Medicinal Chemistry MCQ Tutorial

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Tutorial work, 217 questions and answers - MCQ's
Medicinal Chemistry (Northumbria University)
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Medicinal Chemistry MCQ’s
1. Amino acids are joined together via which bond?

a. Dipole-Dipole
b. Amide
c. Hydrogen
d. Ionic
2. Amide Bond Resonance (ABR) in terms of protein structure is an important feature. The N’s
lone pair is delocalised, having several important ramifications. Select which of these is NOT
a ramification.
a. O has a δ- charge and the N has a δ+; the Amide groups can form hydrogen bonds
with each other.
b. Amide C-N bond has partial double bonds character, therefore backbone of protein
is more rigid.
c. The orientation of atoms –CC(=O)NHC are all in a plane, the cis orientation is more
stable than the trans.
d. The orientation of atoms –CC(=O)NHC are all in a plane, the trans orientation is
more stable than the cis.
3. Hydrogen bonding is an essential bond type for the backbone of proteins. Which fact about
hydrogen bonding is FALSE?
a. Forms H δ+ with X δ- (X = N,O, S)
b. Much weaker than chemical bonds
c. Vital for controlling the shape of a protein
d. Amide bonds aren’t good at forming hydrogen bonds
4. The amino acid has little to no influence on protein structure:

a. Gly, G
b. Val, V
c. Asp, D
d. Pro, P
5. Which amino acid doesn’t show hydrophobic characters?
a. b. c. d.

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6. Amino acids form from:

a. N terminus to C terminus
b. C terminus to C terminus
c. C terminus to N terminus
d. N terminus to N terminus
7. Genetic diseases e.g cystic fibrosis often occur in:

a. Dipeptide mutations
b. Polypeptide mutations
c. Tripeptide mutations
d. Single amino acid mutation
8. Different sequences can be compared by a sequence alignment. Which statement is true in

this case?
a. Sequences that can be aligned are called homologous
b. Sequences that can be aligned are called heterologous
c. Sequences that can be aligned are called analogous
d. Neither of the above
9. The protein secondary structure has four elements:

a. Random coil, turns, α-sheets and β-helix
b. Random coil, rotations, γ-sheets and α-helix
c. Random coil, turns, β-sheets and α-helix
d. Specific coil, turns, β-sheets and α-helix
10. Which elements of the secondary protein structure includes hydrogen bonding?
a. α-helix and Random coil
b. Random coil and β- turns
c. α-helix and β-turns
d. Β-sheets and α-helix
11. Outline the correct residues that disrupt the α-helix:

a. Proline and Glycine
b. Tryptophan and Glutamine
c. Valine and Serine
d. Arginine and Lysine
12. Which arrangement in the β-sheet is prefered?

a. Parallel
b. Antiparallel

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13. Outline the residue that does NOT disrupt the β-sheet:
a. Steric repulsions
b. Charged residues
c. Amino acids that can’t form H-bonds
d. Electronic repulsions
14. Give another name for tertiary protein structure:

a. The Turn
b. The Flip
c. The Fold
d. The Rotate
15. Tertiary proteins are in:

a. Negatively charged form
b. Neutral
c. Equilibrium
d. Positively charged form
16. The equilibrium in tertiary proteins are a sum of many small effects, which are:
a. Steric repulsions, H-bonds and Ionic bonds
b. H-bonds, covalent bonds and Steric repulsions
c. Dipole-dipole, Vander Walls interactions and H-bonds
17. What is an enzyme?

a. A protein that acts as a catalyst for a reaction
b. A molecule which binds to a receptor without activating it
c. A molecule that produces the same response at a receptor as the natural messenger
d. Organic molecules acting as cofactors
18. What’s a catalyst

a. A protein that increases the rate of reaction, without altering itself
b. A biological chemical that speeds up a reaction, without altering itself
c. Any chemical that speeds up a reaction, without altering itself
d. None of the above
19. Finish the sentence: Catalyst change the reaction __________ by providing a faster reaction
pathway:
a. Kinetics
b. Activation
c. Pathway

