Chapter by Chapter MCQ PDF

BGAS GRADE 2/3
MODEL MULTILE CHOICE QUESTION &ANSWER 2013
CORROSION # 1
1. Corrosion is defined as
a) Rusting of Cathode
b) Oxidation of iron in contact with water
c) Degradation of a material by chemical or electrochemical means
d) Breakdown of metal by hydrogen
2. What is an electrolyte?
a) It is a mixture of Salts and water
b) A substance which will conduct electricity and cause rusting
c) Oxidation liquid which will attack steel.
d) A substance which will conduct a current and be broken down by it.
3. The degradation of material by chemical or electrochemical means is
a) Pickling followed by passivation
b) Acid cleaning
c) Corrosion
d) An Electrolyte
4. Is the electrical circuit in a corrosion reaction?

a)AC
b)DC
c) Negative charge
d) Positive charge
5. Hydrogen is evolved at
a) The anode at all times.
b) The Cathode at all times.
c) The cathode as a byproduct of the corrosion reaction
d) The Anode as corrosion takes place
6. Positively charged area
a) Anode
b) Cathode
c) Electrolyte
d) Electron
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BGAS GRADE 2/3 MODEL MULTILE CHOICE QUESTION &ANSWER 2013
7. Negatively charged area

a) Anode
b) Cathode
c) Electrolyte
d) Electron
8. What are three elements needed for corrosion to occur?
a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Water
b) Electron, Proton, Neutron
c) Anode, Cathode, Electrolyte
d) Temperature, Salt, Acid
9. Water will be drawn through the film and the resulting solution builds up a pressure under the
film forced to form
a) Blister
b) Micron
c) Sulphates
d) Chloride
10. Hygroscopic blisters are called
a) Sulphates
b) Chlorides
c) Pinhead size water filled
d) Corrosion
11. Presence of oxygen into the Cathodic reaction the Number of Hydroxyl ions doubles
a) Sulphates
b) Double the corrosion rate
c) Pinhead size water filled
d) Corrosion not occur
12. Another name for the Galvanic List, is
a) The Corrosion list
b) Electro Negative List
c) Electrical Corrosive properties series
d) Electromotive Forces Series
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13. Two examples of hygroscopic salts would be

a) Iron phosphates and Iron Chromates
b) Iron Chordates and Iron Oxides
c) Iron Sulphates and Iron Chlorides
d) Iron Sulphates and Iron Silicates
14. If Zinc and Aluminium were in close contacts, in the presence or electrolyte
a) Aluminium would corrode
b) They would corrode equally.
c) Zinc would corrode
d) None of the above
15. MEM’s are also known as
a) Moisture Enriched Mat2erials
b) Metal Eating Microbes
c) Maximum Evolved Moistures
d) Material Electron Mobility
16. SRB’s are also known as
a) Salts Reducing Bacteria
b) Substrate Reducing Bacteria
c) Solid Reducing Bacteria
d) Sulphur Reducing Bacteria
17. The factors which can affect the rate corrosion are
a) Temperature, Time and Coating system
b) Bi-Metallic contact, Hygroscopic Salts and Bacteria
c) Coating system, Pipe diameter and Ultra Violet Light
d) Blasting Grades, Rust Grades and surface profile
18. The thickness of Mill scale is
a) 25 m to 100 m
b) 100 to 150 m
c) Zero
d) Dependent upon the material thickness
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19. The three compressed oxides which from Mill scale are
a) Iron Oxide, Rust and Iron Sulphate
b) Wusite (FeO), Hematite (Fe3O4) and Magnetite (Fe2O3)
c) Iron sulphate, Iron Chloride and Iron Phosphate
d) RSC, RSJ and RSA
20. Name of sub atomic particles
a) Proton, Neutron, Electron
b) Micron, poron, Moron
c) Wusite, Hematite and Magnetite
d) Anode, Cathode, Electrolyte
21. Which of the following is the best noble metal?
a) Magnesium
b) Tungsten
c) Mill scale
d) Zinc
22. Which is cathode in corrosion?
a)Water
b)Oxygen
c)Substrate
d)Electrons released
23. Which one is more noble?
a)Silver
b)Steel
c)Magnesium
d)Zinc
24. Fe++ is
a)An atom
b)Molecule
c) Iron Ion
d)Iron Substrate
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25. Which one is not a compound in mill scale?
a) FeO
b) Fe2O3
c) Fe2 O4
d) Fe3O4
26. Which metal corrode fast according to bimetallic principle?

a) Less electronegative
b) More Electropositive
c) More noble
d) Less Noble
27. Which one of the following is more noble?
a) Zinc
b) Steel
c) Millscale
d) Aluminium
28. The corrosion will takes place at

a) The Anode
b) The Cathode
c) The electrolyte
d) Anode first than cathode
29. The by production of corrosion reaction is
a) Iron oxide
b) Iron sulphates
c) Iron chromate
d) Iron chloride
30.Aerobic condition would refer to?
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Moisture
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31. Which of the following is the highest known potential value?

a) Mill scale
b) Tin
c) Copper
d) Iron
32. The chemical composition of Hematite?
a) Fe2 O3 b)
Oxygen c)
Nitrogen d)
Moisture
33. Which two materials are commonly used as sacrificial anodes?
a) Copper and Tungsten
b) Aluminium and Graphite
c) Zinc and Aluminium
d) Lead and Tin
34. Which of the following could be classified as a major cause of microbial corrosion?
a) Sulphur Eating Metal
b) Sulphur Reducing Bacteria
c) Rust inhibitive salts
d) Iron phosphates
35. Which is the more noble metal?
a) Steel
b) Aluminum
c) Magnesium
d) Tin
36. Which of the element will corrode quickly as per bimetallic principle?
a) Steel-Magnesium
b) Steel – Zinc
c) Steel - Aluminium
d) Carbon
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37. Bi metallic corrosion causes

a) Causes a material of a higher nobility to corrode faster
b) Causes a material of the same nobility to corrode faster
c) Causes a material of lower nobility to corrode faster d)
Causes a material containing carbon to corrode faster
38. Molecular freedom of steel metal increases when
a) substrate contains salt

b) presence of oxygen
c) temperature increases
d) Bacteria Affected
39. Which is more electropositive?
a) silver
b) steel
c) mill scale
d) magnesium
40. Mill scale is formed during steel rolling manufacturing operations in temperature at
a) Below 580oC
b) Excess 580oC
c) up to 580oC
d) on 580oC
41. Chemical name of rust
a) Hygroscopic salts
b) Hydrous iron oxide
c) mill scale
d) Hygroscopic blisters
42. Hygroscopic slats cause
a) Rash rusting
b) Pinholes
c) Rogue peak
d) Blisters
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43. In the corrosion circuit, electron travel from

a) Anode to Cathode
b) Cathode to Anode
c) Electrolyte to both Cathode to Anode
44. In the corrosion circuit, electron flow from

a) Anode to Cathode, via Electrolyte
b) Positive to Negative
c) Electrolyte to both Cathode to Anode
d) Anode to Cathode, via metallic path
45. In which salts would be found in Marine environment?

a) Potassium
b) Chloride
c) Sulphate
d) Zinc sulphate
46. In which salts would be found in Agricultural environment?

a) Sulphate
b) Potassium
c) Chloride
d) Potassium chloride
48. An Anode becomes positively charged by

a) Releasing proton to the cathode
b) Releasing electrons to the cathode
c) Receiving atoms from the cathode
49. In the galvanic list, which of the following materials has the highest known potential values?
a) Mill scale
b) Copper
c) Al
d) Graphite
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50. AnSteel becomes positively charged by

a) Releasing proton to the cathode
b) Releasing electrons to the cathode
c) Receiving atoms from the cathode
51. In the galvanic list, which of the following materials has the lowest known potential values?
a) Mill scale
b) Copper
c) Aluminium
d) Graphite
52. Atom acquire the electric charged are
a) Atomisation
b) Solaration
c) Polarisation
d) Electromation
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SURFACE PREPARATION METHODS & STANDARDS # 2
1. The British standard for preparation of steel substrate?

a) BS 3900
b) IGE SR 21
c) BS 7079
d) ISO 8501
2. The two factors to consider when inspecting a surface preparation
a) Degree of cleanliness and time taken
b) Surface profile and material condition
c) Surface profile and degree of cleanliness
d) Dependent upon the material thickness
3. Which is nota surface preparation cleaning methods in before paint application?
a) Dry abrasive blast cleaning
b) Hand and power tool leaning
c) Flame cleaning
d) Light blast cleaning
4. Which pressure suitable for dry blasting?
a)20psi
b)100psi
c)220psi
d)450psi
5. When using a Venturi Nozzle at 100 psi the abrasive exits at approximately what speed?
a) 200 mph
b) 450 mph
c) 1200 mph
d) 100 mph
6. Sand is not permitted as a dry blast abrasive, as directed by
a) BGC/PS/CW5
b) BS 7079 Part A
c) COSHH
d) BS 410
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7. Which standard is not permitted as a Sand blast abrasive?

a) BS 4800
b) BS 7079 Part A
c) SI 1657
d) BS 410
8. Which one is non-metallic abrasive?
a) Iron Silica
b) Steel Shot
c) Steel Grit
d) Grit-Shot Mix
9. Copper slag is a
a) Metallic
b) None metallic
c) Agriculture product
d) Dry sand
10. Copper slag is a
a) Metallic
b) Mineral
c) Agriculture product
d) Dry sand
11. Copper slag is a

a) Recyclable
b) Expendable
c) Reuse
d) Angular chilled iron
12. Which abrasive shattering on impact release silica?
a)Sand
b) Garnet
c)Copper
d) Angular chilled iron
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13. Which is grit form?

a) Random b)
Sharp
c)Amorphous
d) All the above
14. Metallic abrasive are
a) Expendable
b) Recyclables
c)Silica free
15. Copper slag is also known as
a) Garnet
b) Black sand
c) Iron silica
d) Steel Grit
16. Colour of Copper slag is
a) Black shining
b) Brown
c) Red
d) Yellow
17. The most common type of abrasive used for British Gas site work is
a) Copper slag
b) Grit & Shot mix
c) Garnet
d) Angular Chilled Iron
18. Abrasive used on site for British Gas projects must be
a) Mixed with sand, to reduce cost
b) Stored correctly prior to use
c) Expendable
d) Used up to a Maximum of three times only
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19. How many times can Garnet be used as abrasive for BGas site use?
a) Upto 3 times
b) None
c) It must be expendable
d) 20 times
20. Angular chilled iron isformed from
a) Metallic shot
b) Metallic grit
c) Metallic gritand Metallic shot
d) Garnet
21. Metallic shot is
a) Shatters
b) Spherical
c) Random
d) Cutting Edges
22. Irregular profile are given
a) Girt
b) Shot
c) Girt and shot
d) Garnet
23. Which type of abrasive give more uniform profile?

a) Metallic Shot
b) Steel Grit
c) Copper Slag
d) Metallic Shot & Grit Mixed
24. Which type of abrasive used for controlling Rash Rusting?
a) Metallic Shot
b) Steel Grit
c) Copper Slag
d) Metallic Shot & Grit Mixed
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25. Which of the effect produce when rogue peaks are concentrated areas?
a) Rash Rusting
b) Flash Rusting
c) Rust Staining
d) Rust Blooming
26. What is the cause of rash rusting?
a) Mill scale contamination
b) Hygroscopic salts
c) Rogue Peaks
d) Contaminated blast abrasive
27. What is the reason for spot rusting?
a) Surface contamination
b) Millscale
c) Rogue peak
d) Hygroscopic salt
28. The correct ratio of a working mix would be
a) 70-80% Grit : 20-30% Shot
b) 50% Grit : 50% Shot
c) 70-80% shot : 20-30% Grit
d) 20-25% Sand : 75-80% Copper Slag
29. Metallic Shot also has which affect upon the material?
a) Stress relieves
b) Physically deforms
c)Work hardens
d) Causes Slivers
30. What are the properties of an abrasive?
a) Size ,Hardness,Density,shape
b) Velocity, Impingement, Time spend, Shape
c) Rash, Rust rashing, Rust spotting, Rust blooming
d) Rogue peak, Key, Amplitude, Peak to through
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31. Degree of cleanliness not depends

a) Time spent on area
b) Angle of impingement
c) Velocity of the particles
d) Substrate rust grade
32. The standard for sizing of abrasives is

a) BS 7079
b) BS 410
c) BGC/PS/PA10
d) SI 1657
33. The force required to separate two surfaces in touch.

a) Profile
b) Adhesion
c) Anchor pattern
d) Amplitude
34. The two theories of adhesion are
a) Molecular interference and molecular attraction
b) Molecular integration and molecular connection
c) Molecular cross linking and molecular coalescence
d) Microscopic interaction and microscopic collaboration
35. Another names of profile is?

a) Anchor pattern
b) Key
c) Amplitude
d) All of the above
36. Amplitude refers to what?
a) The peak to through height of a blast profile
b) The height required for scaffolding prior to blast cleaning
c) The velocity of abrasive particles
d) The roughness of an abrasive particle
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37. Anchor pattern, key, peak-to-through height and amplitude are names given to what?
a) The abrasive properties
b) The cross section of a blasted area
c) The total area of blasted substrate
d) The potential of adhesion
38. Degree of roughness related to
a)Abrasive blasting
b)Hand and power tool
c) Anchor pattern
d)Abrasive hardness
39. Flash Rust
a) Due to rogue peak b)
Due to Moisture c)Due
to air temperature
d) Due to steel temperature
40. Profile thickness as per BGAS
a) 30-75 microns
b) 25-100 microns
c) 30-70 microns
d) 25-70 microns
41. Blasting in one area for too long, produces what?
a) Hackles
b) Rogue Peaks
c) Silvers
d) Laminations
42. Longitudinal crack is called
a) Laminations (slivers)
b) Hackles
c) Rogue peaks
d) Amplitude
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43. Surface profile thickness is not measured by

a) Comparators
b) Digital profile needle gauge
c) Surface profile needle gauge
d) Dial micrometer with replica tape
44. Surface needle gauge calibrated by
a) Blasted surface
b) Smooth piece of glass
c) Bare metal
d) Coated metal
45. Replica tape supplied in grades
a) Coarse and Extra Coarse b)
Coarse and fine coarse
c) Extra coarseand mediumcoarse
d) Coarse and below coarse
46. Trade name of Replica tape
a) Mylar
b) Paper
c) Testex
d) Polyester
47. Testex also called
a) Mylar
b) Paper
c) Polyester
d) Corn plaster
48. Thickness of Replica tape
a) 20 microns
b) 40 microns
c) 50 microns
d) 30 microns
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49. What is the material used in surface replica tape, used to measure profile?
a) Mylex
b) Testrex
c) Mylar
d) Mylon
50. What is the minimumNumber of readings required for a dial micrometer?
a) Minimum of 101
b) Minimum of twelve
c) One only
d) As many as you wish, but the average reading must be measured
51. Transparent layer in replica tape is
a)Milar
b)Mylex
c)Mylar
d)Testex
52. When checking surface profiled using X-Course replica tape :
a) 50 microns must be added to the final reading
b) The average Number of readings must be taken
c) 50 microns must be deducted from the reading
d) A minimum of ten readings must be taken.
53. not suitable for profile measurement.

