. Increase the resistance to 220 pounds.


b. Increase the number of repetitions per set to 20.
c. Increase the resistance to 210 pounds.
d. Decrease the number of repetitions to 10.

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265. Mary has been training with you for 2 weeks. She can currently perform 45 sit-ups in 2 minutes.
What is the best way to progress?

a. Add resistance to her sit-ups.


b. Aim for 60 sit-ups in 2 minutes.
c. Aim for 80 sit-ups in 2minutes.
d. Aim for 80 sit-ups in 3 minutes.

266. Jim has been training with you for 5 weeks and has increased his upper body strength in pull-ups
by 25%. He is going on vacation and you are explaining to him the importance of continuing to
train while he is away. Approximately how long would it take Jim to lose half of his strength
gains?

a. 10 weeks
b. 2.5 weeks
c. 5 weeks
d. 2 weeks

267. Abigail has been training with you for a year. She has begun seeing fewer results lately and is
becoming discouraged. What is the best way to increase the results she is getting when she has
reached a plateau and is unable to increase resistance or number of repetitions?

a. Decrease number of repetitions for a short period of time.


b. Decrease resistance for a short period of time.
c. Increase training frequency to more days per week.
d. Change the exercise modality.

268. What is the general idea behind periodization?

a. Changing the training exercise.


b. Increasing resistance by 5%.
c. Exercising the appropriate muscles.
d. Varying training intensity and volume.

269. Which training modality cannot utilize a 5% increase in training intensity as effectively?

a. Training for muscular strength


b. Training for hypertrophy
c. Training for muscular endurance
d. None of the above

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270. Molly is just beginning plyometric performance training with you. What is the best exercise for
her to perform?

a. Multiple linear jumps


b. Depth jumps
c. Single linear jumps
d. Jumps in place

271. The Performance training phase should last at least how long?

a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 4 weeks
d. 12 weeks

272. How long should an agility drill last for a beginner?

a. 15-30 seconds
b. Less than 10 seconds
c. 10-60 seconds
d. 60 seconds to 2 minutes

273. Which of the following is NOT a method by which a trainer can monitor cardiorespiratory
exercise intensity?

a. % Heart rate reserve


b. Number of repetitions performed
c. VO2
d. Talk test

274. This week Janet has 3 sessions at 60 minutes apiece with an RPE rating of 5. According to the
training progression scale using (RPE., what is Janet’s rating in points for this week?

a. 800 points
b. 900 points
c. 180 points
d. 15 points

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275. What is an appropriate MET value for walking slowly?

a. 6.0
b. 4.5
c. 2.0
d. 10.0

276. Jacob is talking 2-3 words at a time during aerobic exercise. When utilizing the Talk Test, which
training zone is Jacob in?

a. Training zone 1
b. Training zone 2
c. Training zone 3
d. Training zone 4

277. Which of the following is an example of a client who should be referred to a physical therapist?

a. A client complaining of a lower backache after purchasing a new bed.


b. A client with a reoccurring knee injury.
c. A client that walks with a limp.
d. A client that has fallen and hurt their ankle.

278. What is the best course of action if a client is asking for advice on supplements?

a. Refer the client to a registered dietitian or qualified physician for further guidance.
b. Show the client only the supplements your gym carries.
c. Advise your client on only the supplements you are knowledgeable about.
d. Refer the client to a nutrition store.

279. Which of the following is a factor that has been thought to influence exercise adherence?

a. Activity history
b. Race
c. Gender
d. Marital status

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280. Jim is a 45 year old investment banker who has been training with your for 2 weeks. He comes in
after work Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays. Lately he has been calling an hour before his
appointments to cancel because he is stuck at work. What is the best response to his lack of
adherence?

a. Thank him for calling and see him whenever he is available.


b. Let him know that your time is important and if he doesn’t come in for his appointments you’ll
have to fill them in with someone else.
c. Recommend him to a trainer that has less clients and more time.
d. Help him to see that health and fitness is a top priority, and ask if there are better times to make
the appointments for.

281. Janet is a 55-year-old woman you have recently taken on as a client. She currently walks the
mile in 15 minutes and wants to be able to run in a 5k in six months. Which is an example of a
SMART goal for her?

a. Janet will complete the mile in 12 minutes within two months.


b. Janet will integrate jogging with walking within two weeks.
c. Janet will feel confident about running in a 5k within five months.
d. Janet will complete the mile in 10 minutes within one week.

282. Michael is a 35-year-old man who has a body fat percentage of 19%. He says he is looking to
become “leaner”. He has not participated in any exercise routine for two years. What is the main
fitness indicator to consider when creating a SMART goal for him?

a. Muscular strength and endurance


b. Medical indicators
c. Body composition
d. Body weight

283. Emily is a 23-year-old woman who is interested in becoming more fit. She is going to school and
working full time so she has limited availability. You decide to set a goal for her attendance of
sessions, and she suggests “Emily will not miss any scheduled sessions in October.” What is
wrong with this goal?

a. It is unattainable.
b. It is not relevant.
c. It is negative.
d. It is not time-bound.

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284. Treating a client with “cultural competence” means doing which of the following?

a. Respecting your client’s beliefs and lifestyle.


b. Adopting your client’s religion for your own.
c. Sticking with clients of your own race and beliefs.
d. Asking your client about their personal beliefs.

285. Matthew is a new client that you have been seeing for two weeks now. You have completed the
health risk appraisal and with no medical clearance needed, checked his resting measures,
tested his static and dynamic posture as well as performed body composition and aerobic tests.
What is the best test to perform next in his training process?

a. Health Related Assessments (body composition, etc.)


b. Skill Related Assessments
c. Movement Screens
d. Muscular Endurance and Strength

286. When training a client with scapular protraction, which exercises should be avoided until the
postural misalignment has been corrected to prevent further aggravation of the misalignment?

a. Lat Pull Down


b. Row
c. Back extension
d. Chest Press

287. You are working with a client whose right shoulder appears to be lower than her left. Which
muscles should you have her stretch?

a. Right upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids


b. Left upper trapezius, levator scaula and rhomboids
c. Right Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
d. Left Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi

288. Which of the following is a proper progression for a single-leg squat?

a. Perform with feet at normal gait-width apart


b. Perform a leg swing to mimic gait
c. Add resistance
d. All of the above

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289. In which resistance training phase should movement assessments be administered?

a. Stability and Mobility training


b. Movement training
c. Load training
d. Performance training

290. In which resistance training phase should muscular strength and endurance be periodically
assessed?

a. Stability and Mobility training


b. Movement training
c. Load training
d. Performance training

291. What is the appropriate rate of progression in most resistance training programs?

a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%

292. When should resistance be increased in a resistance training program?

a. Once the client determines he or she is ready.


b. When the trainer feels the client is ready.
c. When the client can reach the end-range repetitions in all sets of the exercise.
d. When the client has been performing the exercise for 2 weeks.

293. In which resistance training phase should assessments for power, speed, agility and reactivity be
conducted?

a. Stability and Mobility training


b. Movement training
c. Load training
d. Performance training

294. Which of the following is the final progression of movement in resistance training for power?

a. Rotational
b. Crossover, cutting and curving
c. Lateral
d. Linear-forward

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295. When should you progress a client to phase 2 of cardiorespiratory training?

a. If the client has event-specific goals


b. If the client is a fitness enthusiast looking for a challenge
c. When the client can sustain phase 1 for 20-30 minutes
d. When the client reports an RPE of 10 in phase 1

296. Which of the following clients should be progressed to phase 3 of cardiorespiratory training,
Anaerobic-endurance training?

a. Angie has begun her program last week and is eager to build cardiorespiratory endurance.
b. Michael has goals related to anaerobic endurance and has been training in phase 2 for a month.
c. Andrew has been training in phase 2 for 2 months. He is about halfway to his weight loss goal.
d. Jim is in phase 1 and can now perform cardio exercise for 25 steady minutes.

297. According to the ACE FIT model, which phase of cardiorespiratory training should come first in a
training program?

a. Aerobic-efficiency training
b. Aerobic-base training
c. Anaerobic-endurance training
d. Anaerobic-power training

298. Which of the following are methods you can utilize to help clients avoid overtraining syndrome?

a. Distribute zone 1 cardio training throughout warm ups and cool downs
b. Utilize zone 1 cardio training on moderate-intensity days
c. Utilize zone 1 cardio training for recovery after zone 2 or 3 training intervals
d. All of the above
e. Both b and c only

299. Which of the following is an example of an exercise that a client in phase 1 of cardiorespiratory
training would perform?

a. Five 30 second sprint intervals


b. 20 minute run
c. 30 minute jog
d. 20 minutes of Power walking

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300. How many days per week should a client do cardio exercise if they are in phase 2 of
cardiorespiratory training and want to keep progressing toward their goal?

a. 1-2 days
b. 2-4 days
c. 4-5 days
d. 5-6 days

301. Which of the following is an example of a positive progression in functional movement and
resistance training?

a. Standing two-arm cable press to Shoulder bridge


b. Lunges to Wall sits
c. Wood chop to Pelvic tilts
d. Plank to Prone lies on stability ball with torso movements

302. Which of the following clients would most likely need a recovery week?

a. Jay began exercising with you 2 weeks ago and is making positive progress toward his goals of
increased balance and weight loss.
b. Mary began exercising with you 2 months ago and has been steadily progressing toward her goal
of body fat reduction.
c. Alex has been exercising with you for 2 months and has been increasing intensity in his anaerobic
workouts over the last 3 weeks in order to reach his goal of increased anaerobic power.
d. Janel has been exercising with you for 9 months and wants to ramp up her training to compete in a
body building show.

303. Which of the following is the most reliable predictor of participation in an exercise program?

a. Health condition
b. General tendencies
c. Motivation level
d. Past participation

304. Which of the following clients has a positive Locus of Control?

a. Amy is excited about beginning her program but lets you know that she is very busy.
b. Shellie enjoys exercise. She wants to lose 50 pounds but decides to set her goal for 25 in case she
can’t get to 50.
c. Mike sets reasonable goals and shows up enthusiastic every day.
d. Jenna sets reasonable goals and is excited about her program. She sometimes has trouble sticking
to her fitness goals.

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305. Which of the following training principles cannot be altered during an exercise session?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Type
d. Time

306. Helen is focusing on using her own bodyweight to create an overload. Which training principle is
she utilizing?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Type
d. Time

307. You decide that Mark’s sessions should last for 60 minutes as opposed to the 45 he has currently
been doing in order to increase results. Which training principle are you altering?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Type
d. Time

308. When designing an exercise program for Mark you decide on 60-minute sessions of resistance
training 3 times per week. Which training principle have you forgotten to include in Mark’s
exercise plan?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Type
d. Time

309. What intensity level should generally be utilized for sustained aerobic activities?

a. Low
b. Low-Moderate
c. Moderate
d. Moderate-High

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310. Which of the following is an inappropriate exercise for a woman who is 5 months pregnant?

a. Graded walking on a treadmill


b. Step-ups
c. Jump rope
d. Abdominal crunches

311. Which of the following is an example of overtraining syndrome?

a. Increased hunger
b. Decreased blood pressure
c. Increased resting heart rate
d. Decreased resting heart rate

312. Most non-competitive fitness goals can be accomplished through which phase of
cardiorespiratory training?

a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

313. How many days a week should a normally healthy client engage in resistance training for each
major muscle group?

a. 1 day per week


b. 2 days per week
c. 2 to 3 days per week
d. 4 to 5 days per week

314. What is the recommended time a client should spend on aerobic exercise per day as a general
recommendation?

a. 10 to 20 minutes
b. 20 to 30 minutes
c. 30 to 60 minutes
d. 60 to 90 minutes

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315. Becky is overweight and gets discouraged easily by her excess weight. Using the health at every
size approach, what are some ways you can use to help her stay motivated?

a. Switch the focus from her weight to healthy habits.


b. Help her set SMART goals.
c. Focus on self-esteem and self-efficacy
d. All of the above
e. Both a and c only

316. Your client has low back pain off and on. Which of the following tests should she check with her
physician prior to performing?

a. Curl up test
b. Push up test
c. Step test
d. Squat test

317. A one rep max test should be given in which phase of the ACE IFT Model?

a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 3 or 4

318. Following an ankle injury, your client has been cleared for exercise. You will begin with exercises
that help reestablish ankle stability. Which of the following is the appropriate exercise
progression?

a. Backward running-multidirectional-side to side


b. Side to side-forward running-multidirectional
c. Forward running-side to side-multidirectional
d. Multidirectional-side to side-forward running

319. What is the name of the periodized training cycle which covers a 6 to 12 month period?

a. Macrocycle
b. Mesocycle
c. Microcycle
d. Linear periodization

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320. Which two primary hormones are associated with tissue growth and muscular development?

a. Cortisol and testosterone


b. Cortisol and growth hormone
c. Growth hormone and testosterone
d. None of the above

321. Which of the following statements is false regarding muscular growth and strength?

a. Tendon inserts on the bone does not affect muscle hypertrophy.


b. A person’s gender does not affect muscle quality.
c. Limb length influences muscle hypertrophy.
d. Muscle length relative to bone length can determine muscle size.

322. Your primary goal in working with a new client is to build muscular endurance. Which rest
interval is most appropriate?

a. 30 to 90 seconds
b. Less than 30 seconds
c. 2 to 5 minutes
d. 90 to 120 seconds

323. One of your clients is an aspiring bodybuilder. Which of the following exercise programs would
he most likely NOT incorporate?

a. Circuit training
b. Supersets
c. Compound sets
d. Assisted training

324. What should a client be proficient at prior to starting with performance training?

a. Strong core function


b. Anaerobic efficiency
c. Sufficient static and dynamic balance
d. All of the above

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325. A client has suffered an injury and is showing signs of pain, redness and swelling. Which phase of
the healing process is he in?

a. Phase 1-inflammation
b. Phase 2-fibrolastic
c. Phase 3-maturation and remodeling
d. Phase 4-rehabilitation

326. Megan is performing a kettlebell exercise and feels sudden pain in her shoulder. What is
considered an example of an early intervention strategy?

a. RICE
b. Stretching the muscles where she feels pain
c. Strengthening the muscles where she feels pain
d. None of the above

327. One of your clients is an avid runner with a history of lower extremity injuries. You decide to
educate her on the importance of proper footwear. Which of the following guidelines should
you provide?

a. Always choose a big brand name


b. Get fitted for footwear at the end of the day
c. Get fitted for footwear at the beginning of the day
d. Never wear the same weight of socks

328. Jim is 35 years old and an avid runner. Recently he has been complaining of an ‘achy’ pain
behind his patella. Which of the following training modifications should you make?

a. Avoid deep squats


b. Eliminate any downhill running
c. Add stretches for his IT band
d. All of the above

329. One of your clients is taking antidepressants. What is the likely effect on her exercising heart
rate?

a. No significant effect
b. An increase
c. A decrease
d. There is no data on this

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330. In what phase should you test your client for power?

a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4
e. Any of the phases will work

331. What is an appropriate strength ratio for flexion and extension of the shoulder joint?

a. 2:3
b. 3:2
c. 1:1
d. 2:1

ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam – Section 4


Professional Conduct, Safety and Risk Management

332. Which of the following is within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

a. Advising a client on which types of supplements to take.


b. Giving relationship advice to a client.
c. Assisting a client in setting realistic fitness goals.
d. Gently massaging a client’s sore muscle.

333. Which of the following is appropriate according to the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

a. Diagnosing a client’s ankle injury.


b. Massaging a client’s shoulder.
c. Teaching a client self myo-fascial releasing techniques.
d. Setting up a calorie-restricted diet plan for a client.

334. An ACE certified personal trainer must complete how many continuing education hours in what
period of time to keep their certification active?

a. 10 hours in 1 year
b. 20 hours in 2 years
c. 20 hours in 1 year
d. 10 hours in 2 years

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335. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of inflammation at a joint?

a. Pain
b. Warmth
c. Increased range of motion
d. Loss of function

336. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to stretching?

a. Presence of osteoporosis
b. Joint swelling
c. Prolonged immobilization of muscles
d. A healing fracture site

337. Which of the following is a form that notifies the client of the risk associated with exercise?

a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)


b. Health History Questionnaire
c. Informed Consent form
d. Liability Waiver

338. When on the treadmill, your client becomes dizzy and passes out. She hits her head on the
ground. She is unconscious and non-responsive. What is an appropriate action to take?

a. Go to a phone and call 911.


b. Gently move her out of the way of bystanders and prop her head with a pillow.
c. Have a coworker call 911 while you stay with her.
d. Begin CPR.

339. What should NOT be included in an emergency response report?

a. Name of the victim


b. Your opinion of what happened
c. The series of events leading to the incident
d. Witnesses

340. When should an emergency response report be filled out?

a. While you are waiting for EMS to arrive.


b. Within a week of the incident.
c. Immediately after the incident has been controlled.
d. Within 3 days of the incident.

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341. After a client falls and EMS is called, with whom can you share the incident report with?

a. The client’s spouse


b. The facility general manager
c. Your coworkers
d. The EMS workers

342. What is a proper place to store an incident report?

a. In your desk drawer


b. On your desk
c. In a locked filing cabinet at the gym
d. In a locked filing cabinet in your home
e. Either c or d

343. Upon approaching a client who is unconscious and non-responsive, what should you check and
in which order?

a. Circulation, breathing and airway


b. Breathing, airway and circulation
c. Airway, breathing and circulation
d. Airway, circulation and breathing

344. You notice that a member of the gym has fallen to the ground. What is the first thing you should
do?

a. Call 911
b. Begin CPR
c. Check the ABCs
d. Ask her if she is ok

345. What questions should you ask a victim of a fall who is conscious?

a. Medical history
b. Spouse’s name and phone number
c. If they would like you to call someone to pick them up
d. Their age and weight

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346. In which situation should you call 911?

a. A client has fallen and twisted his ankle.


b. A member has fallen and hit her head and is responsive
c. A client needs to sit down from dizziness after a difficult bout of exercise
d. A client is having difficulty breathing and you are unsure of what to do

347. In which situation is it not necessary to call 911?

a. Your client has had a seizure


b. A member is suffering from chest pain
c. Your client is vomiting and ends her session early
d. A member is threatening to hit another member

348. Which of the following is NOT included in the “links” of the Chain of Survival?

a. Early access
b. Early CPR
c. Early transportation
d. Early advanced care

349. Which of the following is a question you may be expected to answer when calling 911?

a. What number are you calling from?


b. Are you able to assist with CPR?
c. Do you have access to an AED?
d. All of the above

350. What is the purpose of CPR?

a. To help the body maintain perfusion.


b. To get air into the person’s lungs.
c. To keep the person conscious.
d. None of the above.

351. On whom should you use an Automated External Defibrillator (AED.?

a. A client who is unconscious and breathing shallowly.


b. A member who is unconscious and not breathing but has a pulse.
c. A member who is unconscious, not breathing and doesn’t have a palpable pulse.
d. A member who is barely conscious and complaining of chest pain.

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352. Which of the following is NOT a preventable risk factor for heart disease?

a. Obesity
b. High cholesterol
c. High blood pressure
d. Family history
e. Both a and d

353. Howard is a diabetic client whom you have been training for 3 months. While exercising he
begins to show signs of hypoglycemia. What is the best course of action?

a. Discontinue the exercise and have Howard sit down, give him something sugary to drink and
monitor him.
b. Give Howard a sugary drink and continue the exercise, monitoring him.
c. Have Howard discontinue the exercise and give him a protein bar and diet drink.
d. Contact EMS as this is a potential life-threatening situation.

354. Which of the following are signs of hypoglycemia?

a. Excess sweating
b. Hunger
c. Headache
d. All of the above

355. Your client has been running sprints outside on a hot summer day. She begins to become dizzy
and pale with cool, clammy skin. What steps should you take to prevent heat stroke?

a. Have her lie down in a cool area with her feet elevated and give her fluids.
b. Have her sit down and wait until she feels better to resume exercise.
c. Give her plenty of fluids and wait to continue exercise until she feels better.
d. Discontinue exercise and send her home.

356. Your client is exercising outside on a hot day and becomes confused. She has hot, bright red skin
and is having difficulty breathing. She is scared and dizzy. What is the best course of action to
take?

a. Discontinue exercise, call 911 and begin actively cooling her.


b. Discontinue exercise, begin actively cooling her and call 911.
c. Discontinue exercise, have her sit down inside and give her fluids.
d. Discontinue exercise, have her lie down inside with her head elevated and begin actively cooling
her.

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357. Your client trips over a piece of exercise equipment and falls, twisting her ankle. She cannot get
up on her own and it is painful to stand on. What is the best course of action?

a. Help her over to a chair, wrap her ankle for her and offer her some ibuprofen.
b. Call 911 immediately.
c. Help her to a chair, offer an ice pack and allow her to call someone to transport her to the hospital.
d. Let her know that she has sprained her ankle and take her to the hospital.

358. Which of the following is associated with an independent contractor versus and employee?

a. Receives training from the fitness center.


b. Receives payment specific to job duties performed.
c. Oversees fitness center procedures.
d. Receives health benefits from the fitness center.

359. Which of the following is associated with an employee versus an independent contractor?

a. Choosing when and where to work.


b. Maintaining autonomy in training decisions.
c. Receiving little to no guidance.
d. Having taxes withheld from their paycheck for Social Security.

360. Which of the following is an example of negligence?

a. Neglecting to ask if your client would like some water.


b. Neglecting to give your client a break in the middle of their session.
c. Neglecting to spot a client during a bench press exercise.
d. Neglecting to ask a client for payment before the session.

361. An Informed Consent form is designed to accomplish which of the following?

a. Serve as a formal contract between the client and trainer.


b. Acknowledge that the client has been informed of risks associated with exercise.
c. Demonstrate that the client was made aware of “normal” outcomes of physical activity.
d. Act as a waiver.

362. Which of the following is an example of a personal trainer performing duties outside of their
scope of practice?

a. Advising the client to look up the food pyramid online.


b. Advising the client on how to better perform the bench press exercise.
c. Advising the client on how to stretch the hamstrings.
d. Advising the client on supplements to take for increasing muscle mass.

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363. Which of the following is NOT a component of professional liability insurance that should be
acquired by all personal trainers?

a. Specifically designed to cover the health and fitness industry.


b. At least $1 million in coverage.
c. Covers personal injuries that occur as a result of a training session.
d. Covers broken fitness equipment.

364. In which situation is it not okay to utilize and display the ACE logo?

a. Business cards
b. Advertisements
c. Items for sale such as videos
d. Personal websites

365. Which of the following is a component of a business plan?

a. Executive summary
b. Marketing plan
c. Risk analysis
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b only

366. Which of the following is the best method of client retention?

a. Telling the client that exercise will make them feel good and reduce the risk of disease.
b. Telling the client all about yourself and your philosophy often.
c. Developing a long-term exercise plan through periodization.
d. Offering a cost effective way to purchase sessions.

367. Which of the following does NOT fall within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

a. Developing and implementing exercise programs.


b. Stratifying risk for cardiovascular disease.
c. Teaching exercise methods and progressions
d. Prescribing personal nutrition plans.

368. Which of the following does NOT fall within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

a. Assisting clients in setting and achieving goals.


b. Responding appropriately to emergency situations.
c. Diagnosing the source of pains.
d. Administering fitness assessments.

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369. Which of the following does NOT fall within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

a. Rehabilitating a knee injury.


b. Utilizing spotting techniques.
c. Demonstrating exercise methods.
d. Educating clients about health-related topics.

370. Kelly has been diagnosed with a ligament sprain in her knee. She has minimal impairment and
tenderness and has been advised to bear weight as tolerated. What severity level is Kelly’s
ligament sprain?

a. Grade I
b. Grade II
c. Grade III
d. Grade IV

371. Which of the following is NOT an overuse condition?

a. Tendinitis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Stress fracture
d. Bursitis

372. Which of the following is a common management technique for musculoskeletal injuries?

a. Anti-inflammatory medication
b. Avoiding aggravating movements
c. Physical therapy
d. All of the above

373. Which of the following exercises should be avoided in a person with carpal tunnel syndrome?

a. Overhead Press
b. Elbow extension
c. Abdominal crunch
d. Lat pulldown

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374. Which of the following is an example of a confidential document that should remain in a locked
drawer?

a. Daily exercise logs


b. Fitness assessment data
c. In incident report from a fall
d. Personal trainer’s schedule

375. Which of the following is based on professional standards and the trainer’s age, condition and
knowledge?

a. Standard of care
b. Statute of frauds
c. Inherent risks
d. Vicarious liability

376. At the least, how frequently should the training environment be examined for potential
hazards?

a. Once a week
b. Between every training session
c. Once a day
d. Once a month

377. The inspection of a training area should include which of the following assessments?

a. Floor surfaces are clean and appropriate for the intended use
b. All screws are tightly fastened to each piece of equipment
c. Bathrooms are clean
d. Weights have been removed from all equipment

378. What should the trainer do if an unsafe facility condition is noticed?

a. Notify management and avoid the area


b. Notify management and utilize the equipment as well as possible
c. Fix the equipment
d. Exercise caution in using the equipment

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379. What is the best course of action if you come across a piece of exercise equipment that is broken
or malfunctioning?

a. Exercise caution when using the equipment


b. Notify management
c. Put a sign on the equipment
d. Disable or remove the equipment

380. Which of the following presents a safety hazard?

a. A client who is wearing old tennis shoes and a torn t-shirt


b. Letting the client finish their set while you leave to get their folder
c. Allowing a client’s friend to watch their session
d. A client stopping the treadmill to get a drink of water

381. Which of the following goes against safety guidelines?

a. Leaving your client to take a call while they fill out paperwork
b. A client exercising in open-toed shoes
c. Your client drinking their own pre-workout drink during your session
d. Not spotting an exercise performed on a machine.

382. What is the best course of action if you notice a client going into shock?

a. Have her decrease her exercise intensity


b. Have her sit with her head between her legs
c. Activate EMS
d. Have her lie down with her feet elevated

383. Amnesia, headache, drowsiness and nausea are signs and symptoms of which condition?

a. Spinal injury
b. Concussion
c. Shock
d. Depression

384. What position should you take when spotting a client during a bench press exercise?

a. Stand with a steady base in front of the client so you can see their entire body.
b. Stand with a steady base above the client’s head with your hands following under the bar in case
they need assistance.
c. Stand to either side of the client so you can make sure their back remains flat.
d. Stand with a steady base at the client’s head with your arms in a neutral position.

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385. All of the following are examples of a secondary assessment a trainer might complete in an
emergency situation, EXCEPT:

a. Check for the ABCs.


b. Head to toe assessment looking for abrasions, swelling, etc.
c. Check vital signs such as pulse and blood pressure.
d. Keep a conversation going to reassure the victim.

386. Your client appears to have difficulty breathing while performing her circuit exercise routine. Her
evaluation is a +4 on the Dyspnea scale. What is the most appropriate action for you to take as a
trainer?

a. Have her continue to exercise as the program dictates.


b. Have her continue to exercise but make some modifications.
c. Ask her to stop exercising.
d. Ask her to grab some water and continue with the program.

387. One of the professional responsibilities of a trainer is to inspect the facility ahead of time to
ensure its safety for clients. Which of the following is NOT an example of an inspection point?

a. Check the lighting of the facility


b. Check air and heat systems
c. Check dumbbell rack to make sure there are none missing
d. Check space requirements to make sure you can safely conduct exercises

388. What should be one of the top priorities when managing your own personal training facility?

a. Protecting your intellectual property


b. Handing out marketing brochures
c. Rick management
d. Making sure all of the funding is in place

389. Which acronym represents a credible organization or agency which can be used as a valuable
resource for the ACE personal trainer?

a. ACSM
b. NMMA
c. BBB
d. USB

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390. Personal trainers can use SOAP notes to record client information and document progress. What
information is O related?

a. The client’s symptoms and progress


b. Weight, height and age measurements
c. A summary of the client’s health status
d. A summary of the next steps in the overall client plan

391. Your client has a history of exercise induced asthma. Which of the following factors is important
to consider when your client is working out?

a. Keep exercises at less than 80% of max workload.


b. Increase warm up and cool down time.
c. Consider the temperature and humidity.
d. All of the above.