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20. Which catalyst is present to convert cis amides to trans amides?

a. Trans-cis isomerase
b. Amide isomerase
c. Cis-trans ismoerase
21. Outline the CORRECT statement:

a. The catalyst only changes the Ea
b. There is a change in the overall reaction energy
c. All chemical reactions are in equilibrium
d. A catalyst gets there faster by changing the equilibrium
22. Enzymes lower the _________:

a. Kinetics of a reaction
b. Ea to zero
c. Transitional state
d. Rate of reaction
23. Which is the most effective catalyst for Amide hydrolysis?

a. OH-
b. Trypsin
c. HCO3-
d. Fe3+
24. What class do Cytochromes belong in?

a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases
25. What class do Kinases belong in?

a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases

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26. What class do Proteases belong in?

a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases
27. What class do Dehydratases belong in?

a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases
28. What class do Topoisomerases belong in?

a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases
29. What class do DNA ligases belong in?

a. Transferases
b. Hydrolases
c. Oxido reductases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases
30. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Cytochromes?

a. Redox
b. Transfer Function Groups
c. Hydrolysis
d. Double Bond forming
e. Isomerisms and Internal transfers
f. Joining sections together

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31. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Kinases?

a. Redox
b. Transfer Functional Groups
c. Hydrolysis
32. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Proteases?

a. Redox
c. Hydrolysis
33. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Dehydratases?

a. Redox
c. Hydrolysis
34. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Topoisomerases?

a. Redox
c. Hydrolysis
35. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of DNA lignases?

a. Redox
c. Hydrolysis

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36. Cytochrome P450’s carry out which reaction with drugs?

a. Oxidation
b. Reduction
c. Hydrolysis
d. Decarboxylation
e. Isomerism
f. Transfers functional groups
37. Cytochrome P450’s are inhibited by:

a. Flavonols
b. Chymostatin
c. Ubiquitin
d. None of the abover
38. Function of Kinases are:

a. Oxidise substrates to a more water soluble compound
b. Transfer a phosphate group via ATP to protein
c. Break peptide bonds
d. Condensation of peptides
39. Which type of enzyme is important for signalling ie. Immune response?
a. Cytochrome P450
b. Protease
c. Kinase
d. DNA ligases
40. Which type of enzyme if over-active can lead to cancer?

a. Cytochrome
b. Protease
c. Kinase
d. DNA ligases
41. Cancer can occur due to:

a. Over active kinase
b. Cytochrome P450 Inhibition
c. Protease
42. Trypsin is a _______ enzyme:

a. Cytochrome
b. Kinase
c. Protease
d. DNA ligase

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43. Which statement is false?

a. Cytochrome P450 are used a lot in detoxification
b. Protease attack proteins from invading microbes
c. Topoisomerases are ATP dependant
d. Dehydratase enzymes reduce C-C to C=C bonds
44. Which enzyme below is ATP dependant?

a. Dehydratase
b. Protease
c. Cytochrome P450
d. DNA ligase
45. Which enzyme below is NOT a good drug target?

a. DNA ligase
b. Topoisomerases
c. Protease
d. Cytochrome P450
46. Which enzyme below is an important drug target?

a. DNA ligase
b. Topoisomerases
c. Protease
d. Cytochrome P450
47. Area of expression is controlled by:

a. Transcription factors
b. Ribsome
c. Protein receptor
d. DNA
48. Define Induced fit:

Enzyme shapes itself around the substrate
49. Name of the enzyme that removes water from retinol

Retinol Dehydratase
50. Name of the substrate that retinol is converted to with a water removing enzyme
Anhydroretinol
51. Amino acids that react via Vander Waals with retinol are:
Leu, Ile, Val and Phe

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52. Amino acid functions to retinol are: (Select two)

Help retinol fit into the Vander Waals pocket the right way round.
They activate the –OH group.
53. Fill in the blanks:

So when there is a close match between the enzyme and substrate, that means that the
enzyme will be _____________, meaning it will only recognise ________ molecule as the
substrate.
Highly Specific
One
54. There are three different rate constants. Select the correct position for each constant:
55. In the Line Weaver-Burk plot, when 1/[S]= 0, [S]=?

