Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
PHYSICS
LAWS OF MOTION
1. If a car accelerates uniformly from rest and attains a speed of 40 m/s in 10 seconds, it covers a distance of
(a) 200m (b)300m (c)356m (d)142m
2. In 15 minutes, a car whose speed is 36 km/h, travels a distance of
(a) 9km (b)4m (c)9m (d)7km
3. When a body moves in a circle, the work done on it is
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c)Zero (d)none of these
4. A body goes from A to B with a velocity of 20 m/s and comes back from B to A with a velocity of 30 m/s.
The average velocity of the body during the whole journey is
(a)Zero (b) 24m/s (c) 25m/s (d) none of these
5. A velocity-time graph with a line parallel to time axis always represents
(a)Zero velocity (b) constant velocity (c) increasing velocity (d) uniform velocity
6. Which of the following is not the characteristic of displacement?
(a)It can be zero (b) it is always positive
(c) It has both magnitude and direction (d) none of these
7. A body moves in a uniform circular motion, then
(a) Its acceleration is zero (b) It is moving with constant velocity
(c) The body has acceleration (d) none of these
8. If a particle travels equal distance in equal interval of time, it is said to
(a)Be at rest (b) Move with constant speed
(c)Move with uniform acceleration (d) Move with uniform acceleration
9. In uniform circular motion
(a) The direction of motion is fixed (b) Velocity remains constant
(c) Acceleration is zero (d) Speed remains constant
10. If a bus accelerates uniformly from rest to attain the speed of 144 km/h in 20 seconds it covers a distance of
(a) 200m (b) 400m (c) 600m (d) 800m
11. Circular motion is a/an___________ motion even when the speed remain constant
(a)Constant (b) Velocity (c) Accelerated (d) Retarded
12. Which of the following cannot be zero?
(a)Distance (b) Displacement (c) Velocity (d) none of these
13. The motion of a freely falling body is an example of
(a)Uniform motion (b) accelerated motion (c) Non uniform motion (d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’
14. The speed of running car at any instant of time is shown by an instrument called
(a)Speedometer (b) Odometer (c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) none of these
15. If the velocity of the body is increased by 50% the momentum increases by
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 25%
(a) The body is at rest (b) The body has some initial speed
(c) The body moves with constant speed (d) The body moves with constant velocity.
20. If the velocity of a body does not change, its acceleration is
(a) 0 (b) Infinity (c) Unity (d) None of these
21. In a circular motion, the acceleration [CET 2010]
(a)along the tangent (b)along the radius
(c)along the circumference (d)is zero
GRAVITATION
30. The value of g is minimum at
(a)poles (b)equator (c)centre of earth (d)surface of earth
31. Weight is___________ quantity
(a)scalar (b)vector (c)both (d)none
32. What is the value of escape velocity on the surface of the earth?
(a)9.8 m/s (b)9.8km/s (c)11.16m/s (d)11.16km/s
33. If the distance between two objects is doubled thenthe Gravitational Force between them will become
(a)double (b)half (c)one fourth (d)four times
34. When a body is thrown upwards then its
(a)initial velocity is zero (b)final velocity is zero
(c)final velocity is maximum (d)all of these
35. What is the S.I unit of Gravitational constant ?
(a)Nm/Kg (b)Nm2/Kg (c)Nm/Kg2 (d)Nm2/Kg 2
36. The value of g at the centre of the earth is
(a)zero (b)maximum (c)minimum (d) 9.8 m/s2
37. The Universal Law of Gravitation was given by
(a)Kepler (b)Galileo (c)Newton (d)Archimedes
38. An object of mass ‘m’ on the earth when measured on the surface of moon has mass
(a)same as on earth (b)zero (c)m/6 (d)6m
SOUND
53. The speed of sound is maximum in
(a)gases (b)solids (c)liquids (d)vacuum
54. Sound waves in air are
(a)longitudinal (b)transverse (c)radio waves (d)electromagnetic waves
55. The loudness of sound depends on
(a)frequency (b)amplitude (c)speed (d)wavelength
56. Persistence of sound after reflection is called
(a)echo (b)reverberation (c)acoustics (d)absorption
57. The wave in which the particles of medium travels at right angles to the direction of motion of wave is
called
(a)transverse wave (b)longitudinal wave
(c)electromagnetic wave (d)mechanical wave
58. If the temperature is increased then the velocity of sound
(a)increases (b)decreases (c)remains same (d)none of these
59. Decreasing order of speed of sound [CET 2010]
(a)iron>aluminium>granite>air (b)aluminium>air>iron>granite
(c)aluminium>granite>iron>air (d)air>iron>granite>aluminium
MISCELLANEOUS PHYSICS
60. The energy in satellite is obtained from [CET 2010]
(a)92U235 (b)CNG (c)Hydrogen (d)Solar Cells
61. The frequency of a tuning Fork is 200 Hz. Its periodic time will be
(a) 10-2s (b) 2x10-2s (c) 5x10-2 s (d) 5x10-3s
62. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?
