2.The Latin word “ investigare” simply means as?

a. To search into b. To Track c. To trace d. To identify

3.What case in USA US supreme court established procedural guidelines for taking criminal confession?
a. Miranda vs. Arizona b. People vs. Jennings c. Mapp vs.Ohio d. Galit vs. State
4. USA Supreme court ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in state criminals prosecution
and was established in what case?
a. Miranda vs. Arizona b. People vs. Jennings c. Mapp vs. Ohio d. Galit vs. State
5. Which of the following conducts a preliminary search of the area of the crime to determine if the
suspect is still present?
a. Land man b. Patrol Officer c. Investigator d. Police Officer
6. What is that written report usually prepared by the patrol officer concerning about the crime?
a. incident or complaint report b. progress report c. preparatory report d. any of the
above
7. What is the general guideline in photographing a scene when the photographer is in doubt that the
evidence or item is important or not?
a. Leave it b. Take a photo c. Re examine d. Collect photo
8.What’s the concept behind why completeness is a must in investigational report?
a. Since complete facts will only tell part of the story and may create a true picture in the mind.
b. Since partial facts will only tell the whole story and may create a false picture in the mind.
c. Since partial facts will only tell part of the story and may create a false picture in the mind.
d. Sine partial facts will only create story and may bring doubt.
9. Refers to a statement or story given by a person who does not actually witness or experience the
occurrence?
a. Hearsay b. False reassurance c. false testimony d. Prejury
10. Is the locale within immediate vicinity of the occurrence wherein evidence may be found?
a. crime scine b. crime csene c. crime scene d. crime scien
11. Kind of investigative reasoning in the crime scene that starts from general to specific?
a. Deductive b. inductive c. inducement d. Deductant
12. It is defined as the graphic representation of the scene of the crime with complete measurement of
the relative distance of relevant object and conditions obtaining therein?
a. Sketch b. skitch c. sketch d. skecht
13. It is an element of the finished sketch and it is the portion of sketch to the actual size or measurement
at the scene?
a. Measurement b. Title c. Compass Direction d. scale of proportion
14. No matter what instance in the crime scene, what is the paramount concern of the investigator?
a. Preservation of human life c. Containment of the crime scene
b. Collection of evidence d. All of the above
15. It is defined as the assessment made by the investigator after the crime scene investigation, of how
crime is committed?
a. Crime Scene Processing c. Crime report
b. Crime analysis d. reconstructing the crime
16. Is the primary reason for incomplete case folder?
a. Lack of documentation of the case under investigation
b. Improper documentation of the case under investigation
c. Doubtful documentation of the case under investigation
d. Significant documentation of the case under investigation
17. If refers to the number of person who handled and posses the pieces of evidence the moment that
they were inflected , marked and tagged up to the time the final disposition of the case?
a. Rapport b. Chain of Custody c. Cognitive interview d. Tracing
18. It is a necessary step in order to preserve the crime scene.
a. Collect evidence as possible
b. Defer other people from entering the scene
c. Isolation of the scene
d. Control the surrounding crowd
19. Is a series of question directed to one of the parties in the case by the other party?
a. Interrogation b. interrogatory c. interview d. Procedure
20.In this method, the sketch is drawn so that the ceiling, floor and walls are on one surface, as if on took
a box, lifted top, cut the four corners and flattened it all out.
a. Cross projection method b. Compass point c. Triangulation d. rectangular
21. The best search applicable for bombing incident is?
a. Strip b. Radial c. Zone d. Wheel
22. These are the police files of photograph of known criminals and maybe directly taken by the police or
those gather other sources to form part of the police gallery?
a. Documents File b. Rogues Gallery c. Case Folder d. Cartographic Sketch
23. It is the composite representation reduced to a drawing of the suspects face made by an artist and
based on the descriptions furnished by the witness?
a. Document File b. Rogues Gallery c. Case Folder d. Cartographic sketch
24. How can a photograph of the crime scene or pieces of evidence be admissible in court?
a. If it reconstructs the crime scene
b.If it aids the investigator searching properly
c. Accurately depicts the crime scene or items
d. It concludes the nature of the crime committed
25. What is the general rule in criminal investigation that must be followed with respect to blood
collection?
a. Let it dry first before package for transportation to laboratory
b. Cut it first before package for transportation to laboratory
c. Let it dry first after package for transportation to laboratory
d. Cut it first after package for transportation to laboratory
26. What must be the first consideration of an investigator before meeting up or approach the information
for obtaining information?
a. It must be guarded b. it must be planned c.It must be public d it must be in private
27. It is an agreement between the prosecution and the defense that is advantageous to the defendant?
a. Community service b. Mitigating Liability c. Plea-bargaining d.marking of evidence
28. Is the clandestine observation of person, places and objects?
a. Surveillance b. Tailing c. Fixed point d. Moving up
29. A tailing employed when a general impression of the subjects habits and associates is required?
a. Loose Tail b. Close Tail c. Rough Shadowing d. Short Tail
30. Is frequently averred to be the lifeblood of the investigation?
a. Interview b.Information c. Instrumentation d. Interrogation
31. A person who gives information through telephone with the hope that the informant cannot be
identified?
a. Double Crosser b. Anonymous c. Mercenary d. False
32. It the stage wherein the police begin to focus on the guilt of the suspect and the suspect is taken into
custody or of his/her freedom of action in any substantial manner?
a. Custodial Interrogation b.Interrogation c.Interview d. Custodial investigation
33. A term that refers to the use of torture to obtain confessions?
a. Pain b. First of giant c. Slug d. Third degree