a)Dial micrometer
b) Surface profile needle gauge
c) Surface comparator
d)Corn plasters method
54. What is the main advantage of using Testex papers for surface profile measurement?
a) It also measures cleanliness
b) Most accurate over a large area
c) Easy to use
d) Permanent record
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55. When using replica tape 50µm deducted because
a) Thickness of paper
b) Thickness of transparent layer
c) Thickness of Testex
d) Dial micrometer Criteria
56. Coarse grade for measuring profile range is

a) 30-50 µm
b) 37-115µm
c) 20-50 µm
d) 30-75 µm
57. Extra Coarse grade for measuring profile range is
a) 30-50 µm
b) 37-115 µm(40-115µm)
c) 20-50 µm
d) 30-75 µm
58. 1000 µm =
a) 1cm b)
1mm c)
10mm d)
0.1mm
59. 1mill (thou) =

a)24.5 microns
b)25.4 mm
c)25.4 microns
d)24.4 mm
60. Dial position gives the Number of complete full revolutions of needle gauge on the scale
a)2 µm scale is 100µm
b)5 µm scale is 500µm
c) 2 µm scale is 200 µm
d)5 µm scale is 250µm
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61. Assess the roughness

a)Naked eye
b)Visual aid
c)Tactile
d)All of the above
62. Size of comparators diameter hole in the middle
a) 4 cm square with 2 cm
b) 8 cm square with 2 cm
c)6 cm square with 2 cm
d)10 cm square with 3 cm
63. Any profile below the lower limit for fine grading is referred to
a) Coarser than fine
b) Coarser than Coarse
c) Finer than fine
d) Medium
64. Any profile above the upper limit for fine grading is referred to
a) Coarser than fine
b) Coarser than Coarse
c) Finer than fine
d) Medium
65. Preparation of steel substrate before application of paints and related products
a) BS 7079 Pt C
b) BS 7079 Pt. A
c) BS 7079 Pt B
d) BS 7079 Pt D
66. Rust Grade A can be described as
a) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with evident heavy pitting
b) Clean white metal
c) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with no apparent corrosion
d) Mill scale which has begun to flake, or can be scraped away
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67. Rust Grade B can be described as

b) Clean white metal
c) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with no apparent corrosion
68. Rust Grade C can be described as
a) Tightly adhering mill scale, this can be brushed clean
b) Loosely adhering mill scale, with no evident pitting
c) Mill scale almost totally removed, visible rust, slight pitting
d) Heavy pitting visible, heavy corrosion
69. Rust Grade D can be described as
b) Mill scale rusted away, generalpitting, clearvisible. c)
Tightly adhering Mill scale, with no apparent corrosion
70. Corrosion begins on the metal and mill scale begins of flake away?
a) Rust Grade A
b) Rust Grade B
c) Rust Grade C
d) Rust Grade D
71. Thorough Blast Cleaning
a) poorly adhering mill scale, rust
b) most of the millscale, rust and residual contamination shall be firmly adhering
c) millscale, rust, slight stains in the form of spots or stripes
d) free from mill scale, have a uniform metallic colour
72. Very Thorough Blast Cleaning
b)most of the millscale, rust and residual contamination shall be firmly adhering
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73. Blast cleaning to visually clean steel

b) most of the millscale, rust and residual contamination shall be firmly adhering
74. Which blasting Grade best describes light blast cleaning?
a) Sa 2
b) Sa 21/2
c) Sa3
d) Sa1
75. Which blasting Grade best describes Thorough blast cleaning?
a) Sa 2
b) Sa 21/2
c) Sa3
d) Sa1
76. Very thorough blast cleaning is refers to

a) Sa1
b) Sa2
c) Sa2½
d) Sa3
77. Blast cleaning to visually clean steel is refers to

a) Sa1
b) Sa2
c) Sa2½
d) Sa3
78. How many photographs of Rust grade are in BS 7079 part A?
a) 4
b) 14
c) 8
d) 16
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79. How many Abrasive Blast Cleaning Photographs are in BS 7079 part A?
a) 4
b) 14
c) 8
d) 16
80. How many photographs of flame cleaning standards are in BS 7079 part A?
a) 4
b) 14
c) 8
d) 16
81. How many photographs available by using tools according to BS 7079?
a) 14
b) 6
c) 4
d) 16
82. BS 7079 does not contains
a) Rust Grades
b) Blast Grades
c) Hand and Power tool Grades
d) Salt tests on Substrate
83. Wheelabrators sometimes called as
a) Centrifugal blast unit
b) Dry abrasive blasting
c) Wheel jetting
d) Water blasting
84. Abrasive is preferred for Wheelabrators
a) Steel Grit
b) Steel Shot
c) Grit and Shot Mixed
d) Copper Slag
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85. What is the approximate speed of the abrasive particles exiting a Wheelabrators?
a) 450 mph
b) 220 mph
c) Mach 3
d) 100 psi
86. Air pressure measured by
a) Pound per square inch
b) Pound per square feet
c) Cubic feet per min
d) Cubic feet per inch
87. Air pressure delivered through
a) Pound per square inch
b) Pound per square feet
c) Cubic feet per min
d) Cubic feet per inch
88. Which blasting use is removal for soluble salts?
a) Wet abrasive blasting
b)Dry abrasive blasting
c) Solvent / with water
d) Water wash
89. Which blasting use are removal for Sulphate and chloride?
a) High pressure water blasting
b)High pressure water plus abrasive
c) Low pressure water plus abrasive
d) Water wash
90. Which blasting use is removal for toxic materials?
a) Wet abrasive blasting
b)Dry abrasive blasting
c) Solvent / with water
d) Water wash
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91. How many photographs totally covered as per BS 7079?

a) 32
b) 24
c) 28
d) 30
92. Another name for a Vapour Trap is?
a) Air wash cup
b) Dry out pot
c) Knock out pot
d) Pressure regulator
93. One of the most important safety items of equipment in abrasive blasting is
a) Dry abrasive mix
b) The banana gauge
c) Dead means handle
d) 100 psi compressor
94. Miser Valve in dry blasting
a) Controls the Air Pressure

b) Controls the flow of abrasives
c) Removes oil and water
d) Avoids leakage
95. The optimum pressure to achieve 100% efficiency in abrasive blast cleaning is?
a) 75 psi
b) 450 psi
c) 100 psi
d) 220 psi
96. Reccova valve is
a)Control abrasive transfer
b)Stores abrasives
c)Removes water
d)Control air from compressor
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97. With every 11 degree rise in temperature, the air’s ability to hold water
a) Would rise by 11%
b) Would half
c) Would double
d) Would decrease by 11%
98. Carbon Impregnated hoses are used to

a) Conduct Electricity
b) Prevent static electricity
c) Reduce friction
d) Discharge static electricity
99. can be used to check air pressure
a) Hygrometer
b) Surface profile needle gauge
c) Hypodermic needle gauge d)
Touch pyrometer
100. Why steam cleaning is not conducive the oil and gas industry?
a) Require electricity
b)Need more water
c) Require heat source
d) Highly expensive
101. Air/Abrasive stream is using water approx.
a) One and a half litre /min
b)Need more water
c) Two litre/min
d) Three litre / min
102. Sometimes use flame cleaning at site, what should be followed?
a) Approval site engineer
b) Once get approval from client
c) Using wire brushing grades
d) Not to be used oil and gas industry
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103. The blasting hose should be carbon impregnated?

a) Under direct operator control for his/her own safety
b) To reduce the chance of the operator getting shock form static
c) Black color gives good look
d) Carbon hose increase the speed of abrasive speed
104. How much air supplied, if nozzle size is ½ inch
a)450 cfm
b)413cfm
c)100 cfm
d)220 cfm
105. Which of the recommended stand-off distance and speed at which the abrasive leaves a
Venturi Nozzle?
a) 450 mm and 200 mph
b) 220 mm and 450 mph
c) 220 mm and 220 mph
d) 450 mm and 450 mph
106. Compared to a Venturi Nozzle, a straight bore nozzle would give
a) Better paint application
b) More speed
c) Larger area coverage
d) Greater accuracy
107. Operating pressure at

a) 200 psi
b) 450 psi
c) 100 psi
d) 220 psi
108. What safety requirement covered for blasting equipment used?
a) HASAWA
b) COSHH
c) EPA
d) IGE/SR21
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109. IGE SR 21 is associated with
a) Gas Plant Manufacture

b) Handling of Methanol
c) Abrasive Blasting Safety
d) Using of Sand Abrasive
110. Burnishing will produce by
a) Needle gun
b) Wire brush
c) Emery cloth
d) Grinders
111. Which one is not associated with wet blasting?

a) Spark free
b) Profile roughness
c) Remove Toxic contents
d) Remove Soluble Salts
112. High pressure water blasting operates up to which pressure?
a) 100 psi
b) 10,000 psi
c) 250 psi
d) 30000 psi
113. High pressure water plus abrasive injection operates up to which pressure?
a) 100 psi
b) 20,000 psi
c) 250 psi
d) 30000 psi
114. Low pressure water plus abrasive injection operates up to which pressure?
a) 100 psi
b) 20,000 psi
c) 250 psi
d) 30000 psi
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115. Which type of the cleaning not allowed in the Oil and Gas industry?
a) Dry abrasive
b) Water jetting
c) Steam cleaning
d) Hand and power tool
116. Which application not in hand and power tool?
a) wire brushing
b) needle gunning
c) grinding
117. Wire brushes used for BGas hand & power tool cleaning, must be made from which
material?
a) Tungsten or Stainless steel
b) Copper or Brass
c) Beryllium Bronze or Phosphor Bronze
d) The same material as the pipe
118. A typical remedy for burnishing would be.
a) Power brushing
b) Emery paper or similar
c) Needle gun
d) Addition of thinners
119. Very coarse profile will occurs when
a)High pressure Water blasting
b)Flame cleaning
c)Dry Abrasive blasting
d)Needle Gunning
120. Phosphor Bronze/Beryllium Bronze refers to
a) Sparking Alloys
b) Non Sparking Alloys
c) Alloys of Nickel
d) Ferroalloys
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121. Which of the hand and power tool equipment not allowed in the Gas industry?
a) Phosphor bronze
b) Beryllium bronze
c) Grinding wheel
d) Emery cloth
122. Which grade is not having photographs in wire brushing?
a) Rust Grade B
b) Rust Grade C
c) Rust Grade A
d) Rust Grade D
123. Which one factor is not flame cleaning?
a) Expansion
b) Dehydration
c) Heat penetration
d) Passivation
124. Phosphate process of steel structure is termed as
a) Expansion
b) Passivation
c) Cathodic protection
d) Salt Detection
125. Which of the following do not belong to the Footners Duplex System?
a) Chromic Acid or Phosphoric acid
b) Sulphuric Acid
c) Iron Sulphates and IronChloride
d) Iron fillings
126. Chemical cleaning is another name for

a)Silver nitrate test
b)Potassium ferry cyanide test
c) Pickling
d)Copper sulphate test
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127. Concentration and temperature of sulphuric acid in pickling process
a) 5-10% , 65-70 oC and 5-25 minutes

b) 65-70% , 5-10oC and 5-20 minutes
c) 2%, 80oC and 5-25 minutes
d) 80%, 65-75 oC and 5-20 minutes
128. Concentration and temperature of phosphoric/chromic acid in pickling process
a) 5-10% , 65-70 oC and 5-25 minutes

b) 2% , 80 oC and 1-2 minutes
c) 2%, 80oC and 5-25 minutes
d) 80%, 65-75 oC and 5-20 minutes
129. What is pH?

a) Percentage of Hydrogen
b) Percentage of Helium
c) Potential of Hydrogen
d) Potential of Helium
130. Which pH range covers Acids?
a) 7 to 14
b) 0 to 7
c) 0 to 14
d) 5 to 10
131. Which pH range covers Alkalinity?
a) 7 to 14
b) 0 to 7
c) 0 to 14
d) 5 to 10
132. When measuring acidity, alkalinity, distilled water has a pH value is?
a) 1
b) 3.5 to 4.5
c) 0 to 14
d) 7
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133. Which PH range is required after chemical cleaning of steel substrate?
a) 7
b) 7 - 14
c) 4.5 – 7
d) 0
134. What is the neutral figure on the pH scale?

a) 7
b) 7 - 14
c) 4.5 – 7
d) 0
135. What is the main cause of flash rusting on a substrate?

a) Rogue Peaks
b) Moisture
c) Hackles
d) Hygroscopic salts
136. Inclusion is defect related to
a)Rogue peak
b)Lamination
c)Hackle
d)High thickness profile
137. If Profile thickness is higher than specified, result will be
a) Rash rusting
b) Cause Paint adhesion
c) Blisters
d) Mill scale
138. Where would you normally use a comparator gauge?

a) At CP system reference point
b) To determine surface roughness
c) Check for correct pre-heat prior to application of FBE
d) To assess the rust Grade of a material.
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139. Wet abrasive blast cleaning of a surface should be followed by dry abrasive blast
cleaning?
a) Only as directed by the engineer
b) To remove the surface profile created by the wet process
c) Because the immediate oxidation of the substrate after wet blasting must be removed
d) Does not required
140. Un fused area in steel is
a)Sliver
b)Rogue Peak
c)Hackle
d)Pinhole
141. Lamination found must referred to
a) Engineer
b) Site inspector
c) Contractor
d) Project Manager
142. Which of the recommended stand-off distance and speed at which the abrasive leaves a
Straight bore Nozzle?
a) 450 mm and 200 mph
b) 220 mm and 450 mph
c) 220 mm and 220 mph
d) 450 mm and 450 mph
143. Surface profile thickness assets by
a) The Comparators
b) Dial micrometer and needle gauge
c) Dial micrometer with replica tape
d) Digital surface needle gauge
144. Every 1psi drop in pressure results in an efficiency drop of
a) 2 psi
b) 1 ½ psi
c) 3 psi
d) None
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145. Enclosed blasting chambers are used because

a) They protect other people and equipment from blast scatter
b) They are cheap to set up
c) They provide adequate surface profile
d) They normally use expendable abrasives
146. Burnishing needs to be treated by

a) Needle gun
b) Wire brushes
c) Grinders
d) Emery cloth
147. Enclosed system is
a) Water blasting
b) Wheelabrators
c) Flame cleaning
d) Hand and power tool
148. Open blasting system is

a) Water Jetting
b) Wheelabrators
c) Flame cleaning
d) Chemical process
149. Mill scale removed by
a) Use needle gun
b) Bristle on the brushes
c) Water Jetting
d) Dry blasting
150. Which type of nozzle given greater control?
a) Venture Nozzle
b)Short bore Nozzle
c) Straight bore Nozzle
d) Angled Nozzle
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151. Copper Slag is

a) Shatters
b) Does not shatters
c) Spherical
152. Limits for Testex Tape use Coarse
a) 0.8 to 2.0 mil
b) 0.6 to 2.0 mil
c) 0.8 to 4.0 mil
d) 0.6 to 4.0 mil
153. Limits for Testex Tape use X - Coarse
a) 0.8 to 2.0 mil
b) 0.6 to 2.0 mil

c) 1.5 to 4.5 mil
d) 1.6 to 4.0 mil
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SURFACE CONTAMINANTS AND TESTS FOR DETECTION # 3
01. A procedure to test for the presence of Hygroscopic salts, is the

a) PotassiumHexa-cyanoferrate test
b) Copper sulphate test
c) Footners Duplex test
d) Hegman Grind test
02. The test for detecting soluble chloride salts?
a) The silver Nitrate Test
b) The Copper Sulphate Test
c) Ford Flow cup test
d) The ultra violet test
03. Which of the following is not a test for contaminants?
a) Silver Nitrate Test
b) Gold leaf test
c) Copper sulphate test
d) Powdered chalk or Talcum powder test
04. Which one is not quantitative test?
a)Silver nitrate test
b)Dolly test
c)Bresle sample patch test
d)Banana gauge test
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05. can be used to detect the presence of oil or grease
a) Copper sulphate
b) Transparent Sticking Paper
c) UV Light
d) Bresle Sample Patch
06. Colour of Mill scale
a) Dark Blue
b) Dark Grey
c) Black
d) No Colour
07. Colour of Blasted Steel
a) Dark Blue
b) Dark Grey
c) Black
d) No Colour
08. Which test are measure the resistivity and conductivity?

