Module 15 Gas Turbine PDF

School of Aeronautics 1
CHAPTER - 1
FUNDAMENTALS
1. On an axial flow, dual compressor forward fan engine, b. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of
the fan turns the same speed as the the exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to
a. low pressure turbine.* drive the propeller and compressor with the rest
b. high pressure compressor. providing exhaust thrust.
c. forward turbine wheel. c. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively
small amount of acceleration to a large mass of
2. A turbo jet engine gives air.*
a. large acceleration to a small mass of air.*
b. large acceleration to a large weight of air. 10. As subsonic air flows through a convergent nozzle
c. small acceleration to a large mass of air. the velocity
a. decreases.
3. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main b. increases.*
sections: the cold section and the hot section c. remains constant.
a. The cold section includes the engine inlet,
compressor, and turbine sections. 11. In a twin spool compressor system, the first stage
b. The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, turbine drives the
and exhaust. a. N2 compressor.*
c. The hot section includes the combustor, turbine, b. N1 and N2 compressors.
and exhaust.* c. N1 compressor.
4. A jet engine derives its thrust by 12. At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the
a. drawing air into the compressor. highest gas pressures occur?
b. impingement of the propelling gases on the outside a. At the compressor outlet.*
air. b. At the turbine entrance.
c. reaction of the propelling gases.* c. Within the burner section.
5. Which of the following might be used to identify 13. Which of the following units are generally used to
turbine discharge pressure? measure aircraft noise?
a. Pt7.* b. Pt2. a. Effective perceived noise decibels (E P N d B).*
c. Tt7. b. Decibels (dB).
c. Sound pressure.
6. In a free turbine
a. there is a clutch between compressor and power 14. The diffuser section is located between
output shaft. a. the burner section and the turbine section.
b. there is a direct drive with a free-wheel unit. b. station No. 7 and station No. 8.
c. there is no mechanical connection with the c. the compressor section and the burner section.*
compressor.*
15. If the LP shaft shears
7. Bernoulli’s Theorem states that at any point in a flow a. turbine runaway occurs.*
of gas b. compressor overspeed occurs.
a. the static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal. c. compressor underspeed occurs.
b. the static pressure is less than the dynamic
pressure. 16. The term Pt7 means
c. the total energy remains constant.* a. pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
b. the total pressure at station No. 7.*
8. The working fluid of a gas turbine engine is c. the total inlet pressure.
a. gasoline. b. kerosene.
c. air.* 17. What section provides proper mixing of the fuel and
efficient burning of the gases?
9. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine a. Diffuser section and combustion section.
propulsion? b. Combustion section and compressor section.
a. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively c. Combustion section only.*
large amount of acceleration to a smaller mass of
air.
2 Module-15 (Gas Turbine Engine) , DGCA
18. Of the following, which engine type would most likely 28. A high bypass engine results in
have a noise suppression unit installed? a. overall slower airflow and greater propulsive
a. Turboprop. efficiency.*
b. Turbojet.* b. overall faster airflow.
c. Turboshaft. c. greater propulsive efficiency.
19. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a 29. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant
divergent nozzle a. temperature cycle. b. mass cycle.
a. decreases.* c. pressure cycle.*
b. increases.
c. is inversely proportional to the temperature. 30. In a choked nozzle, velocity increases, and
a. density decreases. b. pressure decreases
20. The symbol for designating the speed of a LP c. pressure increases.*
compressor in a twin spool engine is
a. N. b. NG. 31. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard
c. N1.* sea level temperature is
a. 29°C. b. 59°F.*
21. A turbojet engine is smoother running than a piston c. 59°C.
engine because
a. the lubrication is better. 32. Standard sea level pressure is
b. it runs at a lower temperature. a. 29.92 inches Hg.* b. 29.29 inches Hg.
c. it has no reciprocating parts.* c. 29.00 inches Hg.
22. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main 33. The highest pressure in a gas turbine is
sections? a. at the nozzle exit.
a. Compressor, diffuser, and stator. b. at the burner exit.
b. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.* c. just after the last compressor stage but before the
c. Turbine, combustion, and stator. burner.*
23. When a volume of air is compressed 34. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a
a. heat is gained. convergent nozzle
b. no heat is lost or gained.* a. remains constant.
c. heat is lost. b. increases.*
c. decreases.
24. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a
convergent nozzle 35. A turboprop engine derives its thrust by
a. increases. a. impingement of the prop-wash on the outside air.
b. remains constant. b. reaction of the prop-wash.
c. decreases.* c. reaction of the propulsion gases.
25. If a volume of a mass of air is 546 cubic feet at 273K, at 36. Adiabatic compression is
274K it will be a. an isothermal process.
a. 2 cubic feet greater.* b. one where there is an increase in kinetic energy.
b. 1/273 less by weight. c. one where there is no loss or gain of heat.*
c. 2 cubic feet smaller.
37. In a ducted fan engine, the fan is driven by the
26. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle a. turbine.*
located? b. air passing over the compressor.
a. Exhaust.* c. accessory gearbox.
b. Turbine.
c. Combustion. 38. A modular constructed gas turbine engine means that
a. all engines have a specific component layout.
27. Newton’s First Law of Motion, generally termed the b. the engine is constructed by the vertical assembly
Law of Inertia, states:. technique.
a. To every action there is an equal and opposite c. its major components can be removed and replaced
reaction. without disturbing the rest of the engine.*
b. Force is proportional to the product of mass and
acceleration. 39. The accessory gearbox of a high bypass engine is
c. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion a. on the HP Compressor housing.*
in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside b. in the forward bearing housing.
force.* c. attached to the turbine casing.
40. On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by? 50. In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system
a. I P turbine. b. LP turbine.* with a free power turbine, Nf would be an indication of
c. H P turbine. a. turbine thrust indication.
b. first stage compressor speed.
41. Which law relates to the kinetic, pressure, and potential c. free power turbine speed.*
energy in a fluid flow?
a. Bernoulli’s theorem.* 51. A waisted drive shaft is primarily to
b. Newton’s laws. a. achieve dynamic balance.
c. Charles’s law. b. reduce weight.
c. provide a fuse if the driven component is
42. The density of gas may be expressed as overloaded.*
a. volume/weight.
b. weight/volume.* 52. The ‘core engine’ or ‘gas generator’ is made up of the
c. pressure/volume. following components:
a. Inlet, compressor, combustion chamber, turbine,
43. ESHP is exhaust.
a. Horsepower/efficiency. b. Turbine, combustion chamber, compressor.*
b. Shaft horse power + exhaust efflux.* c. Compressor, turbine, exhaust, propelling nozzle.
c. Power available at the turbine less the power
required to drive the. 53. The principle of jet propulsion is.
a. the calorific value of fuel burnt is equal to aircraft.
44. A divergent duct will cause subsonic flow to decrease b. the interaction of fluids and gases.
in c. every action has a equal and opposite reaction.*
a. velocity, increase pressure.*
b. velocity, pressure remains constant. 54. Boyle’s law states that, at constant temperature, if a
c. pressure, increase velocity. gas is compressed
a. its absolute pressure is proportional to its volume.
45. The Brayton cycle is b. its absolute temperature is proportional to it’s
a. the name given to the intermittent cycling of an volume.
electrical de-icing system. c. its absolute pressure is inversely proportional to
b. the continuous combustion cycle taking place in a its volume.*
gas turbine engine.*
c. the constant velocity cycle taking place in a gas 55. What part of a jet engine has the most potential
turbine engine. energy?
a. Immediately after the combustion chamber.
46. The purpose of a diffuser is to b. Just before the combustion chamber.*
a. increase the kinetic energy of the air. c. Immediately after the HP compressor.
b. induce a swirl to the air prior to combustion.
c. increase the static pressure of the air.* 56. If turbine is a wheel which derives its energy from the
motion of fluid then gas turbine is
47. On a triple spool engine, the first stage of turbines a. Which uses any fluid for work.
drive b. Which uses only air as the fluid.
a. the LP compressor. c. Which uses product of combustion *.
b. the HP compressor.* d. Which uses all above.
c. the I P compressor.
57. Jet propulsion is
48. Ram effect is a. Equal and opposite reaction.
a. the increase of dynamic pressure at the face of the b. Expansion of gases.
compressor. c. Ejection of gas through a orifice of duct*.
b. conversion of static pressure to kinetic pressure at d. None of the above.
the face of the compressor.
c. conversion of kinetic energy to pressure energy at 58. The turbine engines are
the face of the compressor.* a. The turbo jet engines. b. The turbo - prop engines.
c. The turbo fan engine. d. Of all above types*.
49. Which of the following statements is true on a high
bypass ratio turbofan? 59. Gas turbine is a
a. Both the compressor and combustion system are a. Intermittent flow engine.
larger than their turbojet equivalent.* b. Continuous flow engines*.
b. The compressor assembly is larger and combustion c. Pulsation flow engine.
chamber smaller than their turbojet equivalent. d. None of the above.
c. Both the compressor and combustion chamber are
smaller than the turbojet equivalent.
60. Gas turbine engine process consists of a. 1, 2, 3. b. 1, 2.*

a. Compression, addition of heat and expansion*. c. 1, 3.
b. Compression, addition of heat and exit.
c. Induction, compression, addition of heat and 71. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main
exhaust. sections?
d. None of the above. a. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
b. Turbine, combustion, and stator.
61. Every force acting upon a body, there is a equal and c. Turbine. compressor, and combustion.*
opposite force is stated by
a. Sir Issac Newton*. b. Boyle's 72. What type blade is most commonly used in aircraft jet
c. Charles d. None of the above engines?
a. Reaction. b. Impulse.
62. PV / T is constant as per c. Impulse-reaction.*
a. Boyle's law b. Charle's law
c. Bernoullis Theorum d. Both a. and b.* 73. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air
density of a turbine engine?
63. In a steady flow through the variable cross section 1. Speed of the aircraft.
friction less tube, pressure can be increased at the 2. Compression ratio.
expense of velocity as per 3. Turbine inlet temperature.
a. Second law of motion. b. Bernoulli's theorem*. 4. Altitude of the aircraft.
c. Boyle's law. d. Charle's law. 5. Ambient temperature.
6. Turbine and compressor efficiency.
64. A body in motion posses momentum by virtue of its a. 1, 3, 6. b. 1, 4, 5.*
a. Shape and mass. b. Velocity and shape. c. 4, 5, 6.
c. Mass and velocity*. d. None of the above.
65. The rate at which distance is covered is known as 

a. Acceleration. b. Velocity *.
c. Momentum. d. None of the above.
66. Rate of change of velocity is known as

a. Momentum. b. Propulsive efficiency.
c. Acceleration*. d. Kinetic energy.
67. Energy possessed by a body on account of its motion

and is expressed in foot pound is known as
a. Velocity. b. Thermal energy.
c. Kinetic energy*. d. None of the above.
68. The total reaction force provided by the jet velocity is

a. Brake power. b. Thrust*.
c. Kinetic energy. d. None of the above.
69. The piston and gas turbine may be compared as

a. The process in piston engine is intermittent.
b. The process in gas turbine is continuous.
c. Piston displaces less mass at high pressure where
as GT compressor displaces large mass at low
pressures.
d. All above*
70. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine

propulsion?
1. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively
small amount of acceleration to a large mass of air.
2. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively
large amount of acceleration to a smaller mass of
air.
3. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of
the exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to
drive the propeller and compressor with the rest
providing exhaust thrust.
CHAPTER - 2
ENGINE PERFORMANCE
1. 'Ram effect' due to aircraft forward speed will cause 9. The highest heat to metal contact in a jet engine is the
the efficiency of the engine to a. burner cans.
a. remain constant. b. decrease. b. turbine inlet guide vanes.*
c. increase.* c. turbine blades.
2. The efficiency of a gas turbine engine at altitude 10. Which compressor type gives the greatest advantages
a. decreases. for both starting flexibility and improved high altitude
b. remains constant. performance?
c. increases.* a. Single spool, axial flow.
b. Dual stage, centrifugal flow.
3. Which statement is true regarding jet engines? c. Split spool, axial flow.*
a. At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases
rapidly with small increases in RPM.* 11. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of
b. At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly turbine engine operation?
with small increases in RPM. a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
c. The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is b. Burner can pressure.
less at high altitude. c. Turbine inlet temperature.*
4. Some turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped 12. At altitude, idling RPM is
with two spool or split compressors. When these a. same as at sea level.
engines are operated at high altitudes, the b. higher than at sea level.*
a. low pressure rotor will increase in speed as the c. lower than at sea level.
compressor load decreases in the lower density
air.* 13. Thrust
b. low pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the a. increases with high temperature.
compressor load decreases in the lower density b. increases with low temperature.*
air. c. decreases with low temperature.
c. throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding
of the high pressure rotor due to the lower density 14. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air
air. density of a turbine engine?
a. Altitude of the aircraft, Ambient temperature.*
5. 'Ram effect' due to aircraft forward speed will cause b. Compression ratio, Turbine inlet temperature,
the thrust of the engine to Altitude of the aircraft, Ambient temperature.
a. remain constant.* b. decrease. c. Speed of the aircraft, Compression ratio, Turbine
c. increase. inlet temperature,Altitude of the aircraft.
6. With a fixed throttle, and with increased mass airflow, 15. The propulsive efficiency is
what happens to EPR? a. low, with a low mass flow acceleration.*
a. EPR goes up. b. high, with a low mass flow acceleration.
b. EPR remains constant. c. high, with a high mass flow acceleration.
c. EPR goes down.*
16. The RPM for maximum power would be
7. At what stage in a gas turbine engine are gas pressures a. lower on a colder day.*
the greatest? b. lower on a hotter day.
a. Compressor outlet.* c. greater on a colder day.
b. Turbine outlet.
c. Compressor inlet. 17. How does engine thrust vary with temperature?
a. Increase in temperature gives greater thrust
8. Increasing ram effect with increased speed. because of low friction in compressors.
a. reduces thrust due to reduced compressor b. Low temperatures give low thrust.
efficiency. c. Low temperature gives greater mass flow and
b. increases thrust due to increased maximum therefore greater thrust.*
airflow.*
c. reduces thrust due to reduced turbine temperature.
18. A method of comparing engine efficiencies is by 29. Propeller torque is analogous to

comparing a. engine RPM.
a. fuel consumption. b. shaft horsepower.*
b. thrust to weight ratio. c. propeller RPM.
c. specific fuel consumption.*
30. The total power in a turboprop engine is the
19. With a fixed throttle in a climb a. SHP. b. BHP.
a. RPM will increase. * c. ESHP.*
b. RPM will remain constant.
c. RPM will decrease. 31. In a dive, with the throttles fixed, the EPR will
a. not change.
20. The point of maximum velocity in the engine is in the b. increase.
a. exhaust exit nozzle.* c. decrease.*
b. combustion chamber.
c. nozzle guide vanes. 32. With an increase in forward speed, the engine thrust
a. decreases slightly but recover due to ram effect.*
21. At constant RPM, the pressure ratio of the compressor b. increases.
and the temperature rise across the compressor c. decreases.
a. increases with height.
b. remains constant irrespective of height.* 33. The main factor considered when designing an engine
c. decrease with height. is
a. maximum fuel consumption.
22. With the aircraft stationary, propulsive efficiency b. maximum turbine temperature.*
a. depends on RPM. c. maximum tip speed.
b. is minimum.*
c. is maximum. 34. To ensure an engine maintains self sustaining speed
a. idle remains same for any density.
23. The efficiency of conversion of kinetic energy into b. idle increases with density decrease.*
propulsive work is a measure of c. idle increases with density increase.
a. mechanical efficiency.
b. propulsive efficiency.* 35. A factor that limits EGT is the
c. thermal efficiency. a. jet pipe.
b. compressors.
24. What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on c. turbine.*
the operation of a jet engine?
a. Decreases compressor and turbine RPM. 36. Thrust will
b. Decreases engine pressure ratio. a. increase at high temperatures.
c. Has little or no effect.* b. decrease at low temperatures.
c. increase at low temperatures.*
25. Power is adjusted in a gas turbine engine by
a. increasing fuel flow. 37. Across the turbines, there is
b. increasing air and fuel flow.* a. a general temperature rise.
c. increasing airflow to the combustion chamber. b. a general temperature drop.*
c. an isometric expansion.
26. The engine rating plug
a. is permanently connected to the E E C. 38. If the throttle position remains constant
b. is connected to the EPR transmitter. a. with increasing OAT, RPM and TGT will increase.*
c. is permanently connected to the Engine casing.* b. with decreasing OAT, RPM will increase.
c. with increasing OAT, TGT will increase.
27. Flat Rated thrust is defined as
a. the thrust at the ambient temperature point above 39. If an aircraft climbs with a fixed throttle position
which thrust drops below 100%.* a. thrust decreases and RPM increases.*
b. that power achieved at idle RPM. b. thrust and RPM remain the same.
c. that power achieved at maximum EGT. c. thrust increases and RPM remains the same.
28. Thrust rating on an FADEC controlled engine can be 40. Ram pressure recovery will generally take effect at
changed by aircraft speeds of
a. varying the ballast resistor in the EGT system. a. Mach 1.
b. changing the engine rating plug.* b. Mach 0.1 - 0.2.*
c. varying the EPR datum plug. c. only when the aircraft is stationary with engines
running.
41. As the air is passed through the turbine, due to the 52. The efficiency of a gas turbine would be greatest at
convergent shape formed between adjacent blades a. cold temperatures.*
a. pressure decreases, velocity increases, temperature b. low pressure.
increases. c. hot temperatures
b. pressure increases, velocity increases, temperature
constant. 53. As air density changes the RPM of a gas turbine engine
c. pressure decreases, velocity increases, temperature will change. How is RPM kept at a constant speed?.
decreases.* a. It is not.*
b. Automatically by a simple engine device.
42. The hottest component in a gas turbine engine is c. Manually by the pilot.
a. the nozzle guide vanes.
b. the turbines. 54. With fixed throttle and increasing altitude, the fan on a
c. the combustion chamber.* high by-pass engine will
a. decrease RPM.
43. The basic equation for thrust is b. increase RPM.*
a. thrust = force × acceleration. c. stay the same RPM.
b. thrust = mass × velocity.
c. thrust = mass × acceleration.* 55. Through turbine rotor blades, the pressure
a. increases, temperature increases, velocity
44. To maintain the selected RPM of a gas turbine at altitude decreases.
a. the pilot will have to throttle back. b. decreases, temperature and velocity decreases.*
b. more fuel will automatically be added. c. remains constant, temperature increases.
c. the fuel will automatically be reduced as the aircraft
climbs.* 56. Temperature of the mass airflow through a Gas Turbine
Engine
45. The term Pb means a. increases from the inlet, through the compressor
a. burner pressure measured at the diffuser case. and the diffuser into the burner, and decreases
b. burner pressure measured at the NGV. through the turbine into the exhaust.*
c. burner pressure measured at the combustion b. increases from the inlet, through the compressor
chamber.* and remains constant through the diffuser and
increases at the burner, and decreases through the
46. Which of the following is not an engine rating? turbine into the exhaust.
a. Maximum Continuous. b. Idle.* c. remains constant at the inlet, increases from the
c. Maximum Take Off. compressor and the diffuser into the burner, and
decreases through the turbine into the exhaust.
47. At higher then standard day ambient temperatures,the
air-speed is 57. The ratio of work done to move the aircraft forward to
a. lower than standard day speed. the energy spent in accelerating the gas rearward is
b. no different. known as
b. higher than standard day speed.* a. Thermal efficiency
b. Propulsive efficiency*
48. 'Ram Recovery' is a measure of c. Kinetic energy
a. intake efficiency.* b. net thrust. d. None of the above
c. forward air speed.
58. In both piston and gas turbine engines, SFC per hour
49. Most likely parameter limiting the height at which a jet is
engine powered aircraft can operate would be a. More at altitudes
insufficient b. Less at increased speed
a. lift to support the aircraft weight. c. Less at altitudes and more at increased speed*.
b. mass airflow to maintain 15:1 air/fuel ratio. d. Equal to, as sea level.
c. oxygen to support combustion.*
59. Which of the following factors affect the thermal
50. With increasing ram effect efficiency of a turbine engine?
a. turbine temperatures decreases. 1. Turbine inlet temperature.
b. propulsive efficiency decreases. 2. Compression ratio.
c. propulsive efficiency increases.* 3. Ambient temperature.
4. Speed of the aircraft.
51. Full reverse power is approximately 5. Turbine and compressor efficiency.
a. 95% of forward thrust. 6. Altitude of the aircraft.
b. 75% of forward thrust. a. 3, 4, 6. b. 1, 2, 5.*
c. 50% of forward thrust.* c. 1, 2, 6.

CHAPTER - 3
ENGINE INLET
1. If an electrical de-icing system is operating, thrust will 11. Inlet guide vanes are anti-iced with
a. decrease. b. remain constant.* a. rubber boots. b. thermal blankets.
c. increase. c. engine bleed air.*
2. A bell mouth compressor inlet is used on 12. Intake air turbulence

a. helicopters.* a. decreases the efficiency of the compressor.*
b. supersonic aircraft. b. increases the efficiency of the compressor.
c. aircraft with low ground clearance. c. has little effect on the efficiency of the compressor.
3. Electrical de-icing operates 13. What will be the effect of operating the intake anti-
a. continuously and intermittently.* icing system of a gas turbine engine?
b. cyclically independent of ambient air temperature. a. A decrease in power.*
c. cyclically dependent on ambient air temperature. b. Increased power at altitude.
c. Increased power for take off.
4. The inlet door on a variable geometry intake is open at
a. idle speed. 14. A Pitot intake is divergent from front to rear because it
b. supersonic speeds. a. produces the maximum amount of ram
c. subsonic speeds.* compression.*
b. reduces ram compression and turbulence.
5. Anti-ice is recommended during c. speeds up the air before it hits the compressor face.
a. OAT +10°Centigrade and visible moisture.*
b. thunderstorms. 15. With an electrical ice protection system, the heating
c. OAT below 10°Centigrade . elements operate
a. continuously.
6. A pitot intake is divergent from front to rear because it b. part continuous - part intermittent.*
a. reduces ram compression. c. intermittently.
b. produces the maximum amount of ram
compression.* 16. The purpose of a bell mouth compressor inlet is to
c. speeds up the air before it hits the compressor face. a. provide an increased ram air effect at low airspeeds.
b. maximize the aerodynamic efficiency of the inlet.*
7. Anti-icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly c. provide an increased pressure drop in the inlet.
accomplished by
a. electrical heating elements located within the engine 17. The vortex dissipators installed on some turbine-
air inlet cowling. powered aircraft to prevent engine FOD utilize
b. electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide a. variable geometry inlet ducts.
vanes. b. variable inlet guide vanes (IGV) and/or variable first
c. engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas.* stage fan blades.
c. a stream of engine bleed air blown toward the
8. The term ‘Ram Ratio’ in regard to air intakes is the ground ahead of the engine.*
relationship between
a. ambient pressure and ambient temperature. 18. Variable Ramp Intakes restrict airflow by
b. ambient temperature and compressor inlet a. diverting the airflow around the intake.
temperature. b. reducing the area of the intake.
c. ambient pressure and compressor inlet pressure.* c. creating shock-waves in the intake.*
9. An increase in the Ram Ratio of an intake will 19. The inlet door of a variable geometry intake at
a. have no effect upon the temperature of the air. supersonic speeds will be
b. increase the temperature of the air. a. closed.* b. open.
c. decrease the temperature of the air.* c. mid-Position.
10. As an aircraft approaches the transonic range, the 20. When operating an engine in icing conditions, care
aerodynamic efficiency of a Pitot type intake should be taken when the
a. increases due to the ram effect. a. temperature is below +10°Centigrade with visible
b. decreases due to the shock wave.* moisture.*
c. is not effected by forward speed.
b. temperature is below 10°Centigrade. 32. A well designed intake will take advantage of forward
c. temperature is below 0°Centigrade. speed by
a. converting kinetic energy into pressure energy.*
21. Anti-icing for a turboprop is achieved by b. converting velocity energy into kinetic energy.
a. bleed air supply from compressor. c. converting pressure energy of the air into kinetic
b. electric bonded heater mats.* energy.
c. hot oil supply from lubrication system.
33. In subsonic multi-engine aircraft, a normal inlet duct
22. A divergent intake is will
a. divergent from front to rear.* a. decrease and then increase in size, front to rear,
b. convergent/divergent from front to rear. along length of the duct.
c. divergent/convergent from front to rear. b. increase in size, front to rear, along length of the
duct.*
23. What purpose does the nose cone serve on the (N1) c. increase and then decrease in size, front to rear,
fan on a high bypass engine? along length of the duct.
a. Streamlined fairing.*
b. Reduce and straighten any turbulent air. 34. What type of intake is one that decreases gradually in
c. Assist in diffusing airflow. area and then increases?
a. Convergent.
24. A variable geometry intake at subsonic speeds b. Convergent / Divergent.*
a. jet pipe area is increased. c. Divergent.
b. throat area is decreased.
c. throat area is increased.* 35. In an electrical de-icing system, the main elements will
be on
25. Electrical anti-ice a. intermittently, 8 times a minute, dependant on OAT
a. heats oil which is distributed around engine. b. intermittently, 4 times a minute, dependant on OAT
b. heats elements, placed under mats around engine.* c. continuously and intermittently.*
b. heats air which is distributed around engine.
36. Intakes are designed to
26. The cycling speed of the electrical de-icing mat a. decrease the intake air pressure.
a. comes in 4 speeds. b. decelerate the free air stream flow.*
b. is not affected by weather conditions. c. accelerate the free air stream flow.
c. is affected by weather conditions.*
37. The air intake for a gas turbine powered subsonic
27. The variable inlet guide vanes are operated aircraft would be of
a. by fuel pressure.* a. convergent form.
b. electrically from cockpit. b. divergent form.*
c. using N1 fan speed. c. convergent/divergent form.
28. The intake of a gas turbine engine is designed to 38. Turboprop engine inlet anti-ice system operates
a. protect compressor from FOD . a. continuously.*
b. provide turbulent free air.* b. cyclically dependant on weather conditions.
c. provide streamlined fairing for aircraft. c. cyclically independent on weather conditions.
29. The velocity of air on entry to compressor inlet on an 39. What is true for a bell mouth intake?
aircraft flying supersonic speed would be controlled a. Pressure increases and velocity decreases.
at b. Velocity increases and pressure decreases.*
a. Mach 2.2. b. Mach 1. c. Pressure and velocity decrease.
c. Mach 0.4.*
40. What is the system that breaks up ice formations on a
30. If an inlet is choked then the velocity turboprop engine nose cowl called?
a. increases and pressure decreases. a. Nose cowl heating.
b. increases and pressure increases. b. De-icing.*
c. decreases and pressure increases.* c. Anti-icing.
31. In an aircraft flying at supersonic speed, to reduce the 41. In a variable geometry intake, the velocity of the air on
air velocity at the compressor, the variable intake the engine compressor face is controlled by
a. exhaust jet cone area increased. a. ramp and spill doors.
b. throat area is decreased.* b. intake augmentation doors.
c. throat area is increased. c. shock-wave pattern, ramp and spill doors.*
42. The purpose of the compressor diffuser is to 52. Both anti-icing and deicing techniques are employed
a. Increase velocity and decrease the pressure. by using
b. To decrease both velocity and pressure. a. Continuously heated.
c. Converts kinetic energy into pressure energy*. b. Intermittently heated.
d. None of the above. c. Either of above.
d. Continuously and intermittently, respectively*.
43. Gas turbine engine needs protection from icing
particularly at 53. The heating elements of anti -icing are sandwiched
a. Air intake area. a. Between layers of glass cloth impregnated with
b. Interior of bypass duct. resin.
c. Nose bullet and inlet guide vanes. b. Between layers of rubber.
d. a. and c. positions*. c. Either of above*.
d. Both in combination.
44. Icing at air inlet, nose bullet and inlet vanes can cause
a. Decrease in performance. 54. The propeller blade elements are provided with
b. Damage to compressor. a. Continuous current supply.
c. Nothing as above. b. Intermittently through a cyclic time switch*.
d. Both as above*. c. Either of the above.
d. None of the above.
45. Icing can be prevented by
a. Hot air system. 55. The satisfactory function of intermittent heating
b. Electrical resistance heating system. system is indicated by
c. With combination of a. and b. a. Indicator light b. An ammeter
d. Any of the above*. c. Either of above* d. None of the above
46. Normally for turbo propeller, the method to protect 56. Anti-icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly
icing, usually is adopted to protect the blades by accomplished by
a. Hot air system. a. electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide
b. Electrical resistance heating system*. vanes.
c. Combination of both. b. engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas.*
d. Either of above c. electrical heating elements located within the engine
air inlet cowling.
47. In hot air system, the hot air is provided by
a. Heating the inlet air. 57. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine
b. Engine exhaust system bleed. engine?
c. Compressor delivery pressure*. a. To increase pressure and reduce velocity.*
d. Either of above. b. To convert pressure to velocity.
c. To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
48. In hot air system, the hot air is regulated by
a. Pilot control lever. 58. The diffuser section of a jet engine is located between
b. Electrically actuated control valves*. a. the burner section and the turbine section.
c. As per the engine speed. b. station No.7 and Station No.8.
d. None of the above. c. the compressor section and the burner section.*
49. In electrical heating system, the heating element is in

the form of 
a. Resistance wire. b. Sprayed metal.
c. Either of above*. d. Both of above.
50. Normally the power required for deicing system is of

a. Three phase AC current*.
b. Three phase DC current.
c. Single phase AC current.
d. Single phase DC current.
51. The arrangement used to de-ice turbo propellers

a. The elements are of resistance wire type.
b. The elements are formed into an overshoe.
c. The elements are bonded around the leading edge
of an air intake cowl and also around the oil cooler
intake.
d. All above*.
CHAPTER - 4
ENGINE COMPRESSORS
1. A bypass engine LP compressor 10. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine
a. supplies less air than is required for combusti15.4 engine?
Compressors a. To convert pressure to velocity.
b. supplies more air than is required for combustion.* b. To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
c. supplies only the required quantity for combustion. c. To increase pressure and reduce velocity.*
2. How does a dual axial flow compressor improve the 11. The fan speed of a twin spool axial compressor engine
efficiency of a turbojet engine? is the same as the
a. The velocity of the air entering the combustion a. low pressure compressor.*
chamber is increased. b. forward turbine wheel.
b. More turbine wheels can be used. c. high pressure compressor.
c. Higher compression ratios can be obtained.*
12. Bleed valves are normally spring loaded to the
3. In a reverse flow system, the last stage of an axial flow a. closed position.
compressor is often centrifugal. This is to b. open position.*
a. provide initial turning of the airflow.* c. mid-position.
b. prevent compressor surge.
c. increase the temperature rise. 13. What is the function of the stator vane assembly at
the discharge end of a typical axial flow compressor?
4. What are the two main functional components in a a. To increase air swirling motion into the combustion
centrifugal compressor? chambers.
a. Bucket and expander. b. To direct the flow of gases into the combustion
b. Impeller and diffuser.* chambers.
c. Turbine and compressor. c. To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence.*
5. A bypass ratio of 5:1 indicates that the bypass flow is 14. In a turbine engine with a dual spool compressor, the
a. equal to 1/5 of the hot stream. low speed compressor
b. five times the hot stream.* a. always turns at the same speed as the high speed
c. five times the cold stream. compressor.
b. seeks its own best operating speed.*
6. The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor c. is connected directly to the high speed compressor.
a. direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper
angle. 15. What units in a gas turbine engine aid in guiding the
b. convert velocity energy into pressure energy.* airflow during low thrust engine operations?
c. convert pressure energy onto velocity energy. a. Stator vanes.
b. Bleed air valves.
7. What units in a gas turbine engine aid in stabilisation c. Inlet guide vanes.*
of the compressor during low thrust engine operations?
a. Bleed air valves.* 16. What is one purpose of the stator blades in the
b. Stator vanes. compressor section?
c. Inlet guide vanes. a. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
b. Stabilize the pressure of the airflow.
8. What purpose do the diffuser vanes of a centrifugal c. Control the direction of the airflow.*
compressor serve?
a. To convert pressure energy into kinetic energy. 17. Compressor stall is caused by
b. To increase the air velocity. a. a low angle of attack airflow through the first stages
c. To convert kinetic energy into pressure energy.* of compression.
b. rapid engine deceleration.
9. During the high RPM range on an axial flow gas turbine c. a high angle of attack airflow through the first
engine, in what position are the variable intake guide stages of compression.*
vanes and bleed valves?
a. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves open. 18. What is used to aid in stabilization of compressor
b. At minimum swirl position, bleed valves closed.* airflow?
c. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves closed.
a. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed 27. Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades
valves.* will usually cause
b. Pressurization and dump valves. a. cracking. b. bowing.
c. Stator vanes and rotor vanes. c. galling.*
19. What is the primary factor which controls the pressure 28. Which two elements make up the axial flow compressor
ratio of an axial flow compressor? assembly?
a. Compressor inlet temperature. a. Rotor and stator.*
b. Compressor inlet pressure. b. Stator and diffuser.
c. Number of stages in compressor.* c. Compressor and manifold.
20. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an 29. If the RPM of an axial flow compressor remains
aircraft gas turbine are known as constant, the angle of attack of the rotor blades can be
a. stator vanes.* changed by
b. bleed vanes. a. changing the compressor diameter.
c. pressurization vanes. b. changing the velocity of the airflow.*
c. increasing the pressure ratio.
21. The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning
stages of the compressor is to 30. The gas turbine Compressor Pressure Ratio is
a. vent some of the air overboard to prevent a a. Compressor inlet pressure divided by Compressor
compressor stall. discharge pressure.
b. control excessively high RPM to prevent a b. Mass of air bypassing the combustion system
compressor stall. divided by Mass of air going through the
c. vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a combustion system.
compressor stall. c. Compressor discharge pressure divided by
Compressor inlet pressure.*
22. During the low RPM range on an axial flow gas turbine
engine, in what position are the variable intake guide 31. An advantage of the centrifugal flow compressor is its
vanes and bleed valves? high
a. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves open.* a. ram efficiency.
b. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves closed. b. pressure rise per stage.
c. At minimum swirl position, bleed valves closed. c. peak efficiency.*
23. The energy changes that take place in the impeller of a 32. The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a
centrifugal compressor are function of the
a. pressure decrease, velocity decrease, temperature a. number of compressor stages.*
increase. b. air inlet velocity.
b. pressure increase, velocity decrease, temperature c. rotor diameter.
increase.
c. pressure increase, velocity increase, temperature 33. Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed
increase.* inspection must be reinstalled in
a. the same slot.*
24. What is the primary advantage of an axial flow b. a specified slot 180°away.
compressor over a centrifugal compressor? c. a specified slot 90°away in the direction of rotation.
a. High frontal area.
b. Greater pressure ratio.* 34. The procedure for removing the accumulation of dirt
c. Less expensive. deposits on compressor blades is called
a. the purging process.
25. Compression occurs b. the soak method.
a. across stators and rotors.* c. field cleaning.*
b. across rotors.
c. across stators. 35. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are
a. impeller and diffuser.
26. Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling b. single entry and double entry.*
in a turbofan engine? c. rotor and stator.
a. Large, rapid throttle movements and FOD.*
b. Engine over temperature, large, rapid throttle 36. Between each row of rotating blades in a compressor,
movements and FOD. there is a row of stationary blades which act to diffuse
c. Engine overspeed and large, rapid throttle the air. These stationary blades are called
movements. a. stators.* b. rotors.
c. buckets.
37. Bleed valves are a. four to one. b. two to one.

