Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Duration : 100 minutes
Choose the right answer by crossing the letter A, B, C, D or E.
1. A 64 year old male with a history of extensive tobacco use, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and
obesity presents with acute onset chest pain. On arrival, the EKG shown below was obtained:
Emergency coronary angiography revealed complete occlusion of the culprit vessel.
Percutaneous coronary intervention was unsuccessful and the plan was for medical
management. Forty‐eight hours after initial presentation, while in the coronary care unit, he
suddenly became very dyspneic. His exam was notable for tachycardia, elevated jugular venous
pressure, diffuse rales, and an early 2/6 systolic murmur loudest at the cardiac apex. Which of
the following is most likely to account for his acute decompensation?
A. Ventricular septal rupture
B. Severe mitral stenosis
C. Hyperdynamic ventricle
D. Acute mitral regurgitation
E. Pericardial effusion
2. Your patient with non‐ST–elevation acute coronary syndrome (NSTE‐ACS) is undergoing
evaluation. Treatment with enoxaparin is initiated. A reduction in the dose from 1 mg/kg
subcutaneously twice daily to once daily is most appropriate in the presence of which of these
conditions in this patient?
A. Impaired renal function
B. Heart failure
C. Ventricular arrhythmia
D. Hypertension
E. Diabetes Mellitus
3. Your patient has acute coronary syndrome, severe LV dysfunction, hemodynamic instability, and
atrial fibrillation (AF). Which of these medications is most appropriate for slowing a rapid
ventricular response in this patient?
A. Verapamil
B. Beta blocker
C. Digitalis Glycoside
D. Amiodarone
E. Diltiazem
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4. Which of these is most likely to modify the size and density of LDL and HDL particles in a patient
with hypertriglyceridemia?
A. Fibrate drugs
B. Statin drugs
C. Omega 3 fatty acid
D. Bile sequestran
E. Niacin drugs
5. Which of these treatments should be AVOIDED in a patient with acute coronary syndrome who
has signs of acute cocaine or methamphetamine intoxication?
A. IV beta blokers
B. IV nitrates
C. IV Amiodaron
D. IV Anticoagulants
E. Fibrinolytics
6. A patient with a past medical history significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, obesity, COPD and
dyslipidemia presents for evaluation of heart failure after complaining of lower extremity
edema. An 2D‐echocardiogram is performed with the following results: ejection fraction =
55%, no left ventricular hypertrophy noted, normal regional wall motion. Based on this
information and the ACCF/AHA Heart Failure guidelines, how would you classify this patient?
A. Stage A heart failure
B. Stage B heart failure
C. Stage C heart failure
D. Stage D heart failure
E. Stage E heart failure
7. How does Persantine work to increase coronary blood flow when used in a stress test?
A. A2A adenosine receptor agonist
B. Inhibits adenosine deaminase
C. Stimulates beta1‐adrenergic receptors
D. Provides exogenous adenosine
E. Increase myocardial oksigen demand
8. A 60 year‐old female presents complaining of increased swelling of her ankles. She states that
these symptoms started after recent changes to her blood pressure medication regimen (she
cannot recall what changes were made). The patient's current therapy consists of losartan,
metoprolol, felodipine, and chlorthalidone. Which of the following medications is the most likely
cause of this patient's complain?
A. Chlorthalidone
B. Felodipine
C. Losartan
D. Metoprolol
E. Digitalis glycoside
9. A 70‐year‐old woman comes to the office because she has had claudication in her left hip and
buttock during the past eight months. She says the symptoms occur after she walks
approximately one block. Medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and
hyperlipidemia. Daily medications include amlodipine, atenolol, metformin, glyburide, and
rosuvastatin. The patient has a 40–pack‐year history of cigarette smoking. Physical examination
shows diminished left femoral pulse and absent left popliteal pulse. Right femoral and popliteal
pulses are intact. Which of the following is the most likely site of arterial stenosis in this patient?