a) Bresle sample patch
b) Salt contamination meters
c) The potassium hexa-cyanoferrate test
d) The wolf will born Test
09. Which test cannot detect hygroscopic salts?
a) Potassiumferricyanide
b) Silver nitrate
c) Bresle sample patch
d) Copper Sulphate
10. Which of the following is a quantitative test to detect chloride salts?
a) Silver nitrate test
b) Potassium test
c) Bresle Sample test
d) All of the above
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11. Which of the following test to use marine environment?

b) Potassium test
c) Bresle Sample test
d) copper sulphate test
12.Test to find out the presence of Mill scale in SA 3 finish?
b) Merkoquant test
c) Bresle sample test
d) Copper sulphate solution
13. The test for soluble iron salts (ferrous) is important because
a) these salts may be present because of active corrosion cells.
b) these salts may be present because of improper manufacturing procedures at the steel
rolling mill.
c) these salts will mix with the coating and improve adhesion.
d) these salts will leach out and create an acidic surface.
14. Which of the following are quantitative test?

a) PotassiumHexa-cyanoferrate
b) Copper sulphate
c) Silver Nitrate Test
d) Bresle Sample Patch
15. Which of the following is not a test for contaminants?
a) Sellotape
b) Banana gauge
c) Talcum Powder
d) Solvent
16. Why a painting inspector keep potassium ferry cyanide solution
a) For checking mill scale
b) For checking hygroscopic salts
c) For detecting oil and grease
d) For pickling process
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17. Mill scale test done, which Blast grade is
a) Sa1
b) Sa2 and Above
c) Sa2½ and Above
d) Sa3
18. can be used to detect the presence of moisture
a) Copper sulphate solution

b) Transparent Sticking Paper
c) UV Light
d) Talc powder
19. What type of test is used in photographic developer?
a) Potassium hexa-cyanoferrate test

b) Copper sulphate test
c) Silver nitrate test
d) Merkoquant test
20. The text for detecting soluble sulphates and chloride salts on the steel substrate is
a) The Xylene salt solution
b) The copper sulphate solution
c) The potassiumhexa-cyanoferrate test
d) The wolf Wilborn Test
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PAINT CONSTITUENTS AND BASIC TECHNOLOGY # 4
1. A barrier type paint system, must be capable of providing?

a) Good capacity
b) Low permeability
c) High permeability
d) Low opacity
2. Example for paint involving barrier principle
a) Zinc rich epoxy
b) Zinc or Aluminium
c) Urethane
d) Rust inhibitive primers
3. Rust inhibitive primers operate by?
a) Oxidation to protect the substrate
b) Pigmentation
c) Zinc phosphate
d) Passivation
4. Cathodic protection using pigmentation?
a) Rust inhibitive primers
b) Zinc in Zinc rich primers
c) Zinc phosphate
d) Urethane
5. Paint is constructed of which 3 basic ingredients?
a) Polymers, Epoxy, and Colourant
b) Natural Oils, Dyes and Hardeners
c) Oil, Color and extenders
d) Binder, Solvent, Pigments & other Additives
6. Which term is not relate with binder
a) VOC
b) Film former
c) Vehicle
d) Non volatile
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7. Vehicle is
a) pigments
b) binder
c) solvent
d) MLC
8. Major considerations of a binder are:
a) Flow properties or viscosity
b) Resistance to chemical attack according to environment.
c) Cohesive strength and Dialectric strength.
d) All the above
8. Which is not a property of binder?
a)Cohesive strength
b) Leafing effect
c)Resist water
d) Hold pigments in suspension
9. Alcohol –Acid are derived
a) Acrylic
b) Alkyd
c) Asphaltic bitumen
d) Cellulose resins
10. The paint which prone chalking in top coat?
a) The Epoxy
b) The polyurethane’s
c) The Chlorinated rubber
d) The acrylic
11. Which of the following binders are reversible?
a) Epoxy
b) Urethane
c) Chlorinated Rubber
d) Silicone
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12. Which of the following is not a commonly used binder?

a) Epoxy
b) Zinc
c) Urethane
d) Vinyl
13. Which of the following is natural oil?
a) Dammar
b) Alkyd
c) Castrol
d) Xylene
14. Which of the following is natural oil?
a) Copals
b) Amber
c) Olive
d) Dammars
15. Which of the following is not natural oil?
a) Castor
b) Amber
c) Olive
d) Linseed
16. Natural oils are
a) Slow drying properties

b) Hot drying oil
c) Fast drying
d) Non-drying oil
a) Linseed oil
b) Tung oil
c) Soya oil
d) All the above
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a) China wood oil

b) Tall oil
c) Safflower oil
d) All the above
a) Linseed oil
b) Castor oil
c) Coconut oil
d) All the above
20. China wood oils known as
a) Linseed oil
b) Tung oil
c) Tall oil
d) All the above
21. Which of the following is not a natural resin?

a) Copal
b) Amber
c) Dammar
d) Linseed
22. Examples for natural resin
a) Amber, Laq
b) Soya Oil, Tung Oil
c) Bitumen , Coal tar
d) Phenolic resin, Cellulosic resin
23. Examples for natural resin
a) Copals
b) Coumarones
c) Dammars
d) All the above
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24. Oleoresinous known as
a) A mixture of oil and resin

b) A mixture of oil and water
c) A mixture of resin and acid
d) A mixture of water and resin
25. Natural resins are
a) Slow drying properties

b) Hot drying oil
c) Fast drying
d) Semi-drying oil
26. Hot drying oils are
a) Phenolic resins
b) polyurethanes
c) Cellulose resins
d) Styrene
27. Metal sprayed surfaces can be sealed with
a) Phenolics
b) Silicones
c) Cellulose Resins
d) Vinyl
28. Which one is convertible?
a) CR
b) Vinyl
c) Natural Resin
d) Emulsion
29. Which binder has no problem to overcoat on white spirit based binder?
a) Alkyds
b) Epoxy
c) CR
d) PU
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30. Which solvent group is suitable for chlorinated rubber paints?

a) Xylene
b) Ketones
c) Water
d) White Spirit
31. Example for aliphatic HC solvents
a) Water
b) Xylene
c) Turpentine
d) Acetone
32. Which one is more suitable for CR paint to increase flexibility

a) Alkyd resin
b) Linseed oil
c) Bentones
d) Coconut oil
33. What will happen when applying strong solvent binder paint over a week solvent binder paint?
a) Strong solvent will dissolved into weak solvent & cause of wrinkle or lifting
b) Nothing happen
c) Paint appearance more glossy
d) Viscosity of paint will reduce
34. Which paint from below, can be applied over Phenolics?

a) CR
b) Epoxy
c) Alkyd
d) None of these
35. Which paint from below, can be applied over CR?

a) Phonelics
b) Epoxy
c) Alkyd
d) a and c
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36. Which paint frombelow; can be applied over Natural resins?

a) CR
b) Acrylics
c) Epoxy
d) None of these
37. Which paint from below, cannot be applied over Alkyd?
a) Acetone
b) Epoxy
d) b & c
38. Which paint from below, cannot be applied over CR?
a) Phonelics
b) Epoxy
c) Alkyd
d) None of these
39. Which one material is used on operating temperature?
a) Epoxy
b) Xylene
c) Silicone
d) China Clay
40. Cobwebs happened
a) Brush application
b) Spray application
c) Roller application
41. Solution polymer as a
a) Branched polymer
b) Crossed link polymer
c) Linear polymer
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42. Backbone of the structure in form of the polymerisation
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon
c) Chlorine
d) Nitrogen
43. Example for linear polymerisation?
a) Acrylics
b) Vinyl’s
c) Chlorinated rubber
d) All the above
44. Which is not a linear polymerisation?
a) Asphalt
b) Coal tars
c) Cellulosic resins
d) Alkyds
45. Which of the following are said to be reversible?
a) Cross linked polymer
b) Branched polymer
c) Linear polymer
d) Convertible coating
46. Which of the following are said to be non-convertible?
b) Branched polymer
c) Linear polymer
47. Which of the following are said to be thermoplastic?
b) Branched polymer
c) Linear polymer
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48. Which of the following are said to be non-reversible?

a) Branched polymer
b) Linear polymer
c) Convertible coating
d) a &c
49. Which of the following are said to be convertible?
a) Branched polymer
b) Linear polymer
d) a & c
50. Which of the following are said to be thermosetting?
a) Branched polymer
b) Linear polymer
d) a&c
51. Example for Branched polymerisation?
a) Alkyds
b) Isomers
c) Phenolics
d) a & c
52. Example for not Branched polymerisation?
a) Natural oils
b) Natural resins
c) Phenolics
d) Epoxies
53. Which of the following are said to be non-reversible?
a)Linear polymer
b) Cross linked polymer
d) b & c
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54. Which of the following are said to be convertible?

a)Linear polymer
d) b&c
55. Which of the following are said to be thermosetting?
a)Linear polymer
d) b &c
56. Example for Cross linked polymerisation.
a) Acrylics
b) Alkyds
c) Isomers
d) Epoxy
57. By which polymerisation method a two pack epoxy paint dry
a) Cross linked Polymer
b) Branched Polymer
c) Solution Polymer
d) Linear Polymer
58. A paint drying by chemical reaction is said to be

a) Linear polymer
b) Convertible
c) Non-convertible
d) Reversible
59. Which polymerisation done in oxidation drying paints?
a) linear
b) Solution
c) Branched
d) Cross linked
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60. Which one is saturated oil?

a) Linseed oil
b) Tung oil
c) Palm oil
d) China wood oil
61. Which one is unsaturated oil?
a) Linseed oil
b) Tung oil
c) Olive oil
d) All the above
62. A saturated oil can be used in binder for
a) Fast drying
b) Shelf life
c) Flexibility
d) Anti-skinning
63. Which one is rapid drying oil?
a) Linseed oil b)
Tung oil c)China
wood oil d) All
the above
64. Non- drying oils can be used in paints, for
a) Fast drying
b) Slow drying
c) Activate Chemical reaction
d) Flexibility
65. Saturated oil as a

a) Drying oil
b) Semi drying oil
c) Non-drying oil
d) All the above
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66. Which one is suitable for steel work?
a) Short oil paint

b) Medium oil paint
c) Long Oil paint
d) Full Oil paint
67. Which one is long oil paint?
a) Less than 45% oil to resin

b) Between 45-60% oil to resin
c) More than 60% oil to resin
68. Which one is medium oil paint?
a) Less than 45% oil to resin

b) Between 45-60% oil to resin
c) More than 60% oil to resin
d) All of the above
69. Which one is short oil paint?
a) Less than 45% oil to resin b)

Between 45-60% oil to resin c)
More than 60% oil to resin
70. Which one is suitable for domestic or decorative purpose?
a) Short oil paint

b) Medium oil paint
c) Long Oil paint
d) Full Oil paint
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71. What are the properties of pigment?
a) Cohesively strength
b) Abrasive resistance
c) Impermeability
d) All the above
72. Pigment particle size is
a) ¼ th micron
b) ½ th micron
c) 1/10 th micron
d) 1/5 th micron
73. Which one is a non-toxic pigment?
a) Zinc Phosphate
b) Zinc Chromate
c) Read Lead
d) Coal tar
74. What is the color of most common used Rust inhibitive pigment?
a) Grey
b) Black
c) Red
d) White
75. Pigment, which dissolve in a binder called
a) Lacquer
b) Dye
c) Varnish
d) Solute
76. Rust inhibitive pigment are added to primer to protect the steel substrate by
a) Passivation
b) Evaporation
c) Cathodic protection
d) UV protection
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77. Which one is give galvanic protection?
a) Aluminum
b) Zinc
c) Glass flake
d) China Clay
78. Which one is give solar protection?
a) Aluminum
b) Zinc
c) Glass flake
d) China Clay
79. An additive that gives a point material its hiding power?
a) A plasticizer
b) A thyrotrophic
c) A drier
d) A pigment
80. Properties of opaque pigment
a) Hiding power
b) Colour
c) Opacity
d) All the above
81. Which one is opaque pigment?
a) Cobalt
b) Chromium
c) Calcium
d) All the above
82. Which of the following is an opaque pigment?
a) Graphite
b) Compound of Chromium
c) Zirconium Octoate
d) Zinc Phosphate
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83. Which one is Carbon?

a) Blue
b)Red
c) Black
d) Yellow
84. Which one is Titanium dioxide?
a) Blue
b)Red
c) Black
d) White
85. Which one cannot be used for yellow colourpaint?

a)Chromium
b)Cobalt
c)Calcium
d)Iron
86. Which is not a property of extender pigments?
a) Increase Gloss
b) Increase Adhesion
c) Increase Cohesion
d) Increase film strength
87. Which of the following is an extender?
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Magnesium Silicate
c) Aluminium silicate
d) All the above
88. Which of the following is an extender?
a) Graphite
b) Mica
c) Glass Flake
d) China Clay
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89. Which one is not a laminar pigment?
e) MIO
f) Aluminium flake
g) Glass flake
h) China Clay
90. Which of the following is a laminar pigment?
a) Graphite
b) Mica
c) Glass Flake
d) All the above
91. PPM
a) Parts per million
b) Per parts million
c) Parts per Micron
92. Which type of the following pigment is giving leaf effect?
a) Opaque pigment
b) Extender Pigment
c) Laminar pigment
d) All of the above
93. Specular Hematite is commonly called
a) Mill scale
b) Rust
c) MIO
d) Iron Sulphate
94. Theory of overleap when the coating dries

a) Opaque pigment
b) Extender Pigment
c) Laminar pigment
d) All of the above
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95. Which of the following considered being a laminar pigment?

a) Micaceous iron oxide
b) Red Lead
c) Coal tar
d) Zinc phosphate
96. Which laminar pigment is best for UV protection?