a. closed at low RPM. c. up to fifteen to one.*
b. always slightly open.
c. closed at high RPM.* 48. What purpose do the diffuser vanes of a centrifugal
compressor serve?
38. Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is a. To convert pressure energy into kinetic energy.
performed primarily in order to b. To increase the air velocity.
a. prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent c. To convert kinetic energy into pressure energy.*
engine bearing wear or damage.
b. prevent engine performance degradation, increased 49. The purpose of the rotating guide vanes on a
fuel costs, and damage or corrosion to gas path centrifugal compressor is to
surfaces.* a. direct the air smoothly into the impeller.
c. facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and b. provide initial diffusing of the air.*
compressor areas for defects or FOD. c. prevent damage by solid objects.
39. If the LP compressor shaft severed 50. What is the surge margin of an axial flow compressor?
a. the LP turbine will speed up and the LP compressor a. The margin between the compressor working line
will slow down.* and the surge line.*
b. the LP compressor of cruise thrust. b. The margin between minimum and maximum
c. the HP compressor will slow down. pressure ratio obtained at constant RPM.
c. The margin between the stall condition and the
40. An advantage of a centrifugal compressor is surge condition.
a. it is dynamically balanced.
b. it is unaffected by turbulence. 51. The compression ratio of a jet engine is
c. it is robust and can stand some shock from icing- a. the compressor outlet pressure divided by the
up.* number of compressor stages.
b. the ratio between turbine pressure and compressor
41. Variable inlet guide vanes prevent outlet pressure.
a. compressor runaway. c. the ratio between compressor outlet pressure and
b. engine flame out at high speed. compressor inlet pressure.*
c. compressor stalling.*
52. Variable inlet guide vanes help to prevent
42. An axial flow compressor surges when a. compressor runaway.
a. later stages are stalled. b. ice build up on compressor blades.
b. all stages are stalled.* c. compressor stalling.*
c. early stages are stalled.
53. Air through the compressor, before entering the
43. As a consequence of tapping air from the compressor, combustion chamber, passes
the TGT will a. through divergent passage to increase the
a. fall. b. remain constant. pressure.*
c. rise.* b. through nozzles to increase the velocity.
c. through divergent passage to decrease the
44. Compressor air bleeds promote the flow of air through pressure.
the early stages by
a. opening to allow air in. 54. Low mass airflow through a compressor will produce
b. closing. a. stalling of rear stages.
c. opening to allow air out.* b. stalling of early stages.*
c. no effect.
45. Compressor blades have a reduced angle of attack at
the tips 55. A bleed valve
a. to prevent turbine stall. a. relieves compressor choking at low RPM.*
b. to increase the velocity. b. controls air intake pressure.
c. to allow uniform axial velocity. * c. bleeds air from compressor for intake de-icing.
46. Compressor surge is caused by 56. If a compressor has a compression ratio of 9:1 and an
a. over fuelling.* intake compression of 2:1, what is the overall
b. rapid closing of the throttle. compression ratio?
c. prolonged engine running at high RPM. a. 9:1 intake compression does not add to the overall
compression ratio of the system.
47. Pressure rise across a single spool axial flow b. 18:1.*
compressor is in the order of c. 11:1.
57. A compressor stage stalls when 68. Compressor blades reduce in length
a. adiabatic temperature rise is too high. a. from tip to root to maintain uniform velocity in
b. compression ratio is too high. compressor.
c. smooth airflow is disrupted.* b. from L.P to H.P section to maintain uniform velocity
in compressor.*
58. Inlet guide vanes are fitted to c. from root to tip to maintain correct angle of attack.
a. control the quantity of air entering the intake.
b. guide the airflow onto the turbine rotor first stage. 69. Deposit build-up on compressor blades
c. control the angle of airflow into the compressor.* a. airflow is too fast for deposits to build up.
b. will not decrease efficiency but may cause
59. Why, in an axial flow compressor is the cross sectional corrosion.
area of the compressor air duct reduced at each stage? c. can decrease compressor efficiency and cause
a. To decrease the velocity of the air rising under corrosion.*
pressure.
b. To maintain the velocity of the air under rising 70. The diffuser after the compressor, before the
pressure.* combustion chamber
c. To permit stronger, shorter blades to be used in the a. increases velocity, decreases pressure.
later stages. b. decreases velocity, pressure increases.*
c. increases velocity, pressure remains constant.
60. An abradable lining around the fan is to
a. provide less leakage for anti-icing. 71. In a compressor, diffusion action takes place across
b. prevent fan blade tip rub. a. rotors. b. rotors and stators.*
c. strengthen the EPR value.* c. stators.
61. Allowable damage on the first stage compressor blade 72. The ring of fixed blades at the intake of an axial flow
is restricted to compressor are called
a. middle third of the blade to the outer edge. * a. inlet guide vanes.*
b. outer third of the blade to the outer edge. b. first stage stator blades.
c. root end of the blade. c. first stage diffuser blades.
62. Tip speed of a centrifugal compressor can reach 73. What is the purpose of pressure balance seal?
a. Mach 1.3.* b. Mach 1.0. a. To ensure the location bearing is adequately loaded
c. Mach 0.8. throughout the engine thrust range.*
b. To ensure LP compressor is statically balanced.
63. What is the profile of a compressor blade? c. To ensure HP compressor is dynamically balanced.
a. A cutout that reduces blade tip thickness.*
b. The leading edge of the blade. 74. The optimum air speed for entrance into the
c. The curvature of the blade root. compressor is approximately
a. same as aircraft speed.
64. The resultant velocity of air exiting an axial compressor b. Mach 0.4.*
stage depends upon. c. Mach 1.
a. aircraft forward speed.
b. compressor RPM. 75. What is the acceptable damage on stator blades that
c. Both of the above.* have been blended?
a. One third along from root to tip.
65. What is a compressor stage? b. One third from tip to root.*
a. One compressor rotor and one nozzle guide vane. c. One third chord wise.
b. One rotor plus one stator.*
c. One Nozzle Guide Vane and one rotor. 76. With regard to compressor blades, which of the
following is true? No damage is permissible on
66. If the bypass ratio is 0.7:1, the 0.7 pounds of air is a. a shroud fillet area.*
a. fed into H.P compressor compared to 1 pound fed b. the lip of a blade.
around it. c. the last third of the outboard leading edge.
b. fed around the engine to 1 pound fed into H.P.
compressor.* 77. Identify a function of the cascade vanes in a turbojet
c. bypassed for every 1 pound at the intake. engine compressor section
a. To remove air swirl before the combustion
67. Advantage of an axial flow over a centrifugal flow gas chamber.*
turbine engine b. To direct the flow of air to strike the turbine blades
a. power required for starting is less. at a desired angle.
b. low weight. c. To decrease the velocity of air to the combustor.
c. high peak efficiencies.*
78. The pressure ratio can be influenced by 89. In a twin spool compressor, the LP section runs at
a. compressor inlet temperature. a. a lower RPM than the HP spool.*
b. number of stages in compressor.* b. a higher RPM than the HP spool.
c. compressor inlet pressure. c. the same RPM than the HP spool.
79. Air bleed valves are 90. In centrifugal compressor impeller the air
a. closed at low RPM. a. Gains velocity but looses pressure.
b. open at high RPM. b. Gains kinetic energy and pressure*.
c. open at low RPM.* c. Gains velocity with constant pressure.
d. Gains only pressure.
80. The compressor case annulus is
a. convergent.* b. divergent. 91. The shrouded impellers of a centrifugal compressor
c. parallel. a. Prevents leak of air
b. Handles less air for a given size
81. If the tip clearance in a centrifugal compressor is too c. Handles more air
small d. Works as per a. and b.*
a. there would be pressure losses through leakage.
b. there is danger of seizure. 92. The principle of axial flow compressor is on
c. aerodynamic buffeting would cause vibration.* a. Imparting kinetic energy to air.
b. Conversion of kinetic energy in to pressure
82. A 1st stage LP compressor blade is able to continue in energy*.
service if the damage is within limits, and within the c. Increasing kinetic energy at the cost of pressure.
a. middle third of blade chord-wise. d. None of the above.
b. outer third only.*
c. root section only. 93. In a axial flow compressor one set of rotor and stator
vanes each, forms
83. What is meant by a compressor stage? a. One stage of compressor*.
a. One rotor and one stator assembly.* b. Two stages of compressor.
b. All rotors and stators. c. Half stage of compressor.
c. One rotor and one guide vane assembly. d. No stage of compressor.
84. What is the normal pressure rise across each 94. Entry / intake guide vanes of axial flow compressors
compressor stage of an axial flow compressor? are
a. 1.5:1. b. 1.2:1.* a. Fixed at specific angle.
c. 5:1. b. Of variable angle.
c. Either with fixed or variable angle*.
85. Where does compression take place as air passes d. Of not much consequence.
through an axial flow compressor?
a. Rotor blades. b. Stator Blades. 95. In axial flow compressor
c. Rotor and Stator blades.* a. Velocity decreases in rotor blades.
b. Velocity increases in rotor blades.
86. Nozzle Guide Vane bow is an indication of c. Pressure increases in stator blades.
a. engine overspeed. d. Air dynamics works as b. and c.*
b. engine overheat.*
c. engine shock loading. 96. Axial flow compressors displaces comparatively
a. More air with less pressure.
87. A build up of foreign objects and dirt on compressor b. Less air with more pressure*.
blades c. More air with more pressure.
a. has a large effect on compressor efficiency and d. Less air with less pressure.
may cause corrosion.*
b. has no effect on the efficiency of the compressor 97. Maximum efficiency of
but may cause corrosion. a. Shrouded centrifugal impeller is more than the axial
c. has no effect on compressor efficiency due to the flow.
speed of rotation. b. Axial flow is more then centrifugal compressor*.
c. Both types of compressors are equal.
88. What is the purpose of the stator vanes in the d. Centrifugal compressor is much higher.
compressor section of a gas turbine engine?
a. Increase the velocity of the airflow. 98. Weight and cost of
b. Control direction of the airflow.* a. Centrifugal compressor is high.
c. Prevent compressor surge. b. Axial flow is low.
c. Centrifugal is low*.
d. Both are low.
99. The centrifugal compressor is 109. What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal
a. Less prone to surge. compressor?
b. More prone to surge. a. Turbine and compressor.
c. Less prone to icing. b. Bucket and expander.
d. Less prone to surge and posses advantage of anti- c. Impeller and diffuser.*
icing*.
110. A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes
100. In centrifugal compressors surge occurs only due to on both sides of the impeller is a
a. Atmospheric conditions. a. double entry centrifugal compressor.*
b. Aircraft manoeuvreing. b. double entry axial-flow compressor.
c. Both as a. and b.* c. single entry axial-flow compressor.
111. How does a dual axial-flow compressor improve the
101. Axial flow compressors are more prone to surge due to efficiency of a turbojet engine?
a. Atmospheric condition. a. More turbine wheels can be used.
b. Aircraft manoeuvreing. b. Higher compression ratios can be obtained.*
c. Multiplicity of compressor stages*. c. The velocity of the air entering the combustion
d. None of the above. chamber is increased.
102. Surging of compressors can be countered by 112. An advantage of the axial-flow compressor is its
a. Adopting two, low and high pressure compressors. a. low starting power requirements.
b. Lowering blade loading. b. low weight.
c. Adopting variable EGVs and bleed valves. c. high peak efficiency.*
d. Adopting all above*.
113. What is one purpose of the stator blades in the
103. At what point in an axial-flow turbojet engine will the compressor section of a turbine engine|
highest gas pressures occur? a. Stabilize the pressure of the airflow.
a. At the turbine entrance. b. Control the direction of the airflow.*
b. Within the burner section. c. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
c. At the compressor outlet.*
114. In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber
104. What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor is the case and liner removed and installed as one unit
blade? during routine maintenance?
a. The leading edge of the blade. a. Can.*
b. A cutout that reduces blade tip thickness.* b. Can annular.
c. The curvature of the blade root. c. Annular.
105. The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor 115. Which turbine engine compressor offers the greatest
forward fan engine is the same as the advantages for both starting flexibility and improved
a. low-pressure compressor.* high-altitude performance?
b. forward turbine wheel. a. Dual-stage, centrifugal-flow.
c. high-pressure compressor. b. Split-spool, axial-flow.*
c. Single-spool, axial-flow.
106. The abbreviation "P" with subscriptt 7 used in turbine
engine terminology means. 116. An advantage of the centrifugal-flow compressor is
a. the total inlet pressure. its high
b. pressure and temperature at station No. 7. a. pressure rise per stage.*
c. the total pressure at station No. 7.* b. ram efficiency.
c. peak efficiency.
107. What is the function of the stator vane assembly at
the discharge end of a typical axial-flow compressor? 117. Which two elements make up the axial-flow compressor
a. To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence.* assembly?
b. To direct the flow of gases into the combustion a. Rotor and stator.*
chambers. b. Compressor and manifold.
c. To increase air swirling motion into the combustion c. Stator and diffuser.
chambers.
118. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are
108. In the dual axial-flow or twin spool compressor system, a. single entry and double entry.*
the first stage turbine drives the b. rotor and stator.
a. N1 and N2 compressors. c. impeller and diffuser.
b. N2 compressor.*
c. N1 compressor.
119. Between each row of rotating blades in a turbine engine c. vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a
compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which compressor stall.
act to diffuse the air. These stationary blades are called
a. buckets. b. rotors. 128. What is meant by a double entry centrifugal
c. stators.* compressor?
a. A compressor that has two intakes.
120. In an axial-flow compressor, one purpose of the stator b. A two-stage compressor independently connected
vanes at the discharge end of the compressor is to to the main shaft.
a. straighten the airflow and eliminate turbulence.* c. A compressor with vanes on both sides of the
b. increase the velocity and prevent swirling and impeller.*
eddying.
c. decrease the velocity, prevent swirling, and 129. What is the major function of the turbine assembly in
decrease pressure. a turbojet engine?
a. Directs the gases in the proper direction to the tail
121. Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is pipe.
performed primarily in order to b. Supplies the power to turn the compressor.*
a. prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent c. Increases the temperature of the exhaust gases.
engine bearing wear or damage.
b. facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and 130. Stator blades in the compressor section of an axial-
compressor areas for defects of FOD. flow turbine engine
c. prevent engine performance degradation, increased a. increase the air velocity and prevent swirling.
fuel costs, and damage or corrosion to gas path b. straighten the airflow and accelerate it.
surfaces.* c. decrease the air velocity and prevent swirling.*
122. In a dual axial-flow compressor, the first stage turbine 131. What is the primary factor which controls the pressure
drives ratio of an axial-flow compressor?
a. N2 compressor.* a. Number of stages in compressor.*
b. N1 compressor. b. Compressor inlet pressure.
c. low pressure compressor. c. Compressor inlet temperature.
123. In a turbine engine with a dual-spool compressor, the 132. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an
low speed compressor aircraft gas turbine engine are called
a. always turns at the same speed as the high speed a. pressurization vanes.
compressor. b. stator vanes.*
b. is connected directly to the high speed compressor. c. bleed vanes.
c. seeks its own best operating speed.*
133. (1) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, each
124. What is the function of the inlet guide vane assembly consecutive pair of rotor and stator blades
on an axial-flow compressor? constitutes a pressure stage.
a. Directs the air into the first stage rotor blades at (2) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, the
the proper angle.* number of rows of stages is determined by the
b. Converts velocity energy into pressure energy. amount of air and total pressure rise required.
c. Converts pressure energy into velocity energy. Regarding the above statements,
a. only NO.1 is true.
125. The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor b. only No.2 is true.
a. convert velocity energy into pressure energy.* c. both No.1 and No.2 are true.*
b. convert pressure energy into velocity energy.
c. direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper 134. The compressor stators in a gas turbine engine act as
angle. diffusers to
a. decrease the velocity of the gas flow.*
126. What is the primary advantage of an axial-flow b. increase the velocity of the gas flow.
compressor over a centrifugal compressor? c. increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of
a. High frontal area. b. Less expensive the gas.
c. Greater pressure ratio.*
135. If a turbine engine is unable to reach take off EPR
127. The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning before its EGT limit is reached, this is an indication
stages of the compressor, in an aircraft gas turbine that the
engine is to a. fuel control must be replaced.
a. vent some of the air overboard to prevent a b. EGT controller is out of adjustment.
compressor stall.* c. compressor may be contaminated or damaged.*
b. control excessively high RPM to prevent a
compressor stall.
136. If the RPM of an axial-flow compressor remains

constant, the angle of attack of the rotor blades can be
changed by
a. changing the velocity of the airflow.*
b. changing the compressor diameter.
c. increasing the pressure ratio.
137. The compression ratio of an axial-flow compressor is a

function of the
a. number of compressor stages.*
b. rotor diameter.
c. air inlet velocity.
138. At what stage in a turbine engine are gas pressures

the greatest?
a. Compressor inlet. b. Turbine outlet.
c. Compressor outlet.*
139. Compressor stall is caused by

a. a low angle of attack airflow through the first stages
of compression.
b. a high angle of attack airflow through the first
stages of compression.*
c. rapid engine deceleration.

CHAPTER - 5
COMBUSTION SECTION
1. In a turbojet engine, combustion occurs at 12. What component creates a vortex in a gas turbine flame
a. constant velocity. tube?
b. constant volume. a. Tertiary hole.
c. constant pressure.* b. Swirl vanes.
c. Cascade vanes.
2. A tubo-annular gas turbine combustion
systemconsists of 13. In the combustion chamber
a. a number of flame tubes in an annular air casing.* a. static pressure and volume remains constant.
b. a number of flame tubes each with its own air casing. b. static pressure decreases slightly and volume
c. an annular flame tube in an annular air casing. increases.*
c. static pressure and volume decreases.
3. In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber
is the case and liner removed and installed as one unit 14. Which of the following types of combustion sections
during routine maintenance? are used in aircraft turbine engines?
a. Cannular. b. Annular. a. Annular, variable, and cascade vane.
c. Can.* b. Multiple can, annular, and can-annular.*
c. Can, multiple can, and variable.
4. In a turboprop engine, combustion takes place at
constant 15. Secondary air in the combustion chamber is used for
a. pressure.* b. density. a. increasing axial velocity of gases.
c. volume. b. combustion.
c. cooling.*
5. The air passing through the combustion chamber is
a. entirely combined with fuel and burned. 16. Duplex burners have
b. used to support combustion and to cool the a. two calibrated outlets.*
engine.* b. variable orifices.
c. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines. c. a spring.
6. The air used for combustion is 17. The overall air/fuel ratio of a combustion chamber can
a. Primary and secondary. b. Primary.* vary between
c. Secondary. a. 45:1 and 130:1.*
b. 130:1 and 200:1.
7. Combustion chamber flame temperature is in the order c. 10:1 and 45:1.
of
a. 2000°C.* b. 2000°F. 18. When light-up takes place
c. 2000°K. a. the nozzle guide vanes spread the heat to adjacent
flame tubes.
8. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet b. interconnectors spread the heat to adjacent flame
engine are possible tubes.*
a. dirty compressor blades. c. each flame tube is isolated from its neighbours.
b. malfunctioning fuel nozzles.*
c. faulty igniter plugs. 19. Why do the holes in the body of the duple burner
provide air to the shroud around the burner head?
9. Another name for a cannular combustion chamber is a. To assist atomisation of the fuel at slow running.
a. turbo-annular. b. multiple can. b. To reduce burner temperature.
c. can-annular.* c. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face.*
10. Another name for a cannular combustion chamber is 20. The air passing through the combustion chamber of a
a. annular. b. tubo-annular.* jet engine is
c. multiple can. a. entirely combined with fuel and burned.
b. used to support combustion and to cool the
11. The approximate percentage of the mass airflow taken engine.*
in by the flame tube snout is. c. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines.
a. 82%. b. 8%.
c. 18%.*
21. A toroidal vortex is 30. Dilution air is placed

a. a vapour trail visible in moist air conditions. a. in the dilution zone of the combustion chamber
b. a region in the combustion chamber of low velocity after the primary zone.*
re-circulation.* b. in the primary zone of the combustion chamber.
c. a bull-nosed cowling for deflecting air from the c. in the swirl vanes of the combustor.
static.
31. A Duplex burner uses
22. Why is it necessary to have a combustion drain a. small burner at low RPM and both burner at high
system? RPM.*
a. To prevent pressure build up in the combustion b. small burner at low RPM and large burner at high
chamber. RPM.
b. To prevent initial over-fuelling on start up or hot c. both burners at low and high RPM.
start.*
c. To allow water in the combustor to drain away. 32. The approximate percentage of the mass airflow which
bypasses the flame tube snout is
23. What is a cannular combustion system? a. 8%. b. 82%.*
a. One common flame tube closed in a common air c. 18%.
casing.
b. A set of flame tubes, each mounted in a separate 33. Flame stabilization in a combustion chamber is
air casing. achieved by
c. A set of flame tubes, enclosed in a common air a. the correct burner pressure.
casing.* b. the airflow pattern.*
c. the correct air/fuel ratio.
24. The flame temperature is approximately
a. 1400°C. b. 2000°C.* 34. Fuel nozzles are cleaned
c. 500°C. a. with a rag and solvent.
b. in-situ with carbon solution.
25. Fuel entering the combustion chamber from an atomizer b. in-situ with detergent solution.*
spray nozzle enters as
a. fuel in air pulses. 35. When heat is added to the combustion chamber
b. a fuel/air mixture.* a. pressure increases rapidly volume remains
c. fuel continuously. constant.
b. pressure changes slightly and volume increases.
26. An advantage of an annular combustion system is c. pressure rises at chamber outlet.*
a. unrestricted airflow at maximum RPM.
b. diameter of engine is reduced due to the cans being 36. A shroud placed around fuel nozzles
smaller. a. flakes the carbon to minimise accumulations.
c. decrease in combustor length compared to a tubo- b. prevents carbon build up.*
annular combustor of the same output.* c. builds up carbon deposits to assist atomisation.
27. How is the combustion chamber drain valve closed?

a. By 12th stage compressor air pressure. 37. Carbon forming on fuel spray nozzles will have the
b. By a return spring. effect of
c. By combustion chamber gas pressure.* a. increasing the combustion chamber pressure ratio.
b. producing turbulent air flow.
28. Which statement is true regarding the air passing c. changing the fuel spray angle.*
through the combustion section of a jet engine?
a. Most is used for engine cooling.* 38. Combustor air that is not used to support combustion.
b. Most is used to support combustion. a. will film cool the liner and dilute combustion
c. A small percentage is frequently bled off at this chamber exit temperature.*
point to be used for air-conditioning and/or other b. is by-pass air.
pneumatic powered systems. c. is considered as the total air flow.
29. How are combustion liner walls cooled in a gas turbine 39. At high rotational speed at sea level, a duple burner
engine? would be passing fuel via the
a. By secondary air flowing through the combustion a. main nozzle.
chamber.* b. primary nozzle.
b. By bleed air vented from the engine air inlet. c. primary and the main nozzle.*
c. By the pattern of holes and louvers cut in the
diffuser section. 40. The fabricated liner of a flame tube is achieved mainly
by
a. argon arc process.* 51. In multichamber CC torch igniters are provided in

b. electric resistance welding. a. Each tube.
c. oxyacetylene welding. b. Four tubes.
c. Two or three *.
41. Why is it necessary to have a combustion chamber d. Alternate tube.
drain?
a. To allow unburnt fuel to drain away.* 52. To propagate the flame evenly in all flame tubes
b. To prevent pressure build-up in the combustion a. Every tube is provided with igniter.
chamber. b. Flame tubes are connected with inter connectors*.
c. To allow fuel to return to LP when H.P cock is c. Four torch igniters are provided at 90o apart.
closed. d. None of the above is done.
42. The purpose of the swirl vanes in the combustion 53. In multichamber CC the primary portion of flame tube
chamber is to produce is composed of
a. flame re-circulation. a. Scoop and colander.
b. gas re-circulation.* b. Flare plate and swirl assembly.
c. adequate mixing of fuel and air. c. As per a. and b.*
43. A vaporising burner injects fuel vapour
a. with the airflow. 54. In multichamber CC, from the total mass of air a portion
b. across the airflow. enters in flame tube i.e,
c. against the airflow.* a. Half portion
b. One / third portion*
44. A duplex burner in a gas turbine engine has 2 orifices c. Three fourth portion
a. one for water injection and one for fuel flow. d. One eighth portion
b. one for low speed conditions the second used for
high speed conditions.* 55. The primary air enters in tube through
c. one for normal flow conditions and the 2nd one to a. Burner shroud, swirlier and flare plate*.
increase the normal maximum flow. b. Burner shroud and flare plate.
c. Swirlier only.
45. A combustion chamber has a. d. None of the above.
a. convergent inlet, divergent outlet.
b. convergent inlet, convergent outlet. 56. Major portion of the secondary air enters into the flame
c. divergent inlet, convergent outlet.* tube through
a. Swirlier.
46. According to the direction of inlet air flow the b. Scoop.
combustion chambers can be categorised as c. Holes of pre - determined size*.
a. Straight flow. b. Reverse flow. d. None of the above.
c. Both as a. and b.* d. None of the above.
57. The secondary air enters in flame tube through last
47. Usually the reverse flow combustion chambers are series of holes is known as
designed in conjunction with axial flow compressors a. Primary zone. b. Main zone.
to c. Secondary zone. d. Tertiary zone*.
a. Decrease the overall length of engine*.
b. Increase the length of engine. 58. The annular type of CC is formed by
c. To broaden the area of common use. a. One outer casing and number of flame tubes.
d. Improve the thermal efficiency. b. Number of CC arranged radially.
c. Four concentric surfaces around the axis of rotor*.
48. Combustion chambers have number of types i.e, d. None of the above.
a. Two types . b. Four types.
c. Three types*. d. Five types. 59. Can - annular type of CC consists of
a. Single outer casing and number of flame tubes*.
49. Multiple chamber type combustion chamber is known b. Single outer casing and single flame tube.
as c. Multiple outer casings and flame tubes.
a. Cannular type*. b. Annular type. d. None of the above.
c. Can- annular type. d. None of above.
60. Common feature of all different type of burners are
50. In multichamber combustion chambers the inner tube a. Atomiser nozzle.
is known as b. Swirl type atomizer.
a. Air casing . b. Flame tube*. c. Having vortex chamber.
c. Outer casing. d. None of the above. d. Having swirl type atomizer with vortex chamber*.
61. The flow through the burner is proportional to the 71. Arrangement in spill type burner is provided to supply
a. Pressure drop across it. fuel at
b. Square of pressure drop across it*. a. Constant and continuous high pressure*.
c. root of pressure drop across it. b. Continuous low pressure.
d. Cube of pressure drop across it. c. Intermittent high pressure.
d. Low pressure at starting and altitudes.
62. In swirlier type of atomiser with vortex chamber, the
stages of spray from the burner are 72. As a principle of operation, the heat is supplied in
a. Bubble, tulip and fully developed* combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine at
b. Swirling, bubble and tulip a. Constant volume b. Constant pressure*
c. Circular, conical and divergent c. Constant temperature d. None of the above
d. None of the above
73. What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing
63. The simplex type of burner have of the fuel and air?
a. Two fixed orifices b. Two variable orifices a. Combustion section.* b. Compressor section.
c. One fixed orifice* d. None of the above c. Diffuser section.
64. At low engine speeds and high altitudes, fuel from 74. In a gas turbine engine , combustion occurs at a
duplex burner is supplied through constant
a. Both main and primary manifolds. a. volume. b. pressure.*
b. Only from primary manifolds*. c. density.
c. Only from main manifold.
d. Any manifold as desired by pilot. 75. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine?
a. At the outlet of the tail pipe section.
65. Duplex - 2 burners have b. At the entrance of the turbine section.
a. A loop type cartridge filter. c. In the entrance of the burner section.*
b. Individual pressurising valve for each burner*.
c. Single pressurising valve for all burners. 76. A weak fuel to air mixture along with normal airflow
d. None of the above. through a turbine engine may result in
a. a rich flameout. b. a lean die-out.*
66. The duplex - 3 burners consists of c. high EGT.
a. Single swirl chamber with co - axial orifice.
b. Co - axial swirl chamber with single orifice. 77. The air passing through the combustion chamber of a
c. Coaxial swirl chamber and orifice for primary & turbine engine is
main*. a. used to support combustion and to cool the
d. None of the above. engine.*
b. entirely combined with fuel and burned
67. With duplex - 3 burners, there is no need for c. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines.
a. Starting valve. b. Accumulator.
c. PLV. d. All above*. 78. Which of the following types of combustion sections
are used in aircraft turbine engines?
68. In earlier burners, variable area orifice type burners a. Annular, variable, and cascade vane.
were developed which were named as b. Can, multiple-can, and variable.
a. Simplex. b. Duplex. c. Multiple-can, annular, and can-annular.*
c. Spill type. d. Lubbock*.
69. In lubbock type burners, fuel is supplied to swirl 

chamber through variable area tangential slots
controlled by piston with spring. It had the
disadvantage of
a. Lesser pressure.
b. Sticking of piston in slot*.
c. In efficient for starting and altitude.
d. All above.
70. The spill type burner have a additional passage

a. To spill extra fuel in CC.
b. To spill fuel back in system*.
c. To spill fuel in swirl chamber.
d. For none of above.
CHAPTER - 6
TURBINE SECTION
1. The three main types of turbine blades are a. Stretch. b. Creep.*

a. impulse, vector, and impulse-vector. c. Distortion.
b. reaction, converging, and diverging.
c. impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction.* 10. What is the major function of the turbine assembly in
a turbojet engine?
2. What are the two main basic components of the turbine a. Directs the gases in the proper direction to the
section in a gas turbine engine? tailpipe.
a. Stator and rotor.* b. Supplies the power to turn the compressor.*
b. Hot and cold. c. Increases the temperature of the exhaust gases.
c. Impeller and diffuser.
11. Gas pressure through the turbine section will generally
3. Turbine impulse blading forms a a. increase.
a. constant area duct.* b. remain the same.
b. divergent duct. c. decrease.*
c. convergent duct.
12. A condition known as ‘hot streaking’ in turbine engines
4. The turbine section is caused by
a. increases air velocity to create thrust. a. a partially clogged fuel nozzle.*
b. uses heat energy to expand and accelerate the gas b. excessive fuel flow.
flow. c. a misaligned combustion liner.
c. drives the compressor section.*
13. Temperature through the turbine stages generally
5. Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on a. remains the same.
turbine blades? b. decreases.*
a. Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree. c. increases.
b. Across the leading or trailing edge at a right angle
to the edge.* 14. Shrouded blades allow
c. Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge. a. smaller inlets to be used.
b. higher turbine inlet temperatures.
6. What is meant by a shrouded turbine? c. thinner more efficient blade sections to be used.*
a. The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends
form a band or shroud.* 15. Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force
b. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which on turbine engine rotor blades is likely to cause
provides cooling air to the turbine blades. a. galling. b. creep.*
c. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective c. profile.
shroud to contain the blades in case of failure.
16. N.G.V’s form
7. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream a. convergent ducts.*
side of each turbine wheel, are used to b. parallel ducts.
a. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing c. divergent ducts.
past this point.
b. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line 17. Dirt particles in the air going into the compressor of a
of the turbine blades.* turbine engine will form a coating on all but which of
c. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing the following?
past this point. a. Turbine blades.*
b. Casings.
8. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow c. Inlet guide vanes.
characteristics in turbines are brought by
a. shrouded turbine rotor blades.* 18. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow
b. impulse type blades. characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by
c. fir tree blade attachment. a. shrouded turbine rotor blades.*
b. fir tree blade attachment.
9. What term is used to describe a permanent and c. impulse type blades.
cumulative deformation of turbine blades?
19. A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an 30. Why are nozzle guide vanes fitted?
axial flow engine is to a. To decrease velocity of the gas flow.
a. reduce air entrance. b. To increase velocity of the gas flow.*
b. increase tip speed. c. To increase velocity of the air flow.
c. reduce vibration.*
31. A turbine disk is
20. Hot section inspections for many modern turbine a. a disk at the core of the engine that the blades are
engines are required attached to.*
a. on a time or cycle basis.* b. a segmented or complete shroud on blade tips that
b. only when an over temperature or overspeed has reduces leakage.
occurred. c. a shroud around the stators of the turbine.
c. only at engine overhaul.
32. When carrying out a borescope the damage on turbine
21. Why do some turbine engines have more than one blades that would indicate a failure is
turbine wheel attached to a single shaft? a. speckling. b. tip curl.*
a. To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly. c. colour changes.
b. To extract more power from the exhaust gases than
a single wheel can absorb.* 33. The active clearance control system aids turbine engine
c. To help stabilize the pressure between the efficiency by
compressor and the turbine. a. automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain
a desired EPR.
22. When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive b. adjusting stator vane position according to
heat stress, what type of failures would you expect? operating conditions and power requirements.
a. Bending and torsion. c. ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances
b. Stress rupture.* are kept to a minimum by controlling case
c. Torsion and tension. temperatures.*
23. Which of the following conditions is usually not 34. Turbine rear struts
acceptable to any extent in turbine blades? a. straighten the gas flow.*
a. Cracks.* b. Dents. b. increase the velocity of the gas flow.
c. Pits. c. increase the pressure of the gas flow.
24. The forces driving a turbine round are due to 35. Bowing of turbine blades indicates an
a. impulse only. a. over-temperature condition.*
b. reaction only. b. over-speed condition.
c. impulse and reaction.* c. under-temperature condition.
25. Nozzle guide vanes give a 36. On an impulse-reaction turbine blade it is

a. pressure increase, velocity decrease. a. impulse at the root and reaction at the tip.*
b. pressure increase, velocity increase. b. reaction at the root and impulse at the tip.
c. pressure decrease, velocity increase.* c. impulse and reaction all the away along the blade.
26. Shrouding of stator blade tips is to 37. Turbine creep effects

a. minimise vibration.* a. turbine blades.* c. turbine disks.
b. ensure adequate cooling. c. N.G.Vs.
c. prevent tip turbulence.
38. Creep is
27. Why are two or more turbine wheels coupled? a. not found in turbines.
a. To keep turbine rotor diameter small. b. a temporary deformation of turbine.
b. So power output is doubled.* c. a permanent deformation of turbine.*
c. To simplify dynamic balancing.
39. Creep, overall
28. Running clearance on a turbine disk is kept to a a. has no effect on turbine diameter.
minimum to reduce b. increases turbine diameter.*
a. temperature loss. c. decreases turbine diameter.
b. aerodynamic buffeting.
c. tip losses.* 40. How are turbine disks attached to the shaft in gas
turbine engine?
29. Two basic types of turbine blades are a. Splined. b. Curvic couplings.
a. impulse and vector. c. Bolted.*
b. reaction and impulse.*
c. tangential and reaction.
41. Fir tree turbine blade attachment locates the blade b. is formed during manufacture.
a. allows slight movement.* c. is due to bending when the gas hits the blades.
b. radially.
c. axially. 53. Impulse blades operate cooler than reaction blades
because
42. Creep may occur to turbine blades due to a. impulse blades rotate at higher speeds.
a. prolonged low RPM use. b. the N.G.V’s cool the air.
b. over-temp with excessive centrifugal loads. * c. the airflow has a higher velocity through a impulse
c. high back pressures. turbine N.G.V.*
43. Creep may occur to turbine blades due to 54. During a borescope check of the H.P turbine blades
a. prolonged low RPM use. a. dry motor the engine at minimum speed.
b. over-temp with excessive centrifugal loads.* b. hand turn the turbine wheel.
c. high back pressures. c. attach a device to the accessory gearbox and rotate
slowly.*
44. Forces driving the turbine are due to
a. aerodynamic lift imposing impulse on blades. 55. The turbine section of a jet engine
b. momentum and directional acceleration of gases.* a. converts dynamic pressure into mechanical
c. expansion of gases. energy.*
b. circulates air to cool the engine.
45. Impulse turbine blades run cooler than reaction blades c. extracts heat energy to drive the compressor.
because
a. impulse spin faster radially. 56. The temperature and centrifugal loads which the
b. temperature drop across N.G.V is greater.* turbine is subjected to during normal engine operation
c. converging rotors increase velocity. causes
a. fatigue failure.
46. An increase in turbine diameter is caused by b. elastic stretching.
a. prolonged high temperatures and centrifugal c. creep loading.*
loads.*
b. products of combustion. 57. Impulse-reaction turbine blades form
c. over speed. a. tip half reaction, root half Impulse.*
b. 1 stage impulse, 1 stage reaction.
47. Which of the following is most likely to occur in the c. tip half Impulse, root half reaction.
turbine section of a gas turbine engine?
a. Pitting. b. Galling. 58. A fir tree root
c. Cracking.* a. allows compressor cooling air to alleviate thermal
stress.
48. Aluminium deposits on the turbine show up as b. attaches turbine blades to the turbine disk.*
a. white or silver speckles.* c. allows individual turbine blades to be changed
b. white powder traces. without engine disassembly.
c. black stains.
59. The passage between adjacent nozzle guide vanes
49. An impulse/reaction turbine is designed to ensure forms a
a. greater axial velocity at the blade root. a. convergent duct.*
b. uniform axial velocity from blade root to tip.* b. divergent duct.
c. greater axial velocity at the blade tip. c. parallel duct.
50. Excessive turbine temperatures can lead to 60. As the hot gasses flow through an impulse turbine
a. turbine blade creep and an increase in the diameter blading, the velocity
of the turbine.* a. will decrease.
b. not a serious problem as long as engine oil pressure b. remains constant.* c. will increase.
is within limits.
c. a serious fire risk in the engine. 61. What is the normal range of turbine efficiency?
a. 90% - 95%.* b. 70% - 85%.
51. What are blue and golden deposits evidence of, on a c. 30% - 40%.
turbine blade?
a. Titanium.* b. Aluminium. 62. Turbine engine components are never manufactured
c. Magnesium. by
a. electrical resistance welding.
52. Necking and mottling of turbine blades b. argon arc welding.
a. is due to thermal stress.* c. gas welding.*
63. How is a radial turbine driven? 73. In reaction type turbine, reaction force is produced by
a. By impulse. a. Impact of the high velocity gases.
b. By change of momentum and angle of airflow.* b. The convergent turbine blades*.
c. By reaction. c. The divergent turbine blades.
64. Turbine disk growth is due to
a. a permanent change in disk diameter.* 74. In combined impulse and reaction type the turbine
b. an overall increase in blade length. blade is
c. a build up of carbon deposits. a. Impulse type at roots and gradually blends to
reaction towards the tip*.
65. A nozzle guide vane is b. Impulse type on the tip side and reaction type at
a. hollow in construction to allow for thermal the roots.
expansion. c. Of half impulse and half reaction type.
b. hollow in construction to allow for flow of cooling d. None of the above.
air.*
c. solid in construction to support the guide vane. 75. The metallurgical requirement of the turbine should be
with
66. A slow constant growth in a turbine blade is known as a. Resistance to oxidation and creep .
a. primary creep. b. High tensile strength with resistance to fracture.
b. secondary creep.* c. Resistance to fatigue and corrosion.
c. tertiary creep. d. All above*.
67. There are two distinct classes of turbines i.e, 76. The exhaust unit consists of
a. Combustion and explosive*. a. A cone assembly and propelling nozzle*.
b. Hydro and gas. b. Inner and outer cones only.
c. Both as a. and b. c. Tail pipe and propelling nozzle.
d. None of the above. d. None of the above.
68. The types of turbine blades are 77. In propelling nozzle gas attains high velocity and is
a. Impulse and reaction. discharged to atmosphere at
b. Impulse, reaction or impulse reaction*. a. A pressure slightly less then atmosphere.
c. Both as a. and b. b. A pressure slightly more then atmosphere*.
d. None of the above c. A pressure equal to atmosphere.
d. High pressure and high velocity.
69. In impulse type turbine, the entire gas expansion takes
place in 78. The turbine nozzle guide vanes
a. Turbine vanes. a. Decreases the velocity of gases.
b. Stator vanes*. b. Increases the pressure of gases.
c. Both rotor and stator blades. c. Increases the velocity of gases*.
d. None of the above. d. Functions as a. and b.
70. In impulse type turbine blades, gas velocity increases 79. Across the turbine, in gas turbine engine, there will be
and pressure and temperature drops considerable
a. In turbine blades. a. Increase in pressure and drop in velocity.
b. Convergent stator blades*. b. Drop in velocity and pressure.
c. Divergent stator blades. c. Drop in pressure and temperature*.
d. None of the above. d. Increase in pressure and temperature.
71. In reaction type of turbine there is pressure drop in 80. One function of the nozzle diaphragm in a turbine
a. Turbine blades. engine is to?
b. Stator blades. a. Decrease the velocity of exhaust gases.
c. Both rotor and stator blades*. b. Center the fuel spray in the combustion chamber.
d. None of the above. c. Direct the flow of gases to strike the turbine blades
at a desired angle.*
72. In reaction type of turbine, it receives the gas at
a. Higher pressure and temperature*. 81. The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine engine
b. High velocity with less pressure. a. is usually accomplished only at engine overhaul.
c. High pressure and less temperature. b. should be performed parallel to the length of the
d. Low pressure and temperature. blade using smooth contours to minimize stress
points.*
c. may sometimes be accomplished with the engine 92. When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive
installed, ordinarily using power tools. heat stress, what type of failures would you expect?
a. Bending and torsion. b. Torsion and tension.
82. Which statement is true regarding jet engines? c. Stress rupture.*
a. At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly
with small increases in RPM. 93. The stators in the turbine section of a gas turbine
b. At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases engine
rapidly with small increases in RPM.* a. increase the velocity of the gas flow.*
c. The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is b. decrease the velocity of the gas flow.
less at high altitude that at low altitude. c. increase the pressure of the gas flow.
83. The turbine section of a jet engine 94. Why do some turbine engines have more than one
a. increases air velocity to generate thrust forces. turbine wheel attached to a single shaft?
b. utilizes heat energy to expand and accelerate the a. To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly.
incoming gas flow. b. To help stabilize the pressure between the
c. drives the compressor section.* compressor and the turbine.
c. To extract more power from the exhaust gases than
84. What are the two basic elements of the turbine section a single wheel can absorb.*
in a turbine engine?
a. Impeller and diffuser. b. Hot and cold. 95. A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine
c. Stator and rotor.* is accomplished in order to
a. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case
85. Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas turbine contracts around it.*
engines identify turbine discharge pressure in their b. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel
maintenance manuals as lines.
a. Pt7.* b. Pt2. c. Tt7. c. prevent seizure of the engine bearings.
86. Three types of turbine blades are 96. What is meant by a shrouded turbine?
a. reaction, converging, and diverging. a. The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends
b. impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction.* form a band or shroud.*
c. impulse, vector, and impulse-vector. b. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective
shroud to contain the blades in case of failure.
87. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to c. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which
operating damage than compressor blades because of provides cooling air to the turbine blades.
a. higher centrifugal loading.
b. exposure to high temperatures.* 97. What term is used to describe a permanent and
c. high pressure and high velocity gas flow. cumulative deformation of the turbine blades of a
turbojet engine?
88. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of a. Stretch. b. Distortion.
turbine engine operation? c. Creep.*
a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
b. Turbine inlet temperature.*
c. Burner-can pressure. 
89. Which of the following engine variables is the most

