PEER TUTORING: AN INTERVENTION STRATEGY FOR GRADE 9 SPECIAL PROGRAM IN THE ARTS

(SPA) STUDENTS OF TAGAYTAY CITY SCIENCE NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL WITH LOW

QUARTERLY EXAMINATION SCORES IN SCIENCE III FOR S.Y. 2018-2019

ARELLANO, CRISTINA D.**

BEDRUZ, EMELYN LAURICE D.**
DINGLASAN, ANDREA CELINA B.**
IGNO, CRYSTAL M.**
JAVIER, ARBYLL GEORGIA S.**
LUNA, CHRISTIAN L.**
MOJICA, CATHERINE J.**
NUESTRO, MA. AGNES P.*
REYES, JOCELYN L.*
RODIL, ELSA S.**

APRIL 2019

*Professor, Graduate School and Open-Learning College, Cavite State University

**Secondary School Teacher, Tagaytay City Science National High School
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TABLE OF CONTENTS

Introduction…………………………………………………………………………………………………………3

Situational Analysis…………………………………………………………………………………………3

Statement of the Problem………………………………………………………………………………….4

Objective of the Study……………………………………………………………………………………...4

Importance of the Study……………………………………………………………………………………4

Methodology………………………………………………………………………………………………………...5

Locale and Time of the Study……………………………………………………………………………..5

The Respondents…………………………………………………………………………………………...5

Data Collection……………………………………………………………………………………………...5

Data Analysis………………………………………………………………………………………………..5

Results and Discussion……………………………………………………………………………………………6

Pre-Intervention……………………………………………………………………………………………...6

Intervention…………………………………………………………………………………………………...6

Post-Intervention……………………………………………………………………………………………..6

Implication…………………………………………………………………………………………………….8

Conclusion……………………………………………………………………………………………………………8

Recommendations…………………………………………………………………………………………………..9

References…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..10

Appendices………………………………………………………………………………………………………….11
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INTRODUCTION

Situational Analysis

According to Hartman (2013), science is one the subjects that the students perceive to be most

difficult. Objectively, it is also observed that science, though mostly anchored in observation, are composed

of theories that may employ other branches such as mathematics and history. Scientific skills, along with

the mastery of such theories and applications, must also be learned by the students. In the national level,

the proficiency of the learners all over the country is measured by the performance in the National

Achievement Test (NAT). For school year 2004-2005, 2005-2006, and 2011-2012, the fourth year students

have acquired a mean percentage score of 39.49, 37.98, and 40.53, respectively for the Science subtest in

the NAT (Philippine Basic Education, 2013). Although there is increase in the trend, it can be seen that the

scores of the students in Science was fairly low compared to the other subjects such as English (51.80),

Araling Panlipunan (54.22) or Filipino (51.27). Therefore, it can be concluded that science is one of the

most difficult subjects in the Philippines.

On the other hand, peer tutoring, which is defined as “a system of instruction in which learners help

each other and learn themselves by teaching” was usually employed in classrooms to address difficulty in

learning of some topics (Goodlad & Hirst, 1989). This usually employs tutorial session with a more

knowledgeable individual that is not a teacher by profession. There are many models that evolve around

peer tutoring and for this study, same age peer tutoring were employed. Same-age peer tutoring involves

students that of about the same age that will review the same concepts together to either aid the less

achieving student in understanding the topic more or to improve the mastery of the more achieving student

(Najabat, Anwer, & Abbas, 2015). Peer tutoring was grounded on Vygotsky’s Social Constructivism Theory

which stated that learning can come from social constructs and interaction with each other, especially if the

one sharing his or her ideas were of the same developmental level (Vygotsky, 1978).

The Special Program in the Arts was a curriculum that was introduced in the educational system of

the Philippines for those who have demonstrated potential in arts. The curriculum was to encourage its

learners to engage in creativity, and in enhancement of their talents. These students were primarily

grouped into their field of specialization in arts. It can be deduced that the SPA curriculum mainly focuses
 4

on the arts which may affect their performance in the science subjects. Peer tutoring, along with the help of

their subject teacher may aid them in understanding and learning their lessons better.

Statement of the Problem

If I conduct a tutorial session to Special Program for the Arts students with low scores on quarterly

exams in Science III, will it improve the result of the test?

Objective of the Study

The study aims to determine the effect of peer tutoring to the low scores in Science III quarterly

exams; and to improve the results of the examination.

Importance of the Study

The study is beneficial to the following:

1. Students. The SPA students’ with low scores in the Science III quarterly examination will

have better scores after the peer tutoring and will improve their academic performance.

2. Teachers. The teachers will have an improved Mean Percentage Scores in their reports,

thus increasing their scores in their assessment.

3. School. The school will have better performance and achieve a higher ranking as one of the

Best Performing Schools.

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METHODOLOGY

Locale and Time of the Study

The study was conducted during Mondays to Fridays of school year 2018-2019 at 4:30pm to

5:00pm at Tagaytay City Science National High School, Sungay West, Tagaytay City, Cavite.

The Respondents

The participants were Grade 9 students from the Special Program in the Arts who scored 29 points

and below in the quarterly exams in Science III.

Data Collection

The researchers administered quarterly examinations to the Grade 9 SPA students (See

Appendices A-D). Afterwards, they checked and scored the exam answers. Then, they determined the

students that acquired 29 points and below and invited those to attend peer tutoring after class at 4:30 pm

to 5:00pm from Monday to Friday for a week after the exam.

Afterwards, the same examination was administered to these students and their answers were

checked and scored. Then, the results were organized and tabulated, comparing the pre-intervention and

post-intervention examination results.

The sampling technique that was employed was purposive sampling.

Data Analysis

The data gathered were analyzed by comparing the raw scores of the pre-intervention and post-

intervention examination of the individual students and by using the Central Tendencies (percent increase

and mean) to describe the group data. The following formulas were used:

𝑃𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑡𝑒𝑠𝑡 𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑒 − 𝑃𝑟𝑒 − 𝑡𝑒𝑠𝑡 𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑒

% 𝐼𝑁𝐶𝑅𝐸𝐴𝑆𝐸 = × 100
𝑃𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑡𝑒𝑠𝑡 𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑒

∑ 𝑥𝑖
𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑛 = where xi = scores of the students and n = total number of scores
𝑛
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RESULTS AND DISCUSSION

Pre-intervention

Table 1. The mean of the pre-test scores in the quarterly examination in Science III of selected Grade 9
SPA students.
MEAN
GRADING PERIOD
PRE - TEST

FIRST 18.39

SECOND 20.40

THIRD 22.67

FOURTH 25.33

The examination conducted was a total of 60 points and the passing scores should be at least 50%

or a total of 30 points and above. However, the table shows that the mean scores of the selected students

do not meet the expectations.

Intervention

During the intervention period, the subject teacher conducts his or her tutorial sessions with the

students, pairing them up while discussing and clarifying difficult concepts that were tackled in the

examination.

Post-intervention

Table 2. The mean posttest scores in the quarterly examination in Science III of selected Grade 9 SPA
students.
MEAN
GRADING PERIOD
POST TEST
FIRST 42.78
SECOND 37.05
THIRD 43.47
FOURTH 44.58
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The same examination of a total of 60 points with a passing score of 50% or a total of 30 points was

administered to the selected Grade 9 SPA students. The mean scores of the students were near passing

and has increased compared to their previous scores.

Table 3. The summary of the pre-test and posttest means and the overall percent of increase of the
quarterly examination scores of the selected Grade 9 SPA students.
MEAN
GRADING PERIOD % OF INCREASE
PRE - TEST POST TEST
FIRST 18.39 42.78 57.01
SECOND 20.40 37.05 44.94
THIRD 22.67 43.47 47.85
FOURTH 25.33 44.58 43.18

OVER ALL INCREASE 48.25

The table summarizes the mean scores of the pre-test and posttest of the quarterly examinations of

the selected Grade 9 students. As shown in Table 3, there is an increase in the test scores, garnering an

overall percent increase of 48.25%.

OVER - ALL INCREASE IN THE QUARTERLY EXAMINATIONS SCORE IN SCIENCE III

50
45
40
35
30
MEAN

25 FIRST
20
SECOND
15
10 THIRD
5 FOURTH
0
PRE - TEST POST TEST
MEAN
INTERVENTION

Figure 1. The line graph showing the increasing trend of mean of scores of the selected SPA students after
intervention.

In Figure 1, it can be seen that there is an increase in the mean scores of the quarterly

examinations after the intervention period which is the peer tutorial session of one week.
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Implication

From this data, it can be implied that the peer tutorial has been effective as an intervention program

due to the increase in the mean test scores of the low performing students in Science III quarterly

examinations in the Grade 9 Special Program in the Arts curriculum. As Topping (2005) discussed in his

work, peer tutoring has huge academic benefits, having the students understand the content of their

lessons deeply, while enhancing their social and communication skills. Also, when working together, the

students begin to enjoy learning about the topic, allowing the learners to be more interested and engaged

in their lessons. Clearly, the students were able to grasp the lessons that were clarified during the peer

tutorial sessions.