34. An undercover assignment wherein it is a place of amusements and other places of entertainment
where his subjects ?
a. social assignment c. Residential assignment
b. Work assignment d. All of the above
35. Information sources furnished by the informants of informers?
a. Regular sources b. Cultivated source c. Grapevine Source d. all of the above
36. In a certain murder case, the watch of the suspect was accidentally left at the crime scene . Such
object can be justified in what kind of physical evidence?
a. Associative evidence b. Corpus Delicte c. Tracing evidence d.Positive
evidence
37. If refers to the act of one who murder his wife?
a. Uxoricide b. Paricide c. Murder d. Homicide
38. As to what extent that a witnesses may be able to tell the investigator and court on the account of
their observation?
a. Its his ability to imagine
 b. base on how intelligent the witness is
c. Base on how a witness could perceive
d. If the witness had good memory recall
39. What should be the first step that needs to be taken upon arrival at the scene where there is injured
person found.
a. Arrange for medical attention for identification and removal
b. Wait for the medico legal officer to arrive at the scene
c. Call the attention of the morgue for proper transfer
d. all of the above
40. How will the investigator deal for those possible witnesses present at the scene?
a. Locate their possible address to avoid escape
b. Record their names and separate them
c. identify and place them under arrest
d. Call the investigator for interrogation
41. What is the purpose of conducting preliminary questioning of witnesses, suspects and victim/s?
a. To avoid bias against the suspect
b. To determine as to what extent the crime is
c. To pronounce the innocence of the accused
d. To reconstruction the scene promptly
42. When should the investigator begin the process of recording pertinent facts and details of the
investigation?
a. At the moment he arrives at the scene
b. After the call from responding ambulance
c. Before he will make the final report
d. Before he conduct investigation to the person suspected
43. It is relation between the interview and the interviewee which is conductive to a fruitful result?
a. Rapport b. Raport c. Rapurt d. Rappurt
44. Stage in handling interview wherein the subject is asked to narrate his account without interruption,
intervention, or ?
a. Cognitive interview b. Field inquiry c. Filed Inquiry d. Interrogation
45. This is the uncooperative and indifferent type subject or witness?
a. Drunken type b. Know- nothing type c. Honest Type d. Disinterested type
46. When shall an interview be conducted to a witness concerning the crime matter considering the
importance of time?
a. As soon as possible after the commission of the crime
b. As soon as the investigation is initiated
c. When all relevant facts are gathered personally
d. If the accused is already identified for prosecution
47. Whats the purpose of determining the basis each statement the subject says?
a. To provide the accurate conviction
b. To result in the arrest of the suspect
c. To know whether it is hearsay or not
d. The determine the goal of the subject
48. A type of question which suggest to a witness an answer which the interview desires?
a. Leading question c. Misleading question
b. Elicitation d. Eavesdropping
49. Questions which assume material facts that have not been proven?
a. Bugging c. Leading question
b. Misleading question d. Elicitation
50. A catch-all category that would encompass a number of diverse situations where some kind of
emergency makes attaining search warrant impractical, useless dangerous or unnecessary?
a. Exceptional Circumstances c. Exclusion circumstance
b. Explicit Circumstance d. Exigent circumstance
51. A carefully limited search of the outer clothing of such persons (Observed by a police officer as having
unusual ) in an attempt to discover weapons which might be used to assault him .
a. Stop and frisk rule b. Plain view doctrine c. Arrest Doctrine d. Miranda doctrine
52. Is a surprise invasion of building or area and is a small-scale attack of a limited territory?
a. Raid b. Ambush c. Attack d. Entrapment
53. Known as the WITNESS PROTECTION PROGRAM?
a. RA 8369 b. RA 9372 c. RA 9208 d. RA 6981
54. Under RA 6981 who are those person that could be admitted under this act?
a. Any person who has witnessed on the commission of a crime
b. Has Knowledge or information on the commission of a crime
c. Is testifying or about to testify before any judicial or quasi- judicial body
d. All of the above
55. What is the right of a person considered as a state witness?
a. Immunity from criminal accusation c.Immunity from criminal liabilities
b. Immunity from criminal participation d. Immunity from the criminal prosecution
56. Is an 18” x 12” logbook with hard-bound cover that contains the daily register of all crime incident
reports, official summary of arrest and other significant events reported in a police station?
a. Police record b. Police blotter c. Police log d.Police journal
57. If a call is received, which among the following is the first duty of any first responder?
a. File complaint or information immediately
b.Interview witnesses in the scene
c. Try to validate the information
d. Directly arrest suspected criminals
58. With regards to the procedure in taking arrest, where will we secure the handcuffing of the person
arrested?
a. Handcuff at the back c. Handcuff in the back
b. Handcuff at the front d. handcuff in the front
59. How do you call that substances designed to spread the fire?
a. Plant b. Accelerant c. Trailer d. Corrosive
60. What do you call that part of an extension ladder that touches the ground?
a. Rung b. Bed ladder c. Butt d. Heel
61. Which among the following is the LEAST consider when fire fighting is done and fire out is already
declared?
a. Established the point of origin c. Attend to injured person
b. Prepare the investigation report d. overhaul of the fire scene
62. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving high-rise building?
a. Attic b. Extension c. Aerial d. Hook
63. Ana, who after cleaning her house and identified that some appliances such as the refrigerator is no
longer functional, it to save space could be charge of?
a. Arson b. Destructive arson c. No liability d. Arson with destruction
64. Fire in different places of the same structure is an indication of;
a. Accidental fire b. Arson c. Consummated fire d. Explosion
65. The most common motive for arson is?.
a. Jealousy b. Profit c. Spite d. Revenge