∞
56. In the Line Weaver-Burk plot, when 1/rate> 0, so rate=?
∞
57. In which plot is when the rate is never greater than diffusion?
58. Which statement is FALSE:
59. Definition of Competitive Inhibitor
60. In the Line Weaver-Burk plot select which slope represents an Inhibitor present:
61. In the Line Weaver-Burk plot select which slope represents NO Inhibitor present
62. Enzyme products are often a:

Competitive Inhibitor
63. The two compounds that are inhibitors of retinol dehydratase
Retinoic acid
Estradiol
64. In a Line Weaver-Burk plot, the +inhibitor and no inhibitor slopes have:
65. A target enzyme for nerve gases:
66. An intermidate that closes down the enzyme’s active site suggests which type of inhibition?
67. The membrane composition varies a lot with the cell types Myelm and Erythrocyte. The
protein composition in Myelm is:
carbohydrates composition in Myelm is:

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69. The membrane composition varies a lot with the cell types Myelm and Erythrocyte. The lipid
composition in Myelm is:
protein composition in Erythrocyte is:
carbohydrate composition in Erythrocyte is:
72. The membrane composition varies a lot with the cell types Myelm and Erythrocyte. The lipid
composition in Erythrocyte is:
73. Below is the general structure of phospholipids. Mark where the choline section is:
74. Phospholipids are termed:
75. The Fatty acid end of a phospholipid end is termed:

AMPHIPATHIC
76. An example of a steroid is:
Cholesterol
77. Outline a major class of membrane lipids:
Steroids
78. How many ring members in cholesterol?
5
79. Polar amino acids prefer which part of the membrane?
Outer membranes
80. Hydrophobic amino acids prefer which part of the membrane?
Inner membrane
81. Basic amino acids interact with which groups?
Phosphate groups
82. TM helixes are:
α-helces that cross the membrane
83. The protein’s Quarternary structure maybe important. Outline the INCORRECT STATEMENT.:
a. Atypical ion channel
b. Assembled from 5 district protein
c. Each molecule has 4 TM helices
d. The channel has 30 helices in total
84. The function of receptor proteins:

Allow a cell to receive signals without the signal molecule entering the cell
85. The function of channels and pores:
Allow chemical messengers to enter and leave the cell.
86. Select the statement about receptors that is FALSE:
87. Select the correct condition for receptors:

Fast equilibrium

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88. Outline the two natural ligands of a target receptor:

a. Adrenaline
b. Salbutamol
c. Noradrenaline
d. Xamoterol
89. Outline the CORRECT statements about nerve gases

a. Dyflos and Sarin are agents that activate the enzyme aceytlcholinesterase by
phosphorylating the serine residue in the active site.
b. Dyflos and Sarin are agents that inhibit the enzyme aceytlcholinesterase by
irreversibly phosphorylating the serine residue in the active site.
90. Outline the compound that is NOT a neurotransmitter:

a. Acetylcholine
b. Noradrenaline
c. Adrenaline
d. Dopamine
e. Glycine
f. Ca2+
91. Which statement about G-protein coupled receptors, is INCORRECT?

a. In the docking stage, the G-protein binding site is closed.
b. When the signal molecule has binded to the signalling binding site, it opens
(activates) the G-protein.
c. In G-protein activation the α-subunit exchanges GTP for GDP.
d. In G-protein activation the α-subunit separates from subunits β and γ.
e. The G-protein α-subunit is an Allosteric regulator of its enzyme.
92. Different G-proteins can switch their enzymes on or off. Which statements below are
CORRECT?
a. α6 stimulates adenylate cyclase
b. α4 stimulates adenylate cyclase
c. α5 stimulates adenylate cyclase
d. αi stimulates adenylate cyclase
e. αi inhibits adenylate cyclase
93. The function of Adenylate cyclase. Select two answers:

a. Converts cyclic AMP to ATP
b. Converts ATP to cyclic AMP
c. cAMP is the inhibitor for this cell
d. cAMP is the signal molecule