392. After a client with cardiovascular disease has been cleared for exercise, an initial exercise
program should consist of which of the following?

a. High intensity, low duration exercises


b. Isometric exercises
c. Use 2 to 3 sets of 12 to 15 repetitions
d. Low intensity endurance exercises

393. Which of the following would be considered negligence for a personal trainer?

a. Not spotting your client during exercise.


b. Not letting your client perform their favorite exercise.
c. Asking your client to warm up before your appointment.
d. Arriving late for a training appointment.

394. Your client has hypoglycemia. When is the best time to schedule his exercise?

a. He should never exercise.


b. He should exercise in the morning before a meal.
c. He should exercise in the evening before a meal.
d. He should exercise in the morning after a meal.

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395. What is the primary purpose of an informed consent?

a. To get a medical release


b. To help clients understand the risks associated with exercise
c. To understand your client’s exercise history
d. To explain upcoming fitness tests

396. It is important to keep current and accurate records as part of your responsibility as a personal
trainer. Which of the following needs to be kept?

a. Medical history
b. Incident reports
c. Exercise record
d. All of the above

397. Under which one of the following scenarios should you NOT call 9-1-1?

a. Client may have a broken bone


b. Client has trouble breathing
c. Client has a seizure
d. Client is experiencing chest pain

398. Your client wants to lose 10 lbs. and wants your advice. Which of the following is considered
within your scope of practice?

a. Outline a dietary weight loss program


b. Explain some of the best diets on the market
c. Show the client how to read nutrition labels
d. All of the above

399. Any information about a victim or incident is protected by which federal law and designed to
protect privacy and confidentiality?

a. FERPA
b. HIPAA
c. ACOG
d. ACSM

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400. Which of the following does not fit within the scope of practice for an ACE Personal trainer?

a. Provide specific diet advice


b. Conduct fitness assessments
c. Develop appropriate exercise programs
d. Provide exercise instruction for various exercises

401. Your client is recovering from elbow tendinitis and has been cleared for exercise. Which of the
following should be incorporated into the exercise programming?

a. Full extension on each exercise


b. Low repetition exercises
c. High repetition exercises
d. Avoid all upper body exercises

402. If your client experiences heat cramps, what are some potential treatments?

a. Gentle massage
b. Direct pressure to the cramp and release
c. Ballistic stretching of the affected area
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b only

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ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam
Answers with Explanations

1. b - The investigation stage occurs between the rapport stage and planning stage, and is
typically when a trainer will ask a client to fill out a health-history or lifestyle
questionnaire.

2. c - When you are first meeting a client and verbal and non-verbal communication are
extremely important to consider, you are in the rapport stage.

3. c - This is an example of gathering information, which you should do before the planning
stage. This is part of the investigation stage.

4. c - In the precontemplation phase people are beginning to understand the implications of


being inactive, but are not quite ready to commit to a change yet.

5. b - A person in the preparation phase may be somewhat sporadic in their activity level, but
is ready to make the change to a healthy lifestyle.

6. c - It is considered best to test a client’s static posture after taking resting measures but
before getting into training.

7. a - The PAR-Q is a simple questionnaire designed to screen for readiness for low to
moderate intensity training.

8. b - If a client answers “yes” to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary
for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program
before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal.

9. b - If a client answers “yes” to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary
for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program
before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal.

10. c - Although Bill is at a higher than average fitness level for his age, because he is over 45
years old and has a family history of heart disease, he has 2 points on the risk factor scale,
therefore requiring a medical exam before any vigorous exercise is initiated.

11. b - Although Wendy has been living a sedentary lifestyle, since she is a woman under 55
without any other risk cardiovascular factors she only has 1 point on the risk stratification
scale, which means she does not need a medical exam before beginning any exercise
program.

12. d - Since Bob is over 45 years old, it has been less than 6 months since he quit smoking and
he also has a BMI of 32, he has 3 points on the risk stratification scale. Note that since Bob
has a BMI above 25, you have to assume prediabetes which makes him symptomatic.

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Based o these factors, Bob is considered high risk, therefore he needs to have a medical
examination prior to beginning an exercise program.

13. c - The health history questionnaire collects detailed information about an individual’s
health background such as medications, surgeries, family history and lifestyle information.

14. a - The informed consent form is where your client acknowledges their “assumption of
risk”, serves as evidence of disclosure of risks and communicates the potential dangers of
exercise. It does not release liability.

15. b - The exercise history and attitude questionnaire collects information on the client’s
adherence and behavior history and is helpful in developing goals.

16. d - The exercise history and attitude questionnaire asks questions about a person’s beliefs
and feelings toward exercise.

17. d - An individual with blood pressure greater than or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and/or
90 mmHg diastolic is considered to be hypertensive, or high blood pressure, making it a
risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

18. d - COPD is a common respiratory problem, affecting the lungs and an individual’s oxygen
carrying capacity.

19. c - The best course of action is to modify with cross training that does not aggravate the
pain. This will keep her active without further injuring herself. Diagnosing and treating an
injury is not within the scope of practice.

20. c - The best course of action is to modify with cross training that does not aggravate the
pain. This will keep her active without further injuring herself. Diagnosing and treating an
injury is not within the scope of practice.

21. b - It is very important for a client receiving insulin for diabetes to consult with a physician
prior to beginning any kind of exercise program, both for legal reasons as well as client
safety.

22. a - Beta-blockers keep a person’s heart rate from going up past a certain point, therefore
rendering heart rate monitoring useless for determining the intensity at which someone is
exercising. Therefore, RPE is the only way you will be able to determine if this person is
exercising at the desired intensity.

23. c - Some cold medicines can increase a person’s exercising heart rate. These are generally
medications designed for sinus congestion.

24. d - Almost all of the initial assessment factors should be re-assessed after a period of 1-3
months to determine any changes that may have taken place.

25. c - If a client has 1 or more risk factors, you may not legally train him or her without a
signed consent form from his/her physician.

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26. d - These are 3 major considerations when choosing which assessments to utilize with
clients. Some factors may rule out certain assessments or make certain assessments more
necessary than others. Availability of Equipment and the testing environment are also
factors in these decisions.

27. c - The pulse can only be felt on arteries, and the most common sites are the carotid artery
in the neck and the radial artery on the thumb side of the inside of the wrist.

28. c - The pulse can only be felt on arteries, and the most common sites are the carotid artery
in the neck and the radial artery on the thumb side of the inside of the wrist.

29. b - Although resting heart rate may be slightly lower when a client is lying down or has just
woken up, it is only necessary for them to be sitting to acquire an accurate resting heart
rate.

30. a - In order to hear the blood flow when releasing the pressure of the cuff, the
stethoscope must be placed on the inside of the client’s arm at the bend of the elbow.

31. b - When a client’s mood profile shows “positive engagement” this means that their mood
has been improving since beginning training, and they may answer “feel very strongly” to
feelings such as refreshed, enthusiastic, relaxed or upbeat on the Exercise-Induced Feeling
Inventory.

32. a - With a posterior pelvic tilt, the line of symmetry is tilted posteriorly, creating a
posterior tilt.

33. c - Stability and mobility training must take place before movement training or load and
performance training to ensure a proper base. This will decrease the chance of injury and
increase performance levels.

34. a - Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are
tight. When an anterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight hip
flexors and/or erector spinae, causing lordosis in the lumbar spine.

35. b - When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing


the action that is occurring. In the case of an anterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the
rectus abdominis and the hamstrings.

36. b - Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are
tight. When a posterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight rectus
abdominis and/or hamstrings, possibly causing reverse lordosis in the lumbar spine.

37. a - When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing


the action that is occurring. In the case of a posterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the hip
flexors and erector spinae.

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38. c - Movement of the shoulder joint is not being monitored with this screen, therefore the
position of the scapulae is not important to observe.

39. a - The muscles that oppose the inward movement of the knees are weak and the muscles
that generate it are tight, therefore causing the movement to occur.

40. c - The plantarflexor muscles cause the heels to elevate, therefore tight, or overactive,
plantarflexors can lead to the inability to keep heels in contact with the floor.

41. b - The bend and lift screen generates a stretch in the plantarflexor muscles. If these
muscles are tight the client’s heels will come off the ground during the test.

42. c - Body mass index is a ratio of weight to height, which does not determine the amount of
body fat a person is comprised of.

43. a - Hydrostatic weighing, or underwater weighing, is a method of measuring body fat


percentage by completely submerging a person in water and assessing the volume of
water displacement.

44. c - In some cases, clients may have more body fat than a caliper can measure.

45. d - Most forms of body fat testing other than skinfold measurement are pricey and
uncomfortable, and are not usually necessary for determining progress. Instead you can
utilize BMI and circumference measurements to determine progress, as these will change
along with body fat percentage.

46. d - BIA passes electrical signals through fat, lean mass and water in the body to determine
body fat percentage.

47. c - The triceps (back of the arm), thighs and suprailium area are places women are known
to hold fat; therefore it is important to assess these areas in a body fat percentage test.

48. d - The chest, thighs and abdominal area are places men are known to hold fat, therefore
it is important to assess these areas in a body fat percentage test.

49. b - BMI is a ratio of weight to height, or weight/height. You must make sure to first convert
height to meters and weight to kilograms.

50. c - A waist to hip ratio of 0.86 or higher is considered “at risk” for women.

51. c - A waist to hip ratio of .95 or higher is considered “at risk” for men.

52. a - A person’s estimated maximum heart rate is calculated by subtracting 220 from the
person’s age: (220 – age).

53. b - A person’s estimated maximum heart rate is 220 – age.

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54. c - A VO2max assessment tests a person’s ability to take in and utilize oxygen, which is
directly related to cardiorespiratory fitness.

55. b - The Bruce Submaximal treadmill test is typically performed to maximal effort in 3-
minute stages until the client reaches 85% of their estimated maximum heart rate. This
test may be too difficult and demanding for older or less fit individuals.

56. b - The push-up test measures upper-body muscular endurance because it requires
multiple repetitions over a period of minutes.

57. b - The bodyweight squat test measures lower body muscular endurance because it
requires multiple repetitions over a period of minutes.

58. d - Absolute strength is tested with a one-repetition maximum test in which the maximum
amount of resistance that can be lifted one time is determined.

59. d - If an individual demonstrates improper form, is new to exercise or has hypertension


they should avoid 1 RM tests for safety reasons.

60. d - Power tests are vigorous and can be hard on the body. Not much data exists on power
in middle-aged to older adults because it is generally deemed unnecessary unless it is a
client’s specific goal.

61. c - The vertical jump test assesses muscular power in the lower body.

62. d - There are many factors that can cause a fitness test to be inaccurate.

63. c - Repeating back what you hear can be helpful in showing empathy, since this allows you
to make sure you are hearing your client correctly and understand their wants and needs.

64. d - Fitness indicators need to be measureable, and since clothing size varies from brand to
brand and is not specific to the person, it is not a functional SMART goal indicator.

65. b - This SMART goal is specific (body weight, 2 minutes), measureable (30 in 2 minutes),
attainable (it is not out of her reach), relevant (lower body strength) and time-bound
(within one week).

66. b - When listening, it is important not to give advice or try to explain anything. It is
important to make sure your client feels heard and understood, and that is all.

67. a - The readiness to change questionnaire asks questions pertaining to a person’s


emotional readiness to change.

68. a - Structural deviations can be compensated for and worked around, but are not
correctible in that you cannot fix the problem you can only reduce the severity of the
symptoms.

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69. b - The investigation stage is when the trainer should learn about the client, including their
likes and dislikes.

70. b - Potential movement compensations can be identified through static postural


assessments.

71. a - Telling your client to visit choosemyplate.gov is within the ACE trainer’s scope of
practice and is a good way to get your client on the right track nutritionally.

72. c - The push up test evaluates muscular fitness. It is 2 minutes or less in duration and
focuses on one muscle group.

73. a - The Rockport Fitness Walking Test evaluates cardiorespiratory fitness in that it is more
than 2 minutes long and is of low-moderate intensity.

74. d - A 1RM test evaluates absolute strength, as it determines the greatest amount of weight
that can be lifted at one time.

75. d - All of the above are possible symptoms or warning signs that merit test termination to
ensure the safety of the client.

76. c - Reactivity evaluates the time it takes a person to react to a stimulus.

77. a - Power is determined using work performed in a certain amount of time.


Power = work/time.

78. d - Agility involves stages of acceleration, stabilization and deceleration. It evaluates an


individual’s ability to change direction in a certain amount of time.

79. a - The steps of determining an individual’s goal weight based on their goal body fat
percentage are as follows: Determine fat weight, determine lean body weight, and
calculate goal weight.

80. b - When a person has a low body fat percentage and a heavy weight, BMI may state that
he or she is overweight or obese when this person is in fact heavy in muscle, not in fat.
This renders BMI an insufficient method for determining obesity.

81. d - The abdomen should be measured at the level of the umbilicus for best results. Waist
circumference is taken at the smallest part.

82. b - The circumference of the upper thigh should be measured at the largest part, or just
below the gluteal fold.

83. c - The measurement of the arm should be taken between the acromion (lateral portion of
the collarbone) and the olecranon process (elbow) with the arm relaxed for best results.

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84. d - Tape measure should be non-elastic, you should gently touch the tape to the skin, take
duplicate measurements but choose one or the other, and rotate through measurement
sites.

85. c - Waist-to-hip ratio is determined by waist circumference divided by hip circumference.

86. a - An individual’s estimated MHR is 220 - age. In Jose’s case this is 202 bpm.

87. c - The approximate standard deviation for MHR is plus or minus 12 beats per minute,
meaning a man of 22 years could have a maximum heart rate that falls between 186-210
bpm.

88. d - If possible, heart rate should be monitored continuously during a cardiorespiratory


assessment.

89. a - One MET is equivalent to oxygen consumption at rest, which is approximately 3.5
mL/kg/min.

90. c - RPEs should be taken during the last 5 seconds of every minute of a cardiorespiratory
assessment.

91. b - VO2 max is the maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per kg of
body weight. It is also called maximum oxygen uptake or maximal aerobic capacity.

92. b - Carbohydrates are the main source of fuel after the first ventilatory threshold is
reached.

93. c – Cardiovascular drift is an increase in heart rate when workload has not been altered,
and can lead to unsafe complications.

94. a - Income, education and gender are all related to adherence when it comes to physical
activity. The only factor that has been shown to be unrelated is age.

95. d – Clients tend to drop out twice as much when they do high intensity workouts
compared to moderate intensity programs.

96. c – A personal trainer should first seek to establish the functions of daily living, followed by
improvements in health markers, then fitness, and performance issues are last.

97. a – Phase I of exercise progressions have to do with restoring the functions of daily living.
Clients should be able to show proficient core stabilization and proper form before adding
any loads to exercises.

98. d – The Par-Q is a questionnaire designed to uncover any health or medical concerns. The
last question (d) is something you might expect to see on an exercise questionnaire.

99. c – The informed consent is also known as assumed risk form. It outlines the risks
associated with exercise.

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100. a – Peter has a risk stratification of +3. He receives one point each for his age, BMI and
lifestyle.

101. b – While there are several ways to monitor a client’s exercise intensity, the fastest and
easiest way is by listening to them talk while exercising. Notice to see if the client is able to
perform the exercises while being able to say more than a few words without too much
exertion.

102. d – There are a number of factors which can influence resting heart rate including fatigue,
drugs and medication and caffeine.

103. c – Cognitive behavioral techniques include feedback, self-monitoring, decision making


and goal setting. A written contract is not a cognitive behavioral technique.

104. c – Amy is classified in the moderate risk category. She does not need a medical
examination prior to moderate exercise. However, she would need it prior to vigorous
exercise.

105. d – There are four primary muscles that act as hip extensors including the biceps femoris,
gluteus maximus, semitendinosus and semimembranosus. The gluteus medius is a hip
abductor.

106. a - The anaerobic power training phase is considered the highest level of work for the most
advanced training. All three phases of training should be completed prior to reaching
phase 4.

107. c – If your client has lordosis, this is an indication that the lumbar extensors are shortened
and tight. It also means the hip extensors, neck flexors and scapular stabilizers are
lengthened.

108. d - Active listening is when you are able to listen carefully while also showing empathy for
the client.

109. a – The push up test is a standardized test to measure upper body endurance.

110. b – Diuretics are not known to cause any changes in resting heart rate, exercising heart
rate or maximal exercising heart rate.

111. b – Clients with metabolic syndrome should start out with low intensity activities and
resistance training twice a week. They should also target 200 to 300 minutes per week for
between 3 to 5 days.

112. d – Each of the movements mentioned can be of concern and need to be avoided when
designing a training program with a client who has osteoporosis.

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113. a – In the frontal plane (sagittal plane), fundamental movements include flexion,
extension, hyperextension, dorsiflexion and plantarflexion.

114. c – When the muscle shortens in response to muscle tension, it is a concentric action.

115. a – The adductor magnus is one of the muscles of the hip that produces adduction and
internal rotation.

116. b – One serving is 280 calories. Since there are two servings in this container, there are 560
calories in total. Fat calories are equal to 13g x 9 calories per gram = 117 fat calories. Then,
multiply by 2 for a 2 serving container – 2 x 117 = 234 fat calories.

117. d – All of the factors mentioned above are risk factors when a man increases his waist
circumference by as little as one inch.

118. d – If Mary has her back flat on the table and her knee does not flex to 80 degrees and her
lowered thigh does not touch, then you should suspect her primary hip flexor muscles are
tight.

119. a – Scoliosis is considered a congenital condition which is not correctable through exercise.
However, side dominance, stability and mobility restrictions and muscle imbalances can all
be corrected.

120. a – Anything below 20 seconds is considered poor performance for a male.

121. d – If your client exhibits a forward head position, then the muscles that are tight include
the cervical spine extensors, levator scapulae, and upper trapezius.

122. b – Each of the tests mentioned are assessments tools. However, only one of them
(Thoracic spine mobility screen) is known to assess a client’s mobility.

123. c – The trunk lateral endurance test is an assessment of the lateral core muscles which
includes the obliques.

124. c – There are four servings of one ounce each for a total of 620 calories in the package.

125. b - Based on study of client-feedback, the most important aspect of a good first impression
consisted of a trainer listening and being genuinely interested in what they had to say.

126. d - Tone of voice, facial expressions and body language can all effect how a client views
and hears you, regardless of what you are saying.

127. d - Paraphrasing is a great way to show the client that you are listening as well as to make
sure you are hearing what they are saying correctly.

128. d - Any question that requires an answer other than “yes” or “no” is an open-ended
question and keeps the conversation going.

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129. b - Adding resistance is the next step in strength increase. This will produce significant
results in lower body strength as opposed to increasing repetitions.

130. c - As a trainer you should always explain how to perform the exercise and show your
client how it should look before they perform it. You should also allow them to try it
immediately after, while you are with them.

131. b - The quadriceps are the main group of muscles responsible for extending the knee.

132. a - The hamstrings are the main group of muscles responsible for flexing the knee.

133. a - Exercise behaviors of those people who are closest to your clients are likely to impact
the likelihood of your client’s success. This is called Observational Learning.

134. d - ACSM gives a general guideline of 3-5 days of cardiorespiratory exercise per week for
healthy adults.

135. a - ACSM gives a general guideline of 2-3 days of resistance exercise per week for healthy
adults.

136. a - Functional/resistance training and cardiorespiratory training are considered to be the


principal components of fitness. The model divides them into four phases of training,
personalizing the types for each client.

137. b - Health related assessments are typically covered in the first real week of training, after
the client has been determined to be healthy and prepared for exercise but before more
complex areas of fitness are tested.

138. d - It is important to ensure adequate stability and mobility before progressing to


increased load or performance training.

139. a - Anaerobic power training is typically the last phase in cardiorespiratory training
because a person needs a good aerobic foundation in order to train for power.

140. b - In order to maintain aerobic-base training, a person must stay under their first
ventilator threshold, which means talking in sentences of more than a few words in length.

141. d - Anaerobic-power training overloads the fast glycolytic system and challenges the
phosphagen system with high intensity intervals, which are typically sport specific.

142. a - Moderate exercise is considered any form of exercise that can be sustained for 45
minutes with a MET level of 3-6 and 40-60% of the individual’s VO2max.

143. b - Vigorous exercise is defined as exercising at a MET level above 6 and performing above
60% of an individual’s VO2max. There is a substantial cardiorespiratory challenge involved,
and this level cannot e sustained for very long.

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144. a - The anaerobic or lactate threshold is used as a marker of exercise performance as it is
thought to indicate when an exercise intensity can no longer be sustained.

145. a - Power = Force x Velocity, or Work/Time. It takes into account how quickly and
forcefully a person can perform an activity.

146. a - Muscular imbalance occurs first, setting off the course to dysfunctional movement and
system breakdowns.

147. a - Poor exercise technique is an example of an initial muscular imbalance which sets the
stage for neurological alterations and compromises in the mobility-stability relationship.
Muscular imbalances are always physical and generally simple, like repetitive motion.

148. d - The muscle that is doing the “work” against the resistance is the muscle that shortens,
which is called the agonist. In this case, it is the quadriceps.

149. a - The muscle that is doing the “work” against the resistance is the muscle that shortens,
which is called the agonist. In this case, it is the hamstrings.

150. a - The muscle that is opposing the “work”, or lengthening with the resistance, is the
antagonist. In this case it is the hamstrings.

151. d - The muscle that is opposing the “work”, or lengthening with the resistance, is the
antagonist. In this case it is the quadriceps.

152. c - An isometric contraction occurs when there is no lengthening or shortening of the


muscles, which only occurs when there is no movement, as in a wall sit.

153. b - A concentric contraction occurs when the agonist muscle shortens, generating force.
This occurs during the force-producing phase of the exercise, which in this case the
hamstrings produce in the curling phase of a leg curl.

154. d - An eccentric contraction occurs when the muscle opposing the action, or the
antagonist, lengthens. In this case it is the quadriceps lengthening during a leg curl.

155. c - The length-tension relationship refers to sarcomere length and the relationship
between the contractile proteins actin and myosin, which determine the force production
of a muscle fiber.

156. b - The force-couple relationship refers to contralateral and directional opposing pulls at
joints, which in turn keep them stable.

157. a - Neural control controls and stabilizes movement at joints through transmitting
impulses to the indented supporting muscles.

158. d - A neutral pelvic position is the desired position of the pelvis, facilitated by the force-
couple relationship of muscles pulling around the joints to maintain stability.

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159. a - The lumbar spine is generally where the center of mass is located. That is why proximal
stability of the lumbar spine is the priority when beginning stability and mobility training.

160. d - Static balance is the goal and final stage of stability and mobility training. Once a person
reaches static balance they can move on to resistance programs and progressions.

161. b - A client who is deconditioned with poor flexibility (a level less than 80 degrees on the
passive leg stretch is considered tight) and muscle imbalance should start out with
myofascial release, a good warm-up and static stretching to prevent injury.

162. c - A client who is a performance athlete and exhibits good skill and flexibility would
benefit most from dynamic and ballistic stretches to prepare their muscles for sport
specific exercise.

163. d - The rectus femoris muscles are located in the extremities, not the central part of the
body referred to as the “core”.

164. a - Supine bent-knee marches are designed to improve hip mobility without compromising
lumbar stability.

165. c - Hip-width stance is the safest, most effective stance to utilize in the beginning stage of
static-balance training.

166. b - The ACL is responsible for connecting the femur to the tibia, stabilizing the femur on
the tibia during knee extension, preventing the tibia from sliding forward and preventing
excessive internal rotation of the tibia during walking.

167. c - The Q-angle is the angle formed by the femur and the patellar ligament, which is
generally larger in women due to increased laxity in joints.

168. c - The tibia should be parallel to the torso in that the thighs are parallel to the ground.

169. a - A lateral hip shift is most likely to occur as a subconscious attempt to re-adjust the base
of support to center.

170. d - Moving the leg away from the body laterally in the frontal plane is abduction (think
“the leg is being abducted, or taken away, from the body”).

171. a - Moving the leg toward the body medially in the frontal plane is adduction (think
“adding the leg to the body).

172. c - The chest press is a “pushing exercise” because the push represents the concentric
portion of the exercise.

173. d - Any form of rowing falls into the “pulling exercise” category as the pull represents the
concentric portion of the exercise.

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174. b - If Linda loses muscle but maintains the same weight, she has to have gained body fat at
the same rate as the muscle was lost. If muscle was lost at the projected rate of 0.5
pounds per year and it has been 20 years, Linda will have gained approximately 10 pounds
of body fat.

175. a - The amount of muscle a person has is directly related to their resting metabolic rate in
that it takes energy to maintain muscle mass. Less muscle mass requires less energy,
therefore decreasing energy expenditure while at rest, or RMR.

176. a - Glycogen and creatine phosphate are the main substrates utilized for anaerobic energy
production.

177. b - Fatty acids are the main substrate utilized for aerobic energy production.

178. b - Most strength increases in the first two weeks of a training program are typically due to
increased motor unit recruitment within the nervous system as opposed to an increase in
muscle size, which comes later.

179. b - Myofibrillar hypertrophy refers to an increase in the number of contractile proteins, or


myofibrils, in a muscle cell, or fiber.

180. c - Transient hypertrophy, not to be confused with sarcoplasmic hypertrophy which is an


increase in sarcoplasm around the muscle cells, is the condition in which fluid accumulates
around muscle cells and quickly dissipates after exercise.

181. a - The likelihood of hypertrophy occurring is not dependent on how much muscle a
person starts out with.

182. c - Type I muscle fibers are typically smaller with the capacity to sustain low levels of
activity for extended periods of time. There is no such thing as type Ib muscle fibers.

183. c - Most people can complete about 10 repetitions at 75% of their 1RM.

184. b - Training with moderate resistance at moderate to fast speeds is most effective for
reaching a person’s highest power output potential.

185. d - Speed is one of the six skill-related parameters that affect strength development and
program design. These are - Power, speed, balance, agility, coordination and reactivity.

186. c - Muscular strength is one of the 5 health-related parameters that affect strength
development and program design. These are - Aerobic capacity, muscular endurance,
muscular strength, flexibility and body composition.

187. a - A person who is not currently training or is just beginning should start out exercising
between 2 and 3 times per week.

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188. c - According to ACSM guidelines, a minimum of 48 hours should be allotted for recovery
of each muscle group worked between sessions. This is the estimated amount of time it
takes for muscle to completely recover from resistance exercise.

189. a - A superset is a compound of exercises or sets of exercises performed in sequence with


little or no rest between them.

190. c - When alternating pushing versus pulling, the exercises must alternate between
targeting muscles on either side of the joint. Biceps are on anterior side of the elbow joint
and triceps are on the posterior side.

191. c - The twining volume of an exercise is determined by multiplying the sets by the
repetitions by the resistance. Therefore, John’s training volume is 3 x 10 x 50 = 1500 total
pounds lifted.

192. d - For general muscle fitness it is recommended that a person complete 1-2 sets of
between 8-15 repetitions.

193. a - For muscular endurance it is recommended to perform 2-3 sets of 12 or more


repetitions.

194. b - When training for hypertrophy it is recommended to complete 3-6 sets of 6-12
repetitions.

195. b - While some other muscles may act as stabilizers, the hip flexors and extensors are the
main muscles utilized in hiking, and therefore should be the muscles targeted during
resistance training.