(a) Waves of visible light (b) Radio waves (c) Sound waves (d) X-ray waves
63. The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is
(a) 0.25 m (b) 0.50 m (c) 25 m (d) Infinite
64. The image of an object formed by a convex lens is enlarged and erect when the object is placed
(a) Between f and 2f (c) At a distance greater than 2f
(c) Between the focus of the lens and its optical centre (d) at a distance equal to 2f
65. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The velocity of light in glass will be
(a) 3 x 108 m/s (b) 2 x108 m/s (c) 1.5 x108 m/s (d) 1x108 m/s
66. A ray of light travelling in air falls on the surface of the transparent medium. The angle of incidence is 450
and the angle of refraction is 300. The refractive index of the medium will be
(a) 2√2 (b) 2 (c) √3 (d) √2
67. How many resistances of 6 ohms should be joined in parallel to draw a current of 2 amperes from a battery
of 3 volts?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
68. The biggest planet in the solar system is
(a) Earth (b) Mars (c) Mercury (d) Jupiter
69. Modern solar cells are made of
(a) Iron (b) Cobalt (c) Silicon (d) Helium
70. A bullet is fired from a gun and as a result the gun recoils backward. The kinetic energy of the gun will be
(a) Less than that of the bullet (b) Greater than that of the bullet
(c) Equal to that the bullet (d) May less then, greater than, or equal to that of the bullet
71. A stone dropped from the top of a tower reaches the earth in 4 s. The height of the tower is [g=10 m/s2]
(a) 20 m (b) 40 m (c) 80 m (d) 160 m
72. The basic source of sun’s energy is [CET 2007]
(a) Nuclear fusion (b) Nuclear fission (c) Methane (d) Solar cell
73. The planets revolve around the sun in closed_______path. [CET 2009]
(a) Circular (b) Spherical (c) Elliptical (d) Rectangular
74. How many crystals of water are attached with one formula unit of Copper Sulphate?
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 10
75. The time period of a simple pendulum in a lift descending with constant acceleration g is
111. A man is standing between the two mirror inclined at an angle of 60°. The number of images that he will
be able to see is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3
112. For a telescope, length of tube, L is
(a) f0-fe (b) f0xfe (c) f0+fe (d) f0/fe
113. The lens present in eyes is
(a) Convex (b) Concave (c) Plane (d) None of these
114. The impression or sensation remains on the retina for about how many second even after removal of the
object?
(a) 1 second (b) 1/16 second (c) 16 second (d) 1 minute
115. 1 coulomb is equivalent to the charge of [CET 2009]
(a) One electron (b) 6.023x10 electrons (c) 6.25x1918 electrons (d) none of these
23
142. If an object placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors, inclined at an angle of 72° then total no. of
image formed is
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) infinite
143. Two adjacent walls and the ceiling of a rectangular room is mirror surfaced. The number of images of
himself that an observer see is given by
(a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 8
144. Laws of reflection are true for
(a) Plane mirror only (b) Convex mirror only
(c) Concave mirror only (d) All type of mirror
145. A candle flame, 3 cm high is at 10 cm from a diverging lens of focal length 15 cm, the size of image will
be
(a) 1.8 cm (b) 2.4 cm (c) 3.2 cm (d) 3.8 cm
146. Which of the following types of mirrors are used to collect heat in solar furnaces?
(a) Plane mirror (b) Convex mirror (c) concave mirror (d) All of these
147. If ‘f’ is the focal length and ‘R’ is Radius of curvature of a spherical mirror, then
(a) R=f /2 (b) R=2f (c) R=3f (d) R= 4f
148. Magnification of a convex mirror is always
(a) Equal to 1 (b) Less than 1 (c) More than 1 (d) Infinity
149. Find the position and the size of the image formed by a spherical mirror from the following data. u = -20
cm, f = -15 cm, h = -1.0 m
(a) -50cm, -3.0cm (b) -60cm, -4.0cm (c) -60cm, -3.0cm (d) -50cm, -4.0cm
150. A ray, emerging from a point on the object, passing through the centre of curvature C strikes the mirror
normally i.e. at 90°, then the angle of incidence is equal to [CET 2008]
(a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 90° (d) 180°
151. The magnification m of an image formed by a spherical mirror is negative. It means the image is
(a) Smaller than the object (b) Larger than the object (c) Erect (d) Inverted
152. What is the value of critical angle of Diamond?
(a) 2.42° (b) 24° (c) 22° (d) 42°
153. Where an object should be placed in front a convex lens to get a real image of the size of the object?
(a) At the focus of lens (b) At twice the focus length
(c) At Infinity (d) between the optical centre and its focus
154. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the speed of light in Diamond?
(a) 1.60 x 10 8 m/s (b) 1.24 x 108 m/s (c) 1.36 x 108 m/s (d) 2.42 x 108 m/s
155. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is placed in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. What
is the power of the combination?
(a) -1.5 D (b) 10 D (c) +1.5 D (d) +2.0 D
156. Calculate the distance at which an object should be placed in front of a thin convex lens of focal length
10 cm to obtain a virtual image of double its size.
(a) -5cm (b) 10 cm (c) 40cm (d) 12 cm
157. Find the focal length of a lens power -2.0 D. What type of lens is this?
(a) -50 cm, concave (b) 50 cm, convex (c) -0.50cm, concave (d) 0.50cm, convex
158. A convex lens of focal length 15cm forms an image 10cm from the lens. How far the object placed from
the lens?