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A. Abdominal aorta
B. Left common iliac artery
C. Left deep femoral artery
D. Left popliteal artery
E. Left superficial femoral artery
10. A 63‐year‐old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband because she has
had crushing chest pain for the past 20 minutes. Pulse rate is 97/min, respirations are 22/min,
and blood pressure is 145/80 mmHg. On physical examination, no pulmonary abnormalities are
noted. On auscultation of the chest, an S4 gallop is heard. Electrocardiography shows
STsegment elevations in leads V2 through V5. Morphine, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and oxygen are
administered. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Transesophageal echocardiography
B. Transthoracic echocardiography
C. Transfer to the intensive care unit
D. Transfer to the operating room
E. Transfer to the cardiac catheterization laboratory
11. A 72‐year‐old man is referred to the clinic after his first physical examination since 50 years of
age. At that time, hypertension was diagnosed but the patient refused drug therapy. Medical
history includes no known illnesses or surgical procedures. The patient has smoked two packs of
cigarettes daily since 20 years of age. Review of systems shows dyspnea on exertion, tightness
of the calves after walking up three or four flights of stairs, and forgetfulness. Screening for
which of the following conditions is the most appropriate next step?
A. Coronary artery disease
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
D. Major neurocognitive disorder (dementia)
E. Peripheral vascular disease
12. A 58‐year‐old man is undergoing three‐vessel coronary artery bypass grafting with replacement
of the aortic valve. Multiple attempts to separate the patient from the heart‐lung machine are
unsuccessful. The surgeon decides that insertion of an intra‐aortic balloon pump is indicated. In
this patient, the primary goal of this procedure is increase in which of the following?
A. Afterload
B. Contractility
C. Coronary blood flow
D. Peripheral resistance
E. Preload
13. A 78‐year‐old man with hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is transferred
to the intensive care unit after undergoing two‐vessel coronary artery bypass grafting. Four
hours later, atrial fibrillation develops at a rate of 140/min. Amiodarone therapy is initiated.
Which of the following is the most serious adverse effect of this therapy?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Liver dysfunction
E. Pulmonary toxicity
14. A 60‐year‐old man who is recovering in the hospital 15 days after undergoing repeat repair of an
ascending aortic aneurysm has had atrial fibrillation for the past five days. Laboratory studies
show platelet count of 45,000/mm3 and confirm the diagnosis of heparin‐induced
thrombocytopenia. Anticoagulation therapy is planned to prevent complications from the
patient's condition. Prior to initiation of warfarin therapy, the most appropriate anticoagulant
therapy is administration of which of the following medications?
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A. Argatroban
B. Clopidogrel
C. Low Molecular weight Heparin
D. Indirect Factor Xa Inhibitor
E. Heparin
15. What chemical element in contrast material makes it radiopaque to X‐rays?
A. Calcium
B. Iodine
C. Barium
D. Lead
E. Magnesium
16. A patient's LV angiogram shows apical hypokinesis during sinus rhythm. But following one PVC
the compensatory beat shows significantly improved EF. This post‐"PVC potentiation" of LV
contractility probably indicates:
A. Reversible apical ischemia
B. Irreversible apical infarcted area
C. Recent LAD occlusion
D. Old LAD occlusion
E. Total Oclusion at apical area
17. The first medication given to all ACLS patients should be:
A. Nitroglycerine
B. Morphine
C. Aspirin
D. Oxygen
E. Clopidogrel
18. During ACLS certain drugs may be given down the ET tube. When most drugs are given by the
endotracheal route you should ______________ followed by several rapid bag inflations to
aerosolize the medication.