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94. Which statements are FALSE?

a. Receptors need one signal molecule, but can activate many G-proteins
b. Receptors don’t require a specific molecule and can activate many G-proteins
c. Enzymes don’t require a specific G-protein, and produce many cAMP molecules
d. Enzymes need one specific G-protein, but produce many cAMP molecules.
95. When an enzyme is switched off:

a. G-protein complex remains open.
b. G-protein complex breaks up when GTP is hydrolysed back into GDP.
c. G-protein complex breaks up when GDP is hydrolysed back into GTP.
d. G-protein complex self-destructs.
96. Outline the incorrect answer when G-proteins act as drug targets:
a. Activators
b. Peptides that mimic G-protein
c. Non-competitive inhibitors
d. Inhibitors
97. Outline the incorrect answer when receptors act as drug targets:
a. Antagonists
b. Agonists
c. Molecules that block the G-protein binding site
d. Non-competitive inhibitors
98. What is the name of proteins that destroy other proteins?

a. Ubiquitin
b. Flavonals
c. Tyrpsin
99. Outline the correct answer when enzymes act as drug targets:
a. Block the AS
b. Competitive inhibitors
c. Activators
d. Agonists
100. Bethanechol is a _________ compound:

a. Muscarnic agonist
b. Muscarnic antagonist
c. Nicotinic agonist
d. Nicotinic antagonist
101. The Function of Bethanechol:

a. To decrease smooth muscle tone in GI tract
b. To restart GI function

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c. Reduce blood pressure

d. Relax the muscles in the throat
102. Atropine is what type of compound?

103. Hyoscine is what type of compound?

104. Which molecule below is Hyoscine?
105. A lead compound extracted from deadly nightshade plant is:

a. Atropine
b. Hyoscine
c. Morphine
d. Heroin
106. A lead compound extracted from the thorn apple is:

a. Atropine
b. Hyoscine
c. Morphine
d. Heroin
107. Why are atropine and hyoscine antagonists?

a. Activate the cholinergic receptors
b. Unable to switch on cholinergic receptors
c. Unable to switch off cholinergic receptors

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108. Select the region where there are more interactions, than an acetylcholine
compound, with the receptor: Allows, is the molecule a competitive or non-competitive
inhibitor?
109. Propantheline chloride is an:

a. Agonist for Nicitonic receptors
b. Antagonist for Muscarnic receptors
c. Agonist for Muscarnic receptors
d. Antagonist for Nicitonic receptors
110. In antagonist structure activity relationships, the large acyl group has to be either
_____ or _____ and _____ for maximum activity. Fill in the blanks.
a. T shaped
b. R shaped
c. Round
d. Flat
e. Y shaped
f. X shaped
g. Water soluble
h. Ionised
111. An example of an nicotinic antagonist:

a. Decamethonium
b. Suxamethonium
c. Hyoscine
d. Atropine
112. Select the INCORRECT statement: Acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, doesn’t make a

good drug because-
a. Limited penetration of the blood brain barrier, due to the ammonium salt
b. Peripheral enzymes degrade it quickly
c. Size of the molecule is too big for good interactions with the active site of
receptors
d. None of the above.
113. Circle which bonds would be easily hydrolysed:

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114. Name the intermidate above:

a. Acetylcholine
b. Atropine
c. Suxamethonium
d. Decamethonium
115. What is the main feature for a Decamethonium compound?

