Answer with Explanation

Date 11/04/2018
1 Match the following:

a Genetic diversity 1. Combination of communities of living things with the

physical environment
b Species diversity 2. Diversity within species
c Ecological diversity 3. Different species that are represented in a given community

Select the correct answer using the following Code:

(A) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3
(B) a - 1, b - 3, c - 2
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(C) a - 2, b - 3, c - 1
(D) a - 3, b - 2, c - 1

Ans: (C)

2 Consider the following statements:

1. Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles
2. Species diversity decreases as we move higher altitude in mountain ecosystem

Which of the above mentioned statements is/are Correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

Species diversity decreases as we move towards the poles, because: (i) Temperature
decreases and conditions become harsh. (ii) Both the amount and intensity of solar
radiation decreases. (iii) Vegetation decreases. (iv) Less resources available to support
species. Speciation is generally a function of time and environmental stability, so if
conditions are too harsh, it is difficult for the species to survive and adapt. This results in
decrease in biodiversity towards the poles.

3 Consider the following:

1. Habitat loss and fragmentation

2. Over-exploitation
3. Alien species invasions
4. Co-extinctions

Which of the above mentioned factors are responsible for loss of biodiversity?

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(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans:(D)

Explanation:

Reasons for loss of biodiversity habitat destruction, climate change, invasive species,
pollution, human overpopulation and over-harvesting.

4 Consider the following Statements regarding ‘Keibul lamjao National Park’:

1. It is an integral part of Loktak lake and also the only floating National Park in the
world.
2. The animal species conserved here is the endangered ‘Brow-antlered deer’ or Sangai.
3. The national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials
locally called ‘phumdis’.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

Keibul Lamjao is probably the world's only 'floating' sanctuary that comprises 40 sq. km.
of wetland overgrown with 1.5 m. deep floating vegetation (called phumdi). The fauna
in the park is also rare and unique. The area is home to the endangered brow-antlered
deer or sangai.

5 Consider the following statements with regards to Indian Biodiversity:

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1. India is composed of two realms, one is Himalayan region and other sub-continent
region.
2. India has 5 different biomes including Coniferous and Alpine meadows Biomes.
3. Further, Indian Biodiversity is classified into 10 Bio-geographic zones and 25 Bio-
geographic provinces.

Which of the above mentioned statements is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only

Ans: (A)

Explanation:

India Represents: Two realms - the Himalayan region represented by Palearctic Realm
and the rest of the sub-continent represented by Malayan Realm.

The five biomes of India are: 1) Tropical Humid Forests 2) Tropical Dry or Deciduous
Forests (including
Monsoon Forests 3) Warm deserts and semi-deserts 4) Coniferous forests and 5) Alpine
meadows.

Indian represents Ten Bio-geographic Zones and Twenty five Bio-geographic provinces

6 Consider the following:

1. Continental drifting

2. Hunting

3. Climate change

4. Invasion of new species

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Which of the above mentioned are the reasons for Species extinction

(A) 1 and 4 only

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

Natural causes: continent drifting, climate change, tectonic activity and increased
volcanic activity. The late Ordovician global glaciations (439,, Mya). The late Cretaceous
extinction assumed to be associated with an extra-terrestrial impact.

Artificial Extinction: direct causes - such as hunting, collection or capture and

persecution

Indirect causes - such as habitat loss, modification and fragmentation and the
introduction of invasive species.

7 Consider the statements given:

Assertion: In India, majority of sea grass are found in South east coast and lagoons of
Lakshadweep.

Reason: It grows abundantly in water with high salinity and clear surface.

Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

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(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

Ans: (A)

Explanation:

Major Sea grass meadows in India occur along the south east coast of Tamil Nadu and in
the lagoons of a few Lakshadweep Islands. There are few grass beds around Andaman
and Nicobar islands also. The rich growth of seagrasses along the Tamil Nadu coast and
Lakshadweep islands is mainly due to high salinity, clarity of the water and sandy
substratum.

8 What are the major reasons for Birds migration?

1. To overcome adverse climatic conditions

2. To manage food and water shortage

3. For breeding

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

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Reasons for migration 1. To avoid adverse factors (extreme climatic condition) 2. To
manage food shortage 3. To manage shortage of water 4. To have a better breeding
conditions 5. Less competition for safe nesting places.

9 Consider the following statement regarding Olive Ridley turtles:

1. It is primarily found in cold Atlantic and Arctic oceans

2. Under IUCN, it is listed under critically endangered species

Which of the above mentioned statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

The olive ridley sea turtle also known as Lepidochelys olivacea, or the Pacific ridley sea
turtle, is a medium-sized sea turtle found in warm and tropical waters, primarily in the
Pacific and Indian Oceans. They can also be found in warm waters of the Atlantic Ocean.
According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(IUCN), the olive ridley turtle is classified as Vulnerable. It is also listed in Appendix I of
CITES.