On the other hand, when peer tutoring was employed, the teachers will be more of the facilitators of

the classroom, allowing the students to learn independently with minimal talk and discussion on the topic.

Peer tutoring will allow the teachers the teach more effectively with minimal concern on time constraints

and effort on teaching (Olmscheid, 1999).

CONCLUSION

The study aims to determine the effect of peer tutoring to the low scores of Grade 9 SPA students in

Science III quarterly examinations. In order to determine its effect, a pre-test, consisting of 60 items was

administered to the Grade 9 SPA students and afterward checked and scored. The students who acquired

29 points and below were invited to attend the peer tutorial session for a week where the unclear and less

understood topics in the exam coverage where clarified amongst the reviewees. After a week, the same

exam was administered to the selected students where their answers were checked and scored. The data

gathered from the pre-test and posttest was compared and there is a significant increase in the mean of the

scores which was 48.25%.

Therefore, it was concluded that peer tutoring was an effective intervention program for the Grade 9

Special Program in the Arts students in Science III.

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RECOMMENDATIONS

It was recommended that peer tutoring was to be continued as an intervention strategy in Tagaytay

City Science National High School since it was proven to have increased the test scores of the students

and was able to address the unclear concepts or theories during classroom discussion that may have

caused low scores. This also ensures the achievement of the competencies that the students should have

acquired at the end of the lesson.

However, it is also recommended to be able to devise or engage in other intervention practices that

may be a better intervention strategy for the learners.

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REFERENCES

Goodlad, S., & Hirst, B. (1989). Peer Tutoring. A Guide to Learning by Teaching. London: Kogan Page.
Hartman, H. (2013). Metacognition in Learning and Instruction: Theory, Research and Practice. Springer
Science & Business Media.
Najabat, A., Anwer, M., & Abbas, J. (2015). Impact of Peer Tutoring on Learning of Students. Journal for
Studies in Management and Planning, 61-66.
Olmscheid, C. (1999). The effectiveness of peer tutoring in the elementary grades.
Philippine Basic Education. (20 July, 2013). The National Achievement Test in the Philippines. Retrieved
from Philippine Basic Education: https://www.philippinesbasiceducation.us/2013/07/the-national-
achievement-test-in.html
Topping, K. J. ((2005)). Trends in peer learning. Educational Psychology, 25(6), 631-645.
Vygotsky, L. (1978). Mind in Society. London: Harvard University Press.
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APPENDIX A
FIRST QUARTER EXAMINATION
GRADE 9 SCIENCE

Name: ________________________________Date: _______________________

Grade and Section: _____________________Score: ______________________

Direction: Read each item carefully. Write the letter of the best answer on the
space provided before each number.

1. What important activity takes place in the lungs?

A. Food is digested.
B. Liquid wastes is filtered from the blood.
C. Oxygen is exchanged for carbon dioxide.
D. The trachea is exchanged for the larynx.
2. What happens to the wind pipe, or trachea, before it reaches the lungs?
A. It branches in two directions.
B. It branches in three directions.
C. It vibrates and creates sounds.
D. It closes up so that no oxygen can escape.
3. Air can enter the body and travel to the lungs
A. through the mouth and nose.
B. through the esophagus and gullet.
C. through the windpipe and the pores.
D. through the nose and the nervous system.
4. What happens when you breathe in?
A. Nothing happens
B. Your diaphragm contracts and your rib cage expands.
C. Your diaphragm expands and your rib cage contracts.
D. Your diaphragm explodes and your rib cage contracts.
5. Which of the statements below is TRUE about the circulatory system?
A. Arteries take blood back to the heart.
B. Veins carry de-oxygenated blood only.
C. The heart pumps oxygenated blood throughout the body.
D. Oxygenated blood leaves the heart and travels to the lungs.
6. How does inhaling occur?
A. Lung muscles flex outward.
B. Diaphragm relaxes and moves down.
C. Diaphragm contracts and moves down.
D. Air gets forced into your lungs through air pressure.
7. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Cellular respiration uses oxygen and carbon dioxide.
B. Cellular respiration uses energy to make sugar and oxygen.
C. Cellular respiration uses oxygen and sugar to make energy.
D. Cellular respiration uses carbon dioxide and sugar to make energy.
8. Why does our heart pump to our lungs?
A. To get carbon dioxide and oxygen.
B. To get oxygen and drop off carbon dioxide.
C. To get carbon dioxide and drop off oxygen.
D. To get oxygen and carbon dioxide into our lungs.
9. Cardio-vascular endurance is a component of fitness and a healthy balanced lifestyle. Which of the
following describes cardio-vascular endurance most accurately?
A. The ability to change the body’s movement quickly.
B. The ability to use muscle over a long period of time.
C. The amount of force a muscle can exert against a resistance.
D. The ability of our heart and lungs to cope with exercise over a long period of time.

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a balanced, healthy lifestyle?

A. Exercising regularly
B. Drinking water regularly
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C. Eating plenty of fruits and vegetables.

D. Only drinking 5 units of alcohol per day

11. Which of the following pairs shows two good examples of characteristics of a balanced, healthy
lifestyle?
A. Non smoking and non active
B. Non-alcohol and low protein diet
C. Nutritional diet and regular water drinking
D. Physically active and smoking only a limited number of cigarettes

12. When we breathe in, we inhale many gases, including oxygen. What happens to the gas that the body
can’t use?
A. They are exhaled.
B. They are changed into oxygen by the lungs.
C. They circulate through the body and are disposed of later.
D. They are absorbed into the digestive system and used to create energy.

13. How is the cardio-vascular system similar to a system of roads? Choose the statement that best
explains the situation.
A. Roads in cities do the same thing with circulatory system.
B. Circulatory system is in charge of transport and delivery of making sure that the life giving stuff gets
to the correct location.
C. Without interstates and main roads and alleys and side streets people and supplies could not be
delivered and moved throughout the city.
D. Circulatory system is in charge of transport and delivery, like roads in cities wherein people and
supplies could not be delivered and moved throughout without interstates and main roads.

14. People should maintain his healthy lifestyle and he can only do that through regular exercise and
healthy diet perhaps he could also can keep his heart strong by_________________?
A. Smoking
B. sleeping 18 hours a day
C. Eating –heart shaped candy
D. Doing activities, like playing outside, riding a bike, and swimming

15. Cigarette smoking harms nearly every organ in the body, causing many illnesses and affecting
human’s health in general. Which of the following negative effects of cigarette smoking is not a
respiratory disorder?
A. Asthma B. Arteriosclerosis C. Emphysema D. Bronchitis

16. What would happen to people who have an open wound and where blood did not clot naturally?
A. They may bleed to death.
B. Nothing. Clotting is not important.
C. They would have to take regular doses of plasma.
D. They would have to take regular doses of platelets.

17. How the heart works? Arrange the following in the correct sequence.
I. After the exchange, the blood containing fresh oxygen flows into the left atrium.
II. When the heart contracts, the right lower ventricle will pump the blood into the lungs, where
the carbon dioxide is exchanged for oxygen.
III. The heart receives oxygen-deficient blood from the body into the right atrium.
IV. When the heart contracts the left lower ventricle will force the blood out to the body through a
network of arteries.
V. Oxygen-rich blood flows from the left atrium into the left lower ventricle.
A. I, II, III, IV, V C. III, II, I, V, IV
B. V, IV, III, II, I D. II, IV, V, I, III

18. A secondary school is trying to encourage its students to participate in an active healthy lifestyle.
Which piece of advice would you give to the staff at the school who are trying to encourage a healthy,
active balanced lifestyle among their students?
A. Make lunchtime spot compulsory for all
B. Run teams only for the best performers
 13

C. Run sport clubs during weekends only

D. Put on a member of activity clubs open to all.

19. Which of the following is the correct path of blood through the heart?
A. RA,RV,lungs,body,LA,RA C. RA,RV,lungs,LA,LV,body
B. RA,LA,lungs,RV,LV,body D. RV,RA,body,LA,lungs,LV,body

20. Evaluate how the parts of a cardiovascular system work together. Arrange the following statements
according to the order of their functions?
I. The RV will pump the deoxygenated blood towards the lungs passing through a pulmonary
artery.
II. The RA will received deoxygenated blood coming from the different parts of the body.
III. After oxygenation in the lungs,the oxygenated blood will proceed to LA
IV. LV pumps oxygenated blood outside the heart towards the different parts of the body.
V. Oxygenated blood will pass through pulmonary vein towards LV
A. I, IV,III, VI,II, C. V,IV, III, II, I
B. I, II, III, IV, VI D. II, I, III, V,IV

21. Which of the following type of Non- Mendelian pattern of inheritance occurs when a pink flower
crossed with a red flower produced a pink flower plant?
A. Incomplete dominance C. Sex limited Inheritance
B. Codominance D. Sex Influenced Inheritance

22. Responsible for carrying the genetic material to be passed between generations.
A. Chromosomes C. DNA
B. Chromatin D. Genes

23. Which of the following does not affect the sexuality among humans?
A. Somatic chromosomes C. hormones
B. Sex Chromosomes D. environmental factors

24. In a DNA molecule,if 16% is guanine,then_____________________.

A. 16% will be adenine C. 84% will be adenine
B. 16% will be cytosine D. 84% will be cytosine

25. Why does blood Type AB considered as co-dominant trait?

A. Both allele A and B were express equally on the offspring.
B. One of the alleles dominated over the other allele of the offspring.
C. Combinations of trait is expressed in the phenotype of the offspring.
D. More than two alleles was expressed on physical make-up of the offspring.