196. a - It is important to choose an appropriate number of repetitions for the desired


outcome. When looking to improve endurance, a low-moderate resistance and high
number of repetitions should be used.

197. d - The principle of overload refers to gradually increasing resistance above what the
muscles have previously encountered in order to achieve strength gains.

198. d - Stability and mobility training consists of isometric contractions and stretching to
facilitate core strength.

199. a - Movement training consists of developing movement efficiency in all three planes of
motion. Bending and lifting movements is one example.

200. b - Load training adds muscle force production to movement training, adding resistance to
movement. The leg extension is one example of this.

201. c - Performance training is specific to a sport or activity, and generally incorporates power.
Depth jumps are one example of this.

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202. d - The Movement training phase consists of body weight only exercises to improve
strength with movement and prepare a client for the Load training phase.

203. b - When training for muscular strength it is recommended to train at an intensity of


between 70 and 90 percent of your 1RM, and for optimal strength development 80-90%.

204. b - It is recommended when training for hypertrophy, or size increase, to train at 70-80%
of a person’s 1RM with a moderate number of repetitions and little rest between sets.

205. a - It is recommended that a person training for muscular endurance should train at an
intensity level between 60 and 70percent of their 1RM. This will facilitate the performance
of a high volume of repetitions necessary for muscular endurance.

206. d - Training for power is generally accomplished through plyometric exercise, which
utilizes the stretch-shortening cycle to generate optimal force. This involves an active
stretch followed by immediate shortening of the targeted muscle, facilitating increased
force production.

207. b - The muscle spindle detects quick stretches and invokes an involuntary contraction,
increasing force production.

208. d - The complexity of movement, speed at which the exercise is performed, person’s body
weight, vertical height or movement and points of contact all affect the intensity of a
plyometric workout.

209. c - Adolescents should perform resistance training approximately 2-3 non-consecutive


days per week.

210. d - Older adults should avoid isometric exercises in which a muscle is held in a position of
contraction as this can increase blood pressure. Older adults should also avoid holding
their breath during resistance training for the same reason.

211. c - Any resistance training should be performed with enough resistance to tire before the
anaerobic threshold of 2 minutes in order to be beneficial for muscle development.

212. d - An expansion of blood volume occurs due to cardiorespiratory training.

213. d - According to ACSM guidelines, a person should perform aerobic activity in bouts of at
least 10 minutes in length.

214. d - It is recommended by ACSM that a healthy adult participate in either moderate-


intensity exercise 5 days per week, vigorous-intensity exercise 3 days per week, or a
combination of the two.

215. a - Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) is the difference between a person’s resting heart rate and
their maximum heart rate (MHR). We can use the Karvonen method to determine her
HRR. Since Monica is 40, we can determine her MHR by subtraction 40 from 220, which
gives us 180 bpm. Then we take 70 away from 180 to get a HRR of 110 bpm.

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216. b - A deconditioned person with a “poor” fitness classification should exercise at
approximately 57-67% of their maximum heart rate. For Michael, this is 96-114 bpm. You
should be able to deduce this without calculating past his MHR by simply looking at the
ranges.

217. b - A conditioned person with an “excellent” fitness classification should perform


cardiorespiratory exercise at 84-94% of their MHR. This is 160-179 bpm for Michelle. You
should be able to deduce this without calculating past his MHR by simply looking at the
ranges.

218. d - According to the classic 6-20 Borg scale of RPE, a 6 equates to “Nothing at all”.

219. c - Aerobic exercise depends on oxygen to burn calories, and anaerobic does not.

220. c - Any person who is of a fair fitness level or higher can generally safely exercise from 30-
90 minutes per day.

221. b - A person of a poor fitness level should exercise for between 20 and 30 minutes per day.

222. d - Fartlek training involves varying the intensity of a workout to involve both aerobic and
anaerobic systems into the exercise. It is not as structured as interval training in that
intensity is varied based on how the body feels.

223. b - Training zone 2 is characterized by moderate-vigorous intensity exercise. There is no


zone 4.

224. d - The circumference of a muscle does not directly influence the strength contained
therein. Muscle circumference can be affected by fluid retention and many other factors
that do not affect strength performance.

225. b – It is important to monitor intensity as one of the most critical elements. However, it
can also be one of the most difficult to measure.

226. a – The majority of healthy adults can exercise 150 minutes of moderate intensity exercise
each week.

227. c – A cool down should be performed for 5 to 10 minutes following a workout to decrease
any chances of pooling blood in the extremities.

228. c – Mind-body exercise is designed to help a person’s breathing, focus and re-emphasize
the mind-body connection.

229. b – Each of the hormones mentioned above, except cortisol, are fast acting. They are
responsible for bringing blood glucose levels back down. Cortisol is a slower acting
hormone.

230. c – Phosphagen has the fastest rate of ATP production.

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231. c - The four SIT muscles that surround the rotator cuff are the infraspinatus, subscapularis,
teres minor and supraspinatus.

232. b - The most mobile joint in the body is the shoulder.

233. d – It’s appropriate to refer her to government websites like MyPlate as well as ask
questions to get her to consider what the diet may or may not offer. Good probing
questions may include ‘what is the nutrient density’, ‘does it make sense’, and ‘is it
healthy’?

234. a – Stability and mobility is the first step in the ACE Integrated Training Model.

235. d – Each of these adaptations are likely to occur when a client engages in regular,
consistent exercise.

236. b – Try to minimize eccentric actions early in your resistance program to lessen the effects
of DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness)

237. a – Dynamic stretching is the most popular and effective method of stretching to do prior
to a workout or sport event or competition.

238. d – It is best to start Mark out with a low level of cardio with intensity that places his
breathing and exertion below the talk test level.

239. a – Clients should be able to squat 1.5 times their body weight or perform 5 squats with
60% of their own boy weight within 5 seconds.

240. b – For low intensity drills, clients at an intermediate level should be making 100 to 150
contacts per session.

241. a – Lateral shuffles are an excellent example of an agility training drill.

242. b – For a sporadic exerciser with a fair to average fitness classification, the appropriate
exercise intensity is 74% to 84% MHR.

243. c – Regardless of the workout, a proper warm up should be 5 to 10 minutes of low to


moderate intensity exercise.

244. a - Six seconds is considered the best movement speed per repetition for new exercisers .
It is recommended to be 1 to 3 seconds on the concentric part and 2 to 4 seconds on the
eccentric part.

245. d – The key 5 movements are bend and lift movements, single leg movements, pulling
movements, rotational movements, and rotational movements.

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246. d – There are many reasons why muscles can become imbalanced. It can be the result of a
structural issue, one side dominance, poor positions, repetition in poor positions, etc.

247. d – A typical progression would be to recommend muscle isolation exercises and


progressing to multijoint exercises.

248. b - The principle of reversibility implies that a client will likely lose all their gains and
potentially return to pre-training levels if they do not continue training or follow a
maintenance program.

249. c – The joint capsule or ligaments account for 47% of the resistance that is encountered
and prohibits a full range of motion.

250. d - The digestive system handles the absorption, digestion and elimination processes of
the body.

251. a – The proper progression is to move from isometric contractions with 2 to 4 reps, then to
1 to 3 sets of dynamic ROM exercises.

252. b - The glenohumeral joint is responsible for mobility as opposed to stability. Each of the
other joints is responsible for stability.

253. a – One of the most common problems people face when squatting is not enough ankle
dorsiflexion and they have trouble keeping their heels down.

254. b – The general training guidelines for a person with intermediate experience is 3 to 4
sessions per week.

255. d – There are four ways the body gives off heat including radiation, evaporation,
conduction and convection.

256. d- John needs to stay in the movement training phase until he is able to demonstrate
control over his range of motion as well as execute each of the exercises with good form.

257. b - A person exercising for the purpose of general fitness should rest for 30-90 seconds in
between sets of a resistance exercise.

258. a - When training for muscular endurance, a rest interval of less than 30 seconds in
between sets of resistance exercise is optimal.

259. c - When training for muscular strength or power a person should rest for a good 2-5
minutes between sets of resistance exercise.

260. b - A sequence of controlled shoulder movements with one arm raised an inch off the
ground is an appropriate beginning exercise for core stability.

261. d - An athlete with advanced skill like James should train no less than 4 times a week and
can train up to 7 if done properly.

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262. d - While it is recommended to wait 48 hours in between general resistance training
sessions, when training at a workload as high as 80-90% of a client’s 1RM it is
recommended to wait 72 hours before working the muscle group again.

263. d - The single leg stance offers the greatest challenge in static-balance training.

264. c - When progressively increasing a workload (resistance., it is best to increase in


increments of 5%, which in this case is 10 pounds.

265. b - It is important to stay within the 2-minute range, or anaerobic range, when performing
strength training. Therefore, increasing the number of repetitions performed during the 2-
minute timeframe is the best way to progress with a bodyweight exercise.

266. c - When ceasing resistance exercise a person will lose strength at approximately one half
of the rate in which it was gained. Therefore, about half of Jim’s strength gains will be lost
in 5 weeks.

267. d - When a client begins to experience diminishing returns due to having reached their full
genetic potential, introducing a new form of exercise will change the stimulus and force
their body to continue changing.

268. d - Periodization is about intentionally varying the components of training, especially


volume and intensity, over specific segments of time.

269. b - When training for hypertrophy an individual performs a large number of exercises with
short recovery periods, which does not facilitate a simple 5% increase for every exercise.
Therefore, when training for hypertrophy intensity increases are determined on an
individual basis.

270. d - Jumps in place are the best starting point for a beginner, as they are the lowest on the
scale of intensity.

271. c - The Performance training phase should last at least four weeks.

272. a - A beginner should perform at less than 70% of their maximum effort for a period of 15-
30 seconds.

273. b - Since cardio exercise is not typically in the form of repetitions, this is an ineffective way
of monitoring exercise intensity.

274. b - Using the frequency x duration x intensity in RPE equation, 60 x 3 x 5 = 900 points on
the training progression scale.

275. c - This is a general knowledge question. Walking slowly has been assigned a MET value of
2.0, where running has been assigned a MET value of 11.5.

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276. c - Since Jacob cannot talk comfortably while training, he is in training zone 3. There is no
training zone 4.

277. b - Any reoccurring injury should be addressed by a physical therapist to avoid further
injury through exercise.

278. a - In order to stay within your scope of practice, you may not give advice about
supplements to a client. Referring them to another professional who is able to give such
advice is the best course of action.

279. a - A person’s past participation in a fitness related program is one of the best predictors
of his or her current participation.

280. d - It is important to sit down with this client and explain the importance of their exercise
program, showing them how they will reach their goals by showing up and following their
plan. Changing the time of sessions can be helpful as well.

281. a - For her goal, age and level of conditioning this goal is attainable, measurable (12
minutes), specific (complete the mile., relevant (wants to run a 5k) and time-bound (within
one month). These are all the components that make up a SMART goal.

282. c - His main goal is to decrease his body fat percentage, which deals with body
composition. Therefore, a relevant goal would be specific to body composition.

283. c - Always avoid setting goals with negative connotations. It is much easier to stick to a
positive goal than avoid a negative one. A better goal would be “Emily will attend every
scheduled session in October.”

284. a - Respecting your client’s beliefs and lifestyle is important to forming a positive client-
trainer relationship. This is all that is needed to treat your client with cultural competence.

285. d - At this point he is ready to test his muscular endurance and strength as you have
determined he is not a health risk and begun steps to correct any postural issues. Skill-
related assessments should be saved for after you have determined his need for strength
and/or endurance training.

286. d - Scapular protraction occurs when the serratus anterior and synergistic muscles are
tight and muscles of the upper back are weak. Chest press is an exercise that strengthens
the serratus anterior, and should be avoided to prevent increased tightness in the muscles
causing the imbalance.

287. b - If the right shoulder appears to be lower, the likely cause is elevation of the left
shoulder. This can be caused by tight, shortened muscles pulling it upward. The muscles
that elevate the shoulder are the upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids.

288. d - All of the above are acceptable ways to increase difficulty of a single-leg squat.

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289. b - Movement assessments should be administered on a monthly basis to determine if the
client has mastered the movements necessary in order to move on to the Load training
phase.

290. c - Muscular strength and endurance should be periodically assessed throughout the Load
training phase in order to aid in program design and ensure progression.

291. b - When utilizing traditional training methods, the appropriate rate of progression for
increasing resistance in most resistance training programs is 5%.

292. c - Resistance progression should be based on completion of repetitions in all sets. Once
the client can complete the end-range of repetitions in all sets of a given exercise, he or
she is ready to increase the load.

293. d - Performance training focuses on developing power, speed, agility and reactivity specific
to the client’s performance goals. Therefore, it is important to assess the client’s ability to
perform such tasks in order to determine the level of training to implement as well as to
determine their progress.

294. b - Crossover, cutting and curving are the most complex movements in power training and
should come only after rotational movement has been mastered.

295. c - Once the client can sustain steady-state cardio for 20-30 minutes they are ready to
move to phase 2, or Aerobic-efficiency training.

296. b - The only reason to progress from Aerobic-efficiency training to Anaerobic-endurance


training is if your client has anaerobic-specific goals or is bored and physically ready for the
challenge. If a client is reaching their goals in phase 2 it is perfectly alright to keep them
there.

297. b - Aerobic base training is the first phase of the ACE IFT model. It gets sedentary clients to
begin exercising at a low-moderate intensity.

298. d - Continuing to utilize zone 1 cardiorespiratory training intermittently can help a client to
feel confident and increase self-efficacy, which can decrease the possibility of overtraining
syndrome occurring.

299. d - Phase 1 of cardiorespiratory training should not pass level 1 on the talk test. The client
should be able to perform this exercise without becoming exhausted and should be
relatively comfortable throughout the exercise.

300. b - Ideally, a person in phase 2 of their cardiorespiratory training should aim for 3 days of
cardio exercise per week in order to progress.

301. d - When progressing in functional movement and resistance training it is important to


start with static exercises and move to movement training. Plank is a static exercise
focusing on core and torso movements on a stability ball focus on the core as well but with
added movement, thus progressing the exercise in a positive direction.

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302. c - The period of time a client has been training does not necessarily determine their need
for a recovery week, but their training intensity and goals do. A person who has been
training anaerobically for several weeks and has an anaerobic goal should take a week for
their body to recover and prepare for their next level of training.

303. d - Past participation in an exercise program is the most reliable predictor of current
participation. If a person exercised 5 days a week for 10 years, they are much more likely
to adhere to a program now.

304. c - A person with a positive locus of control believes they have control over his or her
health outcomes and acts in accordance with this belief.

305. a - Frequency refers to how often a person exercises, and therefore cannot be changed
during a session.

306. b - The amount of resistance (her own body weight) is a measure of the intensity of
Helen’s workout.

307. d - Changing the duration of an exercise routine is altering the time principle.

308. b - There is no intensity in Mark’s plan. You should include the workload in every plan in
order to effectively measure outcomes.

309. b - A low to moderate intensity should be maintained in order for a person to sustain
aerobic exercise as well as to obtain results from said exercise.

310. c - Pregnant women are generally advised to avoid any form of jumping.

311. c - An increased resting heart rate is generally a sign of overtraining, and the individual
should decrease training principles until signs have dissipated.

312. b - Phase 2 is the final phase before the anaerobic phases, and most non-competitive
fitness goals can be accomplished aerobically.

313. c – Each major muscle group can be trained 2 to 3 days per week as a general
recommendation.

314. c – The recommended time for aerobic exercises is between 30 to 60 minutes of moderate
exercise per day.

315. d – Each of the ways mentioned above helps to take the focus away from her weight and
back to her health and wellness.

316. a – If the client is experiencing low back pain, she should seek advice from her physician
prior to performing a curl up test.

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317. d – A one rep max test should be conducted in phase 3 or 4 to make sure the body has
proper stability, mobility and movement.

318. c – The appropriate exercise progression modifications would be to start forward running,
then progress to side-to-side movements, then move to multidirectional motions.

319. a – A macrocycle is considered the long range, primary cycle which is typically 6 to 12
months long.

320. c – The two primary hormones responsible for muscular strength and size are growth
hormone and testosterone.

321. c – All of the following statements are correct except (c). Limb length does not influence
muscle size, although it is a factor in strength performance.

322. b – The suggested training volume when working with a client who is pursuing a goal of
muscular endurance is to perform 2 to 3 sets with less than 30 second rest intervals.

323. a – The most common advanced training programs used by bodybuilders include
supersets, breakdown training, assisted training, and compound training.

324. d – A client should be able to show stability, mobility and movement efficiency in all areas
prior to performance based training.

325. a – The client is showing signs of tissue inflammation and this is the first phase of the
healing process.

326. a – Rest-Ice-Compression-Elevation (RICE) is considered an effective early intervention


strategy for an acute injury.

327. b – Suggest that your client get fitted at the end of the day when her foot size is most likely
at its largest size. It is possible for a person’s foot size to increase by up to ½ size at the end
of the day.

328. d – Jim is showing signs of patellofemoral pain syndrome. He should avoid deep squats and
all downhill running likely to place more stress on the patella. Stretching should focus on
tight calves, hamstrings and the IT band.

329. a – Antidepressants have no significant effect on exercising heart rate. There can be an
increase in resting heart rate however.

330. d – Any tests involving power, speed, and agility should be tested in phase 4 of the ACE IFT
Model.

331. a – The appropriate strength ratio for flexion to extension of the shoulder joint is 2:3.

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332. c - ACE personal trainers need to stay within their scope of practice, which includes helping
a client set goals, in order to keep the client safe and avoid legal issues.

333. c - Teaching self-massage is a hands-free way to help a client reduce muscle soreness, thus
staying within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice.

334. b - An ACE certified personal trainer must complete 20 hours of continuing education
study in a two year time period to keep one’s certification active.

335. c - A person suffering from inflammation will experience decreased range of motion at that
joint due to swelling.

336. d - While some conditions may pose slight concern and require extra consideration while
stretching, a healing fracture site should never be stretched, no matter what.

337. c - An informed Consent form notifies the participant of the risk of injury associated with
exercise.

338. c - It is necessary to call 911 if your client is unconscious, but you should never leave your
client. You should never move someone with a possible head or neck injury unless they are
somewhere life threatening.

339. b - The incident report is not a place to put your opinion. Simply state what you witnessed
without inferring anything.

340. c - Once the incident is over and the client is safe, you should immediately fill out the
incident report.

341. b - The facility general manager and medical director are the only people who need to see
the incident report. HIPAA is a law that prevents the events from being discussed with
anyone who has not received appropriate permission to view the information.

342. c - It is not appropriate to take any incident reports home, and they must remain in a
locked cabinet.

343. c - The ABCs are Airway, Breathing and Circulation, in that order. This will ensure that the
most life-threatening issues are addressed first.

344. d - The first thing you should do is to ask the victim if they are okay. You can determine if
they are conscious and potentially rule out any of the other options with this simple
question, as well as prevent frightening them.

345. a - A person’s medical history is pertinent and logical information to ascertain in a medical
emergency.

346. d - Whenever you are unsure of what to do in a medical emergency you should call 911.
Difficulty breathing is a medical emergency and can turn fatal within minutes, so it is
important to call 911 in the case of difficulty breathing.

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347. c - It is not necessary to call 911 when a client is vomiting, unless it is uncontrollably or
interfering with their breathing.

348. c - The third link of the four is Early Defibrillation.

349. d - All of the above are question you might be asked when calling 911.

350. a - The purpose of CPR is to help the person’s body maintain perfusion, or blood flow and
oxygen delivery to tissues.

351. c - An AED should only be used if the person is unconscious, not breathing and has no
palpable pulse.

352. d - All of the above except a family history of heart disease are preventable risk factors for
heart disease, which can be reduced with regular exercise.

353. a - You should discontinue exercise at the first signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It
is not yet necessary to contact EMS. It is important to give the person something sugary to
eat or drink as opposed to anything with artificial sweeteners or only protein. He should be
monitored in case he loses consciousness.

354. d - All of the above are signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) as well as weakness and
fatigue.

355. a - When a client is showing signs of heat exhaustion it is important to remove them from
the heat, give fluids and elevate their feet to avoid shock.

356. b - It is important to begin actively cooling someone who is showing signs of heat stroke as
soon as possible. Use cold, wet washcloths, ice packs, or even a cool bath. Once you have
begun this process, activate EMS.

357. c - This is a situation in which the person can make his or her own decision about
contacting EMS. It is not okay to diagnose an injury or illness, wrap the injury, or give any
medication. Just help the person become more comfortable and offer something non-
invasive like an ice pack.

358. b - An independent contractor will be paid based on specific duties rather than an hourly
wage.

359. d - Employees of fitness centers generally have taxes withheld from their checks, as
opposed to independent contractors who will be responsible for their own withholdings.

360. c - This could potentially cause harm to the client and goes against what a “reasonable and
prudent professional” would do.

361. b - An informed consent form acts only as proof that the client has been made aware of
the possible risks of exercise and the potential benefits and dangers of the program.

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362. d - It is out of the personal trainer’s scope of practice to advise clients on supplements.

363. d - Professional liability insurance does not generally cover any broken equipment at
fitness facilities, but is more for covering liabilities that arise with clients.

364. c - It is not okay to utilize and display the ACE logo on any items that you are selling, or
materials that promote services other than personal training.

365. d - The components of a business plan are - Executive summary, business description,
marketing plan, operational plan, risk analysis and decision-making criteria.

366. c - Developing a long-term exercise plan and establishing concrete, attainable goals is a
great way to maximize client retention. This can be accomplished based on the concept of
periodization.

367. d - The ACE personal trainer certification does not prepare you to council clients on
nutrition or to “prescribe” anything.

368. c - ACE personal trainers cannot legally diagnose anything.

369. a - An ACE personal trainer cannot rehabilitate anything.

370. a - A sprain with minimal discomfort and the option of weight bearing is a grade I sprain.

371. b - Osteoporosis is a condition in which bone density decreases, and it not related to
overtraining.

372. d - All of the above are common techniques for managing musculoskeletal injuries, as well
as ice/heat modalities and cortisone injections.

373. a - The overhead press puts the wrists in a fully extended position, which can aggravate
carpal tunnel syndrome, along with full flexion.

374. c - All incident reports are considered confidential and should be kept in a locked drawer.

375. a - Standard of care is based on an exercise professional’s actions in light of current


professional standards as well as the trainer’s age, condition and knowledge of the
participant.

376. c - At a minimum, the training environment should be assessed for hazards once a day
prior to training sessions.

377. a - It is important to check floor surfaces, lighting and temperature as well as to scan
equipment for proper function.

378. a - If equipment is malfunctioning, you should avoid it altogether to prevent legal and/or
safety issues.

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379. d - It is important to disable or remove any malfunctioning or broken equipment to
prevent potential injuries.

380. b - A trainer should never leave their client unattended while exercising. Unsupervised
activity is a liability and safety issue.

381. b - Clients must wear any necessary protective equipment, including closed-toed shoes.

382. d - When a person is showing signs of shock they should lie down and elevate their feet to
facilitate blood flow to their head.

383. b - If a person has fallen and is experiencing drowsiness, nausea or headache they may be
suffering from a concussion and should seek medical attention.

384. b - You should always be in the position that best facilitates safety if the weight becomes
too much for the client.

385. a – Checking for the ABC’s (airway, breathing, circulation) is a primary assessment. A
secondary assessment is to check for any issues that are not life threatening.

386. c – According to the Dyspnea scale, a level 4 suggests you should ask the client to stop
exercising.

387. c – Inspections are completed for the purpose of ensuring client safety. Having the
dumbbells available has more to do with convenience than anything safety related.

388. c – Safety and risk management should always be a primary concern for a personal trainer.

389. a – There are many top organizations that a personal trainer can rely on for research and
credible information. One of these organizations is the ACSM (the American College of
Sports Medicine).

390. b – The ‘O’ in SOAP is to record objective information such as vital stats, height, weight
and other important measurements.

391. d – Each of these factors plays a role in reducing the chances of exercise induced asthma.
Other factors include intensity and type of exercise as well as air quality and any allergens
in the air.

392. d – While each client will be different, the majority of clients should begin with low
intensity, endurance exercise, like walking, using a stationary bike or low impact aerobics,
until they are able to increase in intensity and duration.

393. a – Trainers are expected to adhere to a standard of care which involves reasonable and
prudent decision making in the best interests of their clients. Failing to properly supervise
your client is considered an act of omission.

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394. d – To avoid hypoglycemia, a client should exercise within one to three hours following a
meal.

395. b – An informed consent is for the purpose of informing the client on the potential risks
associated with exercise. It is their signed agreement to participate with a full
understanding of the benefits as well as risks.

396. d - Record keeping is very important when it comes to your responsibility as a personal
trainer. You should keep notes on changes in programs, any correspondence, incident
reports, medical history, etc.

397. a – If a client has broken a bone, it is more appropriate to call one of their emergency
contacts. They are advised to see a healthcare professional immediately, but this is not
considered a reason to call 9-1-1.

398. c – It is not within the scope of practice to offer dietary advice. However, you can offer a
referral to a qualified dietician, refer to government approved websites and show a client
how to read a nutrition label. You may not calculate, prescribe, counsel or outline a weight
loss program.

399. b – The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) allows the victim to
stay in control over who has access to their health records. All information must remain
confidential.

400. a - It is not within the scope of practice to provide any dietary or nutritional advice outside
general recommendations.

401. b- As the client recovers from elbow tendinitis, they should not perform any high
repetition work around the elbow or wrist. The client should start with low weight and
repetitions.

402. e – If you suspect heat cramp, it is best to rest, apply gentle massage, direct pressure to
the cramp and release, drink plenty of fluids, and passive stretching.

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Questions with Answers
An additional practice exam format to make it easier for you to
reference answers.

ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam – Section 1


Client Interviews and Assessments

1. In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle


questionnaires administered?

a. Rapport Stage
b. Investigation Stage
c. Planning Stage
d. Action Stage

b - The investigation stage occurs between the rapport stage and planning stage, and is
typically when a trainer will ask a client to fill out a health-history or lifestyle
questionnaire.

2. Dan is a new client whom you are meeting with for the first time today. He will most
likely be evaluating you as a trainer through both your verbal and non-verbal
communication. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Dan?

a. Planning Stage
b. Action Stage
c. Rapport Stage
d. Investigation Stage

c - When you are first meeting a client and verbal and non-verbal communication are
extremely important to consider, you are in the rapport stage.

3. Kristin is in for her second session and you are conducting fitness assessments. While
you are checking her body fat percentage you ask her about types of exercise she prefers
to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kristin?

a. Rapport Stage
b. Planning Stage
c. Investigation Stage
d. Action Stage

c - This is an example of gathering information, which you should do before the planning
stage. This is part of the investigation stage.

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4. Your client tells you that he understands that his family has a history of heart disease
and that being overweight can increase his risk for such conditions. He is still wary of
beginning any kind of exercise program and says that he has never had any weight loss
success in the past. According to the Theoretical Model of Behavioral Change, what stage
of change is your client in?

a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Action

c - In the precontemplation phase people are beginning to understand the implications of


being inactive, but are not quite ready to commit to a change yet.

5. In which stage of the Theoretical Model of Behavior Change is a client ready to adopt
and live a healthy lifestyle?

a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Action

b - A person in the preparation phase may be somewhat sporadic in their activity level, but
is ready to make the change to a healthy lifestyle.

6. According to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model, what step in the training
process best follows the testing of resting measures such as heart rate and blood
pressure?

a. Core Function
b. Balance
c. Static Posture
d. Health Related Assessments

c - It is considered best to test a client’s static posture after taking resting measures but
before getting into training.