10 Consider the following:

1. Fishes

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2. Amphibians

3. Reptiles

4. Aves

Which of the above mentioned are cold blooded animals?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (A)

Explanation:

Aves and Mammals are warm blooded

11 Which of the following are the features of UDAN scheme:

1. The UDAN Scheme seeks to develop new airports in relatively developed citie
2. The scheme will be implemented on market based mechanism under which airlines
will bid for seat subsidies
3. At least half the seats on every flight should have a fare cap of Rs2500 per seat per
hour of flying

Choose the correct answer from the given code:

A: 1 and 2 only
B: 1 and 3 only
C: 3 only

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D: 2 and 3 only

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The UDAN scheme seeks to provide connectivity to un-served

and under-served airports of the country through revival of existing air-strips and airports.
It does not develop new airports.

Statement 2 is correct: Under it regional connectivity will be developed on market-based

mechanism under which Airlines will bid for seat subsidies.

Statement 3 is correct: To get more people to fly in the smaller towns at least half the
seats on every flight should have a fare cap of Rs2,500 per seat per hour of flying.

12 Consider the following statements regarding Draft space Activities bill,2017:

1. The Central Government will formulate the appropriate mechanism for licensing,
eligibility criteria, and fees for license to carry out commercial space activity.
2. The Bill encourages the participation of non-governmental/private sector agencies
in space activities in India.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1 Only
(B) 2 Only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A non-transferable licence shall be provided by the Central

Government to any person carrying out commercial space activity.

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The Central Government will formulate the appropriate mechanism for licensing,
eligibility criteria, and fees for license. The government will maintain a register of all space
objects (any object launched or intended to be launched around the earth) and develop
more space activity plans for the country.

Statement 2 is correct: The new Bill encourages the participation of non-

governmental/private sector agencies in space activities in India under the guidance and
authorisation of the government through the Department of Space. According to the
draft, as few start-up companies in India have shown interest in space systems activities
and as space activities need participation from private sector agencies, “there is an urgent
need for a legal environment for orderly performance and growth of space sector.”

13 Which of the following is the objective of Niryat Bandhu Scheme:

(A) To provide social security to labourers in Construction Industry

(B) To protect plantation growers from the risks such as pest attacks, yield loss and
income decline caused by fall in prices
(C) To mentor potential exporters through orientation programs
(D) It is a self certification scheme for new Startups

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

The objective of the Niryat Bandhu Scheme is to reach out to the new and potential
exporters and mentor them through orientation programs, counselling sessions,
individual facilitation, etc., for being able to get into international trade and boost exports
from India.

14 Consider the following statements:

1. Right to Information is an implicit right under Article 19 of the constitution

2. Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005 which mandates timely response to
citizen requests for government information by public authorities as well as union
and state governments
3. Courts are exempted from the RTI Act

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Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) 1 and 2 Only

(B) 2 and 3 Only
(C) 1 Only
(D) 2 Only

Ans: (D)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Right to Information is an implicit right under Article 21 of the

constitution.

Statement 2 is correct: Right to Information Act (RTI) was enacted in 2005 which
mandates timely response to citizen requests for government information by public
authorities as well as union and state governments. RTI specifies information is required
to be published within 120 days of the notification of the Act in respect of the items listed
therein.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Courts are covered under the act .Court has highlighted Right
To Information (RTI) Act would not override the Supreme Court Rules (SCR), when it
comes to dissemination of information. Court emphasised that the judicial functioning of
the supreme court of India is separate/ independent from its administrative functioning.
Consequently, for administrative functioning of the Supreme Court, information can be
provided under the RTI Act. And for judicial functioning of the Supreme Court, the
Supreme Court Rules is the mechanism. It is thus argued that the Supreme Court Rules
are inconsistent with the RTI Act. Delhi High Court recently held that RTI Act could not
be resorted to in case the information sought for is related to judicial function of the
Supreme Court.

15 Consider the following statements regarding BHARATNET Project:

4. In first phase, one lakh gram panchayats would be provided Internet connectivity
5. In Phase two, All gram panchayats would be provided Internet connectivity

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6. In Phase three, future proof network, including fiber between districts and blocks
would be created .

Choose the correct answer from the given code:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 only
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under the first phase, one lakh gram panchayats would be
provided connectivity by laying underground optic fiber cable (OFC) lines by March 2017.
This phase is nearing its completion.

Statement 2 is correct: Under the second phase, connectivity will be provided to all
2,50,500 gram panchayats in the country. It is to be completed by December 2018.

Statement 3 is correct: Under the third phase from 2018 to 2023, state-of-the-art, future-
proof network, including fiber between districts and blocks would be created.

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