26. Which of the following genotypes show a female that inherited the trait for baldness?
A. XbXb B. XBXb C. XBXB D. XXb

27. Hypertrichosis, hairiness of the pinna of the ear, is inherited as a Y-linked recessive in humans. If a
man with hypertrichosis marries a normal woman, what types of children may they have?
A. All of their children of both sexes have hypertrichosis.
B. All the sons have hypertrichosis, but none of their daughters.
C. All the daughters have hypertrichosis, but none of their sons.
D. Half of their sons, but none of their daughters will have hypertrichosis.

28. The picture below shows what the red blood cell of someone with sickle cell anemia. This disorder is
carried on the X chromosome and is most common in sub-saharan populations. What type of
inheritance pattern must it follow?

A. Codominance
 14

B. Incomplete dominance
C. Multiple allele Inheritance
D. Sex-linked Inheritance

29. The image shows the pattern of inheritance for colorblindness. From the given diagram we can tell
that colorblindness is_________.

A. a Codominant trait
B. a Sex-linked trait
C. Carried on the Y chromosomes
D. Associated with dominant allele

30. What is the diploid number in human cells?

A. 2 B. 23 C. 46 D. 92

31. What is the importance of punnett square in studying genetics?

A. Testing for the presence of the recessive allele
B. Determining the DNA sequence of a given gene
C. Identifying the gene locus where allelic variations are possible
D. Predicting the result of genetic crosses between organisms

32. In snapdragons, heterozygotes have pink flowers, whereas homozygotes have red or white flowers.
When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers, what proportion of the
offspring will have pink flowers?
A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

33. The structure of the DNA is actually in a double helix arrangement. The nitrogen bases in each of the
chain can only pair with specific bases. If the left chain of a DNA molecule has the nucleotide
sequence CCGTAGGCC, what is the sequence of the right chain of the DNA Molecule?
A. TTA-CGA-ATT C. GGC-TAG-GGC
B. GGC-ATC-CGG D. AAT-GCA-AGG

34. The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB x IAi. Among the blood types of their children, how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
A. 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes C. 3 genotypes, 3 phenotypes
B. 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes D. 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

35. What conditions will guarantee that a male offspring will have red-green color blindness?
A. The father is colorblind. C. The father has the recessive gene.
B. The mother is colorblind D. The mother has the recessive gene

36. A child with blood type O has mother with blood type A and a father with blood type B. What must be
the genotypes for the blood type of the parents?
A. Homozygous A and homozygous B
B. Homozygous A and heterozygous B
C. Heterozygous A and homozygous B
D. Both heterozygous

37. A cross occurs between a black homozygous mouse and a white homozygous mouse. They produce
gray offspring. What are the percentage probabilities for the genotype and phenotype of the offspring?
A. 100% black; 100% Bb C. 100% white; 75% BB, 25% bb
B. 100% gray; 100% bb D. 100% gray; 100% Bb
 15

38. Referring to the mouse scenario noted above, what is the percentage phenotypic probability if we
cross two gray mice from the F1 generation?
A. 100% black C. 25% black; 50% gray; 25% white
B. 75%gray; 25% white D. 50% black; 50% white

A man who is a carrier for cystic fibrosis marries a woman who is a carrier for cystic fibrosis. Respond to
the next two questions based upon this scenario.

39. What is the percentage probability that this couple will have a child with cystic fibrosis?
A. 50% B.100% C. 75% D. 25%

40. The couple in the above scenario has four children. How many of their children will have cystic
fibrosis?
A. Single child C. No one will inherit the trait
B. Two children D. Depends on the gender

41. This refers to the variety of life in the area.

A. Biodiversity C. Ecosystem
B. Diversity D. Population

42. Which of the following terms pertain to the capacity of an ecosystem to support a specific population
of organisms?
A. Carrying capacity C. Limited Factor
B. Ecosystem D. Population

43. Which of the following terms pertain to the variation of organism living in a specific area?
A. Carrying capacity C. Limited Factor
B. Ecosystem D. Population
44. Which group of organism has certain characteristic in common and is able to interbreed?
A. Biodiversity C. Population
B. Community D. Species

45. Which of the following organism is considered as extinct?

A. clown fish C. parrot
B. flying lizard D. platypus

46. How will you consider an organism as an endangered?

A. If there is no organism is living around the world.
B. If there is a large number organism is living around the world.
C. If there is a small number organism is living around the world.
D. If there is a large number of organism is migrating from one place to another.

47. Habitat destruction is the primary cause of animal extinction. Which of the following is an example of
habitat destruction?
A. Human converting forestland into farmland.
B. Humans obtaining land for industrial development.
C. Humans acquiring land for industrial development.
D. All of the above

48. When humans overuse the resources around them,the environment is_________.
A. benefitted B. maintained C. retained D. harmed

49. Suppose 60 ants live in a 4 square meter plot of grass. What would be the population density of the
ants?
 16

A. 0.06 B. 5 C. 15 D. 240

50. Limiting factors are environmental conditions that keep a population from increasing in size and help
balance ecosystems. Which of the following is NOT a limiting factor?
A. water B. soil nutrients C. availability of foods D. none of the above

51. Which of the following best conditions could bring about extinction of wildlife?
I. Denudation of forest
II. Restocking of the sanctuary
III. Unrestricted hunting activities
IV. Unrestricted kaingin system
A. I only C. I, III, IV
B. I and II only D. I, II, III and IV

52. The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon. Without a natural greenhouse effect, the
temperature of the Earth would be about -18 0C instead of its present 14 0C. Why scientists are
concerned about the greenhouse effect?
A. There is no technology that will keep the temperature of the Earth constant.
B. Planting trees in a wider area are not possible; Earth has many dessert areas.
C. Human activities like burning of fossil fuels and deforestation enhance the greenhouse effect.
D. The human population is increasing rapidly; more carbon dioxide will be release from the
atmosphere.

53. If all living organisms born on earth are programmed to grow, mature, and multiply, why are some
organisms become extinct?
A. Because of the migration of organisms.
B. Because of the lack of energy in the ecosystem where they live in.
C. Because some organisms tend to stop genetic continuity as they grow older.
D. Because changes in the environment occur and some organisms were not able to cope up with
the changes.

54. The coral reefs are the sanctuaries and spawning grounds of fishes and other marine life. If we destroy
them, the following conditions would result EXCEPT.
A. The fishes will lose a natural home.
B. The fishes will be deprived of food.
C. The fishes will lessen their productivity.
D. The fishes will not have obstacles as they move.

55. A farmer is experiencing a problem in growing his crops. Most of the leaves of the crops are turning
yellow. Which of the following will likely result from the yellowing of the leaves of the crops?
A. It will increase the production of food.
B. It will decrease the production of food.
C. The production of food will remain the same.
D. None of the above.

56. A vegetable farmer wants to increase his harvest. Which of the following conditions should the farmer
consider?
A. The kind of soil only C. The location of the plots only
B. The amount of water only D. All of them.

