ROENTGENOLOGY

1. Filters are used in the x-ray beam to:

A. increase contrast D. correct the x-ray beam size
B. reduce film density E. remove low energy x-ray photons
C. reduce exposure time

2. The primary cause of radiation damage is:

D. ionization C. genetic damage
E. direct effect D. indirect effect

3.To avoid exposure to secondary radiation when taking radiographs, the dentist should stand:
A. at the back of the patient C. at least 3 feet from the patient
B. next to the patient D. at least 6 feet from the source of secondary radiation

4.The radiographic picture of alveolar bone in cases of periodontitis characteristically shows:

A. vertical resorption C. shrinkage or reduction in size of cancellous spaces
B. horizontal resorption D. accentuation of lamina dura

5.Which of the following structures appear radioluscent on an oral radiograph?

I. Hamular process III. Mandibular canal
II. Genial tubercles IV. Anterior nasal spine V. Medial palatine suture
A. I & II B. II & III C. II & IV D. III & IV E. III & V

6.Fixing solution functions to:

A. accelerate the film processing C. remove the atomic silver
B. remove underdeveloped silver salts D. reduce silver ions to metallic silver.

7. Which of the following structures appear radioluscent on an oral radiograph?

1. medial palatine suture
2. anterior nasal spine
3. mandibular canal
4. genial tubercles
5. hamular process
A. 1,3 B. 1,3,5 C. 1,5 D. 2,3 E. 2,4

8 . Image sharpness on a radiograph is increased by:

A. increasing film speed D. using a large focal spot size
B. using a small focal spot size E. increasing object-film distance
C. decreasing target-skin distance

9. When taking extra-oral radiographs, double intensifying screens and screen films are used to reduce:
A. density C. exposure time
B. contrast D. secondary radiation E. target-skin distance

10. Radiographs of maxillary central and lateral incisors disclose a heart-shaped radioluscency in the midline, with its apex toward the incisal
edge. The teeth are vital. This difference in density is compatible with a diagnosis of:
A. nasoalveolar cyst C. nasopalatine cyst
B. median palatal cyst D. cyst of the incisive papilla E. globulomaxillary cyst

11. The differential diagnosis of radioluscent areas around and close to the apex of the teeth does not included a consideration of the:
A. maxillary sinus C. mental foramen
B. incisive foramen D. mandibular foramen E. none of these

12. The lamina dura is:

A. thin radiolucent line around roots
B. thin radopaque line normally found in radiograph around roots
C. solid layer of bone forming the inner surface of socket
D. thick layer of solid cortical bone
E. none of the choices.

13. Radiopaque tissues:

A. absorb little of the x-rays D. are hollow regions
B. absorb x-rays more fully E. are cysts, granulomas or abscesses
C. none of the choices

14. Radiolucent tissues:

A. absorb x-rays more fully D. absorb little of the x-rays
B. appear as odontomas E. appear as cementum
C. none of the choices
15. Image sharpness on a radiograph is increased by:
A. increasing film speed D. using a large focal spot size
B. increasing object thickness E. increasing object-film distance
C. using a small focal spot size

16.Which of the following structures appear radioluscent on an oral radiograph?

I. Hamular process III. Mandibular canal
II. Genial tubercles IV. Anterior nasal spine V. Medial palatine suture
A. I & II B. II & III C. II & IV D. III & IV E. III & V

17. Radiographic sign of ankylosed teeth:

A. loss of periodontal space C. thick lamina dura
B. wide periodontal space D. break in lamina dura

18. Major radiographic findings in ectodermal dysplasia:

A. ground glass appearance C. supernumerary teeth
B. congenitally missing tooth D. Hutchinson’s teeth E. canal obliteration

19. Radiograhpic diagnosis of dense radiopaque cotton wool area in the body of mandible and is associated with hypercementosis:
A. Enostosis C. osteomyelitis
B. exostosis D. Paget’s disease E. odontoma

20. Earliest radiographic sign of periapical disease of pulpal in origin:

A. loss of lamina dura C. widen periodontal space
B. loss of periodontal space D. break in lamina dura

21. A radiopaque projection distal to the tuberosity of the maxilla maybe:

I. coronoid process III. Mental ridge
II. malar process IV. Mylohyoid ridge V. hamular process
A. II & IV B. I & V C. I & III D. II & III E. II & V