7. This Questionnaire serves as a non-invasive, minimal health-risk appraisal designed to


determine contraindications to exercise.

a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)


b. Readiness to Change Questionnaire
c. Health History Questionnaire
d. Liability Waiver

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a - The PAR-Q is a simple questionnaire designed to screen for readiness for low to
moderate intensity training.

8. When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client
answers “yes” to chest pain during physical activity as well as currently taking a
prescription blood pressure medication. What is the next step in his fitness program?

a. Begin training at a low intensity.


b. Talk with his doctor about his readiness for exercise.
c. Conduct a fitness appraisal.
d. Fill out a Health History Questionnaire.

b - If a client answers “yes” to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary
for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program
before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal.

9. When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client
answers “yes” to a bone or joint problem that could be made worse by a change in
physical activity. What is the next step in his fitness program?

a. Begin training at a low intensity.


b. Talk with her doctor about her readiness for exercise.
c. Conduct a fitness appraisal.
d. Fill out a Health History Questionnaire.

b - If a client answers “yes” to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary
for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program
before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal.

10. Bill is a 50-year-old man with a family history of heart disease. His body mass index is 20
and he has been running 3 miles 3-4 days a week for a year. What are the exercise
testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular
disease risk factors?

a. Moderate risk, doctor’s supervision needed.


b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary.
c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.
d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

c - Although Bill is at a higher than average fitness level for his age, because he is over 45
years old and has a family history of heart disease, he has 2 points on the risk factor scale,
therefore requiring a medical exam before any vigorous exercise is initiated.

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11. Wendy is a 50-year-old woman who has not exercised in 3 years. She has no family
history of heart disease and is a non-smoker. What are the exercise testing
recommendations according to risk stratification based on her cardiovascular disease
risk factors?

a. Moderate risk, doctor’s supervision needed.


b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary.
c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.
d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

b - Although Wendy has been living a sedentary lifestyle, since she is a woman under 55
without any other risk cardiovascular factors she only has 1 point on the risk stratification
scale, which means she does not need a medical exam before beginning any exercise
program.

12. Bob is a 45-year-old man who quit smoking 2 months ago. He has not participated in any
exercise program in 2 years. His body mass index (BMI) is 32. What are the exercise
testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular
disease risk factors?

a. Moderate risk, doctor’s supervision needed.


b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary.
c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.
d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

d - Since Bob is over 45 years old, it has been less than 6 months since he quit smoking and
he also has a BMI of 32, he has 3 points on the risk stratification scale. Note that since Bob
has a BMI above 25, you have to assume prediabetes which makes him symptomatic.
Based o these factors, Bob is considered high risk, therefore he needs to have a medical
examination prior to beginning an exercise program.

13. What information does the Health History Questionnaire collect?

a. Evidence of disclosure.
b. Previous exercise history including adherence experience.
c. Detailed medical and health information.
d. Fitness measurement data.

c - The health history questionnaire collects detailed information about an individual’s


health background such as medications, surgeries, family history and lifestyle information.

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14. What information does the Informed Consent form collect?

a. Evidence of disclosure.
b. Previous exercise history.
c. Detailed medical and health information.
d. Fitness measurement data.

a - The informed consent form is where your client acknowledges their “assumption of
risk”, serves as evidence of disclosure of risks and communicates the potential dangers of
exercise. It does not release liability.

15. What information does the Exercise History and Attitude Questionnaire collect?

a. Evidence of disclosure.
b. Previous exercise including adherence experience.
c. Detailed medical and health information.
d. Fitness measurement data.

b - The exercise history and attitude questionnaire collects information on the client’s
adherence and behavior history and is helpful in developing goals.

16. Which questionnaire asks the client if they have any negative feelings toward physical
activity programs?

a. Health History Questionnaire


b. Informed Consent Form
c. Medical Release Form
d. Exercise History and Attitude Questionnaire

d - The exercise history and attitude questionnaire asks questions about a person’s beliefs
and feelings toward exercise.

17. What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular
disease?

a. 130/70 mmHg
b. 120/80 mmHg
c. 121/81 mmHg
d. 140/90 mmHg

d - An individual with blood pressure greater than or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and/or
90 mmHg diastolic is considered to be hypertensive, or high blood pressure, making it a
risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

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18. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD. is s condition that affects mainly which
system?

a. Musculoskeletal
b. Integumentary
c. Cardiovascular
d. Respiratory

d - COPD is a common respiratory problem, affecting the lungs and an individual’s oxygen
carrying capacity.

19. Your client has been complaining of pain in her anterior lower leg. What is the best
course of action to take in continuing her exercise program?

a. Continue as planned.
b. Tell her she has shin splints and to stretch and ice them when she gets home.
c. Modify the program with cross training.
d. Cancel her sessions until the pain goes away.

c - The best course of action is to modify with cross training that does not aggravate the
pain. This will keep her active without further injuring herself. Diagnosing and treating an
injury is not within the scope of practice.

20. Your client is complaining of pain with extension of her elbow. She has a history of
lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow). What is the best course of action to take in
continuing her exercise program?

a. Continue as planned.
b. Tell her she has tennis elbow and to rest and ice it when she gets home.
c. Modify the program with cross training.
d. Cancel her sessions until the pain goes away.

c - The best course of action is to modify with cross training that does not aggravate the
pain. This will keep her active without further injuring herself. Diagnosing and treating an
injury is not within the scope of practice.

21. Your new client informs you that she has diabetes and is taking insulin. What is the most
important thing to do for this client?

a. Make sure she eats a large meal before exercising.


b. Refer her to a physician prior to beginning an exercise program.
c. Monitor her blood glucose levels throughout the session.
d. Have her fill out a waiver of liability prior to exercise.

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b - It is very important for a client receiving insulin for diabetes to consult with a physician
prior to beginning any kind of exercise program, both for legal reasons as well as client
safety.

22. When filling out the “medications” portion of the Health History Questionnaire, your
client lets you know that he is taking a beta-blocking medication. Once obtaining a
physician’s release for exercise, what is the most important difference in this client’s
exercise program versus a client who is not taking beta-blockers?

a. Use Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE. to determine the level at which he is exercising as his
heart rate will not go up.
b. Check his blood pressure throughout his session to ensure it does not spike.
c. Check his heart rate throughout the session to ensure it does not spike.
d. Monitor his consciousness level as beta-blockers will make him drowsy.

a - Beta-blockers keep a person’s heart rate from going up past a certain point, therefore
rendering heart rate monitoring useless for determining the intensity at which someone is
exercising. Therefore, RPE is the only way you will be able to determine if this person is
exercising at the desired intensity.

23. Which of the following medications can affect a person’s exercising heart rate?

a. Diuretics
b. Antihistamines
c. Cold Medications
d. Antidepressants

c - Some cold medicines can increase a person’s exercising heart rate. These are generally
medications designed for sinus congestion.

24. Which of the following assessments should be repeated after 1-3 months?

a. Resting Vital Signs


b. Body Composition
c. Static Posture and Movement Screens
d. All of the Above
e. Both a and b

d - Almost all of the initial assessment factors should be re-assessed after a period of 1-3
months to determine any changes that may have taken place.

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25. When beginning an exercise program with a client, you determine that he has checked
“yes” to 4 risk factors on the Health Questionnaire. The next step in the training process
is to:

a. Design adaptive exercises that will work around his risks.


b. Ask to speak to his physician to obtain approval for exercise.
c. Give your client a form to be signed by his physician, approving the exercise program.
d. Apologize to the client and let him know that you cannot train him since he has 3 or more
risk factors.

c - If a client has 1 or more risk factors, you may not legally train him or her without a
signed consent form from his/her physician.

26. Which of the following is important to consider when choosing which assessments to
utilize with a client?

a. Goals
b. Physical Limitations
c. Age
d. All of the Above
e. Both a and b only

d - These are 3 major considerations when choosing which assessments to utilize with
clients. Some factors may rule out certain assessments or make certain assessments more
necessary than others. Availability of Equipment and the testing environment are also
factors in these decisions.

27. When checking a client’s heart rate, what is a commonly palpated site?

a. Femoral artery
b. Jugular vein
c. Carotid artery
d. Tibial artery

c - The pulse can only be felt on arteries, and the most common sites are the carotid artery
in the neck and the radial artery on the thumb side of the inside of the wrist.

28. When checking a client’s heart rate, what is a commonly palpated site?

a. Femoral artery
b. Jugular vein
c. Radial artery
d. Tibial artery

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c - The pulse can only be felt on arteries, and the most common sites are the carotid artery
in the neck and the radial artery on the thumb side of the inside of the wrist.

29. A client’s resting heart rate should always be checked ____________________.

a. Before breakfast
b. When the client is sitting
c. When the client is lying down
d. Before the client gets out of bed in the morning

b - Although resting heart rate may be slightly lower when a client is lying down or has just
woken up, it is only necessary for them to be sitting to acquire an accurate resting heart
rate.

30. When measuring a client’s blood pressure, where should the stethoscope be placed?

a. On the inside of the client’s arm at the bend of the elbow.


b. On the inside of the client’s wrist.
c. Above the blood pressure cuff.
d. There is no need for a stethoscope.

a - In order to hear the blood flow when releasing the pressure of the cuff, the
stethoscope must be placed on the inside of the client’s arm at the bend of the elbow.

31. After taking the Exercise-Induced Feeling Inventory 12 weeks into their program, your
client appears to have the mood profile of “Positive Engagement”. What might your
client have answered to feeling very strongly?

a. Worn out
b. Enthusiastic
c. Fatigued
d. Tired
e. a, c and d only

b - When a client’s mood profile shows “positive engagement” this means that their mood
has been improving since beginning training, and they may answer “feel very strongly” to
feelings such as refreshed, enthusiastic, relaxed or upbeat on the Exercise-Induced Feeling
Inventory.

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32. When performing a Static Postural Assessment on your client, you determine that your
client has a slight posterior pelvic tilt. This means that the line of symmetry is
__________________.

a. Tilted Posteriorly
b. Tilted Anteriorly
c. Neutral
d. Tilted to one side of the body

a - With a posterior pelvic tilt, the line of symmetry is tilted posteriorly, creating a
posterior tilt.

33. Which action comes first after conducting static and dynamic analyses and determining
alight postural deviations?

a. Movement Training
b. Load and Performance Training
c. Stability and Mobility Training
d. None of the Above

c - Stability and mobility training must take place before movement training or load and
performance training to ensure a proper base. This will decrease the chance of injury and
increase performance levels.

34. When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae


b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings
c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius
d. Quardriceps and Anterior Tibialis

a - Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are
tight. When an anterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight hip
flexors and/or erector spinae, causing lordosis in the lumbar spine.

35. When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen
through restorative exercise?

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae


b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings
c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius
d. Quardriceps and Anterior Tibialis

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b - When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing
the action that is occurring. In the case of an anterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the
rectus abdominis and the hamstrings.

36. When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae


b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings
c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius
d. Quardriceps and Anterior Tibialis

b - Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are
tight. When a posterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight rectus
abdominis and/or hamstrings, possibly causing reverse lordosis in the lumbar spine.

37. When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen
through restorative exercise?

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae


b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings
c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius
d. Quardriceps and Anterior Tibialis

a - When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing


the action that is occurring. In the case of a posterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the hip
flexors and erector spinae.

38. Which of the following is NOT necessary to monitor when observing a Bend and Lift
Screen?

a. Degree of lordosis in the lower back


b. Stability of the feet
c. Position of the scapulae relative to the ribcage
d. Changes in head position

c - Movement of the shoulder joint is not being monitored with this screen, therefore the
position of the scapulae is not important to observe.

39. Tight hip adductors and weak gluteus medius muscles can lead to which compensation?

a. Knees moving inward


b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine
c. Lateral torso shift to one side
d. Lack of foot stability

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a - The muscles that oppose the inward movement of the knees are weak and the muscles
that generate it are tight, therefore causing the movement to occur.

40. Tight plantarflexors can lead to which compensation?

a. Knees moving inward


b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine
c. Raised heels
d. Lateral torso shift to one side

c - The plantarflexor muscles cause the heels to elevate, therefore tight, or overactive,
plantarflexors can lead to the inability to keep heels in contact with the floor.

41. Which movement screen can be utilized to test for tight plantarflexor muscles?

a. Hurdle Step Screen


b. Bend and Lift Screen
c. Thoracic Spine Mobility Screen
d. Shoulder Pull Stabilization Screen

b - The bend and lift screen generates a stretch in the plantarflexor muscles. If these
muscles are tight the client’s heels will come off the ground during the test.

42. Which of the following assessments does NOT determine body fat percentage?

a. Hydrostatic Weighing
b. Skinfold Measurement
c. Body Mass Index
d. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis

c - Body mass index is a ratio of weight to height, which does not determine the amount of
body fat a person is comprised of.

43. Which of the following assesses body fat percentage by measuring the amount of water
a person displaces when completely submerged?

a. Hydrostatic Weighing
b. Air Displacement Plethysmography (ADP)
c. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
d. Total Body Electrical Conductivity

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a - Hydrostatic weighing, or underwater weighing, is a method of measuring body fat
percentage by completely submerging a person in water and assessing the volume of
water displacement.

44. Which method of body fat measurement is not accurate when used on obese clients?

a. Hydrostatic Weighing
b. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis
c. Skinfold Measurement
d. Total Body Electrical Conductivity

c - In some cases, clients may have more body fat than a caliper can measure.

45. You have a new client who is extremely obese, and you realize that your body fat
calipers (skinfold measurement) may not be an accurate method to determine their
body fat percentage. You want to have a starting measurement to determine their
progress. What is the best course of action?

a. Do your best to use the calipers and get some kind of skinfold measurement.
b. Refer them to a medical fitness center that offers hydrostatic weighing.
c. Refer the client to a physician to have an MRI.
d. Utilize Body Mass Index (BMI) and girth measurements.

d - Most forms of body fat testing other than skinfold measurement are pricey and
uncomfortable, and are not usually necessary for determining progress. Instead you can
utilize BMI and circumference measurements to determine progress, as these will change
along with body fat percentage.

46. Which form of body fat testing measures electrical signals as they pass through the
body?

a. Hydrostatic Weighing
b. Air Displacement Plethysmography (ADP)
c. Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA)
d. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis (BIA)

d - BIA passes electrical signals through fat, lean mass and water in the body to determine
body fat percentage.

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47. What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in women?

a. Triceps, chest and thigh


b. Biceps, thigh and suprailium
c. Triceps, thigh and suprailium
d. Chest, thigh and abdominal

c - The triceps (back of the arm), thighs and suprailium area are places women are known
to hold fat; therefore it is important to assess these areas in a body fat percentage test.

48. What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in men?

a. Triceps, chest and thigh


b. Biceps, thigh and suprailium
c. Triceps, thigh and suprailium
d. Chest, thigh and abdominal

d - The chest, thighs and abdominal area are places men are known to hold fat, therefore
it is important to assess these areas in a body fat percentage test.

49. What are the correct units of measurement for calculating body mass index (BMI)?

a. Weight (lB./Height (in)


b. Weight (kg)/Height (m)
c. Height (in)/Weight (lB.
d. Height (m)/Weight (kg)

b - BMI is a ratio of weight to height, or weight/height. You must make sure to first convert
height to meters and weight to kilograms.

50. Which woman has a waist to hip ratio that puts her at risk for obesity-related disease?

a. Jeanie with a ratio of 0.81


b. Emily with a ratio of 0.60
c. April with a ratio of .87
d. Both Jeanie and April

c - A waist to hip ratio of 0.86 or higher is considered “at risk” for women.

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51. Which man has a waist to hip ratio that puts him at risk for obesity-related disease?

a. Mark with a ratio of 0.82


b. Jim with a ratio of 0.90
c. Alex with a ratio of .95
d. Both Jim and Alex

c - A waist to hip ratio of .95 or higher is considered “at risk” for men.

52. Jeanette is a 55-year-old woman who exercises regularly. What is her estimated
maximum heart rate?

a. 165 bpm
b. 220 bpm
c. 185 bpm
d. 55 bpm

a - A person’s estimated maximum heart rate is calculated by subtracting 220 from the
person’s age: (220 – age).

53. Mark is a 32-year-old man. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?

a. 200 bpm
b. 188 bpm
c. 168 bpm
d. 190 bpm

b - A person’s estimated maximum heart rate is 220 – age.

54. Which of the following is administered to assess a person’s level of cardiorespiratory


function?

a. Maximum Heart Rate calculation


b. Body Mass Index (BMI)
c. Maximal Oxygen Uptake (VO2max)
d. Push up test

c - A VO2max assessment tests a person’s ability to take in and utilize oxygen, which is
directly related to cardiorespiratory fitness.

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55. Which cardiorespiratory fitness test is better suited for younger, fit individuals?

a. Balke & Ware treadmill test


b. Bruce Submaximal treadmill test
c. Ebbeling Single-stage treadmill test
d. Cycle Ergometer test

b - The Bruce Submaximal treadmill test is typically performed to maximal effort in 3-


minute stages until the client reaches 85% of their estimated maximum heart rate. This
test may be too difficult and demanding for older or less fit individuals.

56. What component of fitness does the push-up test measure?

a. Cardiorespiratory endurance
b. Muscular endurance
c. Muscular strength
d. Muscular power

b - The push-up test measures upper-body muscular endurance because it requires


multiple repetitions over a period of minutes.

57. What component of fitness does the body weight squat test measure?

a. Cardiorespiratory endurance
b. Muscular endurance
c. Muscular strength
d. Muscular power

b - The bodyweight squat test measures lower body muscular endurance because it
requires multiple repetitions over a period of minutes.

58. What is an example of testing absolute strength?

a. Bodyweight squat test


b. Push-up test
c. Pre-Agility test
d. 1 RM leg-press test

d - Absolute strength is tested with a one-repetition maximum test in which the maximum
amount of resistance that can be lifted one time is determined.

59. Which of the following is a contraindication to performing a 1 Repetition Maximum test?

a. Improper form
b. Beginning exercisers
c. Individuals with hypertension
d. All of the Above

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d - If an individual demonstrates improper form, is new to exercise or has hypertension
they should avoid 1 RM tests for safety reasons.

60. Which individual might a muscular power test be inappropriate for?

a. A 30-year-old man who is interested in pushing his physical fitness to the next level.
b. A 13-year-old boy looking to improve soccer performance.
c. A 25-year-old woman looking to improve her body fat percentage and tone.
d. A 56-year-old woman looking to get back into skiing.

d - Power tests are vigorous and can be hard on the body. Not much data exists on power
in middle-aged to older adults because it is generally deemed unnecessary unless it is a
client’s specific goal.

61. The Vertical Jump test assesses what component of fitness?

a. Endurance
b. Strength
c. Power
d. Agility

c - The vertical jump test assesses muscular power in the lower body.

62. All of the following can cause a fitness test to be inaccurate EXCEPT:

a. Client
b. Trainer
c. Equipment
d. None of the Above

d - There are many factors that can cause a fitness test to be inaccurate.

63. Which of the following is an example of empathy toward a client?

a. Asking questions about their relationships and personal life to show that you care.
b. Telling them about yourself in detail so they feel that they can relate to you.
c. Listening to what they say and repeating it back so they know you are listening.
d. None of the above.

c - Repeating back what you hear can be helpful in showing empathy, since this allows you
to make sure you are hearing your client correctly and understand their wants and needs.

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64. Which of the following is NOT a fitness indicator for SMART goal setting?

a. Skill level
b. Body weight
c. Body size
d. Clothing size

d - Fitness indicators need to be measureable, and since clothing size varies from brand to
brand and is not specific to the person, it is not a functional SMART goal indicator.

65. Molly is a 25-year-old woman who wants to lose weight and improve lower body
strength. Which of the following is an example of an effective SMART goal for Molly?

a. Molly will complete 30 squats in 2 minutes.


b. Molly will complete 30 body weight squats in 2 minutes within one week.
c. Molly will eat healthier within 2 weeks.
d. Molly will lose 5 pounds.

b - This SMART goal is specific (body weight, 2 minutes), measureable (30 in 2 minutes),
attainable (it is not out of her reach), relevant (lower body strength) and time-bound
(within one week).

66. Which of the following is not a quality of effective listening?

a. Encouraging
b. Explaining
c. Questioning
d. Summarizing

b - When listening, it is important not to give advice or try to explain anything. It is


important to make sure your client feels heard and understood, and that is all.

67. Which of the following is an example of a question that may appear on the Readiness to
Change Questionnaire?

a. Do you have support for making this change from friends, family and loved ones?
b. Do you have a history of any illness?
c. Do you suffer from eating disorder(s)?
d. Do you eat a balanced diet?

a - The readiness to change questionnaire asks questions pertaining to a person’s


emotional readiness to change.

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68. Which of the following is an example of a non-correctible factor for postural deviation?

a. Structural deviations
b. Lack of joint stability
c. Repetitive motions
d. Imbalanced strength-training programs

a - Structural deviations can be compensated for and worked around, but are not
correctible in that you cannot fix the problem you can only reduce the severity of the
symptoms.

69. In which stage of the client-trainer relationship should the trainer learn their client’s
likes and dislikes?

a. Planning Stage
b. Investigation Stage
c. Action Stage
d. Maintenance Stage

b - The investigation stage is when the trainer should learn about the client, including their
likes and dislikes.

70. In which assessment can a personal trainer determine potential movement


compensations associated with poor posture?

a. Movement screens
b. Static postural assessments
c. Balance and core assessments
d. Body composition assessments

b - Potential movement compensations can be identified through static postural


assessments.

71. What is the best method for discussing nutrition with your client?

a. Instruct them to go to choosemyplate.gov and to follow the instructions on the web site.
b. Formulate a diet plan for your client.
c. Discuss supplements that can help them to achieve their goals.
d. Let them know which foods to avoid and which they should aim to eat more of.

a - Telling your client to visit choosemyplate.gov is within the ACE trainer’s scope of
practice and is a good way to get your client on the right track nutritionally.

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72. Which of the following tests evaluates muscular fitness?

a. Balke & Ware Treadmill Exercise Test


b. YMCA Submaximal Step Test
c. Push Up Test
d. YMCA Bike Test

c - The push up test evaluates muscular fitness. It is 2 minutes or less in duration and
focuses on one muscle group.

73. Which of the following tests evaluates cardiorespiratory fitness?

a. Rockport Fitness Walking Test


b. Bodyweight Squat Test
c. Bench Press Test
d. Leg Press Test

a - The Rockport Fitness Walking Test evaluates cardiorespiratory fitness in that it is more
than 2 minutes long and is of low-moderate intensity.

74. A one-repetition maximum test evaluates which type of strength?

a. Relative strength
b. Endurance
c. Power
d. Absolute strength

d - A 1RM test evaluates absolute strength, as it determines the greatest amount of weight
that can be lifted at one time.

75. Which of the following symptoms merit test termination during any test that involves
muscular endurance?

a. Angina
b. Cyanosis
c. Wheezing
d. All of the above
e. Both a and c

d - All of the above are possible symptoms or warning signs that merit test termination to
ensure the safety of the client.

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76. Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates the rate at which an
individual responds to a stimulus?

a. Anaerobic Power
b. Agility
c. Reactivity
d. Coordination

c - Reactivity evaluates the time it takes a person to react to a stimulus.

77. Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates the amount of work
performed in a given unit of time?

a. Anaerobic Power
b. Anaerobic Capacity
c. Agility
d. Speed

a - Power is determined using work performed in a certain amount of time.


Power = work/time.

78. Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates how accurately and rapidly a
person can change direction?

a. Anaerobic Power
b. Speed
c. Reactivity
d. Agility

d - Agility involves stages of acceleration, stabilization and deceleration. It evaluates an


individual’s ability to change direction in a certain amount of time.

79. Which of the following is a step in determining an individual’s goal weight based on their
goal body fat percentage?

a. Determine lean body weight


b. Administer aerobic fitness test
c. Calculate Body Mass Index
d. Calculate waist-to-hip ratio

a - The steps of determining an individual’s goal weight based on their goal body fat
percentage are as follows: Determine fat weight, determine lean body weight, and
calculate goal weight.

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80. Which of the following individuals would be least likely to benefit from Body Mass
Index?

a. A woman with 30% body fat who weighs 165 pounds.


b. A man with 8% body fat who weighs 230 pounds.
c. A man with 8% body fat who weighs 160 pounds.
d. A woman with 15% body fat who weighs 120 pounds.

b - When a person has a low body fat percentage and a heavy weight, BMI may state that
he or she is overweight or obese when this person is in fact heavy in muscle, not in fat.
This renders BMI an insufficient method for determining obesity.

81. In what specific location is the abdominal circumference measured?

a. Around the ribcage.


b. Around the pelvic bone.
c. Around the smallest portion of the abdomen.
d. At the level of the umbilicus.

d - The abdomen should be measured at the level of the umbilicus for best results. Waist
circumference is taken at the smallest part.

82. In what specific location is the circumference of the upper thigh measured?

a. Just above the knee.


b. Just below the gluteal fold.
c. Half way between the knee and the gluteal fold.
d. At the smallest part of the thigh.

b - The circumference of the upper thigh should be measured at the largest part, or just
below the gluteal fold.

83. In what specific location should the arm be measured?

a. Around the largest part of the upper arm with the bicep flexed.
b. Around the largest part of the upper arm with the arm relaxed.
c. Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the arm relaxed.
d. Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the bicep flexed.

c - The measurement of the arm should be taken between the acromion (lateral portion of
the collarbone) and the olecranon process (elbow) with the arm relaxed for best results.

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84. Which of the following is true when taking circumference measurements?

a. Measurements should be made with an elastic-style tape measure.


b. Tape should be pulled as tightly as possible around the body part.
c. Take duplicate measurements at each site and average them together.
d. Rotate through measurement sites to allow skin to regain normal quality.

d - Tape measure should be non-elastic, you should gently touch the tape to the skin, take
duplicate measurements but choose one or the other, and rotate through measurement
sites.

85. How do you determine a person’s waist-to-hip ratio?

a. Hip measurement divided by waist measurement


b. Waist measurement multiplied by hip measurement
c. Waist measurement divided by hip measurement
d. Use a chart to determine

c - Waist-to-hip ratio is determined by waist circumference divided by hip circumference.

86. Jose is 18 years old. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?

a. 202 bpm
b. 200 bpm
c. 220 bpm
d. 218 bpm

a - An individual’s estimated MHR is 220 - age. In Jose’s case this is 202 bpm.

87. What is the approximate standard deviation of an individual’s maximum heart rate?

a. +/- 10 bpm
b. +/- 15 bpm
c. +/- 12 bpm
d. +/- 18 bpm

c - The approximate standard deviation for MHR is plus or minus 12 beats per minute,
meaning a man of 22 years could have a maximum heart rate that falls between 186-210
bpm.

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88. At what times should heart rate be monitored throughout a cardiorespiratory
assessment?

a. Every 30 seconds
b. Every minute
c. Every 3 minutes
d. Continuously

d - If possible, heart rate should be monitored continuously during a cardiorespiratory


assessment.

89. What is the workload of 1 MET associated with?

a. Oxygen consumption at rest


b. Energy expenditure at rest
c. Energy expenditure while performing a low-level task
d. Oxygen consumption while performing a low-level task

a - One MET is equivalent to oxygen consumption at rest, which is approximately 3.5


mL/kg/min.

90. How often should Ratings of Perceived Exertion (RPEs) be taken throughout a
cardiorespiratory assessment?

a. Once every 3 minutes


b. Once every 30 seconds
c. Once every minute
d. Once every 2 minutes

c - RPEs should be taken during the last 5 seconds of every minute of a cardiorespiratory
assessment.

91. What is the best definition of VO2 max?

a. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per pound of body weight.
b. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per kg of body weight.
c. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide a person can expel in one minute per pound of body
weight.
d. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide a person can expel in one minute per kg of body
weight.

b - VO2 max is the maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per kg of
body weight. It is also called maximum oxygen uptake or maximal aerobic capacity.