(a) -20cm (b) 30cm (c) -6cm (d) -30cm
159. Frequency (f) and Wavelength (λ) Velocity(v) of a wave are related as
(a) f=vλ (b) λ=fv (c) v=fλ (d) λ=f/v
160. A lens is of focal length -40cm. What is its power?
(a) 3.5 D (b) -2.5 D (c) -.35 D (d) 2.5 D
161. A diverging or concave lens of focal length 15cm forms an image 10cm from the lens. Find the distance
of the lens from object.
(a) 30cm (b) -20cm (c) -30cm (d) 20cm
162. A person having a myopic eye uses a concave lens of focal length 10cm. What is the power of lens?
(a) -11 D (b) 10 D (c) 11 D (d) -10 D
163. A bulb is rated as 220 V,100 W. What will be its power if it is operated at 110 V [CET 2010]
(a)10 W (b)15 W (c)25 W (d)50 W
164. The Refractive index of Diamond is
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.33 (c) 2.42 (d) 1.8
165. A convex lens is also called a
(a) Diverging lens (b) Converging lens (c) Cylindrical lens (d) None of these
166. Power of a convex lens of focal length 50cm is
(a) -2 D (b) -1/2 D (c) 2 D (d) ½ D
167. The Air Molecules scatter the blue color more than any color, hence the sky appears
(a) Blue (b) Red (c) Yellow (d) White
168. When ray light enters from water to glass, it bends
(a) Towards normal (b) Away from normal
(c) Neither towards nor away from normal (d) cannot say
169. If the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle, the angle of reflection will be
(a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 90° (d) 180°
170. The focal length of a lens is -0.4m. The lens is
(a) Convex (b) Concave (c) Cylindrical (d) None of these
171. When light goes from one medium to another, the characteristic that remains unaffected is
(a) Speed (b) Direction (c) Wavelength (d) Frequency
172. Light travels the fastest in
(a) Vacuum (b) Air (c) Glass (d) Diamond
173. Which of the following diagram correctly represents the ray of light passing through the optical centre?
191. If a 500 W heater carries a current of 4.0 A, the voltage across the ends of the heating element is
(a) 2000 V (b) 125 V (c) 250 V (d) 0.008 V
192. Four resistors of 10Ω each are joined to form a square. The equivalent resistance between any two
opposite corners of the combination will be
(a) 10/4Ω (b) 5Ω (c) 10Ω (d) 20Ω
193. Three wires of copper, iron and Nichrome of equal length and equal diameter are joined in series to an
electric circuit. If the rates of heat produced in them are Hc,Hi and Hn respectively, then
(a) Hc>Hi>HN (b) Hn>Hi>Hc (c) Hi>HN>Hc (d) HI = Hc>HN
194. The largest and the smallest resistance that can be obtained by combining 10 resistors of 0.1Ω each will
respectively
(a) 10Ω and 1Ω (b) 1Ω and 0.1Ω (c) 1Ω and 0.01Ω (d) 10Ω and 0.1Ω
195. If ‘A’ is the amplitude of a pendulum and ‘v’ is the velocity at mean position. If the amplitude is doubled
then its velocity will become [CET 2010]
(a)double (b)half (c)four times (d)one fourth
196. Two electric bulbs of 60 W each are connected in series. The total power consumed will be
(a) 120 W (b) 90 W (c) 60 W (d) 30 W
197. You are given ‘n’ resistors each of resistance ‘R’, which you can connect in series or in parallel or in a
mixed combination. The ratio between the maximum and the minimum value of the resistance will be