a. Aromatic rings
b. Alkyl chain
c. Ammonium salts
d. –OCH3
116. Inhibitors of acetylcholine:

a. Cholinesterase
b. Salbutamol
c. Anticholinesterases
d. Trypsin
117. The function of cholinesterase:

a. Lowers the level of Ach in the synapse via hydrolysis of Ach
b. Increase the level of Ach in the synapse via Ach inhibition
c. Acts as a nucleophile
118. Answers can be selected more than once: In the active site of cholinesterase, Serine
acts as an _______________. Histodine acts as a __________________ to transfer H + around
the active site. Water acts a ____________ and acetic acid leaves.
a. Nucleophile (1st and 3rd)
b. Base
c. Acid and Base (2nd)

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d. Inhibitor
e. Antagonist
f. Agonist
g. Stimulator
119. Select the lead compound for anticholinesterase drugs:

a. Phystoigmine
b. Cholesterol
c. Psyotigmaine
d. Salbutamol
120. This molecule below is extracted from the Calabar bean from West Africa. Select
which N atom is protonated in an aqueous solution:
121. The molecule in the previous question. Circle the Carbamate group:
122. The molecule in the previous question. If an alkyl group is added in the circled rejoin,
what effect would this have on the compound?
a. Molecule becomes active against acetylcholine
b. Molecule becomes prone to being protonated more easily
c. Molecule becomes inactive

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123. Circle the section of the molecule that is important for the reactivity of the
carbamate:
124. Select the analogue, for the molecule in the previous question, that can pass the
blood brain barrier:
a. Eseroline
b. Dopamine
c. Naloxane
d. Miotine
125. Which compound below is a purified form of opium?

a. Heroin
b. Codeine
c. 3-Monoacetlymorphine
d. 6-monoacetlymorphine
e. Morphine
126. Which opiate is used in medicine as an analgesic and a cough depressant?

a. Morphine
b. Codeine
c. Heroin
d. Naloxane
127. The metabolism of codeine:

a. No formation of morphine produced
b. Large formation of morphine produced
c. Small formation of morphine produced
d. Formation of heroin produced
128. Which opiate persists in the body longer?

a. Morphine
b. Heroin
c. Codeine

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129. 6-monoacetylmorphine is conclusive evidence of the usage of which other opiate?

a. Codeine
b. Heroin
c. Morphine
130. Select the least reactive metabolite of Heroin?

a. 3-monoacetylmorphine
b. 6-monoacetylmorphine
c. Morphine
131. Heroin to 6-monoacetylmorphine involves which reaction below?

a. Hydrolysis
b. Decarboxylation
c. Deacetylation
d. Acetylation
132. 6-monoacetylmorphine to Morphine involves which reaction below?

a. Hydrolysis
b. Decarboxylation
c. Deacetylation
d. Acetylation
133. Morphine to 3-monoacetylmorphine involves which reaction below?

a. Hydrolysis
b. Decarboxylation
c. Deacetylation
d. Acetylation
134. 3-monoacetylmorphine to Heroin involves which reaction below?

a. Hydrolysis
b. Decarboxylation
c. Deacetylation
d. Acetylation
135. Select the INCORRECT side effect of Morphine

a. Constipation
b. Euphoria
c. Nausea
d. Pupil constriction
e. Depression of the respiratory centre
f. Diarrhea

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136. Opiates are generally what sort of shape?

a. T
b. Y
c. R
d. L
137. Codeine is a ________:

a. Catalyst
b. Enzyme
c. Prodrug
d. Agonist
138. Which organ converts codeine to morphine?

a. Kidney
b. Pancreas
c. Small intestine
d. Liver
139. Morphine or Heroin is less water soluble?

Heroin
140. General structure for opiates. In drug extension, when R 2 = Me, Et or Pr, It becomes
more agonist or antagonist?
141. When R2 = Bu, the activity of the compound will be?