A. Half the dose and flush in with 20 mL D5W
B. Half the dose and dilute in 10 mL of normal saline
C. Double the dose and flush in with 20 mL D5W
D. Double the dose and dilute in 10 mL of normal saline
E. Equal the dose and flush in with 20 mL D5W
19. In SVT if the initial dose of adenosine is ineffective after 2 minutes administer:
A. DC cardioversion
B. Transcutaneous pacing
C. 6 mg adenosine rapid IV push x2
D. 12 mg adenosine rapid IV push x2
E. DC Shock
20. Which vitamin is necessary for the formation of clotting factors?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
E. Vitamin E
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21. Elective cardioversion via R2 pads for atrial fibrillation should start at a minimum of:
A. 25 joules
B. 50 joules
C. 100 joules
D. 150 joules
E. 200 joules
22. A recommended position for a patient in acute pulmonary edema is:
A. Prone position, to encourage maximum rest, thus decreasing respiratory and
cardiac rates
B. Sitting up position to facilitate breathing and decrease venous return
C. Trendelenburg position, to drain blood from leg veins into the heart
D. Recovery position, lateral with upper leg flexed and forward, and upper hand
across the chest with back of hand held supporting his cheek.
E. Left Lateral decubitus position to maintain the heart lean downward
23. You have just completed an echocardiogram. Your patient asks you to interpret
the results of his diagnostic examination. Your response as a healthcare professional
should be to:
A. Say you don't know how to interpret result
B. Explain that the physician will interpret it and report the results
C. Explain that the final results are inconclusive
D. Honestly interpret it to the best of your ability
E. Say you don’t have any competency to explain the results
24. Your patient with hypertension has been noncompliant in taking his antihypertensive
medications. He should be taught that one relatively common complication of uncontrolled
hypertension is:
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Herniation of the aorta
C. Destruction of valves in the venous system
D. Hemorrhaging of blood vessels in the brain
E. Cardiomyopathy
25. Amaurosis Fugax is a symptom that involves the patient's:
A. Sight
B. Hearing
C. Equilibrium
D. Sensation of pain
E. Mental
26. Fallot’s tetrology is characterized by:
A. Patent ductus arteriosis.
B. Pulmonary stenosis.
C. Overriding of pulmonary trunk.
D. Atrial septal defect.
E. Left ventricular hypertrophy.
27. Pulmonary thromboembolism may cause shock because of:
A. Pooling of blood in periphery.
B. Hypovolemia.
C. Dilatation of venous system.
D. Pump (heart) failure.
E. Infarction of the right ventricle.
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28. The following is true of Eisenmenger syndrome:
A. affected children are typically teenagers
B. it can be seen in children with Down syndrome
C. it is usually secondary to an untreated ventricular septal defect or atrioventricular septal
defect
D. the pulmonary component of the second heart sound is quiet on auscultation
E. the ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy
29. Which one of the following is true of atherosclerotic plaque formation?
A. It is an acute inflammatory disease of the vascular intima
B. It is characterized by the accumulation and modification of cholesterol esters on the
luminal surface of the endothelium
C. Macrophages bind and phagocytose oxidized LDL to form foam cells
D. Typically form away from branch points
E. Endothelial dysfunction as a result of an insult to the endothelium is characterized by
increased nitric oxide release
30. Factors that will reduced cardiac output?
A. Baroreceptor stimulation
B. Digitalis glycoside
C. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (milrinone, theophylline)
D. Volume load
E. Sympatetic tone
31. The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
A. isovolumetric relaxation
B. isovolumetric contraction
C. ventricular ejection
D. ventricular filling
32. Isovolumetric contraction
A. refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely
closed chambers
B. occurs while the AV valves are open
C. occurs immediately after the aortic and pulmonary valves close
D. occurs only in people with heart valve defects
33. During contraction of heart muscle cells
A. the action potential is initiated by voltage‐gated slow calcium channels
B. some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger
amounts of calcium from intracellular stores
C. the action potential is prevented from spreading from cell to cell by gap junctions
D. calcium is prevented from entering cardiac fibers that have been stimulated
34. Select the correct statement about cardiac output
A. A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.
B. Decreased venous return will result in increased end diastolic volume.
C. If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end systolic volume in the affected
ventricle would be decreased.
D. Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases.