critical during turbine engine operation?
a. Compressor inlet air temperature
b. Compressor RPM.
c. Turbine inlet temperature.*
90. Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed

inspection must be reinstalled in
a. a specified slot 180o away.
b. a specified slot 90o away in the direction of rotation.
c. the same slot.*
91. The highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet engine is the

a. burner cans.
b. turbine inlet guide vanes.*
c. turbine blades.
CHAPTER - 7
ENGINE EXHAUST
1. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine 10. A convergent-divergent nozzle
engine is to a. requires the aircraft to be travelling at supersonic
a. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single speeds.
exhaust jet. b. makes maximum use of pressure thrust.*
b. collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise c. produces a type of thrust known as kinetic thrust.
suppressor.
c. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid 11. The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a
exhaust jet.* divergent nozzle
a. decreases.
2. A nozzle is ‘choked’ when the gas flow or air flow at b. increases.*
the throat is c. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
a. sonic.* b. subsonic.
c. supersonic. 12. The Jet Pipe of a gas turbine engine
a. protects the airframe from heat damage.*
3. The struts on the exhaust cone b. has an inner cone to protect the rear turbine disc.
a. straighten the gas flow only. c. is convergent in shape to increase the velocity as
b. support the exhaust cone and straighten the gas much as possible.
flow.*
c. support the exhaust cone only. 13. For what purpose is the propelling nozzle of a gas
turbine engine designed?
4. A nozzle is ‘choked’ when the engine inlet airflow is a. To increase the velocity and decrease the pressure
a. subsonic. of the gas stream leaving the nozzle.*
b. supersonic. b. To decrease the velocity and increase the pressure
c. subsonic or supersonic.* of the gas stream leaving the nozzle.
c. To increase the velocity and pressure of the gas
5. What is the maximum practical angle through which stream leaving the nozzle.
the gas flow can be turned during thrust reversal?
a. 180°. b. 50°. 14. If the exit area of the nozzle was too large, the effect is
c. 135°.* a. exit velocity lower causing loss of thrust.*
b. will choke at a lower gas temperature.
6. A supersonic duct is c. exit velocity lower, negligible effect on thrust.
a. convergent then divergent along its length. *
b. divergent then convergent along its length. 15. A choked nozzle
c. a convergent duct that is choked at the largest end a. increases thrust.*
at mach 1. b. decreases thrust.
c. has no effect on the thrust.
7. Noise from the jet wake when untreated by suppression
is 16. The exhaust section is designed to
a. high frequency, high decibel. a. increase temperature, therefore increasing velocity.
b. low frequency, low decibel. b. decrease temperature, therefore decreasing
c. low frequency, high decibel.* pressure.
c. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases.*
8. Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are
possible indicators of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle or 17. Reverse thrust can only be selected when the throttle is
a. a faulty igniter plug. a. closed.*
b. an improperly positioned tail cone. b. 75% power position.
c. a faulty combustion chamber.* c. open.
9. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine 18. A Convergent-Divergent nozzle.
will cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust a. makes maximum use of Pressure thrust.*
duct to b. produces a type of thrust known as kinetic thrust.
a. increase and the velocity to decrease.* c. requires the aircraft to be travelling at supersonic
b. decrease and the velocity to increase. speeds.
c. increase and the velocity to increase.
19. On front fan engines, to obtain thrust reversal, the thrust reverser, retard thrust levers to ground idle.
a. hot and cold streams are reversed. b. Retard thrust levers to ground idle, raise thrust
b. hot stream is reversed. reverser levers as required, and retard thrust
c. cold stream is reversed.* reverser levers to ground idle.*
c. Select thrust reverse, advance thrust reverser levers
20. Exhaust noise can be reduced by no higher than 75% N1, and retard thrust reverser
a. lowering the vibration frequency. levers to idle at approximately normal taxi speed.
b. increasing the mixing rate.*
c. increasing the jet velocity. 28. Most exhaust system failures result from thermal
fatigue cracking in the areas of stress concentration.
21. Operating thrust reversers at low ground speeds can This condition is usually caused by
sometimes cause a. the high temperatures at which the exhaust system
a. sand or other foreign object ingestion, hot gas re- operates.*
ingestion. b. improper welding techniques during manufacture.
b. hot gas re-ingestion, compressor stalls. c. the drastic temperature change which is
c. sand or other foreign object ingestion, hot gas re- encountered at altitude.
ingestion, compressor stalls.*
29. Thrust reversal on a high bypass engine is achieved
22. Thrust reversers utilizing a pneumatic actuating by
system, usually receive operating pressure from a. blocker doors.*
a. the engine bleed air system.* b. clamshell configuration.
b. high pressure air reservoirs. c. bucket type doors.
c. an on-board hydraulic or electrical powered
compressor. 30. If damage is found to the reverse thrust cascade vanes
and they need replacing, you can
23. The purpose of cascade vanes in a thrust reversing a. replace damaged vanes with 450 vanes.
system is to b. only replace vanes with new ones that have the
a. turn the exhaust gases forward just after exiting correct part as the originals removed.*
the exhaust nozzle. c. interchange the cascade vanes as they are
b. form a solid blocking door in the jet exhaust path. interchangeable.
c. turn to a forward direction the fan and/or hot
exhaust gases that have been blocked from exiting 31. When should thrust reversers be used?
through the exhaust nozzle.* a. low RPM and low forward speed.*
b. At high RPM and high forward speed.
24. A convergent exhaust nozzle produces mainly c. At high RPM and low forward speed.
a. momentum and pressure thrust.
b. momentum thrust.* 32. If the area of the nozzle was too large the effect is
c. pressure thrust. a. will ‘choke’ at mach 1.
b. exit velocity lower causing loss of the thrust.*
25. The rearward thrust capability of an engine with the c. exit velocity lower, negligible effect on thrust.
thrust reverser system deployed is
a. equal to or less than its forward capability, 33. Lobe type exhaust noise suppressors are made from
depending on ambient conditions and system a. heat resistant alloy.*
design. b. composite Material.
b. less than its forward capability.* c. steel.
c. equal to its forward capability.
34. What indication does the pilot receive that thrust
26. Which statement is generally true regarding thrust reversers have deployed?
reverser systems? a. An audible warning.
a. Engine thrust reversers on the same aircraft usually b. A sequence of lights.*
will not operate independently of each other (must c. A feeling of rapid deceleration.
all be simultaneously).
b. It is possible to move some aircraft backward on 35. What angle are the exhaust gasses turned through in
the ground using reverse thrust.* a clamshell type thrust reverser?
c. Mechanical blockage system design permits a a. 180 degrees. b. 135 degrees.*
deployment position aft of the exhaust nozzle only. c. 45 degrees.
27. What is the proper operating sequence when using 36. The purpose of a propelling nozzle is to
thrust reversers to slow an aircraft after landing? a. increase the velocity of the air and increase thrust.*
a. Advance thrust levers up to takeoff position as b. decrease the velocity of the exhaust to increase
conditions require, select thrust reverse, de-select static pressure.
c. direct the air onto the turbines.
37. If a thrust reverser is deployed at lower than normal b. Through turning the vanes.
landing speed c. Either of the above*.
a. exhaust gases can be ingested into the engine.* d. None of the above.
b. the thrust reverser will be ineffective.
c. if the EGT gets too high the thrust reverser will 48. In certain engines, the thrust reverser is combined with
automatically restow. a. Turbine cooling system.
b. Variable area propelling nozzle.
38. The size of the exhaust section is dictated by c. Noise suppressor*.
a. cone or diffuser size and location. d. Either of the above.
b. size of engine only.
c. size and location of the engine.* 49. The thrust reversers provides approximately reverse
thrust
39. On a Clamshell door type thrust reverser. The Clamshell a. Equal to full forward thrust.
doors redirect the exhaust gas stream b. 50 % of full forward thrust*.
a. 0 degrees to the thrust line. c. 80 % of full forward thrust.
b. 45 degrees to the thrust line.* d. None of the above.
c. 90 degrees to the thrust line.
50. Why is high nickel chromium steel used in many
40. Normal gas turbine engine’s exhaust duct is exhaust systems?
a. divergent. a. High heat conductivity and flexibility.
b. convergent/divergent. b. Corrosion resistance and low expansion
c. convergent.* coefficient.*
c. Corrosion resistance and high heat conductivity.
41. As the air flows out at the outflow of a choked nozzle
a. velocity increases and pressure decreases. 51. Reciprocating engine exhaust system designs
b. velocity and pressure decrease. commonly used to provide for ease of installation and/
c. velocity decreases and pressure increases.* or allow for expansion and contraction, may include
the use of
42. Propelling nozzle ejects out the gases with 1. spring loaded ball/flexible joints.
a. Maximum velocity at high pressure. 2. slip joints.
b. Maximum velocity at pressure equal to atmosphere. 3. bellows.
c. Maximum velocity at just above atmospheric 4. flexible metal tubing.
pressure*. a. 1, 2, 3, and/or 4. b. 1, 2, and/or 4.
d. Maximum velocity at less than atmospheric c. 1, 2, and/or 3.*
pressure.
52. One source commonly used for carburetor air heat is
43. Thrust reversers reduces the a. turbocharger heated air.
a. Stresses on brakes. b. Descending speed. b. alternate air heat.
c. Landing run*. d. All above. c. exhaust gases.*
44. Drag clute are only being opted for combat turbo jets 53. The hot section of a turbine engine is particularly
It is not employed for commercial jets, because of susceptible to which of the following kind of damage?
a. Its excessive weight. b. Reliability. a. Galling. b. Pitting.
c. High operation cost. d. Both b. and c.* c. Cracking.*
45. There are basically two types of thrust reversers i.e, 54. What is the purpose of a slip joint in an exhaust
a. Blocker and doors type. collector ring?
b. Cascade and blocker type. a. It aids in alignment and absorbs expansion.*
c. Pre and post exit type*. b. It reduces vibration and increases cooling.
d. Vertical and horizontal thrust type. c. It permits the collector ring to be installed in one
piece
46. Post exit reversing is accomplished simply by placing
an obstruction in the jet exhaust steam about 55. Sodium-filled valves are advantageous to an aviation
a. Two nozzle diameters. engine because they
b. Half nozzle diameter. a. are lighter.
c. One nozzle diameter*. b. dampen valve impact shocks.
d. None of the above diameters. c. dissipate heat well.*
47. The pre-exit type thrust reversers, the exhaust gas 56. What type of nuts are used to hold an exhaust system
stream is reversed by to the cylinders?
a. Deflector door. a. Brass or heat-resistant nuts.*
b. High-temperature fiber self-locking nuts. b. Use super fine granite grit.

c. High-temperature aluminum self-locking nuts. c. Use sand which has not previously been used on
iron or steel.*
57. Repair of exhaust system components
a. is impossible because the material cannot be 65. Power recovery turbines used on some reciprocating
identified. engines are driven by the
b. must be accomplished by the component a. exhaust gas pressure.
manufacturer. b. crankshaft.
c. is not recommended to be accomplished in the c. velocity of the exhaust gases.*
field.*
66. Reciprocating engine exhaust systems that have
58. On turbojet powered airplanes, thrust reversers are repairs or sloppy weld beads which protrude internally
capable of producing between? are unacceptable because they cause
a. 35 and 50 percent of the rated thrust in the reverse a. base metal fatigue.
direction.* b. localized cracks.
b. 35 and 75 percent of the rated thrust in the reverse c. local hot spots.*
direction.
c. 35 and 65 percent of the rated thrust in the reverse 67. Ball joints in reciprocating engine exhaust systems
direction. should be
a. tight enough to prevent any movement.
59. On an aircraft that utilizes an exhaust heat exchanger b. disassembled and the seals replaced every engine
as a source of cabin heat, how should the exhaust change.
system be inspected? c. loose enough to permit some movement.*
a. X-rayed to detect any cracks.
b. Hydrostatically tested. 68. How are combustion liner walls cooled in a gas turbine
c. With the heater air shroud removed.* engine?
a. By secondary air flowing through the combustion
60. How should ceramic-coated exhaust components be chamber.*
cleaned? b. By the pattern of holes and louvers cut in the
a. With alkali. diffuser section.
b. By degreasing.* c. By bleed air vented from the engine air inlet.
c. By mechanical means.
69. Augmenter tubes are part of which reciprocating
61. Which of the following indicates that a combustion engine system?
chamber of a jet engine is not operating properly? a. Induction. b. Exhaust.*
a. Clam shells stick in thrust reverse position. c. Fuel.
b. Hot spots on the tail cone.*
c. Warping of the exhaust duct liner. 70. Dislodged internal muffler baffles on a small
reciprocating engine may
62. Select a characteristic of a good weld on exhaust a. obstruct the muffler outlet and cause excessive
stacks. exhaust back pressure.*
a. The weld should be built up 1/8 inch. b. cause the engine to run excessively cool.
b. Porousness or projecting globules should show in c. cause high fuel and oil consumption.
the weld.
c. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base 71. What is the purpose of an exhaust outlet guard on a
metal.* small reciprocating engine?
a. To prevent dislodged muffler baffles from
63. How do the turbines which are driven by the exhaust obstructing the muffler outlet.*
gases of a turbo-compound engine contribute to total b. To reduce spark exit.
engine power output? c. To shield adjacent components from excessive
a. By driving the crankshaft through suitable heat.
couplings.*
b. By driving the supercharger, thus relieving the 72. What could be a result of undetected exhaust system
engine of the supercharging load. leaks in a reciprocating engine powered airplane?
c. By converting the latent heat energy of the exhaust a. Pilot/passenger incapacitation caused by carbon
gases into thrust by collecting and accelerating monoxide entering the cabin.*
them. b. A rough-running engine with increased fuel
consumption.
64. How should corrosion-resistant steel parts such as c. Too low exhaust back pressure resulting in the
exhaust collectors be blast cleaned? desired power settings not being attained.
a. Use steel grit which has not previously beed used
on soft iron.
73. How may reciprocating engine exhaust system leaks 81. The rearward thrust capability of an engine with the
be detected? thrust reverser system deployed is
a. An exhaust trail aft of the tailpipe on the airplane a. less than its forward capability.*
exterior. b. equal to or less than its forward capability,
b. Fluctuating manifold pressure indication. depending on ambient conditions and system
c. Signs of exhaust soot inside cowling and on design.
adjacent components.* c. equal to its forward capability.
74. Compared to normally aspirated engines, turbocharged 82. Which statement is generally true regarding thrust
engine exhaust systems operate at reverser systems?
a. similar temperatures and higher pressures. a. It is possible to move some aircraft backward on
b. higher temperatures and higher pressures.* the ground using reverse thrust.*
c. similar temperatures and pressures. b. Engine thrust reversers on the same aircraft usually
will not operate independently of each other (must
75. Most exhaust system failures result from thermal all be simultaneously).
fatigue cracking in the areas of stress concentration. c. Mechanical blockage system design permits a
This condition is usually caused by deployment position aft of the exhaust nozzle only.
a. the drastic temperature change which is
encountered at altitude. 83. What is the proper operating sequence when using
b. improper welding techniques during manufacture. thrust reversers to slow an aircraft after landing?
c. the high temperatues at which the exhaust system a. Advance thrust levers up to takeoff position as
operates.* condition require, select thrust reverse, de-select
thrust reverser, retard thrust levers to ground idle.
76. Thrust reversers utilizing a pneumatic actuating system b. Retard thrust levers to ground idle, raise thrust
usually receive operating pressure from reverser levers as required, and retard thrust levers
a. the engine bleed air system.* to ground idle.*
b. an on board hydraulic or electrical powered c. Select thrust reverse, advance thrust reverser levers
compressor. no higher than 75% N 1, and retard thrust reverser
c. high pressure air reservoirs. levers to idle at approximately normal taxi speed.
77. Operating thrust reversers at low ground speeds can 84. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream
sometimes cause side of each turbine wheel are used in the gas turbine
1. sand or other foreign object ingestion. engine to
2. hot gas re-ingestion. a. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing
3. compressor stalls. past this point.
a. 1, 2, and 3.* b. 1 and 2. b. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line
c. 2 and 3. of the turbine blades.
c. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing
78. Engines using cold stream, or both cold and hot stream past this point.*
reversing include
a. high bypass turbofans.* 85. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine
b. turbojets. will cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust
c. turbojets with afterburner. duct to
a. increase and the velocity to decrease.*
79. The purpose of cascade vanes in a thrust reversing b. increase and the velocity to increase.
system is to c. decrease and the velocity to increase.
a. form a solid blocking door in the jet exhaust path.
b. turn the exhaust gases forward just after exiting 86. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine
the exhaust nozzle. engine is to
c. turn to a forward direction the fan and/or hot a. collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise
exhaust gases that have been blocked from exiting suppressor.
through the exhaust nozzle.* b. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single
exhaust jet.
80. Turbojet and turbofan thrust reverser systems are c. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid
generally powered by exhaust jet.*
1. fuel pressure.
2. electricity. 87. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a
3. hydraulic pressure. convergent nozzle.
4. pneumatic pressure. a. increases.*
a. 1, 3, and 4. b. 1, 2, and 3. b. decreases.
c. 2, 3, and 4.* c. remains constant.
88. The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a

divergent nozzle
a. increases.*
b. decreases.
c. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
89. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a

convergent nozzle
a. increases.
b. decreases.*
c. remains constant.
90. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows though a

divergent nozzle
a. increases.
b. decreases.*
c. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
91. The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to

a. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases.*
b. increase temperature, therefore increasing velocity.
c. decrease temperature, therefore decreasing
pressure.
92. What is the purpose of the dump valve used on aircraft

gas turbine engines?
a. The fuel is quickly cut off to the nozzle and the
manifolds are drained preventing fuel boiling as a
result of residual engine heat.*
b. The valve controls compressor stalls by dumping
compressor bleed air from the compressor
discharge port under certain conditions.
c. Maintains minimum fuel pressure to the engine fuel
control unit inlet and dumps excessive fuel back to
the inlet of the engine driven fuel pump.
93. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle

located?
a. Combustion. b. Turbine.
c. Exhaust.*
94. A condition known as "hot streaking" in turbine

engines is caused by
a. a partially clogged fuel nozzle.*
b. a misaligned combustion liner.
c. excessive fuel flow.

CHAPTER - 8
BEARINGS AND SEALS
1. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are 11. Seals on a gas turbine engine restrict leakage of oil by
usually what type(s)? a. spring pressure.
a. Teflon and synthetic rubber. b. closely tolerated contacting components.
b. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.* c. air pressure.*
c. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.
12. An abradable lining in the fan case
2. If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller a. prevents fan blade tip rub.
bearings are found to have magnetism but otherwise b. produces less leakage at tips for anti-ice.
have no defects, they c. provides acoustic medium.*
a. are in an acceptable service condition.
b. cannot be used again. 13. Squeeze film bearings are usually found on
c. must be degaussed before use.* a. H.P compressor section.
b. the turbine section.
3. A carbon seal has which type of sealing arrangement? c. LP compressor section.*
a. Full contact with race.*
b. Full contact with casing. 14. Taper roller bearings accept loads in which direction?
c. Full contact with labyrinth. a. Axial loads only.
b. Radial and axial in both directions.
4. The highest turbine bearing temperature takes place c. Radial and axial in one direction only.*
a. all the time. b. at start-up.
c. at shut-down.* 15. Some labyrinth seals
a. control the outflow of air at the turbine.*
5. Indentations on bearing races caused by high static b. are self lubricating.
loads are known as c. are spring loaded.
a. fretting. b. galling.
c. brinelling.* 16. The purpose of ‘squeeze film’ type bearing is to
a. increase the flow of oil to the rolling element.
6. The function of a labyrinth seal is to create b. minimise the effect of vibration.*
a. a restricted leakage of air between fixed and rotating c. improve outer race cooling.
components.*
b. an airtight seal between fixed and rotation 17. In a jet engine the rotating assembly oil seals are
components. maintained oil tight by means of
c. an airtight seal between fixed adjacent casing a. a garter seal.
surfaces. b. an annular expander ring.
c. air pressure.*
7. The bearings of a compressor rotor are usually
a. ball and roller.* b. plain. 18. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are
c. sintered. usually what type (s)?
a. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.*
8. Bearing seal failure would most probably cause b. Teflon and synthetic rubber.
a. high oil temperature. c. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.
b. high oil consumption.*
c. low oil pressure.

9. Why are oil seals pressurised?
a. To ensure minimum oil loss.*
b. To ensure oil is forced into the bearings.
c. To ensure that the oil is prevented from leaving the
bearing housing.
10. What bearing is used to take axial loads on a main

rotation shaft of a gas turbine engine?
a. Plain bearing. b. Roller bearing.
c. Ball bearing.*
CHAPTER - 9
LUBRICANTS AND FUELS
1. Kerosene will burn effectively at an air/fuel ratio of b. have less tendency to produce lacquer or coke.*
a. 150:1. b. 15:1.* c. may permit a somewhat higher level of carbon
c. 45:1. formation in the engine.
2. When using Prist or Biopor 10. If all other requirements can be met, what type of oil
a. it is left and burnt with the fuel.* should be used to achieve theoretically perfect engine
b. it is diluted with water to a 3-1 mix. lubrication?
c. it is flushed out immediately. a. An oil that combines high viscosity and low
demulsibility.
3. What is D.E.R.D 2494? b. The thinnest oil that will stay in place and maintain
a. Oil. a reasonable film strength.*
b. Wide cut gasoline. c. An oil that combines a low viscosity index and a
c. Kerosene.* high neutralization number.
4. A high viscosity index means the oil viscosity 11. In addition to lubricating (reducing friction between
a. will vary greatly with temperature change. moving parts), engine oil performs what functions?
b. has a large index number. a. Cools, seals, prevents corrosion.
c. will not vary greatly with temperature change.* b. Cools, seals, prevents corrosion, cushions shock
loads.*
5. A fuel system icing inhibitor is a fuel additive which c. Cools and seals.
a. prevents both the water and the fuel freezing.
b. prevents the fuel from freezing. 12. The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of it's
c. prevents the water in the fuel freezing.* a. weight, or density.
b. rate of change of internal friction with change in
6. What will be the result of operating an engine in temperature.
extremely high temperatures using a lubricant c. resistance to flow.*
recommended by the manufacturer for a much lower
temperature? 13. Which of the following factors helps determine the
a. The oil pressure will be lower than normal.* proper grade of oil to use in a particular engine?
b. The oil temperature and oil pressure will be higher a. Adequate lubrication in various attitudes of flight.
than normal. b. Operating speeds of bearings.*
c. The oil pressure will be higher than normal. c. Positive introduction of oil to the bearings.
7. The time in seconds required for exactly 60 cubic 14. Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a
centimeters of oil to flow through an accurately substance to the weight of an equal volume of
calibrated orifice at a specific temperature is recorded a. oil at a specific temperature.
as a measurement of the oil’s b. mercury at a specific temperature.
a. specific gravity. b. flash point. c. distilled water at a specific temperature.*
c. viscosity.*
15. What advantage do mineral base lubricants have over
8. Upon what quality or characteristic of a lubricating oil vegetable oil base lubricants when used in aircraft
is its viscosity index based? engines?
a. Its rate of flow through an orifice at a standard a. Cooling ability. b. Chemical stability.*
temperature. c. Friction resistance.
b. Its rate of change in viscosity with temperature
change.* 16. High tooth pressures and high rubbing velocities, such
c. Its resistance to flow at a standard temperature as as occur with spur type gears, require the use of
compared to high grade paraffin base oil at the a. an E.P lubricant.*
same temperature. b. metallic ash detergent oil.
c. straight mineral oil.
9. Compared to reciprocating engine oils, the types of
oils used in turbine engines 17. Which of these characteristics is desirable in turbine
a. are required to carry and disperse a higher level of engine oil?
combustion by-products.
a. High volatility. b. High flash point.* 28. Reid vapour pressure, is the vapour pressure exerted
c. Low flash point. by a fuel when heated to.
a. 38°C.* b. 48°C.
18. What action is taken to protect integral fuel tanks from c. 15°C.
corrosion due to micro biological contamination?.
a. Rubber liners are installed in the tank.
b. A biocidal additive is added to the fuel.* 
c. The inside of the tank is coated with yellow
chromate.
19. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity

of a turbine engine performance check if an alternate
fuel is to be used?.
a. Maximum RPM adjustment.
b. Fuel specific gravity setting.*
c. EPR gauge calibration.
20. Kerosene is used as turbine engine fuel because.

a. kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and
lubricates fuel system components.*
b. kerosene has very high volatility which aids in
ignition and lubrication.
c. kerosene does not contain any water.
21. Calorific value is the.

a. amount of heat or energy in one pound of fuel.*
b. vaporisation point of fuel.
c. fuel boiling temperature.
22. The specific gravity of fuel affects.

a. thrust rating. b. aircraft range.*
c. engine efficiency.
23. Oil used in a gas turbine engine is usually.

a. mineral. b. natural.
c. synthetic.*
24. An oil spectroscope measures.

a. contaminants suspended in the oil.*
b. S.G. of the oil.
c. contaminants in the surface of the oil.
25. Ignition of fuel depends upon.

a. volatility.
b. atomisation.
c. both volatility and atomisation.*
26. Kerosene is used instead of gasoline because.

a. kerosene is highly volatile and has good lubrication
qualities.
b. Kerosene is less volatile and has good lubrication
properties.*
c. kerosene has a higher volatility than gasoline and
has good lubrication abilities.
27. If the specific gravity of a fuel is increased, the weight

of a tank of fuel will.
a. decrease. b. remain the same.
c. increase.*
CHAPTER - 10
LUBRICATION SYSTEMS
1. The oil pressure in the cooler is. 10. Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following
a. same as the fuel pressure. turbine engine components?.
b. lower than the fuel pressure. a. Compressor bearing.
c. higher than the fuel pressure.* b. Rotor coupling.
c. Turbine bearing.*
2. When rotating, the gear type oil pump.
a. draws oil into the pump and carries it round 11. In a jet engine which uses a fuel oil heat exchanger, the
between the gear teeth and casing.* oil temperature is controlled by a thermostatic valve
b. draws oil into the pump and through the that regulates the flow of
intermeshing gears to the outlet. a. both fuel and oil through the heat exchanger.
c. draws oil into the pump, half being carried around b. oil through the heat exchanger.*
between pump and casing, the other half passing c. fuel through the heat exchanger.
between the gears to the outlet.
12. What is the purpose of the last chance oil filters?
3. A scavenge filter is incorporated in a gas turbine a. To filter the oil immediately before it enters the main
lubrication system to. bearings.
a. protect the scavenge pump. b. To assure a clean supply of oil to the lubrication
b. protect the oil cooler. system.
c. protect the pressure pump.* c. To prevent damage to the oil spray nozzle.*
4. The working fluid of a constant speed drive (C.S.D) is. 13. Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat
a. from separate tank. exchanger on a turbojet engine?
b. within the unit.* a. Aerates the fuel.
c. taken from the engine lubrication system. b. Emulsifies the oil.
c. Increases fuel temperature.*
5. What is the possible cause when a turbine engine
indicates no change in power setting parameters, but 14. At cruise RPM, some oil will flow through the relief
oil temperature is high?. valve of a gear type engine oil pump. This is normal as
a. High scavenge pump oil flow. the relief valve is set at a pressure which is
b. Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine efficiency. a. higher than pressure pump capabilities.
c. Engine main bearing distress.* b. lower than the pressure pump capabilities.*
c. lower than the pump inlet pressure.
6. How is engine oil usually cooled?.
a. By a fuel/oil cooler.* b. By ram air. 15. What will happen to the return oil if the oil line between
c. By bleed air. the scavenger pump and the oil cooler separates?
a. Oil will accumulate in the engine.
7. What filters are used to protect oil pressure spray jets? b. The scavenger return line check valve will close
a. Felt/paper filters. and force the oil to bypass directly to the intake
b. In-line thread filters.* side of the pressure pump.*
c. Micronic filters. c. The return oil will be pumped overboard.
8. The chip detector in the oil system is a. 16. The oil dampened main bearing utilized in some turbine
a. window in the pump casing. engines is used to
b. window in the oil pump. a. dampen surges in oil pressure to the bearings.
c. magnetic plug in the return line.* b. provide lubrication of bearings from the beginning
of starting rotation until normal oil pressure is
9. When rotating, the gyroter type oil pump. established.
a. oil is drawn into the pump and through the c. provide an oil film between the outer race and the
intermeshing gears to the outlet. bearing housing in order to reduce vibration
b. oil is drawn into the pump, half being carried around tendencies in the rotor system, and to allow for
between pump and casing, the other half passing slight misalignment.*
between the gears to the outlet.
c. draws oil into the pump and carries it round 17. After making a welded repair to a pressurized type
between the gear teeth and casing.* turbine engine oil tank, the tank should be pressure
checked to
a. not less than 5 PSI plus the maximum operating 25. Manufacturers normally require turbine engine oil
pressure of the tank.* servicing within a short time after engine shutdown
b. not less than 5 PSI plus the average operating primarily to
pressure of the tank. a. prevent over servicing.*
c. 5 PSI. b. help dilute and neutralize any contaminants that
may already be present in the engine’s oil system.
18. Possible failure related ferrous metal particles in turbine c. provide a better indication of any oil leaks in the
engine oil cause an (electrical) indicating type magnetic system.
chip detector to indicate their presence by
a. bridging the gap between the detector center 26. In order to relieve excessive pump pressure in an
(positive) electrode and the ground electrode.* engine’s internal oil system, most engines are equipped
b. generating a small electric current that is caused with a
by the particles being in contact with the dissimilar a. vent.
metal of the detector tip. b. relief valve.*
c. disturbing the magnetic lines of flux around the c. bypass valve.
detector tip.
27. The type of oil pumps most commonly used on turbine
19. What would be the probable result if the oil system engines are classified as
pressure relief valve should stick in the open position a. positive displacement.*
on a turbine engine? b. constant speed.
a. Increased oil pressure. c. variable displacement.
b. Decreased oil temperature.*
c. Insufficient lubrication. 28. If the oil in the oil cooler core and annular jacket
becomes congealed, what unit prevents damage to the
20. What is the primary purpose of the oil to fuel heat cooler?
exchanger? a. Oil pressure relief valve*
a. De aerate the oil. b. Airflow control valve.
b. Cool the oil.* c. Surge protection valve.
c. Cool the fuel.
29. What will result if an oil filter becomes completely
21. Low oil pressure can be detrimental to the internal blocked?
engine components. However, high oil pressure a. Oil flow to the engine will stop.
a. has a negligible effect. b. Oil will flow at the normal rate through the system.*
b. will not occur because of pressure losses around c. Oil will flow at a reduced rate through the system.
the bearings.
c. should be limited to the engine manufacturer’s 30. A turbine engine dry sump lubrication system of the
recommendations.* self contained, high pressure design
a. stores oil in the engine crankcase.
22. What is the primary purpose of the oil breather b. has no heat exchanger.
pressurization system that is used on turbine engines? c. consists of pressure, breather, and scavenge
a. Prevents foaming of the oil.* subsystems.*
b. Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication
because of the air/oil mist. 31. What is the primary purpose of the hopper located in
c. Provides a proper oil spray pattern from the main the oil supply tank of some dry sump engine
bearing oil jets. installations?
a. To reduce the time required to warm the oil to
23. What type of oil system is usually found on turbine operating temperatures.*
engines? b. To impart a centrifugal motion to the oil entering
a. Dry sump, dip, and splash. the tank so that the foreign particles in the oil will
b. Dry sump, pressure, and spray.* separate more readily.
c. Wet sump, spray, and splash. c. To reduce surface aeration of the hot oil and thus
reduce oxidation and the formation of sludge and
24. How are the teeth of the gears in the accessory section varnish.
of an engine normally lubricated?
a. By surrounding the load bearing portions with 32. What determines the minimum particle size which will
baffles or housings within which oil pressure can be excluded or filtered by a cuno type (stacked disc,
be maintained. edge filtration) filter?
b. By splashed or sprayed oil.* a. Both the number and thickness of the discs in the
c. By submerging the load bearing portions in oil. assembly.
b. The spacer thickness.*
c. The disc thickness.
33. A full flow oil system has 43. Last chance’ filters in a lubrication system are serviced
a. a single fixed minimum oil pressure. during
b. a variable oil pressure dependent upon throttle a. line maintenance.
setting.* b. routine oil change.
c. a hot and cold oil pressure limit. c. engine overhaul.*
34. A felt filter in an oil lubrication system should be 44. The identification of a lubrication fluid line is the word
a. removed and cleaned in M.E.K. ‘lubrication’
b. removed and replaced with a new filter element.* a. followed by a caution.
c. removed and cleaned in a container of lead free b. followed by squares.*
petrol. c. followed by circles.
35. What filter is used in a oil scavenge pump in the inlet 45. Oil consumption in a gas turbine engine is
side of the pump? comparatively
a. Wire wound filter. a. Higher then piston engines
b. Threaded filter. b. Equal to piston engines
c. Wire mesh filter.* c. Lower then piston engines*
d. Much higher then piston engines
36. A vane type oil pump output is controlled by
a. outlet pressure against spring pressure.* 46. The lubrication system of a gas turbine engine is
b. outlet pressure controlling servo. a. Complicated
c. output pressure controlling plate angle. b. Simpler then piston engine*
c. Almost same as piston engine
37. The sump in a dry sump oil system d. Of splash type
a. is used as a collecting point only.*
b. houses all the engine oil. 47. In certain engines, lubrication system of a gas turbine
c. provides lubrication for the main bearings. engine may be utilised to operate
a. Fuel servo system
38. A jet engine gear box breather is prevented from leaking b. Thrust reverser or propelling nozzle flaps
oil to atmosphere by the action of c. All of above*
a. air or oil valve. d. None of the above
b. oil thrower ring and centrifugal force.
c. impeller and centrifugal force.* 48. A gas turbine lubrication system consists of
a. Oil tank, pumps and filter with PRV
39. The air-cooled-oil-cooler has an anti-surge valve in b. Oil separator, oil cooler and breather
order to c. Temperature and pressure regulation and indicators
a. protect the cooler.* d. All above*
b. restrict the engine max oil pressure.
c. stop oil draining from the system when the cooler 49. Usually there are number of scavenge pumps in gas
is removed. turbine engine to evaluate oil from various supports
but delivery of all ends in
40. A thread type oil seal in a lubrication system a. Oil tank
a. screws oil back into the bearing sump when the b. Oil cooler
shaft rotates c. Gear box sump from where single scavenge pump
b. has a thread on a stationary portion to prevent will eject out to tank*
fluid leaks.* d. None of the above
c. only seals when stationary.
50. Usually there are three types of basic oil filters used in
41. The oil system generally used on most modern jet engine i.e.
turboprop engines is a. Cartridge, felt and paper
a. dry sump type.* b. Felt, screen and screen disc
b. wet sump type. c. Screen, cartridge and screen discs*
c. A low pressure system. d. None of the above
42. A spur gear pump operating in a lubrication system 51. In modern, high power jet engines usually
promotes a. Air cooled oil coolers are used
a. high flow at low pressure. b. Fuel cooled oil coolers are used*
b. low flow at low pressure. c. Have large size air cooler
c. low flow at high pressure.* d. Have large size fuel cooled oil coolers
52. In jet engines generally the oil temperature is controlled 62. Pressure in bearing cavities of JT 8D engine is
by controlled for satisfactory scavenge pump performance
a. Thermo states b. Pressure sensing valve by means of
c. Either of the above* d. None of the above a. Pressure regulator
b. Breather system*
53. The modern jet engines have oil pumps of c. Pressure limiting valve
a. Gear type b. Gerotor type d. None of the above
c. Either of above* d. None of the above
63. In JT 8D engine, deoiler located in accessories gear
54. Usually the indicators in cabin which are concerned box separates
with lubrication system are a. Air from lubricating oil
a. Oil temperature and pressure gauges b. Oil from breathing air*
b. Low oil level and pressure warning light c. Hot and cold oil
c. Either of the above d. None of the above
d. All of the above*
64. Magnetic plugs and chip detectors indicates
55. JT 8D gas turbine engine has a hot tank lubricating a. Discolouration of lube oil
system that means b. The metallic chips*
a. Heating the oil in tank c. The carbon chips
b. Pressurising the tank with hot air d. All of the above.
c. Returning the hot scavenged oil directly to tank*
d. None of the above 65. In a turbo propeller engine usually the oil storage and
cooling provision is made
56. In a cold tank lubrication system a. On engine itself.
a. Oil tank is provided with cold air b. In aircraft*.
b. Oil is cooled before returning to tank* c. Either on engine or in aircraft.
c. Coolant is mixed with oil d. As mentioned in a. b. and c.
d. All of above
66. In turbo prop. engine usually the oil supply is
57. A by pass valve in oil pressure filter is provided to a. Independent for power section.
a. Limit the pressure in filter b. Independent for reduction gears.
b. Prevent flooding of filters c. Common for power section and reduction gears.
c. Provide unfiltered oil supply in case of its clogging* d. As mentioned in a. and b.*
67. Usually a check valve is provided in oil pressure filters
58. The annunciator light activated by pressure differential to
across the oil filter indicates that a. To prevent oil flow when engine is dead*.
a. Low system pressure b. To bypass oil, in case, the filter clogs.
b. Filter is clogged* c. To regulate oil pressure.
c. Inefficient scavenging d. None of the above.
d. All of above has happened
68. Usually in turbo prop. engines the oil from reduction
59. In JT 8D gas turbine engine the oil pressure is regulated gear is scavenged
a. Before oil cooler a. by a common scavenge pump of power section.
b. At pressure pump outlet b. by a independent scavenge pump*.
c. After oil cooler* c. by gravity.
d. None of the above d. by all above means.
60. In JT 8D gas turbine engine no 2 and 3 bearing 69. Generally in turbo prop. engines there are two pressure
support's oil is scavenged relief valves, in reduction gear system i.e,
a. By independent scavenged pump a. Both for oil pressure system
b. By gravity through breather tube to gear box* b. One for pressure system and other for scavenge
c. Directly to oil tank system*
d. None of the above c. One each for reduction gears and power section
d. Installation may be in either above configurations
61. Oil from 4 and 5 support compartments in JT 8D gas
turbine engine is scavenged 70. In a turbo prop. engine, a magnetic plug located on the
a. To gear box bottom rear of reduction gear casing provides
b. To no 6 bearing compartment a. A means to detect the metallic chips.
c. Directly to oil tank* b. A means to drain the oil from reduction gears*.
d. None of the above c. A means to collect the carbon chips.
d. The means to do all above.
71. What is the possible cause when a turbine engine

indicates no change in power setting parameters, but
oil temperature is high?
a. High scavenge pump oil flow.
b. Engine main bearing distress.*
c. Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine efficiency