57. Which of the following best explains why planting trees and putting up urban gardens can help
prevent global warming?
A. Plants perform photosynthesis.
B. Plants produce oxygen during day time and perform transpiration.
C. Plants absorb carbon dioxide that contributes to the rising of earth’s temperature.
D. Plants use up carbon dioxide during photosynthesis, release oxygen to the environment, and
perform transpiration.
 17

58. Which of the following products of light reactions are utilized in the Calvin Cycle?
A. H2O and O2 C. CO2 and glucose
B. Electrons and H+ D. ATP and NADPH

59. Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

A. Thylakoid space C. Outer membrane of the chloroplast
B. Thylakoid membrane D. Stroma of the chloroplast

60. What is the green pigment responsible for capturing light during photosynthesis?
A. chlorophyll B. mesophyll C. plastoquinone D. thylakoid
 18

APPENDIX B

SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION

GRADE 9 SCIENCE

Name: ________________________________Date: _______________________

Grade and Section: _____________________Score: ______________________

Direction: Read each item carefully. Write the letter of the best answer on the
space provided before each number.
1. Which statement is INCORRECT?
A. Orbital is a region in an atom where an electron can be found.
B. An electron can emit energy when it jumps to a higher energy level.
C. An electron can absorb energy when it jumps to a higher energy level.
D. Filling of electrons in an atom start from lower energy level to a higher energy level.
2. For a neutral atom with the e- configuration of 1s², 2s², 2p⁵, 3s1, which statement is FALSE?
A. The atomic number is ten C. The atom is in the excited state.
B. The atom is in ground state. D. The 1s and 2s orbital’s are filled.
3. What are the energy sublevels present in the fifth principal energy level?
A. s C. s, p, d
B. s, p D. s, p, d, and f
4. How many orbitals are in the third principal energy level?
A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12
5. An element has the electron configuration {Ne}-3s23p3. How many valence electrons are there in
this element?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
6. Which of the following statements is NOT consistent with the results obtained in Rutherford’s gold
foil experiment?
A. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
B. Atoms are composed mainly of empty space.
C. Electrons are found in the nucleus of an atom.
D. The nucleus of an atom contains almost all of the mass of that atom.
7. Which of the following statements will NOT be true when fluorine atom(F 9) atom gains one e-?
A. It will become isoelectronic with neon C. It will have a +1 oxidation number
B. It will have a -1 oxidation number D. It will have 10 electrons and 9 protons
8. The negatively charged particles moving about in the outer part of the atoms are___________.
A. proton B. shells C. electrons D. neutrons
9. Copper has an atomic number of 29. Which is the correct electron configuration of the element?
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d10 C. 1s1 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10
2 2 6 5 2 10
B. 1s 2s 2p 3s2 3p 4s 3d D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d9
10. The electron configuration of the element Li is 1s 2s1. Which element whose electron configuration
2

shown below will most likely form an ionic bond with Li?
A. 1s22s22p6 C. 1s22s22p63s23p3
2 2 6 2
B. 1s 2s 2p 3s D. 1s22s22p63s23p5
For items 11-12,use the following elements and their electronic configuration:
Element A: 1s22s22p2 Element C: 1s22s2
2 2 5
Element B: 1s 2s 2p Element D: 1s22s22p6
11. Which pair of elements will form an ionic bond?
A. A and D B. B and C C. A and B D. C and D
12. Which pair of elements will form covalent bond?
A and D B. B and C C. A and B D. C and D
13. Which Lewis dot structure is correctly written?
A. O B. Mg C. Al D. S
14. The periodic table has zigzag line dividing the elements into two. Which of the following statements
is NOT true?
A. Metals are on the left side of the line.
B. Nonmetals are in the right side of the line.
 19

C. Elements that touched the line are semi-metals.

D. A,B and C are incorrect.

15. What kind of chemical bond will form between two oxygen atoms?
A. ionic bond B. metallic bond C. polar covalent bond D. nonpolar covalent bond
16. All of the elements will have a tendency to give up electrons to be stable EXCEPT__________.
A. aluminum B. chlorine C. calcium D. potassium
17. How is the bond in Br2 different from the bond in MgF2?
A. The bond in Br2 is metallic while the bond in MgF2 is covalent.
B. The bond in Br2 is ionic while the bond in MgF2 is covalent.
C. The bond in Br2 is covalent while the bond in MgF2 is ionic.
D. There is no bond difference between the two.
18. What will happen to a non metallic atom after ionic bonding?
I. It forms a cation III. It becomes stable
II. It forms an anion IV. It becomes unstable
A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. I and IV
19. If water is chemically known as dihydrogen monoxide having the formula H 2O. What is the
chemical name of chloroform(CCl4)?
A. carbon tetrachloride C. carbon trichloride
B. methylene chloride D. carbon chloride
20. Magnesium has 2 electrons in its outer shell. Oxygen has 6 electrons in its outer shell. How does
magnesium form bonds with oxygen in magnesium oxide?
A. A Mg atom shares 2 electrons with an O2 atom.
B. An O2 atom shares 6 electrons with a Mg atom.
C. An O2 atoms gives 6 electrons to a Mg atom.
D. A Mg atom gives 2 electrons to an O2 atom.
21. The element P has atomic number 12. Element Q has atomic number 17. What is the formula of
compound formed when the elements react together?
A. P2Q B. PQ C. PQ2 D. PQ3
22. How does ionic bonding takes place?
A. Two non-metallic element of the same kind form strong forces of attraction.
B. Two non- metallic elements of different kinds form strong forces of attraction.
C. A non metallic element like fluorine is attracted to a metallic element like sodium.
D. A metallic element like sodium transfers an electron to a non metallic element like fluorine.
23. Choose 2 elements that would likely form an ionic bond among the following elements:
Li,Si,F & Ne
A. Li and Si B. Si and F C. Ne and Si D. Li and F
24. Which of the following statements best describes chemical bond?
A. Metallic bond exists among nonmetals.
B. Atoms combine to form compounds only by transferring electrons.
C. Covalent bonds are formed by transferring of electrons usually among nonmetals only.
D. Ionic bonds are formed by the complete transfer of electrons between metals & nonmetals.
25. Refer to the portion of the Periodic Table below showing elements belonging to the same period
(period 3)
Group 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Element Na Mg Al Si P S Cl
Which nonmetal above will most readily accept electrons from Na?
A. S B. P C. Cl D. Si
26. Why can metals be hammered without breaking?
A. They are ductile. C. They are malleable.
B. They are not brittle. D. Its particles are strong.
27. Which of the following elements react by losing one electron?
A. halogens B. noble gases C. alkali metals D. alkaline earth metals
28. Which of the following properties characterize metallic element?
A. Metals cannot be drawn into wire.
B. Metals cannot be hammered into thin sheets.
C. Metals are not good heat and electrical conductor.
 20

D. Exactly opposite of A,B and C.

29. Which particles are involved when atoms combine to form molecules?
A. electrons nearest the nucleus C. protons in the nucleus of the atom
B. electrons farthest from the nucleus D. neutrons in the nucleus of the atom
30. During chemical bonding between a sodium atom and chlorine atom to form a formula unit of
NaCl_____________.
A. sodium and chlorine atoms share two electrons each
B. sodium donates an electron while chlorine accepts it
C. sodium receives an electron donated by chlorine
D. sodium and chlorine share an electron each
31. Given the following electronegativity values.
Element Electronegativity
Q 0.8
R 1.0
S 3.0
T 3.4

Which pair of atoms has the highest tendency to form a covalent compound?
A. Q and S B. R and T C. S and T D. R and S
32. All the halogens form compounds with potassium KX,where X represents the halogen atom. What is
the kind of chemical bond in all compounds represented by KX?
A. ionic B. covalent C. metallic D. hydrogen bond
33. Which hydrocarbon compound has a triple bond in the molecule?
A. ethane B. ethyne C. methane D. octane
34. Which of the following is an alkane with seven carbon atoms ?
A. heptane B. hexane C. nonane D. propane
35. How many types of bonds are there in the following hydrocarbon compound?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
36. Which alkene will most likely have the highest boiling point?
A. octene B. hexane C . pentene D. propene
37. Which is the correct name of CH3-CH=CH-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3
A. 3-heptene B. 2-heptene C. 2-heptyne D. heptane
38. What is the molecular formula of an organic compound CH 3CH2CH2CH3?
A. C2H4 B. C4H10 C. C2H5 D. C6H4
39. If the longest chain is 5 carbons the parent name is______________.
A. octane B. pentane C. propoane D. heptanes
40. Cooking gas or liquefied petroleum gas(LPG) is a mixture of C 3H8 and C4H10. Which are these two
compounds?
A. pentane & butane B. propane & butane C. propane & methane D. ethane & methane
41. Emmanuel cut his finger accidentally when he has cutting his nails. He has to apply something on his
wound so that it will not get infected. Which compound should he use?
A. H2O B. C4H10 C. CH2-CH-CH3 D. C2H4
OH
42. Which compound has the highest boiling point?
A. C3H6 B. C5H10 C. C7H14 D. C9H18
43. What class of organic compound is C20H38?
A. alkane B. alkene C. alkyne D. alcohol
44. An organic compound with one or more hydroxyl groups (-OH) is a /an______________.
A. alcohol B. ketone C. aldehyde D. carboxylic acid
45. Formalin is an aqueous solution of________________.
A. formaldehyde B. salicyclic acid C. formic acid D. antiseptics
46. The alcohol present in the alcoholic drink is_______________________.
A. methyl alcohol C. ethyl alcohol
B. butyl alcohol D. none of the above
47. How many atoms of C are present in a compound with a chemical formula K 4[Fe(CN)6] 2?
A. 4 B. 6 C. 12 D. 48
48. Ethyl butanoate (C3H7COOC2H5) is the substance responsible for the aroma of pineapple. What is the
 21

Molar mass of ethyl butanoate?

