THOAI NGOC HAU HIGH SCHOOL THE FIRST TRIAL ENTRANCE EXAM TO UNIVERSITY

FOR THE GIFTED Time allotted: 60 minutes

Full name: ____________________ School year: 2018-2019
Class:12 ___
ĐỀ NGHỊ
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that
of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. laundry B. iron C. ingredient D. cream
2. A. society B. sociable C. groceries D. finance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. catastrophic B. fertilizer C. preservation D. electronic
4. A. particular B. environment C. curriculum D. circumstances

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
5. Too much water makes plants turning brown on the edges of their leaves.
A B C D
6. During our tour of the refinery, it was seen that both propane and gasoline were produced
A B C
in large volumes.
D
7. A lot of people stop smoking because they are afraid their health will be affected and early death.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
8. No matter how angry he was, he would never ______ to violence.
A. refuse B. resist C. resolve D. resort
9. They live on a busy road. ______ a lot of noise from traffic.
A. It must be B. There must be C. There must have D. It must have been
10. The children made ______ a funny story and wrote it on the card.
A. for B. out C. off D. up
11. He always ___________ the crosswords in the newspaper before breakfast.
A. writes B. makes C. works D. does
12. Geometry is a branch of mathematics ______ the properties of lines, curves, shapes, and surfaces.
A. that it is concerned with B. that concerning with
C. concerned with D. that concerned with
13. The sales assistants are so ___________; they spend more time chatting to each other than serving customers.
A. helpless B. unhelpful C. helping D. helped
14. The new manger found the situation so complicated that he couldn’t see the wood for the ______________.
A. leaf B. fruits C. wood D. trees
15. He is a very intelligent boy; ______, he sometimes gets bad marks.
A. otherwise B. so C. however D. thus
16. The instructor blew his whistle and_____.
A. off the runners were running B. off ran the runners
C. off were running the runners D. the runners run off
17. He came ______ a lot of criticism for the remarks he made in a television interview.
A. out of B. in for C. off D. over.
18. The new lecturer talks so fast that we often get ______________during class time.
A. lost B. missing C. boring D. far
19. Our boss would rather____ during the working hours.
A. us not chatting B. we didn’t chat C. us not chat D. we don’t chat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the followings.
20. Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. setting up B. growing well C. closing down D. taking up
21. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s outstanding humanitarianism.
A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
22. Inadequate supply of oxygen to the blood can cause death within minutes.
A. Nonexistent B. Sufficient C. Rich D. Useful
23. Vietnam’s admission to the World Trade Organization (WTO) has promoted its trade relations with other
countries.
A. expanded B. balanced C. boosted D. restricted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
24. Tom is talking to Mary at the meeting room.
Tom : “There aren’t many people here yet, are there?”
Mary: “___________________”
A. Yes, not many yet. B. No, but it’s still early.
C. Yes, I think so. D. No, there are.
25. Stephanie is talking to Scott about the speech that he delivered this morning.
Stephanie: “Your speech this morning was just beyond my expectation.”
Scott: “______”
A. It’s OK. B. Not at all. It was just OK.
C. It was my pleasure. D. Thanks. Without your help, I couldn’t have.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
26. The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
B. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
C. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.
D. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
27. Soil erosion is a result of forests being cut down carelessly.
A. That forests are being cut down carelessly results from soil erosion.
B. That forests are being cut down carelessly leads to soil erosion.
C. Soil erosion results in forests being cut down carelessly.
D. Soil erosion contributes to forests being cut down carelessly.
28. “You shouldn’t have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane.
 A. Jane accused Frank of having cheated the press with their confidential report.
B. Jane criticized Frank for having disclosed their confidential report to the press.
C. Jane suspected that Frank had leaked their confidential report to the press.
D. Jane blamed Frank for having flattered the press with their confidential report.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
29. We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay for the night.
B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further but stayed for the night.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
30. They drove fifteen miles off the main road. Also, they had nothing to eat for the day.
A. They drove fifteen miles off the main road until they had something to eat for the day.
B. They neither drove fifteen miles off the main road nor had anything to eat for the day.
C. Driving fifteen miles off the main road, they eventually had something to eat for the day.
D. Not only did they drive fifteen miles off the main road, they also had nothing to eat for the day.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Human activity has (31) _______ altered the natural distribution of forests through history. Deforestation and
habitat destruction is severely crippling the rain forest ecosystem. Rain forests are being destroyed at a (32)_______ of
78 million acres (31 million hectares) per year; an area larger than Poland. With habitat destruction (33) _______ loss of
species. The World Resources Institute predicts that deforestation rates of 15 million hectares will reduce species in the
closed canopy forests by 35% by 2040. In Brazil, the estimated average rate of destruction between 1979 – 1990 was 5.4
million acres per year. In 2003 a record 10,000 square miles of Brazil was cleared.
Deforestation causes a multitude of effects on the natural environment. Vegetation is degraded (34) ________ a
loss of nutrient-rich litter and microorganisms to decompose organic matter. The loss of shade accelerates leaching, soil
(35) _______ and drying. The hard surface caused by baking impedes water infiltration causing excess runoff and
flooding. In addition to the effect on the local vegetation and hydrology, forest removal impacts atmospheric
composition, evapotranspiration, and precipitation.
31. A. effectively B. drastically C. violently D. aggressively
32. A. rate B. level C. rank D. degree
33. A. it comes B. comes C. does it come D. come
34. A. due to B. in spite of C. but for D. on condition of
35. A. washing B. decay C. exhaust D. erosion

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.
Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more
popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge gained
during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville signed as a cabin boy on
a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip
served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841, Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South
Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island
sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a
U.S. naval frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White Jacket
(1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman.
With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following
among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby
Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white
whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe. The public was
not ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic
that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known
today.

36. The main subject of the passage is_______.

A. Melville's travels B. the popularity of Melville's novels
C. Melville's personal background D. Moby Dick
37. According to the passage, Melville's early novels were_______.
A. published while he was traveling B. completely fictional
C. all about his work on whaling ships D. based on his travel experience
38. The word "basis" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. background B. message C. bottom D. dissertation
39. The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because _______.
A. he had unofficially left his ship B. he was on leave while his ship was in port
C. he had finished his term of duty D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti
40. A "frigate" in paragraph 1 is probably_______.
A. an office B. a ship C. a troop D. a fishing boat
41. How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville's popularity?
A. His popularity increased immediately. B. It had no effect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease. D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.
42. According to the passage, Moby Dick is _______.
A. a romantic adventure B. a single-faceted work
C. a short story about a whale D. symbolic of humanity fighting the universe
43. The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on ________.
A. nineteenth-century novels B. American history
C. oceanography D. modern American literature

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a
substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank
among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer
greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying
interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to
develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways.
Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking
arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat,
nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to
an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate.
Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken
livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have
been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children
who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in
salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made
popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book Why your Child is Hyperactive. Other researchers have
had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
44. The topic of this passage is ________.
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
45. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ________.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
46. The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to ________.
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
47. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
48. The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to ________.
A. overly active B. unusually low activity C. excited D. inquisitive
49. The word "these" refers to ________.
A. food additives B. food colorings
C. innutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates
50. According to the article, the Feingold diet is NOT ________.
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives

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