22. The advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting-angle technique is:
A. the increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image
B. the increase object-film distance
C. the greater the magnification of the image
D. that the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through half the angle between the long axis of the teeth and
the film

23. The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique because:
A. positioning the film is easier D. it cuts developing time
B. it uses slow film E. A, B & C
C. it gives a less distorted picture of the length of the tooth

24. If a film is stripped from its pocket and exposed to light, after processing it will:
A. be unaffected B. turn white C. turn black D. be translucent

25. Radiographic film emulsion is:

A. cellulose acetate C. hydroquinone
B. sodium thiosulfate D. gelatin and silver bromide E. calcium tungsten

26. Normal distance from CEJ to alveolar crest is:

A. 0.2 to 0.5mm B. 0.05 to 0.10mm C. 2.25 to 3.0mm D. 1.0 to 1.5mm

27. The differential diagnosis of radioluscent areas around and close to the apex of the teeth does not included a consideration of the:
A. maxillary sinus C. mental foramen
B. incisive foramen D. mandibular foramen E. none of these

28.The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is:
A. hydroquinone C. sodium carbonate
B. sodium sulfite D. potassium bromide E. none of these.

29. To avoid exposure to secondary radiation when taking radiographs, the dentist should stand:
A. at the back of the patient C. at least 3 feet from the patient
B. next to the patient D. at least 6 feet from the source of secondary
radiation

30.Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus?

A. J-shell electron C. L-shell electron
B. K-shell electron D. Q-shell electron E. none.

31. A unilocular radioluscent lesion in the area of a missing tooth where a tooth should have developed is termed:
A. cementoma B. fissural cyst C. immature central fibroma D. primodial cyst.
32. Which of the ffg is a hardening agent in film processing?
A. acetic acid C. potassium alum
B. potassium bromide m D. potassium hydroxide E. none.

33. Collimation of a beam refers to be:

A. selective removal of soft radiation from the beam
B. selective removal of hard radiation from the beam
C. reduction of the beam diameter
D. none of these.

34.The techniques that show the upper and lower crowns on the same radiograph is called the:
A. bisecting angle technique C. paralleling technique
B. bite wing technique D. occlusal technique E. none.

35.Soap bubble radioluscency of the mandible:

A. ameloblastoma B. fibrous dysplasia C. compound odontoma D. dentiogerous cyst

36.Cotton wool appearance on the radiograph:

A. pagets disease B. fibrous dysplasia C. ossifying fibroma D. osteomyelitis.

37.The purpose of filtering an x-ray beam is to:

A. reduce beam diameter
B. reduce scatter radiation
C. remove low energy radiation
D. remove hard penetrating power of x-ray
E. none of these.

38.Teeth with high degree of amberlike translucency and a variety of colors from yellow to blue gray and crowns readily wear:
A. amelogenesis imperfecta
B. dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. dentin dysplasia
D. odontodysplasia
E. none.

39. It is a localized growth of compact bone that extend from the inner surface of cortical bone into the cancellous bone:
A. exostoses
B. tuberosity
C. torus palatinus
D. torus mandibularis
E. none.

40.In object localization,, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in question appears to move distally, then the object is said to be on the :
A. buccal
B. lingual
C. mesial
D. distal
E. none of these.

41.Methods to reduce magnification: 1. Use a small focal spot 2. Increase focal spot to film distance 3. Increase FSFD 4. Decrease object to
film distance 5. Increase object to film distance.
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 4 & 5 E. none.

42. SLOB means :

A. Side of Lingual is Opposite the Buccal
B. Same Left Opposite the Buccal
C. same Lingual Over Buccal
D. Same Lingual Opposite Buccal
E. none of these.

43. The central ray and film in paralleling technique are:

A. Perpendicular
B. Parallel
C. Side by Side
D. Along the long axis
E. none.

44. In Bisecting Angle Technique, the Bisector and central ray are:
A. Parallel
B. Side by Side
C. Perpendicular
D. Along the long axis
45. As the kilovoltage is decreased, energy of the x-ray beam :
A. decrease
B. increase
C. is lost
D. is the same
E. none of these.