(a) n (b) n2 (c) n/R (d) R/n
198. A person cannot distinguish between red and green colors. This defect is due to malfunctioning of the
part of his eye called
(a) Rods cells (b) Cones cells (c) Ciliary muscles (d) Cornea
199. Charge Q flows between two points A and B in time t. The potential difference between A and B is V
and the current is I. The work done in moving the charge is
(a) VQ (b) VI (c) VQt (d) VQ/t
200. Consider two long, straight parallel wires each carrying a current I. If the current in the two wires is
flowing in opposite directions, then the two wires will
(a) Attract each other (b) repel each other
(a) Exert a torque on each other (d) not exert any force
(a) Infra-red rays (b) Ultraviolet rays (c) X-rays (d) Gamma rays
201. What is Hydro-electric power?
(a) Electricity generated in dams by falling water (b) Power generated by sea tides
(c) Electric power in water (d) None of these
202. Speed of sound is maximum in
(a) Vacuum (b) Solids (c) Liquids (d) Gases
203. Dalton’s Atomic Theory proposes that –In a chemical change atoms
(a) are destroyed (b) are converted into new and different kinds of atoms
(c) are created (d) can neither be created nor be destroyed
204. For the maximum projectile range, the angle of projectile should be S [CET 2010]
(a)00 (b)300 (c)450 (d)90 0
205. Wind energy is
CHEMISTRY
Matter in our surroundings
1. A substances having a definite shape & definite volume is called
(a) Solid (b) Plasma (c) Liquid (d) Gas
2. The temperature at which a liquid changes into solid by giving out heat energy is called
(a) Melting point (b) Boiling point (c) Freezing point (d) Critical point
3. The boiling point of water occurs at
(a) 373, 273 K (b) 0, 273 K (c) 273, 373 K (d) 100, 373 K
o
4. The physical state of water at 10 C is
(a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Gas (d) May be solid or liquid
5. In which substances, intermolecular force is strongest
(a) NaCl(s) (b) Water (c) CO2 (g) (d) Alcohol
6. Intermolecular force is maximum in
(a) A solid at 298 k (b) A solid at 373 k (c) A gas (d) A liquid
7. 300K temperature may be written in Celsius scale as
(a) 300 o C (b) 127o C (c) 27 o C (d) 573o C
8. The solid that can sublime is/are
(a) Camphor (b) Dry ice (c) Napthalene (d) All of these
9. The substance which can readily sublime is
(a) Ammonium Chloride (b) Sodium Chloride (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Chlorine gas
29. 10.0g of CaCO3 on heating gave 4.4g of CO2 and 5.6g of CaO. The observation is in agreement with the
(a ) Law of constant composition (b) Law of conservation of mass
(c) Law of definite proportion (d) Law of multiple proportion
30. An atom is the
(a) Smallest particle of water (b) Smallest particle of a gas
(c) Smallest indivisible particle of an element that can take part in a chemical change
(d) Radioactive emission
31. The number of moles in 6.4g of SO2 is
(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 0.1 (d) 6.4
32. The combining capacity of an atom of element is called as
(a) Valency (b) Variable valency (c) Electro valency (d) Valence electrons
33. The number of valence electrons in X and Y is 2 and 6, their formula will be [CET 2010]
(a)XY (b)XY2 (c)X2Y (d)X6Y2
34. Name the scientist who proposed atomic theory of matters?
(a) John Dalton (b) J.J Thomson (c) Rutherford (d) Maharishi Kanad
35. Which law states that matter can neither be created nor destroyed during any physical and chemical change?
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Law of definite proportion
(c) Law of constant proportions (d) Law of multiple proportions
36. The percentage of Oxygen in NaOH is
(a) 40 % (b) 60 % (c) 8 % (d) 10 %
37. The molar mass of C2H4 is
(a) 16 amu (b) 32 amu (c) 28 amu (d) 20 amu
38. Which of the following is a polyatomic ion?
(a) Zn2+ (b) PO3- (c) Mg2+ (d) Cr3+
39. What is the weight of 10 mole of Calcium in grams?
(a) 62 g (b) 130 g (c) 316 g (d) 400 g
40. Which is the correct symbol of an element?
(a) SN (b) CO (c) Cu (d) PB
41. What is the mass of 2.5 moles of methane (CH4)?
(a) 20 u (b) 40 u (c) 60 u (d) 80 u
42. How many gram moles are present in 18 g of H2O?
(a) 6.022 x 1020 (b) 9 g mole (c) 6.022 x 1022 (d) 6.022 x 1023
43. Carbon and Oxygen combine in ratio 3:8 by mass to form carbon dioxide. What mass of oxygen would be
required to react completely with 6 g of carbon?
(a) 22g (b) 13g (c) 16g (d) 6g
44. The number of molecules in 9g of water about
(a) 3 x 1023 (b) 9 x 1023 (c) 54 x 1023 (d) none of these
45. Calculate the formula of aluminium sulphates is
(a) Al 2SO4 (b) AlSO4 (c) Al 2 (SO4)3 (d) Al3 (SO4)2
46. The formula unit mass of Na2SO4.10H2O is
(a) 142 u (b) 322 u (c) 286 u (d) 23 u
Structure of atom
51. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of α- particles showed for the first time that the atom has
(a) Nucleus (b) Protons (c) Electrons (d) Neutrons
52. Neutrons were discovered by [CET 2010]
(a)Goldstein (b)Rutherford (c)Chadwick (d)Neils Bohr
53. Isotopes have
(a) Same number of neutrons (b) Same no. of electrons but different no. of protons
(c) Same no. of protons & neutrons (d) same no. of electrons & protons
54. The nitrogen atom has 7 protons and 7 electrons. The N3- ion will have
(a) 7 protons & 7 electrons (b) 7 protons & 4 electrons
(c) 4 protons & 7 electrons (d) 7 protons & 10 electrons
55. Nucleons are
(a) Protons and neutrons (b) Neutrons and electrons
(c) Protons and electrons (d) Protons, neutrons & electrons
56. Iron-59 is used for detecting cases of
(a) Cancer (b) Thyroid disorder (c) Rickets (d) Anemia
57. Which configuration of electrons represents Sodium?
(a) 2, 8, 4 (b) 2, 8, 5 (c) 2, 3 (d) 2, 8, 1
58. Which of the following doesn’t have neutrons?
(a) H (b) He (c) Ne (d) C
59. Isotopes have same
(a) Atomic no. (b) Chemical properties (c) no. of protons (d) All of these
60. C-14 is used in
(a) Cancer (b) Leukemia (c) Radio carbon dating (d) Thyroid disorder
61. I-131 is used in the treatment of
(a) Cancer (b) Leukemia (c) Thyroid disorder (d) Blockage of articles
62.Co-60 is used in treatment of [CET 2009]
(a) Cancer tumors (b) AIDS (c) Swine flu (d) Blockage of articles
nd
63. The maximum no. of electrons in II shell are
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 18 (d) 32
(a) Eating sugar (b) drinking cold water (c) Basic tooth paste (d) both ‘a’ & ‘b’
144.Which acid is present in vinegar?