a)Aluminum Flake
b)MIO
c)Glass Flake
d)Graphite
97. Which of the following is not a laminar pigment?
a) Graphite
b) Glass Flake
c) Magnesium Silicate
d) Mica
98. Expansion of CPVC
a) Central pigment volume concentration
b) Critical pigment volume concentration
c) Control pigment volume concentration
d) Critical paint volume concentration
99. Too much binder to solid ratio gives
a) Good Opacity
b) Good Gloss
c) Cohesive Strength
d) Porous Film
100. Greater cohesive strength
a) Below CPVC
b) Near CPVC
c) Above CPVC
d) All the above
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101. Poor covering power
a) Below CPVC
b) Near CPVC
c) Above CPVC
d) All the above
102. What would be the main problem of a low CPVC?
a) High opacity
b) Permeability
c) Low gloss
d) Low opacity
103. Solvent are added to paint to reduce
a) Viscosity
b) Toxic
c) Velocity
d) Good gloss
104. Properties of solvent
e) Strength
f) Flash Point
g) Evaporation rate
h) All the above
105. The minimum temperature of the solvent at which the vapours given off are flammable if a
source of ignition is introduced as
a) Evaporation rate
b) Flash Point
c) Toxicity
d) Solvent strength
106. Which property of a solvent is not best?
a) Low evaporation rate
b) Low toxicity
c) Low flashpoint
d) High evaporation rate
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107. Toxicity measured in

a)Mph
b)Psi
c) Ppm
d)Cfm
108. Which of the following is an additive?
a) Opaque pigments
b) Rust inhibitive pigments
c) Thickening agents
d) Thinners
109. Which of the following are commonly used as anti-settling agents?
a) Heavy metal salts
b) Bentones & Waxes
c) Saturated Oils
d) Extender pigments
110. Thixotrops are of type
a) Liquid
b) Solid
c) Gel
d) Solvent
111. Anti-settling agents are

a) Bentones
b) Zirconium
c) Castor Oil
d) Cobalt
112. Anti-settling agents are allow
a) low film thickness
b) higher film thickness
c) average film thickness
d) All the above
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113. Which additive used in paints to stop settlements
a) Drying oils
b) Non Drying oils
c) Wax
d) Anti-skinning agents
114. Basically plasticiser gives
a) flexibility
b) Thickness
c) oxidation
d) stop settlement
115. Which additive in the paint helps to prevent film cracking in use?
a) A thyrotrophic
b) A plasticizer
c) A drier
d) A Stabilizer
116. Example for drier additive?
a) Bentones and waxes
b) Castrol Oil
c) Methyl ethyl Ketoxime
d) Cobalt naphthantes
117. Octoates and Cobalt naphthantes are
a) Plasticisers
b) Anti-selling agents
c) Driers
d) Anti-skinning agents
118. Anti-oxidants are
a) Plasticisers
b) Anti-settling agents
c) Driers
d) Anti-skinningagents
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119. Which one is used to retard the formation of skin in paint solution?
a) Palm Oil
b) Octoic Acid
c) Methyl Ethyl Ketoxime
d) Bentones
120. If more pigments added in a paint, then the surface should be
a) Gloss
b) Matt
c) Grinning
d) Fast Drying
121. Which one is not a property of binder?
a) Adhesion
b) Cohesion
c) Evaporation
d) Dielectric strength
122. When use Compound of Calcium pigment which type of colour produced?
a) Red
b) Black
c) White
d) Blue
123. The most widely used materials for pipeline coating are which of the following?
a) Alkyd enamels
b) Fusion-bonded epoxies
c) Thermoset plastics
d) High density latexes
124. Which term cannot be used for solid particles in binder?

a) Aggregates
b) Emulsion
c) Degree of dispersion
d) Fineness of grind
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125. Which paint constituent can be found in powder form?

a) The Binders
b) The Solvents
c) The Driers
d) The Anti-skinning agent
126. A paint said to have a good opacity will

a) Have low permeability
b) Have good hiding power
c) Have a low CPVC
d) Have a low minimum gloss value
127. Which is not property of binder?
a) Cohesive Strength
b) Leafing Effect
c) Resist Water
d) Hold Pigments in suspension
128. Which additive in the paint helps to prevent film cracking in use?
a) A thixotropic
b) A plasticizer
c) A drier
d) A Extender
129. Magnesium silicate is
a) Clays
b) Chalk
c) Talcum
d) Slate flour
130. Aluminium silicate is

a) Clays
b) Chalk
c) Talcum
d) Slate flour
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131. Calcium carbonate is

a) Clays
b) Chalk
c) Talcum
d) Slate flour
132. Magnesium silicate is
a) Rust Inhibitive pigment
b) Opaque pigment
c) Extender pigment
d) Laminar Pigment
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SOLUTIONS AND DISPERSIONS # 5
1. A solution is
a) The resultant liquid of a polymerization event
b) The resultant liquid after dispersing a liquid another liquid
c) The resultant liquid of a solid suspension
d) The resultant liquid after dissolving a material in a solvent
2. Paint is a
a)Solution
b)Solute
c)Solvent
d) Dispersion
3. Example for suspension
a) Water Based Emulsion

b) Oil Mixed With Water
c) Salt Water
d) Pigmented paint
4. Example for Emulsion
a) Water with water

b) Oil Mixed With Water
c) Salt Water
d) Pigmented paint
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DRYING AND CURING OF PAINT FILMS #6
1 Which is not a drying method?

a) Coalescence
b) Air Drying
c) Stoving
d) Force Drying
2. Ambient temperatures refers to
a) Coalescence
b) Air Drying
c) Stoving
d) Force Drying
3. Which term is used when heat applied over 65 oC for Drying of Paint?
a) Metal Spray
b) Air Drying
c) Stoving
d) Forced Drying
4. Which of the following is not a drying mechanism?

a) Coalescence
b) Oxidation
c) Stove drying
d) Chemical curing
5. Chlorinated Rubber will dry
a) Oxidation
b) Chemical curing
c) Solvent Evaporation
6. Example for Solvent evaporation drying
a) Epoxy
b) Alkyd
c) Acrylic
d) Urethane
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7. Solvent evaporation dryingis

a) Branched polymer
b) Linear polymer
c) Crossed link polymer
8. Paint drying is solvent evaporation in
a) Convertible
b) Reversible
c) Non-reversible
d) Cross linked
9. A single pack epoxy paint dry by
a) Coalescence
b) Chemical curing
c) Oxidation
d) Solvent evaporation
10. A Multi component paint dried by
a) Solvent evaporation
b) Oxidation
c) Chemical reaction
d) Coalescence
11. A typical pot life of paint used in BGas specification would be.
a) 20-30 minutes
b) 12-24 hours
c) 6-8 hours
d) 3-7 days
12. A typical induction period of paint used in BGas specification would be.
a) 20-30 minutes
b) 12-24 hours
c) 6-8 hours
d) 3-7 days
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13. Pot life mentioned in

a) Material data sheet
b) Job sheet
c) Paint inspection sheet
14. Stand time or lead time are called
a) Pot life
b) Induction time
c) Drying time
15. Two pack material curing agents
a) Alkyds and Acrylics
b) Tulane and Xylene
c) Amides and Amines
d) All of the above
13. Pot life is
a)The period of the length of time after mixing which the paint should be before use
b) The period of time after mixing which the paint must be used
c) Physically join together
14. Chemically curing materials are
a) Convertible
b) Non-convertible
c) Reversible
d) All of the above
15. Endothermic reactions are

a) Container will warm up and giving heat
b) Container will cooling and taking in heat
c) Container removes
d) All of the above
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PAINT SYSTEMS #7
1. The BGas specification for site application of paint system is

a) BGC/PS/PA10
b) BGC/PS/CW5
c) BGC/PS/PA8
d) BS 7079
2. Which painting system contain with rust inhibitive pigment and anti-corrosive pigment
a) Mid coat
b) Top coat
c) Second coat
d) Primer coat
3. PVB Primers mainly used for
a) All ferrous substrates
b) Aluminium
c) Galvanising
d) Steel Substrates
4. Second Coat also known as
a) Primer
b) Mid coat
c) Top coat
d) Itching primers
5. The function of a finish coat is mainly to provide.
a) Impermeability and adhesion
b) Aesthetic properties and water shedding
c) Cathodic protection and passivation
d) Increased thickness at low cost
6. Which product should be used to damp or moist surfaces?
a) Water borne acrylic
b) Thermally Sprayed Aluminium
c) Moisture Curing Polyurethane d)
Micaceous Iron oxide
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7. Which one is thermoplastic?
a) Poly ethylene
b) Poly urethane
c) Epoxy
d) Natural Resin
8. In powder coating, to complete the curegenerally takes
a) Three seconds
b) Less than three minutes
c) More than an hour
d) Eight hours
9. Thick steel sections like powder are sprayed onto a
a) Preheated substrate
b) Post heated substrate
c) Low temperature
10. Thin steel sections like powder are sprayed onto a
a) Preheated substrate
b) Post heated substrate
c) Low temperature
11. Powder coating types may include which of the following?
a) Alkyds
b) Epoxies
c) Organic Zinc
d) Latexes
12. Paint system: Properties and performance requirement, a detailed in PA9, paint testing is
mostly carried out according to which BS?
a) BS 729
b) BS 5493
c) BS 3900
d) BS 6072
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13. AGI gas pipeline temperature is

a) Much cooler than ambient temperature
b) Hot than ambient temperature
c) Cooler than ambient temperature
14. A zinc phosphate pigmented primer would be a
a) Passivation system
b) Galvanic protection
c) Bimetallic principle
d) All the above
15. Organic Zinc rich epoxy would be provide a
a) Passivation system
b) Barrier system
c) Galvanic protection
d) All the above
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WATER BORNE COATINGS# 8
1. Which paint is not suitable for EPA?
a) Water borne
b) High volume solid
c) Solvent Based
d) Solvent free
2. Which paint is not suitable for EPA?
a) Water borne
b) High volume solid
c) Low volume solid
d) Solvent free
3. 60% of Volume Solids paint using a hydrocarbon solvent will release
a) 400 cc
b) 450 cc
c) 200 cc
d) 350 cc
4. Hydrocarbon known as
a) not harmful to environment, the ozone layer or to mankind

b) to be harmful to the environment, the ozone layer, and human life
c) In periods of high humidity drying will be retarded
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PAINT MANUFACTURE# 9
1. What are stages of paint manufacturing system?

a) Premixing
b) Dispersing mill
c) Letdown process
d) All the above
2. Which one is not a direct charge mill?

a)Ball mill
b)Attritor Mill
c)Bead mill
d) Kaddy and Silverson
3. Which one is a direct charge mill?
a) Sand Mill
b) Single roll mill
c) Triple roll mill
d) Attritor Mill
4. What type of machinery is used to produce large production runs of popularpaints?
a) Triple Roll mill
b) Colloid Mill
c) Ball Mill
d) Sand Mill
5. Which paint mill produce expensive materials?
a) Triple roll mill

b) Single roll mill
c) Sand mill
d) Ball mill
6. High speed dissolver mill is another name for
a) High speed disperser

b) Pearl mill
c) Colloid mill
d) Attritor Mill
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7. High speed stone mill is another name for
e) High speed disperser

f) Pearl mill
g) Colloid mill
h) Attritor Mill
8. Which mill widely used for producing thick paint?
a) Ball Mill
b) Pearl Mill
c) Triple Roll Mill
d) Single Roll Mill
9. What type of equipment is used to produce mastics, putties and fillers?

a) Sand mill
b) Triple roll mill
c) Colloid mill
d) Attritor mill
10. Bead mill or Pearl mill known as
a) Ball Mill
b) Sand mill
c) Triple Roll Mill
d) Single Roll Mill
11. What type of equipment is used to produce silver and glitters?
a) Sand mill
b) Triple roll mill
c) Single roll mill
d) Attritor mill
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TESTING OF PAINTS FOR PROPERTIES AND PERFORMANCE # 10
Paint density
1. Transco Specification PA9 Specifies
a) New and Maintenance painting at work and site for AGI

b) Paint Properties and Performance
c) Internal coating of steel small bore pipe
d) Preparation of steel substrate before application of paint
2. The temperature at which a vapour from a solvent will ignite in the presence of a source of
ignition is
a) Upper explosive limit
b) Dew point
c) Flash point
d) Relative humidity
3. Closed Abel cup used to:
a) Flash point Determination
b) Viscosity determination
c) Density determination
d) All the above
4. How to heat the Abel cup
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Induction
5. How to identify the flash point temperature?
a) Blue flame flashes
b) Orange flame flashes
c) Red flame flashes
d) Yellow flame flashes
6. Which flame signifies that the flash point temperature has been exceeded?
a) Blue flame flashes
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b) Orange flame flashes

c) Red flame flashes
d) Yellow flame flashes
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7. Density defined
a) Weight per unit of volume
b) Metric per unit of volume
c) Volume divided by weight
d) All the above
8. Density unit are
a) Weight per unit of volume
b) Metric per unit of volume
c) Gram per cc
d) All the above
9. Capacity of Density cup
a) 200 cc
b) 300 cc
c) 1000 cc
d) 100 cc
10. Density cup made by
a) Aluminium alloy
b) Stainless steel
c) Nickel
d) Iron
11. What is pyknometer?
a) Opacity testing equipment
b) Whirling Hygrometer
c) Density Cup
d) Wind speed measuring equipment
12. Which of the following is not another name for Density Cub?
a) Pyknometer
b) Psychrometer
c) Weight per gallon cup
d) Weight per litre cup
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13. Which of the following is another name for Density Cub?

a) Relative density cup
b) Specific gravity cup
c) Pyknometer
d) All the above
14. Mixing of two packs can be calculated by
a) Pyknometer
b)Closed Abel Cup
c)Pyro meter
d)Crypto meter
15. What is the name of the equipment used to determine particle aggregate size?
a) Beck koller
b) Hegman gauge
c) Wolfe – wilborne
d) Kerbe Stormer
16. What is another name of the Hegman grind gauge?
a) Kerbe Stormer
b) Fineness of grind gauge
c) Eccentric wheel
d) PIG
17. How to determine grinding level on paint using Hegman grind gauge?
a) 5-10 aggregative protect from the surface in 3 mm gap
b) 5-10 aggregative protect from the surface in 2 mm gap
c) 50-100 aggregative protect from the surface in 3 mm gap
d) 50-100 aggregative protect from the surface in 2 mm gap
18. Viscosity is defined as
a) A fluid’s resistance to flow
b) A liquid thickness
c) The temperature at which a liquid will flow
d) The point at which a liquid becomes solid
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19. In which temperature Density, Viscosity etc. tests of Paints done
a) 20 ºC ± 0.5 ºC
b) 37 ºC ± 0.5 ºC
c) 100 ºC ± 0.5 ºC
d) Temperature not affected
20. When temperature increases,
a) Viscosity increases
b) Viscosity decreases
c) Viscosity Stable
d) Drying time increases
21. A Rotational Viscometer measures:

a) Direct Viscosity
b) Centrifugal Viscosity
c) Kinematic Viscosity
d) Dynamic Viscosity
22. The viscosity of water is said to be approximately:
a) 1 g/cc
b) 1 poise
c) 1 stoke
d) 1 centi-poise
23. What will be the unit of viscosity of a thixotropic paint?
a)Second
b)Centipoises
c) Ns/m2
d) Stoke
25. is not a unit of viscosity
a) Stoke
b) Poise
c) Littre
d) Second
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26. Stroboscope checks
a) Rotation
b) Polarity
c) Potential
d) Aggregate count
27. Ford flow cup nozzle is made of

a)Aluminum alloy
b) Stainless steel
c)Aircraft alloy
d)Tungsten carbide
28. flow cup can be used to check viscosity of hot paint
a) Ford
b) Zahn
c) ISO
d) DIN
29. Ford Flow cup made of
a) Stainless Steel
b) Aircraft alloy
c) Aluminium
d) Glass Reinforced Plastic
30. What is the name of vessel used to determine the viscosity of hot fluids, as per BGas
specifications?
a) Ford Flow cup No.4
b) Zahn Cup
c) Abel cup
d) Pyknometer
31. What is size of hole in Ford Flow Cup?
a) 2 mm
b) 3 mm
c) 4 mm
d) 5 mm
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32. A Rotothinner measured by:

a) Direct Viscosity
b) Centrifugal Viscosity
c) Kinematic Viscosity
d) Dynamic Viscosity
33. Capacity of Ford Flow cup
a) 100 cc
b) 50 cc
c) 200 cc
d) 500 cc
34. Viscosity for a paint is determine to
a) Flow of paint
b) Thinners added to paint over and above recommended
c) Measure the degree of dispersion of paint
d) Measuring density of paint
35. Density calculated to
a) Flow of paint
b) Thinners added to paint over and above recommended
c) Measure the degree of dispersion of paint
d) Two pack material has been mixed in the correct proportions
36. Which information is not available in MDS?
a) Flash point
b) Dew point
c) VS%
d) Recommended Thinner
37. When two pack material used, calculated density valve 1.29 gm/cc, but achieved test result
in 1.35 gm/cc which is more dense?
a) Base
b) Activator
c) Thinner
d) Ratio to be changed
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38. If 7.5 Liters Paint weighs 9.75 Kg, Relative Density is

a) 13.0 gm/cc
b) 13.0gm
c) 1.30 gm/cc
d) 1.3
39. If Paint in a density cup weighs 135gm, Relative Density is
a) 135
b) 13.5gm/cc
c) 1.35
d) 1.35 gm/cc
40. MDS shows a two pack paint density is 1.35 gm/cc, when the density check completed it
shows the density as 1.25.Which one is true
a) Base Part is High
b) Activator Part is High
c) Mix ratio on MDS is incorrect
d) Activator Part is Low
41. If 11 Litres Paint Weighs 18 Kg then density =
a) 1.8 gm/cm
b) 1.6 gm/cm
c) 1.1 gm/cc
d) 1.6 gm/cc
42. Fineness of grind is a term used for

a) Premixing
b) Aggregate size
c) Profile roughness
d) PVC
43. What is the specified temperature at which a Flash Point Determination test must be carried
out?
a) 20ºC
b) Upto 450ºc
c) There is no specific temperature
d) 25ºC seawater
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44. Which of the following can be used to measure viscosity?