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92. At what point in a maximal aerobic capacity assessment are carbohydrates the primary
source of fuel?

a. Throughout the entire test


b. After reaching the first ventilatory threshold
c. After reaching the second ventilatory threshold
d. In the last 2 minutes of the test

b - Carbohydrates are the main source of fuel after the first ventilatory threshold is
reached.

93. Collecting heart rate throughout a cardiovascular assessment is important in order to


determine if an individual is experiencing which of the following conditions?

a. Thermoregulation
b. Blood lactate accumulation
c. Cardiovascular drift
d. Anaerobic threshold

c - Cardiovascular drift is an increase in heart rate when workload has not been altered,
and can lead to unsafe complications.

94. Which of the following demographic factors does not affect adherence to physical
activity programs?

a. Age
b. Income
c. Gender
d. Education

a – Income, education and gender are all related to adherence when it comes to physical
activity. The only factor that has been shown to be unrelated is age.

95. Which of the following statements is not true regarding participation and adherence in
an exercise program?

a. A client’s past exercise history is a predictable behavior with exercise.


b. Social support plays an important role in maintaining an exercise program.
c. A client’s location relative to the exercise facility can have an influence.
d. Clients who perform moderate intensity exercises are almost twice as likely to drop out.

d – Clients tend to drop out twice as much when they do high intensity workouts
compared to moderate intensity programs.

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96. What is considered the natural progression of exercise considerations when working
with a new client?

a. Performance, fitness, health and function


b. Fitness, health, function, performance
c. Function, health, fitness, performance
d. Health, fitness, performance, function

c – A personal trainer should first seek to establish the functions of daily living, followed by
improvements in health markers, then fitness, and performance issues are last.

97. Before adding weighted loads to client exercises, you should make sure your client is
proficient in which of the following movement patterns?

a. Core stabilization
b. 1 RM
c. Plyometric jumps
d. Dynamic warm ups

a – Phase I of exercise progressions have to do with restoring the functions of daily living.
Clients should be able to show proficient core stabilization and proper form before adding
any loads to exercises.

98. Each of the following questions are likely to appear on a Par-Q questionnaire with the
exception of one. Which question would likely not appear on a Par-Q?

a. Have you experienced chest pain?


b. Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs?
c. Do you have any joint pain?
d. Can you exercise during your work day?

d – The Par-Q is a questionnaire designed to uncover any health or medical concerns. The
last question (d) is something you might expect to see on an exercise questionnaire.

99. The informed consent form is best used for which purpose?

a. As a liability waiver
b. To record fitness assessments
c. An understanding between the client and trainer as to the risks associated with exercise
d. A release form detailing medical information

c – The informed consent is also known as assumed risk form. It outlines the risks
associated with exercise.

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100. Peter is a 47 year old male with a BMI of 31. He has been leading a sedentary lifestyle
until recently hiring you. What is his risk stratification?

a. +3
b. +2
c. +1
d. -1

a – Peter has a risk stratification of +3. He receives one point each for his age, BMI and
lifestyle.

101. What is considered the easiest method for assessing a client’s exercise intensity?

a. Rating of perceived exertion


b. Talk test
c. Lactate threshold
d. Second ventilator threshold

b – While there are several ways to monitor a client’s exercise intensity, the fastest and
easiest way is by listening to them talk while exercising. Notice to see if the client is able to
perform the exercises while being able to say more than a few words without too much
exertion.

102. Which of the following factors influence a client’s resting heart rate?

a. Fatigue
b. Drugs and medication
c. Caffeine
d. All of the above

d – There are a number of factors which can influence resting heart rate including fatigue,
drugs and medication and caffeine.

103. Which of the following is not an effective cognitive behavioral technique?

a. Decision making
b. Feedback
c. A written contract
d. Goal setting

c – Cognitive behavioral techniques include feedback, self-monitoring, decision making


and goal setting. A written contract is not a cognitive behavioral technique.

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104. Amy is a 48 year old woman with 3 risk factors according to the ACSM risk stratification.
Which of the following statements is true regarding her ability to participate in an
exercise program?

a. Low risk, moderate exercise approved.


b. High risk, medical exam necessary.
c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.
d. Moderate risk, medical exam not necessary before vigorous exercise.

c – Amy is classified in the moderate risk category. She does not need a medical
examination prior to moderate exercise. However, she would need it prior to vigorous
exercise.

105. Which of the following muscles is not responsible for hip extension?

a. Biceps femoris
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Semitendinosus
d. Gluteus medius

d – There are four primary muscles that act as hip extensors including the biceps femoris,
gluteus maximus, semitendinosus and semimembranosus. The gluteus medius is a hip
abductor.

106. Which phase of cardiorespiratory training is considered the highest level of work and the
majority of your clients will never reach this phase?

a. Anaerobic-power training
b. Anaerobic-endurance training
c. Aerobic-base training
d. Aerobic-efficiency training

a - The anaerobic power training phase is considered the highest level of work for the most
advanced training. All three phases of training should be completed prior to reaching
phase 4.

107. You have observed that a client is exhibiting a muscle imbalance commonly associated
with lordosis posture. Which muscle do you suspect is shortened?

a. Hip extensors
b. Neck flexors
c. Lumbar extensors
d. Scapular stabilizers

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c – If your client has lordosis, this is an indication that the lumbar extensors are shortened
and tight. It also means the hip extensors, neck flexors and scapular stabilizers are
lengthened.

108. What style of listening is considered most effective when building rapport with your
clients?

a. Indifferent listening
b. Selective listening
c. Passive listening
d. Active listening

d - Active listening is when you are able to listen carefully while also showing empathy for
the client.

109. Which of the following tests will help you determine your client’s muscular endurance?

a. Push up test
b. Step test
c. 1.5 mile run test
d. VT2 threshold test

a – The push up test is a standardized test to measure upper body endurance.

110. A new client informs you she is taking a diuretic. What effect would you expect to see on
her heart rate response during exercise?

a. Resting heart rate up


b. No significant change
c. Exercising heart rate down
d. Resting heart rate down

b – Diuretics are not known to cause any changes in resting heart rate, exercising heart
rate or maximal exercising heart rate.

111. One of your new clients has metabolic syndrome. He has been cleared for exercise by his
physician. Which of the following recommendations are best suited to begin training
your new client?

a. Moderate impact activities. No resistance training.


b. Low impact activities. Twice a week resistance training.
c. Clients should begin with 500 minutes total for the week.
d. Clients should exercise 7 days a week with low intensity.

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b – Clients with metabolic syndrome should start out with low intensity activities and
resistance training twice a week. They should also target 200 to 300 minutes per week for
between 3 to 5 days.

112. Your client has osteoporosis. When designing her exercise program, you may need to
avoid which of the following movements?

a. Spinal flexion
b. Pulling exercises from behind the head
c. Adducting or abducting the legs against resistance
d. All of the above

d – Each of the movements mentioned can be of concern and need to be avoided when
designing a training program with a client who has osteoporosis.

113. In the sagittal plane, which fundamental movements occur?

a. Flexion and extension


b. Circumduction and opposition
c. Rotation and supination
d. Adduction and abduction

a – In the frontal plane (sagittal plane), fundamental movements include flexion,


extension, hyperextension, dorsiflexion and plantarflexion.

114. Which term describes muscle action which shortens to create muscle tension?

a. Isometric
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. None of the above

c – When the muscle shortens in response to muscle tension, it is a concentric action.

115. There are six external rotators of the hip. Which of the following muscles is not one of
them?

a. Adductor magnus
b. Gluteus minimus
c. Gluteus medius
d. Quadratus femoris

a – The adductor magnus is one of the muscles of the hip that produces adduction and
internal rotation.

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116. What is the total number of calories in this container and the total number of calories
that come from fat?

a. 280/13
b. 560/234
c. 560/56
d. 280/113

b – One serving is 280 calories. Since there are two servings in this container, there are 560
calories in total. Fat calories are equal to 13g x 9 calories per gram = 117 fat calories. Then,
multiply by 2 for a 2 serving container – 2 x 117 = 234 fat calories.

117. Which of the following statements is true based on a one inch increase in a man’s waist
circumference and his risk level?

a. His blood pressure increases by 10%


b. His risk for metabolic syndrome increases by 18%
c. His triglycerides increase by 18%
d. All of the Above
e. Only a and b

d – All of the factors mentioned above are risk factors when a man increases his waist
circumference by as little as one inch.

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118. You have performed the Thomas test with Mary and have observed that her lower thigh
does not touch the table and her knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscles do you
suspect to be tight?

a. Hamstrings
b. Rectus femoris
c. Iliopsoas
d. Primary hip flexor muscles

d – If Mary has her back flat on the table and her knee does not flex to 80 degrees and her
lowered thigh does not touch, then you should suspect her primary hip flexor muscles are
tight.

119. Many common muscle imbalances and postural deviations can be corrected through
exercise. Which of the following is not correctable through exercise?

a. Scoliosis
b. Scapular protraction
c. Forward head position
d. Pelvic tilting

a – Scoliosis is considered a congenital condition which is not correctable through exercise.


However, side dominance, stability and mobility restrictions and muscle imbalances can all
be corrected.

120. When conducting the Stork-Stand balance test on John, he is able to hold the position
for 12 seconds before his foot touches the ground. What is the level of his performance
based on the Stork-Stand Balance test results?

a. Poor
b. Fair
c. Good
d. Excellent

a – Anything below 20 seconds is considered poor performance for a male.

121. You notice a forward head position when assessing your client. Which muscles are
considered tight and restricted?

a. Upper trapezius, rhomboids, levator scapula


b. Pectoralis major, subscapularis, latissimus dorsi
c. Cervical spine extensors, serratus anterior, latissimus dorsi
d. Cervical spine extensors, levator scapulae, upper trapezius

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d – If your client exhibits a forward head position, then the muscles that are tight include
the cervical spine extensors, levator scapulae, and upper trapezius.

122. You decide to run some assessments to test a client’s mobility. Which of the following
tests would be most appropriate?

a. Thomas test
b. Thoracic spine mobility screen
c. Sharpened Romberg test
d. Trunk flexor endurance test

b – Each of the tests mentioned are assessments tools. However, only one of them
(Thoracic spine mobility screen) is known to assess a client’s mobility.

123. The trunk lateral endurance test measures the endurance of which primary muscle?

a. Multifidi
b. Iliocostalis
c. Obliques
d. Subscapularis

c – The trunk lateral endurance test is an assessment of the lateral core muscles which
includes the obliques.

124. What is the total number of calories you would consume if you ate all of the servings of
this snack?

a. 155
b. 310
c. 620
d. 830

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c – There are four servings of one ounce each for a total of 620 calories in the package.

ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam – Section 2


Program Design and Implementation

125. Which of the following is typically considered by clients to be the most important factor
in creating a positive first impression?

a. A trainer who is in good shape.


b. A trainer who communicates well.
c. A trainer who offers to listen to his or her home-life problems.
d. A trainer who has good posture and appears sure of themselves.

b - Based on study of client-feedback, the most important aspect of a good first impression
consisted of a trainer listening and being genuinely interested in what they had to say.

126. What is an example of non-verbal communication?

a. Tone of voice.
b. Facial expression.
c. Body language.
d. All of the above.
e. Both B and C only

d - Tone of voice, facial expressions and body language can all effect how a client views
and hears you, regardless of what you are saying.

127. Saying things like, “I understand, 125 feels like your ideal weight.” Is an example of
which positive listening skill?

a. Encouraging
b. Planning
c. Questioning
d. Paraphrasing

d - Paraphrasing is a great way to show the client that you are listening as well as to make
sure you are hearing what they are saying correctly.

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128. Which of the following is an example of a good open-ended question?

a. Do you feel that you are ready to begin a fitness program?


b. Do you have any questions about personal training?
c. Are there any exercises that you dislike?
d. What made you decide to pursue personal training?

d - Any question that requires an answer other than “yes” or “no” is an open-ended
question and keeps the conversation going.

129. You have been working with Judy for 1 month now. Her initial goals were to gain
strength in her lower body and you have been working on body weight squats and
lunges. She can perform 3 sets of 15 squats without a struggle. What is the best course
of action to continue to increase her lower body strength significantly?

a. Continue with the program as it is.


b. Add resistance to her squats and lunges.
c. Increase the number of squats to 20 repetitions per set.
d. Discontinue the squats and lunges until she finds them difficult again.

b - Adding resistance is the next step in strength increase. This will produce significant
results in lower body strength as opposed to increasing repetitions.

130. What is an example of the “tell, show, do” technique used in the early stages of training?
a. Telling your client to show you how to correctly perform an exercise.
b. Showing your client proper form of every exercise and allowing them to try it on their own
later.
c. Explaining the proper way to perform an exercise, showing your client, and then allowing
them to try the exercise.
d. Watching the client perform the exercise and giving feedback about the proper form.

c - As a trainer you should always explain how to perform the exercise and show your
client how it should look before they perform it. You should also allow them to try it
immediately after, while you are with them.

131. What is the main muscle group involved in the extension portion of a leg extension
exercise?

a. Hamstrings
b. Quadriceps
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Gastrocnemius

b - The quadriceps are the main group of muscles responsible for extending the knee.

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132. What is the major muscle group involved in the flexion portion of a leg curl exercise?

a. Hamstrings
b. Quadriceps
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Gastrocnemius

a - The hamstrings are the main group of muscles responsible for flexing the knee.

133. Your client tells you that he wants to get into better shape because his wife loves to play
tennis and he wants to be able to play with her. Which principle of behavior change is
this an example of?

a. Observational Learning
b. Cognitions and Behavior
c. Shaping
d. Cognitive Behavioral Techniques

a - Exercise behaviors of those people who are closest to your clients are likely to impact
the likelihood of your client’s success. This is called Observational Learning.

134. What is the recommended frequency of cardiorespiratory training generally accepted by


ACSM for healthy adults?

a. 2-3 days per week


b. 5-7 days per week
c. 1-2 days per week
d. 3-5 days per week

d - ACSM gives a general guideline of 3-5 days of cardiorespiratory exercise per week for
healthy adults.

135. What is the recommended frequency of resistance training generally accepted by ACSM
for healthy adults?

a. 2-3 days per week


b. 5-7 days per week
c. 1-2 days per week
d. 3-5 days per week

a - ACSM gives a general guideline of 2-3 days of resistance exercise per week for healthy
adults.

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136. What are the two principal training components of the ACE IFT Model?

a. Functional/resistance training and cardiorespiratory training


b. Agility training and functional/resistance training
c. Cardiorespiratory training and flexibility training
d. Functional/resistance training and flexibility training

a - Functional/resistance training and cardiorespiratory training are considered to be the


principal components of fitness. The model divides them into four phases of training,
personalizing the types for each client.

137. What tests are typically administered in the first week of training a client?

a. Muscular Endurance and Strength


b. Health Related Assessments (body composition, etc.)
c. Skill Related Assessments
d. Movement Screens

b - Health related assessments are typically covered in the first real week of training, after
the client has been determined to be healthy and prepared for exercise but before more
complex areas of fitness are tested.

138. According to the ACE IFT Model, what is phase 1 of the functional movement &
resistance training component?

a. Movement Training
b. Load Training
c. Performance Training
d. Stability and Mobility Training

d - It is important to ensure adequate stability and mobility before progressing to


increased load or performance training.

139. According to the ACE IFT Model, what is phase 4 of the cardiorespiratory training
component?

a. Anaerobic Power Training


b. Anaerobic Endurance Training
c. Aerobic Efficiency Training
d. Aerobic Base Training

a - Anaerobic power training is typically the last phase in cardiorespiratory training


because a person needs a good aerobic foundation in order to train for power.

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140. Becky is in the aerobic base training phase of her plan. She is walking at an inclined
grade on the treadmill. When she answers you her words come out two at a time
between breaths. Above which of the following levels is Becky exercising using the talk
test?

a. Lactate Threshold
b. First Ventilatory Threshold
c. 9 rating of Perceived Exertion
d. Second Ventilatory Threshold

b - In order to maintain aerobic-base training, a person must stay under their first
ventilator threshold, which means talking in sentences of more than a few words in length.

141. Which phase of cardiorespiratory training challenges the phosphagen system and is
typically only entered into for clients with sport specific training goals?

a. Anaerobic-endurance Training
b. Aerobic-base Training
c. Aerobic-efficiency Training
d. Anaerobic-power Training

d - Anaerobic-power training overloads the fast glycolytic system and challenges the
phosphagen system with high intensity intervals, which are typically sport specific.

142. Your client is on the treadmill exercising at 5 METs and 50% of her VO2max, a level that
she sustains for 45 minutes. What level of exercise is she performing at?

a. Moderate Exercise
b. Vigorous Exercise
c. Light Exercise
d. High Risk Exercise

a - Moderate exercise is considered any form of exercise that can be sustained for 45
minutes with a MET level of 3-6 and 40-60% of the individual’s VO2max.

143. Your client is doing intervals on the stair machine. Each interval contains a portion of
intensity in which his MET level is a 7 and he is performing at 70% of his VO2max. He
maintains at this level for 2-minute intervals. What level of exercise is he performing at?

a. Moderate Exercise
b. Vigorous Exercise
c. Light Exercise
d. High Risk Exercise

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b - Vigorous exercise is defined as exercising at a MET level above 6 and performing above
60% of an individual’s VO2max. There is a substantial cardiorespiratory challenge involved,
and this level cannot e sustained for very long.

144. Which of the following has been thought to represent the highest sustainable level of
exercise intensity?

a. Anaerobic threshold
b. Aerobic threshold
c. First ventilator threshold
d. Talk test threshold

a - The anaerobic or lactate threshold is used as a marker of exercise performance as it is


thought to indicate when an exercise intensity can no longer be sustained.

145. Muscular Power takes what two performance factors into account?

a. Force and Velocity


b. Agility and Force
c. Strength and Force
d. Work and Distance

a - Power = Force x Velocity, or Work/Time. It takes into account how quickly and
forcefully a person can perform an activity.

146. Which comes first in the sequence of dysfunctional movement?

a. Muscle Imbalance
b. Altered Neurological Properties
c. Dysfunctional Movement
d. Mobility and Stability are Compromised

a - Muscular imbalance occurs first, setting off the course to dysfunctional movement and
system breakdowns.

147. Which of the following is an example of a Muscle Imbalance?

a. Poor exercise technique


b. Low energy level
c. Compromises in the mobility-stability relationship
d. Altered neurological properties

a - Poor exercise technique is an example of an initial muscular imbalance which sets the
stage for neurological alterations and compromises in the mobility-stability relationship.
Muscular imbalances are always physical and generally simple, like repetitive motion.

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148. During a leg extension exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the agonist?

a. Hamstrings
b. Soleus
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps

d - The muscle that is doing the “work” against the resistance is the muscle that shortens,
which is called the agonist. In this case, it is the quadriceps.

149. During a leg curl exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the agonist?

a. Hamstrings
b. Soleus
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps

a - The muscle that is doing the “work” against the resistance is the muscle that shortens,
which is called the agonist. In this case, it is the hamstrings.

150. During a leg extension exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the antagonist?

a. Hamstrings
b. Soleus
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps

a - The muscle that is opposing the “work”, or lengthening with the resistance, is the
antagonist. In this case it is the hamstrings.

151. During a leg curl exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the antagonist?

a. Hamstrings
b. Soleus
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps

d - The muscle that is opposing the “work”, or lengthening with the resistance, is the
antagonist. In this case it is the quadriceps.

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152. Which of the following is an example of an isometric contraction?

a. Hamstrings in a Leg Press


b. Quadriceps in a Squat
c. Quadriceps in a Wall Sit
d. Pectoralis Major in a Bench Press

c - An isometric contraction occurs when there is no lengthening or shortening of the


muscles, which only occurs when there is no movement, as in a wall sit.

153. Which of the following is an example of a concentric contraction?

a. Hamstrings in a leg extension


b. Hamstrings in a leg curl
c. Triceps in a bicep curl
d. Erector spinae in the upward portion of an abdominal crunch

b - A concentric contraction occurs when the agonist muscle shortens, generating force.
This occurs during the force-producing phase of the exercise, which in this case the
hamstrings produce in the curling phase of a leg curl.

154. Which of the following is an example of an eccentric contraction?

a. Quadriceps in a leg extension


b. Biceps in a bicep curl
c. Rectus abdominis in the upward motion of an abdominal crunch
d. Quadriceps in a leg curl

d - An eccentric contraction occurs when the muscle opposing the action, or the
antagonist, lengthens. In this case it is the quadriceps lengthening during a leg curl.

155. The force generating capacity of a muscle based on the relationship between the
contractile proteins of a sarcomere refers to which movement principle?

a. Neural Control
b. Force-couple Relationships
c. Length-tension Relationships
d. Reciprocal Inhibition

c - The length-tension relationship refers to sarcomere length and the relationship


between the contractile proteins actin and myosin, which determine the force production
of a muscle fiber.

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156. Achieving efficient movement through opposing and contralateral pulls at joints refers
to which movement principle?

a. Neural Control
b. Force-couple Relationships
c. Length-tension Relationships
d. Reciprocal Inhibition

b - The force-couple relationship refers to contralateral and directional opposing pulls at


joints, which in turn keep them stable.

157. Which movement principle ensures that impulses are transmitted to the intended
muscles?

a. Neural Control
b. Force-couple Relationships
c. Length-tension Relationships
d. Reciprocal Inhibition

a - Neural control controls and stabilizes movement at joints through transmitting


impulses to the indented supporting muscles.

158. Which of the following is an example of the force-couple relationship working properly?

a. Anterior pelvic tilt


b. Posterior pelvic tilt
c. Scapular protraction
d. Neutral pelvic position

d - A neutral pelvic position is the desired position of the pelvis, facilitated by the force-
couple relationship of muscles pulling around the joints to maintain stability.

159. Which component of stability and mobility training should be addressed first?

a. Proximal stability of the lumbar spine


b. Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine
c. Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint
d. Stability of distal extremities

a - The lumbar spine is generally where the center of mass is located. That is why proximal
stability of the lumbar spine is the priority when beginning stability and mobility training.

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160. Which component represents the final stage of stability and mobility training?

a. Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine


b. Proximal stability of the scapulothoracic spine
c. Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint
d. Static balance

d - Static balance is the goal and final stage of stability and mobility training. Once a person
reaches static balance they can move on to resistance programs and progressions.

161. Maggie is a 50-year-old woman who has not participated in an exercise program in 8
years. She had a measurement 70 degrees of movement with a passive straight-leg raise.
She exhibits slight femoral internal rotation. What stretching techniques should be
utilized before her workout based on her fitness level?

a. Myofascial release, AIS and dynamic stretches


b. Myofascial release, warm-up and static stretches
c. Dynamic and ballistic stretches
d. None of the above.

b - A client who is deconditioned with poor flexibility (a level less than 80 degrees on the
passive leg stretch is considered tight) and muscle imbalance should start out with
myofascial release, a good warm-up and static stretching to prevent injury.

162. Matt is a 26-year-old man who is training for a mixed martial arts competition. He has
been training in this area for 3 years. He has good shoulder mobility and has successfully
completed all stability and mobility tests. What stretching techniques should be utilized
before his workout based on his fitness level?

a. Myofascial release, AIS and dynamic stretches


b. Myofascial release, warm-up and static stretches
c. Dynamic and ballistic stretches
d. None of the above.

c - A client who is a performance athlete and exhibits good skill and flexibility would
benefit most from dynamic and ballistic stretches to prepare their muscles for sport
specific exercise.

163. When referring to the body’s “core” muscles, which of the following is not a part of this
group?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Iliopsoas
c. External obliques
d. Rectus femoris

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d - The rectus femoris muscles are located in the extremities, not the central part of the
body referred to as the “core”.

164. Which of the following exercises is best suited for improving hip mobility for an
individual with lumbar stability concerns?

a. Supine bent-knee marches


b. Pelvic tilts
c. Shoulder/glute bridge
d. Spinal twists

a - Supine bent-knee marches are designed to improve hip mobility without compromising
lumbar stability.

165. When designing static-balance training programs, which stance is the most appropriate
in the beginning stage of progression?

a. Split-stance
b. Staggered Stance
c. Hip-width stance
d. Single-leg stance

c - Hip-width stance is the safest, most effective stance to utilize in the beginning stage of
static-balance training.

166. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in the knee joint is responsible for which of the
following actions?

a. Connecting the femur to the fibula


b. Stabilizing the femur on the tibia during knee extension
c. Preventing the tibia from sliding backward
d. Preventing excessive external rotation of the tibia

b - The ACL is responsible for connecting the femur to the tibia, stabilizing the femur on
the tibia during knee extension, preventing the tibia from sliding forward and preventing
excessive internal rotation of the tibia during walking.

167. Which of the following best defines the “Q-angle”?

a. The angle of the femur to the patellar ligament, which is generally larger in men.
b. The angle of the tibia to the patellar ligament, which is generally larger in women.
c. The angle of the femur to the patellar ligament, which is generally larger in women.
d. The angle of the femur to the patellar ligament, which varies from person to person and is
not sex-specific.

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c - The Q-angle is the angle formed by the femur and the patellar ligament, which is
generally larger in women due to increased laxity in joints.

168. When performing a squat, what is the optimal alignment of the tibia and the trunk?

a. An angle of 90 degrees between the tibia and torso.


b. An angle of 30 degrees between the tibia and torso
c. The tibia parallel to the torso
d. It doesn’t matter as long as the knees don’t pass the toes

c - The tibia should be parallel to the torso in that the thighs are parallel to the ground.

169. Which of the following compensatory movements is most likely to occur during the
downward phase of a single-leg squat?

a. Lateral hip shift


b. Shifting backward
c. Medial hip shift
d. Hip extension

a - A lateral hip shift is most likely to occur as a subconscious attempt to re-adjust the base
of support to center.

170. Moving the leg laterally away from the body in the frontal plane is referred to as:

a. Adduction
b. External Rotation
c. Hip Flexion
d. Abduction

d - Moving the leg away from the body laterally in the frontal plane is abduction (think
“the leg is being abducted, or taken away, from the body”).

171. Moving the leg medially toward the body in a frontal plane is referred to as:

a. Adduction
b. External Rotation
c. Hip Flexion
d. Abduction

a - Moving the leg toward the body medially in the frontal plane is adduction (think
“adding the leg to the body).

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172. Which exercise is an example of a pushing movement?

a. Lat pulldown
b. Row
c. Chest press
d. Spinal rotation

c - The chest press is a “pushing exercise” because the push represents the concentric
portion of the exercise.

173. Which exercise is an example of a pulling movement?

a. Chest press
b. Spinal rotation
c. Shoulder press
d. Unilateral row

d - Any form of rowing falls into the “pulling exercise” category as the pull represents the
concentric portion of the exercise.

174. Without strength training, a woman loses approximately half a pound of muscle per
year. At the age of 30 Linda weighs 130lbs with a body fat percentage of 25%, which
means she has approximately 110 pounds of lean weight. If Linda weighs the same at
age 50, approximately how many pounds of body fat will she have gained?

a. 25 pounds of body fat


b. 10 pounds of body fat
c. 30 pounds of body fat
d. Not enough information given

b - If Linda loses muscle but maintains the same weight, she has to have gained body fat at
the same rate as the muscle was lost. If muscle was lost at the projected rate of 0.5
pounds per year and it has been 20 years, Linda will have gained approximately 10 pounds
of body fat.

175. Which of the following can result in the reduction of a person’s Resting Metabolic Rate
(RMR)?

a. Loss of muscle mass


b. Increase in body fat percentage
c. Increase in food consumption
d. Increase in BMI

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a - The amount of muscle a person has is directly related to their resting metabolic rate in
that it takes energy to maintain muscle mass. Less muscle mass requires less energy,
therefore decreasing energy expenditure while at rest, or RMR.