(a) Citric (b) Acetic acid (c) Lactic acid (d) Tartaric acid
145.pH of a salt formed by a strong acid and weak base is
(a) more than 7 (b) less than 7 (c) equal to 0 (d) equal to 7
146. How many times a solution should be diluted to bring the pH from 2 to 5? [CET 2008]
(a) 3 times (b) 7 times (c) 10 times (d) 1000 times
147.pH of 0.001 M of NaOH is
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 11 (d) 14
148.Which is the strongest base?
(a) CaCO3 (b) NaOH (c) Mg (OH) 2 (d) Na2O
149. The compound used to disinfect the water is [CET 2009]
(a) CaOCl3 (b) CaSO4.2H2O (c) NaHCO3 (d) Na2CO3. 10H2O
150.Which is incorrect about Baking Soda?
(a) Its chemical name is Sodium Carbonate (b) It is an ingredient of antacid
(c) It is used to make baking powder (d) It is used in soda –acid fire extinguisher
151.Which is used by doctors to support the fractured bone?
(a) P.O.P (b) Calcium carbonate (c) Bleaching powder (d) Sodium bicarbonate
152. HCl reacts with NaOH to form salt and water, this reaction is called [CET 2009]
(a) Precipitation reaction (b) Neutralization (c) Redox reaction (d) Combination reaction
153. What is the formula of Gypsum? [CET 2009]
(a) CaSO4.1/2H2O (b) CaSO4.2H2O (c) CaSO4 (d) CaCO3.2H2O
154.Highest OH- ion concentration will be when
(a) pH= 0 (b) pH = 7 (c) pH=1 (d) pH=14
155.Aqueous solution of NH4Cl, has Ph
(a) < 7 (b) > 7 (c) =7 (d) = 0
156. Na + HCl NaCl + ?
(a) CO2 (b) N2 (c) H2 (d) Cl2
157. Which is not correctly matched?
(a) Curd Lactic acid (b) Tomato Oxalic acid
(c) Nettle sting Methanoic acid (d) Orange Tartaric acid
158. Bleaching powder is prepared by passing chlorine gas over dry
(a) Calcium chloride (b) Calcium carbonate (c) Slaked lime (d) CaSO4
159. pH value of blood is [CET 2008 & 2009]
(a) 0 (b) 7 (c) 7.4 (d) 14
160. How many crystals of water are attached to a molecule of Gypsum?
(a) 1 (b) ½ (c) 1 ½ (d) 2
161. Which of the following is a weak acid?
(a) CH3COOH (b) H2SO4 (c) HNO3 (d) HCl
162. Which compound has {H+} = {OH-}?
(a) H2O (b) HCl (c) H2SO4 (d) NaOH
163. Brine is [CET 2009]
(a) NaCl (s) (b) NaCl (aq) (c) H2SO4 (aq) (d) Ca (OH) 2
164. A solution has pH value 10; it may be [CET 2009]
(a) HCl (b) H2O (c) NaOH (d) CH3COOH
165. Aqua Regia contains 3:1 mixture of [CET 2008]
(a) HCl & H2SO4 (b) HNO3 & H2SO4 (c) HCl & HNO3 (d) HNO3 & HCl
+
166.The pH of a solution is 5.0, if H ion concentration is decreased 100 times, then the solution will be
(a) More acidic (b) neutral (c) Basic (d) of the same acidity
167.Which of the following is known as Hydronium ion?
(a) H+ (b) H2O+ (c) H3O+ (d) OH-
168.pH value of 1.0 Mole of HCl is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 13 (d) 14
169.An element having electronic configuration 2, 8, 2 will form
(a) Acidic oxide (b) Basic oxides (c) Amphoteric Oxides (d) neutral oxides
170.In solution, the Hydrogen ions exist as
(a) H+ (b) Either H+ or H-
(c) H3O+ (d) H+ surrounded by several water molecules
171.A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains
(a) HCl (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) KCl
172. What is the pH of acid rain?
(a) > 5 (b) 8 (c) < 5.6 (d) +5
173. pH of human blood lies in between
(a) 6.5-7.0 (b) 7.0-7.8 (c) 7.5-8.0 (d) 8.05-8.35
174.pH of a solution having HCl concentration of 1M is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 10 (d) 14
175.The pH of solution is 5. Its Hydrogen ion concentration is decreased 100 times. Then the solution will be
(a) Basic (b) Acidic (c) Neutral (d) none of these
176.The pH of 0.01 M NaOH solution is
(a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 14
177.Tooth enamel contains
(a) Calcium chloride (b) Calcium Phosphate (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Calcium sulphate
178.Bleaching powder is used as
(a) A germicide (b) An oxidizing agent (c) A disinfectant (d) All of these
+
179.If the pH of the solution is 3 and if its pH changes from 3 to 5 then H ion concentration
(a) Increased by 2 times (b) Increased by 20 times
(c) Increased by 100 times (d) increased by 1000 times
+
180.If H3O ion concentration is increased by 10 times, then its pH will decreased by_______ times
(a) 1 (b) 100 (c) 1000 (d) 105
181.Gypsum is
(a) CaSO4.2H2O (b) CaCO3.3H2O (c) CaSO4. H2O (d) CaSO4. H2O
182.Which of the following gases is evolved when baking soda reacts with an acid?