a) A Pyknometer
b) An aspirated psychrometer
c) An Abel closed cup
d) A Zahn cup
45. Relative density units are
a) gm/cc
b) gm
c) kg/cc
d) None
46. Density of water
a) 1 gm/cc
b) 2 gm/cc
c) gm
47. Dynamic viscosity
a) Centi
b) Centi-poise
c) Poise
d) Stoke
48. Kinematic viscosity
a) Centi
b) Centi-poise
c) Poise
d) Stoke
49. Looking at the stated angle is the paint where the surface will change from gloss to matt
a) 5-10 aggregates break through the surface of the paint
b) Measure the degree of dispersion of paint
c) Aggregative are present in all pigmented paints
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50. High viscosity is

a) High resistance to flow
b) Not run easily
c) Conversely
d) All the above
51. Viscosity is a very important property for paint: it affects
a) Manufacturing process
b) Application process
c) Levelingproperties
d) All the above
52. A device used to measure the degree of dispersion of paint is called
a) A gloss meter
b) A crypto meter
c) A paint inspector gauge
d) A Hegman grind gauge
53. Approx. viscosity of paint is
a) 1 Centi-poise
b) 1 stoke
c) 2.4 Ns/m2
d) 1.2gm/cc
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FILM THICKNESSES # 11
1. Advantage of eccentric wheel for WFT measurement is

a) Correct DFT can be calculated from result
b) Permanent record
c) No other method for curved surface
d) Can be used for metal spray method
2. How to use Eccentric wheel on a pipe
a)Perpendicularly
b)Circumferentially
c)Longitudinally
d)Not possible
3. Which type of Comb gauge is not available?
a) Square
b) Circle
c) Triangular
d) Rectangular
4. Biscuit Gauge is another name for
a) Hegman’s grind gauge

b) Surface Comparator
c) Banana Gauge
d) Comb Gauge
5. How to use comb gauge on a pipe

a)Perpendicularly
b)Circumferentially
c)Longitudinally
d)Not possible
6. If a comb gauge show 120-140 µm, then the actual Dft is
a) 120 µm
b) 130µm
c) 140 µm
d) 120 / 140 µm
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7. Graticule scale is a part of

a) PIG
b) Hegman Grind Gauge
c) Eccentric Wheel
d) Tough type Pfund Crypto meter
8. Why an inspector use PIG Gauge

a) When substrate is non-ferromagnetic and coating is non-Ferro magnetic
b) When substrate is non-ferromagnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic
c) When substrate is Ferro magnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic
d) When substrate is ferromagnetic and coating is non-Ferro magnetic
9. A Non Destructive test can be done

a) When substrate contain MIO
b) When substrate is non-ferromagnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic
c) When substrate is Ferro magnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic
d) When substrate is ferromagnetic and coating is non-Ferro magnetic
10. A Destructive test can be done

a) Ericson test drill
b) PIG
c) Saberg thickness drill
d) All the above
11. A Destructive test can be done

a) Ericson test drill
b) Pencil scratch test
c) Ballotini teat
d) Dolly test
12. Sometime Tinsley pencil gauge is called
a) Paint Inspector Gauge
b) Foreman’s gauge
c) Banana gauge
d) Horseshoe gauge
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13. A Banana gauge works on which principle

a) Magnetic resistance b)
Conductive resistance c)
Tension reluctance
d) Viscosity relativity
14. Using the correct calibration shim, a banana gauge can be calibrated one
a) Blasted surface material
b) Painted surfaces
c) Steel with a covering of mill scale
d) All of the above
15. Test for abrasion resistance on paint film

a) Ericson
b) Taber
c) Gardner
d) All of the above
16. Test for hard coatings

a) dolly test
b) Banana gauge
c) Koenig Albert
d) All of the above
17. What diameter is the conical mandrel, which is used in the flexibility test?
a) 8 mm to 25 mm
b) 12 mm to 18 mm
c) 5 mm to 50 mm
d) 3 mm to 37 mm
18. Accelerated test are
a) Water soak test
b) Prohesion test
c) Salt spry cabinets
d) All of the above
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19. Humidity cabinets conditions are

a) Humidity is very high at 95% and elevated temperatures up to 55oC
b) Humidity is very high at 90% and elevated temperatures up to 55 oC
c) Humidity is very low at 95% and elevated temperatures up to 55oC
d) All of the above
20. In paint testing, why is temperature cycling carried out?

a) To check for water absorption.
b) To check flexibility
c) To check contradiction cracking
d) To prove the service life of the coating system
21. What result will get by Temperature Cycling test?

a) Cracking
b) Blistering
c) Chalking
d) Discoloration
22. Which of the following do not a drying test?

a) Ballotini test
b) Beck – Koller stylus test
c) Wolff wilborn test
d) Cross hatch test
23. Which of the following is not a drying test?
a) Koening Albert
b) Beck Koller
c) Mechanical Thumb
d) Ballotni
24. Which drying test involves the use of smell glass beads?
a) Wolf wilborne
b) Ballotini
c) Koenig Albert
d) Beck Koller
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25. What is the name given to the drying test involving the use of glass beads?
a) Wolf Wilbrone
b) Taber
c) Ballotini
d) Erichsson
26. Gold leaf test is used for
a) Adhesion
b) Drying
c) Residual tack
d) Dust detection
27. Degree of Hardness of paint

a) Mechanical thump test
b) Wolff Wilborn Test
c) Gold Leaf test
d) Prohesion
28. The Pencil Hardness Tests is used to determine which of the following?
a) Scratch hardness of a coating
b) Adhesion of a coating
c) Abrasion resistance of a coating
d) Indentation hardness of a coating
29. Wet film opacity determined by
a) Cryptometer
b) Wolff Wilborn Test
c) Psychrometer
d) Prohesion
30. Cryptometer known as
a) Hycrometer
b) PfundCryptometer
c) Psychrometer
d) Prohesion
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31. What factors can affect Gloss?

a) Resin type, Solvent type, paint application technique
b) Refractive index, pigment colour, DFT
c) Particle size, CPVC, resin type, angle of light incidence
d) Pigment size, resin type, paint colour
32. Which factor does not affect gloss of a paint film?
a) CPVC
b) Flash Point
c) Particle Size
d) Solvent type
33. What is area for adhesion failure within a paint system?
a) Primer to substrate failure

b) Inter coat adhesion
c) Cohesive failure
d) All of the above
34. Which type of test used craft knife?
a) Pencil scratch test

b) V cut Test or cross hatch test
c) Dolly test
35. Which of the following tests would be performed to determine the adhesion of a coating?
a) Pendulum rocker
b) Pull off Tape
c) Falling sand
d) Taber abraser
36. HATE is an abbreviation of what?
a) Heat Affected Tension Expansivity
b) Hydrogen Arc Treatment Effect
c) Hydraulic Adhesion Test Equipment
d) Humidity Affected Temperature Evaluation
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37. Which of the following is not an adhesion test?

a) Cross Hatch
b) Gold Leaf
c) HATE
d) Dolly test
38. Which of the following is not an adhesion test?
a) Dolly test
b) Cross hatch
c) Kerbsstormer
d) HATE
39. Dolly test used to check
a)Hardness
b)Flexibility
c)DFT
d)Adhesion
40. Pull of Adhesion is a term associated with
a) Tinsley pencil
b) Banana Gauge
c) HATE
d) Dolly Test
41. If the required DFT is 50µm, then the particle size in the paint should be
a)50µm
b)Above 50µm
c)Below 50µm
d)All the above
42. VS.%relate to
a)Volatile
b)Non volatile
c)Total Paint volume
d)Activator
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43. What is the volume of paint required to cover a circular area of 15 meters radius, if the
material has WFT of 176µm
a) 76.38 L
b) 124.34 L
c) 214.34 L
d) 31.08 L
44. What WFT should be measured, if a coating of 88 µm DFT is required with a 66% VS paint?
a) 158 m
b) 75 m
c) 58 m
d) 133 m
45. What is the actual DFT, if banana gauge shows 335µm when checked on galvanising?
a) 335µm
b) 265µm
c) 235µm
d) 435µm
46. Reflectometer measures
a) Aggregate Size
b) Agglomerates Percentage
c) Gloss
d) Colour
47. Which of the following would not affect the degree of Gloss?
a) Surface profile
b) Critical Pigment Volume Concentration
c) Solvent type
d) Degree of dispersion
48 Dry film thickness assessment of a point film containing MIO can be carried out
a) Using a Tinsley film thickness gauge
b) By using Calibrated eccentric wheel
c) By reading taken using the paint inspections gauge
d) By using a banana Gauge
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49. Prior to use, the gauge used to determine DFT must be calibrated,
a) Using sample plate, with a paint coating of known thickness

b) On the prepared surface, before paint application
c) Monthly, by authorized validation Centre
d) In the presence of the site engineer
50. What DFT should be achievable if the paint with the volµme solid of 54% is ….to WFT
of 135µm?
a) 65 µm
b) 72.9 µm
c) 75 µm
d) 82.9 µm
51. A paint said to have good opacity will;
b) Have good hiding power
c) Have a low CPVC
52. Minimum WFT and DFT recommendations for paint applications, and advice on the addition
Of thinners etc., can be found:
a) On the label of the paint containers
b)In the project specification
c) On the manufacturer product data sheet
d) In BS 7079 part A
53. DFT measured using Banana gauge can be carried out on the following:
a) Zinc galvanised surface which have been painted
b)Painted Aluminium substrate
c) Any paint containing MIO pigments
d) In BS 7079 part A
54. For the WFT measured of a non-ferrous coating on a carbon steel pipe, which of the
following methods would be acceptable?
a) Banana gauge
b)Eccentric wheel used longitudinally
c) Comb gauge used circumferentially
d) Eccentric wheel used circumferentially
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55. A paint said to have possess low opacity will;

b) Have low hiding power
c) Have a low CPVC
56. The equipment used to measure the hiding ability of paint is called:
a) A Reflectometer
b)A grind gauge
c) A psychrometer
d) A crypto meter
57. DFT value can be determined by
a) Calculations
b) Destructive test gauges
c) Nondestructive test gauges
d) All the above
58. Why using plastic shim on DFT measured?
a) Magnetically insulated
b) Correct film thickness
c) Nondestructive test gauges
d) All the above
59. What type of test using for paint elasticity?
a) Impact test
b) Cupper test
c) Accelerated Test
d) Conical mandrel
60. What type of test using for assessed for paint damage?
a) Impact test
b) Cupper test
c) Accelerated Test
d) Conical mandrel
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61. Which test will be done only for paint evaporation?

a) Impact test
b) Flashpoint Test
c) Volatile / Non volatile
d) Conical mandrel
62. Which paints cannot be measured by flow cup?
a) Thixotropic paints
b) Two pack material
c)Single pack material
d) All the above
63. WFTs can be measured by using
a) Eccentric wheel
b) Comb gauges
c) PIG
d) A and B
64. The Electro Magnetic Induction is suitable for
a) Ferro-magnetic substrates
b)Non ferro-magnetic substrates
c) A and B
65. The EddyCurrent is suitable for
a) Ferro-magnetic substrates
b) Non-ferro-magnetic substrates
c) A and B
66. The Magnetic Coating Thickness gauge
a) Horseshoe gauge
b) Tinsley pencil
c) PIG
d) Banana gauge
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67. Solvent Evaporation Time, The SolGelTransition,Surface Drying Time and Final Dry Time
are given
a) Ballotini Test
b) Mechanical thumb test
c) BK drying recorders d)
Gold leaf test
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SPECIFIED COATING CONDITIONS # 12
1. Dew point is defined as

a) The temperature at which water vapour in the air condense
b) The temperature at which paint can be applied
c) The temperature of the steel
d) The temperature at which cross linking will commence
2. Relative Humidity is defined as
a) The amount of water which is in the air at 25°C, in seawater,
b) The amount of water present in the air, expressed as a percentage of water that could be in
the air that temperature.
c) The temperature at which water vapour will condense
d) Dry bulb temperature measures against Wet Bulb temperature.
3. A Whirling Hydrometer is also known as
a) A PfundCryptometer
b) A psychrometer
c) A spinning thermometer
d) A rotational viscometer
4. What is the recommended speed at which a Whirling Hygrometer must travel through the
air?
a) 4 meters per sec
b) 2 mm per second
c) 5 km / hr
d) 100 meters per minute
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5. When using a Whirling Hygrometer, the wet bulb temperature

a) Should always be read last
b) Will always be above the steel temperature
c) Should always be read first
d) Should not be connected to the wick
6. The BGas specified conditions for site painting system is

a) Maximum wind sped 4 m/ sec, Relative humidity not less than 95%
b) Maximum 90% relative humidity, dew points less than 3ºC of steel temp.
c) As per BGC/PS/PA8
d) Minimum 27ºC Maximum 95%
7. The BGas specified conditions for site painting system is
a) Maximum wind sped 4 m/ sec, Relative humidity not less than 95%
b) Maximum 90% relative humidity, dew points above 3ºC of steel temp.
c) Not more than 90% relative humidity
d) Minimum 27ºC Maximum 95%
8. Steel and Air temperature is always
a) more than 5oC
b) less than 5oC
c) Within 3oC
d) More than 3oC
9. Air temperature can be calculated by
a) Hygro meter
b) Thermo stat
c) Limpet gauge
d) Strobo scope
10. The following is not information of Daily report sheet
a) Dew point
b) Relative Humidity
c) Relative Density
d) Air Temperature
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11. Steel temperature can be measured by
a) Psychro meter
b) Limpet Gauge
c) Thermo meter
d) Horseshoe gauge
12. Pyro meter is an instrument to check
a) Adhesion
b) Hardness
c) Steel Temp
d) Density
13. How many seconds frame should be rotated at site?
a) 12-15 seconds
b) 20-25 seconds
c) 30-40 seconds
d) 10-20 seconds
14. How many times frame should be rotated at site?
a) Only one time