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35. If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that
sodium influx is more rapid,
A. threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase
B. potassium channels compensate and no change in heart rate would occur
C. heart rate would decrease, but blood pressure would rise due to the excess sodium present
D. tetanic contraction would occur due to the short absolute refractory period of cardiac
muscle
36. Acute hyperkalemia is associated with which of the following electrocardiographic changes?
A. QRS widening
B. Prolongation of the ST segment
C. A decrease in the PR interval
D. Prominent U waves
E. T‐wave flattening
37. A 37‐year‐old male with Wolff‐Parkinson‐White syndrome develops a broad‐complex irregular
tachycardia at a rate of 200 beats per minute. He appears comfortable and has little
hemodynamic impairment. Useful treatment at this point might include
A. A.Digoxin
B. Amiodarone
C. C.Propranolol
D. D.Verapamil
E. Direct‐current cardioversion
38. In African Americans with New York Heart Association class II heart failure, which of the
following drug combinations should be added to an angiotensinconverting enzyme inhibitor and
beta blocker?
A. A.Hydralazine/angiotensin receptor blockers
B. Hydrazaline/digoxin
C. C.Isosorbide dinitrate/angiotensin receptor blockers
D. D.Isosorbide dinitrate/digoxin
E. Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine
39. All of the following findings on echocardiographic assessment of patients with congestive heart
failure with preserved ejection fraction are relevant except
A. A.atrial fibrillation
B. left atrial dilatation
C. C.left ventricular wall thickness
D. D.left ventricular diastolic filling as measured by tissue Doppler
E. systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve
40. Damage to the ………………….. is referred to as heart block.
A. SA node
B. AV valves
C. AV bundle
D. AV node
41. Closure of the foramen primum results from the fusion of the
A. septum primum and the septum secundum
B. septum primum and the endocardial cushions
C. septum secundum and the septum spurium
D. septum secundum and the endocardial cushions
E. septum primum and the right sinoatrial valve
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42. The fetal left atrium is mainly derived from the:
A. sinus venosus
B. right pulmonary vein
C. primitive atrium
D. sinus venarum
E. primitive pulmonary veins
43. The most common congenital malformation of the heart and great vessels associated with the
congenital rubella syndrome is
A. coarctation of the aorta
B. tetralogy of Fallot
C. patent ductus arteriosus
D. atrial septal defect
E. ventricular septal defect
44. Which of the following statements is NOT correct
A. the sinus venosus serves as the pacemaker of the heart of the young embryo
B. the septum primum completely divides the developing atrium into right and left
compartments
C. in the adult heart, the sinus venous is represented by the sino‐atrial node
D. the two endocardial cushions divide the atrioventricular (AV) canal into the right
tricuspid and left bicuspid (mitral) canals.
E. the fusion of the right superior truncus swelling with the left inferior truncus swelling
forms the aorticopulmonary septum
45. The AV node was mostly supplied by
A. Diagonal artery
B. Right coronary artery
C. Left circumflex artery
D. Posterior descendent artery
E. Left coronary artery
46. The Frank‐Starling principle
A. As end‐diastolic volume increase, stroke volume increases
B. Cardiac output is production of stroke volume and heart rate
C. End‐diastolic pressure increase during exercise
D. Left ventricular tension is equal with left ventricular thickness
E. As afterload increase, stroke volume increase
47. Phase 2 of myocytes action potential formed by
A. Inflow of Na+
B. Outflow of K+
C. Inflow of K+
D. Inflow of Ca++
E. Outflow of Ca++
48. The most common primary cardiac tumor is
A. Fibroma
B. Myxoma
C. Rhabdomyoma
D. Papillary fibroelastoma
E. Lymphoma
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49. Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve leaflet by echocardiography is sign of
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
E. Infective endocarditis
50. The pericarditis that following a myocardial infarction or cardiac surgery are called
A. Burheim’s syndrome
B. Katzwachtel phenomenon
C. X‐ syndrome
D. Brugada syndrome
E. Dressler’s syndrome
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