46.Made up of molybdenum:
A. filament
B. focusing cup
C. target
D. anode
E. cathode.

47. Process of removing low energy photons from the x-ray beam:
A. collimation
B. ionization
C. filtration
D. excitation
E. none of these.

48 .Radiation coming directly from the target of the tube: A. Primary radiation B. Secondary Radiation C. Scatter Radiation D. Leakage
Radiation E. Stray Radiation.

49. Radiation that emanates from parts of the tube other than the focal spot. :
A. Primary radiation
B. Secondary Radiation
C. Scatter Radiation
D. Leakage Radiation
E. Stray Radiation.

50. Radiation that changed its direction during the Interaction of x-ray with matter.
A. Primary radiation
B. Secondary Radiation
C. Scatter Radiation
D. Leakage Radiation
E. Stray Radiation.

51.Image is limited to the coronal one third of the teeth and related structures:
A. Periapical film
B. Bitewing film
C. Occlusal film
D. Screen film
E. none.

52. Panoramic, skull and cephalometric radiography:

A. Periapical film
B. Bitewing film
C. Occlusal film
D. Screen film
E. none.

53.It determines the relationship of impacted tooth/teeth to the surrounding structures.:

A. Periapical film
B. Bitewing film
C. Occlusal film
D. Screen film
E. none.

54. Symmetric widening of the periodontal ligament space about one or more teeth is the earliest characteristic radiographic manifestation of:
A. osteosarcoma D. Paget’s disease of bone
B. multiple myeloma E. metastatic carcinoma of the breast.
C. fibrous dysplasia

55. The most usual cause of light radiograph is:

A. over-developing the film
B. using an exhausted developer
C. using low kilovoltage
D. placing the shielded slide of the film toward the tube during exposure
56 A dentist is using a film badge service to measure his radiation exposure. The report from the film badge service indicates that the badge was
exposed to 475 ,millirems in the previous month. This dentist should:
A. stop taking radiographs immediately
B. use lower speed film to reduce MaS
C. report to a physician for a blood count
D. increase target-film distance
E. re-evaluate his radiation hygiene procedures

57 Radiographs of an asymptomatic 20-year old patient showed a sharply outlined, 2cm radioluscency in the mandibular first molar area which
scalloped between the roots of the vital teeth. These findings suggest a:
A. dentigerous cyst C. compound odontoma
B. radicular cyst D. simple bone cyst

58. Which of the following can be demonstrated on conventional TMJ radiographs?

I. A perforation in the articular disk
II. Positions of condyle in the glenoid fossa
III. The range of anteroposterior movement of condyles
IV. Areas of bone destruction on condylar heads
V. Relationships between hard and soft tissue structures in the joint
A. I, II & V B. I, III & IV C. II, III & IV D. II, III & V E. III, IV & V

59. The primary purpose of a lead diaphragm within the cone of an x-ray tubehead is to:
A. reduce or eliminate tubehead leakage
B. eliminate long wavelength x-ray photons
C. increase penetrating qualities of the beam
A. restrict size and shape of the beam of radiation

60. Salient radiographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly describe as “hair-on-end” end effect and
generalized osteoporosis:
A. aplastic anemia C. polycythemia
B. sickle-cell anemia D. pernicious anemia E. none of these

61. Which of the following are examples of nonparticulate radiation energy?

I. X-rays II. Electrons III. Gamma rays IV. Beta rays
A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV

62. Each of the following represents an appropriate rationale for obtaining a dental radiographic examination, except:
A. A patient experiences intermittent pain in a tooth.
B. A patient’s tooth is mobile
C. A patient’s maxillary canine has not erupted
D. A patient has presented for a six-month, periodic examination.