b) 2 times
c) 10 times
d) Many times as is necessary
15. Two consecutive spins the reading should be
a) Above 0.2oC
b) Within 0.2oC
c) below 0.2oC
d) Above 0.3oC
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16. During rain, snow, or high winds”. When these conditions do not prevail” or similar, to allow
coating to continue using special products as a
a) Modern sensible paints
b) A Tentative paints
c) A thixotropic paints
17. Solvent evaporates very slowly at low temperatures, when
a) the air or metal temperature is down to within 3oC above the dew point temperature
b) the air or metal temperature is below 5oC
c) the relative humidity is more than 90%
18. When the relative humidity is more than 90%, using paints
a) Epoxy high build

b) Thermally spray Aluminium
c) Moisture curing polyurethane
19. The air temperature and dew point temperature, and wet bulb temperature on the whirling
hygrometer, When are all the same value
a) RH 100 %
b) RH 90%
c) RH 85%
d) RH 35%
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CATHODIC PROTECTION 13
1. External surface of tank cannot have
a) Electrolytic
b) Cathodic protection
c) Copper/Copper Sulphatehalf-cell electrode
d) Bimetallic
2. Internal surface of tank canhave
a) Electrolytic
b) Cathodic protection
c) Copper/Copper Sulphatehalf-cell electrode
d) Bimetallic
3. When Cathodic protection is used to protect a pipeline, coatings are applied to
a) Improve the effectiveness of protection.
b) Improve the passage of current flow.
c) Make the pipe easier to inspect.
d) Increase the voltage needed for the CP system.
4. used to detect the voltage in impressed current system
a) National Grid
b) Transformer Rectifier
c) Copper/Copper Sulphate half-cell electrode
d) Sodium Chloride
5. Impressed current system used to
a) Protect long length of pipelines a distance of 10 miles

b) Protect short length of pipelines a distance of 1 miles
c) Protect long length of pipelines a distance of 100 miles
d) Protect short length of pipelines a distance of 10 miles
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6. National Grid connected through
a) pipeline
b) Transformer Rectifier
c) Copper wire
d) Galvanic system
7. Positive side of the Transformer rectifier connectedto
a) pipeline
b) cathode system
c) ground bed
d) copper wire
8. Pipe lines are making
a) anode system
b) cathode system
c) A and B
9. The voltage required operating the ICCP system?
a) 230V to 240 V
b) 10KV to 50 KV
c) 10V to 50V
d) 10mV 50mV
10. Copper/Copper sulphates half-cell electrode is used to
a) Monitor CP Voltage
b) Supply current for CP
c) Detect Mill scale
d) Rectify AC to DC
11. Electrical circuit of the corrosion reaction is the evolvement of hydrogen gas from
a) The Anode
b) The Cathode
c) Electrolyte
d) All the above
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12. Which solution is used for Cathodic disbondment test?
a) Slightly acidic liquid

b) Salt water
c) Alkaline liquid
d) Distilled water
13. Galvanic Anode System are called
a) Sacrificial Anodes Systems

b) Impressed Current Systems
c) Cathodic disbondment
14. A voltmeter is connected to the stud and to

a) The copper/copper sulphate half-cell b)
Transformer Rectifier
c) Copper wire
d) Galvanic system
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HOLIDAY/PINHOLE DETECTION # 14
1. When carrying out holiday detection using the sponge tester, what can we add to the water?
a) Salt
b) Detergent
c) Xylene
d) Inhibitor
2. In FBE coatings greater than 20 thou thickness, holidays are detected using which of the
following?
a) Wet sponge holiday detector
b) Low voltage holiday detector
c) High voltage holiday detector
d) Low voltage DC holiday detector
3. In FBE coatings less than 500µm thickness, holidays are detected using which of the
following?
a) Wet sponge pinhole detector
b) Low voltage holiday detector
c) High voltage holiday detector
d) Low voltage DC holiday detector
4. What voltage settings are commonly used for sponge test holiday detection?
a) 5 Kv to 15 KV
b) 15 KvMaximum
c) 9v to 90 v
d) 110v to 240v
5. What voltage settings are DFT of less than or equal to 300µm?
a) 5 Kv to 15 KV
b) 671/2to 90 v
c) 9v
d) 9v to 90 v
6. What voltage settings are DFTs of 300-500µm?
a) 5 Kv to 15 KV
b) 671/2 to90 v
c) 9v to 90 v
d) 110v to 240v
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PAINT APPLICATION # 15
1. Basic paint application methods are
a) spray
b) Brushing
c) Roller
d) All the above
2. What type of application used to welds, internal corners, bolts, rivets?
a) spray
b) Brushing
c) Roller
d) All the above
3. Which correct equipment used for applying a Stripe Coat?
a) Gravity Cup
b) Roller
c) Paint Brush
d) Spray application
4. Which paint application cannot use in industry as per PA10?
a) Brush
b) Roller
c) Airless spray
d) Electro-static spray
5. What are the spray applications?
a) Conventional Spray
b) Airless Spray
c) Electric-static Spray
d) All the above
6. What are the Conventional spray systems?
a) Suction Spray
b) Gravity Spray
c) Remote pressure spot Spray
d) All the above
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7. Most tips are used in airless spray system RAC?

a) Tip life is to be increased
b) Costs can be kept down
c) Blockages can be cleaned
d) All of the above
8. Paint spray tip sizes, pressure recommendation are generally found
a) On the point container
b) In the project specification
c) On the product data sheet
d) In the British Standards
10. Which application greatly reduce pinholes?
a) Brush
b) Spray
c) Aerosol
d) Roller
11. Spray tip with adjustable aperture size known as
a) Carbide
b) Venturi
c) Titan
d) Taber
12. If an airless spray pump ratio 35;1 delivery pressure 2800.howmuch the inlet pressure
a) 100psi
b) 90psi
c) 80psi
d) 70psi
13. The main difference between Airless and conventional spray is

a) Conventional spray gives better deposition rate
b) Conventional spray gives less waste
c) Airless spray gives better quality finish
d) Conventional spray gives better atomisation
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14. How atomisation is achieved in conventional spray
a) Two air channels outside the nozzle

b) Air pressure applied before nozzle
c) Paint forced at high pressure
d) Hydraulic pressure
15. If metal spray applied on a thin steel plate,
a) Plate should not be heated

b) Plate should be preheated
c) Plate should be post heated
d) Cannot be applied
16. In the electrostatic spray painting process, the component must be

a) Positively charged
b) Negatively charged
c) 9 Volts DC
d) 15 Kv DC
17. Which application method provides uniform film thickness?
a) Stripe coat
b) Airless Spray
c) Conventional spray
d) Electrostatic spray
18. In Electrostatic spray, the thickness of paint film is controlled by
a) Time used to spray
b) Delivery Pressure
c) Orifice Size
d) Voltage
19. Which of the following is often applied by electrostatic spray?
a) Zinc-rich epoxy
b) Powdered epoxy
c) Coal tar enamel
d) Epoxy grout
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20. Which of the following is a disadvantage of electrostatic spray?

a) Poor coverage
b) Excessive overspray
c) Generally only one coat can be applied
d) Non-uniform film thickness
21. Which paint application have “Insulation” effect
a) Airless Spray
b) Remote Pressure pot
c) Dip coating
d) Electrostatic spray
22. Padding refers to what?

a) Protection for pipes during transport & storage
b) Protective clothing for TSA application
c) A paint application method
d) Material used to soak spillages
23. Shearing Action produced by application of
a) Roller
b) Brush
c) Spray
d) Padding
24. The relevant pain application information for any particular paint, product, such as paint
spray, tip sizes, pressure recommendation, etc are generally found
a) On the paint containers
b) In the project specification
c) On the Product data sheet
d) In the British Standards
25. A common system for applying Hot metal spray coating is:
a) Conventional spray gravity cup
b) A gun containing fuel gas, oxygen and compressed air
c) High pressure airless spray system
d) Plural component pumps and gun
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26. Round headed brushes called
a) Flat brush
b) Round brush
c) Tar brush
d) All the above
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METAL COATINGS # 16
1. Nuts and Bolts can be coated by
a) Calorising
b) Galvanising
c) Sheradising
d) Anodising
2. At which temperature Aluminium melts
a) 100 oC
b) 240 oC
c) 425 oC
d) 625 oC
3. At which temperature zinc melts
a) 100 oC
b) 240 oC
c) 425 oC
d) 625 oC
4. Mostly offshore and onshore using metal coats
a) Sheradising
b) Calorising
c) Anodising
d) Galvanising
5. To be done by immersing a component in a mix of fine sand and Aluminium powder and
heating
a) Sheradising
b) Calorising
c) Anodising
d) Galvanising
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6. An electrolytic method of coating which results in the formation of a dense oxide
a) Sheradising
b) Calorising
c) Anodising
d) Galvanising
7. Hot metal spraying are using temperature at
a) 625oC
b) 540oC
c) 425oC
d) 450oC
8. The use of sealer to improve the performance and prolong the coating life with which of
the following coating systems
a) Polysiloxane
b) Polyurethane
c) Thermal metal spraying
d) Electrostatic spraying
9. Thermally Sprayed Aluminium is not normally applied by which system?
a) Electric arc Spray
b) Sheradising
c) Wire & Pistol
d) Powder & pistol
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COATING FAULTS #17
1. Addition of thixotropic helps to avoid

a) Blistering
b) Sagging
c) Cracking
d) Flaking
2. Which coating fault occurs when over thinning paint?
a)Pinholes
b)Run
c)Spot rusting
d)Hair cracking
3. Which fault relate to Peeling?
a)Orange peel
b)Flaking
c)Wrinkling
d)Cracking
4. Which fault can be avoided when bitumen removed from paint system?
a)Bittiness
b)Blistering
c)Cracking
d)Bleeding
5. Chalking occurs due to
a)Coating age
b)Weathering
c)Shelf life problem
d)Hygroscopic salts
6. Which fault happens when over apply zinc silicate
a)Sagging
b)Run
c)Mud cracking
d)Holidays
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7. A coating fault which resembles holidays
a) Checking
b) Cratering
c) Crazing
d) Cissing
8. Over thickness of Zinc silicate cause
a) Sagging
b) Mud Cracking
c) Curtaining
d) Cohesive failure
9. Ropiness is fault look like
a) Roller Stiple
b) Rivelling
c) Brush Marks
d) Blisters
10. Which one is not a Paint Fault?
a) Grinning through
b) Efflorescence
c) Cracking
d) Bittiness
11. Paint defect which their appearance is like a citrus of fruits skin.
a) Wrinkle
b) Shagging
c) Fish Eye
d) Orange peel
12. Which coating fault will look like discoloration?
a) Chalking
b) Bleeding
c) Cissing
d) Curtaining
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13. Efflorescence is
a) a weak surface layer of water-rich cement.
b) An oil reaction with alkalinity to make a soap.
c) Moisture passing through the concrete and carrying soluble concrete salts
d) Ice crystals on the surface
14. Where bleeding is evident on a pipe which was previously coated with coal tar, the staining
would be which colour?
a) Black
b) Brown
c) Yellow
d) Red
15. Lifting of coating material from surface is
a)Wrinkling
b)Lifting
c) Flaking
d)Mud cracking
16. Paint defect which name is Fish Eye always causes by
a) Over Thickness
b) Substrate contains with oil
c) To much thinner
d) Using wrong mixing solvent
17. Where paint particles fall outside the spray pattern, resulting in a dry, flat, pebbled
appearance, this is known as
a) Orange peel – flocculation
b) Dry spray-over spray c)
Floatation – flocculation d)
overspray-floatation
18. Inclusion, either airborne or from the paint itself?
a) Grinning through
b) Efflorescence
c) Cracking
d) Bittiness
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19. Degradation of a binder due to disruptive factors in the environment is

a)Wrinkling
b)Lifting
c) Chalking
d)Mud cracking
20. Gas, liquid or crystals are filled with
a)Wrinkling
b) Blisters
c) Flaking
d)Bittiness
21. Where bleeding is evident on a pipe which was previously coated with bitµmen’s, the
staining would be which colour?
a) Black
b) Brown
c) Yellow
d) Red
22. The presence of particles of gel, flocculated material or foreign matter in a coating material,
or projecting from the surface of a film.
a) Grinning through
b) Efflorescence
c) Cracking
d) Bittiness
23. Sometimes forms on the floss film of a coating causing loss of gloss and dulling of colour
a) Efflorescence
b) Cracking
c) Bittiness
d) Bloom
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24. Cracking that comprises of fine cracks, which may not penetrate the top coat, they occur
erratically and at random
a) Efflorescence
b) Cracking
c) Bittiness
d) Checking
25. cracking that comprises of fine cracks, which do not penetrate the top coat and are distributed
over the surface giving the semblance of a small pattern.
a) Cracking
b) Hair cracking
c) Checking
d) Mud cracking
26. Cracking that resembles checking but the cracks are deeper and broader.
a) Crazing
b) Hair cracking
c) Checking
d) Mud cracking
27. A drastic type of crazing producing a pattern resembling the hide of a
a) Crazing
b) Hair cracking
c) Crocodile
d) Mud cracking
28. Where there is a complete absence of coating materials on random areas of the substrate
a) Ropiness
b) Holidays
c) Lifting
d) Mud cracking
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COLOUR # 18
1. What is BS 4800 specifies
a) Colour co-ordination
b) Specification of abrasive size sieves
c) Methods of test for paints
d) Glossary of paint and related terms
2. What is 3 attributes which make up the colour of a paint?

a) White, black and colour
b) Hue, Brightness and saturation
c) Red, Yellow and Blue
d) Contrast, Density, and Definition
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3. Which of the following are primary colours?

a) Blue Yellow and Green
b) Red Green and white
c) Red White and blue
d) Red Yellow and Blue
4. In colour attributes, Brightness also referred by the term
a) Chroma
b) Intensity
c) Value
d) Weight
5. Chroma, Intensity, Weight are used
a) Hue
b) Brightness
c) Saturation
d) All the above
6. Hue refers to what?
a) Amount of lightness or darkness

b) Basic colour
c) How vivid colour appears
d) All the above
7. Saturation refers to what?
a) Amount of lightness or darkness

b) Basic colour
c) How vivid colour appears
d) All the above
8. Black White Grey is
a) Vivid Colour
b) Achromatic
c) Chroma
d) Basic colour
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9. Which of the following is not a system for paint color classification?