66. Is the confession of the accused with respect to burning ones property tantamount to his conviction or
prove his guilt arson?
a. No, corpus delicti must established c. Yes, since he already admit guilt
b. No, it is only one evidence that needs corroboration d. yes, since it is a confession
voluntarily made
67. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
a. Inflammable substance found in the premises
b. Building insurance
c. Simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
d. Any of these
68. If fire occurs in a flow of liquefied petroleum gas storage tank and the flow cannot be checked. The
safest practice is to;
a. Use foam to put off the fire
b. Use fog to extinguish the fire
 c. Permit the fire to burn itself
d. Use sand to smother the flame
69. For what reason that water though considered as the universal compound use in fire fighting is not
recommended against the burning hotness of Class D fires?
a. It will not help stop the fire
b. it Allow the fire to grow more
c. It radiates fire to nearby surrounding
d. The water composition absorbs fire
70. During a conflagration, the smoke emitted is grayish, what does it indicate?
a. Presence of nitrate
b. Loosely packed substance such as straw and hay
c. Indicate humid substance
d. Presence of phosphorus
71. This provides early warning and facilities egress for responsive occupants faced with a fire
emergency, especially during sleeping hours.
a. Fire hydrant b. Fire device c. Smoke detector d.Evacuation
72.One of the following is exempted from paying 0.10% of the assessed value of a building.
a. Single Family dwelling b. Department store c Hospitals d. Schools
73. I a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is;
a. Smothering b. Fuel removal c. Cooling d. Dilution
74. One of the best approach when not to considered fighting a fire is that?
a. Fire hydrant is too far from the scene
b. Containment of fire is not yet done
c. Salvaging is the primary consideration
d. There is too much smoke around you
75. Which causes the greatest number of fire?
a. Spontaneous combustion b. Electrical wiring c.Leaking gas pipes
d. Smoking and matches
76. What is that fire method if searched equivalent to zone method?
a. Point to point search b. sector search c. concentric search d.Spoke search
77. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
a. Simultaneous fire c. Faulty electric wiring
b. unexplained explosion d. Thick reddish smoke
78. In a certain criminal case, the thing that must be proven and establish to sustain conviction is?
a. motive b. Will c. Intent d. Malice
79. What is the first law that punish the crime of arson?
a. RA 9614 b. PD 1613 c. PD 1185 d. Act 3815

80. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fire?

a. Burning metals are too hot
b. There is the danger of electrocution
c. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
d. Explosion may occur

81. Special aggravating circumstance in the crime of arson may be deemed considered among which of
the following?
a. A who burned his insured house
b. D who hates E since she was slapped in public
c B who knows that C will benefit from the burning
d. Any of the above

82. In international classification of fire, liquefied petroleum gas or liquefied natural gas. Etc belong to?
a. class E b. class A c. class C d. class B

83. What’s the highest rank classification in the bureau of fire and protection (BFP)?
a. Director General b. deputy director c. director d. chief superintendent
84. At least how many fire stations should be established in every provincial capital, city and municipality?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

85. the vehicle is the “extension” of the owners house is the intentional burning of a car by another
constitute arson?
a. no b.it depends c. yes d. sometimes
86. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is;
a.Arson with murder b. murder c. Arson . D.murder with arson
87. Is the existence of two fires involving the same building with insurance and with the same owner
constitute arson?
a. yes b. No c. Sometimes d. it depends
88. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been declared, the first thing that the medical team
must determine is?
a. look for survivors c. Established corpus delicti
b. Locate the point of origin d. Search for debris
89. Who shall have the appointing authority from fire chief superintendent to fore director?
a. Secretary DILG b.President c. Chairman, CSC d. Chairman,COA
90. The attestation of appointment among rank and file in the bureau of fire protection is vested upon?
a. Commission of Appointment c. Civil Service Commission
b. President d. Secretary of DILG
91. If the Cause of fire is accidental in nature, does it constitute prima facie of arson?
a. No b. Maybe c. it depends d. sometimes
92. What is the required rank of the deputy chief of the fire bureau?
a. Senior Superintendent b. chief Superintendent c. Superintendent d. deputy director
93. Why water should be avoided to quench class C fire?
a. Water is not capable of extinguishing the fire c. Water will spread the fire
b. Explosion may occur d.Danger of Electrocution
94. In a certain fire incident there will always be remains and debris as a result of the same. What is that
product of complete combustion?
a. Fire b. Pyrolysis c. Smoke d. Ashes
95. In order for arson to be deemed committed by a syndicate how many person must be involved?
a. 1 b.2 c.3 d.4