a. Extremely high
b. Low
c. Zero
d. Fuck her right in the pussy
142. When R2 = Pentyl or Hexyl, the compound becomes more agonist or antagonist?
143. Opoid antagonists:

a. Methadone
b. Diamorphine
c. Naltrexone
d. Buprenorphine
144. Opoid agonist

a. Naloxane
b. Naltrexone
c. Morphine
d. Nalbuphine

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145. Define an agonist
146. Define an antagonist
147. There a three basic stages in finding a new drug. Select the CORRECT stage below:
a. Find lead compound, determine pharmacophore and synthesize a candidate and
optimise physical properties
b. Find catalyst, determine its structure via HNMR and IR and optimise physical
properties
c. Really nigga, you think I can come up with other potential answers?
148. Select a lead compound for a local anaesthetic:

a. Morphine
b. Dopamine
c. Cocaine
d. Glycine
149. Analogues for the lead compound above are listed below. Outline the ODD one out:
a. Procaine
b. Pethidine
c. Piperocaine
d. Phenzaocine
150. Circle the pharmacophore in the cocaine and procaine structures:

Cocaine
151. Procaine

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152. Metabolism of cocaine affords two common metabolites, shown below. Which
enzymes are involved in cocaine metabolism?
a. Cytochrome P450
b. Ester protease
c. Esterase
d. Trypsin
153. Define Isosteres:

a. Atoms or groups of atoms which share the same valency and which only have
chemical similarities.
b. Atoms or groups of atoms which share the same valency and which have chemical
or physical similarities.
c. Atoms or groups of atoms which share the same valency and which only have
physical similarities.
d. Groups of atoms which only share the same valency.
154. Define Classical Isosteres:

a. Atoms, ions and molecules that had identical outer shells of electrons.
b. Atoms, ions and molecules that have the exact same physical properties.
c. Atoms, ions and molecules that had the exact same chemical properties.
d. None of the above.
155. Match the correct classical isosteres together:
O O O O
C N O S
H2 H
C N
H
156. Select the compounds that are Bioisosteres:

a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine

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c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine
157. Select the compounds that are Isosteres:

a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine
158. Which compound below is used as a drug in the treatment towards glaucoma?
a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine
159. Which compound below is a H2-receptor antagonist and used in treatment of

ulcers?
a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine
160. Which compound is a Human sex hormone?

a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine
161. Which compound is an a1-adrenergic agonist and a Decongestant (used to relieve

nasal congestion)?
a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol

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d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine
162. Which compound is an Analgesic compound?

a. Aminophenazone
b. Phenylephrine
c. Estradiol
d. Cimetidine
e. Procaine
f. Muscarine
163. The function of Isosteres. Identify the ODD one out:

a. Modification of a lead compound
b. Change of the chemical/physical properties
c. Retain the desired biological activity
d. All answers are correct.
164. The function of Bioisosteres. Identify the ODD one out:

a. Modification of a lead compound
b. Change of the chemical/physical properties
c. Retain the desired biological activity
d. All answers are correct.
165. Molecules unable to cross the cell membrane of the gut are:
a. Too polar and hydrophilic
b. Too hydrophilic
c. Too hydrophobic
166. Molecules that are dissolved in fat globules in the gut and are poorly absorbed are:
a. Too polar and hydrophilic
b. Too hydrophilic
c. Too hydrophobic

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167. Select which compound below is the most lipophilic molecule:
168. Tioconazole is an antifungal agent, and is used only for skin infections. Therefore this
compound is:
a. Too non-polar
b. Too polar
169. Another compound with the same function as Tioconazole via alterations in its
structure i.e. Adding/removing polar functional groups to modulate the polarity. Select the
compound used:
a. Fluconazole
b. Enalaprilat
c. Hexobarbitone
d. Nordazepam
170. Procaine is a good local anaesthetic drug, however its duration is the body is very
short. Which other compound can be used for this purpose, but is longer lasting?
a. Piperocaine
b. Lidocaine
c. Adrenaline