a) BS 4800
b) BS 5252
c) Munsell
d) BGC/PS/CW5
10. Which of the following is pipe colour coding?
a) BS 4800
b) BS 5252
c) BS 1710
d) BGC/PS/CW5
11. How is the brightness of colour identified in BS 4800?
a) By Numbers 0-24
b) By Numbers 01-56
c) By letter A-E
d) By letter E-M
12. RAL Number represents
a) Batch Number
b) Thinner Code
c) Colour Code
d) Solvent Code
13. How is the Hue of colour identified in BS 4800?
a) By Numbers 0-24
b) By Numbers 01-56
c) By letter A-E
d) By letter E-M
14. How is the saturation of colour identified in BS 4800?
a) By Numbers 0-24
b) By Numbers 01-56
c) By letter A-E
d) By letter E-M
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HEALTH AND SAFETY # 19
1. COSHH abbreviation
a) Control of Substance Hazardous to Health

b) Central of Substance Hazardous to Health
c) Control of Substance Hazardous to Help
d) Control of Substance Health to Help
2. Which warning symbol represents Toxic
a) b. c. d.
Answer: B
3. This is the hazard warning symbol for
a) Toxic or Very Toxic

b) Harmful or irritant c)
Corrosive
d) Explosive
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4. This is the hazard warning symbol for
a) Toxic or Very Toxic

b) Harmful or irritant
c) Corrosive
d) Explosive
5. Who is having duty of Safety on a Working site (or) which person on site is responsible for
site safety?
e) HSE (Health & safety executive)

f) Contractor
g) Engineer
h) Employees
6. The document issued by the HSE listing all known harmful substances, is
a) COSHH
b) SI 1657
c) EH40
d) IGE SR 21
7. RAQ is an abbreviation of what?
a) Required Adherence Quota
b) Repair Area qualification
c) Required Air Quantity
d) Required Acceptance Quality
8. Every depression is RAQ
a) 100 ppm
b) 500 rpm
c) 100 cc
d) 500 cc
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9. In dragger tube Number specified is n=5, what is RAQ
e) 500 ppm
f) 5 rpm
g) 500 cfm
h) 500 cc
10. After depressions the colour change is from white to
a) red
b) brown
c) reddish brown
d) black
11. Which would be considered to be the most toxic?
a) Acetone
b) Xylene
c) Ethanol
d) Toluene
12. When testing for Xylene using a Dragger Bellows, the crystals will charge colour.
a) Orange to Black
b) White to Red/Brown
c) White to Green
d) White to Black
13. Expansion for PPM

a) Parts per million b)
Pounds per million c)
Parts per mill
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LIST OF SPECIFICATION AND BS NumberS 21
1. Internal coating of pipeline comes under
a) PA7
b) PA8
c) PA9
d) PA10
2. Methods of test for paints.
a) BS410
b) BS3900
c) BS7079
d) PA10
3. Schedule of paint colours for building purposes.
a) BS4800
b) BS3900
c) BS7079
d) PA10
4. Preparation of steel substrates before application of paints and related products
a) BS4800
b) BS3900
c) BS7079
d) PA10
5. Visual assessment of surface cleanliness
a) BS4800
b) BS3900
c) BS7079
d) BS 7079 Group A
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6. Methods of assessment of surface cleanliness
a) BS4800
b) BS 7079 Group B
c) BS7079
d) BS 7079 Group A
7. Surface roughness characteristics of blast cleaned steel substrates
a) BS4800
b) BS 7079 Group B
c) BS7079 Group C
d) BS 7079 Group A
8. Method of Surface Preparations
a) BS 7079 Group D
b) BS 7079 Group B
c) BS7079 Group C
d) BS 7079 Group A
9. Paint properties and performance requirement
a) PA7
b) PA8
c) PA9
d) PA10
10. The British standard for painting inspection?

a) BS 3900
b) IGE SR 21
c) BS 7079
d) ISO 8501
11. Indentor test can be used to check?
a) EPA ( Environment Protect Act)
b) IGE / TD / 05
c) BS 7079
d) IGE SR 21
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BGAS (PA10) specification questions:

1. PA 10 specification is suitable for use in the following area:
a) Onshore installations
b) offshore installations
c) internal coatings of pipes
d) below ground (buried)
2. PA 10 specification is not suitable for use in the following area:

a) Stove enamel coating
b) internal coatings of pipes
c) below ground (buried)
d) All of the above
3. PA 10 does not deal with which of the following?
a) Maintenance Painting
b) Above ground plant installation
c) Buriedpipelines and fittings
d) Works plants installation
4. What is mean by compliant coating?
a) Coating which applied on specified atmosphere condition

b) Coating which suitable with the requirements of the EPA
c) Coating which suitable for the steel substrate
d) Coating with non-compliance report
5 Which situation is expressed as damp surface?
a) Surface with detectable water

b) Surface temperature below dew point c)
Surface with a noticeable film of water d)
Surface temperature above dew point
6. A Galvanized substrate with oxide layer has formed called
a) New Galvanising
b) Weathered Galvanising
c) Unsuitable galvanizing
d) Previously painted Galvanising
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7. A Galvanized substrate with oxide layer has not formed called
a) New Galvanising
b) Weathered Galvanising
c) Unsuitable galvanizing
d) Previously painted Galvanising
8. Which surfaces comes on hot duty surfaces
a) Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 340o C
b) Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 100o C
c) Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 37 o C
d) Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 540o C
9. Long term protection, coatings as required by PA10, are expected to last, typically
a) upto 4 years
b) upto 6 years
c) upto 10 years
d) upto 15 years
10. Medium term protection, coatings as required by PA10, are expected to last, typically
a) upto 4 years
b) upto 6 years
c) upto5 years
d) upto10 years
11. Short term protection, coatings as required by PA10, are expected to last, typically
a) 2 years to 4 years
b) 2 years to 3 years
c) 2 years to 5 years
d) 3 years to 5 years
12. A Coating continues protection of 7 years, which falls in
a) Long term protection b)

Medium term protection c)
Short term protection
d) Fixed term protection
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13.According to Transco , an Engineer is

a) Appointed by a contractor and notified in writing to client
b) Appointed by Client and notified in writing to contractor
c) Responsible for coating and records
d) Higher authority
14.Which of the following is normally NOT considered to be a part of the role of a coating
inspector?
a) Observe the work
b) Write non-conformance reports
c) Supervise the labour work
d) Document the work
15. A primer used for pretreatment for zinc metal surfaces.
a) Zinc rich epoxy

b) T.Wash
c) FBE
d) Zinc Phosphate
16. Who is having permission to change a specified paint system?
a) Paint technologist
b) Painting inspector
c) Engineer
d) Contractor
17. Specifications for a particular job must be decide by the
c) Engineer
d) Contractor
18. Programme of work which must be prepared by the

c) Engineer
d) Contractor
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19. Relevant local site regulations should be detailed in writing by the

a) Painting inspector
b) Engineer
c) Contractor
d) Paint technologist
20. In accordance with PA 10, surface preparations by abrasive blast cleaning, shall provide a
peak-to-through height or profile measurement of
a) Not less than 350 µm and not greater than 100µm
b) Not less than 35 µm and not greater than 80µm
c) Not less than 35 µm and not greater than 100µm
d) Not less than 30 µm and not greater than 75µm
21. Paints should be supplied by one
a) Manufacturer
b) Engineer
c) Contractor
22. All the paints must be stored under cover and in conditions recommended by the
a) Painting Manufacturer
b) Engineer
c) Contractor
23. All the paints are on operational sites, the storage method and area must be approved by the
a) Painting Manufacturer
b) Engineer
c) Contractor
24. Vaccume blasting is

a) Water blasting
b) Abrasive blasting
c) Closed blasting
d) Air blasting with water
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25. Open blasting system is

a) Expendable
b) Re-use abrasive
c) Non-expendable
d) None
26. Expendable abrasives can be reused for site blast cleaning?
a) IF it is more economical to do so
b) If the site engineer witness that they are cleaned in fresh water first.
c) Not under any circumstances
d) Provided they are mixed with fresh abrasive first
27. Which of the following dry abrasives should not be re-cycled or reused
a) Steel shot
b) Chilled Iron grit
c) Copper slag
d) Shot and grit mix
28. May reduce the expected life of paint system
a) Sa2
b) Sa3
c) Sa2 ½
d) St2
30. Paints must not be used beyond manufacturers stated
a) Shelf life
b) Induction period
c) Dew point
d) St2
31. Paint shall be normally applied when the RH in work zone is?
a) Less than 89%
b) Between 71 to 89%
c) Less than 90%
d) Greater than 90% or more
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32. Overcoming times shall be determined by?

a) The contractor
c) The manufactures data sheet
d) The painter
33. Which information on a paint manufacture’s data sheet, is commonly notnormally stated?
a)Batch number
b) Orifice size
c) Spreading rate
d) Method of cleaning equipment and tools
34. One method of ensuring the achievement of the required DFT to edges of weld profiles
during the paint application on site is
a) By adding of extra solvent thinners to the paint material
b) By increasing the duration of spray application at these areas
c) By stripe coating
d) By electrostatic spray application
35. When a multi-component paint reaches the end of its recommended pot life
a) It can be used provided environmental condition are right
b) It can be remixed into fresh paint for use
c) It can be used for maintenance painting
d) It should not be used
36. Wet abrasive blast cleaning of a surface should be followed by dry abrasive blast
cleaning?
a) Only as directed by the engineer
b) To remove the surface profile created by the wet process
c) Because the immediate oxidation of the substrate after wet blasting must be removed
d) Does not required
37. All mechanical damage, such as surface lamination and sharp edges, observed on a
substrate should be
a) Immediately removed by carefully grinding
b) Carefully removed by means of spark free power brushes
c) Reported to site engineer, for his assessment
d) They will be normally being removed during blasting operations.
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38. All waste material resulting from surface preparation and painting operations be disposed
of in accordance with
a) RIDDOR regulations
b) The health and safety at work act
c) The environmental protection act
d) IGE/SR/21
39. After applying primer on steel surface, Paint got wetted by raining. As a painting
inspector what you do?
a) Wait for water to dry

b) Blast to remove existing primer, recoat
c) Continue next stage after rain
d) Recoat primer without removing existing coat
40. Where defects removal has been carried out, the area concerning shall be
a) Sprayed
b) Re-blasted
c) Separately Primed
d) Brush painted
41. What would be the correct course of action upon discovering that the contractor has applied
a coat of paint, out of sequence?
a) Blast and re-coat
b) Apply the correct coating over the top
c) Informed the Engineer
d) Add an extra protective coating
42. Wa1, Wa2 are grades of
a) Abrasive blasting
b) Closed blasting
c) Water Blasting
d) Weathering Grades
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43. Flash rusting of a substrate

a) May result in the substrate being discarded
b) Should be removed by hand abrasion
c) Should be removed by dry abrasive blast cleaning
d) Is acceptable for painting, when environmental conditions are satisfactory
44. The maximum time for blasting or surface preparation before coating must applied in
a) 2 hrs after completion of surface preparation
b) 4 hrs after completion of surface preparation
c) one working day after completion of surface preparation
d) There is no maximum time limit
45. The paint should be applied after blasting?
a) Within 3 hours after blasting
b) Within 5 hours after blasting
c) Within 4 hours after blasting
d) Within 8 hours after blasting
46. The British standard for preparation of steel substrate before the application of paint and
related products is
a) BS 2451
b) BS 5252
c) BS 4800
d) BS 7079 Part A1
47. The most common type of thermally sprayed material for hot duty application is
a) Zinc
b) Graphite
c) Silicon
d) Aluminium
48. According to PA10 paint shall be normally be applied when air and substrate temps are
a) Within 3Cof dew point
b) Within 3C below dew point
c) Atleast 3Cof below dew point
d) greater than 5C
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49. De-lamination is a fault occurs when using
a) Epoxy
b) CR
c) Micaceous Iron Oxide
d) Poly Urethane
50. What is the solution, if damage occurs to a galvanizing?
a) T Wash
b) Zinc Rich Epoxy
c) CR
d) Water Borne Acrylic
51. According to PA10, what is the correct course of action upon discovering foreign bodies
embedded in the paint film?
a) Apply an extra protective barrier coat
b) Re-blast, and re-coat
c) Lightly abrade with emery paper, apply stripe coat
d) Make a report to the engineer
52. According to PA10, is the addition of Thinners allowed?
a) Yes, at the engineers discretion, up to 20% max.
b) Only if the paint is difficult to apply
c) Yes, in accordance with the product data sheets
d) No, under no circumstances.
53. In accordance with PA10 section 32, paint application by roller is
a) Not allowed
b) Highly desirable for large areas
c) Only to be used primer coats on blast cleaned surfaces
d) Not recommended
54. New and maintenance painting for indoor use or short term protection of carbon steel
surfaces operating at
a) above 100oC
b) below 100oC
c) below 50oC
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d) below 75oC
55. Which table followed to preparation for paintingof uncoated or unsuitably coated surfaces?
a) SPA 1e
b) SPA 1a
c) SPA 1b
d) SPA 1c
56. Which type of paint applied at works in preferred system is high solids according to PA10?
a) Solvent based epoxy primer
b) Water borne acrylic
c) Zinc rich epoxy
d) Moisture cure polyurethanes
57. What is the maximum allowable time lapse between blasting and coating?
a) 24 Hours
b) 7 days
c) 4 hours
d) 1 Hour
58. What is the approximate overlap area in painting?
a) 100 mm
b) 100 cm
c) 10mm
d) 100 µm
59. What is the minimum time for over coating?
a) 30 Minutes
b) 4 Hrs
c) 12 Hrs
d) Manufacturer recommend
60. Over coating is carried out ?
a) Within one month

b) Within two month
c) Within three month
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d) Within four month
61. Alternative equivalent complaint system are available may be proposed to Transco?
a) Water borne paints

b) Thixotropic paints
c) Zinc rich epoxy
d) Metal spray paints
62. Final coat must be?
a) Safety
b) Cosmetic defects
c) Finish coat
d) All the above
63. Over coat of MIO should be applied to all primers to a Minimum DFT?
a) 100 µm
b) 120µm
c) 75 µm
d) 70µm
64. Final coating will require to a Minimum DFT?
a) 100 µm
b) 120µm
c) 75 µm
d) Defendant upon system
65. What is the total thickness of compliant epoxy based paint?
a) 325 µm
b) 225µm
c) 265µm
d) 365µm
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66. What is the total thickness of water borne acrylic paint?
a) 325 µm
b) 225µm
c) 265µm
d) 365µm
67. The specified preferred 4 coat paint system in British Gas PA10 is
a) Red Lead, Zinc based undercoat, polyurethane, Acrylic finish
b) Zinc Chromate primer, Micaceous Iron Oxide, Chlorinated Rubber,Moisture Tolerant
Polyurethane
c) High build Epoxy Aluminium primer, Epoxy Micaceous Iron oxide, Epoxy
undercoat, Epoxy Polyester or Acrylic finish.
d) Zinc galvanise, Micaceous Iron Oxide, Thermally sprayed aluminium, silicone sealer
68. Compliant systems which meet the requirement of
a) T/SP/PA/9
b) T/SP/PA/8
c) T/SP/PA/10
d) T/SP/PA/7
69. For long term protection, preferred system at site refers which table
a) SPA 1a
b) SPA 1b
c) SPA 1d
d) SPA 1e
70. BGC/PS/PA10 contains which table, specifying the coating systems?
a) Spa 6a
b) Spa 1e
c) spa 4a
d) spa 3c
71. What is the specified abrasive overlap requirement on repair areas?
a) 250 mm
b) twice pipe diameter
c) 100 mm
d) 1 meter
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72. The specified 3 coat paint system in British Gas PA10 is