CHAPTER - 11
FUEL SYSTEMS
1. If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash 9. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been
plate pump is perpendicular to the axis of the pump, replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine?
the flow will be a. You must recalibrate the fuel nozzles.
a. reversed. b. zero.* b. You must retrim the engine.*
c. maximum. c. You must perform a full power engine run to check
fuel flow.
2. What moves the swash plate away from the minimum
stroke position? 10. A kinetic valve is a device used to control H.P pump
a. Reduced inlet pressure. output. This is achieved by movement of a
b. A spring.* a. needle valve.
c. Increased servo pressure. b. diaphragm and half ball valve.
c. knife blade.*
3. The burner fuel flow is at maximum at
a. 10°Centigrade above I.S.A. sea level. 11. Specific fuel consumption at altitude will
b. I.S.A. sea level.* a. decrease. b. remain constant.
c. altitude. c. increase.*
4. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel 12. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or
pump ‘Swash Plate’ angle obtained? half ball valve is
a. From pump delivery pressure through variable a. lightly seated.* b. closed fully.
restrictions.* c. open fully.
b. From pump delivery pressure through fixed
restrictions. 13. What is the purpose of the attenuator fitted between
c. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions. the H.P fuel pump and the B.P.C in a fuel system?
a. It restricts the pressure feed top the B.P.C.*
5. What would be the effect on the engine if the B.P.C b. It ensures a supply of fuel free from foreign matter
half ball valve in the servo line sticks open? to the BC half ball valve.
a. A reduction of fuel flow, therefore a decrease in c. It damps out pulsations in the fuel delivery to the
RPM. B.P.C.
b. The B.P.C would be ineffective at sea level only.
c. An increase of fuel flow, therefore an increase in 14. Why is the hydro mechanical governor fitted to a gas
RPM.* turbine engine fuel pump?
a. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range
6. Why is an A.C.U fitted to a gas turbine engine? of fuel SGs.*
a. It increases the rate of acceleration of the engine. b. To enable efficient control of fuel flow to be
b. It controls the operation of the metering block maintained at altitude.
during sudden acceleration. c. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range
c. It limits the rate of increase in fuel flow during of fuel flow.
sudden acceleration.*
15. A barometric Pressure Controller controls
7. If fuel pump servo pressure is reduced, pump output a. barometric pressure.
will b. fuel flow to suit atmospheric pressure changes.*
a. increase. b. decrease.* c. fuel tank pressure at altitude.
c. remain constant.
16. Kinetic valves are used because
8. Why is the B.P.C fitted in a gas turbine engine fuel a. they are less likely to leak.
system? b. they are more sensitive.*
a. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the c. they are not subjected to wear.
pressure variation at the intake.*
b. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and 17. When considering a centrifugal type engine speed
main burner lines. governor, an increase in fuel S.G. will cause
c. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with a. no change in maximum RPM .
increased air intake pressure. b. an increase in maximum RPM .
c. a reduction in maximum RPM .*
18. On a FADEC engine. 28. On a FADEC engine, the channel reset

a. A channel uses control alternator and B channel a. always selects A channel.
uses aircraft bus power. b. selects B channel.
b. A channel uses a separate winding of the control c. selects standby which becomes active on the next
alternator to B channel.* start.*
c. A and B channel use the same phases of the motor.
29. With a decrease in fuel SG, what is the result when the
19. Normal fuel/air ratio for successful combustion is engine is fitted with an uncompensated fuel governor?
a. 15:1.* b. 25:1. a. No effect.
c. 10:1. b. Maximum RPM decrease.
c. Maximum RPM increase.*
20. Which of the following influences the operation of an
automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet engine? 30. The maximum RPM of a turbine engine is limited by
a. Exhaust gas temperature. a. a temperature sensitive device which reduces the
b. Mixture control position. fuel pump speed.
c. Burner pressure.* b. diversion of some of the fuel pump outlet flow by a
spill valve sensitive to burner fuel pressure.
21. What is the purpose of the L.P. pump? c. reduction of the fuel pump stroke by a spill valve
a. To ensure rapid acceleration when the throttle is sensitive to centrifugally generated fuel pressure.*
opened.
b. To prevent cavitation of the H.P Fuel pump.* 31. To what condition does the fuel flow respond during
c. To ensure the engine will continue to run if the H.P. aircraft acceleration?
fuel pump fails. a. Mass airflow rate through the engine.*
b. The effect of ‘ram-air’ at altitude.
22. The fuel pump plungers are lubricated by c. The change in pressure at the compressor intake.
a. synthetic anti-freeze oil.
b. grease packed bearings. 32. During acceleration, the fuel flow is increased at a
c. the Fuel.* controlled rate in order to
a. prevent fuel pump damage.
23. Which forces control the maximum RPM governor in b. increase s.f.c.
a non-hydromechanical swashplate type of pump? c. prevent surge and the risk of flame-out.*
a. Rotor centrifugal pressure opposed to tension
spring loading. * 33. The B.P.C controls the F.C.U by
b. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring a. pressure sensing.*
loading opposed to pump delivery pressure. b. temperature sensing.
c. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring c. density sensing.
loading opposed to pump inlet pressure.
34. If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash
24. Why do the holes in the body of the duple burner plate pump is perpendicular to the axis of the pump,
provide air to the shroud around the burner head? the flow will be
a. To reduce burner temperature. a. zero.* b. reversed.
b. To assist atomisation of the fuel at slow running. c. maximum.
c. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face.*
35. The burner fuel flow is at maximum at
25. A fuel heater prevents a. altitude.
a. Neither. b. LP filter icing.* b. 10°Centigrade above I.S.A. sea level.
c. H.P filter icing. c. I.S.A. sea level.*
26. On a FADEC engine the E.E.C. 36. The type of fuel control unit most commonly used in
a. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel modern jet engines is
control in some modes. a. mechanical.
b. has mechanical control of the hydro-mechanical b. hydro-mechanical.*
fuel control system. c. electrical.
c. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel
control unit in all modes.* 37. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel
pump swash plate angle, obtained?
27. During normal running conditions, combustion is a. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions.
a. continuously supported by ignition. b. From pump delivery pressure through fixed
b. self supporting.* restrictions.
c. intermittently supported by ignition. c. From pump delivery pressure through variable
restrictions.*
38. Why is the Barometric Pressure Control fitted in a turbo 47. A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to
shaft engine fuel system? a. 1 part air to 11 parts fuel.*
a. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and b. a stoichiometric mixture.
main burner lines. c. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.
b. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the
pressure variation at the intake.* 48. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel
c. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with control unit trimmed?
increased air intake pressure. a. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.*
b. To properly position the power levers.
39. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or c. To adjust the idle RPM .
half ball valve is
a. always varying between fully closed and fully 49. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today’s
seated. turbine engines?
b. lightly seated.* a. Hydromechanical or electronic.*
c. open fully. b. Mechanical.
c. Electronic.
40. The swash plate in a fuel pump, when static is
a. at some intermediate position. 50. Under which of the following conditions will the
b. in the minimum position. trimming of a turbine engine be most accurate?
c. in the maximum position.* a. No wind and low moisture.*
b. High moisture and low wind.
41. A kinetic valve is a device used to control H.P pump c. High wind and high moisture.
output. This is achieved by movement of a
a. diaphragm and half ball valve. 51. An H.M.U receives its signals from
b. knife blade.* a. E.E.C.* b. ADC.
c. needle valve. c. thrust lever resolvers.
42. Why is it necessary to control fuel supply to the engine 52. In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within
during rapid acceleration? the fuel control, manufacturers generally recommend
a. To prevent compressor stall above cruise RPM . that all final turbine engine trim adjustments be made
b. To control maximum RPM . in the
c. To prevent excessively high EGT and possible a. decrease direction.
compressor surge.* b. increase direction. *
c. decrease direction after over-adjustment.
43. Which component corrects for air density effects on
fuel/air mixture in a gas turbine engine? 53. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is
a. The barometric pressure control unit.* adjusted to
b. The adjustable throttle valve. a. set idle RPM and maximum speed or E.P.R.*
c. The pressurising valve. b. produce as much power as the engine is capable of
producing.
44. Why is the high pressure fuel pump fitted in a gas c. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM
turbine engine aircraft? without regard to power output.
a. To maintain a vapour free pressure from the aircraft
fuel tanks to the LP fuel pump. 54. A supervisory electronic engine control (E.E.C) is a
b. As an emergency in case of failure of the LP pump. system that receives engine operating information and
c. To provide the majority of the fuel pressure to the a. controls engine operation according to ambient
engine.* temperature, pressure, and humidity.
b. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control
45. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and unit to obtain the most effective engine operation.*
the dump valve in a jet engine fuel system when the c. develops the commands to various actuators to
engine is shut down? control engine parameters.
a. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.*
b. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open. 55. In a FADEC system, active control switchover occurs
c. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed. a. when channels A and B are healthy.
b. on shutdown.
46. The density of air is very important when mixing fuel c. on engine start up only.*
and air to obtain a correct fuel to air ratio. Which of the
following weighs the most? 56. What causes the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine
a. 75 parts of dry air and 25 parts of water vapor. engine duplex fuel nozzle?
b. 100 parts of dry air.* a. An electrically operated solenoid.
c. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor. b. Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM .
c. Fuel pressure.*
57. The valve on a vane type fuel flow measuring device b. pump fuel from the aircraft fuel tanks to the engine.
becomes stuck. What safety backup is available for c. ensure the fuel flow governor gets enough fuel.
the engine fuel flow?
a. A differential pressure bypass valve.* 67. In a FADEC system, what is the result of Channel A
b. A bypass valve. failing to receive information from a sensor?
c. A fuel bleed valve. a. Channel A will take the information from the backup
sensor.
58. What are the principal advantages of the duplex fuel b. Channel A will take the information from channel
nozzle used in many turbine engines? B.*
a. Allows a wider range of fuels and filters to be used. c. Channel B will assume control.
b. Restricts the amount of fuel flow to a level where
more efficient and complete burning of the fuel is 68. In a FADEC engine with a hydro mechanical fuel system,
achieved. how is fuel flow controlled?
c. Provides better atomization and uniform flow a. By oil hydraulics.
pattern.* b. By fuel pressure.
c. By electro-hydraulic servo valves (E.H.S.Vs).*
59. What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine
engine duplex fuel nozzle? 69. On the approach
a. Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary flow a. RPM should be above the minimum idle for
clogs or is restricted. maximum acceleration.*
b. Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the b. RPM should be high.
atomization of fuel. c. RPM should be lower than minimum for maximum
c. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies.* acceleration.
60. Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the 70. The air data inputs to the FADEC E.C.U fails. The result
greatest filtering action? will be:
a. Stacked charcoal. b. Small wire mesh. a. a lack of flight data.
c. Micron.* b. the E.C.U reverts to the fail-safe mode.*
c. uncorrected data from hard wired analogue sensors
61. Where is the engine fuel shutoff valve usually located? is utilised.
a. Aft of the firewall.
b. Adjacent to the fuel pump. 71. A FADEC system consists of
c. Downstream of the engine driven fuel pump.* a. H.M.U, A.D.C and sensors.
b. E.E.C, A.D.C and sensors.
62. Supervisory E.E.C sends its output to the c. H.M.U, sensors and an E.E.C.*
a. fuel valve. b. H.M.U/F.F.G.*
c. EGT thermocouple circuit. 72. A fuel heater prevents
a. entrained water in fuel freezing.*
63. If a FADEC loses its ADC input. In the short term it will b. LP fuel filter icing.
a. go to limit protection mode. c. pipelines freezing.
b. go into hard reversion.
c. go into soft reversion.* 73. When re-light is required in flight on a FADEC engine,
the pilot selects
64. The primary purpose of an E.E.C is a. one igniter.
a. to change analogue inputs into digital format to b. igniter selected automatically.*
provide glass cockpit information and reduce flight c. both igniters.
crew workload.
b. to save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce 74. The position of fuel heater in fuel system is
maintenance costs.* a. between the fuel control unit and the burner
c. to change analogue inputs into digital format to manifold.
reduce flight crew workload and provide b. after the LP fuel filter and before the H.P pump.
maintenance information. c. before the LP fuel filter.*
65. When both FADEC channels are healthy they will 75. The E.E.C receives its primary power from
alternate a. 115V AC emergency BUS.
a. as selected on the flight deck. b. separate permanent magnet alternator.*
b. when one channel fails. c. 115V AC main BUS.
c. on each engine start.*
76. The fuel trimmer on a turbo-prop engine is operated
66. The purpose of the LP fuel pump is to a. manually, to prevent high EGT due to altitude
a. ensure the H.P fuel pump does not cavitate.* increase.
b. automatically controlled in conjunction with FCU.* 87. The basic concept of an H.P fuel control is
c. manually to prevent excessive RPM at high a. automatic adjustment of the fuel control unit by
altitude. preventing excess fuel reaching the burners.
b. the bleeding of excess fuel back to the input of the
77. The main advantage of FADEC is H.P pump swash plate piston.
a. it has electrical control of hydro mechanical unit in c. constant adjustment of the swash plate angle of
all modes. the H.P fuel pump.*
b. efficiency is always maximum.*
c. it changes T.L.A to most efficient E.P.R rating. 88. To prevent compressor surge and overheating of the
combustion chamber due to over fuelling
78. Inlet side of a fuel pump has a a. a barometric unit is fitted.
a. threaded micron filter. b. a throttle unit is fitted.
b. wire mesh filter.* c. an acceleration control unit is fitted.*
c. wire wound filter.
89. When FADEC is in normal mode
79. When a throttle is selected to increase power, the a. channel A or B will be in command.*
pressure drop across the Fuel Control Unit throttle b. channel A will be in command.
orifice c. channel B will be in command.
a. increases then decreases due to decreasing pump
output. 90. Out of the following thrust lever resolver angles, which
b. drops then increases due to increasing pump one is the forward idle setting?
output.* a. 5 degrees. b. 85 degrees.
c. remains the same. c. 40 degrees.*
80. When the E.E.C supervisory circuit senses a fault on 91. Trimming is a term applied to adjusting the
the engine, the fault annunciator light will be on and a. idle speed and maximum thrust.*
the E.E.C will b. fuel specific gravity.
a. remove fuel, down trimming signal only when E.E.C c. part trim stop.
switch selected off.
b. remove fuel, down trimming signal immediately.* 92. Fuel boost pumps are cooled using
c. remove fuel, down trimming signal only after a. ram air.
landing. b. Fuel pumps do not require cooling.
c. fuel.*
81. In-Flight the engine E.E.C controls
a. EGT. b. throttle position. 93. A fuel trimmer unit is adjusted at altitude
c. fuel flow.* a. automatically, via a fuel trim unit.*
b. manually to compensate for propeller torque.
82. A FADEC does not have which of the following? c. manually to compensate for EGT change.
a. Control of thrust reverser operation.
b. An automatic starting capability. 94. Baffles in a rigid fuel tank
c. Automatic control of engine fire bottles.* a. help prevent micro-biological corrosion.
b. strengthen the tank structure.
83. A FADEC consists of c. prevent surge.*
a. Electronic controls, sensors and an H.M.U.*
b. Electronic control and throttle position transmitter. 95. In a FADEC system, what does the E.E.C measure along
c. Electronic control only. with RPM ?
a. Pressure and Temperature.*
84. During aerobatic manoeuvres, what prevents fuel from b. Pressure.
spilling out of fuel tank vents? c. Temperature.
a. Booster pump differential pressure.
b. Baffle plates in tanks. 96. In a FADEC system, how are the power supply
c. Float operated valves.* windings for channel A and Channel B wound?
a. Two independent generators.
85. After a bag tank replacement, where would you b. On one generator with 2 separate windings.*
disconnect the system to carry out the flow checks? c. One generator and one winding.
a. At the engine.* b. At tank outlet.
c. Tank isolation cock. 97. If an Engine FADEC system loses air-data permanently,
the pilot will
86. What is the purpose of a silver strip on a fuel filter? a. turn that E.E.C Off.
a. To detect excess metal. b. select alternate pitot static.
b. To detect sulphur in fuel.* c. switch to Alt on the relevant E.E.C.*
c. To strain oil for contamination.
98. A FADEC system takes measurements from Engine b. It is highly volatile gasoline.
Speed, c. It is restricted to military use.
a. Temperature and Pressure.* d. It's reasoned use is as per b. and c.*
b. and Temperature.
c. and Pressure. 109. The problem with kerosene is
a. It is less combustible.
99. Main purpose of the fuel boost pumps is to provide b. It is highly volatile.
a. emergency dump jettison. c. The water taken into solution which may cause
b. cross-feed fuel from one tank to another. fuel icing*.
c. fuel pressure to both engine pumps.* d. None of the above.
100. The swash plate in the fuel pump of an axial flow gas 110. In a gas turbine engine the fuel is regulated as per
turbine engine is controlled by a. Air intake conditions.
a. servo hydraulic pressure. b. Altitude and temperature.
b. electrical servo control. c. Forward speed.
c. servo fuel pressure. d. All of above*.
101. The end fittings on a fuel non-return valve are normally 111. In gas turbine engines, any rapid movement of the
of different sizes to throttle will upset the air / fuel ratio due to
a. prevent incorrect installation.* a. Inertia of turbine assembly.
b. facilitate bleeding the system. b. Inertia of compressor.
c. allow a full fuel flow through the valve. c. Both compressor and turbine inertia*.
102. E.E.C receives signals from RPM sensor and.
a. pressure sensors. 112. In earlier gas turbine engines, a high delivery constant
b. pressure and temperature sensors.* displacement type fuel pump was used and the fuel
c. temperature sensors. supply was regulated by
a. AMC. b. Barostat*.
103. When does E.E.C channel change over occur? c. ACU. d. BPC.
a. On engine start up.*
b. On engine shut down. 113. In modern British System, usually the fuel pump
c. On fault. employed in gas turbine is
a. A fixed stroke type. b. A variable stroke type*.
104. The possible combined output from all the scavenge c. A gear type. d. A diaphragm type.
pumps in a lubrication system will be
a. greater than the pressure pump output.* 114. The delivery of a variable stroke fuel pump is controlled
b. less than the pressure pump output. by
c. the same as the pressure pump output. a. Controlling the engine speed.
b. Controlling the length of pump piston stroke*.
105. If the knife-edge blade in a kinetic valve is fully in c. Air inlet pressure.
a. pump pressure is constant. d. None of the above.
b. servo pressure is being bled off.*
c. servo pressure is increasing. 115. In a variable stroke fuel pump, the length of pump
piston stroke is determined by
106. The fuel used in gas turbine engine must confirm to a. Movement of throttle lever.
rigid requirements b. Swash plate angle*.
a. To give optimum performance and safety. c. Inlet air pressure.
b. To be compatible with the materials used in fuel d. All above.
system.
c. To provide adequate lubrication. 116. Servo mechanism of a variable stroke fuel pump
d. All of above*. consists of
a. A non rotary swash plate.
107. Usually the type of fuel used in commercial jet plane is b. A piston loaded with pump output pressure one
kerosene of grade side and a calibrated fuel pressure and spring force
a. D Eng. RD 2494 (AVTUR). other side.
b. ASTM's D1655 (Jet A or A-1). c. A connecting rod, connecting piston with swash
c. D Eng RD 2486 (AVTAG). plate.
d. Mentioned in a. and b.* d. All of above*.
108. D Eng RD 2486 (AVTAG) fuel is easy to produce but 117. Under steady running conditions, below maximum
a. It is less volatile. governed speed in a variable stroke fuel pump
a. Only ACU spill valve is opened. 125. The kinetic spill valve is located in
b. Only BPC spill valve is opened*. a. ASU*. b. PVU.
c. Both ACU and BPC spill valves are opened. c. ACU. d. None of the above.
126. When proportional flow is reduced by PVU the ASU
118. In a variable stroke fuel pump, the BPC will
a. Increases the bleed with increase in air intake a. Decrease spill to increase servo pressure*.
pressure. b. Increase spill to decrease servo pressure.
b. Increases the bleed with decrease in air intake c. Increase both spill and servo pressure.
pressure*. d. None of the above.
c. Decreases the bleed with decrease in air intake
pressure. 127. The ASU capsule is provided with
d. None of the above. a. Air intake pressure only*.
b. Compressor pressure only.
119. During rapid opening of throttle, the action of BPC is c. Both air intake and compressor pressure.
restricted by ACU d. Ambient pressure.
a. To hasten the acceleration.
b. To prevent over fuelling*. 128. In flow control system type fuel system in gas turbine
c. To increase the immediate pump delivery. engine, during rapid throttle opening, the function of
d. To obtain all above. ASU is overridden by
a. ACU.
120. The one side of diaphragm of fuel pump governor is b. Fuel metering Plunger.
spring loaded with the other is loaded with : c. Pressure drop control.
a. Pump delivery pressure. d. All of above*.
b. Servo pressure.
c. Fuel passes through radial drilling thrown by 129. ACU is provided with
centrifugal action of the pump rotor*. a. Air intake pressure only.
d. None of the above. b. Compressor out put pressure.
c. Both air intake and compressor out put*.
121. When the centrifugal force of the fuel passing through d. None of the above.
radial drilling reaches to its pre - determined value then
a. BPC stops functioning. 130. In flow control type of fuel system, the metering
b. Governor bleeds servo pressure and limit pump plunger is in effect
delivery*. a. A fixed area orifice.
c. Both BPC and ACU stops functioning. b. A variable area orifice*.
d. None of the above. c. A rotatory valve.
d. Connected to throttle lever.
122. In a flow control type fuel system of a gas turbine
engine, fuel delivery is controlled to maintain 131. In flow control type fuel system, the centrifugal
a. Constant pressure drop across the metering pressure of pump governor is used
plunger. a. To adjust maximum fuel flow.
b. Pressure drop across pressurising valve. b. To adjust fuel flow at idle*.
c. Constant pressure drop across throttle valve*. c. To adjust fuel flow at all ratings.
123. In flow control type of fuel system a small controlling 132. When signals from high turbine gas temperature is
flow (proportional flow) is created by means of received
a. Rotary type spill valve. a. The fuel supply to burners is reduced
b. Rocker type spill valve. automatically*.
c. Kinetic type spill valve*. b. The fuel supply to burner is increased.
d. All above. c. No effect on fuel supply.
d. Additional cooling of turbine is provided.
124. In a kinetic type spill valve, two opposing jets deliver
the pump out put and servo pressure and a moving 133. Under formidable conditions of speed and air
plate in between alters the effect of high pressure on temperature, engine tends to cross maximum power
low pressure, if moving plate is clear of the jet, then limits, then
a. The servo pressure is maximum and pump out is a. ASU capsule chamber is bled to atmosphere.
minimum. b. ACU capsule chamber is bled to atmosphere*.
b. Both servo pressure and pump out put is c. Pilot reduces the power rating.
maximum*. d. Nothing can be done.
c. Both servo and pump pressure is minimum.
d. No effect on any pressure.
134. During what period does the fuel pump bypass valve 140. Most large aircraft reciprocating engines are equipped
open and remain open? with which of the following types of engine-driven
a. When the fuel pump pressure is greater than the fuel pumps?
demand of the engine. a. Rotary-vane-type fuel pump.*
b. When the boost pump pressure is greater than fuel b. Centrifugal-type fuel pump.
pump pressure.* c. Gear-type fuel pump.
c. When the fuel pump output is greater than the
demand of the carburetor. 141. When an electric primer is used, fuel pressure is built
up by the
135. Which of the following statements concerning a a. internal pump in the primer solenoid.
centrifugal-type fuel boost pump located in a fuel b. suction at the main discharge nozzle.
supply tank is NOT true? c. booster pump.*
a. Air and fuel vapors do not pass through a
centrifugal-type pump. 142. The fuel pump relief valve directs excess fuel to the
b. Fuel can be drawn through the impeller section of a. fuel tank return line.
the pump when it is not in operation. b. inlet side of the fuel pump.*
c. The centrifugal-type pump is classified as a positive c. inlet side of the fuel strainer.
displacement pump.*
143. Which type of pump is commonly used as a fuel pump
136. Where is the engine fuel shutoff valve usually located? on reciprocating engines?
a. Aft of the firewall.* a. Gear. b. Impeller.
b. Adjacent to the fuel pump. c. Vane.*
c. Downstream of the engine-driven fuel pump.
144. The purpose of the diaphragm in most vane-type fuel
137. Boost pumps in a fuel system pumps is to
a. operate during takeoff only. a. maintain fuel pressure below atmospheric pressure.
b. are primarily used for fuel transfer. b. equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.
c. provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine pump.* c. compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.*
138. (Refer to Fig. 15.1) What is the purpose of the fuel 145. The primary condition (s) that allow (s) microorganisms
transfer ejectors? to grow in the fuel in aircraft fuel tanks is (are)
a. warm temperatures and frequent fueling.
b. the presence of water.*
Fgi. c. the presence of dirt or other particulate
contaminants.
146. It is desirable that fuel lines have a gentle slope upward

or downward and not have sharp curves or sharp rises
and/or falls in order to
a. prevent vapor lock.*
b. prevent stagnation or "pooling" of fuel in the fuel
lines.
c. minimize the generation of static electricity by
decreasing fluid friction in the lines.
Fig.15.1 Fuel System.
a. To supply fuel under pressure to the engine-driven 147. The fuel systems of aircraft certificated in the standard
pump. classification must include which of the following?
b. To assist in the transfer of fuel from the main tank a. An engine-driven fuel pump and at least one
to the boost pump sump.* auxiliary pump per engine.
c. To transfer fuel from the boost pump sump to the b. A positive means of shutting off the fuel to all
wing tank. engines.*
c. A reserve supply of fuel, available to the engine
139. What is the purpose of an engine-driven fuel pump only after selection by the flightcrew, sufficient to
bypass valve? operate the engines at least 30 minutes at METO
a. To divert the excess fuel back to the main tank. power.
b. To prevent a damaged or inoperative pump from
blocking the fuel flow of another pump in series 148. Where should the main fuel strainer be located in the
with it.* aircraft fuel system?
c. To divert the excess fuel from the pressure side of a. Downstream from the wobble pump check valve.
the pump to the inlet side of the pump. b. At the lowest point in the fuel system.*
c. At any point in the system lower than the carburetor
strainer.
149. Where physical separation of the fuel lines from a. float level is too high.
electrical wiring or conduit is impracticable, locate the b. main air bleed is clogged.
fuel line c. accelerating pump is not operating properly.*
a. below the wiring and clamp the line securely to the
airframe structure.* 159. A fuel pressure relief valve is required on
b. above the wiring and clamp the line securely to the a. engine-driven diaphragm-type fuel pumps.
airframe structure. b. engine-driven vane-type fuel pumps.*
c. inboard of the wiring and clamp both securely to c. centrifugal fuel boost pumps.
the airframe structure.
160. A rotary-vane pump is best described as a
150. What is a characteristic of a centrifugal-type fuel boost a. positive-displacement pump.*
pump? b. variable-displacement pump.
a. It separates air and vapor from the fuel.* c. boost pump.
b. It has positive displacement.
c. It requires a relief valve. 161. Fuel produced producted by the engine-driven fuel
pump is adjusted by the
151. The Federal Aviation Regulations require the fuel flow a. bypass valve adjusting screw.
rate for gravity systems (main and reserve) to be b. relief valve adjusting screw.*
a. 125 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the c. engine-driven fuel pump adjusting screw.
engine.
b. 125 percent of the maximum, except takeoff, fuel 162. Kerosene is used as turbine engine fuel because
consumption of the engine. a. kerosene has very high volatility which aids in
c. 150 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the ignition and lubrication.
engine.* b. kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and
lubricates fuel system components.*
152. Fuel boost pumps are operated c. kerosene does not contain any water.
a. to provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.*
b. during takeoff only. 163. What are the principal advantages of the duplex fuel
c. primarily for fuel transfer to another tank. nozzle used in many turbine engines?
a. Restricts the amount of fuel flow to a level where
153. A pilot reports that the fuel pressure fluctuates and more efficient and complete burning of the fuel is
exceeds the upper limits whenever the throttle is achieved.
advanced. The most likely cause of the trouble is b. Provides better atomization and uniform flow
a. a ruptured fuel pump relief-valve diaphragm. pattern.*
b. a sticking fuel pump relief valve.* c. Allows a wider range of fuels and filters to be used.
c. an air leak at the fuel pump relief-valve body.
164. It is necessary to control acceleration and deceleration
154. A fuel strainer or filter must be located between the rates in turbine engines in order to
a. boost pump and tank outlet. a. prevent blowout or die-out.*
b. tank outlet and the fuel metering device.* b. prevent overtemperature.
c. boost pump and engine-driven fuel pump. c. prevent friction between turbine wheels and the
case due to expansion and contraction.
155. Fuel pump relief valves designed to compensate for
atmospheric pressure variations are known as 165. Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the
a. compensated-flow valves. greatest filtering action?
b. pressurized-relief valves. a. Micron.* b. Small wire mesh.
c. balanced-type relief valves.* c. Stacked charcoal.
156. Fuel lines are kept away from sources of heat, and 166. What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine
sharp bends and steep rises are avoided to reduce the engine duplex fuel nozzle?
possibility of a. Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary flow
a. liquid lock. b. vapor lock.* clogs or is restricted.
c. positive lock. b. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies.*
c. Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the
157. Fuel crossfeed systems are used in aircraft to atomization of fuel.
a. purge the fuel tanks.
b. jettison fuel in an emergency. 167. What causes the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine
c. maintain aircraft stability.* engine duplex fuel nozzle?
a. Fuel pressure.*
158. If an engine equipped with a float-type carburetor b. Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM.
backfires or misses when the throttle is advanced, a c. An electrically operated solenoid.
likely cause is that the
168. How often should float carburetors be overhauled? 177. A supervisory electronic engine control (EEC) is a
a. At engine overhaul.* b. Annually. system that receives engine operating information and
c. At engine change. a. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control
unit to obtain the most effective engine operation.*
169. What is the final authority for the details of carburetor b. develops the commands to various actuators to
overhaul? control engine parameters.
a. The local FAA safety inspector. c. controls engine operation according to ambient
b. The type Certificate Data Sheets for the engine. temperature, pressure, and humidity.
c. The manufacturer's recommendations.*
178. A full-authority electronic engine control (EEC) is a
170. Excessively rich or lean idle mixtures result in system that receives all the necessary data for engine
a. too rapid completion of combustion. operation and
b. incomplete combustion.* a. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control
c. incomplete cylinder scavenging. unit to obtain the most effective engine operation.
b. develops the commands to various actuators to
171. Which statement is true regarding proper throttle control engine parameters.*
rigging of an airplane? c. controls engine operation according to ambient
a. The throttle stop on the carburetor must be temperature, pressure, and humidity.
contacted before the stop in the cockpit.*
b. The stop in the cockpit must be contacted before 179. In a supervisory EEC system, any fault in the EEC that
the stop on the carburetor. adversely affects engine operation
c. The throttle control is properly adjusted when a. causes redundant or backup units to take over and
neither stop makes contact. continue normal operation.
b. usually degrades performance to the extent that
172. What precaution should be taken when putting thread continued operation can cause damage to the
lubricant on a tapered pipe plug in a carburetor float engine.
bowl? c. causes an immediate reversion to control by the
a. Put the thread lubricant only on the first thread. hydromechanical fuel control unit.*
b. Do not use thread lubricant on any carburetor
fitting. 180. The active clearance control (ACC) portion of an EEC
c. Engage the first thread of the plug, then put a small system aids turbine engine efficiency by
amount of lubricant on the second thread and screw a. adjusting stator vane position according to
the plug in. * operating conditions and power requirements.
b. ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances
173. Maximum power is normally considered to be are kept to a minimum by controlling case
developed in a reciprocating engine with an air/fuel temperatures.*
mixture ratio of approximately c. automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain
a. 8:1 b. 12:1* a desired EPR.
c. 15:1
181. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity
174. What factor is not used in the operation of an aircraft of a turbine engine performance check if an alternate
gas turbine engine fuel control unit? fuel is to be used?
a. Compressor inlet air temperature. a. Fuel specific gravity setting.*
b. Mixture control position.* b. Maximum RPM adjustment.
c. Power lever position. c. EPR gauge calibration.
175. In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within 182. The generally acceptable way to obtain accurate onsite
the fuel control, manufacturers generally recommend temperature prior to performing engine trimming is to
that all final turbine engine trim adjustments be made a. call the control lower to obtain field temperature.
in the b. observe the reading on the aircraft Outside Air
a. increase direction.* Temperature (OAT) gauge.
b. decrease direction. c. hang a thermometer in the shade of the nose wheel-
c. decrease direction after over-adjustment. well until the temperature reading stabilizes.*
176. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is 183. An aircraft should be facing into the wind when
adjusted to trimming an engine. However, if the velocity of the
a. produce as much power as the engine is capable of wind blowing into the intake is excessive, it is likely to
producing. cause a
b. set idle RPM and maximum speed or EPR.* a. false low exhaust gas temperature reading.
c. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without b. trim setting resulting in engine overspeed.
regard to power output. c. false high compression and turbine discharge
pressure, and a subsequent low trim.*
184. Generally, the practice when trimming an engine is to

a. turn all accessory bleed air off.
b. turn all accessory bleed air on.
c. make adjustments (as necessary) for all engines
on the same aircraft with accessory bleed air
settings the same—either on or off.*
185. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been
replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine?
a. Perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow.
b. Recalibrate the fuel nozzles.
c. Retrim the engine.*
186. Which of the following influences the operation of an

automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet engine?
a. Burner pressure.*
b. Mixture control position.
c. Exhaust gas temperature.
187. What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization

of compressor airflow during low thrust engine
operation?
a. Stator vanes and rotor vanes.
b. Variable guide vanes and compressor bleed
valves.*
c. Pressurization and dump valves.