63. Which of the following cells are the most radioresistant to cell death>
A. Lymphocytes C. Granulocytes
B. Erythroblasts D. Epithelial cells E. Muscle cells

64. A decrease in which of the following causes an increase in radiographic density?

A. MA B. kVp C. Object-film-distance D. Source-object distance

65. Ameloblastoma of the mandible is similar radiographically to which of the following conditions?
A. Osteosarcoma C. Pindborg tumor
B. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma D. Central giant cell granuloma

66. In performing normal dental diagnostic procedures, the operator receives the greatest hazard from which type of radiation?
A. direct primary beam C. secondary
B. scatter D. gamma E. secondary and scatter

67. Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion include each of the following, except:
A. Hypercementosis D. Root resorption
B. Alteration of the lamina dura E. Alteration of the periodontal space
C. Vascular infiltration of the periodontal ligament

68. A patient, age 45, has pain in the jaw. On radiographs of the jaw, several small, regular, distinct, radiolucent lesions are seen. The
laboratory tests show Bence Jones protein in the urine. The patient probably has:
A. fibrosarcoma C. multiple myeloma
B. osteosarcoma D. metastatic carcinoma
69. Radiographic diagnosis of dense radiopaque cotton-wool areas throughtout the entire body of the mandible and associated with
hypercementosis is most likely:
A. enostosis C. osteomyelitis
B. exostosis D. Paget’s disease E. multiple odontoma

70. In x-ray equipment, milliamperage controls the:

1. penetrating power of the radiation
2. temperature of the cathode filament
3. speed of the electrons
4. amount of radiation produced
5. contrast
A. 1,2 B. 1,3,5 C. 2,3,4 D. 2,4 E. 3,5

71. Radiographic diagnosis of a dense radiopaque mass extending from the lingual surface of the anterior mandible.
A. hyperplastic bone C. exostosis
B. hypertrophy of bone D. root fragments E. none of these

72. In radiobiology, the “latent period” represents the period of time between:
A. cell rest and cell mitosis
B. the first and last dose in radiation therapy
C. film exposure and image development
D. radiation exposure and onset of symptoms

73.Which of the following cells are the most radioresistant to cell death>
A. Phocytes C. Granulocytes
B. Erythroblasts D. Epithelial cells E. Muscle cells

74. Ameloblastoma of the mandible is similar radiographically to which of the following conditions?
A. Osteosarcoma C. Pindborg tumor
B. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma D. Central giant cell granuloma

75. Normal distance from CEJ to alveolar crest is:

A. 0.2 to 0.5mm B. 0.05 to 0.10mm C. 2.25 to 3.0mm D. 1.0 to 1.5mm

76. Salient radiographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly describe as “hair-on-end” end effect and
generalized osteoporosis:
A. aplastic anemia C. polycythemia
B. sickle-cell anemia D. pernicious anemia E. none of these

77. The radiographic picture of alveolar bone in cases of periodontitis characteristically shows:
A. vertical resorption C. shrinkage or reduction in size of cancellous spaces
B. horizontal resorption D. accentuation of lamina dura

78. Which of the following are important and serious effects of repeated exposure to low doses of x-radiation?
I. Purpura III. Genetic mutation
II. Carcinogenesis IV. Diarrhea and dehydration
V. Alteration of the oral microflora
A. I & II B. I & V C. II & III D. II & IV E. III & IV

79. Which of the following can be demonstrated on conventional TMJ radiographs?

I. A perforation in the articular disk
II. Positions of condyle in the glenoid fossa
III. The range of anteroposterior movement of condyles
IV. Areas of bone destruction on condylar heads
V. Relationships between hard and soft tissue structures in the joint
A. I, II & V B. I, III & IV C. II, III & IV D. II, III & V E. III, IV & V

80.To avoid exposure to secondary radiation when taking radiographs, the dentist should stand:
A. at the back of the patient
B. at least 3 feet from the patient
B. next to the patient
D. at least 6 feet from the source of secondary radiation

81. The recommended permissible radiation exposure level per week for non-occupationally exposed individuals is:
A. 10mR. B. 100mR. C. 1R. D. 10 R. E. 100 R.