A. 116.18 g/mole C. 118.00 g/mole
B. 117.12 g/mole D. 120.12 g/mole

49. How many particles are there in one mole of any kind of substance?
A. 3.01 x 10²ᵌ C. 6.02 x 10²ᵌ
B. 3.01 x 10²⁴ D. 6.02 x 10²⁴
50. Why is mole concept important?
A. It is useful when converting between grams and atoms or molecules.
B. It gives us a convenient way to express large numbers.
C. It can be applied to any type of particle representative.
D. All of the above.
51. How can the knowledge about mole be useful for the environmentalists?
A. Mole concept can be used in environmental monitoring.
B. It gives a feedback on the kinds of pollutants present in the atmosphere.
C. It gives information on the most dangerous pollutant present in the atmosphere.
D. Mole concept can be used in quantifying the amount of pollutant-particles released in
the atmosphere.
52. What is meant by the phrase "1 mole of sugar"? Pure sucrose is C 12H22O11.
A. 1 molecule of sugar C. the mass of 1 particle of sugar
B. the mass of 45 atoms of sugar D. 6.02 x 1023 molecules of sugar
53. People usually use hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂ Molar mass = 34.02 g/mole) to clean their wounds. If
Cheska used 1.0 g of H₂O₂ to clean her wound, how many mole of H₂O₂ did she use?
A. 0.035 mole C. 0.029 mole
B. 0.030 mole D. 0.025 mole
54. How many percent of Hydrogen (H) is present in water (H₂0)?
A. 13 % B. 12% C. 11 % D. 10%
55. The mass percentage of sulfur present in ammonium sulfate(NH 4)2SO4 is_________.
A. 6.06% B. 21.21% C. 24.24% D. 27.11%
56. Toothpaste contains an active ingredient ,the sodium fluoride. How many percent of fluorine is present
in NaF?
A. 44.22% B. 45.24% C. 46.23% D. 47.21%
57. The atomic mass of C is 12 while that of hydrogen is 1. The compound methane has the formula CH 4
and the molar mass is 16g/mole. What is the percentage composition of CH4?
A. 50%C,50%H B. 12%C,885H C. 75%C,25%H D. 90%C,10%H
58. What is the percentage of C in sugar (C12H22O11)?
A. 3.5% B. 42.1% C. 8.3% D. 59.9%
59. How many molecules are there in 29 grams of water?
A. 0.0969x1023molecules of water C. 96.9x1023molecules of water
B. 0.969x1023molecules of water D. 969x1023molecules of water
60. Find the percentage composition of Na in Na 2CO3.
A. 43% B. 42% C. 44% D. 40%
 22

APPENDIX C

PERIODICAL TEST
3RD Grading Period
Integrated Science 9

Name of Learner: _________________________ Grade & Section: __________________

Teacher: __________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: __________

GENERAL DIRECTION: Read each item carefully and follow directions as indicated . Write the letter of
the most appropriate answer in your answer sheet.

1. An analysis of Taalvolcano was conducted by science students. From the soil sample, they noticed that
the volcano is composed of partly burned substance (cinder) and ash. What type of volcano do you
think it is?
A)shield B) composite C) cinder D) caldera
2. An analysis of volcano was conducted by science students. They noticed that the volcano is composed
mainly of solidified lava. How would you classify the volcano?
A)shield B) composite C) cinder D) all of the above
3. What fact would you select about your understanding of viscosity?
A) The more viscous and thicker the material is, the lesser its resistance to flow
B) Lava with low viscosity tends to travel farther
C) Water is more viscous than syrup
D) The viscosity of magma increases with temperature
4. How is silica content related to the viscosity of lava?
A)the greater the silica content, the more viscous the lava would be
B)thelesser the silica content, the more viscous lava would be
C) the greater the silica content, the less viscous lava would be
D) None of the above
5. Which of the following analogies is incorrect?
A)composite: broad C) shield: high
B) shield: low D) cinder: steep
6. Juan has been fascinated with volcano. He even observed and researched on the history of the volcano
on their province. Below are the characteristics that he observed. What type of volcano do you think
Juan had observed?
Characteristics:
1. low compared to other volcanoes
2. its lava spreads through its side vents
3. it has less violent eruption
A) cinder B) inactive C) composite D) shield
7. There are more than 300 inactive volcanoes in the Philippines. Some of them were reclassified in the
active list or in potentially active list. Which of the following is an inactive volcano?
A)Taal C)Batulao
B) Mayon D) Kanlaon
8. In the province of Albay, one of its tourist destinations is Mt. Mayon boasting its perfect cone shape.
From recorded history, it has a number of 49 eruptions, therefore Mt. Mayon is
A)active B) dormant C) inactive D) None of the above
9. Before the cataclysmic eruption of Mt. Pinatubo in 1991, it has no recorded eruption for the last 400
years. Yet, it was still classified as active volcano. When do we say that a volcano becomes inactive?
A) when it has no recorded eruption for the last 500 years
B) when it has no recorded eruption for the last 1000 years
C) when it has no recorded eruption for the last 10,000 years
D) when it has no recorded eruption
10. Minerva, a volcanologist, is observing a volcano that has alternating quiet and violent eruptions. Which
of the following statements is incorrect about the volcano?
A) The volcano is active C) The volcano is lower than Taal volcano
B) The volcano is a composite volcano D) The volcano releases sticky lava with ash
11. How will you predict if an active volcano is about to erupt?
 23

A)More animals dwell on the active volcano C)Plants wilt and die on the area
B)No volcanic earthquakes will be experienced D)All of the above
12.What data was used to coin the name Pacific Ring of Fire?
A)Because of frequent fires along the boundary of the Pacific
B)Because there are unexplainable ring of fire on the Pacific
C) Because there are active volcanoes along the boundary of the Pacific
D)Because of the hot weather of the countries along the Pacific Rim
13.Going deeper to the Earth’s interior, there is a dramatic increase on temperature and pressure that
cause rocks underneath to be liquefied/melted. What do you call the hot molten rocks inside a
volcano?
A) magma B) lava C) ash D) rock
14.Volcanoes may differ on the type of eruption it show rooted on the magma’s water content. How will you
classify a volcano if it has aperiodic weak to violent eruption characterized by fountain lava.
A) phreatomagnetic volcanic eruption C) strombolian volcanic eruption
B) hydrothermal volcanic eruption D) vulcanian eruption
15.When volcano erupts, it releases ash and poisonous gases in the air. This results to the following except
A)increase in agricultural yields C)gas poisoning of animals near the eruption
B) decrease in atmospheric temperature D)blockage of sunlight
16. Which of the following is not a factor that affects volcanic eruptions?
A)buoyancy of magma C) injection of magma into filled chamber
B) pressure of gases in the magma D) density of volcano
17.What do you call the phenomenon that occurs when molten rock, ash, and steam from a volcano pour
through an opening on Earth's surface?
A) volcanic eruption C) volcanic activity
B) birth of a volcano D) death of a volcano
18. Which of the following statement is true?
A) Lava with less silica content has low viscosity

B) Lava with low amount of gas and high silica content is less viscous and readily
flow out.
C) A dome is formed when lava with low amount of gas with low viscosity piles up at
the vent.
D) Lava with low silica content is too viscous to travel.
19. Geothermal energy is heat energy that is stored within the earth. It's clean and sustainable and
considered as one of the renewable sources of energy. What does it mean when we say that geothermal
energy is sustainable?
A) It generates greenhouse gases C) It will not be used up
B) It can be used everywhere on Earth D)That there is a limited supply
20. Given are the steps in generating electricity from volcanoes. Which of the following are the correct
steps?
1. The steam spins the turbine, which is connected to the generator that produces
electricity.
2. Cooling tower cools the steam which it condenses back to water.
3. Wells are drilled deep into the Earth to pump steam into the surface.
4. The cooled water is pumped back into the Earth to begin its process again.
5. When water reaches the surface, the drop in pressure cause water to turn into
steam?
A) 2,1,3,5,4 B) 3,5,1,2,4 C) 1,3,5,2,4 D) 3,2,5,1,4
21. The temperature at Earth’s core measures close to 7200 degrees Fahrenheit. As you might imagine,
such a high temperature can produce extraordinary amounts of sustainable energy and untold
gigawatts of electricity. Technically speaking, geothermal energy is regarded as a renewable source
of energy which can produce energy for as long as our planet exists.Which of the following
advantages cannot be obtained from geothermal energy?
A) Increase energy security C) Large investment
B) Environmental friendly D) Reduces fossil fuel dependency
22. No matter how good geothermal energy might sound, a number of disadvantages come into play when
considering its development.What is the main disadvantage to build geothermal power plants?
A) Pollution C) Nuclear fallout
 24