(a) H2 (b) O2 (c) CO2 (d) CH4
MISCELLANEOUS CHEMISTRY
(a) Bleaching powder (b) Washing Soda (c) Baking soda (d) Plaster of Paris
373. Controlled nuclear chain reaction is carried out it is
(a) Nuclear reactor (b) Atom bomb (c) Hydrogen bomb (d) Sun
374. Heavy water is called heavy because it is
(a) A heavy liquid (b) An oxide of heavier Isotope of oxygen
(c) Denser than water (d) an oxide of deuterium
375. Nuclear energy is the result of
(a) Conversion of volume to energy (b) A chemical reaction
(c) Conversion of mass into energy (d) Conversion of potential energy to kinetic energy
376. Which reaction takes place when hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide react with each other
(a) Combination (b) Decomposition (c) Neutralization (d) Displacement
377. What is the formula of White Vitriol? [CET 2010]
(a)CuSO4.5H2O (b)ZnSO4 (c)FeSO4.7H2O (d)Na2SO4.10H2O
378. In nuclear reactor, which is used as a moderator?
(a) Cadmium (b) Boron (c) Silicon (d) Graphite
379. Acids and bases react to form salt and water. This reaction is called
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Combination (c) Neutralization (d) Electrolysis
380. Brass is an alloy of
(a) Copper & Zinc (b) Copper & Aluminum (c) Copper & Magnesium (d) Copper & Tin
381. Hard water contains
(a) Hydrogen carbonates of Ca or Mg (b) Chlorides of Ca or Mg
(c) Sulphates of Ca or Mg (d) All of these
382. The most ductile metal is
(a) Cu (b) Au (c) Ag (d) Fe
383. Which is NOT an amphoteric oxide?
(a) ZnO (b) Al2O3 (c) Na2O (d) SnO2
384. The Baking Soda is
(a) NaHCO3 (b) Na2CO3 (c) NaCl (d) CaOCl2
385. Which statement is not correct for the following reaction CuO + H2→ Cu + H2O?
(a) CuO is reduced to Cu (b) H2 is oxidized to H2O
(c) CuO is oxidized to Cu (d) None of these
386. pH of 0.001 Mole NaOH is
(a) 3 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 2
387. Which of the following is used in bleaching agents and insecticides ? [CET 2010]
(a)dioxygen (b)dihydrogen (c)dichlorine (d)dinitrogen
388. L.P.G is mainly mixture of
(a) Methane + Ethane (b) Butane+Isobutane (c) Acetylene+O2 (d) Acetylene+H2
389. Which of the following is saturated hydrocarbon?
(a) C4H10 (b) C2H4 (c) C2H2 (d) C3H5
390. How many molecules are present in 0.2 gm Hydrogen?
(a) 6.023 x 1023 (b) 6.023 x 1022 (c) 6.023 x 1024 (d) None of these
391. An α particle is
(a) A Hydrogen nucleus (b) A Helium nucleus (c) An electron (d) A proton
392. Which compound can give addition reaction?
(a) Ethene (b) Methane (c) Propane (d) Butane
393. Which of the following is a weak electrolyte?
(a) KCl (b) NaCl (c) KCN (d) CH3COOH
394. Which of the following represents an alcohol?
(a) R-COOH (b) R-CHO (c) R-CH2-OH (d) R-C=O-R
395. Which of the following is smaller in size?
(a) Na+ (b) N3- (c) O2- (d) F-
396. If we move from top to bottom in a group, atomic radius
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains same (d) None of these
397. Aqua Regia is a mixture of concentrated
(a) HCL & H2SO4 (b) HNO3 & H2SO4 (c) HCL & HNO3 (d) H2CO3 & H2SO4
398. Which sub atomic particles is not present in Hydrogen?
(a) Electron (b) Proton (c) Neutron (d) Nucleus
399. Homologue of ethyne is
(a) C6H12 (b) C 5H10 (c) C4H6 (d) C3H4
400. The acid produced in our stomach is
(a) HCl (b) H2SO4 (c) HNO3 (d) CH3COOH
401. The mass of an atom is expressed in
(a) Kg (b) g (c) a.m.u (d) mg
402. Einstein’s mass – energy relation is:
(a) E=m2/c (b) E=mc2 (c) E=1/2mv2 (d) E= mgh
403. Which of the following contains ionic as well as covalent solution? [CET 2008]
(a) H2O (b) CO2 (c) NH4Cl (d) MgO
404. Which turns pink solution of phenolphthalein into a colorless solution?
(a) Salt (b) Bases (c) Acids (d) None of these
405. Carborundum is
(a) Silicon dioxide (b) Silicon carbide (c) Silicon nitride (d) Silicon Phosphate
406. C12H22O11 is formula of
(a) Glucose (b) Sugar (c) Common salt (d) none of these
407. Which of the following is not a noble gas?
(a) Helium (b) Xenon (c) Radium (d) Radon
408. Canal rays were discovered by [CET 2009]
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) Rutherford (c) E. Goldstein (d) Neil Bohr
409. pH of 0.01 mole of HCl is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 7