176. Which of the following are utilized for anaerobic energy production?

a. Glycogen
b. Fatty Acids
c. Amino acids
d. Oxygen

a - Glycogen and creatine phosphate are the main substrates utilized for anaerobic energy
production.

177. Which of the following are utilized for aerobic energy production?

a. Creatine phosphate
b. Fatty acids
c. Glycogen
d. None of the above.

b - Fatty acids are the main substrate utilized for aerobic energy production.

178. During the first two weeks of an exercise program, strength gains are typically a result of
what adaptation?

a. Hypertrophy
b. Motor learning
c. Increased numbers of Mitochondria
d. Transient hypertrophy

b - Most strength increases in the first two weeks of a training program are typically due to
increased motor unit recruitment within the nervous system as opposed to an increase in
muscle size, which comes later.

179. Which of the following adaptations to exercise refers to the increase the number of
myofibrils in a muscle fiber?

a. Sarcoplasmic hypertrophy
b. Myofibrillar hypertrophy
c. Transient hypertrophy
d. Catabolic Hypertrophy

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b - Myofibrillar hypertrophy refers to an increase in the number of contractile proteins, or
myofibrils, in a muscle cell, or fiber.

180. Which of the following adaptations to exercise is caused by general fluid accumulation in
the spaces between muscle cells?

a. Sarcoplasmic hypertrophy
b. Myofibrillar hypertrophy
c. Transient hypertrophy
d. Catabolic Hypertrophy

c - Transient hypertrophy, not to be confused with sarcoplasmic hypertrophy which is an


increase in sarcoplasm around the muscle cells, is the condition in which fluid accumulates
around muscle cells and quickly dissipates after exercise.

181. Which of the following is NOT a factor that may influence muscular hypertrophy?

a. Amount of lean muscle mass a person has when beginning a resistance program
b. Whether the person is male or female
c. The muscle fiber types a person has
d. The length of a person’s muscles

a - The likelihood of hypertrophy occurring is not dependent on how much muscle a


person starts out with.

182. Which type of muscle fiber has a larger aerobic capacity?

a. Type IIa
b. Type IIx
c. Type I
d. Type Ib

c - Type I muscle fibers are typically smaller with the capacity to sustain low levels of
activity for extended periods of time. There is no such thing as type Ib muscle fibers.

183. Jim’s 1 repetition maximum for bench press is 100 pounds. If Jim follows the typical
relative muscular endurance pattern, approximately what resistance should he be able
to bench press for 10 repetitions?

a. 100 pounds
b. 50 pounds
c. 75 pounds
d. 65 pounds

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c - Most people can complete about 10 repetitions at 75% of their 1RM.

184. What is the optimal amount of resistance for power exercises?

a. Light resistance
b. Moderate resistance
c. Heavy resistance
d. Very Heavy resistance

b - Training with moderate resistance at moderate to fast speeds is most effective for
reaching a person’s highest power output potential.

185. Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that affects strength development
and program design?

a. Aerobic capacity
b. Muscular endurance
c. Flexibility
d. Speed

d - Speed is one of the six skill-related parameters that affect strength development and
program design. These are - Power, speed, balance, agility, coordination and reactivity.

186. Which of the following is a health-related parameter that affects strength development
and program design?

a. Power
b. Balance
c. Muscular strength
d. Coordination

c - Muscular strength is one of the 5 health-related parameters that affect strength


development and program design. These are - Aerobic capacity, muscular endurance,
muscular strength, flexibility and body composition.

187. Jenna has not participated in an exercise program for 2 years. She wants to get back into
a resistance training routine to gain strength and reduce her body fat percentage. How
many times should you suggest she perform resistance training per week?

a. 2-3
b. 3-4
c. 3-5
d. Once a week

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a - A person who is not currently training or is just beginning should start out exercising
between 2 and 3 times per week.

188. What is the minimum amount of time you should allow each muscle group to recover
before performing resistance training with the same muscle group again?

a. 36 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 12 hours

c - According to ACSM guidelines, a minimum of 48 hours should be allotted for recovery


of each muscle group worked between sessions. This is the estimated amount of time it
takes for muscle to completely recover from resistance exercise.

189. Which of the following is an example of a “superset”?

a. 3 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and leg press with no rests in between.
b. 3 sets of 10 repetitions of leg press with 30 second rests in between.
c. 4 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and lat pulldown with 30 second rests in
between.
d. 3 sets of 10 repetitions alternating bench press and lat pulldown with 60 second rests in
between

a - A superset is a compound of exercises or sets of exercises performed in sequence with


little or no rest between them.

190. Which of the following is an example of alternating pushing and pulling exercises within
a session?

a. 3 sets of chest press alternating with 3 sets of chest flys


b. 3 sets of leg press alternating with 3 sets of squats
c. 3 sets of bicep curls alternating with 3 sets of tricep push-downs
d. 3 set of lat pulldowns alternating with 3 sets of rows

c - When alternating pushing versus pulling, the exercises must alternate between
targeting muscles on either side of the joint. Biceps are on anterior side of the elbow joint
and triceps are on the posterior side.

191. John performs 3 sets of 10 bicep curls with a 50-pound barbell. What is the training
volume of his bicep curls?

a. 150 pounds
b. 500 pounds
c. 1500 pounds
d. 50 pounds

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c - The twining volume of an exercise is determined by multiplying the sets by the
repetitions by the resistance. Therefore, John’s training volume is 3 x 10 x 50 = 1500 total
pounds lifted.

192. Janice is a 35-year-old woman who wants to improve her overall muscular fitness. When
resistance training, how many repetitions should she perform per set?

a. 12 or more
b. 6-12
c. Less than 6
d. 8-15

d - For general muscle fitness it is recommended that a person complete 1-2 sets of
between 8-15 repetitions.

193. Tim is a 25-year-old soccer player looking to improve muscular endurance. When
resistance training, how many repetitions should he perform per set?

a. 12 or more
b. 6-12
c. Less than 6
d. 8-15

a - For muscular endurance it is recommended to perform 2-3 sets of 12 or more


repetitions.

194. Alan is a 28-year-old body builder looking to increase muscle size. When resistance
training, how many repetitions should he perform per set?

a. 12 or more
b. 6-12
c. Less than 6
d. 8-15

b - When training for hypertrophy it is recommended to complete 3-6 sets of 6-12


repetitions.

195. Diana is looking to improve her hiking endurance. What are the main muscle groups that
should be targeted?

a. Pectoralis major and biceps


b. Hip flexors and extensors
c. Latissimus dorsi and erector spinae
d. Rectus abdominis and erector spinae

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b - While some other muscles may act as stabilizers, the hip flexors and extensors are the
main muscles utilized in hiking, and therefore should be the muscles targeted during
resistance training.

196. Diana is looking to improve her hiking endurance. What type of repetitions is right for
her?

a. Low-moderate resistance, high repetitions.


b. Low resistance, low repetitions.
c. High resistance, low repetitions.
d. High resistance, high repetitions.

a - It is important to choose an appropriate number of repetitions for the desired


outcome. When looking to improve endurance, a low-moderate resistance and high
number of repetitions should be used.

197. Which of the following best describes the principle of training overload?

a. Exercising the appropriate muscles.


b. Applying the appropriate amount of resistance for the desired outcome.
c. Exercising within the range of anaerobic glycolysis.
d. Gradually adding more resistance than the muscles have encountered.

d - The principle of overload refers to gradually increasing resistance above what the
muscles have previously encountered in order to achieve strength gains.

198. Which of the following is an example of Stability and Mobility training?

a. Bend and lift movements


b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

d - Stability and mobility training consists of isometric contractions and stretching to


facilitate core strength.

199. Which of the following is an example of Movement training?

a. Bend and lift movements


b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

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a - Movement training consists of developing movement efficiency in all three planes of
motion. Bending and lifting movements is one example.

200. Which of the following is an example of Load training?

a. Bend and lift movements


b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

b - Load training adds muscle force production to movement training, adding resistance to
movement. The leg extension is one example of this.

201. Which of the following is an example of Performance training?

a. Bend and lift movements


b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

c - Performance training is specific to a sport or activity, and generally incorporates power.


Depth jumps are one example of this.

202. John is in the Movement training phase of resistance training. What is an example of an
exercise he should be performing at this time?

a. Weighted squat
b. Leg extension machine
c. Leg press
d. Body weight lunge

d - The Movement training phase consists of body weight only exercises to improve
strength with movement and prepare a client for the Load training phase.

203. Tim is training to increase muscular strength. What percent of his 1 repetition maximum
should he be training at to accomplish this goal?

a. 60-75% of 1RM
b. 70-90% of 1RM
c. 50-60% of 1RM
d. 90-100% of 1RM

b - When training for muscular strength it is recommended to train at an intensity of


between 70 and 90 percent of your 1RM, and for optimal strength development 80-90%.

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204. What is the optimal training intensity when resistance training for hypertrophy?

a. 60-75% of 1RM
b. 70-80% of 1RM
c. 50-60% of 1RM
d. 90-100% of 1RM

b - It is recommended when training for hypertrophy, or size increase, to train at 70-80%


of a person’s 1RM with a moderate number of repetitions and little rest between sets.

205. What is the optimal training intensity when resistance training for muscular endurance?

a. 60-70% of 1RM
b. 70-80% of 1RM
c. 50-60% of 1RM
d. 90-100% of 1RM

a - It is recommended that a person training for muscular endurance should train at an


intensity level between 60 and 70percent of their 1RM. This will facilitate the performance
of a high volume of repetitions necessary for muscular endurance.

206. Which skill-related training parameter involves the stretch-shortening cycle?

a. Speed
b. Balance
c. Reactivity
d. Power

d - Training for power is generally accomplished through plyometric exercise, which


utilizes the stretch-shortening cycle to generate optimal force. This involves an active
stretch followed by immediate shortening of the targeted muscle, facilitating increased
force production.

207. Which part of the muscle senses differences in the magnitude and rate of stretching that
is imposed on a muscle?

a. Myofascia
b. Muscle spindle
c. Mitochondria
d. Muscle fiber

b - The muscle spindle detects quick stretches and invokes an involuntary contraction,
increasing force production.

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208. Which of the following factors contribute to the intensity of performance training?

a. Complexity of movement
b. Speed
c. Body weight
d. All of the above

d - The complexity of movement, speed at which the exercise is performed, person’s body
weight, vertical height or movement and points of contact all affect the intensity of a
plyometric workout.

209. How many days per week should a 13-year-old boy perform resistance training?

a. 1-2 days/wk
b. 3-4 days/wk
c. 2-3 days/wk
d. 5-6 days/wk

c - Adolescents should perform resistance training approximately 2-3 non-consecutive


days per week.

210. Which type of exercise should older adults avoid in order to prevent spikes in blood
pressure?

a. Eccentric contractions
b. Concentric contractions
c. Flexibility training
d. Isometric contractions

d - Older adults should avoid isometric exercises in which a muscle is held in a position of
contraction as this can increase blood pressure. Older adults should also avoid holding
their breath during resistance training for the same reason.

211. Which of the following is NOT a myth about resistance training?

a. Specific resistance training can target fat deposits in certain areas.


b. Children are too young to lift weights.
c. Training with very light resistance that can be performed for more than two minutes is not
beneficial for muscle development.
d. Light weight and high repetitions will improve muscle tone, while heavy weight and low
repetitions will increase muscle mass.

c - Any resistance training should be performed with enough resistance to tire before the
anaerobic threshold of 2 minutes in order to be beneficial for muscle development.

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212. Which of the following is NOT a possible physiological adaptation to cardiorespiratory
exercise?

a. Increasing number of mitochondria within the cells


b. Increase in capilarization of muscle fibers
c. Higher cardiac output
d. Reduction of blood volume

d - An expansion of blood volume occurs due to cardiorespiratory training.

213. What is the minimum amount of time a bout of aerobic exercise should last?

a. 30 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 45minutes
d. 10 minutes

d - According to ACSM guidelines, a person should perform aerobic activity in bouts of at


least 10 minutes in length.

214. According to ACSM guidelines, what are the recommendations of cardiorespiratory


exercise intensity and frequency for healthy adults?

a. Moderate-intensity exercise at least 5 days/wk


b. Moderate-intensity exercise at least 3 days/wk
c. Vigorous-intensity exercise at least 3 days/wk
d. Either a or c

d - It is recommended by ACSM that a healthy adult participate in either moderate-


intensity exercise 5 days per week, vigorous-intensity exercise 3 days per week, or a
combination of the two.

215. Monica is a 40-year-old woman with a resting heart rate of 70 bpm. What is her Heart
Rate Reserve (HRR)?

a. 110 bpm
b. 150 bpm
c. 180 bpm
d. 220 bpm

a - Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) is the difference between a person’s resting heart rate and
their maximum heart rate (MHR). We can use the Karvonen method to determine her
HRR. Since Monica is 40, we can determine her MHR by subtraction 40 from 220, which
gives us 180 bpm. Then we take 70 away from 180 to get a HRR of 110 bpm.

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216. Michael is a 50-year-old man who has not exercised in 8 years. His fitness classification is
“poor”. What should Michael’s heart rate stay between during cardiorespiratory
exercise?

a. 68-93 bpm
b. 96-114 bpm
c. 125-143 bpm
d. 136-155 bpm

b - A deconditioned person with a “poor” fitness classification should exercise at


approximately 57-67% of their maximum heart rate. For Michael, this is 96-114 bpm. You
should be able to deduce this without calculating past his MHR by simply looking at the
ranges.

217. Michelle is a 30-year-old dancer who regularly exercises at a vigorous pace. Her fitness
classification is “excellent”. What should Michelle’s heart rate stay between during
cardiorespiratory exercise?

a. 108-127 bpm
b. 160-179 bpm
c. 179-190 bpm
d. 86-105 bpm

b - A conditioned person with an “excellent” fitness classification should perform


cardiorespiratory exercise at 84-94% of their MHR. This is 160-179 bpm for Michelle. You
should be able to deduce this without calculating past his MHR by simply looking at the
ranges.

218. On the classical Borg Rate of Perceived Exertion scale, what level of exertion does a “6”
represent?

a. Fairly Light
b. Hard
c. Very Weak
d. Nothing at all

d - According to the classic 6-20 Borg scale of RPE, a 6 equates to “Nothing at all”.

219. Which of the following does aerobic exercise utilize but anaerobic does not?

a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Oxygen
d. Carbon dioxide

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c - Aerobic exercise depends on oxygen to burn calories, and anaerobic does not.

220. How many minutes should a client who is of an average fitness level exercise for per
day?

a. 20-30 minutes
b. 30-60 minutes
c. 30-90 minutes
d. 60-120 minutes

c - Any person who is of a fair fitness level or higher can generally safely exercise from 30-
90 minutes per day.

221. How many minutes should a client who is of a poor fitness level exercise for per day?

a. 10-20 minutes
b. 20-30 minutes
c. 30-60 minutes
d. 30-90 minutes

b - A person of a poor fitness level should exercise for between 20 and 30 minutes per day.

222. Which of the following training modes involves an unstructured varying of intensities
throughout a workout, involving both the aerobic and anaerobic systems?

a. Cardiorespiratory training
b. Interval training
c. Agility training
d. Fartlek training

d - Fartlek training involves varying the intensity of a workout to involve both aerobic and
anaerobic systems into the exercise. It is not as structured as interval training in that
intensity is varied based on how the body feels.

223. Which cardiorespiratory training zone is characterized by moderate to vigorous intensity


exercise?

a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 4

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b - Training zone 2 is characterized by moderate-vigorous intensity exercise. There is no
zone 4.

224. Which of the following factors does not directly influence muscular strength
performance?

a. Hormone levels
b. Age
c. Limb Length
d. Muscle circumference

d - The circumference of a muscle does not directly influence the strength contained
therein. Muscle circumference can be affected by fluid retention and many other factors
that do not affect strength performance.

225. Casey is a new client and you are ready to begin your first couple of sessions. Which
variable is the most important to monitor?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Duration
d. Exercise Progression

b – It is important to monitor intensity as one of the most critical elements. However, it


can also be one of the most difficult to measure.

226. Under which of the following general guidelines can most healthy adults between the
ages of 18 and 64 exercise?

a. Perform 150 minutes of exercise per week


b. Perform 250 minutes of exercise per week
c. Can perform muscle strengthening exercises at least once daily
d. All of the above

a – The majority of healthy adults can exercise 150 minutes of moderate intensity exercise
each week.

227. What is the major benefit of performing a cool down?

a. Help your client lose weight faster


b. It increases flexibility faster
c. Prevents blood from pooling in your arms and legs
d. Helps a client stick to a routine

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c – A cool down should be performed for 5 to 10 minutes following a workout to decrease
any chances of pooling blood in the extremities.

228. Carol is struggling with focus and is getting burnt out with exercising. To keep her
motivated, which type of exercise should you consider incorporating?

a. Circuit training
b. Water-based exercise
c. Mind-body exercise
d. High intensity training

c – Mind-body exercise is designed to help a person’s breathing, focus and re-emphasize


the mind-body connection.

229. Which one of the following is not a fast acting hormone in the body?

a. Insulin
b. Cortisol
c. Glucagon
d. Catecholamines

b – Each of the hormones mentioned above, except cortisol, are fast acting. They are
responsible for bringing blood glucose levels back down. Cortisol is a slower acting
hormone.

230. Of the three energy systems in the body, which one is considered the most rapid in ATP
production?

a. Aerobic
b. Anaerobic glycolysis
c. Phosphagen
d. None of the above

c – Phosphagen has the fastest rate of ATP production.

231. Which of the following muscles are not included as one of the four SITS?

a. Infraspinatus
b. Teres Minor
c. Trapezius
d. Subscapularis

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c - The four SIT muscles that surround the rotator cuff are the infraspinatus, subscapularis,
teres minor and supraspinatus.

232. What joint in the body is considered the most mobile?

a. Elbow joint
b. Shoulder joint
c. Wrist joint
d. Hip joint

b - The most mobile joint in the body is the shoulder.

233. Your new client is excited to lose weight and has asked your opinion on a popular diet
program she will be starting. Which of the following is most appropriate for your role as
a personal trainer?

a. Set up a meal plan for her


b. Recommend one or more supplements
c. Calculate her calories and recommend how to lose weight even faster
d. Ask probing questions about the diet and direct her to endorsed government websites

d – It’s appropriate to refer her to government websites like MyPlate as well as ask
questions to get her to consider what the diet may or may not offer. Good probing
questions may include ‘what is the nutrient density’, ‘does it make sense’, and ‘is it
healthy’?

234. What is the primary goal of Phase 1 of the ACE Integrated Training Model?

a. Stability and mobility training


b. Movement training
c. Load training
d. Performance training

a – Stability and mobility is the first step in the ACE Integrated Training Model.

235. When the body exercises on a regular basis, there are a number of cardiorespiratory
adaptations that occur. Which of the following is an example of these adaptations?

a. An enlarged heart
b. An Increase in blood volume
c. Blood pressure is improved
d. All of the above

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d – Each of these adaptations are likely to occur when a client engages in regular,
consistent exercise.

236. What is an example of an effort you can make to decrease DOMS when working with a
client?

a. Exercise only one day per week


b. Minimize eccentric actions as you get started in a new program
c. Start with high intensity exercise then move to low intensity
d. Perform reps as quickly as possible

b – Try to minimize eccentric actions early in your resistance program to lessen the effects
of DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness)

237. Which of the following stretch techniques should be used before a workout or sport
event?

a. Dynamic stretching
b. Static stretching
c. Active isolated stretching
d. Ballistic stretching

a – Dynamic stretching is the most popular and effective method of stretching to do prior
to a workout or sport event or competition.

238. Mark is overweight and has not exercised in a year or more. As a trainer, you will start
him in Phase 1 of Aerobic Base Training. This phase is best characterized by which of the
following?

a. Cardio interval training


b. Moderate intensity training for 3 or 4 days per week
c. 15 minute jog per day
d. Start cardio training with an exertion level below the talk test

d – It is best to start Mark out with a low level of cardio with intensity that places his
breathing and exertion below the talk test level.

239. Prior to introducing lower body plyometrics to your client, what performance goal
should he met first?

a. Squat 1.5 times his weight


b. Perform 3 to 5 box jumps
c. Perform upper body plyometric exercises with good form
d. Squat 10 times with 70% of his body weight

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a – Clients should be able to squat 1.5 times their body weight or perform 5 squats with
60% of their own boy weight within 5 seconds.

240. Allan is at an intermediate level with his plyometric training. How many contacts per
session should he be completing with low intensity drills?

a. 80 to 100
b. 100 to 150
c. 140 to 200
d. 200 to 220

b – For low intensity drills, clients at an intermediate level should be making 100 to 150
contacts per session.

241. Which of the following exercise drills is ideal for agility training?

a. Lateral shuffles
b. ABC drills
c. Horizontal chest pass
d. Jumps in place

a – Lateral shuffles are an excellent example of an agility training drill.

242. Your client is mildly deconditioned with a fair to average fitness classification. What is
the recommended exercise intensity for her to start with?

a. 57 to 67% MHR
b. 74 to 84% MHR
c. 84 to 94% MHR
d. 80 to 91%MHR

b – For a sporadic exerciser with a fair to average fitness classification, the appropriate
exercise intensity is 74% to 84% MHR.

243. A proper warm up should always consist of how many minutes?

a. No warm up time needed for short workouts


b. 1 to 3 minutes
c. 5 to 10 minutes
d. 10 to 15 minutes

c – Regardless of the workout, a proper warm up should be 5 to 10 minutes of low to


moderate intensity exercise.

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244. What is the recommended movement speed per repetition for most machines and free
weight exercises for beginners?

a. 6 seconds
b. 2 seconds
c. 4 seconds
d. 10 seconds

a - Six seconds is considered the best movement speed per repetition for new exercisers .
It is recommended to be 1 to 3 seconds on the concentric part and 2 to 4 seconds on the
eccentric part.

245. A client should demonstrate the proper movement of 5 primary exercises in all three
planes prior to progressing from movement training. Which of the following exercises is
not included in the main 5?

a. Pushing movements
b. Single leg movements
c. Bend and lift movements
d. Core movements

d – The key 5 movements are bend and lift movements, single leg movements, pulling
movements, rotational movements, and rotational movements.

246. Which of the following reasons can be the cause of a muscle imbalance?

a. Structural issues
b. Poor exercise technique
c. One side dominance
d. All of the above

d – There are many reasons why muscles can become imbalanced. It can be the result of a
structural issue, one side dominance, poor positions, repetition in poor positions, etc.

247. The order of exercises you recommend should reflect a beginning group of exercises
which move to more progressive exercises. Which of the following represents a typical
recommended progression?

a. Muscle isolation to unsupported machines


b. Unilateral to bilateral exercises
c. Unsupported to supported machines
d. Muscle isolation to multijoint exercises

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d – A typical progression would be to recommend muscle isolation exercises and
progressing to multijoint exercises.

248. Which training principle describes the need for an ongoing maintenance program to
keep any gains you have made while strength training?

a. Specificity principle
b. Reversibility
c. Diminishing Returns
d. Overload Principle

b - The principle of reversibility implies that a client will likely lose all their gains and
potentially return to pre-training levels if they do not continue training or follow a
maintenance program.

249. Which of the following factors has the most influence over flexibility?

a. Tendons
b. Muscle
c. Joint capsule
d. Skin

c – The joint capsule or ligaments account for 47% of the resistance that is encountered
and prohibits a full range of motion.

250. Which major system in the body handles the breakdown of food and elimination of
waste?

a. Lymphatic system
b. Respiratory system
c. Pulmonary system
d. Digestive system

d - The digestive system handles the absorption, digestion and elimination processes of
the body.

251. You have identified a need for one of your clients to strengthen his posterior chain as a
result of poor posture. What is the proper progression of suggested exercises?

a. Isometric contractions to dynamic ROM exercises


b. Dynamic ROM exercises to isometric contractions
c. Dynamic ROM exercises to myofascial release
d. Isometric contractions to myofascial release

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a – The proper progression is to move from isometric contractions with 2 to 4 reps, then to
1 to 3 sets of dynamic ROM exercises.

252. All of the following joints are responsible for stability except:

a. Knee
b. Glenohumeral
c. Lumbar spine
d. Foot

b - The glenohumeral joint is responsible for mobility as opposed to stability. Each of the
other joints is responsible for stability.

253. What is the biggest issue most people face when squatting?

a. Not enough ankle dorsiflexion


b. Too much ankle dorsiflexion
c. Quadriceps are not strong enough
d. None of the above

a – One of the most common problems people face when squatting is not enough ankle
dorsiflexion and they have trouble keeping their heels down.

254. How many days a week should a new client exercise with intermediate experience,
according to general guidelines?

a. 2 to 3 sessions per week


b. 3 to 4 sessions per week
c. 4 to 7 sessions per week
d. Twice daily

b – The general training guidelines for a person with intermediate experience is 3 to 4


sessions per week.

255. Which of the following is not one of the four mechanisms used by the body to give off
heat?

a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Evaporation
d. Receptors

d – There are four ways the body gives off heat including radiation, evaporation,
conduction and convection.

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256. John has hired a personal trainer to develop more power in his tennis game. However,
after various assessments his trainer has him focused on movement training before he
progresses to the next level. What might be holding him back?

a. He is not able to control his range of motion.


b. He has poor exercise form.
c. He cannot complete more than 15 reps of any exercise.
d. Both a and b

d- John needs to stay in the movement training phase until he is able to demonstrate control
over his range of motion as well as execute each of the exercises with good form.

ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam – Section 3


Program Progression and Modification

257. Beth is a 28-year-old woman who is looking to improve her overall fitness. How long
should she rest for in between sets on a leg press exercise?

a. Less than 30 seconds


b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 30-60 seconds

b - A person exercising for the purpose of general fitness should rest for 30-90 seconds in
between sets of a resistance exercise.

258. Bob is a 30-year-old man looking to increase muscular endurance for distance running.
How long should he rest in between sets on the leg extension machine?

a. Less than 30 seconds


b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 30-60 seconds

a - When training for muscular endurance, a rest interval of less than 30 seconds in
between sets of resistance exercise is optimal.

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259. Andrew is a 35-year-old man who is looking to increase strength in his upper body. How
long should he rest in between sets of a bench press exercise?

a. Less than 30 seconds


b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 30-60 seconds

c - When training for muscular strength or power a person should rest for a good 2-5
minutes between sets of resistance exercise.

260. When training a client to activate their core for the purpose of gaining proximal stability,
what exercise modality should come first in the progression?

a. A sequence of movements in alternating planes with contralateral limbs raised off the
floor.
b. Sagittal plane shoulder movements with one arm raised off the floor.
c. Frontal plane hip movements with one knee raised off the floor.
d. Transverse plane hip movements with one knee raised off the floor.

b - A sequence of controlled shoulder movements with one arm raised an inch off the
ground is an appropriate beginning exercise for core stability.

261. James has been training for and competing in triathlons for 5 years. He wants to increase
running speed and cycling power. How many times should you suggest he train per
week?

a. 2-3
b. 3-4
c. 4-6
d. 4-7

d - An athlete with advanced skill like James should train no less than 4 times a week and
can train up to 7 if done properly.

262. Bill is training at 80-90% of his 1 repetition maximum on leg press. How long should he
typically wait before training his legs again?

a. 24 hours
b. 36 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

d - While it is recommended to wait 48 hours in between general resistance training


sessions, when training at a workload as high as 80-90% of a client’s 1RM it is
recommended to wait 72 hours before working the muscle group again.