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171. Define pro-drug:

a. Compounds that are inactive in themselves but which can be converted into active
drugs in the body.
b. Compounds that are immediately active drugs when they’re placed into the body.
c. None of the above.
172. Outline the compound that is NOT a prodrug:

a. Enalaprilat
b. Codeine
173. What maybe the problem with a drug that consists of carboxylic acids?
a. Too hydrophobic
b. Too many H bond interactions
c. Too many ionic bond formations
d. Too polar
174. Define Phase I

a. Conjugation reactions
b. Interconversion of Functional groups
c. Addition of solubilising groups
175. Define Phase II

a. Conjugation reactions
b. Interconversion of Functional groups
c. Addition of solubilising groups
176. Aromatic hydroxylation reactions are _______ dependant:

a. ATP
b. NADH
c. NAD+
d. GTP
177. Benzene in an aromatic hydroxylation reaction produces which compound below?

a. Phenol
b. Methanoic acid
c. Ethanol
d. Benzoic acid

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178. NADH is a:
a. Reducing agent
b. Oxidising agent
c. Cofactor
d. Electron carrier
179. Which mechanism is when a compound is very reactive towards nucelophiles?

a. Aromatic hydroxylation
b. Aliphatic hydroxylation
c. Epoxidation
d. Dealkylation
180. Dealkylation is an _________ process:

a. Hydrolysis
b. Oxidative
c. Reductive
181. Which mechanisms produces Di-ols?

a. Aromatic hydroxylation
b. Aliphatic hydroxylation
c. Epoxidation
d. Dealkylation
182. Imidazole can undergo either hydrolysis or oxidation. If it undergoes oxidation it

produces:
a. (R) Enantiomer
b. (S) Enantiomer
183. Outline the interactions this molecule can have:

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184. Which sort of enzymes help metabolise Phase II transformations?

a. Hydrolysis
b. Oxidative
c. Reductive
d. Transferase
185. Correct structure of amino acids are:

a. Zwitter ion
b. Neutral compounds
186. Condensation reaction with amino acids produces:

a. Esters
b. Amides
c. Alcohols
d. Carboxylic acids
187. Glutathione is which type of peptide?

a. Dipeptide
b. Monopeptide
c. Tripeptide
188. Glutathione acts as _______________ during a conjugation reaction:

a. A Nucleophile
b. An electrophile
c. Enzyme
d. Inhibitor
189. Irreversible inhibitors form which bond to their active site?

a. Ionic
b. Hydrogen
c. Covalent
d. Dipole-Dipole
190. An example of an irreversible inhibitor is?

a. Heroin
b. Penicillin
c. Salbutamol
d. Ethanol
191. Function of that irreversible inhibitors with bacteria?

a. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
b. Inhibit DNA synthesis
c. Inhibit Ribosome synthesis

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192. Which enzyme is inhibited by this irreversible inhibitor?

a. Trypsin
b. Transpeptidase
c. Badbitchesaremyfuckingproblemase
193. Oxidation reaction with Ethanol to Ethanoic acid. What is the coenzyme in this
reaction?
a. Alcohol Dehydrogenase
b. NADH + H+
c. NAD+
d. NADH
194. In reduction reaction, which compound is used?

a. NaBH4
b. AgCl
c. NO2
195. Agonisits resemble:

a. Uncompetitive inhibitors
b. Competitive inhibitors
196. Outline the incorrect ion channel protein in metabolism?

a. Na+
b. K+
c. Ca2+
d. Cl-
e. Mg2+
197. Function of ion channel proteins:

a. Allow electrons to cross the membrane
b. Allow ions to cross the membrane
c. Allow proteins to cross the membrane
198. Which ion pump is ATP dependant?

a. Na+
b. K+
c. Ca2+
d. Cl-

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199. Ion channels use ______ to cross the membrane:

a. GTP
b. TM helices
c. ATP
d. NADH
200. There are two components in ion channels. They are:

a. The Filter and The Gate
b. The Filter and The Rolo
c. TheShortyburingonthedancefloor
201. Which filter requires an abundance of energy to remove water ligands?

a. Na+
b. Cl-
c. Ca2+
d. K+
202. Only K+ ions allow which other ions to pass through?

a. Na+
b. Cl-
c. Ca2+
d. K+
203. The GATE can be categorised into two different groups:

a. Voltage Gate
b. Ligand Gate
c. Electron Gate
d. Proton Gate
204. How is the Voltage Gate triggered?