410. Acids in water furnish
(a) H+ ions (b) OH+ ions (c) O- ions (d) None of these
411. Laughing gas is [AMU 2009]
BIOLOGY
THE CELL
TISSUES
8. Which of the following tissues is made up of dead cells?
(a)parenchyma (b)collenchyma (c)sclerenchyma (d)phloem
9. Cardiac muscles are present in
(a)stomach (b)heart (c)brain (d)skin
10. The structural and functional unit of the nervous system is
(a)neuron (b)dendrite (c)axon (d)cyton
11. Which of the following is the example of Compound Tissue?
(a)xylem (b)phloem (c)both (d)none of these
12. Which muscle is called voluntary muscle?
(a)striated muscle (b)unstriated muscle (c)cardiac muscle (d)both a and b
13. A very tough substance lignin is present in
(a)xylem (b)parenchyma (c)collenchyma (d)sclerenchyma
14. Blood is a
(a)epithelium tissue (b)simple tissue (c)fluid connective tissue (d)plant tissue
15. Adipose tissue stores [CET 2008]
(a)protein (b)fats (c)carbohydrate (d)water
LIFE PROCESSES
16. Villi are present in
(a)liver (b)stomach (c)small intestine (d)oesophagus
17. Which of the following protects the inner lining of the stomach from HCl?
(a)pepsin (b)mucous (c)trypsin (d)bile juice
18. Which part of the human heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
(a) right ventricle (b)left ventricle (c)right atrium (d)left atrium
19. Tubes extending from kidneys to bladder
(a)vas deferens (b)urethra (c)ureters (d)oesophagus
20. Function of stomata
(a)transpiration (b)exchange of gases (c)both (d)none of these
21. During the process of digestion, the intestinal juice converts the carbohydrates into
(a)glycerol (b)amino acid (c)fatty acid (d)glucose
22. Bile Juice is secreted by
(a)liver (b)stomach (c)gall bladder (d)intestine
23. Gastric juice contains
(a)pepsin enzyme (b)HCl (c)mucous (d)all of these
24. Which is the largest vein of the human heart?
(a)vena cava (b)aorta (c) pulmonary vein (d)pulmonary artery
25. Emulsification of fats is done by
(a)amylase (b)pepsin (c)trypsin (d)bile juice
26. The Oxygenated blood is carried from lungs to left auricle by [CET 2010]
(a)vena cava (b)pulmonary vein (c)pulmonary artery (d)aorta
(a) Cotyledon, plumule and radicle (b) Plumule, radical and cotyledon
(c) Plumule, cotyledon and radicle (d) Radicle, cotyledon and plumule
63. Which among the following is not the function of testis at puberty?
(i) Formation of germs cells (ii) Secretion of testosterone
(iii) Development of Placenta (iv) Secretion of estrogen
(a) (i) and(ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
MISCELLANEOUS BIOLOGY
79. The growth of pollen tube is an example of
(a) Geotropism (b) Hydrotropism
(c) Chemotropism (d) Secondary growth
80. Fission is NOT a process of reproduction in
(a) Hydra (b) Bacteria (c) Plasmodium (d) Amoeba
81. Identify the correctly matched pair
(a) Stigma – stamen (b) Plumule – future shoot
(c) Pollen tube – female germ cell (d) Carpel – male gamete
82. Which of the following is a male contraceptive device or method?
(a) Copper-T (b) Vasectomy (c) Oral pills (d) Tubectomy
83. ATP is
(a) An amino acid (b) A protein (c) A glycolipid (d) A nucleotide
84. In case of repeated binary fission, how many amoebae will be produced after ten cycles of fission
from one amoeba? [HARYANA POLYTECHNIC-2010]