a) Primer coat
b) Mid Coat
c) Finish Coat
d) All the above
73. Which grade of surface preparation required for hot duty surfaces from above 150 oC
a) Sa1
b) Sa2
c) Sa2½
d) Sa3
74. Which type of operational chart required for hot duty surface from 100 oC149oC?
a) SPA 3a
b) SPA 3b
c) SPA 3c
d) All the above
75. Which type of operational chart required for hot duty surface from 150 oC340oC?
a) SPA 3a
b) SPA 3b
c) SPA 3c
d) All the above
76. Which type of operational chart required for hot duty surface above340oC?
a) SPA 3a
b) SPA 3b
c) SPA 3c
d) All the above
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77. According to Transco PA10,which metal spray not required a sealer
a) TSA
b) Polysiloxane Inorganic Coating
c) Poly Vinyl Buterol
d) Inorganic Zinc Silicate
78. For the painting of damp ferrous substrate, all paint should be?
a) Dried with the assistance of a warm air blast
b) Spray applied
c) Over coated as quickly as possible
d) Brush applied
79. Which application method used to apply paints on damp surface
a) Brush
b) Roller
c) Airless Spray
d) Dip coating
80. It is advisable to apply Moisture curing polyurethane by
a) Airless spray
b) Brushing
c) Roller
d) Padding
81. Beryllium Bronze is a material useful in the manufacture of

a) Power wire brushes
b) Welding electrodes
c) Comb gauges
d) Nonmetallic reinforcement spacers
82. What is the material used to carry out repairs in dµmp conditions?
a) Moisture Curing Polyurethane
b) Moisture Tolerant Resin
d) Water Borne Acrylics
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83. can be applied when Relative humidity = 100%

a)Epoxy
b)CR
c)Poly urethane
d)Zinc Rich Epoxy
84. Over application of inorganic zinc silicate (IZC) may result in
a) Grinning
b) Checking
c) Flocculation
d) Bittiness
85. Where a silicone sealer is applied to an Inorganic Zinc Silicate coating system, how is the
sealer cured?
a) Propane torch
b) Electric induction pads
c) It cures when the system begins to operate
d) It does not require curing
86. Which paint is more suitable for hot duty surface above 150ᵒ C
a) Zinc Silicate
b) High Solid Epoxy
c) Urethane
d) CR
87. What is the approximate induction period of CR
a) 20 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 6-8 hrs
d) Not Applicable
88. Which one is not included in non-ferrous substrate?
a) Stainless steel
b) Mild steel
c) New Galvanising
d) Weathered Galvanising
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89. Which blasting is suitable for non-ferrous substrates
a) Thorough abrasive blasting

b) Sweep blasting
c) Sa2½
d) Not Applicable
90. Which Abrasive is preferred to use on stainless steel

a)Copper slag
b)Steel Grit c)Steel
Shot d)Aluminium
oxide
91. Which surface preparation is used for weathered galvanising
a) Sweep Blast
b) Stiff Bristle Brushing
c) Through Blast
d) Sa2½
92. What surface preparation is specified in PA 10 for weathered galvanisedsteel?

a) Sa 2 ½, followed by T-wash mordant primer
b) Sa 3, followed by etch primer
c) Hand abrasion with a stiff bristled brush only
d) Sa 1 followed by water washing
93.The most widely used materials for pipeline coating are which of the following?
a) Alkyd enamels
c) Thermoset plastics
94. Thin gauge Aluminium should be treated
a) Alkyd enamels
b) Blast clean
c) Etch primer
d) Aluminium oxide
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95. Which type of surfaces to the paint primarily to provide corrosion protection at non-ferrous?
a) New galvanised
b) Weather galvanised
c) Aluminium surface
d) All of the above
96. Which type of surfaces to the paint to provide cosmetic protection at non-ferrous?
a) Glass reinforced plastics

b) Concrete
c) Multi component liquids
d) All of the above
97. Which surface is requiring to MIO build coat at non-ferrous?
a) New galvanised
b) Weather galvanised
c) Aluminium surface
d) All of the above
98. What type of pigment used to galvanising suffered damage of more than a scratch or gouge
repair?
a) Zinc rich epoxy
b) Polyethylene
c) Aluminium
d) Zinc
99. What type of paint systems used for glass reinforced plastics at non-ferrous?
a) Water-borne-acrylic, Moisture cured urethane, Alkyd or modified alkyd

b) Water-borne-acrylic, Micaceous iron oxide, Alkyd or modified alkyd
c) Water-borne-acrylic, Epoxy high build, Alkyd or modified alkyd
d) Solvent-borne-acrylic, Micaceous iron oxide, Alkyd or modified alkyd
100. What type of paint systems used for Aluminium surface at non-ferrous?
a) Water-borne-acrylic, Moisture cured urethane, Alkyd or modified alkyd

b) Water-borne-acrylic, Micaceous iron oxide, Alkyd or modified alkyd
c) Water-borne-acrylic, Epoxy high build, Alkyd or modified alkyd
d) Solvent-borne-acrylic, Micaceous iron oxide, Alkyd or modified alkyd
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101. What type of paint systems of initial coat used for weathered galvanising at non-ferrous?
a) Water-borne-acrylic Micaceous iron oxide, pigmented high build epoxy, Alkyd or

modified alkyd
b) Water-borne-acrylic Micaceous iron oxide, Compatible Moisture cured urethane,
Compatible Alkyd or modified alkyd
c) Water-borne-acrylic Micaceous iron oxide, Chloride free high build epoxy, Compatible
Alkyd or modified alkyd
d) Water-borne-acrylic Micaceous iron oxide, Moisture cured urethane, Alkyd or modified
alkyd
102. What type of paint systems of initial coat used for Pre-painted cladding at non-ferrous?

modified alkyd
c) Water-borne-acrylic Micaceous iron oxide, Chloride free high build epoxy, Compatible
Alkyd or modified alkyd
alkyd
103. What type of paint systems of initial coat used for stainless steel at non-ferrous?

modified alkyd
c) Water-borne-acrylic Micaceous iron oxide, Chloride free high build epoxy
alkyd
104. Which of the following substrate are not dealt with in table SPA6 of PA10?
a) Concrete
b) Stainless steel
c) Galvanised surface
d) They are all dealt with under that system
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105. All surface breaking laminations observed on a substrate shall be:

a) Reported to the welding inspector immediately
b) Removed by chipping hammer under the supervision of the blasting foreman
c) Removed by grinding with the agreement of the engineer
d) Removed by sharp edged scraper with the permission of the safety manager
106. A newly galvanised substrate has a surface:
a) Where a cohesive oxide layer has not been formed and which exhibits a dull appearance
lacking in metallic sheen
b) On which a cohesive oxide layer has not been formed and which exhibits a dull
appearance lacking in metallic sheen
c) Whicha cohesive oxide layer has not been formed, showing a brightin metallic sheen
d) On which a cohesive oxide layer has been formed, showing a bright in metallic sheen
107. In accordance with PA 10 table SPA 3c, where TSA or IZS have been as the preferred
coating for surface operating above 340oC:
a) They should be cured by a chemical reaction
b) They coating must be immediately heated to 340oC
c) They should be sealed with polysiloxane inorganic coating
d) They must be further protected by the application of silicone sealer
108. The most widely used materials for pipeline coating are which of the following?
a)Alkyd enamels
c)Thermoset plastics
109. Powder coating types may include which of the following?

a)Alkyds
b)Epoxies
c)Organic Zinc
d)Latexes
110. Which of the following is normally NOT considered to be a part of the role of a
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coating inspector?
a) Observe the work
b)Write non-conformance reports
c) Supervise the labours work
d) Document the work
Additional Questions:
1. Thermal spray coatings method may expel a VOC of

a) 100%
b) Near 75%
c) Near 50%
d) 0%
2. The use of an electrostatic handgun has a transfer efficiency of which of the following?
a) <25%
b) <50%
c) Between 50 - 75%
d) About 98%
3.Which information normally not given by the manufacturer’s data sheet?
a) Batch numbers
b) Orifice size
c) Spreading rate
d) Over Coat time
4.A paint viscosity test is carried out at a controlled temperature in order to?
a) Promote paint flow
b) Warm the paint up
c) Keep the weigh even
d) Promote uniformity of the test
5. Etch Primers as
a) Etch Primer is one kind of surface Preparation Material which is used instead of abrasive
blasting.
b) Etch primed surfaces will be slightly rough
c) And they will provide, key for the succeeding Painting application.
d) All of the above
6. Solvents are
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Page
a) Solvents form the evaporative part of the drying process.

b) Thins the Paint so it can be easily applied.
c) Washes out brushes & Equipment.
d) All of the above
7. Larger areas we go for open site abrasive blasting, depending on the type of system we go for
a) Sa1, Sa2, Sa2.5, Sa 3.
b) St2, St3.
c) Hand abrade with Emery paper Grit 80/120/200
d) All of the above
8. Areas very small and for spot repairs we go for Mechanical Power tool cleaning
a) Sa1, Sa2, Sa2.5, Sa 3.
b) St2, St3.
d) All of the above
9. Areas which are inaccessible for mechanical Buffers (Grinding machine) we go for
a) Sa1, Sa2, Sa2.5, Sa 3.
b) St2, St3.
d) All of the above
10. Polyurethane coats have a finish which is of
a) High Gloss
b) They are abrasion resistant,
c) Polyurethane coats can be cleaned easily well resistant to UV
d) All of the above
11. Epoxy coatings are one of the
a) Strongest Binders
b) They provide High Build coating suitable for Airless Spray Application.
c) They can be modified form for High Temperatures and Damp surfaces
d) All of the above
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12. Disadvantage of Epoxy coatings
a) It will make a Poor finish coat because they will chalk easily
b) Strongest Binders
c) They provide High Build coating suitable for Airless Spray Application.
d) They can be modified form for High Temperatures and Damp surfaces
13. Risk Assessments when Painting.
a) Fire Risk due to Inflammable nature of substances of paint.
b) Fumes &Inhalation of Toxic gases
c) To use appropriate P.P.E
d) All of the above
14. Risk Assessments when Blast cleaning
a) Working in confined space
b) To obtain work permit for the job
c) To display boards
d) All of the above
15. Problems are coming when Density & Viscosity of paint are not correct.
a) Poor opacity
b) poor Gloss & slow drying,
c) Poor durability
d) All of the above
16. Paint not be applied to the defined D.F.T. Drying problem may occur.
It may create the surface defects like
a) Runs
b) Sags
c) Thixotropic points
d) All of the above
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17. Visually examine the surface
a) The Substrate prior to blasting for any inherent defects
b) Detrimental contaminants such as oil. Mud etc.
c) Observe the surface for unusual discoloration
d) All of the above
18. Make scotch test to ensure that the surface is free from dust particles. On Dry Paint films
a) Uniform in appearance
b) Free from Paint Faults and low DFT areas
c) Missed & skipped areas
d) All of the above
19. What are the important properties of paint?
a) Ability to preserve the surface from corrosion& other type of deterioration.

b) Show some sacrificing effect and Decorative purpose.
c) Opacity, tinting power, resistance to acid alcoholic and light.
d) All of the above
20. Degree of gloss determined by
a) Degree of pigment dispersion.
b) Size of pigment particles
c) The pigment volume concentration and binder type
d) All of the above
21. A coat of paint which can tie two normally incompatible systems together
a) Mid Coat
b) Final Coat
c) Tie Coat
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Practical Questions:
46. Use surface Needle gauge

a) Below 70 µm b) above 70 to 150µm c) above 150 to 200 µm d) above 200 to300µm
47. Use Dial micrometer with replica tape

a)Below 70 µm b) above 70 to 150µm c) above 150 to 200 µm d) above 200 to300µm
48. Find Dew point using dew point calculator?

WB = 10 DB = 12
a) DP is 8b) DP is 9c) DP is 7 d) DP is 10
RH is 77% RH is 83% RH is 89% RH is 92%
49. FindRelative Humidity using dew point calculator?

WB = 10 Dew point is = 12
a) DP is 8 b) DP is 9 c) DP is 7 d) DP is 10
RH is 77% RH is 83% RH is 89% RH is 92%
50. Use digital Elcometer find coat thickness

a)Below 100µm b) above 200 to 350µm c) above 350 to 600µm d) above 600
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Practical Theory Questions:
Photographs
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RUST GRADES
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BLASTING GRADES A Sa 2.5 and Sa 3
BLASTING GRADES B Sa 1and Sa 2
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BLASTING GRADES B Sa 2.5 and Sa 3
BLASTING GRADES, COMPARISONS
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BLASTING GRADES C Sa 1 and Sa 2
BLASTING GRADES C Sa 2.5 and Sa 3
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BLASTING GRADES D Sa 1 and Sa 2
BLASTING GRADES D Sa 2.5 and Sa 3
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SURFACE PREPARATION
HAND AND POWER TOOL CLEANING BSt 2 and St 3
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HAND AND POWER TOOL CLEANING CSt 2 and St 3
HAND AND POWER TOOL CLEANING D St 2and St 3
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SURFACE PREPARATION ---- FLAME CLEANING
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PAINT TESTING
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BGAS GRADE 2/3

MODEL MULTILE CHOICE QUESTION &ANSWER 2013

4. Is the electrical circuit in a corrosion reaction?

7. Negatively charged area

13. Two examples of hygroscopic salts would be

25. Which one is not a compound in mill scale?

26. Which metal corrode fast according to bimetallic principle?

28. The corrosion will takes place at

31. Which of the following is the highest known potential value?

37. Bi metallic corrosion causes

a) substrate contains salt

39. Which is more electropositive?

43. In the corrosion circuit, electron travel from

44. In the corrosion circuit, electron flow from

45. In which salts would be found in Marine environment?

46. In which salts would be found in Agricultural environment?

48. An Anode becomes positively charged by

50. AnSteel becomes positively charged by

SURFACE PREPARATION METHODS & STANDARDS # 2

1. The British standard for preparation of steel substrate?

7. Which standard is not permitted as a Sand blast abrasive?

11. Copper slag is a

13. Which is grit form?

23. Which type of abrasive give more uniform profile?

31. Degree of cleanliness not depends

32. The standard for sizing of abrasives is

33. The force required to separate two surfaces in touch.

35. Another names of profile is?

43. Surface profile thickness is not measured by

53. not suitable for profile measurement.

55. When using replica tape 50µm deducted because

56. Coarse grade for measuring profile range is

59. 1mill (thou) =

61. Assess the roughness

67. Rust Grade B can be described as

73. Blast cleaning to visually clean steel

76. Very thorough blast cleaning is refers to

77. Blast cleaning to visually clean steel is refers to

91. How many photographs totally covered as per BS 7079?

a) Controls the Air Pressure

98. Carbon Impregnated hoses are used to

103. The blasting hose should be carbon impregnated?

107. Operating pressure at

109. IGE SR 21 is associated with

a) Gas Plant Manufacture

111. Which one is not associated with wet blasting?

126. Chemical cleaning is another name for

127. Concentration and temperature of sulphuric acid in pickling process

a) 5-10% , 65-70 oC and 5-25 minutes

128. Concentration and temperature of phosphoric/chromic acid in pickling process

a) 5-10% , 65-70 oC and 5-25 minutes

129. What is pH?

133. Which PH range is required after chemical cleaning of steel substrate?

134. What is the neutral figure on the pH scale?

135. What is the main cause of flash rusting on a substrate?

138. Where would you normally use a comparator gauge?

145. Enclosed blasting chambers are used because

146. Burnishing needs to be treated by

148. Open blasting system is

151. Copper Slag is

a) 0.8 to 2.0 mil

b) 0.6 to 2.0 mil

c) 0.8 to 4.0 mil