B) Cost D) Global Warming

23.Whether geothermal energy is going to be used for heating a house or generating electricity at a power
plant, there is much to be looked at and considered.What potential environmental issue can occur
when building geothermal energy plant?
A) The burning of fossil fuels C) Water pollution from the chemicals
B) Toxic gases can be released when drilling D)None of the above
24.Construction of geothermal power plants in Negros Oriental, Laguna and Albay can affect the stability of
land.What natural disaster could be potentially caused by geothermal power plant?
A) Earthquakes C) Hurricanes
B) Forest Fires D) Tornadoes
25. City A is surrounded by bodies of water and has a moderate climate. It is also located near the equator.
What will most likely affect the climate of the city?
A) Altitude C) Latitude
B) Topography D) All of these
26. Both the Arctic (North Pole) and the Antarctic (South Pole) are cold places on Earth. Why are the
coldest places on Earth found at the poles?
A) Great amount of gaseous particles trap heat from the surface
B) Great amount of thermal radiation is received by these areas
C) Less amount of thermal radiation is received by these areas
D) Less amount of gaseous particles trap heat from the surface
27. Why do mountain climbers bring thick jackets when they go up the mountain?
A) The temperature increases as the altitude increases
B) The temperature decreases as the altitude increases
C) The temperature remains the same as the altitude increases
D) The temperature decreases as the altitude decreases
28. Which of the following is the reason why solar radiation does not reach Earth's surface in a uniform
manner?
A) Because of the atmospheric condition and the ozone layer
B) Because of the tilting of Earth’s axis and atmospheric conditions
C) Because of the ozone layer and wind patterns
D) Because of Earth’s wind patterns and oceanic currents
29. Baguio City, Tagaytay, Sagada, Banaue and Batanes are places in the Philippines with high altitude.
How does higher altitude affect climate?
A) The higher you go above sea level, the colder it gets.
B) The further you get from the equator, the colder it gets.
C) The closer you get to the equator, the hotter it gets.
D) The process by which heat from the sun is trapped near Earth's surface.
30. Places that are near the oceans have moderate climate as the body of water regulates
the temperature. While the places that are far from the bodies of water have extreme
climate. How does the large bodies of water affect climate of the land next to them?
A) Because water heats up and cools more slowly than land
B) Because water heats up and cools faster than land
C) Because water and land cool at the same time
D) Because water and land heat at the same rate
31. Supposing that climate change is real, which of the following are potential dangers of climate change
for your generation’s future?
A) Hotter temperatures will mean longer summers, less school and more time to go
to the beach.
B) Changing weather patterns and climate could cause animal and plant life to change which
will cause some species to become extinct.
C) Rising sea levels could erode the coast, damage property and destroy delicate
land areas.
D) All of the above
32. Hong Kong, Singapore, South Korea and China are some of the developing countries in
the world. It has an increased and intensified industrial and agricultural production and
emission of toxic chemicals directly into the soil, air, and water. However, illness imposes
high and regressive cost burdens on families in developing countries.Which activity in
developing countries may be a major contributor to global climate change?
 25

A) Tourism B) The use of electricity C) Agriculture D) The use of automobiles

33. La Niña is a weather phenomenon characterized by more rain, catastrophic floods, colder
temperatures, and stronger winds from the east. It occur in the Philippines in which most touched
regions in the country are central and western Mindanao and the Cordilleras.How does La Niña
phenomenon happen?
A) The air pressure in Western Pacific increases.
B)The air pressure in the Eastern Pacific decreases.
C) There is a high temperature in the Northern Pacific.
D) There is a low temperature in the Southern Pacific.
34. El Niño is a climate cycle in the Pacific Ocean with a global impact on weather patterns. In the
Philippines, several factors determine when El Niño arrives. Which of the following includes the
effect of El Nino?
A) Delayed start of the rainy season C) Early termination of the rainy season
B) Tropical cyclone activity D) All of the above
35. The primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are water vapor, carbon
dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide and ozone. Without greenhouse gases, the average
temperature of Earth's surface will increase. What greenhouse gases do?
A) It absorb Earth's outgoing infrared photons
B) It reflect Earth's incoming infrared photons
C) It block the Sun's infrared radiation
D) It magnify ultraviolet radiation in the atmosphere
36. Global warming is the current increase in temperature of the Earth's surface as well as its atmosphere.
Over the last 100 years, average temperatures around the world have raised by 0.75°C, about two
thirds of this increase has occurred since 1975. Which of the following statements is NOT the effect
of Global Warming?
A) Polar ice caps will melt.
B) Coastal regions will be covered with rising sea levels.
C) Some areas will experience serious droughts
D) The Earth's rotation will slow down and eventually stop
37. The different color of stars is a function of their internal temperature. This is because as
material gets hotter, its radiation has more energy, shorter wavelengths, and appears
blue to the eye. As stars age though, they cool and lose energy. Their electromagnetic
waves lengthen until they appear red. Which of the following stars is the hottest?
A)blue-tinted star B)red-tinted star C) green-tinted star D) yellow-tinted star
38. What kind of star is the sun?
A)normal and middle aged C) small and old
B) normal and young D) large and young
39. What is the difference between viewing stars from the Earth and viewing stars from the
moon?
A)Stars viewed from the moon do not twinkle.
B)Stars viewed from the moon appear white
C) Stars viewed from the moon are less luminous.
D)Stars viewed from the moon are more numerous
40. Our sun is pretty average in its mid-life. If the sun were a large instead of a normal sized star it would
end its life in an explosion known as a supernovae. Instead, the sun will die as a black dwarf star.
However, even though the sun is 4.5 billion years old it will take billions of years for this to happen,
which is why the sun is considered __________.
A)normal and middle-aged C) normal and young
B) small and old D) large and young
41. Closest star to Earth
A) Sun B) Rigel C) Sirius D) Orion
42. Which of the following characteristics indicate the star’s surface temperature?
A)size B) color C) brightness D) distance
43. Stars appear to move in the sky because
A) The Earth is rotating on its axis C) The Universe is expanding
B) The night sky is rotating D) New galaxies are formed
44. If you are located at the North Pole, where will you see the Polaris?
A)overhead C) just above the horizon
 26

B) around 450 from the horizon D) Polaris will not be seen in the North pole
45. Stars can be found in large groups throughout the universe. What are these groups called?
A)solar system B) constellations C) comets D) asteroids
46. The International Astronomical Union named constellations both from Northern and Southern
Hemispheres. How many constellations have been named?
A)52 B)13 C) 88 D) 100
47. Every zodiac constellations can be seen on a specific month of the year. How is this so?
A)Because the zodiac is located co-planar to the Earth’s orbit
B)Because constellations change their position as well as the Earth’s orbit C)
Because of the Earth’s rotation
D)None of the above
48. A constellation is best viewed when
A) close to the horizon C) near a mountain
B) overhead D) close to the sun
49. Which constellation is prominently seen in the sky during February?
A) Orion B) Hercules C) Pegasus D) Virgo
50. The star Algol is estimated to be as bright as the star Aldebaran and have approximately the same
temperature as the star Rigel. Which of the following statement is correct?
A) Algol and Rigel have the same color
B) Algol and Rigel have the same brightness
C) Algol and Aldebaran have the same siz
D) Algol and Rigel have the same brightness and color.
51. Why can we see different parts of the sky at different times of the year?
A) Due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis C) Due to the revolution of the Earth
B) Due to the rotation of the Earth D) Due to the revolution of the moon
52. Which of the following local name of constellation signifies the start of planting and setting of traps to
protect the crops from animals?
A) Baha (Taurus) C)Malara (Canisminor)
B) Balatik (Orion’s belt) D) Pandarawa (Pleiades)
53. Why is it that the Polaris could be hardly seen in the Southern Philippines?
A) due to lights lit by men C) due to topographical features
B) due to man-made structures D) all of the above
54. Which of the following practices does not make use of constellation?
A)when to harvest C) when to plant
B) navigational tool D) predict forthcoming earthquake
55. The constellation below represents the constellation Cygnus?