CHAPTER - 12
AIR SYSTEMS
1. Engine anti-ice is taken from the 11. With bleed valves open for anti-ice
a. turbine. b. H.P compressor.* a. thrust is unaffected.
c. LP compressor. b. thrust decreases, fuel consumption decreases.*
c. thrust decreases, fuel consumption increases.
2. In an axial flow turbine engine, compressor bleed air is
sometimes used to aid in cooling the 12. Usually the propeller reduction gears are breathed
a. inlet guide vanes. through
b. turbine, vanes, blades, and bearings.* a. Crank shaft
c. fuel. b. Crank case*
c. Reduction gear casing
3. If air is taken from the compressor for air conditioning d. Propellar hub
or anti-icing
a. thrust will increase EGT will increase. 13. In gas turbine engines the breathing system is
b. thrust will decrease EGT will increase.* a. Closed system type*
c. thrust will decrease EGT will decrease. b. Open system type
c. Semi closed type
4. Turbine case cooling utilizes d. Either of the above
a. LP compressor air. b. fan air.*
c. H.P compressor air. 14. It is essential to maintain a specified amount of
pressure in GT engine
5. Air for anti-icing is taken from the a. Oil tank
a. accessory Gearbox. b. LP compressor. b. Support bearing cavities
c. H.P compressor.* c. Oil tank and engine support bearing cavities *
6. As air is bled off the engine, EGT will
a. remain constant. b. decrease. 15. In GT engines an engine driven centrifugal breather is
c. increase.* provided on gear box which
a. Separates oil from out going air
7. The heat absorbed by internal components can be b. Separates air from scavenged oil
detrimental to thrust and is prevented by c. Maintains specified amount of pressure in oil
a. reducing fuel flow to reduce internal temperature. cavities
b. bleeding air off the compressor to heat the d. Functions as per a. and c.*
components.
c. bleeding air off the compressor to cool the 16. Oil and air, separated by the centrifugal breather, then
components.* a. Oil is drained to accessories gear box
b. Air is supplied to oil tank for pressurization
8. On a gas turbine engine, thermal wing de-icing system c. Air through hollow breather shaft is ducted to
derives air atmosphere
a. via air from the H.P turbine. d. Air and oil are directed as per a. and c.*
b. through a pressure regulating shut-off valve
(P.R.S.O.V).* 17. In certain gas turbine engines, to protect the turbine
c. through a pressure relief system. blades from burning, a separate turbine cooling system
is provided, which
9. Inlet for cooling air for the first stage turbine blades is a. Uses primary air of combustion chamber
fed via the b. Uses secondary air of CC*
a. blade root.* c. Uses ambient air
b. grill holes. d. Uses 'Ram Air'
c. leading edge of the blade.
18. The cooling air provided by the turbine cooling system
10. Air bleed for an anti-ice system is to nozzle guide vanes, enters through the
a. tapped directly off the compressor.* a. Tip of guide vanes
b. sent through a pressure regulator. b. Trailing edge of guide vanes
c. sent through the air conditioning. c. Roots of guide vanes*
19. First stage turbine blades receives turbine cooling air 28. where are cooling fins usually located on air-cooled
from CC casing engines?
a. Through turbine shaft and passages in turbine disc a. Exhaust side of the cylinder head, inside the
b. Holes provided in stationary and turbine labyrinth pistons, and connecting rods.
seals* b. Cylinder head, cylinder wall,s and inside the piston
c. Through either of above skirt.
d. Through none of the above c. Cylinder head, cylinder barrel, and inside the piston
head.*
20. A thin, turbine cooling air film is provided around
turbine blades by 29. How do cowl flaps aid in cooling a horizontally opposed
a. Series of holes provided at trailing edges of blades aircraft engine?
b. Series of holes provided at leading edges of blades* a. Recirculates air through the engine cylinders.
c. Air blast over the surface of blades b. Directs air through the engine cylinders.
d. Either of the above c. Controls the amount of air flowing around the
cylinders.*
21. Second stage nozzle guide vanes are cooled internally
by turbine cooling air received through 30. The position of the cowl flaps during normal cruise
a. 1st stage turbine rear labyrinth flight conditions is
b. 1st stage nozzle guide vanes tips and passages in a. closed.* b. open.
nozzle casing* c. one half open.
c. Independent tapping from CC casing
d. Either of the above method 31. Generally, a small crack just started in a cylinder baffle
a. requires repair by reinforcing, such as installation
22. The primary purpose of baffles and deflectors installed of a doubler over the area.
around cylinders of air-cooled aircraft engines is to b. requires no action unless it grows or is branched
a. create a low pressure area aft of the cylinders. into two crackes.
b. force cooling air into close contact with all parts of c. may be stop drilled.*
the cylinders.*
c. increase the volume of air used to cool the engine. 32. Which of the following assists in removing heat from
the metal walls and fins of an air-cooled cylinder
23. What is the purpose of an augmenter used in some assembly?
reciprocating engine exhaust systems? a. an intercooler system.
a. To reduce exhaust back pressure. b. A baffle and cowl arrangement.*
b. To aid in cooling the engine.* c. An engine induction system.
c. To assist in displacing the exhaust gases.
33. During ground operation of an engine, the cowl flaps
24. Aircraft reciprocating engine cylinder baffles and should be in what position?
deflectors should be repaired as required to prevent a. Fully closed. b. Fully open.*
loss of c. Opened according to ambient conditions.
a. power. b. fin area.
c. cooling.* 34. The component (s) in a turbine engine that operate(s)
at the highest temperatures is/are the
25. Cracks in cooling fins that do not extend into the a. first stage turbine nozzle guide vanes.*
cylinder head, may be repaired by b. turbine disks.
a. filling the extremities of the crack with liquid metal. c. exhaust cone.
b. removing the affected area and contour filing within
limits.* 35. What is the function of a blast tube as found on aircraft
c. welding and then grinding or filing to original engines?
thickness. a. A means of cooling the engine by utilizing the
propeller backwash.
26. Which of the following should a mechanic consult to b. A tube used to load a cartridge starter.
determine the maximum amount of cylinder cooling fin c. A device to cool an engine accessory.*
that could be removed when cracks are found?
a. AC 43, 13-1A. 36. Which statement is true regarding the air passing
b. Engine manufacturer's service or overhaul manual.* through the combustion section of a jet engine?
c. Engine Structure repair manual. a. Most is used for engine cooling.*
b. Most is used to support combustion.
27. A bent cooling fin on an aluminum cylinder head c. A small percentage is frequently bled off at this
a. should be sawed off and filed smooth. point to be used for air-conditioning and/or other
b. should be left alone if no crack has formed.* pneumatic powered systems.
c. should be stop drilled or a small radius filed at the
point of the bend.
37. Which of the following results in a decrease in a. Starter turbine b. Differential gear of CSD*
volumetric efficiency? c. Engine turbine d. None of the above
a. Cylinder head temperature too low.
b. Part-throttle operation.* 47. Usually, during maintenance, the hot air system anti-
c. Short intake pipes of large diameter. icing air duct are disconnected from
a. Bolted spherical connection
38. The undersides of pistons are frequently finned. The b. The bends with 'Vee' clamps*
principal reason is to c. Either of the joint
a. provide sludge chambers and sediment traps. d. None of the joint
b. provide for greater heat transfer to the engine oil.*
c. support ring grooves and piston pins. 48. For correct alignments, at certain locations dowels may
be provided, but in case of the joints not provided
39. What is the position of the cowl flaps during engine with dowels, the alignment can be achieved by
starting and warmup operations under normal a. Colour markings where ever applicable*
conditions? b. Individual's technical judgement
a. Full open at all times.* c. By ensuring stress free mating of joint surfaces
b. Full closed at all times. d. Adopting any of the above techniques
c. Open for starting, closed for warmup.
49. Leak test of air duct is carried out by
40. Increased engine heat will cause volumetric efficiency a. Pouring water on joints with source of air supply
to b. Applying soapy water on the joints while APU /
a. remain the same. Engine running*
b. decrease.* c. Either of the method can be adopted
c. increase. d. None of the above method is adopted
41. Air starters use compressed air as a source of power, 50. Generally, during installation of control valve it is
hence most transport air planes so designed that possible that
a. Engine can be started only by ground supply a. Solenoid may be damaged
b. Engine can be started with only aircraft pneumatic b. It is positioned in incorrectly in relation to air flow*
system c. Either of the above can happen
c. Engine can be started by alternative methods* d. Valve is not of correct type
d. All above types can be adopted
51. While installing the electrical anti-icing system ensure
42. Air starter can be used with that
a. Aircraft air supply a. Electrical components inter connecting cables are
b. Ground air supply of correct rating
c. Aircraft to aircraft air supply b. All connections are checked as per wiring diagram
d. All above* c. Plugs and sockets are properly secured
d. All above is performed*
43. Air impingement starting is performed
a. By impinging air on starter turbine 52. After installation of hot air anti - icing system then
b. By impinging air on 1st stage of compressor a. In situ, functional check is carried out
c. By impinging air directly on engine turbine* b. Functional check is not essential
d. By all above c. All limitations prescribed are to be strictly adhered
while performing test
44. The air starters are usually supplied with d. a. and c. to be satisfied*
a. Very low air pressure b. Very high air pressure
c. Pressure  40 psi* d. Pressure 80 psi 53. In electrical anti - icing system, the overshoes are
bonded to cowls, hence
45. On a multi engine aircraft one of the engine may have a. Over shoes are removed before
"combustor" starter b. Over shoes and cowl are removed as combined
a. Ambient air and kerosene is ignited and product is unit*
impinged on starter turbine c. Any of the above method may be adopted
b.  3000 psi air pressure with kerosene is ignited to d. None of the above method is adopted
impinge on starter turbine*
c. The combustor product is impinged on engine 54. When cowl is removed, the bushes should be examined for
turbine. a. Presence
d. None of the above b. Crack and damage
c. Wear and deterioration*
46. One particular British aircraft employs "ROOTS" type d. None of the above
air motor which drives
55. Usually overshoes are inspected for 64. Air turbine starters are generally designed so that
a. Blisters and gashes reduction gear distress or damage may be detected by
b. Exposure of heating elements a. characteristic sounds from the starter assembly
c. Over heating and sign of deterioration during engine start.
d. All above* b. breakage of a shear section on the starter drive
shaft.
56. Usually the heating elements are checked for c. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.*
a. Continuity and resistance*
b. General condition 65. Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a ground unit is
c. Nothing normally prevented from causing starter overspeed
d. Current consumption during engine start by
a. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and
57. Whenever cowl assembly is changed or repaired, the stabilizes turbine wheel speed.
complete cowl assembly is checked for b. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.*
a. Contineuty c. a preset timed cutoff of the airflow at the source.
b. Insulation resistance
c. Cyclic time switch check 66. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic
d. All above* starters that is used if the clutch does not release from
the engine drive at the proper time during start is the
58. Usually when the aircraft is on jacks and / or landing a. flyweight cutout switch.
gear switches are inoperative then b. spring coupling release.
a. Functional check on deicing system should be c. drive shaft shear point.*
performed
b. Only continuity and resistance checks are 67. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic
performed starters that is used to prevent the starter from reaching
c. Only cyclic time switch is to be checked for time burst speed if inlet air does not terminate on schedule
limit operation is the
d. Power should not be applied to heating element* a. drive shaft shear point.
b. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and
59. Any localised burn on the heating element can be stabilizes turbine wheel speed.*
repaired by c. spring coupling release.
a. Soldering b. Brazing
c. Local welding* d. Any of the above 68. In the event a pneumatic start valve will not operate
and the manual override must be used, the starter T
60. The primary advantage of pneumatic (air turbine) handle must be closed at scheduled starter drop out
starters over comparable electric starters for turbine because
engines is a. the starter will overheat.
a. a decreased fire hazard. b. the starter will overspeed at a given N2.*
b. reduction gearing not required. c. the starter oil will be blown over board.
c. high power-to-weight ratio.*
61. A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down in a 

pneumatic starter incorporating a sprag clutch ratchet
assembly is an indication of
a. gear tooth and/or pawl damage.
b. one or more broken pawl springs.
c. the pawls re-contacting the riding on the ratchet
gear. *
62. Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what

types of airflow impingement systems?
a. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.*
b. Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow compressor.
c. Double entry centrifugal outward flow and axial-
flow turbines.
63. Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance

technicians usually includes checking the
a. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.*
b. stator and rotor blades for FOD.
c. rotor alignment.
CHAPTER - 13
STARTING AND IGNITION SYSTEMS
1. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors 11. A dry motoring cycle would be required to
a. allows the capacitors to discharge when the unit is a. clear the engine after a wet start.*
switched off.* b. check engine run down time.
b. allows sufficient voltage to be stored to provide c. check the operation of the igniters.
relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.
c. protects the unit from excessive voltages. 12. What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in
air starter motors?
2. In the H.E.I.U. the choke a. Reaction.
a. prolongs the life of the plug. b. Impulse.*
b. protects the unit from excessive high voltages. c. Impulse-reaction.
c. prolongs the discharge.*
13. Ignitor plugs are cleaned by
3. In an electrical starting system, the slow start resistor a. compressed air and brushing lightly with soft
is short circuited by the brush.*
a. centrifugal Switch.* b. time switch. b. light sand blasting.
c. overspeed switch. c. steel wool.
4. The advantage of an air starter system is 14. An H.E.I.U works by

a. it provides a more rapid start. a. a discharging capacitor.*
b. it is light, simple and economical.* b. ac busbar.
c. there is no risk of engine fire during starting. c. a contact breaker.
5. An advantage of a gas turbine starter is 15. When is ignition used?

a. it provide high power for low weight.* a. For relight and start up.*
b. it does not require external connections. b. For continuous relight.
c. it uses a low volatile fuel. c. At high altitudes.
6. If the engine fails to light-up, the starter cycle is 16. An ignitor plug for a large gas turbine takes the form
cancelled by of a
a. a centrifugal switch. a. glow’ plug.
b. a low pressure relay. b. sparking plug.
c. a time switch.* c. surface discharge plug.*
7. For starting the engine, the H.P cock should be initially 17. The spark in the High Energy igniter is supplied by
a. in a position which depends on the fuel system. a. a capacitor.*
b. open. b. a contact circuit breaker.
c. closed.* c. the AC busbar.
8. On light up, the gas temperature will 18. Self sustaining speed is
a. rise slowly. a. V1 speed.
b. rise rapidly, then fall as RPM increases to idle.* b. the RPM at which the engine continues without
c. rise rapidly. external assistance.*
c. take off velocity.
9. Self sustaining RPM means that
a. The engine can accelerate to full power in under 5 19. During normal running conditions
seconds. a. combustion is intermittently supported by ignition.
b. There is sufficient power for ground maneuvering. b. combustion is self supporting.*
c. The engine will run independently of external help.* c. combustion is continuously supported by ignition.
10. A ‘hot start’ with excessive temperatures may be 20. High energy ignition is required because of the
caused by a. high flash point of the fuel.*
a. wrong grade of fuel. b. absorbed moisture content.
b. throttle partly open.* c. low flash point of the fuel.
c. high electrical power supply.
21. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors b. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.*
a. allow sufficient voltage to be stored to provide c. rotor alignment.
relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.
b. allow the capacitors to discharge when the unit is 30. Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what
switched off.* types of airflow impingement systems?
c. protect the unit from excessive voltages. a. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.*
b. Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow compressor.
22. The rate of discharge of a H.E.I.U. is c. Double entry centrifugal outward flow and axial-
a. 4 discharges per revolution. flow turbines.
b. 60 - 100 per second.
c. 60 - 100 per minute.* 31. A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down in a
pneumatic starter incorporating a sprag clutch ratchet
23. Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high assembly is an indication of
energy? a. gear tooth and/or pawl damage.
a. Because the applied voltage is much greater. b. one or more broken pawl springs.
b. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude c. the pawls re-contacting and riding on the ratchet
and high temperatures. gear.*
c. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude
and low temperatures.* 32. The primary advantage of pneumatic (air turbine)
starters over comparable electric starters for turbine
24. The type of ignition system used on most turbine engines is
aircraft engines is a. high power-to-weight ratio.*
a. low tension. b. reduction gearing not required.
b. capacitor discharge.* c. a decreased fire hazard.
c. high resistance.
33. The purpose of an under current relay in a starter-
25. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic generator system is to
starters that is used to prevent the starter from reaching a. keep current flow to the starter-generator under
burst speed if inlet air does not terminate on schedule the circuit capacity maximum.
is the b. disconnect power from the starter-generator and
a. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached.*
stabilizes turbine wheel speed.* c. provide a backup for the starter relay.
b. drive shaft shear point.
c. spring coupling release. 34. How does the ignition system of a gas turbine engine
differ from that of a reciprocating engine?
26. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic a. Magneto to engine timing is not critical.
starters that is used if the clutch does not release from b. One igniter plug is used in each combustion
the engine drive at the proper time during start is the chamber.
a. spring coupling release. c. A high energy spark is required for ignition.*
b. drive shaft shear point.
c. flyweight cutout switch.* 35. In a gas turbine engine D.C capacitor discharge ignition
system, where are the high voltage pulses formed?
27. Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a ground unit is a. At the rectifier.
normally prevented from causing starter over speed b. At the triggering transformer.*
during engine start by c. At the breaker.
a. a preset timed cutoff of the airflow at the source.
b. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and 36. Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to
stabilizes turbine wheel speed speed. high intensity spark discharges and yet they have a
c. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.* long service life because they
a. operate at much lower temperatures.
28. Air turbine starters are generally designed so that b. are not placed directly into the combustion
reduction gear distress or damage may be detected by chamber.
a. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.* c. do not require continuous operation.*
b. characteristic sounds from the starter assembly
during engine start. 37. Great caution should be exercised in handling damaged
c. breakage of a shear section on the starter drive hermetically sealed turbine engine igniter transformer
shaft. units because
a. some contain toxic chemicals.
29. Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance b. some contain radioactive material.*
technicians usually includes checking the c. compounds in the unit may become a fire or
a. stator and rotor blades for FOD. explosion hazard when exposed to the air.
38. Generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, 47. When ‘blow out’ is selected on the Gas Turbine Engine
in order to eliminate the possibility of the technician starting circuit
receiving a lethal shock, the ignition switch is turned a. the starter motor is stopped when starter switch
off and selected off or when the timer switch cuts out.*
a. disconnected from the power supply circuit. b. the over-speed relay will de-energise the starter
b. the transformer exciter input lead is disconnected circuit.
and the center electrode grounded to the engine c. ignition is continuously on.
after disconnecting the igniter lead from the plug
and waiting the prescribed time. 48. After an unsuccessful start of an engine
c. the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and a. the engine has to be left for some time before
the center electrode grounded to the engine after another start.
disconnecting the transformer-exciter input lead b. unburnt fuel can be drained from fuel drainage lines.
and waiting the prescribed time.* c. unburnt fuel can be evacuated by motoring the
engine with H.P cock closed.*
39. What is the first engine instrument indication of a
successful start of a turbine engine? 49. A glow plug may be used in place of a spark plug on
a. A rise in the engine fuel flow. a. low temperature engines.
b. A rise in oil pressure. b. large engines.
c. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.* c. small engines.*
40. H.E.I.U ignitor plugs receive their electrical supply from 50. When an engine being started by an air starter reaches
a. discharge inductor. self sustaining speed
b. starter system electrical circuit. a. the motor is disconnected by the flyweight cut out
c. discharge capacitor.* switch.
b. the starter valve is disconnected by the fly weight
41. An H.E.I.U is rated in cut-out switch in the air starter.*
a. Joules.* c. the motor is disconnected by the pilot.
b. Watts.
c. Amps. 51. When reconnecting a H.E.I.U , which cable must be
reconnected first?
42. A glow plug operates a. It makes no difference. b. L.T before H.T.
a. manually. c. H.T before L.T.*
b. by heat action.*
c. electrically. 52. An aircraft flying through heavy rain may use, as a
precaution
43. The resistor in a D.C. starter motor a. airframe deicing.
a. prevents over speed. b. engine intake deicing.
b. prevents current surge when motor is at low rpm.* c. continuous ignition.*
c. used when D.C. motor fails.
53. The starter light is on during a start cycle (low voltage
44. Where does the high voltage type turbine ignition electrical starter)
receive its voltage pulse from? a. Indicates electrical power is flowing to the starter.
a. Primary windings.* b. If the light stays on after 30 seconds action is
b. Rectifier. required.*
c. Trigger transformer. c. This is normal for 30 seconds, take no action.
45. On a gas turbine engine DC starting circuit, if there is 54. A D.C starter motor disconnects due to
an open circuit on the contact of the over speed relay a. current decreasing switching off an over speed
a. starter motor will stop only when starter switch relay.*
selected off. b. current increasing switching off an over speed
b. starter motor will continue to run for 30 sec and relay.
then stop. c. a centrifugal switch that acts like an over speed
c. no power supply is connected to the starter motor.* relay.
46. The field of the D.C. starter motor used on gas turbine 55. What is the purpose of the current limiting resistor in
engine is a starter circuit?
a. series only. a. To prevent the starter from over speeding in the
b. shunt or compound. final phase of starting.
c. series or compound.* b. To provide overall control of the the speed of the
starter.
c. To prevent an initial current surge.*
56. On a low energy dual ignition system (<3 joules), if a 65. If a generator is malfunctioning, its voltage can be
relight is necessary reduced to residual by actuating the
a. it occurs automatically. a. rheostat.
b. the pilot selects both ignitors.* b. generator master switch.*
c. the pilot selects one of the two ignitors. c. master solenoid.
57. What device is used to convert alternating current, 66. If the points in a vibrator-type voltage regulator stick
which has been induced into the lopps of the rotating in the closed position while the generator is operating,
armature of a dc generator, to direct current? what will be the probable result?
a. A rectifier. b. A commutator.* a. Generator output voltage will decrease.
c. An inverter. b. Generator output voltage will not be affected.
c. Generator output voltage will increase.*
58. A certain direct current series motor mounted within
an aircraft draws more amperes during start than when 67. Why is a constant-speed drive used to control the
it is running under its rated load. The most logical speed of some aircraft engine-driven generators?
conclusion that may be drawn is a. So that the voltage output of the generator will
a. the starting winding is shorted. remain within limits.
b. the brushes are floating at operating RPM because b. To eliminate uncontrolled surges of current to the
of weak brush springs. electrical system.
c. the condition is normal for this type of motor.* c. So that the frequency of the alternating current
output will remain constant.*
59. The stationary field strength in a direct current
generator is varied 68. According to the electron theory of the flow of
a. by the reverse-current relay. electricity, when a properly functioning dc alternator
b. because of generator speed. and voltage regulating system is charging an aircraft's
c. according to the load requirements.* battery, the direction of current flow through the battery
a. is into the negative terminal and out the positive
60. What type of electric motor is generally used with a terminal.*
direct-cranking engine starter? b. is into the positive terminal and out the negative
a. Direct current, shunt-wound motor. terminal.
b. Direct current, series-wound motor.* c. cycles back and forth with the number of cycles
c. Synchronous motor. per second being controlled by the rotational speed
of the alternator.
61. Upon what does the output frequency of an AC
generator (alternator) depend? 69. Aircraft that operate more than one generator
a. The speed of rotation and the strength of the field. connected to a common electrical system must be
b. The speed of rotation, the strength of the field, provided with
and the number of field poles. a. automatic generator switches that operate to isolate
c. The speed of rotation and the number of field any generator whose output is less than 80 percent
poles.* of its share of the load.
b. an automatic device that will isolate nonessential
62. A high surge of current is required when a DC electric loads from the system if one of the generators fails.
motor is first started. As the speed of the motor c. individual generator switches that can be operated
increases, from the cockpit during flight.*
a. the counter emf decreases proportionally.
b. the applied emf increases proportionally. 70. The most effective method of regulating aircraft direct
c. the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied current generator output is to vary, according to the
emf, thus reducing the current flow through the load requirements, the
armature.* a. strength of the stationary field.*
b. generator speed.
63. Alternators (AC generators) that are driven by a c. number of rotating armature loops in use.
constant-speed drive (CSD) mechanism are used to
regulate the alternator to a constant 71. Electric motors are often classified according to the
a. voltage output. method of connecting the field coils and armature.
b. amperage output. Aircraft engine starter motors are generally of which
c. hertz output.* type?
a. Compound.
64. What is used to polish commutators or slip rings? b. Series.*
a. Very fine sandpaper.* c. Shunt (Parallel).
b. Crocus cloth or fine oilstone.
c. Aluminum oxide or garnet paper.
72. As the generator load is increased (within its rated 81. How many hours will a 140 ampere-hour battery deliver
capacity), the voltage will 15 amperes?
a. decrease and the amperage output will increase. a. 1.40 hours.
b. remain constant and the amperage output will b. 9.33 hours.*
increase.* c. 14.0 hours.
c. remain constant and the amperage output will
decrease. 82. What is a basic advantage of using ac for electrical
power for a large aircraft?
73. As the flux density in the field of a DC generator a. AC systems operate at higher voltage than dc
increases and the current flow to the system increases, systems and therefore use less current and can
the use smaller and lighter weight wiring.*
a. generator voltage decreases. b. AC systems operate at lower voltage than dc
b. generator amperage decreases. systems and therefore use less current and can
c. force required to turn the generator increases.* use smaller and lighter weight wiring.
c. AC systems operate at higher voltage than dc
74. What is the purpose of a reverse-current cutout relay? systems and therefore use more current and can
a. It eliminates the possibility of reversed polarity of use smaller and lighter weight wiring.
the generator output current.
b. It prevents fluctuations of generator voltage. 83. What are two types of AC motors that are used to
c. It opens the main generator circuit whenever the produce a relatively high torque?
generator voltage drops below the battery a. Shaded pole and shunt field.
voltage.* b. Shunt field and single phase.
c. Three-phase induction and capacitor start.*
75. Generator voltage will not build up when the field is
flashed and solder is found on the brush cover plate. 84. (1) Alternators are rated in volt-amps, which is a
These are most likely indications of measure of the apparent power being produced by
a. an open armature.* the generator.
b. excessive brush arcing. (2) Alternating current has the advantage over direct
c. armature shaft bearings overheating. current in that its voltage and current can easily be
stepped up or down.
76. Why is it unnecessary to flash the field of the exciter Regarding the above statements,
on a brushless alternator? a. only No.1 is true.
a. The exciter is constantly charged by battery b. only No. 2 is true.
voltage. c. both No.1 and No.2 are true.*
b. Brushless alternators do not have exciters.
c. Permanent magnets are installed in the main field 85. What is the frequency of most aircraft alternating
poles.* current?
a. 115 Hertz.
77. One way that the automatic ignition relight systems b. 60 Hertz.
are activated on gas turbine engines is by a c. 400 Hertz.*
a. drop in compressor discharge pressure.*
b. sensing switch located in the tailpipe. 86. The reason for flashing the field in a generator is to
c. drop in fuel flow. a. restore correct polarity and/or residual magnetism
to the field poles.*
78. How are the rotor windings of an aircraft alternator b. increase generator capacity.
usually excited? c. remove excessive deposits.
a. By a constant AC voltage from the battery.
b. By a constant AC voltage. 87. The part of a dc alternator power system that prevents
c. By a variable DC.* reverse flow of current from the battery to the alternator
is the
79. What precaution is usually taken to prevent electrolyte a. reverse current relay.
from freezing in a lead acid battery? b. voltage regulator.
a. Place the aircraft in a hangar. c. rectifier.*
b. Remove the battery and keep it under constant
charge. 88. The generating system of an aircraft charges the
c. Keep the battery fully charged.* battery by using
a. constant current and varying voltage.
80. What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery b. constant voltage and varying current.*
that is designed to deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours? c. constant voltage and constant current.
a. 112.5 ampere-hour.*
b. 90.0 ampere-hour.
c. 45.0 ampere-hour.
89. The constant current method of charging a ni-cad 96. The resistance of the current return path through the
battery aircraft is always considered negligible, provided the
a. will bring it up to fully charged in the shortest a. voltage drop across the circuit is checked.
amount of time. b. generator is properly grounded.
b. will lead to cell imbalance over a period of time.* c. structure is adequately bonded.*
c. is the method most effective in maintaining cell
balance. 97. In order to reduce the possibility of ground shorting
the circuits when the connectors are separated for
90. (Refer to Fig.15.2) The following data concerning the maintenance, the AN and MS electrical connectors
installation of an electrical unit is known: current should be installed with the
requirements for continuous operation - 11 amperes; a. socket section on the ground side of the electrical
measured cable length - 45 feet; system voltage - 28 circuit.
volts (do not exceed 1 volt drop); cable in conduit and b. pin section on the ground side of the electrical
bundles. What is the minimum size copper electrical circuit.*
cable that may be selected? c. pin section on the positive side of the electrical
a. No. 10. b. No. 12.* circuit.
c. No. 14.
98. When does current flow through the coil of a solenoid-
operated electrical switch?
a. Continually, as long as the aircraft's electrical
system master switch is on.
b. Continually, as long as the control circuit is
complete.*
c. Only until the movable points contact the stationary
points.
99. It is necessary to determine that the electrical load

limit of a 28-volt, 75-amp generator, installed in a
particular aircraft, has not been exceeded. By making a
ground check, it is determined that the battery
Fig.15.2 Electric Wire chart. furnished 57 amperes to the system when all equipment
that can continuously draw electrical power in flight is
91. Which of the following aircraft circuits does NOT turned on. This type of load determination
contain a fuse/circuit breaker? a. can be made, but the load will exceed the generator
a. Generator circuit. load limit.
b. Air-conditioning circuit b. can be made, and the load will be within the
c. Starter circuit.* generator load limit.*
c. cannot be made on direct current electrical systems.
92. The maximum number of terminals that may be
connected to any one terminal stud in an aircraft 100. What type of lubricant may be used to aid in pulling
electrical system is electrical wires or cables through conduits?
a. two. b. three. a. Silicone grease.
c. four.* b. Soapstone talc.*
c. Rubber lubricant.
93. What is the maximum number of bonding jumper wires
that may be attached to one terminal grounded to a flat 101. Which of the following is regulated in a generator to
surface? control its voltage output?
a. Two. b. Three. a. Speed of the armature.
c. Four.* b. Number of windings in the armature.
c. The strength of the field.*
94. As a general rule, starter brushes are replaced when
they are approximately 102. Bonding jumpers should be designed and installed in
a. one-half their original length.* such a manner that they
b. one-third original length. a. are not subjected to flexing by relative motion of
c. two-thirds their original length. airframe or engine components.
b. provide a low electrical resistance in the ground
95. When installing an electrical switch, under which of circuit.*
the following conditions should the switch be derated c. prevent buildup of a static electrical charge between
from its nominal current rating? the airframe and the surrounding atmosphere.
a. Conductive circuits.
b. Capacitive circuits.
c. Direct-current motor circuits.*
103. When the starter switch to the aircraft gas turbine operation to restore service after the device has
engine starter-generator is energized and the engine interrupted the circuit?
fails to rotate, one of the probable causes would be a. 14 CFR Part 23.* b. 14 CFR Part 43.
the c. 14 CFR Part 91.
a. power lever switch is defective.
b. undercurrent solenoid contacts are defective. 113. Which Federal Aviation Regulation requirement
c. starter solenoid is defective.* prevents the use of automatic reset circuit breakers?
a. 14 CFR Part 21. b. 14 CFR Part 23.*
104. Arcing at the brushes and burning of the commulator c. 14 CFR Part 91.
of a motor may be caused by
a. weak brush springs.* 114. The time/current capacities of a circuit breaker or fuse
b. excessive brush spring tension. must be
c. low mica. a. above those of the associated conductor.
b. equal to those of the associated conductor.
105. The maximum allowable voltage drop between the c. below those of the associated conductor.*
generator and the bus bar is
a. 1 percent of the regulated voltage. 115. (1) Most modern aircraft use circuit breakers rather
b. 2 percent of the regulated voltage.* than fuses to protect their electrical circuits.
c. less than the voltage drop permitted between the (2) Federal Aviation Regulations Part 23 requires that
battery and the bus bar. all electrical circuits incorporate some form of
circuit protective device.
106. ON-OFF two position engine electrical switches should Regarding the above statements.
be installed a. only No.1 is true.*
a. so that the toggle will move in the same direction b. only No. 2 is true.
as the desired motion of the unit controlled. c. both No.1 and No. 2 are true.
b. under a guard.
c. so the ON position is reached by a forward or 116. Electrical switches are rated according to the
upward motion.* a. voltage and the current they can control.*
b. resistance rating of the switch and the wiring.
107. When selecting an electrical switch for installation in c. resistance and the temperature rating.
an aircraft circuit utilizing a direct current motor,
a. a switch designed for dc should be chosen. 117. Electrical circuit protection devices are installed
b. a derating factor should be applied.* primarily to protect the
c. only switches with screw-type terminal a. switches. b. units.
connections should be used. c. wiring.*
108. When installing electrical wiring parallel to a fuel line, 118. (1) Electrical circuit protection devices are rated based
the wiring should be on the amount of current that can be carried without
a. in metal conduit. overheating the wiring insulation.
b. in a non-conductive fire-resistant sleeve. (2) A "trip-free" circuit breaker makes it impossible to
c. above the fuel line.* manually hold the circuit closed when excessive
current is flowing.
109. (Refer to Fig.1) In a 28-volt system, what is the Regarding the above statements,
maximum continuous current that can be carried by a a. only No.1 is true.
single No. 10 copper wire 25 feet long, routed in free b. only No.2 is true.
air? c. both No.1 and No.2 are true.*
a. 20 amperes. b. 35 amperes.*
c. 28 amperes. 119. Which of the following Federal Aviation Regulations
require that all aircraft using fuses as the circuit
110. What speed must an eight-pole AC generator turn to protective devices carry "one spare set of fuses, or
produce 400-Hertz AC? three spare fuses of each kind required"?
a. 400 RPM. b. 1,200 RPM. a. FAR Part 23. b. FAR Part 43.
c. 6,000 RPM.* c. FAR Part 91.*
111. How many basic types of circuit breakers are used in 120. What is the smallest terminal stud allowed for aircraft
powerplant installation electrical systems? electrical power systems?
a. Two. b. Three.* a. No.6. b. No.8.
c. Four. c. No.10.*
112. Which Federal Aviation Regulation specifies that each 121. A typical barrier type aircraft terminal strip is made of
resettable circuit protective device requires a manual a. paper-base phenolic compound.*
b. polyester resin and graphite compound. c. Same as sea level