a. Triggered by changes in membrane potential
205. How is the Ligand Gate triggered?

b. Triggered by changes in chemical messengers (ie. Neurotransmitters)
206. K+ is an example of which Gate?

c. Voltage
207. AChr does NOT allow which ions to pass?

a. K+
b. Na+
c. Ca2+
d. Cl-

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208. Which toxin plugs the K+ channel?

d. Spider venom
e. Snake venom
f. Scorpion venom
g. Nicki Minaj
209. Which toxins affect AChr’s?

a. Snake venom
b. Scorpion venom
c. Spider venom
d. Nicki Minaj
210. Which β-agonists is used to treat asthma?

a. Isoprenaline
b. Adrenaline
c. Noradrenaline
d. Salbutamol
211. Salbutamol is an analogue of which compound?

a. Isoprenaline
b. Adrenaline
c. Noradrenaline
212. α receptor activation causes:

a. Smooth Muscle Contraction
b. Smooth Muscle Relaxation
213. β receptor activation causes:

a. Smooth Muscle Contraction
b. Smooth Muscle Relaxation (except the heart)
214. Which enzyme metabolises Salbutamol in the body by removing the –OH bond with
MeO- bond?
a. COMT
b. Cytochrome P450
c. Kinase
d. None above
215. A strong inhibitor of ACE:
a. Captopril
216. Adrengeric agonists treat:

b. Asthma, β2 Smooth muscle relaxation

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217. Adrengeric antagonists treat:

c. Blood pressure, heart rate

Medicinal Chemistry MCQ Tutorial

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Tutorial work, 217 questions and answers - MCQ's

Medicinal Chemistry (Northumbria University)

StuDocu no está patrocinado ni avalado por ningún colegio o universidad.

Medicinal Chemistry MCQ’s

1. Amino acids are joined together via which bond?

4. The amino acid has little to no influence on protein structure:

5. Which amino acid doesn’t show hydrophobic characters?

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6. Amino acids form from:

7. Genetic diseases e.g cystic fibrosis often occur in:

8. Different sequences can be compared by a sequence alignment. Which statement is true in

9. The protein secondary structure has four elements:

11. Outline the correct residues that disrupt the α-helix:

12. Which arrangement in the β-sheet is prefered?

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14. Give another name for tertiary protein structure:

15. Tertiary proteins are in:

17. What is an enzyme?

18. What’s a catalyst

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20. Which catalyst is present to convert cis amides to trans amides?

21. Outline the CORRECT statement:

22. Enzymes lower the _________:

23. Which is the most effective catalyst for Amide hydrolysis?

24. What class do Cytochromes belong in?

25. What class do Kinases belong in?

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26. What class do Proteases belong in?

27. What class do Dehydratases belong in?

28. What class do Topoisomerases belong in?

29. What class do DNA ligases belong in?

30. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Cytochromes?

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31. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Kinases?

32. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Proteases?

33. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Dehydratases?

34. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of Topoisomerases?

35. What type of reaction occurs in the presence of DNA lignases?

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36. Cytochrome P450’s carry out which reaction with drugs?

37. Cytochrome P450’s are inhibited by:

38. Function of Kinases are:

40. Which type of enzyme if over-active can lead to cancer?

41. Cancer can occur due to:

42. Trypsin is a _______ enzyme:

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43. Which statement is false?

44. Which enzyme below is ATP dependant?

45. Which enzyme below is NOT a good drug target?

46. Which enzyme below is an important drug target?

47. Area of expression is controlled by:

48. Define Induced fit:

49. Name of the enzyme that removes water from retinol

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52. Amino acid functions to retinol are: (Select two)

53. Fill in the blanks:

55. In the Line Weaver-Burk plot, when 1/[S]= 0, [S]=?

58. Which statement is FALSE:

59. Definition of Competitive Inhibitor

62. Enzyme products are often a:

65. A target enzyme for nerve gases:

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