Which statement best explains why Cygnus is visible to an observer in Manila in September but not visible
in March?
A) Earth spins on its axis C) Cygnus spins on its axis
B) Earth orbits the Sun D) Cygnus orbits the Earth
56. The constellation Pisces changes position during night. Which motion is mainly responsible for this
change in position?
A) Revolution of Earth around the Sun C) Rotation of Earth around the Sun
B) Revolution of Pisces around the Sun D) Rotation of Pisces on its axis
57. Which constellation helps sailors to navigate at the sea?
A) Pisces B) Sagittarius C) Polaris D)Ursa Minor
58. What local constellation signifies the start of rainy season in the Philippines?
A)Balara B)Lepu C) Buwaya D) Balatik
59. Patterns in the night sky appear to move appear to move in the course of the night because of
 27

A) Earth’s rotation B) Coriolis Effect C) Earth’s revolution D) Tyndall Effect

60. Different star patterns are seen at different times of the year because of
A) Earth’s rotation B) Coriolis Effect C) Earth’s revolution D) Tyndall Effect
 28

APPENDIX D

PERIODICAL TEST
4th Grading Period
Integrated Science 9

Name of Learner: _________________________ Grade & Section: __________________

Teacher: __________________________________ Date: ___________ Score: __________

GENERAL DIRECTION: Read each item carefully and follow directions as indicated . Write the letter of
the most appropriate answer in your answer sheet.

1. Which of the following statements is NOT true about projectile motion?

A. The initial horizontal velocity of a projectile is equal to its final horizontal velocity.
B. Projectile motion is a combination of 2 independent motions, vertical & horizontal
C. A projectile has a vertical acceleration equal to 9.8 m/s2.
D. Both the horizontal and vertical velocities of a projectile are constant.
2. An airplane from rest accelerates on a runway at 5.50 m/s² for 20.25 s until it finally takes off the
ground. What is the distance covered before takeoff/
A. 1130 m B. 1140 m C. 1132 m D. 1151 m
3. A bus from rest accelerates uniformly over a time of 3.25 seconds and covers a distance of 15 m.
Determine the acceleration of the bus.
A. 2.8 m/s² B. 4.8 m/s² C. 2.5 m/s² D. 3.5 m/s²
4. A jogger is running eastward along a straight road at 2m/s. If he accelerates at 0.1 m/s2 in 20
seconds,what is his new velocity?
A. 2 m/s B. 6 m/s C. 4 m/s D. 8 m/s
5. An object is thrown horizontally from a window of a building that is 2500 m high with a velocity of 8m/s.
How far from the base of the building will the ball land?
A. 54 m B. 60 m C. 90 m D. 181 m
6. At its maximum height, what is the vertical component of the velocity of a projectile that has an initial
velocity of 4.9 m/s?
A. 4.9 m/s B. 0 m/s C. 9.8 m/s D. -9.8 m/s
7. How long will it take a bullet fired horizontally from a height of 3 m with a velocity of 120 m/s to hit the
ground?
A. 0.55 s B. 0.96 s C. 0.78 s D. 1.6 s
8. A projectile has an initial horizontal velocity of 6 m/s. What will be its horizontal velocity after 4 seconds?
A. 0 m/s B. 4.9 m/s C. 3 m/s D. 6 m/s9. 9. A car is
moving from rest and attained a velocity of 80 m/s. What is the acceleration of the car after
5 seconds?
A.16 m/s ² B. 18 m/s² C. 20 m/s² D. 21 m/s²
10. A volleyball is served at a speed of 8.0 m/s at an angle 35◦above the horizontal. What is the speed of
the ball when received by the opponent at the same height?
A. 4m/s B.8 m/s C.9.8 m/s D. 16 m/s

11. A 20 kg boy is riding a 6 kg bicycle with a velocity o 4 m/s to the North. What is the total
momentum of the boy and the bike together?
A. 104 kg m/s B.100 kg m/s C.109 kg m/s D. 120 kg m/s
12. A 2500 kg bus from Laguna moves at 25 m/s to Makati? What is the momentum?
A.62 500 kg m/s B. 63, 400 kg m/s C. 64 800 kg m/s D. 48 400 kg m/s
13. The impulse experienced by a body is equal to the change in its________.
A. velocity B.kinetic energy C. momentum D. potential energy
14. Two 0.5 kg balls approach each other with the same speed at 1.0 m/s. What is the total momentum of
the system before collision?
A. 0 B. 0.50 kg m/s C. 1.0 kg m/s D. -1.0 kg m/s
15. Two identical cars are travelling along EDSA. Which of two cars would have greater momentum?
A. the slower car C. both have the same momentum B. the
faster car D. cannot be easily determined
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16. A bus and a car are travelling along EDSA having the same velocity. Which of the two vehicles would
have a greater momentum?
A. the bus C. both have the same momentum
B.the car D. cannot be easily determined
17. Two billiard balls approach each other at equal speed. If they collide in a perfectly elastic collision,
what would be their velocities after collision?
A. zero C. same in magnitude but opposite in direction
B. same in magnitude & direction D. different magnitude & opposite in direction
18. A lady tennis player hits an approaching ball with a force of 750 N. If she hits the ball in 0.002 s, how
much impulse is imparted to the tennis ball?
A.0Ns B. 1.5 N s C. 3.0 N s D. 6.0 N s
19. A 25 kg girl is riding a 5 kg bicycle with a velocity of 5 m/s the East. What is the total momentum of a
girl and a bike together?
A. 100 kg m/s B.125 kg m/s C.150 kg m/s D. 200 m/s
20. A ball is moving at 7.0 m/s and has a momentum of 100 kg m/s. What is the ball’s mass?
A. 14.29 kg B. 15.40 kg C.14.80 kg D. 15.01 kg
21. A 100 kg football player is running with a speed of 4 m/s,while a 50 kg track athlete runs with a speed of
8 m/s. The football ball player has______.
A. more momentum than the track athlete
B. less momentum than the track athlete
C. the same momentum as the track athlete
D. no momentum
22. If two objects of equal mass and equal speed collide head on and stick together their final speed is
zero. In this case_______.
A. momentum is not conserved but kinetic energy is conserved
B. momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved
C. both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
D. neither momentum nor kinetic energy are conserved

23. A 3.0 kg object is moving to the right at 4.0 m/s. It collides in a perfectly inelastic collision with a 6.0 kg
object moving to the left at 2.0 m/s. What is the total KE after the collision?
A. 62 J B.25 J C. 12 J D.0.0 J
24. Which has more momentum, a heavy truck moving at 40 m/s or a light truck moving at 40 m/s?
A. heavy truck C. both have the same momentum
B. light truck D. cannot be determined
25. Which is necessary condition for the total momentum of a system to be conserved?
A. kinetic energy must not change C. an object must be at rest
B. no external force is present D. only the force of gravity acts on the system
26. You notice after you walk across a room, you feel spark when you touch the doorknob. What energy
transformation must have taken place?
A. thermal electromagnetic C. mechanical electrical
B. electromagnetic mechanical D. electrical mechanical
27. When a turbine rotates to produce electricity,what energy transformation takes place?
A. thermal electromagnetic C. mechanical electrical
B. electromagnetic mechanical D. electrical mechanical
28. Which sequence of energy transformation best describes when you switch on
your battery-run radio?
A. Mechanical energy-electrical energy-sound energy
B. Mechanical energy-chemical energy-sound energy
C. Chemical energy-electrical energy-sound energy
D. Chemical energy-mechanical energy-sound energy
29. Whenever one form of energy is converted into another, some of the original energy is al ways
converted to into which type of energy?
A. light B. sound C. kinetic D. thermal
 30

30. A castaway on an island rubs two sticks together to create a fire.. Which form of energy below is not
involved in this process?
A. thermal B. nuclear C. chemical D. mechanical
Use the diagram below to answer numbers 31-32

31. Which sequence correctly shows an increase in potential energy?

A. EFBG B. BFEC C. DEBF D. AGFC
32. Which letter shows the ball when it has just a little more KE than G?
A. F B. B C. E D. C