c. layered aluminum impregnated with compound. d. Much less then sea level
122. A term commonly used when two or more electrical 131. In some engine an additional 3 joule system is provided
terminals are installed on a single lug of a terminal strip is to
a. strapping. a. Boost the ground starting.
b. stepping. b. Emit spark for auto relight.
c. stacking.* c. Operate continuously for auto re-ignition*.
123. (1) Electrical wires larger than 10 guage use
uninsulated terminals. 132. The high energy ignition unit is
(2) Electrical wires smaller than 10 guage use a. 3 joules. b. 6 joules.
uninsulated terminals. c. 8 joules. d. 12 joules*.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No.1 is true.* 133. The high energy ignition unit capacitor is repeatedly
b. only No.2 is true. charged by
c. neither No.1 nor No.2 is true. a. Induction coil.
b. Transistorized HT generator.
124. Aircraft electrical wire size is measured according to c. Either of the above*.
the d. Both of the above.
a. Military Specification system.
b. American Wire Gauge system.* 134. The induction coil or transistorized HT generator
c. Technical Standard Order system. repeatedly charge capacitor till
a. Air fuel mixture is ignited.
125. Aircraft copper electrical wire is coated with tin, silver, b. Voltage is sufficient to break down a sealed spark
or nickel, in order to gap*.
a. improve conductivity. b. add strength. c. It drains through resister.
c. prevent oxidization.* d. Starting cycle is on.
126. What should be done initially if a turbine engine 135. The igniter plug releases the energy in flash over the
catches fire when starting? semi - conducting face of it
a. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation with a. One in one second. b. Two in one second*.
the starter.* c. One in two seconds. d. None of the above.
b. Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire
extinguisher into the intake. 136. A 3 joule unit is usually supplied with
c. Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the a. HT direct current. b. LT direct current.
fire. c. HT alternate current. d. LT alternate current*.
127. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet 137. Energy stored in H E ignition unit is potentially lethal,
engine? hence before handling the unit
a. ignition, starter, fuel. b. Starter, ignition, fuel.* a. Trip CB or remove fuse.
c. Starter, fuel, ignition. b. Wait for a minute after DC supply cut off.
c. Follow as per a. and b.*
128. Generally, when starting a turbine engine, the starter c. Put off electrical supply to aircraft.
should be disengaged
a. after the engine has reached self-accelerating 138. The ignition units are mounted
speed.* a. Rigidly with engine.
b. only after the engine has reached full idle RPM. b. On anti vibrations mounting.
c. when the ignition and fuel system are activated. c. On rubber bushings.
d. On both b. and c.*
129. The ignition system of a gas turbine engine must
provide effective ignition 139. The bonding cable should be
a. During ground start. a. Securily attached for good contact.
b. During relight in air. b. Such as to permit movement of unit.
c. Under all atmospheric and flight conditions. c. Of semiconducting material.
d. For all above conditions*. d. As per a. and b.*
130. As altitude increases, the power required for effective 140. At appropriate interval the HE ignition. unit should be
ignition is inspected for
a. Less. a. Damage, crack or corrosion.
b. More*. b. Security of bonding lead.
c. Security of LT and HT leads. 149. While ignition system is on during functional test
d. All above*. a. There will be spark clicking sound in CC.
b. The 'lgn ON' light will illuminate in cabin.
141. In an igniter plug space between central electrode and c. Nothing above will occur .
outer body is filled with an insulating material d. both occura as per a. and b.*
terminating at the firing end is a
a. Mica coating. 150. When a common component for cranking and ignition
b. Silicon coating. is replaced , usually the test are carried out
c. Semi conducting pellet*. a. By testers without motoring the engine.
d. None of the above. b. Component separately in the shop.
c. By motoring run with HP cock off*.
142. During operation, a small electrical leakage from the d. None of the above.
ignition unit is fed through the electrode to plug body
to 151. Ideal conditions for storage of starter and ignition
a. Produce high resistance. components is
b. Provide good conduction. a. Room temp 10oC and 50% humidity.
c. Produce ionized path across the pallet*. b. Room temp. 15oC and 80 % humidity.
d. Decrease the intensity of spark. c. Room Temp. 20oC and 75% humidity.
d. Room temp. 16oC (61Fo) and 75 % humidity*.
143. At frequent intervals igniter plugs should be inspected
for 152. The starter and ignition equipment is packed for
a. Damage, security of attachment. transportation with
b. Cracks and erosion of pellet surface. a. Grease resistance paper.
c. Excess carbon deposits. b. Suitable quality of desiccant in a plastic bag.
d. All of above*. c. Padded cardboard boxes.
d. All of above*.
144. While fitting a igniter plug, the depth of penetration in
combustion chamber to be checked and adjusted by 153. Before packing the ignition and starter components, it
means of is needed that
a. Rubber seal. a. Starter gear box should be drained and shaft be
b. Synthetic gaskets. coated with rust preventive.
c. Selection of shims thickness*. b. Igniter threads are coated with rust preventive and
d. None of the above. wrap in wax paper.
c. Leads wiped of with cloth moistioned with white
145. The ignition lead is made of single insulated core spirit and ends blanked.
encased in a d. To carry out all above*.
a. Highly insulated conduit.
b. Wire braided conduit. 154. Indicate what is correct
c. Flexible metal sheath*. a. Igniter plugs and leads can be stored indefinitely.
d. Plastic conduit. b. If storage life is expired, the component is to be
functionally tested before installation.
146. The end fittings of ignition cable normally incorporates c. Both above are correct*.
a. Hexagonal nut with locking wire holes. d. Both above are wrong.
b. Self locking attachment nut*.
c. Friction fit coupling. 155. Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to
d. None of the above. high intensity spark discharges and yet they have a
long service life because they
147. Before installation of a ignition lead check for a. operate at much lower temperatures.*
a. Damage to ceramic sleeve and spring movement. b. are not placed directly into the combustion
b. Insulation resistance if required. chamber.
c. Flexible metal sheath for fraying. c. do not require continuous operation.*
d. All of above*.
156. The electrical circuit from the spark plug back to the
148. In case a functional check on ignition system is needed magneto is completed by grounding through the
to be carried out, then a. engine structure.* b. P-lead.
a. Aircraft should be parked in open air. c. cockpit switch.
b. Fuel or fuel vapours should be dispensed from CC
& fuel cock closed. 157. Spark plugs are considered worn out when the
c. A suitable fire extinguisher placed near a/c. a. electrodes have worn away to about one-half of
d. All of above is to be carried out*. their original dimensions.*
b. center electrode edges have become rounded.
c. electrodes have worn away to about two-third of 166. The term "reach," as applied to spark plug design and/
their original dimensions. or type, indicates the
a. linear distance from the shell gasket seat to the
158. Which of the following could cause damage to the end of the threads on the shell skirt.*
nose ceramic or to the electrode of an aircraft b. length of center electrode exposed to the flame of
sparkplug? combustion.
a. Plug installed without a copper gasket. c. length of the shielded barrel.
b. Improper gapping procedures.*
c. Excessive magneto voltage. 167. The numbers appearing on the ignition distributor
block indicate the
159. Sharp bends should be avoided in ignition leads a. sparking order of the distributor.*
primarily because b. relation between distributor terminal numbers and
a. weak points may develop in the insulation.* cylinder numbers.
b. ignition lead wire conductor material is brittle and c. firing order of the engine.
may break.
c. ignition lead shielding effectiveness will be 168. When testing a magneto distributor block for electrical
reduced. leakage, which of the following pieces of test equipment
should be used?
160. In a high-tension ignition system, a primary capacitor a. A high-tension harness tester.*
of too low a capacity will cause b. A continuity tester.
a. excessive primary voltage. c. A high-range ammeter.
b. excessively high secondary voltage.
c. the breaker contacts to burn.* 169. (1) The platinum and iridium ground electrodes used
on fine wire spark plugs are extremely brittle and can
161. Which of the following, obtained during margneto be broken if they are improperly handled or adjusted.
check at 1,700 RPM, indicates a short (grounded) circuit (2) When gapping massive-electrode spark plugs, a
between the right magneto primary and the ignition wire gauge should be inserted between the center and
switch? ground electrodes while moving the ground electrode
a. BOTH-1,700 RPM, R-1,625 RPM, L-1,700 RPM, in order to avoid setting the gap too close.
OFF-1,625 RPM. Regarding the above statements,
b. BOTH-1,700 RPM, R-0 RPM, L-1,700 RPM, OFF-0 a. only No. 1 is true.*
RPM.* b. only No. 2 is true.
c. BOTH-1,700 RPM, R-0 RPM, L-1,675 RPM, OFF-0 c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
RPM.
170. Hot spark plugs are generally used in aircraft power-
162. If an aircraft ignition switch is turned off and the engine plants
continues to run normally, the trouble is probably a. with comparatively high compression or high
caused by operating temperatures.
a. an open ground lead in the magneto.* b. with comparatively low operating temperatures.*
b. arcing magneto breaker points. c. whichproduce high power per cubic inch
c. primary lead grounding. displacement.
163. When the ignition switch of a single (reciprocating) 171. If a spark plug lead becomes grounded, the
engine aircraft is turned to the OFF position, a. magneto will not be affected.*
a. the primary circuits of both magnetos are b. distributor rotor finger will discharge to the next
grounded.* closest electrode within the distributor.
b. the secondary circuits of both magnetos are c. capacitor will break down.
opened.
c. all circuits are automatically opened. 172. Which of the following statements regarding magneto
switch circuits is NOT true?
164. A spark plug's heat range is the result of a. In the BOTH position, the right and left magneto
a. the area of the plug exposed to the cooling circuits are grounded.*
airstream. b. In the OFF position, neither the right nor left
b. its ability to transfer heat from the firing end of the magneto circuits are open.
spark plug to the cylinder head.* c. In the RIGHT position, the right magneto circuit is
c. the heat intensity of the spark. open and the left magneto circuit is grounded.
165. If staggered ignition timing is used, the 173. Which of the following statements most accurately
a. spark plug nearest the exhaust valve will fire first.* describes spark plug heat range?
b. spark will be automatically advanced as engine a. The length of the threaded portion of the shell
speed increases. usually denotes the spark plug heat range.
c. spark plug nearest the intake valve will fire first.
b. A hot plug is designed so that the insulator tip is major portion of the RPM loss occurs rapidly after
reasonably short to hasten the rate of heat transfer switching to the right magneto position (fast drop).
from the tip through the spark plug shell to the The most likely cause is
cylinder head. a. faulty or fouled spark plugs.*
c. A cold plug is designed so that the insulator tip is b. incorrect ignition timing on both magnetos.
reasonably short to hasten the rate of heat transfer c. one or more dead cylinders.
from the tip through the spark plug shell to the
cylinder head.* 184. If new breaker points are installed in a magneto on an
engine, it will be necessary to time the
174. When does battery current flow through the primary a. magneto internally and the magneto to the engine.*
circuit of a battery ignition coil? b. breaker points to the No. 1 cylinder.
a. Only when the breaker points are open. c. magneto drive to the engine.
b. At all times the ignition switch is on.
c. When the breaker points are closed and the ignition 185. Using a cold spark plug in a high-compression aircraft
switch is on.* engine would probably result in
a. normal operation.*
175. In order to turn a magneto off, the primary circuit must b. a fouled plug.
be c. detonation.
a. grounded.* b. opened.
c. shorted. 186. Spark plug fouling caused by lead deposits occurs
most often
176. When performing a magneto ground check on an a. during cruise with rich mixture.
engine, correct operation is indicated by b. when cylinder head temperatures are relatively
a. a slight increase in RPM. low.*
b. no drop in RPM. c. when cylinder head temperatures are high.
c. a slight drop in RPM.*
187. In a four-stroke cycle aircraft engine, when does the
177. Defective spark plugs will cause the engine to run ignition event take place?
rough at a. Before the piston reaches TDC on compression
a. high speeds only. b. low speeds only. stroke.*
c. all speeds.* b. After the piston reaches TDC on power stroke.
c. After the piston reaches TDC on compression
178. A sparks plug is fouled when stroke.
a. its spark grounds by jumping electrodes.
b. it causes preignition. 188. When installing a magneto on an engine, the
c. its spark grounds without jumping electrodes.* a. piston in the No. 1 cylinder must be a prescribed
number of degrees before top center on the
179. Which of the following would be cause for rejection of compression stroke.*
a spark plug? b. magneto breaker points must be just closing.
a. Carbon fouling of the electrode and insulator. c. piston in the No. 1 cylinder must be a prescribed
b. Insulator tip cracked.* number of degrees after top center on the intake
c. Lead fouling of the electrode and insulator. stroke.
180. What will be the result of using too hot a spark plug? 189. The spark occurs at the spark plug when the ignition's
a. Fouling of plug. b. Preignition.* a. secondary circuit is completed.
c. Burned capacitor. b. primary circuit is completed.
c. primary circuit is broken.*
181. Upon inspection of the spark plugs in an aircraft engine,
the plugs were found caked with a heavy black soot. 190. Ignition check during engine runup indicates a slow
This indicates drop in RPM. This is usually caused by
a. worn oil seal rings. a. defective spark plugs.
b. a rich mixture.* b. a defective high-tension lead.
c. a lean mixture. c. incorrect ignition timing or valve adjustment.*
182. Spark plug heat range is determined by 191. If the ground wire of a magneto is disconnected at the
a. the reach of the spark plug. ignition switch, the result will be the
b. its ability to transfer heat to the cylinder head.* a. affected magneto will be isolated and the engine
c. the number of ground electrodes. will run on the opposite magneto.
b. engine will stop running.
183. Ignition check during engine runup indicates excessive c. engine will not stop running when the ignition
RPM drop during operation on the right magneto. The switch is turned off. *
192. Which of the following are advantages of dual ignition 200. What component of a dual magneto is shared by both
in aircraft engines? ignition systems?
1. Gives a more complete and quick combustion of a. High-tension coil.
the fuel. b. Rotating magnet.*
2. Provides a backup magneto system. c. Capacitor.
3. Increases the output power of the engine.
4. Permits the use of lower grade fuels. 201. What would be the result if a magneto breaker point
5. Increases the intensity of the spark at the spark mainspring did not have sufficient tension?
plugs. a. The points will stick.
a. 2, 3, 4. b. 2, 3, 5. b. The points will not open to the specified gap.
c. 1, 2, 3.* c. The points will float or bounce.*
193. How does high-tension ignition shielding tend to 202. The secondary coil of a magneto is grounded through
reduce radio interference? the
a. Prevents ignition flashover at high altitudes. a. ignition switch.
b. Reduces voltage drop in the transmission of high- b. primary coil.*
tension current. c. grounded side of the breaker points.
c. Receives and grounds high-frequency waves
coming from the magneto and high-tension ignition 203. In the aircraft magneto system, if the P-lead is
leads.* disconnected, the magneto will be
a. on regardless of ignition switch position.*
194. Which of the following are distinct circuits of a high- b. grounded regardless of ignition switch position.
tension magneto? c. open regardless of ignition switch position.
1. Magnetic. 2. Primary.
3. E-gap. 4. P-lead. 204. (Refer to Fig.15.3) Placing the engine master switch
5. Secondary. and battery switch to the on position and advancing
a. 1, 2, 5.* b. 1, 3, 4. the power lever, allows current to flow from the bus to
c. 2, 4, 5. the
a. fuel valve, external power receptacles, power lever
195. What are two parts of a distributor in an aircraft engine relay coil, and ignition relay coil.
ignition system? b. fuel valve, start switch, power lever switch, power
1. Coil. 2. Block. lever relay coil, and ignition relay coil.*
3. Stator. 4. Rotor. c. fuel valve, external power receptacles, undercurrent
5. Transformer. relay contacts, starter relay coil, and ignition relay
a. 2 and 4.* b. 3 and 4. contacts.
c. 2 and 5.
205. (Refer to Fig.15.3) With power applied to the bus bar,
196. What is a result of "flashover" in a distributor? what switch changes will allow the ignition exciters
a. Intense voltage at the spark plug. test switch to function?
b. Reversal of current flow. a. Engine master switch, battery switch, and power
c. Conductive carbon trail.* lever switch.
b. Engine master switch, start switch, and test switch.
197. What is the relationship between distributor and c. Engine master switch, power lever switch.*
crankshaft speed of aircraft reciprocating engines?
a. The distributor turns at one-half crankshaft speed.* 206. (Refer to Fig.15.3) The type of system depicted is
b. The distributor turns at one and one-half crankshaft capable of operating with
speed. a. external power only.
c. The crankshaft turns at one-half distributor speed. b. either battery or external power.*
c. battery power and external power simultaneously.
198. At what RPM is a reciprocating engine ignition switch
check made? 207. (Refer to Fig.15.3) If wire No. 8 is broken or
a. 1,500 RPM disconnected after rotation is initiated, and the power
. b. The slowest possible RPM.* lever is advanced, the
c. Full throttle RPM. a. starting sequence will continue normally.*
b. starter will shut down, but the igniters will continue
199. What is the approximate position of the rotating magnet to fire.
in a high-tension magneto when the points first close? c. starting sequence will discontinue.
a. Full register.*
b. Neutral.
c. A few degrees after neutral.
b. remains relatively constant throughout the starting

cycle.
c. is highest just before starter cutoff (at highest
RPM).
214. When using an electric starter motor, the current flow

through it
a. is highest at the start of motor rotation.
b. remains relatively constant throughout the starting
cylce.*
c. is highest just before starter cutoff (at highest
RPM).
215. To start a gas tubing engine it is required to

a. Rotate the rotor assembly.
b. Ignite the fuel.
Fig.15.3. Starter - Generator Circuit c. Rotate the rotor assembly and ignite the fuel*.
d. Do nothing above.
208. (Refer to Fig.15.3) When an external power source is
connected to the aircraft, 216. In starting cycle of a gas turbine engine the sequence
a. the battery cannot be connected to the bus.* adopted is as
b. both battery power and external power are available a. Rotate - spray fuel - ignite.
to the bus. b. Rotate Release spark - spray fuel.*
c. the start relay coil has a path to ground. c. Release spark - rotate - spray fuel.
d. Any of the above.
209. The purpose of an under current relay in a starter-
generator system is to 217. Engine rotate with starter effort only upto
a. provide a backup for the starter relay. a. Engine light up.* b. Self sustaining rpm.
b. disconnect power from the starter-generator and c. Release of spark. d. Idle rating.
ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached.*
c. keep current flow to the starter-generator under 218. Engine rotates with the combined effort of starter and
the circuit capacity maximum. heat energy
a. From light up to idle rating.
210. In a typical starter-generator system, under which of b. From release of spark to self sustaining rpm.
the following starting circumstances may it be c. From light up to self sustaining rpm*.
necessary to use the start stop switch? d. None of the above.
a. Hung start.*
b. Hot start. 219. The self sustaining rpm is
c. Contacts stick open. a. When spark is released.
b. When fuel is sprayed.
211. (Refer to Fig.1.) Which malfunctions will alow the c. When engine is able to accelerate further by its
igniters to operate when tested but be inoperative oneself.*
during a start attempt? d. Idle rating rpm.
1. Conductor No. 10 broken.
2. Conductor No. 11 broken. 220. Starter effort is withdrawn for engine rotation when
3. Ignition solenoid inoperative. a. Engine has lit up.
4. Conductor No. 12 broken. b. Engine power begins to rotate starter.*
a. 1 or 4. b. 2 or 3. c. Idle rating is reached.
c. 1 or 3.* d. None of the above.
212. (Refer to Fig.1) Which malfunctions will allow the 221. Though the operation of starting cycle is automatic,
igniters to operate normally during start but be but
inoperative when tested? a. Oil temperature and pressure to be monitored.
1. Conductor No. 14 broken. b. RPM and TGT is to be monitored.
2. Conductor No. 10 broken. c. If prescribed limits are exceeded then discontinue
3. Conductor No. 15 broken. the start.
4. Conductor No. 12 broken. d. To be done as b. and c.*
a. 2 or 4. b. 1 or 3.*
c. 3 or 4. 222. If light up is delayed due to less rotational speed then
a. CC is underfed with fuel.
213. When using an electric starter motor, current usage b. CC is over fueled.
a. is highest at the start of motor rotation.*
c. TGT will be high at light up. c. Either starter or in accessories box.*

d. b. and c. will occur.* d. In between accessories box and starter.
223. Facing the aircraft towards wind is help full in starting 232. Operation of the starting cycle of a electrical starter
a. For turbo jet since less back pressure at propelling a. Use initial starter current to engage over speed
nozzle. relay and hold in solenoid.
b. For tubro prop with extra fine pitch it will wind mill. b. Is affected by a timer unit.
c. As per a. and b.* c. Either of the above methods can be adopted.*
224. Mainly the light turbojet and turbo prop engines are 233. Periodically the starter should be inspected for
cranked by a. Damage, security and oil leaks and level.
a. Air starters. b. Brushes and commutator for wear and scoring.
b. Monofuel turbo starters. c. Leads for security and grommets for damage.
c. Electrical starters.* d. All of above.*
d. Cartridge starters.
234. Normally the engine starter have life, subject to
225. Usually the cartridge and monofuel turbo starters are possible calendar limitation
not used on commercial airplanes, due to a. More then engine life.
a. Cost of operation and fire hazards.* b. Less then engine life.
b. Higher weights. c. At least equal to engine life.*
c. Complicated operations. d. Either a. or c.
235. When a new starter is drawn from the stores for
226. The auxiliary power unit provides replacement of the u/s starter
a. Electrical and pneumatic powers.* a. It is to be visually inspected for damage.
b. Hydraulic power. b. Just clear up the storage adhesive and install on
c. Pneumatic power only. engine.
d. None of the above. c. Carry out full acceptance checks as prescribed.*
d. All above.
227. During starting the ignition is provided by
a. High energy ignition unit. 236. During acceptance checks the starters electrical
b. Surface discharge plug. resistance is checked between insulated terminal and
c. Both a. and b.* frame with
d. None of the above. a. 250 volts and should read 50000 ohm.*
b. 220 volts and should read 40000 ohm.
228. Electric starters are a c. 24 volts and should read 500 ohm.
a. AC motor. d. None of the above.
b. DC motor.*
c. Both AC and DC motor. 237. During acceptance check of electrical starter
d. alternators. a. Check and measure the movement of jaw.
b. Check the brushes for free movement and adequate
229. In some engines starter itself converts to generator spring pressure.
after engine start. In such starters c. Checked for both as a. and b.*
a. Reduction gears and ratchet system is must. d. None of the above.
b. No reduction gears.
c. No ratchet mechanism.
d. Nothing needed as per b. and c.* 
230. A common method of coupling the starter drive is

a. By means of nuts and bolts.
b. By means of jaws on starter and engine.
c. By the effort of a solenoid or helical splines of
starter shaft.
d. By means of both b. and c.*
231. Ratchet mechanism is operated by the efforts of fly

weights and spring which is installed on
a. Starter.
b. Engine accessories box.
CHAPTER - 14
ENGINE INDICATION SYSTEMS
1. The compensation device on an E.G.T system must be 11. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate
re-calibrated after a. position and quantity.
a. each time a part of the system is replaced. b. pressure and temperature.*
b. does not need calibration.* c. pressure, temperature, position and quantity.
c. manufacture and overhaul.
12. What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be
2. When testing an E.G.T system monitored to minimize the possibility of a ‘hot’ start?
a. the O.A.T is always taken into consideration.* a. RPM indicator.
b. the O.A.T is neglected. b. Turbine inlet temperature.*
c. O.A.T is only taken into consideration when over c. Torquemeter.
20°C.
13. Oil temperature thermocouples are usually constructed
3. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R.) used for? of
a. To limit the maximum exhaust gas temperature. a. iron constantan.* b. alumel constantan.
b. To indicate the thrust produced by the engine.* c. chromel alumel.
c. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust.
14. The RPM indication of a synchronous AC motor
4. What happens when bulb type thermometer resistive tachometer is governed by the generator
element goes open circuit? a. current. b. frequency.*
a. Reads less than ambient. c. voltage.
b. No reading given.
c. Reads more than ambient.* 15. Instruments that measure relatively high fluid
pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually
5. On an E.G.T thermocouple system, the hot junction what type?
a. is placed up stream of the combustion chamber. a. Bourdon tube.*
b. is placed in cockpit. b. Vane with calibrated spring.
c. is placed downstream of the combustion chamber.* c. Diaphragm or bellows.
6. On an RPM system using a synchronous generator, 16. Instruments that provide readings of low or negative
the pointer is deflected by pressure, such as manifold pressure gauges, are
a. a potentiometer. usually what type?
b. a Wheatstone bridge. a. Diaphragm or bellows.*
c. an AC servomotor.* b. Vane with calibrated spring.
c. Bourdon tube.
7. Torque pressure is usually read from a
a. torque meter. 17. In what units are gas turbine engine tachometers
b. direct reading pressure gauge.* calibrated?
c. tension gauge. a. Percent of engine pressure ratio.
b. Percent of engine RPM.*
8. The drag cup in a tacho-generator is balanced by c. Actual engine RPM.
a. calibrated hairspring.*
b. adjustable counterbalance weights. 18. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge
c. adjustment screw. pressure indicator sensor located?
a. At a location in the exhaust cone that is determined
9. Fuel flow indication is taken from to be subjected to the highest pressures.
a. after the H.P pump. b. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.*
b. after either H.P Pump or LP Pump.* c. At the aft end of the compressor section.
c. after the LP pump.
19. The exhaust gas temperature (E.G.T ) indicator on a
10. What power is required for E.G.T gauge indication? gas turbine engine provides a relative indication of
a. No power - it is self generating.* the
b. 115VAC. a. turbine inlet temperature.*
c. 28V DC. b. temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass the
exhaust cone.
c. exhaust temperature.
20. Engine pressure ratio is determined by 28. The fuel flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor
a. dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine impeller and turbine indicating system is driven by
outlet total pressure. a. direct coupling to the motor shaft.
b. multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine b. an electrical signal.*
outlet total pressure. c. a mechanical gear train.
c. dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine
inlet total pressure.* 29. Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow transmitters
are designed to transmit data
21. A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine a. using aircraft electrical system power.*
instrument face or glass indicates b. mechanically.
a. the maximum limit for high transients such as c. by fuel pressure.
starting.*
b. a restricted operating range. 30. What unit in a tachometer system sends information
c. the maximum operating limit for all normal to the indicator?
operations. a. The two phase AC generator.
b. The three phase AC generator.*
22. What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an c. The synchronous motor.
axial compressor turbine engine?
a. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions. 31. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature
b. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate of the oil
overspeed conditions.* a. entering the oil cooler.*
c. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing b. entering the engine.
thrust settings under all conditions. c. in the oil storage tank.
23. Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio between 32. Thermocouple leads
the a. may be repaired using solderless connectors.
a. front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the b. are designed for a specific installation and may not
compressor. be altered.*
b. front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine.* c. may be installed with either lead to either post of
c. aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the the indicator.
turbine.
33. Why do helicopters require a minimum of two
24. On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant synchronous tachometer systems?
power, the application of engine anti-icing will result a. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail rotor
in RPM.
a. an increase in E.P.R. b. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail
b. noticeable shift in E.P.R.* rotor RPM.
c. a false E.P.R reading. c. One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor
RPM.*
25. The indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to
change in 34. If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed
a. voltage. b. frequency.* at installation, what would the E.G.T gauge pointer
c. current flow. indicate?
a. Moves off scale on the high side of the meter.
26. The fuel flow indication data sent from motor driven b. Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter.*
impeller and turbine, and motorless type fuel flow c. Normal temperature for prevailing condition.
transmitters is a measure of
a. fuel mass flow.* 35. A common type of electrically operated oil temperature
b. fuel volume flow. gauge utilizes
c. engine burner pressure drop. a. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.*
b. a thermocouple type circuit.
27. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system c. vapour pressure and pressure switches.
(C.F.S) with a totalizer indicator provides indication of
how many of the following? 36. The indication on a thermocouple-type E.G.T indicator
a. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start is produced by
up, Fuel time remaining at current power setting.* a. resistance changes in two dissimilar metals.
b. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start b. a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar
up, Fuel time remaining at current power setting, metals.
Fuel temperature. c. a current generated by the temperature difference
c. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start between dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions.*
up, Fuel temperature.
37. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R) used to c. To standardise the reading for different engine
indicate? types.
a. The power produced by the engine.
b. The thrust produced by the engine.* 48. In a tachometer generator
c. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust. a. the frequency output is inversely proportional to
engine speed.
b. frequency output is proportional to engine speed.*
38. Where is Turbine Outlet Temperature (T.O.T) c. the frequency output is constant.
measured?
a. Upstream of the turbine. 49. Vibration pick-ups are located
b. Downstream of the turbine.* a. on both fan and turbine cases.*
c. In the combustion chamber. b. on the fan/compressor case.
c. on the turbine case.
39. A thermocouple indicator is basically a
a. milliammeter. b. millivoltmeter.* 50. In a capacitive type fuel quantity indicating system
c. milliohmeter. the tank units are connected in
a. series. b. parallel.*
40. A thermocouple indicator is connected to the c. series/parallel.
a. cold junction.* b. hot junction.
c. difference between the hot junction and the cold 51. Torque measurement in a gas turbine engine is
junction. a. not always reliable.
b. highly reliable.
41. Thrust in a high bypass fan engine is indicated by c. required only when the turbine drives a propeller.*
a. N3 RPM or P1/P4 ratio.
b. N1 RPM or N3 RPM. 52. Vibration signals, when picked up,
c. N1 RPM or E.P.R.* a. go straight to indicator.
b. go through half wave rectifier to indicator.
42. How is the N1 and N2 measured on a triple spool c. the frequencies are filtered to exclude unwanted
engine? frequencies.*
a. Tachometer connected to the internal gearbox.
b. Tachometer connected to the external gearbox. 53. E.G.T is displayed in
c. Pulse type speed probes.* a. Kelvin.
b. degrees centigrade.*
43. Modern oil pressure servo transmitters sense c. degrees Fahrenheit.
a. absolute pressure.
b. H.P oil pressure. 54. N2 is taken from
c. differential pressure.* a. a speed transducer on the fan rear frame.
b. a tachometer attached on the N1 gearbox.
44. E.G.T thermocouples are usually made of c. a tachometer on the accessory gearbox.*
a. nickel and platinum.
b. chromel and platinum. 55. Engine vibration is monitored using
c. chromel and alumel.* a. electromechanical devices.
b. Fenwall type sensors.
45. Thrust in a high bypass engine is indicated by c. piezoelectric accelerometer.*
measuring
a. N3 RPM. 56. Integrating fuel flow gives
b. neither of the above, thrust is not indicated in a. average fuel flow.
flight.* b. total fuel consumed.*
c. fuel flow. c. fuel flow and acceleration.
46. What power supply is required for a thermocouple 57. The gauge on a bulb type temperature indicator shows
system to work? zero. This could be caused by
a. Alternating current. b. Direct current. a. open circuit in the wiring.
c. Neither of the above.* b. temperature bulb going open circuit.
c. two cables shorting together by the sensor.*
47. In a thermocouple temperature sensing system, what
is the purpose of the compensating resistor? 58. In a thermocouple system, the size of the E.M.F that is
a. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the produced is a result of
hot junction. a. the difference between the hot and cold junction*
b. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the b. the cold junction only.
cold junction.* c. the hot junction only.
59. A ballast resistor is fitted 5. graphite lead pencil.

a. in parallel, to give identical readings for all engines. a. 1, 2, and 3. b. 3 and 5.*
b. in series, to give identical resistance values for all c. 4 and 5.
engines.
c. in series, to give identical resistance values to all 67. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow
airframes.* characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by
a. fir-tree blade attachment.
60. When starting a turbine engine, b. impulse type blades.
a. a hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas c. shrouded turbine rotor blades.*
temperature exceeds specified limits.*
b. an excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot
start. 
c. release the starter switch as soon as indication of
light-off occurs.
61. What is the first engine instrument indication of a

successful start of a turbine engine?
a. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
b. A rise in oil pressure.
c. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.*
62. Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas turbine

engines identify turbine discharge pressure in their
maintenance manuals as
a. Pt7.* b. Pt2. c. Tt7.
63. Who establishes the recommended operating time

between overhauls (TBO) of a turbine engine used in
general aviation?
a. The engine manufacturer.*
b. The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend
analysis) working in conjuction with the FAA.
c. The FAA.
64. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main
sections: the cold section and the hot section
1. The cold section includes the engine inlet,
compressor, and turbine sections.
2. The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser,
and exhaust sections.
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 is true.
c. neither No.1 nor No. 2 is true.*
65. 1. Welding and straightening of turbine engine

rotating airfoils does not require special equipment.
2. Welding and straightening of turbine engine
rotating airfoils is commonly recommended by the
manufacturer.
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 is true.
c. neither No.1 nor No.2 is true.*
66. Turbine engine components exposed to high

temperatures generally may NOT be marked with
1. layout dye.
2. commercial felt tip marker.
3. wax or grease pencil.
4. chalk.
CHAPTER - 15
POWER AUGMENTATION SYSTEMS
1. When reheat is used, E.P.R. 11. Water methanol injection will increase thrust by up to
a. is reduced. a. 70%. b. 50%.
b. remains constant.* c. 30%.*
c. is increased.
12. Injection of water/methanol into compressor inlet
2. When reheat is selected and in operation, the mass causes
gas flow a. increase in power due to the burning of methanol
a. decreases. alone.
b. remains the same.* b. increase in power without the need for burning
c. increases. extra fuel.*
c. increased efficiency of the engine due to reduced
3. Screech liners in the afterburning jet pipe icing in the airflow.
a. prevent unstable combustion.
b. prevent cyclic vibrations of large amplitude.* 13. Reheat is the term used to describe
c. acts as noise suppressors. a. adding fuel in the exhaust section.*
b. adding of fuel in the turbine section.
4. Water methanol for cooling is injected into the c. adding of fuel in the compressor section.
a. compressor inlet or outlet.*
b. engine hot zone. 14. Water/methanol is injected
c. combustion chamber. a. at high temperatures.
b. at high temperature, at high altitudes.
5. On an injection system c. at high temperatures or high altitudes.*
a. methanol is injected neat.
b. town water/methanol is injected. 15. The reheat ignition system which incorporates a
c. demineralized water/methanol is injected.* platinum/rhodium element is known as
a. catalytic ignition.*
6. When using water methanol in an axial flow compressor, b. hot-shot ignition system.
it is injected into the c. spark ignition system.
a. compressor inlet or burner section.*
b. burner. 16. Water or water/methanol injected into the combustion
c. intake. chamber inlet increases
a. mass airflow through the turbine.*
7. The main reason for adding methanol to the water is to b. combustion chamber outlet temperatures.
a. temper the cooling effect of the water to prevent c. fuel to air ratio by up to 20%.
distortion.
b. supply the additional heat required. 17. Methanol is added to water when augmenting thrust
c. prevent mixture freezing.* in order to
a. reclaim lost pressure at the compressor.
8. The primary purpose of water injection is to b. increase the density of air entering the compressor.
a. decrease mass airflow. c. reclaim lost heat at the turbines.*
b. increase the calorific value of the fuel.
c. cool the turbine.* 18. Afterburning is initiated in order to
a. heat the exhaust to prevent choking at subsonic
9. Water used in a thrust augmentation system should gas velocities.
be demineralised to prevent b. burn off the fuel that is not combusted in the
a. blocking the jet. combustion section.
b. carbon formation. c. increase the local speed of sound at the jet nozzle.*
c. fouling the blades and vanes.*
19. How is the flame stabilised in the reheat system of a
10. The quantity of water usually carried by an aircraft gas turbine engine?
equipped with water injection is enough for a. By creating a greater potential between inlet & jet
a. three take-offs. pipe temperatures.
b. one take-off.* b. By ensuring that the gas velocity is greater than
c. two take-offs. the flame velocity.*
c. By ensuring that the flame velocity is greater than c. In aerodynamically faulty duct.
the gas velocity. d. None of the above.
20. During operation of the engine equipped with water 29. In bypass engines, a portion of the fan air enters in
injection system, the metering of the coolant to the compressor to induce
system is a. Positive air feed.
a. selected by the pilot.* b. Supercharging effect.*
b. due to atmospheric pressure. c. Compressor load decrease.
c. due to altitude change. d. All above.
21. Water methanol injection is used 30. In variable area propelling nozzles, the nozzle area is
a. at high altitude take off conditions only. a. Maximum at starting and re-heat.*
b. at a combination of higher than normal air b. Minimum at starting and maximum at re-heat.
temperatures and high altitude take off conditions. c. Minimum at starting and after burning.
c. at higher than normal ambient air temperatures d. None of the above.
only.*
31. Variable area propelling nozzle may be operated
22. Methods adopted to develop additional power are a. Manually only.
known as b. Automatically only.
a. Auxiliary power plant. c. Both manually and automatically.*
b. Power boosters. d. By power control.
c. Thrust augmentation devices.*

23. Reheat is the principle of
a. Increasing heat before propelling nozzle.*
b. Varying the flow area of the exited gas.
c. Burning off extra fuel.
d. All of above.
24. In certain engines, reheat fuel burner are fitted forward

of turbine to
a. Protect the exhaust unit for excessive temperature
b. Cool the turbine
c. Provide ample time for combustion of fuel*
25. To augment thrust in some engines, water methanol

mixture is injected at compressor entrance to
a. Increase the mass flow.
b. Lower the temperature of inlet air.
c. Burn additional fuel.
d. Obtain all above.*
26. The combustion of methanol produces

a. Excessive cooling ability of water.
b. Enough heat to off set the cooling by water.*
c. No change in temperature.
27. Without adversely effecting the propulsive efficiency

and fuel economy, the methods adopted to increase
the power are
a. Ducted fans. b. By pass engines.
c. Both a. and b.* d. None of the above.
28. Ducted fan durability was short because of their

installations
a. Infront of compressor.
b. At the rear of turbine.*
CHAPTER - 16
TURBO-PROP ENGINES
1. A free turbine is usually found on a. 11. The turbo propeller aircraft

a. turbo-jet. a. Provides greater power then piston engine
b. turbo-fan. b. Combines the advantages of propeller and jet
c. turbo prop.* reaction
c. Most efficient at medium speed and heights
2. A free turbine is d. Proves all above*
a. not directly connected to the power output shaft.
b. connected directly to the propeller and compressor. 12. The portion of the power used to rotate the propeller
c. connected directly to the power output shaft.* in turbo - prop aircraft is known as
a. S. H. P
3. The fuel flow in a turboprop engine within the constant b. T. H. P.
speed range is controlled c. Margin of power (MHP)*
a. automatically.* d. None of the above.
b. manually.
c. No Control. 13. The SHP can be derived as
a. MHP x THP.
4. Torque measurement is taken from the b. MHP x RG efficiency.*
a. reduction gearbox.* c. BHP / THP.
b. prop shaft. d. MHP/THP.
c. free turbine shaft.
14. Thrust horse power can be derived as
5. Electrical propeller de-icing pads are a. MHP x Prop efficiency.
a. at the root.* b. SHP x Prop efficiency.*
b. at the tip. c. BHP x Prop efficiency.
c. on the trailing edge. d. None of the above.
6. Fuel trimming on a turboprop engine is 15. The system(s) to drive propeller may be
a. pilot controlled. a. Direct drive turbine.
b. governor controlled.* b. Free or work turbine.
c. automatic. c. Compounded twin spool turbine.
d. All of above.*
7. What controls the fuel trimmer on a turboprop engine?
a. The blade angle. 16. For turbojet engine at altitudes there will be
b. Propeller Control Unit. a. Drop in thrust and fuel consumption.
c. Engine Speed Governor.* b. Increase in compressor efficiency.
c. Increase in expansion ratio of gases at prop. nozzle.
8. What is the purpose of the reduction gear on a propeller d. All above effects.*
driven engine?
a. To maintain a constant propeller blade speed. 17. During cold weather, the gas turbine engine will, at
b. To enable torque measurement. low attitudes, produce
c. To prevent the propeller tips reaching the speed of a. Less thrust.
sound.* b. More thrust.*
c. As equal as on heights.
9. If an E.P.R gauge is installed on turbofans as a measure d. Rarely any effect.
of power output, what is used on a turboprop?
a. E.P.R gauge. 18. In both piston and gas turbine engines, SFC per hour
b. Torque-meter.* is
c. Thermocouples. a. More at altitudes.
b. Less at increased speed.
10. What type of reduction gear is used on most turboprop c. Less at altitudes and more at increased speed.*
modern engines? d. Equal to, as sea level.
a. Helical cut parallel spur gears.
b. Epicyclic reduction gear.* 19. What type of igniter plug is used in the low tension
c. Straight cut parallel spur gears. ignition system of an aircraft tubofan engine?
a. Low voltage, high amperage glow plug.

b. Self-ionizing or shunted-gap type plug.*
c. Recessed surface gap plug.