82. Which of the following is a major radiographic finding in ectodermal dysplasia?

A. Osteoporosis D. a ground-glass appearance of bone
B. Hutchinson’s teeth E. calcification of the falx cerebri
C. Congenitally missing teeth
83. Which of the following appears as a radiolucency associated with the apex of a single vital tooth?
A. residual cyst C. traumatic bone cyst
B. periapical cyst D. periapical granuloma E. none of the choices

84. The speed with which electrons travel from the filament of the cathode to the target of the anode depends upon the
A. Potential difference between the two electrodes
B. Number of milliamperes in the tube circuit
C. Angle between the filament and the target
D. Voltage in the filament circuit
E. Size of the electron cloud

85. Salient radiographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly describe as “hair-on-end” effect and generalized
osteoporosis:
A. aplastic anemia C. polycythemia
B. sickle-cell anemia D. pernicious anemia E. none of these

86. Which of the following are important and serious effects of repeated exposure to low doses of x-radiation?
I Purpura III. Genetic mutation
II Carcinogenesis IV. Diarrhea and dehydration
V. Alteration of the oral microflora
A. I & II B. I & V C. II & III D. II & IV E. III & IV

87. Which of the following can be demonstrated on conventional TMJ radiographs?

I A perforation in the articular disk
II Positions of condyle in the glenoid fossa
III The range of anteroposterior movement of condyles
IV Areas of bone destruction on condylar heads
V Relationships between hard and soft tissue structures in the joint
A. I, II & V B. I, III & IV C. II, III & IV D. II, III & V E. III, IV & V

88. Which of the following is a reactive lesion of the gingival that may demonstrate bone radiographically and often demonstrate bone formation
microscopically?
A. Osteoma C. pyogenic granuloma
B. traumatic neuroma D. irritation fibroma E. peripheral ossifying fibroma

89. Radiographs of an asymptomatic 19-year old patient disclose a well demarcated, biloculated, 3x2 cm radiolucency in the area of left
mandibular molars. Each of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis, except
A. Ameloblastoma D. odontogenic keratocyst
B. Cementoblastoma E. central giant cell granuloma
C. Traumatic bone cyst

90. Radiographic film emulsion is:

A. cellulose acetate C. hydroquinone
B. sodium thiosulfate D. gelatin and silver bromide E. calcium tungsten

91. Normal distance from CEJ to alveolar crest is:

A. 0.2 to 0.5mm B. 0.05 to 0.10mm C. 2.25 to 3.0mm D. 1.0 to 1.5mm

92. A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to

A. reduce secondary radiation
B. avoid magnification of the image
C. avoid distortion of image shape
D. avoid superimposition of anatomic structures
A. facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone

93.. Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus?
A. J-shell electron C. L-shell electron
B. K-shell electron D. Q-shell electron E. both B & C

94. In object localization,, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in question appears to move distally, then the object is said to be on the :
A. buccal B. lingual C. mesial D. distal E. none of these.

95. Radiographic findings in the region of the mandibular symphysis represents:

A. an alveolus D. a spongy bone
B. lingual cortical bone E. none of the choices
C. a radiopaque circular area with a central dark spot in the midline

96. On intraoral radiographs individual variations exist in the :

A. insertion of the geniohyoid muscle D. insertion of the genio-glossus muscle
B. lingual foramen and bony wall E. none of the choices
C. orientation and number of the nutrient canals in the genial tubercle
97. The absence of lamina dura in a radiographic examination indicates:
A. presence of calculus D. Protein deficient diet
B. a local disturbance in alveolar bone E. systemic skeletal disease.
C. Vitamin B deficiency

98. Radiographs of the jaws may lead to the initial finding of the presence of:
A. tuberculosis D. anomaly
B. systemic skeletal disease E. inflammation of the jaws
C. degeneration or necrosis in the jaws

99. When taking a bite wing film, the direction and angulation of the central ray is:
A. 5° above the horizontal plane D. 10° to the left of vertical plane
B. 10° above the horizontal plane E. 10° below the horizontal plane
C. 10° to the right of vertical plane

100. A radiopaque curved line extends down to the alveolar border of an edentulous maxilla. The line enclosed a large radiolucent area which is
the:
A. radicular cyst of maxilla D. thin septum of the maxillary sinus
B. ameloblastoma of maxilla E. none of the choices
C. alveolar extension of the maxillary sinus

101. Radiographically disuse atrophy of bone appears:

A. soap bubble C. radiolucent suggesting destruction of bone
B. radopaque D. extreme calcification E. none of these.

102. Radiographically, an odontoma may be present and contained in a large radiolucent circular area representing:
A. compound composite odontoma D. dilated odontoma
B. cystic odontoma E. none of the choices
C. complex composite odontoma