33. A torchlight fell from a watch tower. The potential energy of the torchlight at the highest point
compared to its kinetic energy at the lowest point is________________.
A. lesser B. equal C. greater D. not related
34. Which event does NOT describe potential energy being changed into kinetic energy?
A. A box sliding down a ramp. C. A pen spring being compressed
B. A mango falling from a crate D. A stretched rubber band got loosened
35. The PE of a body at a certain height is 200 J. The kinetic energy possessed by it when it just touches
the surface of the earth is_________________.
A. ˂ PE B. ˃ PE C. = PE D. cannot be known
36. A 40 kg ball is pulled to one side until it is 1.5 m above its lowest point. What will be its velocity as it
passes through its lowest point?
A. 54.2 m/s B. 0.542m/s C. 5.42m/s D. 54 m/s
37. What quantity has the greatest influence on the amount of kinetic energy that a large truck has while
moving down the highway?
A.mass B. size C. weight D. Velocity
38. Renzo observes the waterfalls used in hydroelectric power plant. He found out that it flows naturally
that makes the turbine rotates. What makes this so?
A. Spontaneous process occurs naturally.
B. Spontaneous process needs heat pump to exist
C. Spontaneous process requires work to make it possible
D. Spontaneous process tends that heat to flow from lower temperature to cooler temperature
39. A hot coffee in a vacuum flask is an example of a/an ____________.
A. close system B. open system C. ideal systemD. isolated system
40. When heat is absorbed by gas, change in entropy is__________.
A. positive B. negative C. infinite D. either positive/negative
41. If 150 J of energy is added to a system when no external work has been done,by how much will the
thermal energy of the system be raised?
A. 15 J B. 1.50 J C. 150 J D. 1500 J
42. Which of the following situations is NOT an example of spontaneous process?
A. Water falls C. Ice production
B. Drying of leaves D. Spoilage of food
43. Suppose a steam engine receives steam at 600K. The engine uses a part of this thermal energy for
work. It exhausts the rest to a condenser at a temperature of 350 K. What is the maximum efficiency of this
steam engine?
A. 4. 167% B. 41. 67% C. 41.00% D. 42.00%
44. What is the correct sequence of four cycle-stroke of gasoline engine?
I. Intake II. Power III. Exhaust IV. Compression
A. I,II,III,IV B. I,IV,II,III C. II,III,IV,I D. I,III,IV,II
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45. Which of the following statement about heat engine is NOT true.
A. Heat engine is any device that converts thermal energy into mechanical work.
B. There is no ideal heat engine,making some heat exhaust in the environment.
C. Cooling and heating are very important components of heat engine.
D. In every heat engine,all of the heat can be converted into work.
46. Which part of the power plant converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?
A. Transformer B. Generator C. Turbine D. Power Lines
47. In the Agus VI Hydroelectric Power (HEP) Plant, which energy transformation takes place?
A. Electrical energy ---- mechanical energy ---- electrical energy
B.Gravitational potential energy ---- kinetic energy ---- mechanical energy ---- electrical energy
C.Heat ----- mechanical energy ----- electrical energy
D. Nuclear energy ----- heat ----- mechanical energy ----- electrical energy
48. A turbine generator is situated at the bottom of dam so that the ____________.
A. water comes out with a lot of kinetic energy
B. water comes out has a lot of potential energy
C. generator does not have to be lifted up for repairs
D. turbine can be used to pump the water back to the dam
49. Shayne turned on a lamp switch in her room. Which of the following is the correct path of electrical
power that can be traced back to the source?
A. Transmission substation --- power plant ----residences ----- distribution substation
B. residences ---- distribution substation -----transmission substation ----- powerplant
C. distribution substation ---- transmission substation ---- residences ----- power plant
D. power plant ----- transmission substation ---- distribution substation ---- residences
50. Alternating current power is transmitted at high voltage
A. to safeguard against pilferage. C. to reduce cost of generation
B. to minimize transmission losses D. to make the system reliable
51.A consumer uses a 6 kW immersion heater, a 4 kW electric stove and three 100 watt lamps for 10
hours. How many units (kWh) of electrical energy have been converted?
A. 204 kWh B. 103 kWh C. 93 kWh D. 101 kWh
52. On January 1, the meter looked like this:

On January 31, the meter looked like this:

How many kilowatt-hours of electricity were used during January?

A. 157 kWh B. 156 kWh C. 155 kWh D. 154 kWh
53. How much time did you play video games if the PS4 uses 110 W of power and you used a total of 16.5
kWh of energy?
A. 6.63 hrs B. 0.15 hrs C. 150 hrs D. 50 hrs
Used the data table below to answer the questions on 54,55 and 56.
Approximate Wattage
Kind of Bulb Needed to produce 1,600 Life Span
lumens
Tungsten incandescent
100 W 750 hours
Bulb
 32

Halogen Incandescent
77 W 1000 hours
Bulb
Compact Florescent (CFL) 23 W 10, 000 hours
Light-Emitting Diode
20 W 20, 000 hours
(LED)
54. To save electrical consumption, light bulb should be energy efficient. Which bulb helps to reduce your
electric bill?
A. Light-Emitting Diode (LED) C. Halogen Incandescent Bulb
B. Compact Florescent (CFL) D. Tungsten Incandescent Bulb
55.How will you arrange the light bulb from lowest to highest electrical consumption?
A. Halogen Incandescent Bulb < Compact Florescent (CFL) <Tungsten Incandescent Bulb < Light
Emitting Diode
B. Compact Florescent (CFL) < Halogen Incandescent Bulb < Light Emitting Diode <Tungsten
Incandescent Bulb
C. Light Emitting Diode <Compact Florescent (CFL) < Halogen Incandescent Bulb < Tungsten
Incandescent Bulb
D. Tungsten Incandescent Bulb < Halogen Incandescent Bulb < Compact Florescent (CFL) <
Light Emitting Diode
56. After school each day, Sally uses her computer to do her homework. If she has an average of two
hours of homework per night for 180 days of school per year, how many Kilowatt-hours are consumed and
what is the annual cost of using her computer (4.60 PhP/kWh)? A CPU and monitor use 270 Watts.
A. It consumed 97.2 kWh which costs 447.12 PhP/kWh.
B. It consumed 194.40 kWh which costs894.24PhP/kWh.
C. It consumed 48.6 kWh which costs223.56PhP/kWh.
D. It consumed 0.54 kWh which iscosts2.484 PhP/kWh.
57. Which of the following ways can save on electrical energy consumption?
A. Use high wattage light bulbs in areas that do not need strong lighting such as
hallways, foyers and doorways.
B. Replace solid-state TV tube sets with old TV tube sets because these types use
significantly less energy.
C. Clean your electric fans regularly, to keep them running efficiently.
D. Dampen clothes excessively. Excessively moistened clothes are easy to iron.

58. Below are the Energy Efficiency Ratio of different room air conditioners. Which among them is the most
energy efficient?

59.When there is a change in the magnetic field in a closed loop of wire,

A. a voltage is not induced in the wire
B. current is made to flow in the loop of wire
C. electromagnetic induction does not occur
D. all of these
60. In which case will electric current be induced in a coil of wire?
A. when it is connected to a galvanometer
B. when a magnet is held stationary inside the coil
C. when a magnet is rapidly inserted into and out of the coil
 33

D. when a magnetic compass is held beside it

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APPENDIX E

FIRST QUARTER PRE-TEST AND POSTTEST SCORES IN SCIENCE III

FIRST PERIODIC TEST SCORES

STUDENT PRE TEST POST TEST % OF INCREASE

1 25 42 40.48

2 22 43 48.84

3 21 44 52.27

4 20 47 57.45

5 18 52 65.38

6 15 50 70.00

7 14 48 70.83

8 17 49 65.31

9 16 38 57.89

10 15 46 67.39

11 13 47 72.34

12 15 40 62.50

13 22 39 43.59

14 24 37 35.14

15 20 38 47.37

16 18 36 50.00

17 19 35 45.71

18 17 39 56.41

Mean 18.39 42.78

OVERALL INCREASE 56.05

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APPENDIX F

SECOND QUARTER PRE-TEST AND POSTTEST SCORES IN SCIENCE III

SECOND PERIODIC TEST SCORES

STUDENT PRE TEST POST TEST % OF INCREASE

1 29 45 35.56

2 17 36 52.78

3 18 35 48.57

4 25 39 35.90

5 28 40 30.00

6 29 43 32.56

7 24 44 45.45

8 25 42 40.48

9 17 39 56.41

10 17 40 57.50

11 28 41 31.71

12 25 42 40.48

13 25 40 37.50

14 24 39 38.46

15 18 44 59.09

16 19 44 56.82

17 21 43 51.16

18 22 40 45.00

19 23.00 41.00 43.90

20 20 45 55.56

Mean 20.40 37.05

OVERALL INCREASE 40.33

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APPENDIX G

THIRD QUARTER PRE-TEST AND POSTTEST SCORES IN SCIENCE III

THIRD PERIODIC TEST SCORES

STUDENT PRE TEST POST TEST % OF INCREASE

1 23 42 45.24

2 29 45 35.56

3 25 40 37.50

4 19 46 58.70

5 21 45 53.33

6 24 47 48.94

7 17 40 57.50

8 15 42 64.29

9 22 44 50.00

10 25 47 46.81

11 29 42 30.95

12 19 40 52.50

13 29 50 42.00

14 23 42 45.24

15 20 40 50.00

Mean 22.67 43.47

OVERALL INCREASE 47.90

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APPENDIX H

FOURTH QUARTER PRE-TEST AND POSTTEST SCORES IN SCIENCE III

FOURTH PERIODIC TEST SCORES

STUDENT PRE TEST POST TEST % OF INCREASE

1 24 45 46.67

2 26 44 40.91

3 23 46 50.00

4 24 43 44.19

5 27 47 42.55

6 25 45 44.44

7 28 44 36.36

8 27 48 43.75

9 28 41 31.71

10 22 43 48.84

11 24 45 46.67

12 26 44 40.91

Mean 25.33 44.58

OVERALL INCREASE 43.08