CHAPTER - 17
TURBO-SHAFT ENGINES
1. A turbo-shaft engine has

a. a mechanical connection between compressor and
turbine.
b. a power shaft which is not connected to the
compressor.*
c. none of the above.
2. On a twin spool turbo-shaft engine, the free turbine is

connected to the
a. output gearbox.* b. L.P gearbox.
c. H.P gearbox.
3. In the majority of helicopters, the thrust generated by

the gas generator is absorbed by the
a. L.P turbine. b. Free power turbine.*
c. H.P turbine.
4. Multi spool turbo shaft engines are used on

a. Combat aircraft.
b. Turbo prop. aeroplanes.
c. Helicopters to drive rotor.*
d. All above type of aircraft.

CHAPTER - 18
AUXILIARY POWER UNITS (APU'S)
1. An A.P.U has b. increase the velocity of the air before entering the
a. automatically controlled thrust and is self compressor.
contained. c. decrease the pressure of the air before entering the
b. variable speed and is self contained. compressor. .
c. constant speed and is self contained.*
11. In a large commercial passenger transport aircraft the
2. An A.P.U shut down is initiated by A.P.U supplies
a. high oil pressure, fire warning, hot oil temperature. a. pneumatics and electrics.*
b. low oil pressure, fire warning, hot oil temperature.* b. electrics.
c. low oil pressure, fire warning. c. pneumatics.
3. An A.P.U start cycle is completed at 12. When in operation, the speed of an A.P.U.
a. 100% RPM. b. 75% RPM. a. remains at or near rated speed regardless of the
c. 95% RPM. load condition.*
b. remains at idle and automatically accelerates to
4. An A.P.U power lever is located rated speed when placed under load.
a. behind the throttles. c. is controlled by a cockpit power lever.
b. at the Flight Engineer Station.
c. An A.P.U is fully automatic and does not require a 13. Generally, when maximum A.P.U shaft output power is
power lever.* being used in conjunction with pneumatic power
a. electrical loading will be automatically modulated
5. An A.P.U consists of to maintain a safe E.G.T.
a. a power compressor and load compressor.* b. temperature limits and loads must be carefully
b. a power compressor and directly connected turbine. monitored by the operator to maintain a safe E.G.T.
c. a load compressor and free turbine. c. pneumatic loading will be automatically modulated
to maintain a safe E.G.T.*
6. When necessary, A.P.U engine cooling before
shutdown may be accomplished by 14. For an A.P.U to run ‘unmanned’ it must be equipped
a. closing the bleed air valve.* with
b. opening the bleed air valve. a. an automatic fire extinguishing system.
c. unloading the generator(s). b. both an audible fire warning and an automatic fire
extinguishing system.*
7. Frequently, an aircraft’s auxiliary power unit (A.P.U) c. an audible fire warning.
generator
a. is identical to the engine-driven generators.* 15. An A.P.U is
b. has a higher load capacity than the engine-driven a. a self contained constant speed gas turbine
generators. engine.*
c. supplements the aircraft’s engine-driven generators b. a reserved engine in case of a main engine failure.
during peak loads. c. a self contained variable speed gas turbine engine.
8. An A.P.U is usually rotated during start by 16. When the A.P.U is running and pneumatics are on
a. a pneumatic starter. a. bleed valve is closed, surge valve is open.
b. a turbine impingement system. b. bleed valve is open, surge valve is closed.*
c. an electric starter.* c. bleed valve is open, surge valve is modulating.
9. Usually, most of the load placed on an A.P.U occurs 17. When is the A.P.U at its greatest load?
when a. With generator loads on line.
a. the bleed air valve is opened.* b. With bleeds closed.
b. an electrical load is placed on the generator(s). c. With bleeds open and with generator loads on line.*
c. the bleed air valve is closed.
18. Auxiliary power units provide
10. The function of an A.P.U air inlet plenum is to a. hydraulic and electrical power.
a. stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the b. pneumatic and electrical power.*
compressor.* c. hydraulic and pneumatic power.
19. When starting an A.P.U what would the normal duty 28. When in operation, the speed of an APU
cycle be on a modern aircraft? a. is controlled by a cockpit power lever.
a. 6 attempted starts per half hour with 5 minutes b. remains at idle and automatically accelerates to
between attempts. rated speed when placed under load.
b. 3 attempted starts per hour with 5 minutes between c. remains at or near rated speed regardless of the
each attempt.* load condition.*
c. 6 attempted starts per hour with 5 minutes between
attempts. 29. Generally, when maximum APU shaft output power is
being used in conjunction with pneumatic power
20. From where does the A.P.U receive a fire signal? a. pneumatic loading will be automatically modulated
a. It has its own system.* to maintain a safe EGT.*
b. It is dependent on the airframe system. b. electrical loading will be automatically modulated
c. It is dependent on the engine fire system. to maintain a safe EGT.
c. temperature limits and loads must be carefully
21. What are the two most important signals when monitored by the operator to maintain a safe EGT.
monitoring an A.P.U?
a. E.G.T and RPM.* 30. When necessary, APU engine cooling before shutdown
b. Oil Pressure and Inlet Pressure. may be accomplished by
c. E.G.T and Oil Pressure. a. unloading the generator(s).
b. closing the bleed air valve.*
22. One of the accessories driven from the A.P.U gearbox c. opening the bleed air valve.
in a centrifugal switch, the purpose of which is to
a. arm the governed speed indication circuits and max. 31. Usually, most of the load placed on an APU occurs
RPM governor. when
b. cancel the ignition circuits and arm the over speed a. an electrical load is placed on the generator(s).
protection circuits.* b. the bleed air valve is opened.*
c. control starting and automatic extinguishing c. the bleed air valve is closed.
circuits.
32. Fuel scheduling during APU start and under varying
23. What iniates A.P.U shutdown? pneumatic bleed and electrical loads is maintained
a. Fire detection, low oil pressure, high oil a. manually through power control lever position.
temperature.* b. automatically by the APU fuel control system.*
b. Overspeed, fire detection, low oil quantity. c. automatically by an aircraft main engine fuel control
c. Low oil pressure, low oil pressure, high oil unit.
temperature.
33. On APU's equipped with a free turbine and load
24. Frequently, an aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) compressor, the primary function of the load
generator compressor is to
a. is identical to the engine-driven generators.* a. provide air for combustion and cooling in the
b. supplements the aircraft's engine-driven generators enging gas path.
during peak loads. b. provide bleed air for aircraft pneumatic systems.*
c. has a higher load capacity than the engine-driven c. supply the turning force for operation of the APU
generators. generator(s).
25. Fuel is normally supplied to an APU from

a. its own independent fuel supply. 
b. the airplane's reserve fuel supply.
c. the airplane's main fuel supply.*
26. An APU is usually rotated during start by

a. a turbine impingement system.
b. a pneumatic starter.
c. an electric starter.*
27. The function of an APU air inlet plenum is to

a. increase the velocity of the air before entering the
compressor.
b. decrease the pressure of the air before entering the
compressor.
c. stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the
compressor.*
CHAPTER - 19
POWERPLANT INSTALLATION
1. Pipes, electrical cables and associated components of 10. Noise lining in the fan area is made from
a fire-detection system should be a. layers of bonded resin.
a. fire resistant.* b. porous type Honeycomb and backing sheet.*
b. fire proof. c. felt with aluminium sheet.
c. fire retardant.
11. A powerplant consists of
2. The minimum bend radius for a continuous loop type a. a basic engine plus E.C.U.
fire wire is b. a basic engine plus thrust reverser, exhaust system
a. 1/2 inch. b. 1/8 inch. and gear box with accessories.
c. 1 inch.* c. the complete engine as it would be found on aircraft
including all connections, controls, cowlings,
3. Acoustic linings made from composite materials are intake etc.*
used in what section of the engine?
a. Not used to suppress noise. 12. Acoustic blankets are installed to
b. Hot section & Cold Section. a. reduce noise levels.*
c. Cold section only.* b. increase thermal efficiency.
c. aid the streamlining of the engine.
4. Vibration mounts are used for
a. stopping vibrations entering the engines. 13. When checking the effect of inertia on the engine after
b. preventing engine vibration loads being transmitted heavy landing you would first check the
to the airframe structure.* a. thrust line.
c. damping out vibration stresses on engine when b. compressor shaft for distortion.
being transported on an engine stand. c. module alignment.*
5. An aircraft has a heavy landing and on inspection of 14. Following the reports of a heavy landing you would
the engine mounting bolts the bolts torque loading a. carry out a complete visual examination of the
has reduced, you should power plant.*
a. add washers to take up any gap or slackness and b. examine the engine mountings and borescope the
re-torque to correct value. nozzle guide vanes and turbine.
b. remove bolt and carry out inspection as the bolt c. examine the engine mountings and fuse pins.
may have increased in length due to heavy
landing.* 15. The purpose of spring back and cushion on an engine
c. re-torque bolt up to correct torque value. power lever is
a. used when friction builds up in a system.
6. Forward engine mounts take which loads? b. used to prevent the controls hitting the fuel control
a. Thrust, vertical and shear loads.* stops.
b. Centrifugal, thrust and axial. c. used when full travel is used but slight movement
c. Thrust, vertical and impact. is still required on the fuel control unit.*
7. Forward engine mounts take which form? 16. What are sometimes installed in an engine mounting
a. Castings. system to tune out the worst engine vibrations?
b. Forgings.* a. Spring cushioned mounting pads.
c. Fabricated sheet steel. b. Vibration absorbers of calibrated weight.
c. Rubber encased wire-mesh vibration isolators.*
8. Pipes around engines are
a. aluminium. 17. Where are the lifting points on a high bypass turbine
b. mild seamless steel. engine?
c. stainless steel.* a. On the fan and compressor casing.
b. On the fan, turbine and compressor casing.
9. Fibrous metallic lining for noise suppression is used c. On the fan and turbine casing.*
a. for lobe type noise suppressors.
b. in cold area. 18. Rubber anti-vibration pads are fitted to engine
c. in hot area.* a. components to prevent fatigue.
b. cradles to prevent damage during transportation.

c. pylons to prevent vibration through the airframe.*
19. Engine thrust is transmitted through mountings that

a. are designed to transmit eng thrust equally through
front and rear supports.
b. are designed to prevent the thrust line of the engine
varying.
c. allow for radial and axial expansion.*
20. If you reduced the length of bellcrank.What would

happen to the input to the F.C.U?
a. remain the same. b. reduce.
c. increase.*

CHAPTER - 20
FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS
1. A fire wire is installed b. When the green indicator disc is missing, it

a. to withstand inertia, vibration, etc, encountered indicates the fire extinguishing system has had a
during normal operation.* thermal discharge.
b. vertically. c. When the yellow indicator disc is missing, it
c. horizontally. indicates the fire extinguishing system has been
normally discharged.*
2. Resistive and capacitive type firewires are tested with
a. megger/voltmeter. 10. Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will
b. megger/ohmmeter.* not test due to a broken detector element are the
c. multimeter. a. thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
b. Kidde system and the Fenwal system.*
3. Fire wire clips have rubber in them to c. Kidde system and the Lindberg system.
a. stop heat transfer to the element.
b. insulate the fire wire electrically. 11. Which of the following fire detection systems measures
c. support the wire.* temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?
a. Lindberg continuous element.
4. Fire extinguishers work by b. Thermocouple.*
a. combining with remaining oxygen to get rid of it.* c. Thermal switch.
b. creating more oxygen.
c. reducing oxygen. 12. A fire involving energized electrical equipment is
defined as a
5. Fire detection systems which are routed through a. class B fire. b. class D fire.
another zone c. class C fire.*
a. must be protected by the use of heat sinks.
b. must be protected from heat sources in the zone.* 13. How are most aircraft turbine engine fire extinguishing
c. are not allowed. systems activated?
a. Manual remote control valve.
6. The test switch of a continuous loop detector gives a b. Pushrod assembly.
a. continuity check.* b. insulation check. c. Electrically discharged cartridges.*
c. bonding check.
14. A fire detection system that operates on the rate of
7. What are the types of continuous fire detection temperature rise is a
system? a. thermocouple system.*
a. Capacitance. b. thermal switch system.
b. Capacitance and resistance.* c. continuous loop system.
c. Inductance and capacitance.
15. Why does one type of Fenwal fire detection system
8. What is the operating principle of the spot detector use spot detectors wired in parallel between two
sensor in a fire detection system? separate circuits?
a. A conventional thermocouple that produces a a. So that a single fault may exist in the system
current flow. without sounding a false alarm.*
b. A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when heated b. To provide an installation that is equal to two
to a high temperature.* separate systems: a primary system and a
c. Resistant core material that prevents current flow secondary, or back-up system.
at normal temperatures. c. So that a double fault may exist in the system
without sounding a false alarm.
9. In a fixed fire-extinguishing system, there are two small
lines running from the system and exiting overboard. 16. How does carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguish an aircraft
These line exit ports are covered with a blowout type engine fire?
indicator disc. Which of the following statements is a. By lowering the temperature to a point where
true? combustion will not take place.
a. When the red indicator disc is missing, it indicates b. The high pressure spray lowers the temperature
the fire extinguishing system has been normally and blows out the fire.
discharged.
c. Contact with the air converts the liquid into snow 26. A continuous loop fire detector is what type of
and gas which smothers the flame.* detector?
a. Rate of temperature rise detector.
17. A fuel or oil fire is defined as a b. Spot detector.
a. class B fire.* b. class C fire. c. Overheat detector.*
c. class A fire.
27. Which of the following fire detection systems will detect
18. Which of the following is the safest fire extinguishing a fire when an element is inoperative but will not test
agent to use from a standpoint of toxicity and corrosion when the test circuit is energized?
hazards? a. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.*
a. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).* b. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg
b. Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211). system.
c. Dibromodifluoromethane (Halon 1202). c. The Kidde system and the thermocouple system.
19. The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a fire 28. After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition
extinguisher container is removed in aircraft equipped with a Systron-Donner
a. not a life dated unit. fire detector, the detection system
b. a life dated unit.* a. must be manually reset.
c. mechanically fired. b. automatically resets.*
c. sensing component must be replaced.
20. A fire detection system operates on the principle of a
buildup of gas pressure within a tube proportional to 29. For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft
temperature. Which of the following systems does power plant areas are divided into fire zones based on
this statement define? a. the volume and smoothness of the airflow through
a. Thermal switch system. engine compartments.
b. Lindberg continuous element system.* b. engine type and size.
c. Kidde continuous loop system. c. hot and cold sections of the engine.*
21. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an intake 30. What is the function of a fire detection system?
fire is a. To discharge the powerplant fire extinguishing
a. methyl bromide. system at the origin of the fire.
b. dry chemical.* b. To activate a warning device in the event of a
c. carbon dioxide. powerplant fire.*
c. To identify the location of a powerplant fire.
22. How is the fire extinguishing agent distributed in the
engine section? 31. What retains the nitrogen charge and fire extinguishing
a. Spray nozzles and perforated tubing.* agent in a high rate of discharge (HRD) container?
b. Spray nozzles and fluid pumps. a. Pressure gauge and cartridge.
c. Nitrogen pressure and slinger rings. b. Breakable disk or fusible disk.*
c. Pressure switch and check tee valve.
23. What is the principle of operation of the continuous
loop fire detector system sensor? 32. The use of water on class D fires
a. Core resistance material which prevents current flow a. will cause the fire to burn more violently and can
at normal temperatures.* cause explosions.*
b. A bimetallic thermoswitch which closes when b. has no effect.
heated to a high temperature. c. is most effective if sprayed in a fine mist.
c. Fuse material which melts at high temperatures.
33. The pulling out (or down) of an illuminated fire handle
24. The fire detection system that uses a single wire in a typical large jet aircraft fire protection system
surrounded by a continuous string of ceramic beads commonly accomplishes what events?
in a tube is the a. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff,
a. Kidde system. disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire
b. thermocouple system. extinguishing system.*
c. Fenwal system.* b. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, closes
the oxygen shutoff, disconnects the generator field,
25. The fire detection system that uses two wires imbedded and arms the fire-extinguishing system.
in a ceramic core within a tube is the c. Closes all firewall shutoff valves, disconnects the
a. Lindberg system. generator, and discharges a fire bottle.
b. Kidde system.*
c. Fenwal system. 34. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an
electrical fire is
a. carbon tetrachloride. b. methyl bromide. 45. When installing a flow valve on a ‘two shot’ fire
c. carbon dioxide.* extinguishing system care must be taken to make sure
a. flow arrow should be in a correct direction.*
35. Which of the following fire detectors are commonly b. flow valve is pointing towards the respective bottle.
used in the power section of an engine nacelle? c. priority system must have the bigger flow side.
a. Rate of temperature rise detectors.*
b. CO detectors. 46. Omission of crushable washer on engine fire-wire
c. Smoke detectors. connector will
a. allow moisture ingress.*
36. Which of the following fire detection systems uses b. affect fire wire continuity.
heat in the normal testing of the system? c. affect fire wire capacitance.
a. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
b. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg 47. Discharge cartridges of the fire bottle have
system.* a. life time in hours/calendar and replace which ever
c. The thermocouple system and the Fenwal system. is longer.
b. life time in hours/or calendar and replace which
37. How are extinguisher spray rings checked for freedom ever is sooner.*
from obstruction? c. no life time it is only replaced when unserviceable.
a. Firing the system.
b. Blowing through with compressed air.* 48. The Kidde Fault Free Fire detection system has how
c. Pumping water through the system. many internal wires in the sensing element?
a. 1. b. 3.
38. What is used as an extinguishant in fire bottles? c. 2.*
a. Freon compounds.
b. Halogenated hydrocarbons.* 49. When testing a two pin fire bottle connector
c. Water. a. continuity test 1 pin then short two together.
b. short two pins together.*
39. The advantage of the two shot fire bottle system is c. continuity test 1 pin, then the other, then short two
a. one bottle can be discharged after certain time delay together.
from the other bottle.
b. both bottles can be used in either of the engines.* 50. Gas type fire-wires operate by utilising
c. one bottle can be used twice. a. the change in the gas pressure.*
b. the change in the gas dielectric level.
40. To check a fire bottle in situ is serviceable c. the change in the electrical resistance of the gas.
a. weigh it, check blow out discs, check pressure.
b. check blow out disc only. 51. On a fire bottle, if the indicator pin was protruding,
c. check blow out disc, pop up indicators, expiry date this would indicate
and pressure.* a. the bottle is under weight.
b. extinguisher had been fired.*
41. Resistive type fire-wires are tested using c. an over pressure had occurred in the bottle.
a. megger/ohmmeter.*
b. ammeter/ohmmeter. 52. When testing a squib on a fire bottle, you use a
c. megger/voltmeter. a. multimeter (AVO).
b. low current ohmmeter.*
42. When testing an installed fire bottle c. lamp and 1.5V cell.
a. a multimeter used.
b. a lamp and 1.5V cell used. 53. In a two shot fire extinguishing system
c. a safety ohmmeter is used.* a. extinguishers distributed once to either engine
compartment. *
43. On checking a fault free fire detection system b. extinguisher distributed twice to each engine
a. use megger as per normal. compartment.
b. a megger is never to be used. c. one squib can be fired, if that fails then the 2nd
c. use a megger only for a short while as it can polarise squib can be fired.
the element.*
54. Methyl Bromide fire extinguisher are installed with neck
44. 3 ways to test serviceability of a fixed fire bottle in situ a. horizontal. b. at the bottom.
are c. at the top.*
a. weigh, pressure, blow-out disc.
b. weigh, pressure, pop up indicator. 55. In a Fenwall fire detection system
c. pressure, pop up indicator, blow-out disc.* a. the tube is inconel and wire is nickel.*
b. inner electrode is inconel wire.
c. outer electrode is nickel tube.
56. When a fire extinguisher is discharged the immediate 64. The oil used in reciprocating engines has a relatively
action is high viscosity due to
a. operate engine to idle. a. the reduced ability of thin oils to maintain adequate
b. clean with cold water. film strength at altitude. (reduced atmospheric
c. clean with hot water.* pressure).
b. the relatively high rotational speeds.
57. What will be the result of operating an engine in c. large clearances and high operating temperatures.*
extremely high temperatures using a lubricant
recommended by the manufacturer for a much lower 65. If all other requirements can be met, what type of oils
temperature? should be used to achieve theoretically perfect engine
a. The oil pressure will be higher than normal. lubrication?
b. The oil temperature and oil pressure will be higher a. The thinnest oil that will stay in place and maintain
than normal. a reasonable film strength.*
c. The oil pressure will be lower than normal.* b. An oil that combines high viscosity and low
demulsibility.
58. (1) Gas turbine and reciprocating engine oils can be c. An oil that combines a low viscosity index and a
mixed or used interchangeably. high neutralization number.
(2) Most gas turbine engine oils are synthetic.
Regarding the above statements, 66. In addition to lubricating (reducing friction between
a. only NO. 2 is true.* b. both No. 1 are true. moving parts), engine oil performs what functions?
c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 1. Cools.
2. Seals.
59. An oil separator is generally associated with which of 3. Cleans.
the following? 4. Prevents corrosion.
a. Engine-driven oil pressure pump. 5. Cushions impact (shock) loads.
b. Engine-driven vacuum pump.* a. 1, 2, 3, 4. b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.*
c. Cuno oil filter. c. 1, 3, 4.
60. The time in seconds required for exactly 60 cubic 67. Which of these characteristics is desirable in turbine
centimeters of oil to flow through an accurately engine oil?
calibrated orifice at a specific temperature is recorded a. Low flash point. b. High flash point.*
as a measurement of the oil's c. High volatility.
a. flash point. b. specific gravity.
c. viscosity.* 68. The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of its
a. resistance to flow.*
61. Upon what quality or characteristic of a lubricating oil b. rate of change of internal friction with change in
is its viscosity index based? temperature.
a. Its resistance to flow at a standard temperature as c. weight or density.
compared to high grade paraffin-base oil at the
same temperature. 69. What type of oils system is usually found on turbine
b. Its rate of change in viscosity with temperature engines?
change.* a. Dry sump, pressure, and spray.*
c. Its rate of flow through an orifice at a standard b. Dry sump, dip, and splash.
temperature. c. Wet sump, spray, and splash.
62. Lubricating oils with high viscosity index ratings are 70. Which of the following factors helps determine the
oils proper grade of oil to use in a particular engine?
a. in which the viscosity does not vary much with a. adequate lubrication in various attitudes of flight.
temperature change.* b. Positive introduction of oil to the bearings.
b. in which the viscosity varies considerably with c. Operating speeds of bearings.*
temperature change.
c. which have high SAE numbers. 71. Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a
substance to the weight of an equal volume of
63. Compared to reciprocating engine oils, the types of a. oil at a specific temperature.
oils used in turbine engines b. distilled water at a specific temperature.*
a. are required to carry and disperse a higher level of c. mercury at a specific temperature.
combustion by-products.
b. may permit a somewhat higher level of carbon 72. Which of the following has the greatest effect on the
formation in the engine. viscosity of lubricating oil?
c. have less tendency to produce lacquer or coke.* a. Temperature.* b. Pressure.
c. Volatility.
73. What advantage do mineral base lubricants have over 82. What will happen to the return oil if the oil line between
vegetable oil base lubricants when used in aircraft the scavenger pump and the oil coller separates?
engines? a. Oil will accumulate in the engine.
a. Cooling ability. b. The return oil will be pumped overboard.*
b. Chemical stability.* c. The scavenger return line check valve will close
c. Friction resistance. and force the oil to bypass directly to the intake
side of the pressure pump.
74. The recommended aircraft engine lubricants are
a. mineral or synthetic based.* 83. At cruise RPM, some oil will flow through the relief
b. vegetable, mineral, or synthetic based. valve of a gear-type engine oil pump. This is normal as
c. animal, mineral, or synthetic based. the relief valve is set at a pressure which is
a. lower than the pump inlet pressure.
75. High tooth pressures and high rubbing velocities, such b. lower than the pressure pump capabilities.*
as occur with spur-type gears, require the use of c. higher than pressure pump capabilities.
a. an EP lubricant.*
b. straight mineral oil. 84. (1) Fuel may be used to cool oil in gas turbine engines.
c. metallic ash detergent oil. (2) Ram air may be used to cool oil in gas turbine
engines.
76. Manufacturers normally require turbine engine oil Regarding the above statements,
servicing within a short time after engine shutdown a. only No. 1 is true.
primarily to b. only No. 2 is true.
a. prevent overservicing.* c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.*
b. help dilute and neutralize any contaminants that
may already be present in the engine's oil system. 85. In a reciprocating engine oil system, the temperature
c. provide a better indication of any oil leaks in the bulb senses oil temperature
system. a. at a point after the oil has passed through the oil
cooler.*
77. What type of oil do most engine manufacturers b. while the oil is in the hottest area of the engine.
recommend for new reciprocating engine break-in? c. immediately before the oil enters the oil cooler.
a. Ashless-dispersant oil.*
b. Straight mineral oil. 86. The oil dampened main bearing utilized in some turbine
c. Semi-synthetic oil. engines is used to
a. provide lubrication of bearings from the beginning
78. What type of oil do most engine manufacturers of starting rotation until normal oil pressure is
recommend after new reciprocating engine break-in? established.
a. Metallic-ash detergent oil. b. provide an oil film between the outer race and the
b. Ashless-dispersant oil.* bearing housing in order to reduce virbration
c. Straight mineral oil. tendencies in the rotor system, and to allow for
slight misalignment.*
79. The type of oil pumps most commonly used on turbine c. dampen surges in oil pressure to the bearings.
engines are classified as
a. positive displacement. 87. What is the purpose of the last chance oil filters?
b. variable displacement.* a. To prevent damage to the oil spray nozzle.
c. constant speed. b. To filter the oil immediately before it enters the main
bearings.*
80. As a general rule, the mixture setting on a reciprocating c. To assure a clean supply of oil to the lubrication
engine operating at or near takeoff power that provides system.
best cooling is
a. FULL RICH.* b. LEAN. 88. In a jet engine which uses a fuel-oil heat exchanger,
c. FULL LEAN. the oil temperature is controlled by a thermostatic valve
that regulates the flow of
81. The engine oil temperature regulator is usually located a. fuel through the heat exchanger.
between which of the following on a dry sump b. both fuel and oil through the hear exchanger.
reciprocating engine? c. oil through the heat exchanger.*
a. The engine oil supply pump and the internal
lubrication system. 89. What prevents pressure within the lubricating oil tank
b. The scavenger pump outlet and the oil storage from rising above or falling below ambient pressure
tank.* (reciprocating engine)?
c. The oil storage tank and the engine oil supply a. Oil tank check valve.
pump. b. Oil pressure relief valve.
c. Oil tank vent.*
90. In an axial-flow turbine engine, compressor bleed air is 98. What is the primary purpose of the oil-to-fuel heat
sometimes used to aid in cooling the exchanger?
a. fuel. a. Cool the fuel. b. Cool the oil.*
b. inlet guide vanes. c. De-aerate the oil.
c. turbine, vanes, blades, and bearings.*
99. What unit in an aircraft engine lubrication system is
91. Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following adjusted to maintain the desired system pressure?
turbine engine components? a. Oil pressure relief valve.*
a. Rotor coupling. b. Oil viscosity valve.
b. Compressor bearing. c. Oil pump.
c. Turbine bearing.*
100. Low oil pressure can be detrimental to the internal
92. Which of the following is a function of the fuel-oil engine components. However, high oil pressure
heat exchanger on a turbojet engine? a. should be limited to the engine manufacturer's
a. Aerates the fuel. recommendations.*
b. Emulsifies the oil. b. has a negligible effect.
c. Increases fuel temperature.* c. will not occur because of pressure losses around
the bearings.
93. According to Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR's),
oil tank fillers on turbine engines must be market with 101. What is the primary purpose of the oil breather
the word pressurization system that is used on turbine engines?
a. "oil" and the type and grade of oil specified by the a. Prevents foaming of the oil.
manufacturer. b. Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication
b. "oil" and tank capacity. because of the air/oil mist.
c. "oil".* c. Provides a proper oil spray pattern from the main
bearing oil jets.*
94. After making a welded repair to a pressurized-type
turbine engine oil tank, the tank should be pressure 102. The purpose of directing bleed air to the outer turbine
checked to case on some engines is to
a. not less than 5 PSI plus the maximum operating a. provide optimum turbine blade tip clearance by
pressure of the tank.* controlling thermal expansion.*
b. not less than 5 PSI plus the average operating b. provide up to 100 percent kinetic energy extraction
pressure of the tank. from the flowing gases.
c. 5 PSI. c. allow operation in a thermal environment 600 to
800oF above the temperature limits of turbine blade
95. Why are fixed orifice nozzles used in the lubrication and vane alloys.
system of gas turbine engines?
a. To provide a relatively constant oil flow to the main 103. Some large reciprocating engines use a compensating
bearings at all engine speeds.* oil pressure relief valve to
b. To keep back pressure on the oil pump, thus a. provide a high engine oil pressure when the oil is
preventing an air lock. cold and automatically lower the oil pressure when
c. To protect the oil seals by preventing excessive the oil warms up.*
pressure from entering the bearing cavities. b. compensate for changes in atmospheric pressure
that accompany altitude changes.
96. Possible failure related ferrous-metal particles in turbine c. automatically keep oil pressure nearly the same
engine oil cause an (electrical) indicating-type magnetic whether the oil is warm or cold.
chip detector to indicate their presence by
a. disturbing the magnetic lines of flux around the 104. In order to relieve excessive pump pressure in an
detector tip. engine's internal oil system, most engines are equipped
b. bridging the gap between the detector center with
(positive) electrode and the ground electrode.* a. vent. b. bypass valve.
c. generating a small electric current that is caused c. relief valve.*
by the particles being in contact with the dissimilar
metal of the detector tip. 105. What is the source of most of the heat that is absobed
by the lubricating oil in a reciprocating engine?
97. What would be the probable result if the oil system a. Crankshaft main bearings.
pressure relief valve should stick in the open position b. Exhaust valves.
on a turbine engine? c. Pistons and cylinder walls.*
a. Increased oil pressure.
b. Decreased oil temperature. 106. How are the teeth of the gears in the accessory section
c. Insufficient lubrication.* of an engine normally lubricated?
a. By splashed or sprayed oil.* 115. If a full-flow oil filter is used on an aircraft engine, and
b. By submerging the load-bearing portions in oil. the filter becomes completely clogged, the
c. By surrounding the load-bearing portions with a. oil supply to the engine will be blocked.
baffles or housings within which oil pressure can b. oil will be bypassed back to the oil tank hopper
be maintained. where larger sediments and foreign matter will settle
out prior to passage through the engine.
107. What is the purpose of the check valve generally used c. bypass valve will open and the oil pump will supply
in a dry sump lubrication system? unfiltered oil to the engine.*
a. To prevent the scavenger pump from losing its
prime. 116. Oil accumulation in the cylinders of an inverted in-line
b. To prevent the oil from the supply tank from seeping engine and in the lower cylinders of a radial engine is
into the crankcase during inoperative periods.* normally reduced or prevented by
c. To prevent the oil from the pressure pump from a. reversed oil control rings.
entering the scavenger system. b. routing the valve-operating mechanism lubricating
oil to a separate scavenger pump.
108. From the following, identify the factor that has the c. extended cylinder skirts.*
least effect on the oil consumption of a specific engine.
a. Mechanical efficiency. * 117. What is the primary purpose of changing aircraft engine
b. Engine RPM. lubricating oils at predetermined periods?
c. Lubricant characteristics. a. The oil becomes diluted with gasoline washing past
the pistons into the crankcase.
109. How is the oil collected by the piston oil ring returned b. The oil becomes contaminated with moisture, acids,
to the crankcase? and finely divided suspended solid particles.*
a. Down vertical slots cut in the piston wall between c. Exposure to heat and oxygen causes a decreased
the piston oil ring groove and the piston skirt. ability to maintain a film under load.
b. Through holes drilled in the piston oil ring groove.*
c. Through holes drilled in the piston pin recess. 118. What determines the minimum particle size which will
be excluded or filtered by a cuno-type (stacked disc,
110. Which of the following lubrication system components edge filtration) filter?
is never located between the pressure pump and the a. The disc thickness.*
engine pressure system? b. The spacer thickness.
a. Oil temperature bulb. c. Both the number and thickness of the discs in the
b. Fuel line for oil dilution system.* assembly.
c. check valve.
119. What is the primary purpose of the hopper located in
111. As an aid to cold-weather starting, the oil dilution the oil supply tank of some dry sump engine
system thins the oil with installations?
a. kerosene. a. To reduce the time required to warm the oil to
b. alcohol. operating temperatures.*
c. gasoline.* b. To reduce surface aeration of the hot oil and thus
reduce oxidation and the formation of sludge and
112. The basic oil pressure relief valve setting for a newly varnish.
overhauled engine is made c. To impart a centrifugal motion to the oil entering
a. within the first 30 seconds of engine operation. the tank so that the foreign particles in the oil will
b. when the oil is at a higher than normal temperature separate more readily.
to assure high oil pressure at normal oil temperature.
c. in the overhaul shop.* 120. The purpose of the flow control valve in a reciprocating
engine oil system is to
113. Where is the oil temperature bulb located on a dry a. direct oil through or around the oil cooler.*
sump reciprocating engine? b. deliver cold oil to the hopper tank.
a. Oil inlet line.* c. compensate for volumetric increases due to foaming
b. Oil cooler. of the oil.
c. Oil outlet line.
121. Where are sludge chambers, when used in aircraft
114. Cylinder walls are usually lubricated by engine lubrication systems, usually located?
a. splashed or sprayed oil.* a. In the crankshaft throws.*
b. a direct pressure system fed through the crankshaft, b. Adjacent to the scavenger pumps.
connecting rods, and the piston pins to the oil c. In the oil storage tank.
control ring groove in the piston.
c. oil that is picked up by the oil control ring when 122. Why is an aircraft reciprocating engine oil tank on a
the piston is at bottom centre. dry sump lubrication system equipped with a vent line?
a. To prevent pressure buildup in the reciprocating 130. A turbine engine dry sump lubrication system of the
engine crankcase. self-contained, high-pressure design
b. To eliminate foaming in the oil tank. a. has no heat exchanger.
c. To prevent pressure buildup in the oil tank.* b. consists of pressure, breather, and scavenge
subsystems.*
123. Excessive oil is prevented from accumulating on the c. stores oil in the engine crankcase.
cylinder walls of a reciprocating engine by
a. the design shape of the piston skirt. 131. Lube system last chance filters in turbine engines are
b. internal engine pressure bleeding past the ring usually cleaned
grooves. a. during annual inspection.
c. oil control rings on the pistons.* b. during 100-hour inspections.
c. during overhaul.*
124. (1) Wet sump oil systems are most commonly used in
gas turbine engines. 132. How are the piston pins of most aircraft engines
(2) In most turbine engine oil tanks, a slight lubricated?
pressurzation of the tank is desired to ensure a a. By pressure oil through a drilled passageway in
positive flow of oil. the heavy web portion of the connecting rod.
Regarding the above statements, b. By oil which is sprayed or thrown by the master or
a. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. connecting rods.*
b. only No. 2 is true.* c. By the action of the oil control ring and the series
c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. of holes drilled in the ring groove directing oil to
the pin and piston pin boss.
125. The pumping capacity of the scavenger pump in a dry
sump aircraft engine's lubrication system 133. The vent line connecting the oil supply tank and the
a. is greater than the capacity of the oil supply pump.* engine in some dry sump engine installations permits
b. is less than the capacity of the oil supply pump. a. pressurization of the oil supply to prevent
c. is usually equal to the capacity of the oil supply cavitation of the oil supply pump.
pump in order to maintain constant oiling b. oil vapors from the engine to be condensed and
conditions. drained into the oil supply tank.
c. the oil tank to be vented through the normal engine
126. In which of the following situations will the oil cooler vent.*
automatic bypass valve be open the greatest amount?
a. Engine oil above normal operating temperature. 134. An engine lubrication system pressure relief valve is
b. Engine oil below normal operating temperature.* usually located between the
c. Engine stopped with no oil flowing after runup. a. oil cooler and the scavenger pump.
b. scavenger pump and the external oil system.
127. In order to maintain a constant oil pressure as the c. pump and the internal oil system.*
clearances between the moving parts of an engine
increase through normal wear, the supply pump output 135. Where is the oil of a dry sump reciprocating engine
a. increases as the resistance offered to the flow of exposed to the temperature control valve sensing unit?
oil increases. a. Oil cooler inlet.*
b. remains relatively constant (at a given RPM) with b. Engine outlet.
less oil being returned to the pump inlet by the c. Engine inlet.
relief valve.*
c. remains relatively constant (at a given RPM) with 136. Under which of the following conditions is the oil cooler
more oil being returned to the pump inlet by the flow control valve open on a reciprocating engine?
relief valve. a. When the temperature of the oil returning from the
engine is too high.
128. The valve assemblies of opposed reciprocating b. When the temperature of the oil returning from the
engines are lubricated by means of a engine is too low.*
a. gravity feed system. c. When the scavenger pump output volume exceeds
b. splash and spray system. the engine pump input volume.
c. pressure system.*
137. The purpose of a relief valve installed in the tank
129. What will result if an oil filter becomes completely venting system of a turbine engine oil tank is to
blocked? a. prevent oil pump cavitation by maintaining a
a. Oil will flow at a reduced rate through the system. constant pressure on the oil pump inlet.*
b. Oil flow to the engine will stop. b. maintain internal tank air pressure at the ambient
c. Oil will flow at the normal rate through the system.* atmospheric level regardless of altitude or rate of
change in altitude.
c. maintain a positive internal pressure in the oil tank b. for a pressuirized oil supply to the oil pump inlet.
after shutdown to prevent oil pump cavitation on c. separation of entrained air from scavenged oil.*
engine start.
148. Which of the following bearing types must be
138. In a reciprocating engine, oil is directed from the continuously lubricated by pressure oil?
pressure relief valve to the inlet side of the a. Ball. b. Roller.
a. scavenger pump. c. Plain.*
b. oil temperature regulator.
c. pressure pump.* 149. Which of the following fire detectors are commonly
used in the power section of an engine nacelle?
139. If the oil in the oil cooler core and annular jacket a. CO detectors.
becomes congealed, what unit prevents damage to the b. Smoke detectors.
cooler? c. Rate-of-temperature-rise detectors.*
a. Oil pressure relief valve. 150. What is the function of a fire detection system?
b. Airflow control valve. a. To discharge the powerplant fire-extinguishing
c. Surge protection valve.* system at the origin of the fire.
b. To activate a warning device in the event of a
140. The primary source of oil contamination in a normally powerplant fire.*
operating reciprocating engine is c. To identify the location of a powerplant fire.
a. metallic deposits as a result of engine wear.
b. atmospheric dust and pollution. 151. (Refer to Fig.15.4) Determine the fire-extinguisher
c. combustion deposits due to combustion chamber container pressure limits when the temperature is 75oF.
blow-by and oil migration on the cylinder walls.* a. 326 minimum and 415 maximum
b. 330 minimum and 419 maximum.
141. A drop in oil pressure may be caused by c. 338 minimum and 424 maximum.*
a. the temperature regulator sticking open.
b. the bypass valve sticking open.
c. foreign material under the relief valve.*
142. The main oil filters strain the oil at which point in the
system?
a. Immediately after it leaves the scavenger pump.
b. Immediately before it enters the pressure pump.
c. Just as it leaves the pressure pump.*
143. Which type of valve prevents oil from entering the