(a) 1024 (b) 1012 (c) 1048 (d) 2048
85. Where does the ovum get fertilized in human beings?
(a) Cervix (b) Vagina (c) Fallopian tube (d) Uterus
86. Osteoporosis is caused by deficiency of
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
87. DPT vaccine is taken against which of the following group of diseases?
(a) Diphtheria, Polio, Typhoid (b) Diphtheria, Polio, Tetanus
(c) Diphtheria, Pertusis, Typhoid (d) Diphtheria, Pertusis, Tetanus
88. In muscles during exercise, breakdown of glucose produces
(a) Lactic acid (b)Hydrochloric acid (c) Ethanol (d) Pyruvic acid
89. Oxygen – rich blood from the lungs comes to the
(a) Left Atrium (b) Right Atrium (c) Left ventricle (d) Right ventricle
90. Which one of the following is NOT a part of the male reproductive system in human?
(a) Seminal vesicles (b) Prostate gland (c) Vas deferens (d) Fallopian tube
91. Which one of the following is ecofriendly practice?
(a) Use of polyethylene bag (b) Carrying cloths bag to make purchases
(c) Smoking (d) Burning garbage in open
92. Which one of the following is a fungal disease?
(a) AIDS (b) Ring worm (c) Chicken-pox (d) Cancer
93. The process in which different types of bacteria convert the nitrate into elemental nitrogen is
(a) Ammonification (b) Nitrification (c) Denitrification (d) Nitrogen fixation
94. For his experiment, Mendel selected the plant of [CET 2010]
(a)garden pea (b)wild pea (c)rose (d)tomato
95. Green house gases which are responsible for green house effect are
(a) Carbon dioxide, ammonia (b) Carbon monoxide, ozone
(c) Carbon monoxide, methane (d) Carbon dioxide, methane
96. In the following equation “X” represents:
Pyruvate ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ “X”+ lactic acid
(a) CO2 (b) H2O (c) Energy (d) glucose
97. Ligament connects [CET 2010]
(a)muscles to bones (b)muscles to muscles (c)bones to bones (d)cells to cells
98. Which is the largest gland in human body?
(a) Stomach (b) Liver (c) Heart (d) Pancreas
99. Which of the following sets of cells organelles contain DNA?
(a) Nucleus, Ribosome, Golgi body (b) Chloroplast, ER, Lysosomes
(c) Vacuole, Nucleus, Chloroplast (d) Nucleus, Mitochondria, Plastid
100. Which of the following is an example of analogous organ?
(a) Wings of bird and wings of fly (b) Forelimbs of frog and human being
(c) Forelimbs of man and horse (d) All of these
101. Crop of cauliflower and cabbage are the examples of
(a) Natural selection (b) artificial selection (c) Speciation (d) Regeneration
102. Human saliva contains
(a) Amylase (b) Lipase (c) trypsin (d) Pepsin
103. The basic functional unit of kidney is
(a) Neuron (b) Nephron (c) Cerebellum (d) Liver
104. Glycolysis for the formation of Pyruvate takes place in
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Mitochondria (c) Chloroplast (d) Nucleus
105. CO2 and H2O are formed during aerobic respiration in
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Chloroplast (c) Mitochondria (d) Chromosome
106. Blood corpuscles which help in the blood clotting at the site of injury are
(a) RBCs (b) WBCs (c) Platelets (d) All of these
107. Instrument used to measure the blood pressure is
(a) Haemocytometer (b) Haemometer
(c) Sphygmomanometer (d) Stethoscope
108. Which part of heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
(a) Right atrium (b) Left atrium (c) Right ventricle (d) Left ventricle
109. The basic functional unit of human kidney is
(a) Nephron (b) Nephridia (c) Glomerulus (d) Bowman’s capsule
(a) Left ventricle (b) Vena cava (c) Pulmonary vein (d) Right ventricle
127. The smallest blood vessel in the body is
(a) Artery (b) Capillary (c) Vein (d) None of these
128. Which is the scientific name of vitamin D?
(a) Bacin (b) Pyridoxine (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Calciferol
129. Kwashiorkor is a disease caused by the deficiency of
(a) Vitamins (b) Protein & Energy (c) Iron (d) All of these
130. Vitamin essential in blood clotting is
(a) Vitamin B (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin K
131. Adrenaline hormone is secreted by
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Pancreas (c) Thyroid gland (d) Adrenal gland
132. The male reproductive organs in plants are
(a) Sepals (b) Stamens (c) Petals (d) Carpel
133. Name the test to determine AIDS
(a) Ultrasound (b) ELISA (c) X-ray (d) Sonography
134. Pollen grains are produced by
(a) Filament (b) Style (c) Ovary (d) Anther
135. On which plant Medal carried out his investigations?
(a) Gram (b) Pigeon Pea (c) Garden Pea (d) Peanuts
136. An organism called archaeopteryx has got characteristics of both
(a) Birds & Reptiles (b) Birds & Mammals
(c) Reptiles & mammals (d) None of these
137. How many chromosomes are present in human beings? [CET 2010]
(a)44 (b)23 (c)46 (d)22
138. Which of the following organs is not a respiratory organ?
(a) Lungs (b) Gills (c) Kidney (d) Skin
139. Glomerulus is part of
(a) Nephron (b) Brain (c) Neuron (d) Stomach
140. The colour of Lymph is
(a) Red (b) Blue (c) Yellow (d) White
141. Absorption of food occurs in
(a) Stomach (b) Small intestine (c) Large intestine (d) Esophagus
142. Reflex actions are controlled by
(a) Brain (b) Spinal cord (c) Cerebrum (d) Hormones
143. A hormone that promotes falling of leaves
(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Ethylene (d) Abscisic Acid
144. Which of the following parts of Bryophyllum take part in vegetative propagation?
(a) Leaves (b) Root (c) Stem (d) Flower
ENGLISH
Select the correct spelling from the following:-
59. DILIGENT
(a)hard working (b)clever (c)intelligent (d) energetic
60. VICTIM
(a)empty (b)vacant (c)prey (d)target
61. FOE
(a)client (b)partner (c)friend (d)enemy
62. PROFOUND
(a)loss (b)ready (c)deep (d)damage
63. CONSEQUENCE
72. BRAVE
(a)enemy (b)bold (c)valiant (d)timid
73. CONSTANT
(a)hard (b)brittle (c)bright (d)variable
74. ARTIFICIAL
(a)natural (b)solid (c)authentic (d)truthful
75. EXTERIOR
(a)internal (b)interior (c)inner (d)inwards
76. OPAQUE
(a)misty (b)covered (c)translucent (d)transparent
77. MINOR
(a)heavy (b)tall (c)major (d)big
78. ALIEN
(a)resident (b)natural (c)human (d)native
79. REPEL
(a)attract (b)concentrate (c)attend (d)continue
80. INNOCENT
(a)sinful (b)guilty (c)deadly (d)corruption
81. FRIEND