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263. Which stance is most challenging in the final stage of progression for static-balance
training?

a. Split-stance
b. Staggered Stance
c. Hip-width stance
d. Single-leg stance

d - The single leg stance offers the greatest challenge in static-balance training.

264. Jim has been resistance training with you for a month. He has been performing sets of
10-15 repetitions on the leg press. You have been gradually increasing the exercise
workload, and he can currently perform 15 leg presses per set with 200 pounds. Which
of the following is the best way to progress from here?

a. Increase the resistance to 220 pounds.


b. Increase the number of repetitions per set to 20.
c. Increase the resistance to 210 pounds.
d. Decrease the number of repetitions to 10.

c - When progressively increasing a workload (resistance., it is best to increase in


increments of 5%, which in this case is 10 pounds.

265. Mary has been training with you for 2 weeks. She can currently perform 45 sit-ups in 2
minutes. What is the best way to progress?

a. Add resistance to her sit-ups.


b. Aim for 60 sit-ups in 2 minutes.
c. Aim for 80 sit-ups in 2minutes.
d. Aim for 80 sit-ups in 3 minutes.

b - It is important to stay within the 2-minute range, or anaerobic range, when performing
strength training. Therefore, increasing the number of repetitions performed during the 2-
minute timeframe is the best way to progress with a bodyweight exercise.

266. Jim has been training with you for 5 weeks and has increased his upper body strength in
pull-ups by 25%. He is going on vacation and you are explaining to him the importance of
continuing to train while he is away. Approximately how long would it take Jim to lose
half of his strength gains?

a. 10 weeks
b. 2.5 weeks
c. 5 weeks
d. 2 weeks

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c - When ceasing resistance exercise a person will lose strength at approximately one half
of the rate in which it was gained. Therefore, about half of Jim’s strength gains will be lost
in 5 weeks.

267. Abigail has been training with you for a year. She has begun seeing fewer results lately
and is becoming discouraged. What is the best way to increase the results she is getting
when she has reached a plateau and is unable to increase resistance or number of
repetitions?

a. Decrease number of repetitions for a short period of time.


b. Decrease resistance for a short period of time.
c. Increase training frequency to more days per week.
d. Change the exercise modality.

d - When a client begins to experience diminishing returns due to having reached their full
genetic potential, introducing a new form of exercise will change the stimulus and force
their body to continue changing.

268. What is the general idea behind periodization?

a. Changing the training exercise.


b. Increasing resistance by 5%.
c. Exercising the appropriate muscles.
d. Varying training intensity and volume.

d - Periodization is about intentionally varying the components of training, especially


volume and intensity, over specific segments of time.

269. Which training modality cannot utilize a 5% increase in training intensity as effectively?

a. Training for muscular strength


b. Training for hypertrophy
c. Training for muscular endurance
d. None of the above

b - When training for hypertrophy an individual performs a large number of exercises with
short recovery periods, which does not facilitate a simple 5% increase for every exercise.
Therefore, when training for hypertrophy intensity increases are determined on an
individual basis.

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270. Molly is just beginning plyometric performance training with you. What is the best
exercise for her to perform?

a. Multiple linear jumps


b. Depth jumps
c. Single linear jumps
d. Jumps in place

d - Jumps in place are the best starting point for a beginner, as they are the lowest on the
scale of intensity.

271. The Performance training phase should last at least how long?

a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 4 weeks
d. 12 weeks

c - The Performance training phase should last at least four weeks.

272. How long should an agility drill last for a beginner?

a. 15-30 seconds
b. Less than 10 seconds
c. 10-60 seconds
d. 60 seconds to 2 minutes

a - A beginner should perform at less than 70% of their maximum effort for a period of 15-
30 seconds.

273. Which of the following is NOT a method by which a trainer can monitor
cardiorespiratory exercise intensity?

a. % Heart rate reserve


b. Number of repetitions performed
c. VO2
d. Talk test

b - Since cardio exercise is not typically in the form of repetitions, this is an ineffective way
of monitoring exercise intensity.

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274. This week Janet has 3 sessions at 60 minutes apiece with an RPE rating of 5. According to
the training progression scale using (RPE., what is Janet’s rating in points for this week?

a. 800 points
b. 900 points
c. 180 points
d. 15 points

b - Using the frequency x duration x intensity in RPE equation, 60 x 3 x 5 = 900 points on


the training progression scale.

275. What is an appropriate MET value for walking slowly?

a. 6.0
b. 4.5
c. 2.0
d. 10.0

c - This is a general knowledge question. Walking slowly has been assigned a MET value of
2.0, where running has been assigned a MET value of 11.5.

276. Jacob is talking 2-3 words at a time during aerobic exercise. When utilizing the Talk Test,
which training zone is Jacob in?

a. Training zone 1
b. Training zone 2
c. Training zone 3
d. Training zone 4

c - Since Jacob cannot talk comfortably while training, he is in training zone 3. There is no
training zone 4.

277. Which of the following is an example of a client who should be referred to a physical
therapist?

a. A client complaining of a lower backache after purchasing a new bed.


b. A client with a reoccurring knee injury.
c. A client that walks with a limp.
d. A client that has fallen and hurt their ankle.

b - Any reoccurring injury should be addressed by a physical therapist to avoid further


injury through exercise.

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278. What is the best course of action if a client is asking for advice on supplements?

a. Refer the client to a registered dietitian or qualified physician for further guidance.
b. Show the client only the supplements your gym carries.
c. Advise your client on only the supplements you are knowledgeable about.
d. Refer the client to a nutrition store.

a - In order to stay within your scope of practice, you may not give advice about
supplements to a client. Referring them to another professional who is able to give such
advice is the best course of action.

279. Which of the following is a factor that has been thought to influence exercise
adherence?

a. Activity history
b. Race
c. Gender
d. Marital status

a - A person’s past participation in a fitness related program is one of the best predictors
of his or her current participation.

280. Jim is a 45 year old investment banker who has been training with your for 2 weeks. He
comes in after work Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays. Lately he has been calling an
hour before his appointments to cancel because he is stuck at work. What is the best
response to his lack of adherence?

a. Thank him for calling and see him whenever he is available.


b. Let him know that your time is important and if he doesn’t come in for his appointments
you’ll have to fill them in with someone else.
c. Recommend him to a trainer that has less clients and more time.
d. Help him to see that health and fitness is a top priority, and ask if there are better times to
make the appointments for.

d - It is important to sit down with this client and explain the importance of their exercise
program, showing them how they will reach their goals by showing up and following their
plan. Changing the time of sessions can be helpful as well.

281. Janet is a 55-year-old woman you have recently taken on as a client. She currently walks
the mile in 15 minutes and wants to be able to run in a 5k in six months. Which is an
example of a SMART goal for her?

a. Janet will complete the mile in 12 minutes within two months.


b. Janet will integrate jogging with walking within two weeks.
c. Janet will feel confident about running in a 5k within five months.
d. Janet will complete the mile in 10 minutes within one week.

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a - For her goal, age and level of conditioning this goal is attainable, measurable (12
minutes), specific (complete the mile., relevant (wants to run a 5k) and time-bound (within
one month). These are all the components that make up a SMART goal.

282. Michael is a 35-year-old man who has a body fat percentage of 19%. He says he is
looking to become “leaner”. He has not participated in any exercise routine for two
years. What is the main fitness indicator to consider when creating a SMART goal for
him?

a. Muscular strength and endurance


b. Medical indicators
c. Body composition
d. Body weight

c - His main goal is to decrease his body fat percentage, which deals with body
composition. Therefore, a relevant goal would be specific to body composition.

283. Emily is a 23-year-old woman who is interested in becoming more fit. She is going to
school and working full time so she has limited availability. You decide to set a goal for
her attendance of sessions, and she suggests “Emily will not miss any scheduled sessions
in October.” What is wrong with this goal?

a. It is unattainable.
b. It is not relevant.
c. It is negative.
d. It is not time-bound.

c - Always avoid setting goals with negative connotations. It is much easier to stick to a
positive goal than avoid a negative one. A better goal would be “Emily will attend every
scheduled session in October.”

284. Treating a client with “cultural competence” means doing which of the following?

a. Respecting your client’s beliefs and lifestyle.


b. Adopting your client’s religion for your own.
c. Sticking with clients of your own race and beliefs.
d. Asking your client about their personal beliefs.

a - Respecting your client’s beliefs and lifestyle is important to forming a positive client-
trainer relationship. This is all that is needed to treat your client with cultural competence.

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285. Matthew is a new client that you have been seeing for two weeks now. You have
completed the health risk appraisal and with no medical clearance needed, checked his
resting measures, tested his static and dynamic posture as well as performed body
composition and aerobic tests. What is the best test to perform next in his training
process?

a. Health Related Assessments (body composition, etc.)


b. Skill Related Assessments
c. Movement Screens
d. Muscular Endurance and Strength

d - At this point he is ready to test his muscular endurance and strength as you have
determined he is not a health risk and begun steps to correct any postural issues. Skill-
related assessments should be saved for after you have determined his need for strength
and/or endurance training.

286. When training a client with scapular protraction, which exercises should be avoided until
the postural misalignment has been corrected to prevent further aggravation of the
misalignment?

a. Lat Pull Down


b. Row
c. Back extension
d. Chest Press

d - Scapular protraction occurs when the serratus anterior and synergistic muscles are
tight and muscles of the upper back are weak. Chest press is an exercise that strengthens
the serratus anterior, and should be avoided to prevent increased tightness in the muscles
causing the imbalance.

287. You are working with a client whose right shoulder appears to be lower than her left.
Which muscles should you have her stretch?

a. Right upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids


b. Left upper trapezius, levator scaula and rhomboids
c. Right Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
d. Left Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi

b - If the right shoulder appears to be lower, the likely cause is elevation of the left
shoulder. This can be caused by tight, shortened muscles pulling it upward. The muscles
that elevate the shoulder are the upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids.

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288. Which of the following is a proper progression for a single-leg squat?

a. Perform with feet at normal gait-width apart


b. Perform a leg swing to mimic gait
c. Add resistance
d. All of the above

d - All of the above are acceptable ways to increase difficulty of a single-leg squat.

289. In which resistance training phase should movement assessments be administered?

a. Stability and Mobility training


b. Movement training
c. Load training
d. Performance training

b - Movement assessments should be administered on a monthly basis to determine if the


client has mastered the movements necessary in order to move on to the Load training
phase.

290. In which resistance training phase should muscular strength and endurance be
periodically assessed?

a. Stability and Mobility training


b. Movement training
c. Load training
d. Performance training

c - Muscular strength and endurance should be periodically assessed throughout the Load
training phase in order to aid in program design and ensure progression.

291. What is the appropriate rate of progression in most resistance training programs?

a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%

b - When utilizing traditional training methods, the appropriate rate of progression for
increasing resistance in most resistance training programs is 5%.

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292. When should resistance be increased in a resistance training program?

a. Once the client determines he or she is ready.


b. When the trainer feels the client is ready.
c. When the client can reach the end-range repetitions in all sets of the exercise.
d. When the client has been performing the exercise for 2 weeks.

c - Resistance progression should be based on completion of repetitions in all sets. Once


the client can complete the end-range of repetitions in all sets of a given exercise, he or
she is ready to increase the load.

293. In which resistance training phase should assessments for power, speed, agility and
reactivity be conducted?

a. Stability and Mobility training


b. Movement training
c. Load training
d. Performance training

d - Performance training focuses on developing power, speed, agility and reactivity specific
to the client’s performance goals. Therefore, it is important to assess the client’s ability to
perform such tasks in order to determine the level of training to implement as well as to
determine their progress.

294. Which of the following is the final progression of movement in resistance training for
power?

a. Rotational
b. Crossover, cutting and curving
c. Lateral
d. Linear-forward

b - Crossover, cutting and curving are the most complex movements in power training and
should come only after rotational movement has been mastered.

295. When should you progress a client to phase 2 of cardiorespiratory training?

a. If the client has event-specific goals


b. If the client is a fitness enthusiast looking for a challenge
c. When the client can sustain phase 1 for 20-30 minutes
d. When the client reports an RPE of 10 in phase 1

c - Once the client can sustain steady-state cardio for 20-30 minutes they are ready to
move to phase 2, or Aerobic-efficiency training.

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296. Which of the following clients should be progressed to phase 3 of cardiorespiratory
training, Anaerobic-endurance training?

a. Angie has begun her program last week and is eager to build cardiorespiratory endurance.
b. Michael has goals related to anaerobic endurance and has been training in phase 2 for a
month.
c. Andrew has been training in phase 2 for 2 months. He is about halfway to his weight loss
goal.
d. Jim is in phase 1 and can now perform cardio exercise for 25 steady minutes.

b - The only reason to progress from Aerobic-efficiency training to Anaerobic-endurance


training is if your client has anaerobic-specific goals or is bored and physically ready for the
challenge. If a client is reaching their goals in phase 2 it is perfectly alright to keep them
there.

297. According to the ACE FIT model, which phase of cardiorespiratory training should come
first in a training program?

a. Aerobic-efficiency training
b. Aerobic-base training
c. Anaerobic-endurance training
d. Anaerobic-power training

b - Aerobic base training is the first phase of the ACE IFT model. It gets sedentary clients to
begin exercising at a low-moderate intensity.

298. Which of the following are methods you can utilize to help clients avoid overtraining
syndrome?

a. Distribute zone 1 cardio training throughout warm ups and cool downs
b. Utilize zone 1 cardio training on moderate-intensity days
c. Utilize zone 1 cardio training for recovery after zone 2 or 3 training intervals
d. All of the above
e. Both b and c only

d - Continuing to utilize zone 1 cardiorespiratory training intermittently can help a client to


feel confident and increase self-efficacy, which can decrease the possibility of overtraining
syndrome occurring.

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299. Which of the following is an example of an exercise that a client in phase 1 of
cardiorespiratory training would perform?

a. Five 30 second sprint intervals


b. 20 minute run
c. 30 minute jog
d. 20 minutes of Power walking

d - Phase 1 of cardiorespiratory training should not pass level 1 on the talk test. The client
should be able to perform this exercise without becoming exhausted and should be
relatively comfortable throughout the exercise.

300. How many days per week should a client do cardio exercise if they are in phase 2 of
cardiorespiratory training and want to keep progressing toward their goal?

a. 1-2 days
b. 2-4 days
c. 4-5 days
d. 5-6 days

b - Ideally, a person in phase 2 of their cardiorespiratory training should aim for 3 days of
cardio exercise per week in order to progress.

301. Which of the following is an example of a positive progression in functional movement


and resistance training?

a. Standing two-arm cable press to Shoulder bridge


b. Lunges to Wall sits
c. Wood chop to Pelvic tilts
d. Plank to Prone lies on stability ball with torso movements

d - When progressing in functional movement and resistance training it is important to


start with static exercises and move to movement training. Plank is a static exercise
focusing on core and torso movements on a stability ball focus on the core as well but with
added movement, thus progressing the exercise in a positive direction.

302. Which of the following clients would most likely need a recovery week?

a. Jay began exercising with you 2 weeks ago and is making positive progress toward his
goals of increased balance and weight loss.
b. Mary began exercising with you 2 months ago and has been steadily progressing toward
her goal of body fat reduction.
c. Alex has been exercising with you for 2 months and has been increasing intensity in his
anaerobic workouts over the last 3 weeks in order to reach his goal of increased anaerobic
power.
d. Janel has been exercising with you for 9 months and wants to ramp up her training to
compete in a body building show.

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c - The period of time a client has been training does not necessarily determine their need
for a recovery week, but their training intensity and goals do. A person who has been
training anaerobically for several weeks and has an anaerobic goal should take a week for
their body to recover and prepare for their next level of training.

303. Which of the following is the most reliable predictor of participation in an exercise
program?

a. Health condition
b. General tendencies
c. Motivation level
d. Past participation

d - Past participation in an exercise program is the most reliable predictor of current


participation. If a person exercised 5 days a week for 10 years, they are much more likely
to adhere to a program now.

304. Which of the following clients has a positive Locus of Control?

a. Amy is excited about beginning her program but lets you know that she is very busy.
b. Shellie enjoys exercise. She wants to lose 50 pounds but decides to set her goal for 25 in
case she can’t get to 50.
c. Mike sets reasonable goals and shows up enthusiastic every day.
d. Jenna sets reasonable goals and is excited about her program. She sometimes has trouble
sticking to her fitness goals.

c - A person with a positive locus of control believes they have control over his or her
health outcomes and acts in accordance with this belief.

305. Which of the following training principles cannot be altered during an exercise session?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Type
d. Time

a - Frequency refers to how often a person exercises, and therefore cannot be changed
during a session.

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306. Helen is focusing on using her own bodyweight to create an overload. Which training
principle is she utilizing?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Type
d. Time

b - The amount of resistance (her own body weight) is a measure of the intensity of
Helen’s workout.

307. You decide that Mark’s sessions should last for 60 minutes as opposed to the 45 he has
currently been doing in order to increase results. Which training principle are you
altering?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Type
d. Time

d - Changing the duration of an exercise routine is altering the time principle.

308. When designing an exercise program for Mark you decide on 60-minute sessions of
resistance training 3 times per week. Which training principle have you forgotten to
include in Mark’s exercise plan?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Type
d. Time

b - There is no intensity in Mark’s plan. You should include the workload in every plan in
order to effectively measure outcomes.

309. What intensity level should generally be utilized for sustained aerobic activities?

a. Low
b. Low-Moderate
c. Moderate
d. Moderate-High

b - A low to moderate intensity should be maintained in order for a person to sustain


aerobic exercise as well as to obtain results from said exercise.

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310. Which of the following is an inappropriate exercise for a woman who is 5 months
pregnant?

a. Graded walking on a treadmill


b. Step-ups
c. Jump rope
d. Abdominal crunches

c - Pregnant women are generally advised to avoid any form of jumping.

311. Which of the following is an example of overtraining syndrome?

a. Increased hunger
b. Decreased blood pressure
c. Increased resting heart rate
d. Decreased resting heart rate

c - An increased resting heart rate is generally a sign of overtraining, and the individual
should decrease training principles until signs have dissipated.

312. Most non-competitive fitness goals can be accomplished through which phase of
cardiorespiratory training?

a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

b - Phase 2 is the final phase before the anaerobic phases, and most non-competitive
fitness goals can be accomplished aerobically.

313. How many days a week should a normally healthy client engage in resistance training for
each major muscle group?

a. 1 day per week


b. 2 days per week
c. 2 to 3 days per week
d. 4 to 5 days per week

c – Each major muscle group can be trained 2 to 3 days per week as a general
recommendation.

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314. What is the recommended time a client should spend on aerobic exercise per day as a
general recommendation?

a. 10 to 20 minutes
b. 20 to 30 minutes
c. 30 to 60 minutes
d. 60 to 90 minutes

c – The recommended time for aerobic exercises is between 30 to 60 minutes of moderate


exercise per day.

315. Becky is overweight and gets discouraged easily by her excess weight. Using the health
at every size approach, what are some ways you can use to help her stay motivated?

a. Switch the focus from her weight to healthy habits.


b. Help her set SMART goals.
c. Focus on self-esteem and self-efficacy
d. All of the above
e. Both a and c only

d – Each of the ways mentioned above helps to take the focus away from her weight and
back to her health and wellness.

316. Your client has low back pain off and on. Which of the following tests should she check
with her physician prior to performing?

a. Curl up test
b. Push up test
c. Step test
d. Squat test

a – If the client is experiencing low back pain, she should seek advice from her physician
prior to performing a curl up test.

317. A one rep max test should be given in which phase of the ACE IFT Model?

a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 3 or 4

d – A one rep max test should be conducted in phase 3 or 4 to make sure the body has
proper stability, mobility and movement.

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318. Following an ankle injury, your client has been cleared for exercise. You will begin with
exercises that help reestablish ankle stability. Which of the following is the appropriate
exercise progression?

a. Backward running-multidirectional-side to side


b. Side to side-forward running-multidirectional
c. Forward running-side to side-multidirectional
d. Multidirectional-side to side-forward running

c – The appropriate exercise progression modifications would be to start forward running,


then progress to side-to-side movements, then move to multidirectional motions.

319. What is the name of the periodized training cycle which covers a 6 to 12 month period?

a. Macrocycle
b. Mesocycle
c. Microcycle
d. Linear periodization

a – A macrocycle is considered the long range, primary cycle which is typically 6 to 12


months long.

320. Which two primary hormones are associated with tissue growth and muscular
development?

a. Cortisol and testosterone


b. Cortisol and growth hormone
c. Growth hormone and testosterone
d. None of the above

c – The two primary hormones responsible for muscular strength and size are growth
hormone and testosterone.

321. Which of the following statements is false regarding muscular growth and strength?

a. Tendon inserts on the bone does not affect muscle hypertrophy.


b. A person’s gender does not affect muscle quality.
c. Limb length influences muscle hypertrophy.
d. Muscle length relative to bone length can determine muscle size.

c – All of the following statements are correct except (c). Limb length does not influence
muscle size, although it is a factor in strength performance.

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322. Your primary goal in working with a new client is to build muscular endurance. Which
rest interval is most appropriate?

a. 30 to 90 seconds
b. Less than 30 seconds
c. 2 to 5 minutes
d. 90 to 120 seconds

b – The suggested training volume when working with a client who is pursuing a goal of
muscular endurance is to perform 2 to 3 sets with less than 30 second rest intervals.

323. One of your clients is an aspiring bodybuilder. Which of the following exercise programs
would he most likely NOT incorporate?

a. Circuit training
b. Supersets
c. Compound sets
d. Assisted training

a – The most common advanced training programs used by bodybuilders include


supersets, breakdown training, assisted training, and compound training.

324. What should a client be proficient at prior to starting with performance training?

a. Strong core function


b. Anaerobic efficiency
c. Sufficient static and dynamic balance
d. All of the above

d – A client should be able to show stability, mobility and movement efficiency in all areas
prior to performance based training.

325. A client has suffered an injury and is showing signs of pain, redness and swelling. Which
phase of the healing process is he in?

a. Phase 1-inflammation
b. Phase 2-fibrolastic
c. Phase 3-maturation and remodeling
d. Phase 4-rehabilitation

a – The client is showing signs of tissue inflammation and this is the first phase of the
healing process.

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326. Megan is performing a kettlebell exercise and feels sudden pain in her shoulder. What is
considered an example of an early intervention strategy?

a. RICE
b. Stretching the muscles where she feels pain
c. Strengthening the muscles where she feels pain
d. None of the above

a – Rest-Ice-Compression-Elevation (RICE) is considered an effective early intervention


strategy for an acute injury.

327. One of your clients is an avid runner with a history of lower extremity injuries. You
decide to educate her on the importance of proper footwear. Which of the following
guidelines should you provide?

a. Always choose a big brand name


b. Get fitted for footwear at the end of the day
c. Get fitted for footwear at the beginning of the day
d. Never wear the same weight of socks

b – Suggest that your client get fitted at the end of the day when her foot size is most likely
at its largest size. It is possible for a person’s foot size to increase by up to ½ size at the end
of the day.

328. Jim is 35 years old and an avid runner. Recently he has been complaining of an ‘achy’
pain behind his patella. Which of the following training modifications should you make?

a. Avoid deep squats


b. Eliminate any downhill running
c. Add stretches for his IT band
d. All of the above

d – Jim is showing signs of patellofemoral pain syndrome. He should avoid deep squats and
all downhill running likely to place more stress on the patella. Stretching should focus on
tight calves, hamstrings and the IT band.

329. One of your clients is taking antidepressants. What is the likely effect on her exercising
heart rate?

a. No significant effect
b. An increase
c. A decrease
d. There is no data on this

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a – Antidepressants have no significant effect on exercising heart rate. There can be an
increase in resting heart rate however.

330. In what phase should you test your client for power?

a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4
e. Any of the phases will work

d – Any tests involving power, speed, and agility should be tested in phase 4 of the ACE IFT
Model.

331. What is an appropriate strength ratio for flexion and extension of the shoulder joint?

a. 2:3
b. 3:2
c. 1:1
d. 2:1

a – The appropriate strength ratio for flexion to extension of the shoulder joint is 2:3.

ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam – Section 4


Professional Conduct, Safety and Risk Management

332. Which of the following is within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

a. Advising a client on which types of supplements to take.


b. Giving relationship advice to a client.
c. Assisting a client in setting realistic fitness goals.
d. Gently massaging a client’s sore muscle.

c - ACE personal trainers need to stay within their scope of practice, which includes helping
a client set goals, in order to keep the client safe and avoid legal issues.

333. Which of the following is appropriate according to the ACE personal trainer’s scope of
practice?

a. Diagnosing a client’s ankle injury.


b. Massaging a client’s shoulder.
c. Teaching a client self myo-fascial releasing techniques.
d. Setting up a calorie-restricted diet plan for a client.

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c - Teaching self-massage is a hands-free way to help a client reduce muscle soreness, thus
staying within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice.

334. An ACE certified personal trainer must complete how many continuing education hours
in what period of time to keep their certification active?

a. 10 hours in 1 year
b. 20 hours in 2 years
c. 20 hours in 1 year
d. 10 hours in 2 years

b - An ACE certified personal trainer must complete 20 hours of continuing education


study in a two year time period to keep one’s certification active.

335. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of inflammation at a joint?

a. Pain
b. Warmth
c. Increased range of motion
d. Loss of function

c - A person suffering from inflammation will experience decreased range of motion at that
joint due to swelling.

336. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to stretching?

a. Presence of osteoporosis
b. Joint swelling
c. Prolonged immobilization of muscles
d. A healing fracture site

d - While some conditions may pose slight concern and require extra consideration while
stretching, a healing fracture site should never be stretched, no matter what.

337. Which of the following is a form that notifies the client of the risk associated with
exercise?

a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)


b. Health History Questionnaire
c. Informed Consent form
d. Liability Waiver

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c - An informed Consent form notifies the participant of the risk of injury associated with
exercise.

338. When on the treadmill, your client becomes dizzy and passes out. She hits her head on
the ground. She is unconscious and non-responsive. What is an appropriate action to
take?

a. Go to a phone and call 911.


b. Gently move her out of the way of bystanders and prop her head with a pillow.
c. Have a coworker call 911 while you stay with her.
d. Begin CPR.

c - It is necessary to call 911 if your client is unconscious, but you should never leave your
client. You should never move someone with a possible head or neck injury unless they are
somewhere life threatening.

339. What should NOT be included in an emergency response report?

a. Name of the victim


b. Your opinion of what happened
c. The series of events leading to the incident
d. Witnesses

b - The incident report is not a place to put your opinion. Simply state what you witnessed
without inferring anything.

340. When should an emergency response report be filled out?

a. While you are waiting for EMS to arrive.


b. Within a week of the incident.
c. Immediately after the incident has been controlled.
d. Within 3 days of the incident.

c - Once the incident is over and the client is safe, you should immediately fill out the
incident report.

341. After a client falls and EMS is called, with whom can you share the incident report with?

a. The client’s spouse


b. The facility general manager
c. Your coworkers
d. The EMS workers

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b - The facility general manager and medical director are the only people who need to see
the incident report. HIPAA is a law that prevents the events from being discussed with
anyone who has not received appropriate permission to view the information.

342. What is a proper place to store an incident report?

a. In your desk drawer


b. On your desk
c. In a locked filing cabinet at the gym
d. In a locked filing cabinet in your home
e. Either c or d

c - It is not appropriate to take any incident reports home, and they must remain in a
locked cabinet.

343. Upon approaching a client who is unconscious and non-responsive, what should you
check and in which order?

a. Circulation, breathing and airway


b. Breathing, airway and circulation
c. Airway, breathing and circulation
d. Airway, circulation and breathing

c - The ABCs are Airway, Breathing and Circulation, in that order. This will ensure that the
most life-threatening issues are addressed first.