main accessory case when the engine is not running?
a. Bypass. b. Relief.
c. Check.*
144. An oil tank having a capacity of 5 gallons must have

an expansion space of
a. 2 quarts.* b. 4 quarts.
c. 5 quarts.
145. As a general rule, a small amount of small fuzzy particles

or gray metallic paste on a turbine engine magnetic Fig. 15.4 –Fire Extinguisher Pressure Chart.
chip detector
a. is considered to be the result of normal wear.* 152. How are most aircraft turbine engine fire-extinguishing
b. indicates an imminent component failure. systems activated?
c. indicates accelerated generalized wear. a. Electrically discharged cartridges.*
b. Manual remote control valve.
146. Why is expansion space required in an engine oil c. Pushrod assembly.
supply tank?
a. To eliminate oil foaming. 153. How does carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguish an aircraft
b. For oil enlargement and collection of foam.* engine fire?
c. For proper oil tank ventilation. a. Contact with the air converts the liquid into snow
and gas which smothers the flame.*
147. The purpose of a dwell chamber in a turbine engine oil b. By lowering the temperature to a point where
tank is to provide combustion will not take place.
a. a collection point for sediments. c. The high pressure spray lowers the temperature
and blows out the fire.
154. What retains the nitrogen charge and fire- 163. Why does one type of Fenwal fire detection system
extinguishing agent in a high rate of discharge (HRD) use spot detectors wired in parallel between two
container? separate circuits?
a. Breakable disk and fusible disk.* a. To provide an installation that is equal to two
b. Pressure switch and check tee valve. separate systems; a primary system and a
c. Pressure gauge and cartridge. secondary, or back-up system.
b. So that a double fault may exist in the system
155. A continuous-loop fire detector is what type of without sounding a false alarm.
detector? c. So that a single fault may exist in the system
a. Spot detecto without sounding a false alarm.*
b. Overheat detector.*
c. Rate-of-temperature-rise detector. 164. Which of the following fire detection systems measures
temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?
156. What is the operating principle of the spot detector a. Thermocouple*
sensor in a fire detection system? b. Thermal switch.
a. Resistant core material that prevents current flow c. Lindberg continuous element.
at normal temperatures.
b. A conventional thermocouple that produces a 165. The pulling out (or down) of an illuminated fire handle
current flow. in a typical large jet aircraft fire protection system
c. A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when heated commonly accomplishes what events?
to a high temperature.* a. Closes all firewall shutoff valves, disconnects the
generator, and discharges a fire bottle.
157. How is the fire-extinguishing agent distributed in the b. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff,
engine section? disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire-
a. Spray nozzles and fluid pumps. extinguishing system.*
b. Nitrogen pressure and slinger rings. c. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, closes
c. Spray nozzles and perforated tubing.* the oxygen shutoff, disconnects the generator field,
and arms the fire-extinguishing system.
158. Which of the following is the safest fire-extinguishing
agent to use from a standpoint of toxicity and corrosion 166. A fire detection system operates on the principle of a
hazards? buildup of gas pressure within a tube proportional to
a. (Halon 1202). temperature. Which of the following systems does this
b. Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211). statement define?
c. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).* a. Kidde continuous-loop system.
b. Lindberg continuous-element system.*
159. Which of the following is NOT used to detect fires in c. Thermal switch system.
reciprocating engine nacelles?
a. Smoke detectors.* 167. The fire detection system that uses a single wire
b. Rate-of-temperature-rise detectors. surrounded by a continuous string of ceramic beads
c. Flame detectors. in a tube is the
a. Fenwal system.*
160. What is the principle of operation of the continuous b. Kidde system.
loop fire detector system sensor? c. thermocouple system.
a. Fuse material which melts at high temperatures.
b. Core resistance material which prevents current flow 168. The fire detection system that uses two wires imbedded
at normal temperatures.* in a ceramic core within a tube is the
c. A bimetallic thermoswitch which closes when a. Fenwal system.
heated to high temperature. b. Lindberg system.
c. Kidde system.*
161. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for a
carburetor or intake fire is 169. A fuel or oil fire is defined as a
a. carbon dioxide.* a. class B fire.*
b. dry chemical. b. class A fire.
c. methyl bromide. c. class C fire.
162. The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a 170. A fire detection system that operates on the rate-of-
fire-extinguisher container is temperature rise is a
a. a life-dated unit.* a. continuous-loop system.
b. not a life-dated unit. b. thermocouple system*
c. mechanically fired. c. thermal switch system.
171. A fire involving energized electrical equipment is 179. For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft
defined as a powerplant areas are divided into fire zones based on
a. class B fire. a. hot and cold sections of the engine.
b. class D fire. b. the volume and smoothness of the airflow through
c. class C fire.* engine compartments.*
c. engine type and size.
172. Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will
not test due to a broken detector element are the 180. (Refer to Fig.15.5) What are the fire-extinguisher
a. Kidde system and the Lindberg system. container pressure limits when the temperature is 50oF?
b. Kidde system and the Fenwal system.*
c. thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
173. In a fixed fire-extinguishing system, there are two small

lines running from the system and exiting overboard.
These line exit ports are covered with a blowout type
indicator disc. Which of the following statements is/
are true?
a. When the red indicator disc is missing, it indicates
the fire-extinguishing system has been normally
discharged.
b. When the yellow indicator disk is missing, it
indicates the fire-extinguishing system has been
normally discharged.*
c. When the green indicator disk is missing, it
indicates the fire-extinguishing system has had a
thermal discharge.
Fig.15.5. Fire Extinguisher Pressure
174. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an
electrical fire is a. 425-575 PSIG. b. 435-605 PSIG.
a. carbon tetrachloride. c. 475-625 PSIG.*
b. carbon dioxide.*
c. methyl bromide.

175. Which of the following fire detection systems will detect
a fire when an element is inoperative but will not test
when the test circuit is energized?
a. The Kidde system and the thermocouple system.
b. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.*
c. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg
system.
176. Which of the following fire detection systems uses

heat in the normal testing of the system?
a. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg
system.*
b. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
c. The thermocouple system and the Fenwalsystem
177. After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition

removed in aircraft equipped with a Systron-Donner
fire detector, the detection system
a. must be manually reset.
b. automatically resets.*
c. sensing component must be replaced.
178. The use of water on class D fires

a. is most effective if sprayed in a first mist.
b. will cause the fire to burn more violently and can
cause explosions.*
c. has no effect.
CHAPTER - 21
ENGINE MONITORING AND GROUND OPERATION
1. Who establishes the recommended operating time 9. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to
between overhauls (T.B.O) of a gas turbine engine operating damage than compressor blades because of
a. The engine manufacturer. a. higher temperature stresses.*
b. The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend b. higher centrifugal loading.
analysis) working in conjunction with the c. high pressure and high velocity gas flow.
Airworthiness Authority.*
c. The Airworthiness Authority alone. 10. A magnetic chip detector detects
a. particles held in suspension.
2. What is the first engine instrument indication of a b. particles which are too small for the naked eye.
successful start of a turbine engine? c. ferrous particles only.*
a. A rise in oil pressure.
b. A rise in the engine fuel flow. 11. A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine
c. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.* is done to
a. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel
3. A hung start is indicated by the lines.
a. exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits. b. prevent seizure of the engine bearings.
b. fails to reach idle RPM.* c. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case
c. RPM exceeds specified operating speed. contracts around it.*
4. During inspection, turbine engine components exposed 12. When starting a turbine engine, the starter should be
to high temperatures may only be marked with such disengaged
materials as allowed by the manufacturer. These a. only after the engine has reached full idle RPM.
materials generally include b. when the ignition and fuel system are activated.
a. layout dye, commercial felt tip marker or chalk.* c. after the engine has reached self-sustaining
b. layout dye, commercial felt tip marker, wax or grease speed.*
pencil.
c. layout dye, commercial felt tip marker, wax or grease 13. What should be done initially if a turbine engine
pencil, chalk or graphite lead pencil. catches fire when starting?
a. Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the
5. When the leading edge of a first stage turbine blade is fire.
found to have stress rupture cracks, which of the b. Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire
following should be suspected? extinguisher into the intake.
a. Faulty cooling shield. c. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation with
b. Over speed condition. the starter.*
c. Over temperature condition.*
14. A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible
6. A magnetic chip detector inspection should be carried to which kind of damage?
out a. Scoring. b. Galling.
a. within a specified time from shut down.* c. Cracking.*
b. with engine cold.
c. with engine running. 15. If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff E.P.R
before its E.G.T limit is reached, this is an indication
7. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet that the
engine? a. fuel control must be replaced.
a. Starter, ignition, fuel.* b. E.G.T controller is out of adjustment.
b. Starter, fuel, ignition. c. compressor may be contaminated or damaged.*
c. Ignition, starter, fuel.
16. Which of the following engine variables is the most
8. Foreign object damage on a compressor, when critical during turbine engine operation?
boroscoping, is indicated by a. Compressor RPM.
a. tip curl. b. Turbine inlet temperature.*
b. nicks and scores.* c. Compressor inlet air temperature.
c. flats.
17. With the engine running at idle, the E.P.R system reads 26. After shutdown, flames are present in the exhaust pipe.
just over 1 The probable cause is
a. The system has failed and needs attention. a. a defective fuel control unit (F.C.U).
b. The system needs re-calibration back to ‘1’. b. a defective pressurizing and dump valve.*
c. This is a normal condition and does not need c. a defective H.P cock.
attention.*
27. If the L.P cock is used to shutdown an engine
18. The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne a. the F.C.U will continue to function.
particulates into an engine can result in b. flames will appear in the exhaust.
a. the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of c. the H.P fuel pump will run dry.*
the engine.
b. foreign object damage to the compressor section. 28. When accelerating from ‘light-up’ to ground idling
c. erosion damage to the compressor and turbine speed, the E.G.T will
sections.* a. remain constant.
b. increase above idle value then decrease to normal.*
19. When the engine is not running, and engine blanks c. decrease below idle value then increase to normal.
are installed. The E.P.R gauge shows 1.0, then
a. the transmitter is faulty. 29. A gas turbine engine is stopped by closing
b. the receiver is faulty. a. L.P cock. b. H.P cock.*
c. it is normal.* c. throttle valve.
20. Which of the following may be used to accomplish 30. A ‘wet start’ is indicated by
internal inspection of an assembled gas turbine engine? a. no temperature indication.*
a. Ultrasound, and fluorescent penetrant and b. low RPM.
ultraviolet light. c. a prolonged cranking period.
b. X-ray and a borescope.*
c. Infrared photography and fluorescent penetrant 31. The engine accelerates to idling by
and ultraviolet light. a. gas flow.
b. combined efforts of starter motor and gas flow.*
21. Run down time is indicative of c. starter motor.
a. an F.C.U malfunction.
b. compressor malfunction. 32. An oil emission spectrometer measures
c. the freedom of rotation of the compressor.* a. particles in suspension.*
b. particles on the surface.
22. A hung start or false start is one in which c. specific gravity of the oil.
a. light up’ occurs, but the RPM does not increase.*
b. there is no ‘light up’. 33. A broadband vibration reading indicates
c. the engine does not rotate. a. the total vibration sensed by the transducer.*
b. the peak allowable vibration.
23. What would be the possible cause if a gas turbine c. the N1 vibration.
engine has high exhaust gas temperature, high fuel
flow, and low RPM at all engine power settings? 34. Vibration analysers determine which component is
a. Fuel control out of adjustment. vibrating by analysing
b. Loose or corroded thermocouple probes for the a. voltage.
E.G.T indicator. b. amplitude.
c. Turbine damage or loss of turbine efficiency.* c. frequency.*
24. In regard to using a turbine engine oil analysis program, 35. High frequency vibration
which of the following is NOT true? a. causes engine components to crack.*
a. It is best to start an oil analysis program on an b. energises air particles prior to compression.
engine when it is new. c. can give an indication of a fluctuating (E.P.R).
b. A successful oil analysis program should be run
over an engine’s total operating life so that normal 36. Engine oil sampling analysis is taken
trends can be established. a. after engine shut down.
c. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be made b. at specific time after engine shut down.*
after an engine’s first oil sample analysis.* c. when oil level is high.
25. Which of the following is the least likely indication of 37. With external power applied, the engine will not run up
a main bearing failure? to idle after reaching starting speed. The likely fault
a. High oil consumption. would be with the
b. High oil temperature. a. Fuel Control Unit.*
c. High oil pressure.*
b. clutch. 48. Starting an engine with a bleed valve stuck closed

c. battery. would cause:
a. low E.G.T.
38. When running down an engine b. possible stalling of the engine.*
a. it should be done as slowly as possible to assist c. high E.G.T.
thermal stress.
b. it should be done as quickly as possible to stop 49. Galling is a condition caused by excessive
excess of fuel gathering. a. chafing.*
c. it should be done as slowly as possible to reduce b. scoring.
thermal stress.* c. temperatures.
39. What may be an indication of a bleed valve stuck in 50. If a burner was down, in a multi-can system, the engine
the closed position? would tend to
a. Over speed. a. hang up.
b. Low E.G.T reading. b. run up.
c. Compressor stalling at low RPM.* c. surge.*
40. Excessive E.G.T can 51. If the rundown time is less than the minimum stated for
a. cause N.G.V to creep. a given engine
c. cause damage to turbine.* a. unacceptable wear is occurring at the main bearings.
c. cause damage to jet pipe. b. the rotating assembly is free.
c. the rotating assembly is being restricted.*
41. A jet engine has a high oil temperature but all other
power parameters are normal. The probable cause is 52. When running an engine the following lights should
a. a large quantity of oil being returned to tank. be on:
b. gear box leakage. a. anti-collision and nav-lights (if fitted).*
c. a main bearing in distress.* b. nav-lights (if fitted).
c. anti-collision (if fitted).
42. When cleaning salt from a compressor
a. use water then manufacturer’s cleaning solution. 53. With spectral oil analysis program (S.O.A.P), samples
b. use water at low power then water at high power.* are taken
c. never use water, use only the recommended a. when the oil tank is full.
solution. b. at a specified interval.*
c. when the oil is warm.
43. A hot start refers to
a. early ignition. 54. During start, if a bleed valve is stuck closed
b. high E.G.T before idle RPM is achieved.* a. E.G.T is unaffected.
c. too much fuel being supplied. b. E.G.T will be higher than normal.
c. E.G.T will be lower than normal.*
44. If a compressor surge occurs, it is recognized by
a. coughing in the compressor and vibration.* 55. Dynamic balance testing locates unbalance in
b. fluctuating RPM and fuel flow. a. all planes.
c. fluctuating E.G.T and thrust. b. two planes.*
c. one plane.
45. Cracks may occur in hot section components of a
turbine engine if they are marked during inspection 56. On a gas turbine engine with baked oil deposits, how
with would you carry out grit blast cleaning With the engine
a. a lead pencil.* b. chalk. at?
c. layout dye. a. stationary.
b. idle speed (low).*
46. What must not be used during an engine compressor c. high speed.
wash?
a. Chlorine.* 57. A rotation pad on an accessory drive gear box is
b. Desalinization solution. provided for
c. Crushed almond. a. N2 rotation.*
b. both are correct.
47. Trend monitoring of spectrometric oil analysis is carried c. alternate tachogenerator fitment.
out how often?
a. During each scheduled maintenance period. 58. What would be indicative of a hung start?
b. At set periods once the rate of wear has been a. Starter would fail to disengage.
established.* b. High E.G.T.
c. After every repair or modification. c. Engine would fail to reach self sustaining speed.*
59. During inspection, turbine engine components exposed 67. Hot section inspections for many modern turbine
to high temperatures may only be market with such engines are required
materials as allowed by the manufacturer. These a. only at engine overhaul.
materials generally include b. only when an over temperature or over speed has
1. layout dye. occurred.
2. commercial felt tip marker. c. on a time or cycle basis.*
3. wax or grease pencil.
4. chalk. 68. Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are
5. graphite lead pencil. possible indicators of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle or
a. 1, 2, and 4.* a. a faulty combustion chamber.*
b. 1, 3, and 4. b. a faulty igniter plug.
c. 2, 4, and 5. c. an improperly positioned tail cone.
60. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated 69. The procedure for removing the accumulation of dirt
if the engine deposits on compressor blades is called
a. exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits. a. the soak method.
b. fails to reach idle RPM. * b. field cleaning*
c. RPM exceeds specified operating speed. c. the purging process.
61. If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller 70. Which of the following may be used to accomplish
bearings are found to have magnetism but otherwise internal inspection of an assembled turbine engine?
have no defects, they 1. Infrared photography.
a. cannot be used again. 2. Ultrasound.
b. are in an acceptable service condition. 3. A bore scope.
c. must be degaussed before use.* 4. Fluorescent penetrant and ultraviolet light.
a. 1, 2, 3. b. 1, 3.
62. Who establishes the recommended operating time c. 3.*
between overhauls (TBO) of a turbine engine used in
general aviation? 71. A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible
a. The engine manufacturer.* to which kind to damage?
b. The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend a. Scoring. b. Cracking.
analysis) working in conjuction with the FAA. c. Galling.*
c. The FAA.
72. Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the
63. Who establishes mandatory replacement times for compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on
critical components of turbine engines? all but which of the following?
a. The FAA. a. Turbine blades.*
b. The operator working in conjuction with the FAA. b. Casings.
c. The engine manufacturer.* c. Intel guide vanes.
64. When the leading edge of a first-stage turbine blade is 73. Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades
found to have stress rupture cracks, which of the will usually cause
following should be suspected? a. bowing. b. cracking.
a. Faulty cooling shield. c. galling.*
b. Over temperature condition.*
c. Over speed condition. 74. Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force
on turbine engine rotor blades is likely to cause
65. The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne a. profile. b. creep.*
particulates into a turbine engine can result in c. galling.
a. foreign object damage to the compressor section.
b. the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of 75. Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling
the engine. in a turbofan engine?
c. erosion damage to the compressor and turbine 1. Engine over speed.
sections.* 2. Engine over temperature.
3. Large, rapid throttle movements.
66. Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on 4. FOD.
turbine blades? a. 1, 2. b. 1, 2, 3, 4.
a. Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree. c. 1, 4.*
b. Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge.
c. Across the leading or trailing edge at a right angle 76. (Refer to Fig.15.6 ) Determine which portion of the AD
to the edge length.* is applicable for Model 0-690 series engine, serial No.
5863-40 with 283 hours time in service.
a. (B), (1).* b. (A). 79. A Cessna 180 aircraft has a McCauley propeller Model
c. (B), (2). No. 2A34C50/90A. The propeller is severely damaged
in a ground accident, and this model propeller is not
available for replacement. Which of the following
should be used to find an approved alternate
replacement?
a. Summary of Supplemental Type Certificates.
b. Aircraft Specifications/Type Certificate Data
Sheets.*
c. Aircraft Engine and Propeller Specifications/Type
Certificate Data Sheets.
80. Which of the following is used to monitor the

mechanical integrity of the turbines, as well as to check
engine operating conditions of a turbine engine?
a. Engine oil pressure.
b. Exhaust gas temperature.*
c. Engine pressure ratio.
81. On a reciprocating engine aircraft using a shrouded

exhaust muffler system as a source for cabin heat, the
exhaust system should be
a. visually inspected for any indication of cracks or
an operational carbon monoxide detection test
should be done.*
b. replaced at each reciprocating engine overhaul by
a new or overhauled exhaust system or a
hydrostatic test should be accomplished.
c. removed and the exhaust muffler checked for cracks
by using magnetic particle inspection method or a
hydrostatic test should be done on the exhaust
muffler.
82. (1) Airworthiness Directives are Federal Aviation

Regulations and must be complied with unless
specific exemption is granted.
(2) Airworthiness Directives of an emergency nature
require immediate compliance upon receipt.
Regarding the above statements.
a. only No.1 is true.
b. only No.2 is true.
c. both No.1 and No.2 are true.*
Fig.15.6. - Airworthiness Directive Excerpt
83. Which of the following contains a minimum checklist

77. (1) Accumulation of contaminates in the compressor
for 100-hour inspections of engines?
of a turbojet engine reduces aerodynamic efficiency
a. 14 CFR Part 33, Appendix A.
of the blades.
b. 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix D.*
(2) Two common methods for removing dirt deposits
c. Engine Specifications or Type Certificate Data
from turbojet engine compressor blades are a fluid
Sheets.
wash and an abrasive grit blast.
84. When must an Airworthiness Directive (AD) be
a. only No.1 is true.
complied with after it becomes effective?
b. only No.2 is true.
a. As specified in the AD.*
c. both No.1 and No.2 are true.*
b. During the next scheduled inspection.
c. At the next scheduled overhaul.
78. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet
engine are possible indicators of
85. Which of the following contains a table that lists the
a. faulty igniter plugs.
engines to which a given propeller is adaptable?
b. dirty compressor blades.
a. Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheets.
c. malfunctioning fuel nozzles.*
b. Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets.*
c. Engine Type Certificate Data Sheets.
10 0 Module-15 (Gas Turbine Engine) , DGCA
86. Which of the following component inspections is to 95. What publication is used for guidance to determine
be accomplished on a 100-hour inspection? whether a powerplant repair is major or minor?
a. Check internal timing of magneto. a. Airworthiness Directives.
b. Check cylinder compression.* b. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 43, appendix A.*
c. Check valve timing. c. Technical Standard Orders.
87. You are performing a 100-hour inspection on an R985- 96. The airworthiness standards for the issue of type
22 aircraft engine. What does the "985" indicate? certificates for small airplanes with nine or less
a. The total piston displacement of the engine.* passenger seats in the normal, utility, and acrobatic
b. The pistons will pump a maximum of 985 cubic categories may be found in the
inches of air per crankshaft revolution. a. Supplemental Type Certificate.
c. The total piston displacement of one cylinder. b. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 23.*
c. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 21.
88. Straightening nitrided crankshafts is
a. recommended. 97. Which of the following contains approved data for
b. not recommended.* performing a major repair to an aircraft engine?
c. approved by the manufacturer. a. Engine Type Certificate Data Sheets.
b. Supplemental Type Certificates.
89. The breaking loose of small pieces of metal from coated c. Manufacturer's maintenance instructions when
surfaces, usually caused by defective plating or FAA approved.*
excessive loads, is called
a. flaking.* 98. What maintenance record (s) is/are required following
b. chafing. a major repair of an aircraft engine?
c. brinelling. a. Entries in engine maintenance records and a list of
discrepancies for the FAA.
90. Each powerplant installed on an airplane with a b. Entries in the engine maintenance record and FAA
Standard Airworthiness Certificate must have been Form 337.*
a. type certificated.* c. Entry in log book.
b. manufactured under the TSO system.
c. originally certificated for that aircraft. 99. A ground incident that results in propeller sudden
stoppage may require a crankshaft runout inspection.
91. A severe condition of chafing or fretting in which a What publication would be used to obtain crankshaft
transfer of metal from one part to another occurs is runout tolerance?
called a. Current Manufacturer's maintenance instructions.*
a. scoring. b. Type Certificate Data Sheet.
b. burning. c. AC 43. 13-1A, Acceptable Methods, Techniques,
c. galling.* and Practices Aircraft Inspection and Repair.
92. Indentations on bearing races caused by high static 100. Select the Airworthiness Directive applicability
loads are known as statement which applies to an IVO-355 engine, serial
a. fretting. number T8164, with 2,100 hours total time and 300 hours
b. brinelling.* since rebuilding.
c. galling. a. Applies to all IVO-355 engines, serial numbers
T8000 through T8300, having less than 2,400 hours
93. When inspecting an aircraft reciprocating engine what total time.*
document is used to determine if the proper magnetos b. Applies to all IVO-355 engines, serial numbers
are installed? T8000 through T8900 with 2,400 hours or more total
a. Instructions for continued airworthiness issued by time.
the engine manufacturer. c. Applies to all I.O. and TV 10-355 engines, all serial
b. Engine Manufacturer's Maintenance Manual. numbers regardless of total time or since overhaul.
c. Aircraft Engine Specifications or Type Certificate
Data Sheets.* 101. What publication contains the mandatory replacement
time for parts of a turbine engine?
94. Which of the following can inspect and approve an a. Engine Manufacturer's service instructions.
engine major repair for return to service? b. Engine Manufacturer's maintenance manual.*
a. Certificated mechanic with airframe and power-plant c. Airworthiness directive issued by the engine
ratings. manufacturer.
b. Certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating.
c. Certificated mechanic with inspection 102. How are discharge nozzles in a fuel injected
authorization.* reciprocating engine identified to indicate the flow
range?
School of Aeronautics 10 1
a. By an identification letter stamped on one of the c. to be inspected for proper lubrication of linkages,
hexes of the nozzle body.* play and locking security.
b. By an identification metal tag attached to the nozzle d. All above.*
body.
c. By color codes on the nozzle body. 111. In the event of engine shut down in flight with fuel
shut off cock in closed position
103. What section in the instructions for continued a. Fuel pump needs replacement.
airworthiness is FAA approved? b. Fuel pump and components need no replacement.
a. Engine maintenance manual or section. c. If metal particles found in down stream of pump
b. Engine overhaul manual or section. then all components of down stream needs
c. Airworthiness limitations section.* replacement.
d. Perform operations under a. and c.*
104. Which of the following conditions is usually not
acceptable to any extent in turbine blades? 112. At specified intervals, carbon deposits are removed
a. Cracks.* b. Pits. from the burners
c. Dents. a. By use of wire brushes.
b. By pumping carbon solvent in situ or dipped for
105. (1) Serviceability limits for turbine blades are much two hours in solvent, if removed.*
more stringent than are those for turbine nozzle c. By sand blasting.
vanes. d. By emery cloth.
(2) A limited number of small nicks and dents can
usually be permitted in any area of a turbine blade.
Regarding the above statements, 
a. both No.1 and No.2 are true.
b. neither No.1 nor No.2 is true.
c. only No.1 is true.*
106. Since fuel leak under high pressure is a potential fire

hazard in GT engines, hence, it is to be inspected for
a. Security, bonding and freedom from leaks.
b. Correct positioning of drains.
c. Correct lubrication, prescribed lubricant is to be
used on gaskets and seals whenever a fuel
component is installed.
d. All above.*
107. Adjustment to fuel system parameters are carried out

when
a. New engine is installed.
b. A new component is installed.
c. Incorrect operation of the system is reported.
d. All above happens.*
108. Mechanical adjustments are such as

a. Idle speed.
b. Maximum governed speed.
c. Rate of acceleration.
d. Mentioned under a., b. and c.*
109. Usually whenever an electronic adjustment is carried

out on such as EGT regulation
a. Only mechanical adjustment is done by adjusting
screw.
b. An appropriate tester is required for adjustment.*
c. Adjustment is not attempted at field level.
d. None of the above is performed.
110. Engine power control needs

a. Proper connecting procedure.
b. Rigging at specified intervals with rigging pins,
protectors and poinlers.
10 2 Module-15 (Gas Turbine Engine) , DGCA
CHAPTER - 22
ENGINE STORAGE AND PRESERVATION
1. Fuel system inhibiting oil is 11. To inhibit the fuel system of an installed engine
a. mineral oil.* a. pump oil into the engine when stationary.
b. light anti-freeze oil. b. dry motor the engine.*
c. kerosene. c. remove the ignitor plugs.
2. After placing an engine in an M.V.P envelope 12. When is the humidity indicator checked on a preserved
a. check humidity indicator after 12 hours. engine?
b. check humidity indicator after 24 hours.* a. 1 Month.* b. 1 Year.
c. check humidity indicator after 48 hours. c. 6 Months.
3. On a vapour proof cocoon, there is a 13. With an engine in storage, desiccant is used
a. temperature indicator. a. as an insecticide.
b. moisture indicator.* b. as a corrosion inhibitor.
c. humidifier. c. to remove moisture from the air.*
4. When an installed engine is not to be used for a period 14. Small cuts in a M.V.P. engine storage bag can be repaired
of up to 7 days a. with adhesive PVC tape.*
a. it is necessary to inhibit the engine. b. by vulcanising.
b. it is only necessary to blank off all apertures.* c. by replacing M.V.P.
c. run the engine as prescribed in the Flight Manual.
15. When removing an engine for long-term storage, bleed
5. Installed engines must be re-preserved after valves should be
preservation at least every a. removed.
a. six weeks. b. six days. b. locked closed.
c. six months.* c. open but blanked.*
6. On storage of an engine, the desiccant is 16. The engines which are being returned for repair or
a. looked at within 24 hrs if its blue its OK. overhaul are sealed in
b. looked at 24 hrs later if its blue its OK.* a. A wooden box.
c. looked at 24 hrs later if blue it should be replaced. b. Canvas bag.
c. Moisture proof envelop.*
7. After placing an engine into storage, details would be d. None of the above.
recorded in
a. Technical Log. 17. Vapour phase inhibitors or desiccant's positions and
b. Engine log book.* quantity is specified by manufacturer, but the humidity
c. Aircraft log book. indicator should be
a. Placed in inlet.
8. When storing an engine the fuel system is to be b. Placed in exhaust.
inhibited. How is this done? c. Placed at easily visible position.*
a. Remove plugs rotate engine then add oil.* d. Placed at any place in sealed envelop.
b. Rotate engine whilst adding oil then remove plugs.
c. Add oil leaving plugs in. 18. An un-installed stored, in sealed envelop, engine
should be inspected for corrosions and re-inhibited
9. An engine in storage for 7 days should after
a. have storage oil placed in engine. a. One month. b. Six months.
b. be run twice in that week. c. One year. d. Three years.*
c. be fitted with covers and blanks and apertures
covered.* 19. Envelops on sealed engine should be inspected
monthly for
10. On a (VP) cocoon bag, if the humidity indicator turns a. Physical damage.
pink/lilac b. Oxidation of engine external surfaces.
a. desiccant is effective and does not need changing. c. Humidity.*
b. desiccant is ineffective and needs changing.* d. None of the above.
c. desiccant is changed weekly.
School of Aeronautics 10 3
c. Felt and used in fuel system.

20. If humidity indicators turns pink then d. None of the above.
a. Replace humidity indicator.
b. Unseal envelope, replace desiccants and re - seal. 9. Vokes filters are made of
c. Perform as a. and b. in reverse sequence.* a. Wire mesh discs. b. Felt and wire mesh.*
d. Nothing special is needed to be done. c. Corrugated wire mesh. d. None of the above.
21. Any engine sealed in MVP bags the oil sump is to be 10. The flow of fluid in teclemit filter is
a. Filled with preservative. a. From out to in.* b. In to out.
b. Filled with lubrication oil. c. Either way. d. Regulated by restrictor.
c. Fully drained.*
d. Fully topped up. 11. Purolater filters are made of
a. Micromess wire disc.
ACCESSORIES b. Wire gauge.
c. Felt.
1. Accessories are d. Rolled wire of tapered cross section.*
a. The mandatory items.
b. Complementary items. 12. In primary surface oil coolers
c. Items to obtain full requirements. a. The heat is dissipated to air through tubes.*
d. As mentioned in b and c*. b. The heat is dissipated to air through fins.
c. Oil flow through the tubes.
2. Aircraft fuel tanks are classified as d. None of the above.
a. Fuselage hull tanks.
b. Wing, wing centre tanks. 13. Secondary surfaces oil coolers are made of
c. Auxiliary tanks. a. Tubes threaded through fins.
d. As mentioned above.* b. Tubes flanked by corrugated plates.
c. Both as a. and b.*
3. To increase the range, the tanks employed are known d. None of the above.
as
a. Jettison or drop tanks. 14. Fuel pumps categories are
b. Venteral or overload tank. a. EDP or electrical.
c. a. and b. both are correct.* b. Gear or vane type.
d. None of the above. c. Diaphragm or plunger type.
d. All above.*
4. Oil tanks consists of
a. Sump, strainers, de-aerators. 15. Hand operated primary and wobble pumps can be used
b. Drain plugs, dip sticks, vent pipes. a. transferring of fuel from tank to tank.
c. Negative 'G' device and filler caps. b. for priming engine before starting.
d. As mentioned in a., b. and c.* c. to supply fuel in flight in case of EDP failure.
d. for all above purposes.*
5. Basically the types of starters used on aero engines
are 16. Booster pumps
a. Electrical, air and cartridge starter. a. Can be immersed in fuel tanks.
b. Electrical, cartridge air and turbo starter. b. Can be installed externally.
c. Electrical, cartridge and turbo starter.* c. Are vane or impeller type.
d. Electrical and air starters. d. Functions as mentioned in a., b. and c.*
6. To control the flow of fluid only in one direction, the 17. Immersed pump are used on
accessory used is known as a. Civil aircraft. b. Passenger aircraft.
a. Cock. b. NRV.* c. Cargo aircraft. d. Fighter aircraft.*
c. PRV. d. None of the above.
18. Vacuum pumps are provided for
7. To maintain the required pressure in cabin at attitude, a. To supply pressure in hydraulic system.
the accessory is known as b. Supplying pressure for gun firing.
a. Breather. b. Compressor. c. To provide suction for gyro equipment.*
c. Cabin blower.* d. Any of the above. d. Nothing above.
8. Micronic filters are made of 

a. Wire mesh used in oil system.
b. Paper, used in fuel system.*

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School of Aeronautics 1

60. Gas turbine engine process consists of a. 1, 2, 3. b. 1, 2.*

65. The rate at which distance is covered is known as 

66. Rate of change of velocity is known as

67. Energy possessed by a body on account of its motion

68. The total reaction force provided by the jet velocity is

69. The piston and gas turbine may be compared as

70. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine

18. A method of comparing engine efficiencies is by 29. Propeller torque is analogous to

2. A bell mouth compressor inlet is used on 12. Intake air turbulence

49. In electrical heating system, the heating element is in

50. Normally the power required for deicing system is of

51. The arrangement used to de-ice turbo propellers

37. Bleed valves are a. four to one. b. two to one.

136. If the RPM of an axial-flow compressor remains

137. The compression ratio of an axial-flow compressor is a

138. At what stage in a turbine engine are gas pressures

139. Compressor stall is caused by

21. A toroidal vortex is 30. Dilution air is placed

27. How is the combustion chamber drain valve closed?

a. argon arc process.* 51. In multichamber CC torch igniters are provided in

69. In lubbock type burners, fuel is supplied to swirl 

70. The spill type burner have a additional passage

1. The three main types of turbine blades are a. Stretch. b. Creep.*

25. Nozzle guide vanes give a 36. On an impulse-reaction turbine blade it is

26. Shrouding of stator blade tips is to 37. Turbine creep effects

89. Which of the following engine variables is the most

90. Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed

91. The highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet engine is the

b. High-temperature fiber self-locking nuts. b. Use super fine granite grit.

88. The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a

89. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a

90. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows though a

91. The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to

92. What is the purpose of the dump valve used on aircraft

93. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle

94. A condition known as "hot streaking" in turbine

10. What bearing is used to take axial loads on a main

19. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity

20. Kerosene is used as turbine engine fuel because.

21. Calorific value is the.

22. The specific gravity of fuel affects.

23. Oil used in a gas turbine engine is usually.

24. An oil spectroscope measures.

25. Ignition of fuel depends upon.

26. Kerosene is used instead of gasoline because.

27. If the specific gravity of a fuel is increased, the weight

71. What is the possible cause when a turbine engine

18. On a FADEC engine. 28. On a FADEC engine, the channel reset

146. It is desirable that fuel lines have a gentle slope upward

184. Generally, the practice when trimming an engine is to

186. Which of the following influences the operation of an

187. What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization

61. A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down in a 

62. Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what

63. Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance

4. The advantage of an air starter system is 14. An H.E.I.U works by

5. An advantage of a gas turbine starter is 15. When is ignition used?

99. It is necessary to determine that the electrical load

b. polyester resin and graphite compound. c. Same as sea level

b. remains relatively constant throughout the starting

214. When using an electric starter motor, the current flow

215. To start a gas tubing engine it is required to