344. You notice that a member of the gym has fallen to the ground. What is the first thing you
should do?

a. Call 911
b. Begin CPR
c. Check the ABCs
d. Ask her if she is ok

d - The first thing you should do is to ask the victim if they are okay. You can determine if
they are conscious and potentially rule out any of the other options with this simple
question, as well as prevent frightening them.

345. What questions should you ask a victim of a fall who is conscious?

a. Medical history
b. Spouse’s name and phone number
c. If they would like you to call someone to pick them up
d. Their age and weight

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a - A person’s medical history is pertinent and logical information to ascertain in a medical
emergency.

346. In which situation should you call 911?

a. A client has fallen and twisted his ankle.


b. A member has fallen and hit her head and is responsive
c. A client needs to sit down from dizziness after a difficult bout of exercise
d. A client is having difficulty breathing and you are unsure of what to do

d - Whenever you are unsure of what to do in a medical emergency you should call 911.
Difficulty breathing is a medical emergency and can turn fatal within minutes, so it is
important to call 911 in the case of difficulty breathing.

347. In which situation is it not necessary to call 911?

a. Your client has had a seizure


b. A member is suffering from chest pain
c. Your client is vomiting and ends her session early
d. A member is threatening to hit another member

c - It is not necessary to call 911 when a client is vomiting, unless it is uncontrollably or


interfering with their breathing.

348. Which of the following is NOT included in the “links” of the Chain of Survival?

a. Early access
b. Early CPR
c. Early transportation
d. Early advanced care

c - The third link of the four is Early Defibrillation.

349. Which of the following is a question you may be expected to answer when calling 911?

a. What number are you calling from?


b. Are you able to assist with CPR?
c. Do you have access to an AED?
d. All of the above

d - All of the above are question you might be asked when calling 911.

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350. What is the purpose of CPR?

a. To help the body maintain perfusion.


b. To get air into the person’s lungs.
c. To keep the person conscious.
d. None of the above.

a - The purpose of CPR is to help the person’s body maintain perfusion, or blood flow and
oxygen delivery to tissues.

351. On whom should you use an Automated External Defibrillator (AED.?

a. A client who is unconscious and breathing shallowly.


b. A member who is unconscious and not breathing but has a pulse.
c. A member who is unconscious, not breathing and doesn’t have a palpable pulse.
d. A member who is barely conscious and complaining of chest pain.

c - An AED should only be used if the person is unconscious, not breathing and has no
palpable pulse.

352. Which of the following is NOT a preventable risk factor for heart disease?

a. Obesity
b. High cholesterol
c. High blood pressure
d. Family history
e. Both a and d

d - All of the above except a family history of heart disease are preventable risk factors for
heart disease, which can be reduced with regular exercise.

353. Howard is a diabetic client whom you have been training for 3 months. While exercising
he begins to show signs of hypoglycemia. What is the best course of action?

a. Discontinue the exercise and have Howard sit down, give him something sugary to drink
and monitor him.
b. Give Howard a sugary drink and continue the exercise, monitoring him.
c. Have Howard discontinue the exercise and give him a protein bar and diet drink.
d. Contact EMS as this is a potential life-threatening situation.

a - You should discontinue exercise at the first signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It
is not yet necessary to contact EMS. It is important to give the person something sugary to
eat or drink as opposed to anything with artificial sweeteners or only protein. He should be
monitored in case he loses consciousness.

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354. Which of the following are signs of hypoglycemia?

a. Excess sweating
b. Hunger
c. Headache
d. All of the above

d - All of the above are signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) as well as weakness and
fatigue.

355. Your client has been running sprints outside on a hot summer day. She begins to become
dizzy and pale with cool, clammy skin. What steps should you take to prevent heat
stroke?

a. Have her lie down in a cool area with her feet elevated and give her fluids.
b. Have her sit down and wait until she feels better to resume exercise.
c. Give her plenty of fluids and wait to continue exercise until she feels better.
d. Discontinue exercise and send her home.

a - When a client is showing signs of heat exhaustion it is important to remove them from
the heat, give fluids and elevate their feet to avoid shock.

356. Your client is exercising outside on a hot day and becomes confused. She has hot, bright
red skin and is having difficulty breathing. She is scared and dizzy. What is the best
course of action to take?

a. Discontinue exercise, call 911 and begin actively cooling her.


b. Discontinue exercise, begin actively cooling her and call 911.
c. Discontinue exercise, have her sit down inside and give her fluids.
d. Discontinue exercise, have her lie down inside with her head elevated and begin actively
cooling her.

b - It is important to begin actively cooling someone who is showing signs of heat stroke as
soon as possible. Use cold, wet washcloths, ice packs, or even a cool bath. Once you have
begun this process, activate EMS.

357. Your client trips over a piece of exercise equipment and falls, twisting her ankle. She
cannot get up on her own and it is painful to stand on. What is the best course of action?

a. Help her over to a chair, wrap her ankle for her and offer her some ibuprofen.
b. Call 911 immediately.
c. Help her to a chair, offer an ice pack and allow her to call someone to transport her to the
hospital.
d. Let her know that she has sprained her ankle and take her to the hospital.

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c - This is a situation in which the person can make his or her own decision about
contacting EMS. It is not okay to diagnose an injury or illness, wrap the injury, or give any
medication. Just help the person become more comfortable and offer something non-
invasive like an ice pack.

358. Which of the following is associated with an independent contractor versus and
employee?

a. Receives training from the fitness center.


b. Receives payment specific to job duties performed.
c. Oversees fitness center procedures.
d. Receives health benefits from the fitness center.

b - An independent contractor will be paid based on specific duties rather than an hourly
wage.

359. Which of the following is associated with an employee versus an independent


contractor?

a. Choosing when and where to work.


b. Maintaining autonomy in training decisions.
c. Receiving little to no guidance.
d. Having taxes withheld from their paycheck for Social Security.

d - Employees of fitness centers generally have taxes withheld from their checks, as
opposed to independent contractors who will be responsible for their own withholdings.

360. Which of the following is an example of negligence?

a. Neglecting to ask if your client would like some water.


b. Neglecting to give your client a break in the middle of their session.
c. Neglecting to spot a client during a bench press exercise.
d. Neglecting to ask a client for payment before the session.

c - This could potentially cause harm to the client and goes against what a “reasonable and
prudent professional” would do.

361. An Informed Consent form is designed to accomplish which of the following?

a. Serve as a formal contract between the client and trainer.


b. Acknowledge that the client has been informed of risks associated with exercise.
c. Demonstrate that the client was made aware of “normal” outcomes of physical activity.
d. Act as a waiver.

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b - An informed consent form acts only as proof that the client has been made aware of
the possible risks of exercise and the potential benefits and dangers of the program.

362. Which of the following is an example of a personal trainer performing duties outside of
their scope of practice?

a. Advising the client to look up the food pyramid online.


b. Advising the client on how to better perform the bench press exercise.
c. Advising the client on how to stretch the hamstrings.
d. Advising the client on supplements to take for increasing muscle mass.

d - It is out of the personal trainer’s scope of practice to advise clients on supplements.

363. Which of the following is NOT a component of professional liability insurance that
should be acquired by all personal trainers?

a. Specifically designed to cover the health and fitness industry.


b. At least $1 million in coverage.
c. Covers personal injuries that occur as a result of a training session.
d. Covers broken fitness equipment.

d - Professional liability insurance does not generally cover any broken equipment at
fitness facilities, but is more for covering liabilities that arise with clients.

364. In which situation is it not okay to utilize and display the ACE logo?

a. Business cards
b. Advertisements
c. Items for sale such as videos
d. Personal websites

c - It is not okay to utilize and display the ACE logo on any items that you are selling, or
materials that promote services other than personal training.

365. Which of the following is a component of a business plan?

a. Executive summary
b. Marketing plan
c. Risk analysis
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b only

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d - The components of a business plan are - Executive summary, business description,
marketing plan, operational plan, risk analysis and decision-making criteria.

366. Which of the following is the best method of client retention?

a. Telling the client that exercise will make them feel good and reduce the risk of disease.
b. Telling the client all about yourself and your philosophy often.
c. Developing a long-term exercise plan through periodization.
d. Offering a cost effective way to purchase sessions.

c - Developing a long-term exercise plan and establishing concrete, attainable goals is a


great way to maximize client retention. This can be accomplished based on the concept of
periodization.

367. Which of the following does NOT fall within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

a. Developing and implementing exercise programs.


b. Stratifying risk for cardiovascular disease.
c. Teaching exercise methods and progressions
d. Prescribing personal nutrition plans.

d - The ACE personal trainer certification does not prepare you to council clients on
nutrition or to “prescribe” anything.

368. Which of the following does NOT fall within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

a. Assisting clients in setting and achieving goals.


b. Responding appropriately to emergency situations.
c. Diagnosing the source of pains.
d. Administering fitness assessments.

c - ACE personal trainers cannot legally diagnose anything.

369. Which of the following does NOT fall within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

a. Rehabilitating a knee injury.


b. Utilizing spotting techniques.
c. Demonstrating exercise methods.
d. Educating clients about health-related topics.

a - An ACE personal trainer cannot rehabilitate anything.

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370. Kelly has been diagnosed with a ligament sprain in her knee. She has minimal
impairment and tenderness and has been advised to bear weight as tolerated. What
severity level is Kelly’s ligament sprain?

a. Grade I
b. Grade II
c. Grade III
d. Grade IV

a - A sprain with minimal discomfort and the option of weight bearing is a grade I sprain.

371. Which of the following is NOT an overuse condition?

a. Tendinitis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Stress fracture
d. Bursitis

b - Osteoporosis is a condition in which bone density decreases, and it not related to


overtraining.

372. Which of the following is a common management technique for musculoskeletal


injuries?

a. Anti-inflammatory medication
b. Avoiding aggravating movements
c. Physical therapy
d. All of the above

d - All of the above are common techniques for managing musculoskeletal injuries, as well
as ice/heat modalities and cortisone injections.

373. Which of the following exercises should be avoided in a person with carpal tunnel
syndrome?

a. Overhead Press
b. Elbow extension
c. Abdominal crunch
d. Lat pulldown

a - The overhead press puts the wrists in a fully extended position, which can aggravate
carpal tunnel syndrome, along with full flexion.

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374. Which of the following is an example of a confidential document that should remain in a
locked drawer?

a. Daily exercise logs


b. Fitness assessment data
c. In incident report from a fall
d. Personal trainer’s schedule

c - All incident reports are considered confidential and should be kept in a locked drawer.

375. Which of the following is based on professional standards and the trainer’s age,
condition and knowledge?

a. Standard of care
b. Statute of frauds
c. Inherent risks
d. Vicarious liability

a - Standard of care is based on an exercise professional’s actions in light of current


professional standards as well as the trainer’s age, condition and knowledge of the
participant.

376. At the least, how frequently should the training environment be examined for potential
hazards?

a. Once a week
b. Between every training session
c. Once a day
d. Once a month

c - At a minimum, the training environment should be assessed for hazards once a day
prior to training sessions.

377. The inspection of a training area should include which of the following assessments?

a. Floor surfaces are clean and appropriate for the intended use
b. All screws are tightly fastened to each piece of equipment
c. Bathrooms are clean
d. Weights have been removed from all equipment

a - It is important to check floor surfaces, lighting and temperature as well as to scan


equipment for proper function.

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378. What should the trainer do if an unsafe facility condition is noticed?

a. Notify management and avoid the area


b. Notify management and utilize the equipment as well as possible
c. Fix the equipment
d. Exercise caution in using the equipment

a - If equipment is malfunctioning, you should avoid it altogether to prevent legal and/or


safety issues.

379. What is the best course of action if you come across a piece of exercise equipment that
is broken or malfunctioning?

a. Exercise caution when using the equipment


b. Notify management
c. Put a sign on the equipment
d. Disable or remove the equipment

d - It is important to disable or remove any malfunctioning or broken equipment to


prevent potential injuries.

380. Which of the following presents a safety hazard?

a. A client who is wearing old tennis shoes and a torn t-shirt


b. Letting the client finish their set while you leave to get their folder
c. Allowing a client’s friend to watch their session
d. A client stopping the treadmill to get a drink of water

b - A trainer should never leave their client unattended while exercising. Unsupervised
activity is a liability and safety issue.

381. Which of the following goes against safety guidelines?

a. Leaving your client to take a call while they fill out paperwork
b. A client exercising in open-toed shoes
c. Your client drinking their own pre-workout drink during your session
d. Not spotting an exercise performed on a machine.

b - Clients must wear any necessary protective equipment, including closed-toed shoes.

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382. What is the best course of action if you notice a client going into shock?

a. Have her decrease her exercise intensity


b. Have her sit with her head between her legs
c. Activate EMS
d. Have her lie down with her feet elevated

d - When a person is showing signs of shock they should lie down and elevate their feet to
facilitate blood flow to their head.

383. Amnesia, headache, drowsiness and nausea are signs and symptoms of which condition?

a. Spinal injury
b. Concussion
c. Shock
d. Depression

b - If a person has fallen and is experiencing drowsiness, nausea or headache they may be
suffering from a concussion and should seek medical attention.

384. What position should you take when spotting a client during a bench press exercise?

a. Stand with a steady base in front of the client so you can see their entire body.
b. Stand with a steady base above the client’s head with your hands following under the bar
in case they need assistance.
c. Stand to either side of the client so you can make sure their back remains flat.
d. Stand with a steady base at the client’s head with your arms in a neutral position.

b - You should always be in the position that best facilitates safety if the weight becomes
too much for the client.

385. All of the following are examples of a secondary assessment a trainer might complete in
an emergency situation, EXCEPT:

a. Check for the ABCs.


b. Head to toe assessment looking for abrasions, swelling, etc.
c. Check vital signs such as pulse and blood pressure.
d. Keep a conversation going to reassure the victim.

a – Checking for the ABC’s (airway, breathing, circulation) is a primary assessment. A


secondary assessment is to check for any issues that are not life threatening.

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386. Your client appears to have difficulty breathing while performing her circuit exercise
routine. Her evaluation is a +4 on the Dyspnea scale. What is the most appropriate
action for you to take as a trainer?

a. Have her continue to exercise as the program dictates.


b. Have her continue to exercise but make some modifications.
c. Ask her to stop exercising.
d. Ask her to grab some water and continue with the program.

c – According to the Dyspnea scale, a level 4 suggests you should ask the client to stop
exercising.

387. One of the professional responsibilities of a trainer is to inspect the facility ahead of time
to ensure its safety for clients. Which of the following is NOT an example of an
inspection point?

a. Check the lighting of the facility


b. Check air and heat systems
c. Check dumbbell rack to make sure there are none missing
d. Check space requirements to make sure you can safely conduct exercises

c – Inspections are completed for the purpose of ensuring client safety. Having the
dumbbells available has more to do with convenience than anything safety related.

388. What should be one of the top priorities when managing your own personal training
facility?

a. Protecting your intellectual property


b. Handing out marketing brochures
c. Rick management
d. Making sure all of the funding is in place

c – Safety and risk management should always be a primary concern for a personal trainer.

389. Which acronym represents a credible organization or agency which can be used as a
valuable resource for the ACE personal trainer?

a. ACSM
b. NMMA
c. BBB
d. USB

a – There are many top organizations that a personal trainer can rely on for research and
credible information. One of these organizations is the ACSM (the American College of
Sports Medicine).

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390. Personal trainers can use SOAP notes to record client information and document
progress. What information is O related?

a. The client’s symptoms and progress


b. Weight, height and age measurements
c. A summary of the client’s health status
d. A summary of the next steps in the overall client plan

b – The ‘O’ in SOAP is to record objective information such as vital stats, height, weight
and other important measurements.

391. Your client has a history of exercise induced asthma. Which of the following factors is
important to consider when your client is working out?

a. Keep exercises at less than 80% of max workload.


b. Increase warm up and cool down time.
c. Consider the temperature and humidity.
d. All of the above.

d – Each of these factors plays a role in reducing the chances of exercise induced asthma.
Other factors include intensity and type of exercise as well as air quality and any allergens
in the air.

392. After a client with cardiovascular disease has been cleared for exercise, an initial
exercise program should consist of which of the following?

a. High intensity, low duration exercises


b. Isometric exercises
c. Use 2 to 3 sets of 12 to 15 repetitions
d. Low intensity endurance exercises

d – While each client will be different, the majority of clients should begin with low
intensity, endurance exercise, like walking, using a stationary bike or low impact aerobics,
until they are able to increase in intensity and duration.

393. Which of the following would be considered negligence for a personal trainer?

a. Not spotting your client during exercise.


b. Not letting your client perform their favorite exercise.
c. Asking your client to warm up before your appointment.
d. Arriving late for a training appointment.

a – Trainers are expected to adhere to a standard of care which involves reasonable and
prudent decision making in the best interests of their clients. Failing to properly supervise
your client is considered an act of omission.

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394. Your client has hypoglycemia. When is the best time to schedule his exercise?

a. He should never exercise.


b. He should exercise in the morning before a meal.
c. He should exercise in the evening before a meal.
d. He should exercise in the morning after a meal.

d – To avoid hypoglycemia, a client should exercise within one to three hours following a
meal.

395. What is the primary purpose of an informed consent?

a. To get a medical release


b. To help clients understand the risks associated with exercise
c. To understand your client’s exercise history
d. To explain upcoming fitness tests

b – An informed consent is for the purpose of informing the client on the potential risks
associated with exercise. It is their signed agreement to participate with a full
understanding of the benefits as well as risks.

396. It is important to keep current and accurate records as part of your responsibility as a
personal trainer. Which of the following needs to be kept?

a. Medical history
b. Incident reports
c. Exercise record
d. All of the above

d - Record keeping is very important when it comes to your responsibility as a personal


trainer. You should keep notes on changes in programs, any correspondence, incident
reports, medical history, etc.

397. Under which one of the following scenarios should you NOT call 9-1-1?

a. Client may have a broken bone


b. Client has trouble breathing
c. Client has a seizure
d. Client is experiencing chest pain

a – If a client has broken a bone, it is more appropriate to call one of their emergency
contacts. They are advised to see a healthcare professional immediately, but this is not
considered a reason to call 9-1-1.

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398. Your client wants to lose 10 lbs. and wants your advice. Which of the following is
considered within your scope of practice?

a. Outline a dietary weight loss program


b. Explain some of the best diets on the market
c. Show the client how to read nutrition labels
d. All of the above

c – It is not within the scope of practice to offer dietary advice. However, you can offer a
referral to a qualified dietician, refer to government approved websites and show a client
how to read a nutrition label. You may not calculate, prescribe, counsel or outline a weight
loss program.

399. Any information about a victim or incident is protected by which federal law and
designed to protect privacy and confidentiality?

a. FERPA
b. HIPAA
c. ACOG
d. ACSM

b – The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) allows the victim to
stay in control over who has access to their health records. All information must remain
confidential.

400. Which of the following does not fit within the scope of practice for an ACE Personal
trainer?

a. Provide specific diet advice


b. Conduct fitness assessments
c. Develop appropriate exercise programs
d. Provide exercise instruction for various exercises

a - It is not within the scope of practice to provide any dietary or nutritional advice outside
general recommendations.

401. Your client is recovering from elbow tendinitis and has been cleared for exercise. Which
of the following should be incorporated into the exercise programming?

a. Full extension on each exercise


b. Low repetition exercises
c. High repetition exercises
d. Avoid all upper body exercises

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b- As the client recovers from elbow tendinitis, they should not perform any high
repetition work around the elbow or wrist. The client should start with low weight and
repetitions.

402. If your client experiences heat cramps, what are some potential treatments?

a. Gentle massage
b. Direct pressure to the cramp and release
c. Ballistic stretching of the affected area
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b only

e – If you suspect heat cramp, it is best to rest, apply gentle massage, direct pressure to
the cramp and release, drink plenty of fluids, and passive stretching.

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10 Test Preparation Tips
1. Start Studying 3 Months Before The Test - You have a lot of information to review to get
prepared. Give yourself enough time to study all of it in a relaxed state of mind. Trying to
cram your study in a month or a few weeks before the test will just create anxiety and even
panic which is not conducive to learning.

2. Outline a Study Schedule and Stick to It– You first need to find out what subjects the test
covers, then break them down into a study outline. An outline of the material will give you
a birds-eye-view of what you have to cover and allow you to plan to actually study it.
Include review days throughout the schedule where you review material you studied the
month or two before. Include practice test sessions in your schedule as well. Once you
have a study schedule established, commit to it and be disciplined. It will only help you, and
give you the benefit of comprehensive study, if you actually follow it.

3. Study Every Day for at Least One Hour – Getting prepared for a professional certification
exam takes commitment. To maintain this commitment, it is best to make it part of your
regular schedule. Plan an hour a day to study the material you have scheduled for the day.

4. Obtain a Good Study Guide – A good study guide is very important. It will give you the
substance you need to know for the test.

5. Use Flashcards – Flashcards are easy to use and can interject some fun into the study
process. Flashcards that give you a question on one side and an answer on the other are the
most effective. Use them regularly throughout your study schedule.

6. Take Untimed Practice Tests Periodically to Assess Your Knowledge of the Material – Use
the Tests.com Practice Test to find out how well you know the material. For the first couple
times, do not time yourself, but use the test simply to determine your strengths and
weaknesses. Focus your study on the areas of the exam where you had the most trouble.

7. Take a Timed Practice Test Periodically to Practice Test Taking Skills – Take the Tests.com
Practice Test using a timer setting. Determine how many questions are on your state exam
and complete that amount of questions in the allotted time. This exercise will allow you to
get a sense of how fast you need to work under time pressure.

8. Tab and Highlight your Reference Books – Depending on the test, some organizations have
open book tests, allowing you to use a reference book while you take the test. Most testing
rules do not allow notes in the reference book you use, but many allow highlighting and
tabbing. When you use a reference book during a test, it is important to use it in such a way
that allows you to work efficiently and not slow you down. Place colored tabs on the pages

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of the book referencing the sections, so you can turn to them quickly and not have look up
page numbers in the Table of Contents. Highlight those sections which you believe to be
important and that will be subject to testing.

9. Meet with Friends who are Studying for the Test and have a Group Discussion - Your
friends and colleagues who are studying for the test will have different strength and
weaknesses than you. You can benefit each other by sharing information, discussing issues
and asking each other questions about the information subject to testing.

10. Don’t Study the Day or Night Before the Test – You have prepared for months. Even
though you may feel a bit anxious the day before the test, it is important that you give your
brain a rest. During the test, you must be clear of mind and able to nimbly move from
question to question. If your brain is tired and your eyes are having trouble focusing, you
will put yourself at a great disadvantage. Do not study late into the night. You know the
material more than you realize. Take the day off, go for a walk, a bike ride or see a movie.

10 Test Taking Tips


1. Get Good Rest the Night before the Test – All the study in the world will not save you if you
can’t focus your eyes and your mind is cloudy due to staying up late at night to study before
the test. Test taking is an art and you must have a clear, well rested mind to do well. An
important tip, and the first in this list for a reason, is to get a good night’s rest the day
before the test.

2. Eat a Good Meal before Leaving for the Test – Tests usually last a couple of hours. They
take much concentration and mental energy. You don’t want to have your blood sugar level
affect your ability to concentrate. Eat a good meal before leaving to take the test. Stay
away from foods that would make you tired.

3. Get to the Testing Location on Time and Mentally Prepare Yourself – You do not want to
get lost on your way to the testing location or leave too late such that you miss the
beginning of the exam or even have to rush to get to your seat. You want to arrive in
enough time to sit for 10 or 15 minutes prior to the test to collect your thoughts and clear
your mind. Make sure you have the address to the testing location the day before the test,
ensure you have the right directions or use a GPS system and find out beforehand how
much time it will take to get there so you know when to leave.

4. Read the Question and Understand What it is Asking – A cardinal rule of test taking is “Do
not read into the question and Answer only What is Asked.” Before you read the answers,
make sure you understand what the question is asking. Do not let yourself insert
qualifications into the questions or assume additional fact patterns.

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5. Form an Answer in Your Mind before Reading the Answer Options – If an answer comes to
you before you read the answer options, and the answer that came to you matches an
answer option, odds are that the answer option corresponding to the answer that popped
into your head is the correct answer. You know more than you realize. This is how
preparation benefits you.

6. Read all of the Answers - Even though the first answer option looks right, read all of the
answer options all of the time. One of the answers is the correct choice. All the information
to answer the question is there. Read all the answer options to understand what options
are available. You will find, while one of the first top selections seems right some of the
time, a bottom option will occasionally be the right selection because it qualifies the answer
in the correct way. If you just take the first answer that seems right without reading the
other answer options, you will not get the benefit of all the information in the answer
options.

7. Eliminate Obviously Wrong Answers – Some of the answer options will obviously be
wrong. You can increase the odds you will select the right answer and work more efficiently
by first eliminating obviously wrong answers.

8. Don’t get Stuck on Difficult Questions – Some questions will have difficult or complex fact
patterns that require some thought or calculation. If you find yourself getting lost in the
facts or numbers, or stuck on the answer options, such that you start feeling anxious that
you are wasting time, take the following steps: guess and register an answer, mark the
question with some notation that will tell you it was a guess, and come back to it at the end
of the test, after you finished all other questions.

9. Pace Yourself - Don’t Work too Fast; Don’t Work too Slow – Time is a very important
element of test taking. Aside from the subject matter, it is the factor that most causes
pressure and stress. To obtain a good score, it is important that you have the time to read
and answer all of the questions. Tests only allow a certain amount of time per questions.
Determine what that time per question is by dividing the time by the number of questions.
Pace yourself when taking the test so that you allow yourself enough time to read and
answer all questions. You don’t want to work too fast or too slow.

10. Maintain a Good Attitude during the Test – It is important to keep your composure during
the test. Having a good attitude will allow you to get through the challenging parts of an
exam and avoid becoming down or defeatist, which could slow you down or stop you
altogether from finishing the exam. Hang in there and have confidence. If you prepare for
the exam following the preparation and test taking tips discussed here, you can have
confidence that you will succeed.

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Bubble Answer Sheet

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Tests.com Format Comparison Chart

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PDF
Features & Benefits Online Format
Format

New Questions / Updates YES. With the Online Format, get new question & updates in real time. NO
YES. Optionally test with instant prompts for incorrect answers &
Study Mode NO
explanations of correct ones.
Section / Topic Selection YES. Choose whole test or practice by the section. NO

YES. Optionally simulate actual test conditions. TestSIM™ is easy and flexible
NO
to use.

YES. With TestNOTES™, you have option to type notes for any question for
NO
instant reinforcement & later review.

YES. Our Focus Flash Cards™ online study system allows you to customize
NO
study by time, section(s) and more. Create/share your own too.

Focus Question Format YES. Focus on 1 question at a time. Example. NO


Customize Testing YES. Set the number of questions and time limit OR simulate your actual
NO
Preferences exam. Example.
Instant Scoring & Review YES. The Online format automatically scores your testing. NO
Reports / History / Stats YES. View results and track progress in real time. Example. NO
YES. Only the online test system format will provide you access your tests
Future Testing Needs NO
and test history from anywhere for life.
YES. Our practice exam kit was written by an expert with strong experience,
Expert Written by Leaders
education and credentials. Our test prep is so good we have a 1% return rate YES
in Test Preparation
compared to an 8% industry avg. 1 million+ tests served.
YES. Our material represents an objective assessment and study source
Get an Edge YES
which compliments other study materials and gives you an edge.
YES. Registered Users get service & support to pass the first time. Our
Support to Succeed YES
authors, peer reviewers, editors and tech support are on your team.
Convenience & YES. Only the Online Format system scores, reports and customizes your
NO
Study Features testing automatically and has bonus flash cards to use, create and share.

Login for the Online Format


Or Access Free Sample Questions Online

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